1. Which of the following is the best example of disruptive innovation?

A. Spotify
B. CPF
C. Nokia
D. Irvin's
2. Which is NOT one of the factors affecting an organisation's capacity to change?
A. Resources
B. Processes
C. Connection
D. Values
3. In the early stages of an organisation, which factor(s) is dominant?
A. Values
B. Resources
C. Resources and Processes
D. Values and Processes
4. What is classified as a value in the article?
A. How companies judge acceptable gross margins
B. Respect & Sincerity
C. Size of an organisation
D. Monetary contracts

5. How does the locus of the organisation's capabilities change over time?
A. Resources \rightarrow→ Values \rightarrow→People
B. Resources \rightarrow→Network \rightarrow→Processes
C. Resources \rightarrow→Values \rightarrow→Innovation
D. Resources \rightarrow→Values & Processes
6. What is a characteristic of the Freemium model?
A. Not a legitimate business model
B. Basic features offered at no cost; advanced features at a premium
C. Basic and advanced features are offered on a case by case basis
D. No features are offered in this model
7. What is the difference between sustaining and disruptive innovation?
A. Spelling
B. One makes a product better in a way that customers in mainstream market already value;
other creates an entirely new market through introduction of a new product that is worse
initially
C. One makes a product better in a way that customers in unique market potentially value;
other creates an entirely new market
D. One makes a product better in a way that customers in mainstream market already value;
other creates an entirely new market through introduction of a new product that is better
initially
8. What is the final stage of the migration of capabilities?
A. Processes
B. Processes & Values
C. Organisation's efficacy
D. Organisation's culture
9. Which is NOT a way companies can create capabilities to cope with change?
A. Use heavyweight teams
B. Integrating acquired company
C. Spin out organizations
D. Downsizing

10. What is a key feature of disruptive innovation?

A. Easy to handle
B. Incremental improvements
C. Happens in low end / growth markets
D. Always perform better

11. What percentage of CEOs expect their industries to be substantially or unrecognizably

transformed by the phenomenon of digital disruption and the underlying digital disruption
technology?
A. 20%
B. 35%
C. 50%
D. 75%
12.What do CEOs consider their top three business priorities for 2016, in order from most to least
cited?
A. Customers, growth, workforce
B. Growth, customers, workforce
C. Workforce, growth, customers
13. From almost nothing just a few years ago, which lifestyle digital disruption technology is soaring
to a worldwide market of more than $2 billion in 2016?
A. Wi-Fi controlled lighting
B. Virtual reality hardware
C. 8K televisions
14.People who work in the computer and networking sectors cite what as the biggest impediment to
a digital transition?

A. Insufficient budget
B. Lack of vision among executives
C. Fears about security
D. Immature digital disruption technology
E. Inadequate technical expertise
15. In which of these industries are executives bracing for the most upheaval due to digital
disruption?
A. Media
B. Telecom
C. Consumer financial services
D. Retail
E. Insurance

16.Bonus question: What was the British band Status Quo's biggest hit in the United States? (This
has nothing to do with digital disruption technology.)
A. "Ice in the Sun"
B. "Rockin' all over the World"
C. "Pictures of Matchstick Men"

17.Innovation is defined as:

a) the commercialization of a new product or process.
b) the invention of a new product or process.
c) a new product or process idea.
d) the implementation of a new production method.
18.Process innovation refers to:
a) the development of a new service.
b) the development of a new product.
c) the implementation of a new or improved production method.
d) the development of new products or services.

19. Innovation can help to provide a temporary competitive advantage when

a) barriers to entry are high.
b) barriers to imitation are low and intellectual property rights are difficult to enforce.
c) there are few other competitors.
d) barriers to entry are low.
20. Following establishment of a dominant design in the product life cycle, what would you expect to
happen?
a) Emphasis on product innovation rather than process innovation.
b) Emphasis on process innovation rather than product innovation.
c) Competition to increase as new firms enter the industry.
d) Competition to decrease as more firms exit than enter the industry.

21.Established firms relative to new firms are better at:

a) all types of innovation.
b) innovation which is competence-enhancing.
c) innovation which is competence-destroying.
d) Innovation which is disruptive.

22.In which markets are network effects likely?

a) Markets subject to increasing returns
b) 'Tippy' markets
c) Hi-tech product markets
d) All of the above

23.Which of the following are valuable in a standards war?

a) Competitive advantage
b) Late mover advantage
c) Early mover advantage
d) Technological advantage

24.The fundamental challenge of knowledge transfer in multinational firms is:

a) transferring explicit knowledge across borders.
b) transferring tacit knowledge across borders.
c) creating tacit knowledge in overseas subsidiaries.
d) transferring tacit and explicit knowledge across borders.
25. What potential advantages can be gained from involving overseas subsidiaries in R&D activities?
a) Local subsidiaries offer financial advantages such as lower land and labour costs.
b) Local subsidiaries offer access to local companies.
c) Local subsidiaries offer access to technical knowledge and skills.
d) Local subsidiaries offer financial advantages as well as access to local markets, technical
knowledge and skills.

26. Outsourcing of innovation globally is more likely where:

a) Innovations are autonomous
b) Innovations are systemic
c) Innovations are systemic or autonomous
d) Innovations are made by service sector firms

27.In childhood disorders there are different types of problems such as Symptom-Based Disorders.
One such disorder is known as enuresis, which means:
a) Sleepwalking
b) Bedwetting
c) Lack of bowel control
d) Stammering

28. In childhood disorders there are different types of problems such as Symptom-Based Disorders.
One such disorder is known as encopresis, which means:
a) Lack of bowel control
b) Bedwetting
c) Stammering
d) Sleepwalking

29. In childhood disorders there are different types of problems such as Symptom-Based Disorders.
One such disorder is known as somnambulism, which means:
a) Stammering
b) Bedwetting
c) Lack of bowel control
d) Sleepwalking
30. Which of the following is an area of psychology that is concerned with mapping how early
childhood experiences may act as risk factors for later diagnosable psychological disorders, and
attempts to describe the pathways by which early experiences may generate adult psychological
problems?
a) Clinical psychopathology
b) Developmental psychopathology
c) Applied psychopathology
d) Cognitive psychopathology
31. Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) is a childhood disorder known as:
a) Hypokinetic disorders
b) Hyperactivity disorders
c) Hyperkinetic disorders
d) Hyperstasis disorders

32. Which of the following are risk factors for childhood psychiatric disorders?
a) Parental psychopathology,
b) Repeated early separation from parents
c) Harsh or inadequate parents
d) All of the above

33. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) studies of the brains of individuals with ADHD have revealed
a number of significant differences between ADHD sufferers and nonsufferers (e.g. Krain &
Castellanos, 2006; Seidman, Valera & Makris, 2005). Evidence suggests that the brains of children
with ADHD are smaller than those of healthy comparison children, with overall brain volume being
smaller by an average of?
a) 4.2%
b) 3.2%
c) 5.2%
d) 6.2%
34. Children with ADHD are known to have deficits in which of the following brain areas?
a) Perception
b) Motor functioning
c) Executive functioning
d) Memory

35. Children with ADHD are known to have deficits in executive functioning, and specifically have
difficulty inhibiting responses. Which of the following brain areas normally controls these types of
functions?
a) The thalamus
b) The amygdala
c) The parietal lobes
d) The frontal lobes

36. Which of the following is an area of the brain that regularly exhibits abnormalities in association
with ADHD symptoms?
a) Meninges
b) Corpus callosum
c) Cerebellum
d) Limbic system
37. The term Theory of mind refers to which of the following abilities?
a) Have telepathic abilities
b) Understand one's own and other people's mental states
c) Lack of meta-cognition
d) All of the above
38. Which of the following characteristics are present in conduct disorder?
a) Violent or aggressive behaviour
b) Deliberate cruelty towards people or animals
c) Vandalism or damage to property
d) All of the above

39. Another disruptive behaviour disorder outlined in DSM-IV-TR is known as Oppositional Defiant
Disorder (ODD). ODD is a diagnosis usually reserved for those children who do not meet the full
criteria for conduct disorder, but display which of the following?
 a) Regular temper tantrums
b) Refuse to comply with requests or instructions
c) Appear to deliberately indulge in behaviours that annoy others
d) All of the above

40. Aggressive children also exhibit what is called a "hostile attributional bias" (Naseby, Hayden &
DePaulo, 1979), where they will interpret ambiguous cues as signalling hostility, but also many cues
which are generated by benign intentions. Once a hostile attribution is made, studies also suggest
that the probability of an aggressive response is at what percent?
a) 25%
b) 70%
c) 50%
d) 10%
41. When children are exposed to uncertainty and stress early in their lives they may experience a
range of emotions, including rejection, fear, confusion, anger, hatred, and misery. Consequently the
individual may become withdrawn and inward-looking. This is known as:
a) Externalising disorder
b) Dissocialise disorder
c) Internalising disorder
d) Attachment disorder
42. Obsessive Compulsive Disorder (OCD) is now recognised as a relatively common anxiety disorder
found in childhood, with the main features of the disorder in children manifesting as intrusive,
repetitive thoughts, obsessions and compulsions. In children, the most common obsession themes in
children are:
a) Contamination
b) Aggression
c) Symmetry and exactness
d) All of the above

43. According to Tracey, Chorpita, Douban & Barlow (1997), childhood Generalised Anxiety Disorder
is differentiated from other forms of childhood anxiety due to being associated with significantly
increased levels of:
a) Disordered thinking
b) Intrusive thoughts
c) Pathological checking
 d) Pathological worrying

44. Epidemiological studies have differed in their estimates of GAD in childhood populations. A UK
study estimated the occurrence of Generalised Anxiety Disorder in less than what percentage of 5-
10 yr olds?
a) 5%
b) 1%
c) 15%
d) 23%

45. Lichtenstein & Annas (2000) estimated the prevalence for specific phobias in 8-9 year-olds to be
around what percentage for boys?
a) 10%
b) 2%
c) 7%
d) 15%

46. In early childhood, depression will manifest as clingy behaviour, school refusal and exaggerated
fears. It is also associated with an increased frequency of somatic complaints, such as stomach aches
and headaches. Which of the following percentage of adolescents up to 19 years of age will have
experienced a diagnosable episode of depression?
a) 12%
b) 55%
c) 45%
d) 28%

47. DSM-IV-TR defines enuresis as the repeated, usually involuntary voiding of urine during the day
or at night into either bed or clothes. To qualify for a diagnosis, the voiding of urine must occur at
least twice a week for at least 3 months, and the child must be at least 5-years of age. Enuresis can
be divided into primary and secondary. Which of the following describes secondary enuresis?
a) When bladder control is still problematic, but the child has been dry for a period of
up to 6 months
b) When the child experiences lose of bladder control at night
c) When the child has never experienced a lengthy spell of bladder control
d) When the child looses bladder control at school
48. According to von Gontard, Hollman, Eiberg, Benden et al. (1997), secondary nocturnal enuresis is
frequently associated with a higher incidence of which of the following factors?
a) Pre-natal malnutrition
b) Parental separation
c) Gender
d) dDiet

49. Which is the most common form of stimulant medication for ADHD?
a) Vitalin
b) Benzodiazepine
c) Ritalin
d) Amylnitrate

50. Which of the following is a widely-used classical conditioning method for treating nocturnal
enuresis?
a) Bell-and-whistle technique
b) Bell-and-battery technique
c) Alarm system technique
d) Bell book and candle technique

51. Which of the following is behaviour technique that has been successfully adapted to treat
anxiety-based problems in children?
a) Systematic desensitization
b) Systemic family therapy
c) Cognitive behavioural therapy
d) Electro-convulsive therapy

52. According to Fabiano, Pelham, Manos, Gnagy et al. (2004), an effective means of reducing
disruptive behaviours including aggressiveness, destruction of property, and non-compliance in the
classroom is?
a) Time-out (TO) from positive reinforcement
b) Time-out (TO) of the classroom
c) Corporal punishment
d) Detention
53. According to Kazdin & Weisz (2003), teaching parents to identify and reward positive behaviour
also helps to prevent parents from focussing on the negative and disruptive behaviours exhibited by
children with both ADHD and conduct disorder. This can be achieved through:
a) Time-out (TO) from positive reinforcement
b) Systemic family therapy
c) Behaviour management techniques
d) Parent training programs

54. Which of the following interventions is based on the view that childhood problems result from
inappropriate family structure and organisation?
a) Systemic family therapy
b) Parent training programmes
c) Functional family therapy
d) All of the above

55. Which of the following teaches parents a range of techniques for controlling and managing their
children's symptoms, especially with children diagnosed with conduct disorder?
a) Systemic family therapy
b) Functional family therapy
c) Parent training programmes
d) All of the above

56. Which of the following is a technique that can be used with younger children who are less able to
communicate and express their feelings verbally?
a) Play therapy
b) Cognitive behaviour therapy
c) Systemic family therapy
d) Psychodynamic therapy
57. A key feature of electronic communications and digital technology is that they increase
dynamism within the marketplace so that it does not remain static. According to Hitwise in 2010,
what were the most popular sites?
a. Online gambling
b. Social network
c. Retail outlets
d. Search engines
58. Organisations that monitor and respond to changes in their online marketplace have the greatest
opportunity to use digital technologies to compete effectively. The process of continuously
monitoring the environment and events and responding appropriately is known as:
a. Environmental scanning and analysis
b. Situation analysis
c. Internet usage auditing
d. None of the above
59. The capacity to respond to environmental threats and opportunities is commonly known as:
a. Disruptive technology
b. SWOT analysis
c. Strategic agility
d. Online marketplace analysis
60. Analysis of the online marketplace is integral to developing a long-term e-business strategy or
creating a shorter term digital marketing campaign. To help understand links between online
businesses and traffic flows, this analysis can examine main elements in what is known as:
a. A generic and product specific search procedure
b. A clickthrough analysis
c. An online marketplace map
d. A customer segment flow chart
61. The main elements of an online marketplace or 'marketspace' map are:
a. Destination sites
b. Intermediaries and media sites
c. Search intermediaries
d. Customer segments
e. All of the above
62. The electronic marketplace channel structures describe the ways that products and services are
delivered to customers by manufacturers or selling organisations. Which one of the following terms
refers to 'cutting out the middleman'?
a. Countermediation
b. Disintermediation
c. Countermediation
d. None of the above
63. Online purchasers would generally use a combination of channels before completing their
transaction rather than use the Internet in isolation. What would you call a strategy that considers
how different marketing channels should integrate and support each other in terms of their
development and communications based on their relative merits for the customer and the
company?
a. Multi-channel customer journey
b. Marketplace channel mapping
c. A multi-channel marketing strategy
d. The customer journey

64. Identifying different types of online intermediaries as potential partners to promote an e-

business is a key part of marketplace analysis but what would be an example of an infomediary?
a. All of the below
b. Online audience panels (e.g. Hitwise)
c. Advertising networks (e.g. Doubleclick)
d. E-mail list brokers
65. Intermediaries vary in scope and the services they provide and many different types have
evolved and terms to describe them. Marketeers would need to understand these terms and an easy
question to start with. Which of the following are search engines?
a. Ask
b. Naver
c. Google
d. Baidu
e. They all are
66. While search engines index registered sites which users search by inputting key words, which
type of intermediary updates its content typically through text but can include video or audio
delivered through RSS feeds?
a. Access portal
b. Blog
c. Directory
d. Publisher site
67. A summary of how a company will generate a profit identifying its core product, target
customers, position in the online marketplace, and projections for revenue and costs is known as:
a. Value chain and marketplace positioning
b. Value proposition
c. Revenue model and cost base
d. Online business model

68. For a publisher, many options exist for generating income online based around advertising and
fees for usage of the online service. Which of the following describes the cost to the advertiser or
the revenue received by the publisher for each outcome such as a lead or sale generated after a click
to a third-party site?
 a. Cost per click - CPC
b. Cost per acquisition - CPA
c. Cost per thousand - CPM
d. Digital rights management
69. The success of eBay has highlighted the success of auction business models for the Internet. Klein
in 1997 identified which different roles for auctions?
a. Efficient allocation mechanisms
b. Distribution and coordination mechanisms
c. Price discovery
d. All of the above
70. When does a 'bricks and mortar' enterprise become known as clicks and mortar'?
a. None of the below
b. When a business has principally an online presence
c. When a business combines an online and offline presence
d. A traditional business with limited online presence
71. There are different auction business models and one that can be seen in business-to-business is a
reverse auction is. Which of the following is more applicable?
a. It is the same as a seller auction
b. It is intended to reduce the price by increasing competition between suppliers
c. Is always run through a B2B marketplace
d. None of the above
72. Baroda e-Gateway processes _____ transactions.
A. Internet Banking transactions only
B. Mobile Banking transactions
C. Visa & Master Card transactions
D. All e-banking transactions

73. The amount of penalty payable to customers for non-reimbursement of failed ATM transaction
amount within seven working days is ____.
A. Rs.1000
B. Rs.5000
C. Equivalent to transaction amount
D. Rs.100 per day from 8th working day of receiving complaint if complaint received within 30 days
from the date of transaction
74. ___ Nos. Financial and Non-Financial Transactions (both inclusive) during each calendar month is
free for Saving Bank Account Holder.
A. 4
B. 5
C. 7
D. 10

75. Information Technology Act was introduced in the year __

A. 1996
B. 2000
C. 2004
D. 2008

76. BarodaRemitXpress is an Online International Money Transfer Service provided in association

with
A. VISA
B. Master Card
C. Times of Money
D. UAEEFSL

77. The following are the services offered by Baroda Contact Centre
A. Branch / ATM Locator
B. Blocking of Debit Card
C. Stop Payment of Cheque
D. All the above

78. No. of ATM transactions allowed per day in Visa Platinum Debit Card is
A. 4
B. 5
C. 8
D. 10
79. Facility of Baroda Contact Centre is available daily to customers from
A. 10am to 5pm
B. 24 hours a day
C. 6am to 10 pm
D. 6am to 6pm

80. RuPay Card has been launched by ____

A. IDRBT
B. RBI
C. NPCI
D. IBA

81. How long have you been using the WWW?

a. Less than 1 month
b. 1 to 6 months
c. 6 to 12 months
d. More than 1 year
82. How many hours per week do you use your computer for fun/play?
a. Less than 1
b. 1 to 5 hours
c. 5 to 10 hours
d. 10 to 20 hours
e. over 20 hours
83. How many hours per week do you use your computer for work?
a. Less than 1
b. 1 to 5 hours
c. 5 to 10 hours
d. 10 to 20 hours
e. over 20 hours

84. How many hours per week do you use your computer for personal reasons?
a. Less than 1
b. 1 to 5 hours
c. 5 to 10 hours
d. 10 to 20 hours
e. over 20 hours
85. Have you performed any of the following activities on-line? (Please check all that apply)
a. Tax filing
b. Purchased/sold financial product (e.g., stock, bonds)
c. Neither of these
86. How frequently do you use telephone banking services per month (for example, balance inquiry,
fund transfer between accounts)?
a. Less than 1
b. 1 to 3 times
c. 3 to 8 times
d. 8 to 12 times
e. over 12 times
87.How frequently do you visit your bank branch per month?
a. Less than 1
b. 1 to 3 times
c. 3 to 8 times
d. 8 to 12 times
e. over 12 times

88. How frequently do you use an Automated Teller Machine (ATM) per month?
a. Less than 1
b. 1 to 3 times
c. 3 to 8 times
d. 8 to 12 times
e. over 12 times

89. What is the main reason that you typically visit your bank branch (please choose the single most
important reason)?
a. to make a deposit
b. to get advice for investment options
c. to inquire about a balance
d. to withdraw cash
e. other
90. Have you purchased any product through WWW?
a. Yes
b. No
91. Approximately how many times have you purchased any product through the Internet in the last
12 months?
a. Less than 1
b. 1 to 3 times
c. 3 to 8 times
d. 8 to 12 times
 e. over 12 times

92. In the past five years, other than for geographical relocation, how many times have you switched
to a different bank?
a. Never
b. 1 to 3 times
c. 3 to 8 times
d. over 8 times
93. Have you used (or are currently using) any off-the-shelf personal finance management software
programs (such as Quicken, MS Money, or Meca software)?
a. Yes
b. No
94. If you answered Yes to the previous question, how long have you been a regular user of such
software?
a. Less than 1 month
b. 1 to 6 months
c. 6 to 12 months
d. More than 1 year
e. Not applicable (check here if you answered "No" above)
95. For your on-line banking, which of the following category best explains your situation?
a. Your bank provides you with an application software program that operates on your PC. You
then dial into the bank via modem, download data, and operate the program that is resident
on your PC.
b. You use a Web browser, but the actual banking software resides on the bank's server in the
form of bank's home page.
c. Don't use either of these/don't use on-line banking
96. Do you have a bank account for which you interact with your bank mostly through a WWW
browser? (If yes, we refer to this type of bank account as an Internet bank account)
a. Yes
b. No

97. What was the single most important reason that you chose this particular bank as your Internet
bank? (please choose one)
a. I have a traditional bank account with the same bank
b. The brand name of the bank
c. The excellent service offered by this bank
d. Others
e. Not Applicable
98. In addition to your Internet bank account, do you also have a traditional bank account?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Not applicable
99. How likely is it that you will open an Internet bank account within the next 12 months?
a. Very Unlikely
b. Somewhat Unlikely
c. Neither Unlikely nor Likely
d. Somewhat Likely
e. Very Likely
f. Not applicable

100. Do you use Online Banking?

a. yes (Bank of Ireland)
b. yes (AIB)
c. yes (Ulster Bank)
d. yes (other)
e. no
101. What is your preferred communication with your bank? (you can choose many)

a. online via personal computer

b. online via smart phone
c. call centre
d. visit to the bank
e. atm
102. How do you connect to the Internet? (you can choose many)
a. broadband connection at home
b. broadband connection at school
c. broadband connection at work
d. mobile phone with interent access (mobile interent)
e. Other (please specify)
103. What is the main reason that you typically visit your bank branch (please choose the single most
important reason)?
a. to make a deposit
b. to get advice for investment options
c. to inquire about a balance
d. to withdraw cash
e. other
104. Tell us about yourself:
a. Male (under 25)
b. Male (25-35)
c. Male 35+
d. Female (under 25)
e. Female (25-35)
f. Female 35+

105. Occupation of chief income earner in the family:

a. Higher managerial/professional/administrative
b. Intermediate managerial/professional/administrative
c. Supervisory or clerical/junior managerial/professional
d. Skilled manual worker
e. Semi or unskilled manual work
f. Unemployed/casual work
g. Farmer 50+ acres, farm manager
h. Farmer under 50 acres, farm labour