CARPI ANDREA SOLUTIONS

STUDENT APPLICATION
PROMYS Europe 2016
Parma, Italy, 3/30/2016

1. If 𝑥 + 1 !""" is multiplied out, how many of the

coefficients are odd? How many are not divisible by 3? by
5? Can you generalize?

It is known that the coefficients of a binomial risen to its 𝑛!! power

are the same that appear in the 𝑛!! line of Tartaglia's triangle. Let
us now proceed by slightly modifying the triangle and substituting
the class of residual of that number 𝑚𝑜𝑑 2, to the value of each box,
and by colouring those with a value different from 0.

The figure can be visualised in another way. Starting from the box
at the top, we can imagine to “copy” it and “glue” it to its extremes.
Here is the triangle occupying lines 0, 1. Let us now “copy” the
figure we have thus obtained and let us “glue” it to its extremes,
“copy” again the figure we have thus obtained and let us “glue” it to
its extremes, repeating this process endlessly. This is the graphic
representation of the even and odd coefficients of 𝑥 + 1 !! .
Starting from this definition, another very interesting aspect can be
noted: since the figure is analysed according to the classes of
residual, the result is that each time that a triangle is “copied” and
“glued”, the one included in the lines that are occupied following
the second operation equals two times the first one. For this reason,

1
 by analysing each figure of the number in base 2, if it is 0, then the
multiplicative factor of the “copied” and “glued” figure is 1, while if
it is 1, then it is 2.
By applying this procedure to 1000, that is 1111101000 in base 2,
we can therefore affirm that the number of odd figures equals: 2! ,
that is 64.
Let us apply the same procedure to the triangle we had at the
beginning, but this time let us colour according to the value of the
classes of residual 𝑚𝑜𝑑 3.

In this case as well the final figure can be seen as the result of many
“copy and glue” steps. Here, however, the second operation is
repeated three times. In this way we have twice the values in the
first set of lines occupied, while we have three times the values in
the second set of lines. Therefore, to generalize, it can be affirmed
that it is sufficient to increase by one all the figures of the number
chosen in base 3 and multiply it out.

In the case of 1000, that is 1101001 in base 3, the result will be that
the number of coefficients not divisible by 3 of 𝑥 + 1 !""" is 2! , that
is 16.

Analysing the figure starting from the value of the classes of

residual 𝑚𝑜𝑑 5:

2
 We have that 1000 in base 5 is 13000. It follows that the number of
coefficients not divisible by 5 of 𝑥 + 1 !""" is 2 ∗ 4 that is 8.

Generalizing, given two numbers 𝑛, 𝑚 ∈ ℕ! , the number of

coefficients of 𝑥 + 1 ! which are not divisible by 𝑚 , can be
obtained by increasing each of the figures of the writing in base 𝑚
of 𝑛 of a unit, and by multiplying it out.

2. In how many ways can 2016 be written as a sum

𝑎! + 𝑎! · 2! + ⋯ + 𝑎! · 2! , if the 𝑎! are allowed to take the
values 0, 1, 2 or 3?
I’m defining:

𝑎! 2! + 𝑎! 2! + ⋯ + 𝑎! 2! = 𝑛; 𝑤𝑖𝑡ℎ 𝑘, 𝑛 ∈

Let’s build a chart as the one shown below: each column is a power
of 2! 𝑤𝑖𝑡ℎ 𝑘 ∈ ℕ, each row shows different multiplying factors
0,1,2,3.

3
 We could obtain all the possible combinations by choosing
conveniently a box for each column and summing their values
until we get the number requested. With “path” we mean the
sequence of the boxes we choose.
As we consider the chart we see that the only odd values present
are 1 and 3 in the column 2! . For this reason if 𝑛 is even, the path
could never pass across boxes with an odd content, since we would
need an even number of boxes with odd values. If, on the contrary,
𝑛 is odd, the path will necessarily start with 1 or 3, but in the rest of
its development it will be equal to that of its even predecessor. We
can then state that the number of valid paths to obtain an even
number 𝑛 and its successor is the same.
Besides we can see that the minimum quantity that can vary in the
possible paths is 2. So we can consider 𝑛 as the sum of the elements
of the couple 2𝑎, 𝑛 − 2𝑎 𝑤𝑖𝑡ℎ 𝑎, 𝑛 ∈ ℕ. It is easy to verify that
!
these couples are ! + 1. If we broaden this consideration also to
the case of 𝑛 odd, we can state that the number of possible paths is
!
!
+ 1, rounding down to an integer, if necessary.
In the case of 2016 we will then have 1009 possibilities.

3. The numbers 3, 5 and 7 are all prime, and form a triple of

evenly spaced numbers with spacing 2. Can you find any
other triples of evenly spaced prime numbers with
spacing 2? Can you find all such triples? Find more
examples of triples of evenly spaced prime numbers with
other spacings. Can you find four evenly spaced prime
numbers? What can you say about the possible spacings?
What’s the smallest possible largest prime number in
such a set of four? What about longer groups of evenly
spaced primes? What’s the smallest possible largest
prime number for a group of length 5, or 6, or . . .?

I’m defining 𝑆 the “spacing” between two numbers of a triple.

Let us now consider the disposition of prime numbers. We can see
that each prime number (with the exception of 2 and 3) is in the
form:

𝑝 = 6𝑛 ± 1, 𝑐𝑜𝑛 𝑛 ∈ ℕ!

In fact all natural numbers are referable to the following cases:

𝑝 = 6𝑛: it is a multiple of 6, thus it is not prime;

𝑝 = 6𝑛 + 1: it could be prime;
𝑝 = 6𝑛 + 2 = 2 3𝑛 + 1 : it is a multiple of 2, thus it is not prime;
𝑝 = 6𝑛 + 3 = 3 2𝑛 + 1 : it is a multiple of 3, thus it is not prime;
𝑝 = 6𝑛 + 4 = 2 3𝑛 + 2 : it is a multiple of 2, thus it is not prime;
𝑝 = 6𝑛 + 5 = 6 𝑛 + 1 − 1: it could be prime.
4
 As these cases include all numbers, we can affirm that there are no
prime numbers which are not referable to these cases, just with the
exception of 2 and 3.
Thus it can be inferred that the only values of 𝑆 with prime
numbers 𝑝 > 3 are available for the different combinations of
6𝑛 − 1 and 6𝑛 +1.
As we consider sets of three numbers, we can have two types:

𝑝! = 6𝑛 − 1; 𝑝! = 6 𝑛 + 1 − 1; 𝑝! = 6 𝑛 + 2 − 1 𝑐𝑜𝑛 𝑛 ∈ ℕ!

or

𝑝! = 6𝑛 + 1; 𝑝! = 6 𝑛 + 1 + 1; 𝑝! = 6 𝑛 + 2 + 1 𝑐𝑜𝑛 𝑛 ∈ ℕ!

As a consequence, if the group is of lenght 3, 𝑆 must be equal to:

6𝑛, 𝑤𝑖𝑡ℎ 𝑛 ∈ ℕ! .

However we had excepted prime numbers ≤ 3. By including this

solution, we find the only left combination. This is verified by per
𝑆 = 2:

3 ,5, 7.

Let us now demonstrate that the group of prime numbers does not
have any solution if it has 5 or more members.

Since 2 is even and since by adding an even number to 2 we will

obtain a non prime number, 2 is excluded from the possible
participants to the set considered. The figures of the units of these
will thus be: 1,3,5,7,9 .
As we have previously demonstrated that 𝑆 = 6𝑛, 𝑤𝑖𝑡ℎ 𝑛 ∈ ℕ! , let
us now analyse the development of the successors of the multiples
of 6.

1 + 6 ∗ 0𝑛; 1 + 6 ∗ 1𝑛; 1 + 6 ∗ 2𝑛; 1 + 6 ∗ 3𝑛; 1 + 6 ∗ 4𝑛; …

As we are looking for the possible figures of the units of such

numbers, let us consider them 𝑚𝑜𝑑 10.

1; 1 + 6𝑛; 1 + 12𝑛; 1 + 18𝑛; 1 + 24𝑛; …

1; 1 + 6𝑛; 1 + 2𝑛; 1 + 8𝑛; 1 + 4𝑛; …

By ordering them:

1; 1 + 2𝑛; 1 + 4𝑛; 1 + 6𝑛; 1 + 8𝑛; …

In this way we find all the above listed odd numbers, in variable
combinations according to the value of n . Since in the development
of this table we can find all the values of the above mentioned odd
5
 numbers, among which 5, and since all the numbers ending in 5
are multiple of 5, therefore not prime, it can be affirmed that the
largest number of a group will be made up of four elements.
It can be noted that the same demonstration is valid for the
predecessor of a number. We will thus obtain.

−1; 2𝑛 − 1; 4𝑛 − 1; 6𝑛 − 1; 1 + 8𝑛 − 1; …

Anyway that i salso verified if 5, the only prime number ending in

“5”, belongs to the group. Indeed the smallest group of four
elements is:

5, 11, 17, 23.

In addiction, the only group of 5 elements is:

5 ,11 ,17, 23, 29.

4. Show that there are no positive integers n for which

𝑛! + 2𝑛! + 2𝑛! + 2𝑛 + 1 is a perfect square. Are there
any positive integers n for which 𝑛! + 𝑛! + 𝑛! + 𝑛 + 1 is
a perfect square? If so, find all such n.

Let us analyze the first request:

𝑛! + 2𝑛! + 2𝑛! + 2𝑛 + 1 = 𝑘 ! 𝑤𝑖𝑡ℎ 𝑛, 𝑘 ∈ ℕ!

We can factorize the first portion:

𝑛! + 2𝑛! + 1 + 2𝑛! + 2𝑛 = 𝑘 !
𝑛! + 1 ! + 2𝑛 𝑛! + 1 = 𝑘 !
(𝑛! + 1) 𝑛! + 2𝑛 + 1 = 𝑘 !
𝑛! + 1 𝑛 + 1 ! = 𝑘 !

Thus is necessary 𝑛! + 1 to be a perfect square. Which is just verified for:

𝑛! + 1 = 1

𝑛=0

Anyway for hipotesis we had: 𝑛 ∈ ℕ! , thus:

∄𝑛 |𝑛 ∈ ℕ! ∧ 𝑛! + 2𝑛! + 2𝑛! + 2𝑛 + 1 = 𝑘 ! , 𝑤𝑖𝑡ℎ 𝑘 ∈ ℕ

Let us analyze the second request:

𝑛! + 𝑛! + 𝑛! + 𝑛 + 1 = 𝑘 ! 𝑤𝑖𝑡ℎ 𝑛, 𝑘 ∈ ℕ!

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 We can factorize 𝑛! + 𝑛! + 𝑛! + 𝑛 + 1 as the product of two quadratic
equations:

𝑛! + 𝑛! + 𝑛! + 𝑛 + 1 = (𝑛! + 𝑛𝑥 + 1)(𝑛! + 𝑛𝑦 + 1)

𝑛! + 𝑛! + 𝑛! + 𝑛 + 1 = 𝑛! + 𝑥 + 𝑦 𝑛! + 𝑥𝑦 + 2 𝑛! + 𝑥 + 𝑦 𝑛 + 1

By comparing the polynomial coefficients we have:

𝑥+𝑦=1
𝑥𝑦 + 2 = 1

𝑥 =1−𝑦
𝑦(1 − 𝑦) + 2 = 1

𝑥 =1−𝑦
!
𝑦 −𝑦−1=0

−1 ± 1! + 4
𝑦!,! =
2

By solving this system of linear equations we have two symmetrical

solutions:

1+ 5 1+ 5
𝑥 =1− 𝑦 =1−
2 ∨ 2
1+ 5 1+ 5
𝑦= 𝑥=
2 2

1− 5 1+ 5
𝑥= 𝑥=
2 ∨ 2
1+ 5 1− 5
𝑦= 𝑦=
2 2

By recomposing the originary equation:

1− 5 1+ 5
𝑛! + 𝑛+1 𝑛! + 𝑛 + 1 = 𝑘!
2 2

The resulting solutions are:

1− 5 1− 5 ! 1+ 5 1+ 5 !
− ± ( ) −4 − ± ( ) −4
𝑛!,! = 2 2 ∨ 𝑛!,! = 2 2
2 2

1− 5 1 5 5 1+ 5 1 5 5
− ± − + −4 − ± + + −4
𝑛!,! = 2 4 2 4 ∨ 𝑛!,! = 2 4 2 4
2 2

1− 5 −18 − 2 5 1+ 5 −18 + 2 5
− ± − ±
𝑛!,! = 2 4 ∨ 𝑛!,! = 2 4
2 2

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 !!"! ! !
Since in ℝ we are not allowed to have a negative radicand ∧
!

!!"!! !
, we can adfirm the equation has no solution in ℝ.
!

5. The repeat of a positive integer is obtained by writing it

twice in a row (so, for example, the repeat of 2016 is
20162016). Is there a positive integer whose repeat is a
perfect square? If so, how many such positive integers can
you find?

We can express the repeat of a positive integer as:

10! + 1 𝑛 = 𝑘 ! , 𝑤𝑖𝑡ℎ 𝑚 = 𝑐𝑜𝑢𝑛𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑑𝑖𝑔𝑖𝑡𝑠 𝑜𝑓 𝑛 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑛, 𝑚, 𝑘 ∈ ℕ

Since 10! + 1 is grater than 𝑛 because has got one more digit than
𝑛, 10! + 1 and 𝑛 must have a common factor. For example:

10! + 1 = 𝑎 ! 𝑏 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑛 = 𝑐 ! 𝑏

We see that both 10! + 1 and 𝑛 must have squares in their

factorization. Because 𝑀𝐶𝐷!"! !!; ! = 𝑏

Let’s now analize the development of 10! + 1 .

It is know that, if the difference between the digits in odd and even
position of a number is 0 or a multiple of 11, that number is a multiple of
11. So, if 𝑚 is odd, 10! + 1 is a multiple of 11. Particulary we can see
that:

10! + 1 = 11 ∗ 90 … 9091.

!!!
We note that the portion “90” is repeated times. Thus have to find a
!
value 𝑚 for which 90 … 9091 is divisible by 11. Since “9” will always be in
even position, we want that:
8
 𝑚−1
9∗ − 1 = 11𝑏, 𝑤𝑖𝑡ℎ 𝑏 ∈ ℕ
2

It is a diofantine equation:

𝑚−1
9𝑎 − 11𝑏 = 1, 𝑤𝑖𝑡ℎ =𝑎
2
We can solve it:

11: 9 = 1 𝑟 2 2 = 11 − 9
9: 2 = 4 𝑟 1 1=9−4∗2

1 = 9 − 4 ∗ 11 − 9
1 = 5 ∗ 9 − 4 ∗ 11

We must add periodicity to this equation. Since 9 is coprime with 11:

1 = 9 5 + 11𝑦 − 11(4 + 9𝑦)

!!!
The number of “9” digits must be: = 5 + 11𝑦, 𝑤𝑖𝑡ℎ 𝑦 ∈ ℕ.
!

𝑚 − 1 = 10 + 22𝑦, 𝑤𝑖𝑡ℎ 𝑦 ∈ ℕ

𝑚 = 11 1 + 2𝑦 , 𝑤𝑖𝑡ℎ 𝑦 ∈ ℕ

Therefore we can find infinite solutions for the equation:

10! + 1 𝑛 = 𝑘 ! , 𝑤𝑖𝑡ℎ 𝑚 = 𝑐𝑜𝑢𝑛𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑑𝑖𝑔𝑖𝑡𝑠 𝑜𝑓 𝑛 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑛, 𝑚, 𝑘 ∈ ℕ

10!! !!!!
+1
10!!(!!!!) + 1 ∗ ∗ 𝑧 ! = 𝑘 ! , 𝑤𝑖𝑡ℎ 𝑦, 𝑧, 𝑘 ∈ ℕ
11!
!"!! !!!! !!
Since 𝑘 ! must have 2 ∗ 11(1 + 2𝑦) digits and 10!!(!!!!) + 1 ∗ !!!
!
has 2 ∗ 11 1 + 2𝑦 − 2 digits because we divided it for 11 , 𝑧 must be a
!

two-digit square, as 16, 25, 36, 49, 64, 81,100.

!"!! !!!! !! !"!! !!
Since = = 826446281, we can calculate solutions for
!!! !!!
𝑦 = 0.

10!! + 1 ∗ 826446281 ∗ 16 = 1322314049613223140496 = 36363636364!

10!! + 1 ∗ 826446281 ∗ 25 = 2066115602520661156025 = 45454545456!
10!! + 1 ∗ 826446281 ∗ 36 = 2975206611629752066116 = 54545454545!
10!! + 1 ∗ 826446281 ∗ 49 = 4049586776940495867769 = 63636363637!
10!! + 1 ∗ 826446281 ∗ 64 = 5289256198452892561984 = 72727272723!
10!! + 1 ∗ 826446281 ∗ 81 = 6694214876162942148761 = 81818181819!
10!! + 1 ∗ 826446281 ∗ 100 = 8264462810082644628100 = 90909090901!

The next solutions are for 𝑦 = 1, which comports 𝑘 ! to have 66 digits.

6. According to the Journal of Irreproducible Results, any

obtuse angle is a right angle!

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 Here is their argument. Given the obtuse angle 𝑥, we
make a quadrilateral ABCD with ∠𝐷𝐴𝐵 = 𝑥 , and
∠𝐴𝐵𝐶 = 90° , and 𝐴𝐷 = 𝐵𝐶 . Say the perpendicular
bisector to DC meets the perpendicular bisector to AB at
P. Then PA = PB and 𝑃𝐶 = 𝑃𝐷. So the triangles 𝑃𝐴𝐷 and
𝑃𝐵𝐶 have equal sides and are congruent. Thus ∠𝑃𝐴𝐷 =
∠𝑃𝐵𝐶 . But PAB is isosceles, hence ∠PAB = ∠PBA.
Subtracting, gives 𝑥 = ∠𝑃𝐴𝐷 − ∠𝑃𝐴𝐵 = ∠𝑃𝐵𝐶 −
∠𝑃𝐵𝐴 = 90°. This is a preposterous conclusion – just
where is the mistake in the “proof” and why does the
argument break down there?

The propoused demonstration’s illustration lead to think that 𝐷𝑃

intersects 𝐴𝐵, which is impossible. Let us demonstrate why.

Let us define 𝐷, 𝐷′ the two distintic intersections between the

circumference of center 𝐴 and radius 𝐷𝐴 and the circumference of center
𝑃 and radius 𝐷𝑃 . It is easy to see that △ 𝐴𝐷𝑃 = △ 𝐷 ! 𝐴𝑃 = △ 𝐶𝐵𝑃 .
Since ∠𝑃𝐵𝐶 = ∠𝑃𝐴𝐷 = ∠𝑃𝐴𝐷 ! = ∠𝑃𝐴𝐵 + ∠𝐴𝐵𝐶 = ∠𝐷 ! 𝐴𝐵 + ∠𝐴𝐵𝑃
and ∠𝐴𝐵𝑃 = ∠𝑃𝐴𝐵 for construction, we have that ∠𝐷′𝐴𝐵 = ∠𝐴𝐵𝐶 =
90 ° . Since ∠𝐷′𝐴𝐵 = 90°, hence 𝐴𝐵 ∥ 𝐷′𝐶 and 𝐴𝐵𝐶𝐷′ is a rectangle. Thus
𝐴𝐵 and 𝐷𝐶’s axis are overlying and they do not intersect in 𝑃. Thus,
supposing that ∠𝑃𝐵𝐶 is not null, the only possible triangle we have
is △ 𝐴𝐷𝑃, and since 𝐷′𝑃 intersects 𝐴𝐵, 𝐷𝑃 will not.

10
 With a more realistic illustration it is evident that 360° = 𝑥 + ∠𝑃𝐴𝐷 +
∠𝑃𝐴𝐵 , and that 𝑥 = ∠𝑃𝐴𝐷 − ∠𝑃𝐴𝐵 ( 𝑙𝑎𝑤 𝑎 ) is false. Thus we can
adfirm the mistake in proof of the propoused demonstration is a
misunderstanding of the figure and the following wrong interpretation of
𝑥 angle position. Indeed, if we make this system:

360° = 𝑥 + ∠𝑃𝐴𝐷 + ∠𝑃𝐴𝐵

𝑥 = ∠𝑃𝐴𝐷 − ∠𝑃𝐴𝐵

we have that ∠𝑃𝐴𝐷 = 180 °, which is impossible because the sum of the
internal angles of any triangle in Euclidian geometry is 180° .
Thus ∠𝑃𝐴𝐷 + ∠𝑃𝐷𝐴 + ∠𝐴𝐷𝑃 = 180° and ∠𝑃𝐷𝐴 = ∠𝐴𝐷𝑃 = 0. Hence
△ 𝐴𝐷𝑃 and △ 𝑃𝐶𝐵 are null triangles which is impossible because we
would not have a 𝑃 point and not even △ 𝐴𝐷𝑃 and △ 𝑃𝐶𝐵.

7. Let us say that a function f from the set of rational

numbers to the set of non-zero rational numbers is a
rational matching if each rational number is paired with
exactly one non-zero rational number, in such a way that
each non-zero rational number gets exactly one rational
partner. Such a function is said to be bijective. Can you
find an example of a rational matching? Is there an order-
preserving rational matching? (That is, a rational
matching f with the property that whenever 𝑎 < 𝑏, we
have 𝑓(𝑎) < 𝑓(𝑏).)

Let the function 𝜑 𝑥 be:

𝑥 + 1, 𝑥∈ℕ
𝜑 𝑥 =
𝑥, 𝑥∉ℕ

and its inverse function

𝑥 − 1, 𝑥 ∈ ℕ!
𝜑 !! 𝑥 =
𝑥, 𝑥 ∉ ℕ!

11
 It is easy to see that he function is surjective and also injective, and holds
therefore the required properties.
Passing to the next request, the above defined function does not hold the
required property. Indeed if we have 𝑎, 𝑏 ∈ ℚ 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑎 > 𝑏 , we notice that
!
𝜑 𝑎 can be grater than 𝜑 𝑏 , as in the case of 𝑎 = 𝑒 𝑏 = 0.
!
!
Indeed 𝜑 𝑎 = 𝑒 𝜑 𝑏 = 1. So we have 𝜑 𝑎 < 𝜑 𝑏 .
!
To prove that there can be no functions of this type with the required
property, let 𝜗(𝑥) be a function for which that property holds true. Since
it is a one-to-one correspondence because given two numbers , 𝑏 ∈
ℚ 𝑤𝑖𝑡ℎ 𝑎 < 𝑏, then 𝜑 𝑎 < 𝜑 𝑏 , we can represent such function as a
straight line. Since 𝜗 𝑥 : ℚ ↔ ℚ − {0}, we can define such function as:

𝑥 + 1, 𝑥≥0
𝜗 𝑥 =
𝑥, 𝑥<0

and its inverse as

𝑥 − 1, 𝑥≥1
𝜗 !! 𝑥 =
𝑥, 𝑥<0
Graphically:

But this way se notice that not all elements of the range are
counterimages of the domain, so this function is not bijective.
12
 In order to “fill the gap” between points A-O without altering the order of
the elements of 𝜗 𝑥 , suppose we can get point A nearer and nearer to the
origin of the coordinate system. In order to do so, we should reduce the
value of the y to its limit value. So, if 𝑞 is such number, then:

𝑞 ∈ ℚ 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑞 = lim 𝑞
!→!

Once we define 𝑞, we could always find a smaller value for 𝑞 than the one
previously found so there will always be an unfillable gap between A and
O. We can therefore state that there is no such function with all the
required properties.

8. The squares of an infinite chessboard are numbered as

follows: in the zero !! row and column we put 0, and then
in every other square we put the smallest non-negative
integer that does not appear anywhere below it in the
same column nor anywhere to the left of it in the same
row...

What number will appear in the 2016!! row and 1601!"

column? Can you generalize?

Let us develop the chessboard.

13
 By colouring the numbers that are repeated we note that an integer
always appears only once along the row and along the column. We also
note that each square of side 2! 𝑤𝑖𝑡ℎ 𝑛 ∈ ℕ, can be further subdivided
into four squares of side 2!!! 𝑤𝑖𝑡ℎ 𝑛 ∈ ℕ. These can, in turn, also be
subdivided until we get to the smallest squares which are made up of only
one single digit, with side 2! . At this point we note that the squares into
which we had divided up the chessboard are diagonally symmetrical
compared to their centre.
Our objective is to move one square down to the row below. In doing so
and completing all the transformations we will have a couple of the 𝑛, 0
type with 𝑛 being the exact value of the square that we are looking for.

Further analysing the chessboard.

14
 As already stated, we find that the square with position (0,1) is equal to
that with position 1,0 ; ina ddiction, the square in position 1,1 is equal
to that with position 0,0 .
Since we need to obtain a couple of the (𝑛, 0) type, if the number chosen
lies in the 1,1 square we can change it to 0,0 and if the number lies in
the 0,1 square, we can transofrm it to 1,0 . Repeating this process until
we can no longer carry out the subdivision, we are then able to read the
contents of the square. Evidently this will be in base 2. We can define this
procedure as being equivalent to:

𝑅 𝑋𝑂𝑅 𝐶, 𝑤𝑖𝑡ℎ 𝑅 = 𝑟𝑜𝑤, 𝐶 = 𝑐𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑚𝑛

Converting (2016,1601) in binary, we obtain the coordinates

(11111100000, 11001000001). By carring out the previously-defined
algorithm, we obtain (110100001, 000000000 ) which translates as
(417,0). Thus the number that will appear in the 2016!! row and 1601 !"
column is 417.

9. Let 𝑃! be an equilateral triangle of area 1. Each side of 𝑃! is

trisected, and the corners are snipped off, creating a new
polygon (in fact, a hexagon) 𝑃! . What is the area of 𝑃! ? Now
repeat the process to 𝑃! – i.e. trisect each side and snip off the
corners – to obtain a new polygon 𝑃! . What is the area of 𝑃! ?
Now repeat this process infinitely often to create an object
𝑃! . What is the area of 𝑃! ?

Let us calculate 𝑃! side. Since it is known that an equilateral triangle’s area

!! ! !
is: 𝐴 = , 𝑃! side is: 𝑠 = .
! !
Let us develop the first iterations of 𝑃 .

We note that the figure is simmetric and we can imagine 𝑃! as 𝑃! − 3𝑇!!! ,

where 𝑇!!! is the sum of all the triangles we cut off after 𝑖 iterations.

15
 !
Let us call 𝑙 side of the red-color equilater triangle and ℎ = 𝑙 the height of
!
this triangle. We can note that when we repeat the algoritm, we obtain a
!
triangle which has 𝑙 and ℎ resectively of the predecessor trinagle. Indeed by
!
trisecting the side of a triangle, we “trisect” also his height. We can also note
that each “little triangle” we cut off is
repeated 3 ∗ 2! 𝑤𝑖𝑡ℎ 𝑖 𝑐𝑜𝑢𝑛𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑖𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛𝑠. Let us build up a table.

!! !
Since the area of a triangle is and that the originary 𝑙 and ℎ are both of the
! !
! ! ! ! !
height and side of 𝑃! , we have 𝑇! = ∗ ∗ ∗ 𝑙! ℎ! ∗ 𝑐𝑜𝑢𝑛𝑡 = ∗ 𝑙!! ∗ ∗
! ! ! !" !
2
! ! ! ! ! ! ! 2
𝑐𝑜𝑢𝑛𝑡 = ∗ 𝑙!! ∗ 𝑐𝑜𝑢𝑛𝑡 . Thus 𝑇! = ∗ 𝑙!! ∗ ∗ ∗ 2! = ∗ ∗
!" !" !! !! !" 3
!! ! ! !
= . Thus the sum 𝑇 = 𝑇! + 𝑇! + ⋯ + 𝑇! is equal to the sum of all the
!!! ! !
! !
powers of , multiplied for . It is known that:
! !
𝑛!!! − 1
𝑛! + 𝑛! +. . +𝑛! =
𝑛−1
2 𝑖+1
1 9 −1
Thus we have 𝑇 =
9 2 , where 𝑖 is the number of iterations made.
9
−1
By replacing 𝑇! in the originary equation:

𝑃! = 𝑃! − 3𝑇!!!

2 !!!!!
1 −1
𝑃! = 𝑃! − 3 9
9 2
−1
9

2 !
1 −1
𝑃! = 1 − 9 .
3 −7
9
16
 !
1 2 9
𝑃! = 1 − ∗ −1 ∗ −
3 9 7

!
3 2
𝑃! = 1 − ∗ 1 −
7 9

3 ! 1 1 2
Thus 𝑃! = 1 − ∗ 1 − =1−3=3.
7 !
! ! 2 ! !"!! 3 77
In the case of 𝑃! : 𝑃! = 1 − ∗ 1 −
! !
=1−!∗ !"
= 1− ∗
7 81
=
11 16
1 − 27 = 27.

! ! ∞ ! ! ∞ ! ! ∞
Finally 𝑃! = 1 − ! ∗ 1 − !
=1− +
! !
=
!
+
!
.
2 ! 4
Since
9
tends to 0, 𝑃! =
7
.

10. The tail of a monstrously huge rabbit is tied to a pole in

the ground by an infinitely stretchy elastic cord. A flea sits
on the pole watching the rabbit (hungrily). The rabbit
sees the flea, leaps into the air and lands one kilometer
from the pole (with its tail still attached to the pole by the
elastic cord). The flea gives chase and leaps into the air
landing on the stretched elastic cord one centimeter from
the pole. The monster rabbit, seeing this, again leaps into
the air and lands another kilometer away from the pole
(i.e., a total of two kilometers from the pole). Undaunted,
the flea bravely leaps into the air again, landing on the
elastic cord one centimeter further along. Once again the
rabbit jumps another kilometer and the flea jumps
another centimeter along the cord. If this continues
indefinitely, will the flea ever catch up to the rabbit?
(Assume the earth is flat and extends infinitely far in all
directions.)
Let us call 𝑥 the number of the flea’s jumps, 𝐹 𝑥 the function which
inolves the flea’s motion and 𝑅 𝑥 the function which involves the rabbit’s
one. We have that:

𝑅 𝑥 = 𝑘𝑥, 𝑤𝑖𝑡ℎ 𝑘 = 1000𝑚 = 10! 𝑐𝑚

𝐹 𝑥 is equal to the position of the flea after the strech of the elastic cord
more a centimetre.

17
 Called 𝑂𝐹! the flea’s distance before the rabbit’s jump, and 𝑂𝑅! the initial
rabbit’s distance, 𝑂𝑅! the rabbit’s distance after his jump, and 𝑂𝐹! the
resulting flea’s distance after the rabbit’s jump.

Since the cord is elasic it spaces proportionally his points. Thus:

𝑂𝐹! : 𝑂𝑅! = 𝑂𝐹! : 𝑂𝑅!

The flea’s distance after rabbit’s jump results to be:

𝑂𝐹! ∗ 𝑂𝑅!
𝑂𝐹! =
𝑂𝑅!

Replacing 𝑂𝑅! is 𝑘(𝑥 − 1) and 𝑂𝑅! is 𝑘𝑥 in the flea’s motion function:

𝐹 𝑥 − 1 ∗ 𝑘𝑥
𝐹 𝑥 = +1
𝑘(𝑥 − 1)

𝐹 𝑥−1 ∗𝑥
𝐹 𝑥 = +1
𝑥−1
𝑥
𝐹 𝑥 =𝐹 𝑥−1 ∗ +1
𝑥−1

1
𝐹 𝑥 =𝐹 𝑥−1 ∗ 1+ +1
𝑥−1

𝐹 𝑥−1
𝐹 𝑥 =𝐹 𝑥−1 + +1
𝑥−1
!
That implies 𝐹 𝑥 is an increasing function. Since for great values of
!!!
𝑥 tends to 0, we have that some portions of 𝐹 𝑥 may look like a striaight
line that we will call 𝑓. Thus 𝑓 and 𝑅 𝑥 will meet if 𝑓’s slope is grater
!"
than 𝑅 𝑥 ’s one, which is 100000. Since slope is defined as , we have:
!"

𝐹 𝑥 − 𝐹(𝑥 − 1)
> 100000
𝑥 − (𝑥 − 1)

𝐹 𝑥 − 𝐹 𝑥 − 1 > 100000

𝐹 𝑥−1
𝐹 𝑥−1 + + 1 − 𝐹 𝑥 − 1 > 100000
𝑥−1

𝐹 𝑥−1
> 99999
𝑥−1

Let us replace 𝐹 𝑥 − 1 :

1 𝐹 𝑥−2 ∗ 𝑥−1
+ 1 > 99999
𝑥−1 𝑥−2

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 1 𝐹 𝑥−2
+ > 99999
𝑥−1 𝑥−2

Let us replace 𝐹 𝑥 − 2 :

1 1 𝐹 𝑥−3 ∗ 𝑥−2
+ + 1 > 99999
𝑥−1 𝑥−2 𝑥−2

1 1 𝐹 𝑥−3 ∗ 𝑥−2
+ + 1 > 99999
𝑥−1 𝑥−2 𝑥−2
1 1 𝐹 𝑥−3
+ + > 99999
𝑥−1 𝑥−2 𝑥−3

We could repeat this process indefinitely. Thus we will have:

1 1 1 𝐹 1 ∗ 𝑥−𝑥+1
+ +⋯+ + 1 > 99999
𝑥−1 𝑥−2 𝑥−𝑥+1 𝑥−𝑥+1−1

1 1 1
+ +⋯+ +> 99999
𝑥−1 𝑥−2 𝑥−𝑥+1

1 1 1 1
+ + +⋯+ > 99999
1 2 3 𝑥−1

!! !
It is known the value of the harmonic series !!! ! = ∞. Thus, for an
appropriate value of 𝑛, this series can assume any value. Thus, with
some patience, the flea will reach the rabbit.

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