Earth revolves around the Sun in the same direction Earth spins about its axis.

True

False
1/1
Question 2
point
Our solar system has one asteroid belt. The laws of physics prevent a solar system from having
more than one asteroid belt.

True

False
1/1
Question 3
point
Johannes Kepler obtained accurate data on the positions of the planets in the sky over time,
which Galileo used to prove that planets revolved around the Sun.

True

False
1/1
Question 4
point
Planets orbit the Sun on circular orbits.

True

False
1/1
Question 5
point
Planets with circular orbits travel at the same speed at all points in their orbits, whereas planets
with elliptical orbits change their speeds at different points in their orbits.

True

False
1/1
Question 6
point
A planet travels fastest in its orbit when it is closest to the Sun.

True

False
 1/1
Question 7
point
At the center of the geocentric model of the Solar System is the:

a)  Earth

b)  Venus

c)  Moon

d)  Sun

e)  Jupiter

1/1
Question 8 poin
t
What is apparent retrograde motion?

a)  the motion of a planet in a direction opposite to that of other bodies within the system

b)  an orbital direction that is inclined 90 degrees from the ecliptic

c)  the direction of your grade if you don't study

d)  the Earth's rotation on its axis

e)  when a planet tunnels through the sun - it's a quantum thing.

1/1
Question 9 poin
t
The ecliptic is defined by the motion of _________ in the sky.

a)  the planets

b)  the stars

 c)  the Sun

d)  the Moon

e)  Polaris

1/1
Question 10 poin
t
Copernicus:

a)  developed a heliocentric model of the solar system

b)  drank a lot at parties

c)  developed the idea that planets orbit in ellipses

d)  developed sophisticated mathematical tools for analyzing planetary motion

1/1
Question 11 poin
t
Which of the following is not one of Kepler's Laws:

a)  all planets have the same velocity

b)  the planets trace out elliptical orbits

c)  a line from the planet to the sun sweeps out equal areas in equal amounts of time

d)  the period of a planet's orbit squared is proportional to its average distance from the sun cubed

1/1
Question 12 poin
t
An unbound orbit results when a satellite has a velocity greater than the escape velocity.

True
 False

Elliptical galaxies have the shapes they do because all the stars
are orbiting in the same direction in the galaxy.

True

False
0/1
Question 2
point
Star formation in spiral galaxies is enhanced in the spiral arms
because more hot gas is concentrated there.

True

False
0/1
Question 3
point
We know that spiral galaxies contain dark matter because the
gas in the disk rotates with a velocity that decreases in a way
that is proportional to r –1/2.
 

True

False
1/1
Question 4
point
Dark matter consists of material that emits radiation at
wavelengths other than visible light.

True

False
1/1
Question 5
point
Dark matter is distributed inside galaxies in exactly the same
way as luminous matter, although the total mass of dark matter
is much larger than that of luminous matter.

True

False
1/1
Question 6
point
In most galaxies, the amount of dark matter and the amount of
luminous matter is about equal.

True

False
0/1
Question 7
point
A galaxy can contain a supermassive black hole that remains
invisible because no matter is falling onto the black hole.

True

False
0/1
Question 8
point
We classify galaxies by:

a)  their true shapes

b)  whether they are near or far from us

c)  the amount of gas and dust in them

d)  the amount of dark matter they contain

e)  how they appear on the sky

 1/1
Question 9 poin
t
What type of galaxy is this?

a)  a giant elliptical

b)  a barred spiral

c)  an irregular galaxy

d)  an ordinary spiral galaxy

e)  a dwarf elliptical

1/1
Question 10 poin
t
What type of galaxy is this?

a)  a barred spiral

b)  a giant elliptical

c)  a dwarf elliptical

d)  a regular spiral galaxy

e)  an irregular galaxy

1/1
Question 11 poin
t
In spiral galaxies, the size of the central bulge is correlated with
the:

a)  age of the galaxy

b)  tightness of the spiral arms

 c)  luminosity of the galaxy

d)  thickness of the disk

e)  presence of an active nucleus

0/1
Question 12 poin
t
Stars in the disks of spiral galaxies have orbits that:

a)  spiral shaped

b)  are randomly oriented

c)  unaffected by dark matter

d)  mostly aligned in the same plane

e)  constantly are getting larger

0/1
Question 13 poin
t
Spiral structure:

a)  rotates backward compared to the stellar orbits

b)  rotates at a speed that is different than the gas in the disk

c)  stays constant in time as the gas in disk rotates through it

d)  must only last a short time, since few galaxies with disks show spiral patterns

e)  rotates at the same speed as the gas in the disk

 1/1
Question 14 poin
t
Why do rotation curves of galaxies imply that dark matter exists?

a)  The velocity of stars is low in the inner regions of galaxies, suggesting that dark matter is impeding their

b)  The velocity of stars rises dramatically at large distances from the centers of galaxies, implying large amo
than stars at smaller distances.

c)  The velocity of stars rises quickly in the inner regions of galaxies, suggesting that unseen matter is gravita

d)  The velocity of stars stays approximately constant at distances well beyond the visible edges of galaxies,
we observe in stars and gas.

e)  The velocity of stars falls slowly in the outer regions of galaxies, showing that while there is a lot of dark

1/1
Question 15 poin
t
Dark matter is most likely made up of:

a)  faint stellar remnants such as white dwarfs and neutron stars

b)  cold concentrations of dust

c)  supermassive black holes

d)  free-floating Jupiter-mass planets

e)  elementary particles that have mass but do not interact much with normal matter

The elements heavier than Fe that make up most of Earth were

formed via nuclear fusion in the center of the Sun.

True

False
 1/1
Question 2
point
The majority of the energy in our universe is:

a)  emitted in radioactive decays of unstable elements

b)  the gravitational potential energy of superclusters

c)  radiated by stars from the nuclear fusion going on in their cores

d)  made up of dark energy that permeates space

e)  the kinetic energy found in the collisions of galaxies

1/1
Question 3 poin
t
The speed of light is approximately:

a)  3,000 km/s

b)  30,000 km/s

c)  300,000 km/s

d)  3 million km/s

e)  3 billion km/s

1/1
Question 4 poin
t
Our universe is approximately 13.7 _________ years old.

a)  hundred
 b)  thousand

c)  million

d)  billion

e)  trillion

1/1
Question 5 poin
t
Which presently observed element or isotope was NOT produced
in appreciable amounts in the very early universe shortly after
the Big Bang?

a)  hydrogen

b)  deuterium

c)  helium-4

d)  helium-3

e)  carbon

1/1
Question 6 poin
t
The elements heavier than H and He, such as those that make up
terrestrial planets like Earth, were formed:

a)  inside stars and supernovae

b)  through meteor collisions

 c)  during the formation of the Solar System

d)  in the early universe

e)  in the core of Earth

1/1
Question 7 poin
t
The Pillars of Creation refers to an ancient site in South Africa
where homind remains have been discovered.

True

False
1/1
Question 8
point
We now have evidence that the planet orbiting the
star Proxima Centauri is habitable by humans.

True

False
1/1
Question 9
point
Which of the following about Tycho Brahe is false:

a)  Tycho believed in a heliocentric model of the solar system, much like Copernicus

b)  Tycho worked closely with Kepler, but they disagreed on models of the solar system

c)  Tycho had a prosthetic nose having lost his in a quarrel

d)  Tycho likely died from a bladder or kidney failure perhaps as a result of not relieving himself at a banque

Question 10 1/1
 poin
t
The Hertzsprung-Russell diagram shows the relationship
between:

a)  the size of a crater and its depth, as seen on the moon

b)  lunar eclipses and climate

c)  the luminosity of a star and its effective surface temperature

d)  the size of a star and its location in the galaxy

1/1
Question 11 poin
t
Our sun is categorized as a:

a)  red dwarf star

b)  once every 11 years

c)  brown dwarf

d)  G-type main sequence star

e)  a really unusual star compared to most stars

3/3
Question 12 point
s
What is the escape velocity from Mars if its mass is 6 x 1023 kg
and its radius is 3,400 km?

a)  12,000 m/s

 b)  2,400 m/s

c)  8,600 km/s

d)  25,000 km/s

e)  4,900 m/s

2/2
Question 13 point
s
If you have two moons that have the same radius, but Moon A is
denser and has 2 times the mass of Moon B, how do their escape
velocities compare?

a)  Because gravity affects all masses the same, the escape velocities are the same.

b)  Moon A has an escape velocity that is 1.4 times larger than Moon B.

c)  Moon A has an escape velocity that is 2 times smaller than Moon B.

d)  Moon A has an escape velocity that is 1.4 times smaller than Moon B.

e)  Moon A has an escape velocity that is 2 times larger than Moon B.

3/3
Question 14 point
s
If you found an exoplanet whose mass was the same as
Jupiter’s, but the planet orbited its star with a period of 2 years
and a semimajor axis of 1 AU, what would be the mass of its
star? For reference, Jupiter has a semimajor axis of 5.4 AU and
an orbital period of 12 years.

a)  0.25 M
 b)  1.5 M

c)  2.0 M

d)  0.5 M

e)  not enough information available to answer

3/3
Question 15 point
s
Light with a wavelength of 600 nm has a frequency of:

a)  2 x 105 Hz

b)  5 x 107 Hz

c)  5 x 1014 Hz

d)  2 x 1010 Hz

e)  5 x 1012 Hz

1/1
Question 16 poin
t
Which of the following photons carry the smallest amount of
energy?

a)  an infrared photon, whose wavelength is 10-5 m

b)  a blue photon of the visible spectrum, whose wavelength is 450 nm

 c)  an ultraviolet photon, whose wavelength is 300 nm

d)  a microwave photon, whose wavelength is 10-2 m

e)  a red photon in the visible spectrum, whose wavelength is 700 nm

2/2
Question 17 point
s
A red photon has a wavelength of 650 nm. An ultraviolet photon
has a wavelength of 250 nm. The energy of an ultraviolet photon
is _________ the energy of a red photon.

a)  6.8 times smaller than

b)  6.8 times larger than

c)  2.6 times smaller than

d)  2.6 times larger than

e)  the same as

1/1
Question 18 poin
t
In the quantum mechanical view of the atom, an electron is best
thought of as:

a)  a cloud that is centered on the nucleus

b)  a particle orbiting the nucleus

c)  free to orbit at any distance from the nucleus

 d)  a particle inside the nucleus

e)  All of the above are true.

3/3
Question 19 point
s
The n = 5 electronic energy level in a hydrogen atom is 1.5 x 10 -
19
 J higher than the n = 3 level. If an electron moves from the
n = 5 level to the n = 3 level, then a photon of wavelength:

a)  no light will be absorbed or emitted

b)  1.3 nm, which is in the ultraviolet region, is emitted

c)  1,300 nm, which is in the infrared region, is absorbed

d)  1,300 nm, which is in the infrared region, is emitted

e)  1.3 nm, which is in the ultraviolet region, is absorbed

1/1
Question 20 poin
t
In protoplanetary environments, the plane of an accretion disk is
perpendicular to the axis of rotation of the interstellar cloud out
of which it forms.

True

False
2/2
Question 21
points
Consider a small parcel of gas in the cloud out of which the Sun
formed that was initially located in the accretion disk at a
distance of 10 AU from the Sun and rotating around it with a
speed of 10 km/s. If this parcel of gas eventually found its way
to a distance of 1 AU from the Sun without changing its orbital
angular momentum, then what would be its new rotation speed?

a)  1,000 km/s

b)  0.001 km/s

c)  0.1 km/s

d)  10 km/s

e)  100 km/s

2/2
Question 22 point
s
Consider the figure shown below. At which point in time does
the collapsing cloud have the greatest angular momentum?
 a)  3

b)  2

c)  1

d)  1 and 2, because the protostar has not yet formed.

e)  The cloud has the same angular momentum at each point in time.

1/1
Question 23 poin
t
Stars are made mostly of:

a)  oxygen

b)  helium

c)  hydrogen

d)  nitrogen

e)  carbon

1/1
Question 24 poin
t
Why is hydrogen burning the main energy source for main-
sequence stars?

a)  Hydrogen is the most common element in stars.

b)  Hydrogen nuclei have the smallest positive charge.

 c)  Hydrogen burning is the most efficient of all fusion or fission reactions.

d)  Hydrogen can fuse at temperatures lower than other elements.

e)  All the above are valid reasons.

1/1
Question 25 poin
t
The net effect of the proton-proton chain is that four hydrogen
nuclei are converted to one helium nucleus and _________ are
released.

a)  gamma ray photons, positrons, and neutrinos

b)  visible wavelength photons

c)  ultraviolet photons and neutrinos

d)  X-ray photons, electrons, and neutrinos

e)  infrared photons and positrons

1/1
Question 26 poin
t
Which of the following method(s) is (are) NOT used to transport
energy from the core of the Sun to its surface?

a)  radiation

b)  convection

c)  conduction
 d)  All of the above are important in the solar interior.

e)  None of the above are important in the solar interior.

1/1
Question 27 poin
t
The average density of the interstellar medium is many times
less dense than the best vacuum on Earth.

True

False
1/1
Question 28
point
The coldest molecular clouds in our galaxy have temperatures of
approximately 1000 K.

True

False
1/1
Question 29
point
A protostar is usually in hydrostatic equilibrium as its collapses.

True

False
3/3
Question 30
points
Dust that is heated to 30 K will emit a blackbody spectrum that
peaks at:

a)  500 mm

b)  100 mm
 c)  50 mm

d)  1 mm

e)  30 mm

1/1
Question 31 poin
t
As a protostar evolves, its temperature:

a)  increases due to the kinetic energy of infalling material

b)  decreases because it is radiating

c)  decreases because of angular momentum

d)  increases because of nuclear fusion

e)  decreases because of gravitational contraction

1/1
Question 32 poin
t
A young protostar is _________ than the Sun even though its
surface temperature is _________.

a)  smaller; the same

b)  larger; cooler

c)  more luminous; cooler

d)  less luminous; hotter

 e)  smaller; hotter

1/1
Question 33 poin
t
The entire process of star formation is really just an evolving
balance between:

a)  luminosity and distance

b)  core temperature and surface temperature

c)  radiation and heat

d)  heat and rotation

e)  pressure and gravity

1/1
Question 34 poin
t
What happens as a protostar contracts?

a)  Its density rises.

b)  Its temperature rises.

c)  Its radius decreases.

d)  Its pressure rises.

e)  All of the above are true.

1/1
Question 35 poin
t
What critical event transforms a protostar into a normal main-
sequence star?

a)  Planets form in the accretion disk.

b)  The star grows suddenly larger in radius.

c)  Nuclear fusion begins in the core.

d)  Convection begins throughout the star’s interior.

e)  Triple alpha reactions begin in the core.

1/1
Question 36 poin
t
A protostar’s evolutionary “track” in the H-R diagram traces out:

a)  only how the protostar’s luminosity changes with time

b)  how the protostar’s luminosity, temperature, and radius change with time

c)  only how the protostar’s radius changes with time

d)  the protostar’s location in the molecular cloud

e)  only how the protostar’s spectral type changes with time

1/1
Question 37 poin
t
A planet travels fastest in its orbit when it is closest to the Sun.

True

False
Question 38 1/1
 point
Which of the following are true regarding this graph?

The stable Xe isotopes 126Xe, 128Xe, 129Xe, 130Xe, 131Xe, and 132Xe can be made

by neutron capture during the slow neutron process (s-process) in stars.

The heaviest stable xenon isotope, 136Xe, cannot be made by the s-process since

it is shielded by the short half-life xenon isotope, 135Xe.

La-138 is made by s-process nucleosynthesis.

All isotopes of Ba are made by the s-process.

0/3
Question 39
points
A planet is discovered orbiting a dwarf stat. The planet has a mass 10 times that of
Earth. A space-based wavelength spectrometer measures the emission of light from
the exoplanet: the dominant wavelength emitted from the exoplanet has a wavelength
of 9660 nm. What is the temperature of the exoplanet?

Constants that you may or may not need.

Surface temperature of the sun: 5780 K

Solar radius: 7 x 108 m

Planck's constant h: 4.1357 x 10-15 eV s

Wien displacement law constant: 2.898 x 10-3 m K

Stephan constant  : 5.6703 x 10-8 watts/(m2 K4)

300 K

800 K

100 K

200 K

None of the above.

1/1
Question 40
point
At the center of the Sun, the temperature is roughly 15 million
K.

True

False
1/1
Question 41
point
Why is quantum tunneling an important in solar system
processes? 

Quantum tunneling is the enabling phenomenon behind the generation of

magnetic fields. The loss of quantons from Mars resulted in the shutdown of its
magnetic field.
 Quantum tunneling allows protons in the core of the sun to overcome coulomb
repulsion and fuse.

Quantum tunneling enables the formation of higher Z elements, those that aren't

formed in the Big Bang.

A dense molecular cloud is only destabilized if the protons can use tunneling to
combine and form He, which in turn decreases the temperature of the cloud
allowing it to collapse.

1/1
Question 42
point
This image shows the aftermath of a solar-mass star going
through the final stages of its red giant phase.

True

False
Question 43 0/1
 point
An exoplanet is:

a)  a planet bound to a star other than the Sun

b)  a shadow planet in Earth's orbit, but never observed because it is on the opposite side of the sun.

c)  a planet not bound to a star but still gravitationally captured within the Milky Way galaxy.

d)  a planet that is outside the orbit of the Kuiper belt

0/1
Question 44 poin
t
Which of the following are true about the evolution of stars on
the H-R diagram.

A star in hydrostatic equilibrium burning its nuclear fuel resides on the main
sequence.
 During the multi-billion year lifetime a typical star moves within the field
described as main sequence.

Once a star has expended its nuclear fuel it evolves off the main sequence.

All stars on the main sequence have about the same mass.

0/1
Question 45
point
What are the conclusions we reach based on the data presented
in the plot shown below?

Although we know planets occur around other stars we rarely observe

protoplanetary disks.

Protoplanetary disks have been observed around a number of young stars.

 The lifetime of these protoplanetary disks is typically < 10 million years.

These protoplanetary disks persist for up to 100 million years, challenging our

ideas about rapid formation of planetary systems.

1/1
Question 46
point
Red stars have less luminosity than our star, indicating they are
smaller. Accordingly, with less hydrogen fuel for fusion the
lifetimes of red stars are in general much less than the
anticipated lifetime of our Sun.

True

False
1/1
Question 47
point
A cloud of interstellar gas is held together by gravity.

True

False
1/1
Question 48
point
Neutrinos are 

1)  Nearly massless particles made in nuclear reactions, especially fusion reactions in the Sun's core.

2)  Particles made as a result of chemical reactions involving an oxidizer and an organic solvent.

3)  The name given to points scored in curling.

4)  Little neutrons.

1/1
Question 49 poin
t
An emission line is produced when an atom absorbs a photon of
a specific energy.

True

False
1/1
Question 50
point
An object in a(n) __________ orbit in the Solar System will remain
in its orbit forever. An object in a(n) __________ orbit will escape
from the Solar System.

unbound; bound

circular; elliptical

bound; unbound

elliptical; circular
1/1
Question 51
point
Blue light has more energy than red light.

True

False
0/1
Question 52
point
The seminal paper by Burbidge, Burbidge, Fowler, and Hoyle,
appearing in 1957 was about the enrichment, relative to solar
abundances, in cosmic rays of the elements Li, Be, and B. This
enrichment is due to spallation reactions occurring in the
interstellar medium.

True

False
Question 53 1/1
 point
Our galaxy is a typical barred spiral galaxy.

True

False
1/1
Question 54
point
Star A is a red star. Star B is a blue star. Which star is hotter?

a)  They are the same temperature.

b)  Color is not related to temperature at all.

c)  We also need to know the luminosities of the stars to determine their temperatures.

d)  Star A is hotter.

e)  Star B is hotter.

1/1
Question 55 poin
t
The escape velocity on the Moon is less than that on Earth.

True

False
2/2
Question 56
points
If the distance between the Earth and Sun were cut in half, the
gravitational force between these two objects would:

a)  decrease by 4

b)  increase by 4
 c)  decrease by 2

d)  increase by 2

e)  decrease by 8

3/3
Question 57 point
s
The force of gravity between the Earth and the Sun is _________
the force of gravity between the Earth and the Moon. For
reference, the average distance between the Earth and the Moon
is 0.003 AU, the mass of the Moon is 7 x 1022 kg, and the mass
of the Sun is 2 x 1030 kg.

a)  140 times smaller than

b)  the same as

c)  260 times larger than

d)  6,400 times smaller than

e)  86,000 times larger than

A parsec is a unit of time.

True

False
1/1
Question 2
point
Stars with a larger brightness must be closer to us than fainter
stars.
 True

False
1/1
Question 3
point
Stars that have spectral type B are lower in temperature than
spectral type M.

True

False
1/1
Question 4
point
A star’s mass determines where it lies on the main sequence of
an H-R diagram.

True

False
1/1
Question 5
point
Parallax is used to measure a star’s:

a)  velocity

b)  radius

c)  distance

d)  luminosity

e)  mass

1/1
Question 6 poin
t
Star A is a red star. Star B is a blue star. Which star is hotter?
 a)  Star B is hotter.

b)  We also need to know the luminosities of the stars to determine their temperatures.

c)  Star A is hotter.

d)  They are the same temperature.

e)  Color is not related to temperature at all.

0/1
Question 7 poin
t
Star A is a red star. Star B is a blue star. You are able to
determine that both stars are the same size. Which star is more
luminous?

a)  We cannot tell because color is not related to luminosity.

b)  Star B is more luminous.

c)  They have the same luminosities.

d)  We also need to know the distance of the stars to determine their luminosity.

e)  Star A is more luminous.

1/1
Question 8 poin
t
The spectral class of a star is related to its:

a)  luminosity

b)  radius
 c)  brightness

d)  temperature

e)  mass

1/1
Question 9 poin
t
Which stars are the most common?

a)  Stars with a larger mass and a larger radius than the Sun’s are the most common.

b)  Stars with a smaller mass and a smaller radius than the Sun’s are the most common.

c)  Stars with a larger mass and a smaller radius than the Sun’s are the most common.

d)  Stars with a smaller mass and a larger radius than the Sun’s are the most common.

e)  All of the above are equally common.

1/1
Question 10 poin
t
Cooler objects radiate more of their total light at shorter
wavelengths than hotter objects.

True

False
1/1
Question 11
point
As a blackbody becomes hotter, it also becomes _________ and
_________.

a)  more luminous; bluer

 b)  more luminous; stays the same color

c)  less luminous; redder

d)  less luminous; bluer

e)  more luminous; redder

1/1
Question 12 poin
t
Compare two blackbody objects, one at 200 K and one at 400 K.
How much larger is the flux from the 400 K object, compared to
the flux from the 200 K object?

a)  sixteen times larger

b)  four times larger

c)  They have the same flux.

d)  eight times larger

e)  two times larger

0/1
Question 13 poin
t
You observe a red star and a blue star and are able to determine
that they are the same size. Which star is hotter, and which star
is more luminous?

a)  The blue star is hotter and more luminous.

b)  The red star is hotter, and the blue star is more luminous.
 c)  The red star is hotter and more luminous.

d)  The blue star is hotter, and the red star is more luminous.

e)  They have the same luminosities and temperatures.

1/1
Question 14 poin
t
If a star has a peak wavelength of 290 nm, what is its surface
temperature?

a)  100,000 K

b)  5000 K

c)  2000 K

d)  10,000 K

e)  1000 K

1/1
Question 15 poin
t
If Jupiter has a temperature of 165 K, then at what wavelength
does its spectrum peak? Use the electromagnetic spectrum
shown below to answer this question.
 a)  18,000 nm—ultraviolet wavelengths

b)  18,000 nm—infrared wavelengths

c)  1,800 mm—microwave wavelengths

d)  1,800 nm—infrared wavelengths

e)  18 nm—orange visible wavelengths

1/1
Question 16 poin
t
Why do some stars in the sky appear blue, while other stars
appear red?

a)  The red stars are hotter on their surfaces than the blue stars.

b)  The red stars are closer to us than the blue stars.

c)  The blue stars are moving away from us faster than the red stars.

d)  The blue stars are closer to us than the red stars.
 e)  The blue stars are hotter on their surfaces than the red stars.

The period of a wave is inversely proportional to the frequency

of that wave.

True

False
1/1
Question 2
point
An emission line is produced when an atom absorbs a photon of
a specific energy.

True

False
1/1
Question 3
point
The emission spectrum of a helium atom is identical to that of a
carbon atom.

True

False
1/1
Question 4
point
The emission lines of a given atom occur at the exact same
energies as that atom’s absorption lines.

True

False
1/1
Question 5
point
The luminosity of an object is independent of its distance from
you.
 True

False
1/1
Question 6
point
The speed of light in a vacuum is:

a)  300,000 m/s

b)  300,000,000 mph

c)  300,000 km/s

d)  300,000 mph

e)  infinite

1/1
Question 7 poin
t
What is the difference between visible light and X-rays?

a)  X-rays are made up of particles, while visible light is made up of waves.

b)  Speed; X-rays go faster than visible light.

c)  Wavelength; X-rays have a longer wavelength than visible light.

d)  Wavelength; X-rays have a shorter wavelength than visible light.

e)  Speed; X-rays go slower than visible light.

1/1
Question 8 poin
t
A light-year is a unit that is used to measure:
 a)  distance

b)  wavelength

c)  energy

d)  time

e)  speed

1/1
Question 9 poin
t
Use the figure below to answer the following question:
Which of these statements about the amplitude and wavelength
of the two waves shown is correct?

a)  Wave A and B have the same amplitude and wavelength.

b)  Wave A has a larger amplitude, and Wave B has a larger wavelength.
 c)  Wave A has a larger amplitude and a larger wavelength.

d)  Wave B has a larger amplitude, and Wave A has a larger wavelength.

e)  Wave B has a larger amplitude and a larger wavelength.

1/1
Question 10 poin
t
If the frequency of a beam of light were to increase, its period
would _________ and its wavelength would _________?

a)  increase; decrease

b)  decrease; increase

c)  increase; increase

d)  stay the same; stay the same

e)  decrease; decrease

1/1
Question 11 poin
t
If the wavelength of a beam of light were to double, how would
that affect its frequency?

a)  There is no relationship between wavelength and frequency.

b)  The frequency would be four times smaller.

c)  The frequency would be two times larger.

 d)  The frequency would be four times larger.

e)  The frequency would be two times smaller

1/1
Question 12 poin
t
Which of the following lists different types of electromagnetic
radiation in order from the smallest wavelength to the largest
wavelength?

a)  radio waves, infrared, visible, ultraviolet, X-rays

b)  gamma rays, X-rays, infrared, visible, ultraviolet

c)  X-rays, infrared, visible, ultraviolet, radio waves

d)  gamma rays, ultraviolet, visible, infrared, radio waves

e)  radio waves, ultraviolet, visible, infrared, gamma rays

1/1
Question 13 poin
t
As wavelength increases, the energy of a photon _________ and
its frequency _________.

a)  increases; increases

b)  decreases; decreases

c)  decreases; increases

d)  increases; decreases

Question 14 1/1
 poin
t
How do the wavelength and frequency of red light compare to
the wavelength and frequency of blue light?

a)  Red light has a shorter wavelength and higher frequency than blue light.

b)  Red light has a longer wavelength and lower frequency than blue light.

c)  Red light has a longer wavelength and higher frequency than blue light.

d)  Red light has a shorter wavelength and lower frequency than blue light.

1/1
Question 15 poin
t
Saying that something is quantized means that it:

a)  travels at the speed of light

b)  can only have discrete quantities

c)  is a wave

d)  is a particle

e)  is smaller than an atom

1/1
Question 16 poin
t
When an electron moves from a higher energy level in an atom
to a lower energy level:

a)  the electron loses mass

 b)  a photon is absorbed

c)  the atom is ionized

d)  a continuous spectrum is emitted

e)  a photon is emitted

1/1
Question 17 poin
t
If you observe an isolated hot cloud of gas, you will see:

a)  a rainbow spectrum

b)  an emission spectrum

c)  an absorption spectrum

d)  a continuous spectrum

e)  a dark spectrum

1/1
Question 18 poin
t
What does it mean to say that an object is in thermal
equilibrium?

a)  It isn’t absorbing any energy.

b)  It is radiating more energy than it is absorbing.

c)  It is absorbing the same amount of energy that it is radiating.

 d)  It is absorbing more energy than it is radiating.

e)  It isn’t radiating any energy.

1/1
Question 19 poin
t
What spectral class is the Sun?

a)  M3

b)  A0

c)  F5

d)  B7

e)  G2

Dark energy is a force that continually decreases the expansion rate of the universe.

True

False
1/1
Question 2
point
The concept of inflation helps solve both the problems of the flatness of the universe and
smoothness of the cosmic background radiation.

True

False
1/1
Question 3
point
The three fundamental forces of nature are gravity, electromagnetism, and the strong force.

True

False
Question 4 1/1
 point
The four fundamental forces of nature are gravity, electromagnetism, the weak force, and the
strong force.

True

False
1/1
Question 5
point
The weak force mediates the beta decay of neutrons into protons, electrons, and antineutrinos.

True

False
1/1
Question 6
point
The force that binds three quarks together to make up a proton or neutron is called the weak
force.

True

False
1/1
Question 7
point
Which of the following are NOT considered carrier particles used to mediate forces between
other particles?

a)  gluons

b)  W+ particles

c)  gravitons

d)  quarks

e)  photons

1/1
Question 8 poin
t
How would astronomers describe the antiparticle of an electron?
 a)  It would have the same charge but opposite spin.

b)  It would have the opposite spin and higher mass.

c)  It would have the opposite charge but same spin.

d)  It would have the same mass but opposite charge.

e)  It would have the opposite charge and higher mass.

1/1
Question 9 poin
t
As the universe cooled shortly after the Big Bang, which was the first fundamental force to
separate itself out from the others?

a)  gravity

b)  the weak force

c)  electromagnetism

d)  the nuclear force

e)  the strong force

1/1
Question 10 poin
t
Put the following types of objects in order, starting with the first one to form after the Big Bang
and ending with the last one to form:

a)  nuclei, protons, neutral atoms

b)  protons, nuclei, neutral atoms

c)  protons, neutral atoms, nuclei

 d)  nuclei, neutral atoms, protons

e)  neutral atoms, protons, nuclei

The average density of the interstellar medium is many times

less dense than the best vacuum on Earth.

True

False
1/1
Question 2
point
The lowest-density gas in the interstellar medium is also the
coldest.

True

False
1/1
Question 3
point
The interstellar medium has different types of gas clouds that
are characterized by different particle densities and
temperatures.

True

False
0/1
Question 4
point
Molecular hydrogen atoms are found only inside dense clouds
where they are shielded from stellar radiation.

True

False
 1/1
Question 5
point
The coldest molecular clouds in our galaxy have temperatures of
approximately 1000 K.

True

False
1/1
Question 6
point
In the interstellar medium, molecules survive only in regions
with:

a)  low temperatures

b)  high densities

c)  lots of dust

d)  all of the above

1/1
Question 7 poin
t
Interstellar clouds are:

a)  regions where hydrogen combines with oxygen to create water molecules

b)  regions where water condenses out of the interstellar medium

c)  hydrogen gas, condensed out of the interstellar medium, like water clouds in the Earth’s atmosphere

d)  regions where hydrogen tends to be denser than the surrounding gas

e)  oxygen gas, condensed out of the interstellar medium, like water clouds in the Earth’s atmosphere

Question 8 1/1
 poin
t
Magnetic fields inside a molecular cloud act to:

a)  increase the formation of dust grains

b)  modulate the temperature of the molecules

c)  fragment the cloud into numerous cores

d)  inhibit gravitational collapse

e)  increase the formation of protostars

Our Solar System is the only planetary system in our galaxy.

True

False
1/1
Question 2
point
If a collapsing interstellar cloud formed only a protostar without an accretion disk around it, what
would happen?

a)  Only terrestrial planets would form around the protostar.

b)  More planets would form around the protostar.

c)  The forming protostar would be significantly less massive than it would have been otherwise.

d)  The forming protostar would be rotating too fast to hold itself together.

e)  Only giant planets would form around the protostar.

1/1
Question 3 poin
t
Conservation of angular momentum slows a cloud’s collapse:
 a)  mostly at the poles that lie along the cloud’s axis of rotation

b)  only when the cloud is not rotating initially

c)  mostly along directions perpendicular to the cloud’s axis of rotation

d)  to a complete stop

e)  equally in all directions

1/1
Question 4 poin
t
What happens to the kinetic energy of gas as it falls toward and eventually hits the accretion disk
surrounding a protostar?

a)  It becomes the kinetic energy of the orbit of the gas in the accretion disk around the protostar.

b)  It is converted into potential energy as the gas plows through the disk and comes out the other side.

c)  It is immediately converted into photons, giving off a flash of light upon impact.

d)  It disappears into interstellar space.

e)  It is converted into thermal energy, heating the disk.

1/1
Question 5 poin
t
What sets the temperature of the pocket of gas in a protoplanetary disk?

a)  its distance from the forming star

b)  how much kinetic energy was converted to heat

c)  how much radiation from the forming star shines on the gas
 d)  a combination of all three of the above

1/1
Question 6 poin
t
Because angular momentum must be conserved, as a gas cloud contracts due to gravity it will
also:

a)  decrease in temperature

b)  spin faster

c)  spin slower

d)  increase in temperature

e)  stay the same temperature

1/1
Question 7 poin
t
What primarily makes it difficult to observe protostars?

a)  The star formation process happens so quickly.

b)  They do not shine at any wavelength until they become T Tauri stars.

c)  They are too small to be seen.

d)  They occur in dusty regions.

e)  They have low luminosities.

1/1
Question 8 poin
t
The entire process of star formation is really just an evolving balance between:
 a)  pressure and gravity

b)  heat and rotation

c)  radiation and heat

d)  core temperature and surface temperature

e)  luminosity and distance

1/1
Question 9 poin
t
The source of energy for a contracting protostar comes from:

a)  gravitational potential energy

b)  kinetic energy

c)  thermonuclear energy

d)  radiation energy

e)  chemical energy

1/1
Question 10 poin
t
What happens as a protostar contracts?

a)  Its density rises.

b)  Its temperature rises.

c)  Its radius decreases.

d)  Its pressure rises.

 e)  All of the above are true.

1/1
Question 11 poin
t
Brown dwarfs are considered failed stars because:

a)  they primarily shine at infrared wavelengths

b)  hydrogen fusion never begins in their cores

c)  convection never plays a role in their energy transport

d)  they are never as luminous as the Sun

e)  they never reach masses larger than 50 Jupiter masses

1/1
Question 12 poin
t
A protostar’s evolutionary “track” in the H-R diagram traces out:

a)  only how the protostar’s spectral type changes with time

b)  only how the protostar’s radius changes with time

c)  the protostar’s location in the molecular cloud

d)  how the protostar’s luminosity, temperature, and radius change with time

e)  only how the protostar’s luminosity changes with time

1/1
Question 13 poin
t
The most common types of stars in our galaxy are:
 a)  We do not yet know which types of stars are most common in our galaxy.

b)  low-mass stars

c)  high-mass stars

d)  an equal mix of high- and low-mass stars

e)  low-mass stars near the Sun and high-mass stars far away

In our Sun, hydrostatic equilibrium exists only in the core, where

energy production via fusion can balance gravity.
Question options:

At the center of the Sun, the temperature is roughly 15 million

K.
Question options:

The Sun has a mass of:

Question options:
 Hydrostatic equilibrium is a balance between:
Question options:

d gravity

nd heat

ntrifugal force

force and gravity

rature and surface temperature

The energy that fuels the Sun is generated:

Question options:

solar wind

on the surface, and in the solar wind

core and on its surface

core
surface

Stars forming in molecular clouds tend to form first in the low-

density periphery.
Question options:

A protostar is usually in hydrostatic equilibrium as its collapses.

Question options:

When winds blow the gas away from a forming protostar it

becomes visible as a T Tauri star.
Question options:

Dust reddens starlight because:

Question options:

ostly in the infrared due to its cold temperature

y moves away from Earth

the light it absorbs at red wavelengths

ntially affects light at visible and shorter wavelengths

mostly of hydrogen, which produces the red H-alpha emission line

21-cm radiation is important because:

Question options:

s to study the deep interiors of stars

ngest wavelength of light that can naturally be produced

s to study neutral hydrogen in the interstellar medium

us to image magnetic fields directly

ced by every object in the universe

Molecular cloud cores are places where you might find:

Question options:

aro objects

hydrogen (H2)
onoxide (CO)

above

For an object in hydrostatic equilibrium, if the temperature

inside the object were to increase, the object would:
Question options:

e same size

As a protostar evolves, its temperature:

Question options:

because of angular momentum

due to the kinetic energy of infalling material

because it is radiating

because of gravitational contraction

because of nuclear fusion

A young protostar is _________ than the Sun even though its
surface temperature is _________.
Question options:

a)  smaller; the same

b)  more luminous; cooler

c)  smaller; hotter

d)  larger; cooler

e)  less luminous; hotter

Nuclei of atoms are held together by gravity.

Question options:

The net result of the proton-proton chain of nuclear reactions is

that four protons are converted into one helium nucleus and
energy, electrons, and neutrinos are released.
Question options:
 Neutrinos are particles with small masses that interact easily
with normal matter.
Question options:

Which force is responsible for holding the protons and neutrons

in the nucleus of an atom together?
Question options:

orce

ear force

ush them together.

ce

The majority of the Sun’s energy comes from:

Question options:

terial as in a fire

sion of uranium
ning

usion

al contraction

When two atomic nuclei come together to form a new species of

atom, this is called:
Question options:

ion

itting

ombination

sion

Two main-sequence stars have the same temperature. If star A

is four times brighter than star B, then:
Question options:

o times farther away than star A

star A lie at the same distance from us

ur times farther away than star A

sible to determine their relative distances from the information given

ght times farther away than star A

Star A is a red star. Star B is a blue star. You are able to

determine that both stars are the same size. Which star is
brighter?
Question options:

t related to brightness at all.

the same brightness.

ed to know the distance of the stars to determine their brightness.

righter.

ighter.

A radio photon travels slower than a gamma ray photon.

Question options:
A thin cloud of cool gas on top of a hotter blackbody will radiate
an emission spectrum.
Question options:

Which formula denotes how the speed of light c is related to its

wavelength l and frequency f?

Question options:

a)  c = f/l

b)  There is no relationship between wavelength and frequency.

c)  c = lf

d)  c = 1/lf

e)  c= l/f

A 10M star will evolve through the same phases as a 1 M star.

True

False
1/1
Question 2
point
If a main-sequence star’s core temperature increased, fusion
reaction rates would decrease because the protons would be
moving faster.
 True

False
1/1
Question 3
point
The more massive a star is, the more hydrogen it has to burn,
and the longer its main-sequence lifetime lasts.

True

False
1/1
Question 4
point
Stars evolve primarily because they use up the fuel in their
cores.

True

False
1/1
Question 5
point
The Sun will become a red giant star in about 5 billion years.

True

False
1/1
Question 6
point
Once the core of a low-mass main-sequence star runs out of
hydrogen, fusion in the star stops until the core temperature is
high enough for helium fusion to begin.

True

False
1/1
Question 7
point
A star like the Sun will eventually become an electron
degenerate white dwarf star.

True

False
1/1
Question 8
point
The Sun eventually could become a nova.

True

False
1/1
Question 9
point
Which star spends the longest time as a main-sequence star?

a)  1 M

b)  3 M

c)  0.5 M

d)  10 M

e)  6 M

0/1
Question 10 poin
t
For low-mass main-sequence stars in hydrostatic equilibrium, at
any interior radius there exists a balance between the downward
gravitational force at that radius and:

a)  the energy released by fusion reactions in a shell surrounding the degenerate core

b)  the convective force of material rising from the interior

 c)  the energy released from fusion reactions in the core

d)  the outward gas pressure from the material inside that radius

e)  the pressure from a degenerate electron core

1/1
Question 11 poin
t
A main-sequence star is unique because:

a)  hydrogen burning occurs in its core

b)  energy transport occurs via convection throughout much of its interior

c)  hydrostatic equilibrium exists at all radii

d)  carbon burning occurs in its core

e)  it emits strong surface winds

1/1
Question 12 poin
t
When a star depletes its core supply of hydrogen, _________
causes the core to collapse while increased gas _________ is
exerted on the atmosphere.

a)  gravity; pressure

b)  pressure; pressure

c)  gravity; gravity

 d)  gravity, radiation

e)  radiation; gravity

1/1
Question 13 poin
t
The Sun will likely stop being a main-sequence star in:

a)  5 million years

b)  5,000 years

c)  500 million years

d)  50 million years

e)  5 billion years

When a star burns hydrogen in a shell, it will never produce as much energy (per unit time) as
when it burns hydrogen in the core because the core has a higher temperature.

True

False
1/1
Question 2
point
A star like the Sun will eventually become an electron degenerate white dwarf star.

True

False
1/1
Question 3
point
As a main-sequence star burns its core supply of hydrogen, what happens?

a)  Helium begins to fuse throughout the core.

b)  Helium builds up everywhere in the star’s interior.

 c)  Helium builds up as ash in the core.

d)  Helium fusion takes place only at the very center of the core, where temperature and pressure are highest

e)  Helium fuses in a shell surrounding the core.

1/1
Question 4 poin
t
Place the following evolutionary stages in order from youngest to oldest.

a)  1, 2, 3
 b)  2, 1, 3

c)  3, 1, 2

d)  2, 3, 1

e)  3, 2, 1

1/1
Question 5 poin
t
When a spectral-type G2 star like the Sun leaves the main sequence:

a)  its luminosity and surface temperature both stay the same

b)  its luminosity decreases and its surface temperature increases

c)  its luminosity and surface temperature both increase

d)  its luminosity increases and its surface temperature decreases

e)  its luminosity and surface temperature both decrease

1/1
Question 6 poin
t
A low-mass main-sequence star’s climb up the red giant branch is halted by:

a)  instabilities in the star’s expanding outer layers

b)  an explosion that destroys the star

c)  the beginning of helium fusion in the core

d)  the end of hydrogen shell burning

e)  electron-degeneracy pressure in the core

 1/1
Question 7 poin
t
What is the name of the nuclear reaction illustrated here?

a)  the triple-alpha process

b)  the proton-proton chain

c)  beta decay

d)  the CNO cycle

e)  the alpha-beta reaction

1/1
Question 8 poin
t
The nuclear reaction that produces most of the energy for massive main-sequence stars is called
the CNO cycle.

True

False
1/1
Question 9
point
Most of the uranium (atomic mass = 238) found on the Earth was formed in Type II supernova
explosions.

True

False
 1/1
Question 10
point
The CNO cycle is the dominant mechanism for hydrogen fusion only in high-mass main-
sequence stars because of the greater __________ their cores.

a)  rotation speed of

b)  turbulence in

c)  concentration of heavy elements like carbon in

d)  abundance of hydrogen in

e)  temperature of

1/1
Question 11 poin
t
The principal means by which high-mass stars generate energy on the main sequence is called:

a)  the triple-alpha process

b)  the carbon-carbon reaction

c)  the CNO cycle

d)  the proton-proton chain

e)  neutrino cooling

1/1
Question 12 poin
t
In the CNO cycle, carbon is used a catalyst for the fusion of hydrogen to helium. This means
that:

a)  three helium nuclei fuse to form carbon

 b)  carbon breaks apart into three helium nuclei

c)  the reaction produces carbon nuclei in addition to helium

d)  carbon facilitates the reaction but is not consumed in it

e)  carbon boosts the energy from the reaction, which is why massive stars are luminous

1/1
Question 13 poin
t
The nuclear reaction that releases the most energy per kilogram is:

a)  helium fusing to carbon

b)  silicon fusing to iron

c)  oxygen fusing to silicon

d)  carbon fusing to magnesium

e)  hydrogen fusing to helium

1/1
Question 14 poin
t
Massive stars explode soon after fusion to iron begins because:

a)  iron nuclei are unstable and rapidly break apart into lighter elements

b)  stars do not contain elements heavier than iron; these are made in supernova explosions

c)  fusion of elements heavier than iron requires energy, so the star runs out of fuel and cannot hold itself up

d)  neutrinos emitted during the fusion to iron are captured by the star’s lighter elements

e)  iron has the smallest binding energy of all elements

 1/1
Question 15 poin
t
Massive stars explode when they:

a)  run out of nuclear fuel in their core, and the cores collapse

b)  merge with another massive star

c)  accrete mass from their binary star companion

d)  generate uranium in their cores

e)  lose a lot of mass in a stellar wind

1/1
Question 16 poin
t
Where did all heavy elements in the Sun come from?

a)  Previous generations of stars seeded the interstellar medium out of which the Sun formed.

b)  Nucleosynthesis within the Sun generated all the elements we see in the solar spectrum.

c)  Nearby supernova explosions directly contaminated the Sun’s surface.

d)  The Sun gobbled up some planets during the early days of our Solar System.

e)  The solar wind carries away hydrogen and helium, leaving behind the heavy elements.

1/1
Question 17 poin
t
What might be true about the oldest stars in the Milky Way?

a)  They would likely be seen as pulsars.

 b)  They would be massive, since they were among the first stars formed.

c)  They would be seen as supergiants.

d)  They would have few heavy elements, since there was not much chance for earlier generations of stars to

e)  They would have lots of heavy elements, since they have been around for a long time and have undergone

1/1
Question 18 poin
t
Where did the iron in your blood come from?

a)  nucleosynthesis in red giant and horizontal-branch stars

b)  nucleosynthesis that took place in supernova explosions

c)  nucleosynthesis on the surfaces of neutron stars

d)  nucleosynthesis in the cores of low-mass stars

e)  nucleosynthesis in the cores of massive stars

1/1
Question 19 poin
t
Iron has 26 protons in its nucleus, and gold has 79 protons. Where did all the gold on the Earth
come from?

a)  nucleosynthesis on the surfaces of neutron stars

b)  nucleosynthesis that took place in supernova explosions

c)  nucleosynthesis in red giant and horizontal-branch stars

d)  nucleosynthesis in the cores of low-mass stars

 e)  nucleosynthesis in the cores of massive stars

In the radiative zone inside the Sun, photons are transported from the core to the convective zone
in a matter of seconds.

True

False
0/1
Question 2
point
The solar neutrino problem was solved by postulating that neutrinos have a small mass and
oscillate between three different types of neutrino.

True

False
1/1
Question 3
point
Density, temperature, and pressure increase as you move inward in the interior of the Sun. This
means that the force of gravity, (Fg = GMm/r2), _________ as you move inward toward the core.

a)  increases

b)  decreases

c)  stays the same

d)  There is not enough information to answer.

1/1
Question 4 poin
t
The balance of energy in the solar interior means that:

a)  the source of energy in the core is stable and will sustain the Sun for millions of years

b)  the core of the Sun has higher pressure than the outer layers

c)  the outer layers of the Sun absorb and re-emit the radiation from the core at increasingly longer waveleng
 d)  energy production rate in the core equals the rate of radiation escaping the Sun’s surface

e)  radiation pressure balances the weight of the overlying solar layers

1/1
Question 5 poin
t
If the core of the Sun were hotter than it is now, how would the Sun’s energy production change?

a)  Its energy production would be more stable than it is now.

b)  The Sun’s energy production would not change.

c)  It would produce less energy per second than it does now.

d)  It would produce more energy per second than it does now.

e)  Its energy production would vary more than it does now.

1/1
Question 6 poin
t
The interior zones of the Sun are distinguished by:

a)  jumps in density between zones

b)  their temperature profiles

c)  pressure differences inside each zone

d)  their modes of energy transport

e)  all of the above

1/1
Question 7 poin
t
Which of the following layers of the Sun makes up the majority of its interior?
 a)  the photosphere

b)  the chromosphere

c)  the radiative zone

d)  the core

e)  the convective zone

1/1
Question 8 poin
t
Approximately how long does it take the photons released in nuclear reactions in the core of the
Sun to exit the photosphere?

a)  4.6 billion years

b)  1,000 years

c)  16 hours

d)  100,000 years

e)  8 minutes

1/1
Question 9 poin
t
Which of these can travel directly from the center of the Sun to Earth in about 8 minutes?

a)  neutrons

b)  protons

c)  electrons
 d)  photons

e)  neutrinos

1/1
Question 10 poin
t
The detection of solar neutrinos confirms that:

a)  energy transport by radiation occurs throughout much of the solar interior

b)  magnetic fields are responsible for surface activity on the Sun

c)  the Sun’s core is powered by proton-proton fusion

d)  convection churns the base of the solar atmosphere

e)  sunspots are cooler than the rest of the photosphere

1/1
Question 11 poin
t
By studying how the surface of the Sun vibrates like a struck bell we can determine its:

a)  age

b)  total mass

c)  size

d)  interior density

e)  temperature

0/1
Question 12 poin
t
How does nucleosynthesis depend on the mass of the star?
 a)  With increasing mass, elements between helium and gold are formed in the cores.

b)  With increasing mass, heavier and heavier elements are formed throughout their interiors.

c)  With increasing mass, elements between helium and carbon are formed in the cores.

d)  With increasing mass, heavier and heavier elements are formed in their cores.

e)  All stars more massive than 8 solar masses create elements from helium through uranium in their cores.

1/1
Question 13 poin
t
Massive stars synthesize chemical elements going from helium up to iron:

a)  primarily at the surface

b)  throughout the interior

c)  only in the core of the star

d)  in a deep convection zone in the interior of the star

e)  along the equator of the star

The fact that the surface of the Sun rings like a bell lets us understand its interior better.

True

False
1/1
Question 2
point
In a sunspot, the umbra is cooler than the penumbra.

True
 False
1/1
Question 3
point
The solar magnetic field switches polarity every 11 years.

True

False
1/1
Question 4
point
Which of the following curves best matches the shape of a graph of the density of material inside
the Sun (in thousands of kg/m3) as you move further away from the center?

a)  A
 b)  B

c)  C

d)  D

e)  E

1/1
Question 5 poin
t
Imagine that you observed the Sun and measured the brightness of the face of the Sun at the
locations marked in this image:

At which of these locations would you measure the lowest brightness?

a)  B
 b)  D

c)  They would all have the same brightness.

d)  A

e)  C

0/1
Question 6 poin
t
Sunspots appear dark because they have _________ than the surrounding gas.

a)  lower temperatures

b)  higher temperatures

c)  higher densities

d)  higher pressures

e)  lower densities

1/1
Question 7 poin
t
The darkest part of a sunspot is called the:

a)  photosphere

b)  granule

c)  penumbra

d)  umbra

e)  magnetic field

 1/1
Question 8 poin
t
The magnetic field of the Sun is continuously produced and deformed by:

a)  a liquid conducting layer in the interior

b)  changes in the rate of nuclear fusion in the core

c)  the solar wind

d)  its differential rotation

e)  This is a trick question. The solar magnetic field is primordial.

1/1
Question 9 poin
t
The Sun’s internal magnetic field becomes tangled up over time because of:

a)  coronal holes

b)  coronal mass ejections

c)  differential rotation

d)  temperature changes in the Sun’s core

e)  all of the above

1/1
Question 10 poin
t
If you observe a maximum number of sunspots right now, how long would you have to wait to
see the next solar maximum?
 a)  1 year

b)  6 months

c)  24 hours

d)  11 years

e)  22 years

1/1
Question 11 poin
t
The Maunder Minimum was a 60-year period when:

a)  almost no sunspots occurred on the Sun

b)  very few dust storms occurred on Mars

c)  very few volcanic eruptions occurred on Mars

d)  the Voyager 2 spacecraft traversed the heliopause

e)  debris thrown up in a comet collision blanketed the Sun

1/1
Question 12 poin
t
The Sun’s magnetic field reverses direction every:

a)  27 days

b)  22 years

c)  11 years

d)  24 hours
 e)  12 months

The Sun’s chromosphere appears red because:

a)  its spectrum is dominated by Ha emission

b)  it is hotter than the photosphere

c)  as the Sun rotates, the chromosphere appears to move away from us radially

d)  it has a higher concentration of heavy metals

e)  it is made of mostly helium

1/1
Question 2 poin
t
The image below shows the Sun during a solar eclipse at visible
wavelengths.
Which part of the Sun is visible in this picture around the
shadow of the Moon?

a)  radiative zone

b)  corona

c)  chromosphere

d)  photosphere

e)  convective zone

1/1
Question 3 poin
t
The Sun’s corona has a temperature of approximately 1 million
degrees. At what wavelength and in what part of the
electromagnetic spectrum does its radiation peak?

a)  2 x 10-5 m, infrared

b)  3 x 10-9 m, X-rays

c)  4 x 10-7 m, ultraviolet

d)  550 nm, visible

e)  6 m, radio

1/1
Question 4 poin
t
Which of the layers of the Sun is located the furthest from the
center of the Sun?
 a)  chromosphere

b)  photosphere

c)  convective zone

d)  corona

e)  radiative zone

1/1
Question 5 poin
t
We know the Sun’s corona is very hot because:

a)  we observe it emitting radiation at visible wavelengths

b)  the chromosphere and the photosphere are that hot, too

c)  we observe absorption from highly ionized atoms of iron and calcium in its spectrum

d)  the gas emits most of its radiation at radio wavelengths

e)  all of the above

1/1
Question 6 poin
t
The image below taken at visible wavelengths shows a section of
the Sun with sunspots visible.
Which of the labeled regions is the lowest temperature?

a)  region C

b)  region A

c)  They are all the same temperature.

d)  There is not enough information to determine their relative temperatures.

e)  region B

The temperature of the corona is much hotter than any other layer in the solar atmosphere.
 True

False
1/1
Question 2
point
If coronal holes covered a larger fraction of the Sun’s surface, the solar wind would contain a
higher density of particles.

True

False
1/1
Question 3
point
Which of the following can be a result of an increase in solar activity?

a)  The altitudes of orbiting satellites decrease.

b)  Airplanes have trouble navigating.

c)  Stronger auroras are seen.

d)  Power grids can be damaged.

e)  All of the above can be caused by increased solar activity.

1/1
Question 4 poin
t
Which of the following are created by solar magnetic activity?

a)  sunspots

b)  prominences

c)  coronal mass ejections

d)  solar flares

 e)  all of the above

0/1
Question 5 poin
t
The solar wind results from thermal heating of ions in the solar chromosphere and corona. The
corona is extraordinarily hot so the thermal velocities exceed escape velocity.

True

False
1/1
Question 6
point
The slow solar wind is only seen during solar maximum.

True

False
0/1
Question 7
point
The velocity distribution of the solar wind depends critically on the mass of the ion. He, for
example, has a much slower velocity than H.

True

False
1/1
Question 8
point
The heliopause is far beyond the Oort cloud.

True
False
The temperature of the corona is much hotter than any other
layer in the solar atmosphere.

True

False
1/1
Question 2
point
In a sunspot, the umbra is cooler than the penumbra.

True

False
1/1
Question 3
point
The solar magnetic field switches polarity every 11 years.

True

False
1/1
Question 4
point
The image below shows the Sun during a solar eclipse at visible
wavelengths.

Which part of the Sun is visible in this picture around the

shadow of the Moon?

a)  photosphere

b)  radiative zone

c)  convective zone

d)  corona

e)  chromosphere

1/1
Question 5 poin
t
Which of the layers of the Sun is located the furthest from the
center of the Sun?
 a)  convective zone

b)  radiative zone

c)  chromosphere

d)  photosphere

e)  corona

1/1
Question 6 poin
t
We know the Sun’s corona is very hot because:

a)  we observe it emitting radiation at visible wavelengths

b)  the chromosphere and the photosphere are that hot, too

c)  we observe absorption from highly ionized atoms of iron and calcium in its spectrum

d)  the gas emits most of its radiation at radio wavelengths

e)  all of the above

1/1
Question 7 poin
t
Sunspots appear dark because they have _________ than the
surrounding gas.

a)  higher densities

b)  lower temperatures

 c)  higher temperatures

d)  lower densities

e)  higher pressures

1/1
Question 8 poin
t
Which of the following are created by solar magnetic activity?

a)  sunspots

b)  prominences

c)  coronal mass ejections

d)  solar flares

e)  all of the above

1/1
Question 9 poin
t
The darkest part of a sunspot is called the:

a)  umbra

b)  magnetic field

c)  penumbra

d)  photosphere

e)  granule
 1/1
Question 10 poin
t
The Sun’s internal magnetic field becomes tangled up over time
because of:

a)  coronal holes

b)  coronal mass ejections

c)  differential rotation

d)  temperature changes in the Sun’s core

e)  all of the above

1/1
Question 11 poin
t
If you observe a maximum number of sunspots right now, how
long would you have to wait to see the next solar maximum?

a)  22 years

b)  1 year

c)  11 years

d)  6 months

e)  24 hours

1/1
Question 12 poin
t
The Maunder Minimum was a 60-year period when:
 a)  the Voyager 2 spacecraft traversed the heliopause

b)  almost no sunspots occurred on the Sun

c)  very few volcanic eruptions occurred on Mars

d)  very few dust storms occurred on Mars

e)  debris thrown up in a comet collision blanketed the Sun

1/1
Question 13 poin
t
Solar wind particles hit the surface of the Moon, but they don’t
make it to the surface of the Earth because the Earth:

a)  has an atmosphere while the Moon does not

b)  has a magnetic field while the Moon does not

c)  is larger than the Moon

d)  is further from the Sun than the Moon

e)  is warmer than the Moon

The solar neutrino problem was solved by:

a)  lowering the percentage of helium in models of solar composition

b)  postulating that neutrinos had mass and oscillated between three different types

c)  correctly measuring the density of the Sun’s interior

d)  improving detector efficiencies so more neutrinos were observed

 e)  adjusting the rate of hydrogen burning in solar models

1/1
Question 2 poin
t
We can determine how the density changes with radius in the
Sun using:

a)  infrared observations

b)  high-energy (gamma ray) observations

c)  helioseismology

d)  radar observations

e)  neutrino detections

1/1
Question 3 poin
t
Solar wind particles hit the surface of the Moon, but they don’t
make it to the surface of the Earth because the Earth:

a)  is further from the Sun than the Moon

b)  is larger than the Moon

c)  is warmer than the Moon

d)  has a magnetic field while the Moon does not

e)  has an atmosphere while the Moon does not

 1/1
Question 4 poin
t
In protoplanetary environments, the plane of an accretion disk is
perpendicular to the axis of rotation of the interstellar cloud out
of which it forms.

True

False
1/1
Question 5
point
Comets and asteroids are:

a)  primarily located within 1 AU of the Sun

b)  other names for meteors

c)  material left over from the formation of the planets

d)  all more massive than Earth’s Moon

e)  other names for moons of the planets

1/1
Question 6 poin
t
Most asteroids are found in orbit around the Sun between the
orbits of Jupiter and Saturn.

True

False
1/1
Question 7
point
The most common type of meteorites found are iron meteorites.
 True

False
1/1
Question 8
point
Carbonaceous chondrite meteorites are fragments of which type
of asteroid?

a)  S-type

b)  C-type

c)  Q-type

d)  M-type

e)  A-type

1/1
Question 9 poin
t
The most common type of meteorites are:

a)  stony-iron meteorites

b)  achondrite meteorites

c)  iron meteorites

d)  stony meteorites

e)  carbonaceous chondrite meteorites

0/1
Question 10 poin
t
High-energy spallation reactions in the galaxy in which a proton
or alpha collide with a heavier nucleus are capable of producing:

Li, Be, and B in excess of that found in our Sun

r-process radionuclides found in meteorites

Dark matter

Ices in the interstellar medium that ultimately are incorporated into the proto-
planetary nebula

0/1
Question 11
point
Which of the following are true about the solar wind?

The solar wind is accelerated thermally by the temperature in the

chromosphere

Elements with a low first ionization potential are enriched in the solar wind
relative to photospheric abundances

The solar wind consists of a slow solar wind and a fast solar wind

The solar wind consists exclusively of protons

0/1
Question 12
point
Solar flares are associated with:

Excess CNO fusion reactions occurring in the core

Sunspots and coronal mass ejections

A temporary shut down of convective mixing in the upper layers of the sun
 Impact of a large comet onto the surface of the sun

Identify the object in the picture below.

a)  a meteor

b)  an asteroid

c)  an iron meteorite

d)  an achondrite meteorite

e)  a chondrite meteorite

0/1
Question 2 poin
t
Different groups of meteorites may be distinguished on the
basis of:

oxygen isotopes

their bulk densities

 an ablation crust on the exterior

the amount of bacteria in the matrix material

0/1
Question 3
point
The oxygen isotopic composition of the solar wind was
determined by spectroscopic measurements of photospheric
species.

True

False
1/1
Question 4
point
Magnetic fields exert a force on charged particles.

True

False
0/1
Question 5
point
OSIRIS-Rex observations of Bennu indicate the following:

Bennu is a consolidated rock with numerous impact features

There are a few cobbles that may have originated from Vesta

Most of the cobbles have pyroxene minerals

Bennu is covered with a layer of ammonia ice

1/1
Question 6
point
Early in the beginning of the solar system it is possible that
Jupiter migrated in toward the inner part of the solar system.
This could have impacted the early evolution of the terrestrial
planets, including Venus.

True

False
0/1
Question 7
point
It is possible for the per mil deviations of oxygen isotopes
(relative to SMOW) to be negative.

True

False
1/1
Question 8
point
The Genesis spacecraft brought back to Earth a sample of:

a sample of a dead comet that was trapped in the Earth-Sun Lagrange point

samples of the solar wind

a small asteroid

a lunar meteorite

A terrestrial sample yields a  18

 of -4 per mil. Assume  that its
oxygen isotopes would fall on the terrestrial mass fractionation
line. The mass spectrometer used to make measurements did
not have the sensitivity to measure 17O but the 17  can be
estimated if we assume linear fractionation, that is the per mil
deviations will fall on the terrestrial fractionation line. What will
its  17
 be?
 -2 per mil

1 per mil

-5 per mil

2 per mil

0/1
Question 2
point
Which of the following are true regarding the oxygen isotope
plot?

The oxygen isotopic composition of lunar materials fall on the terrestrial

fractionation line. A reasonable conjecture of this observation is that the
 formation of the moon and Earth are deeply connected.

The H, L, and LL chondrites all have their own distinctive oxygen isotopic
compositions but each of the groups differ. The may indicate that the
individual chondrite chemical groups formed in a specific but different
regions of the solar nebular. 

Martian meteorites have the same oxygen isotope composition as Earth and
the moon.

Materials from CV chondrites have oxygen isotopic compositions that fall on

the terrestrial fractionation line.

1/1
Question 3
point
Which of the following is true regarding this graph?
 Elements that have lower first ionization potentials are enriched in the solar wind
relative to the solar photosphere; those that have higher first ionization potential
are depleted relative to the solar photosphere.

The noble gases are not present in the solar wind.

The first ionization potential (FIP) of en element in the photosphere is different

from its FIP if it is entrained into the solar wind. This is presumably a relativistic
effect.

The overabundance of Al and Mg in the solar wind explains the radiation

damage experienced by near-earth asteroids.

1/1
Question 4
point
A solar flare releases __________ energy from the Sun.

electric

nuclear

gravitational

magnetic
1/1
Question 5
point
Coronal mass ejections

carry away 1 percent of the mass of the Sun each year.

are caused by breaking magnetic fields.

are always emitted in the direction of Earth.

are unimportant to life on Earth.

0/1
Question 6
point
Cosmic rays are:

1)  elementary particles with very high energies

2)  high-velocity particles produced in novae

3)  dark-matter particles falling into the galaxy

4)  synchrotron emission from strong magnetic fields

5)  photons with even higher energy than gamma rays

1/1
Question 7 poin
t
The Trojan asteroids are located at:
 1)  the site of the Trojan Wars, described by Homer. 

2)  a Lagrange point of the Jupiter-Sun system.

3)  a location between the Kuiper Belt and the Oort Cloud.

4)  a Lagrange point of the Sun-Venus system.

1/1
Question 8 poin
t
The Genesis spacecraft

was launched with the goal of returning samples of the solar wind.

Crashed in Utah on its return.

monitored the energy spectrum of galactic cosmic rays.

collected solar wind for about three years while parked in a Lagrange point.

0/1
Question 9
point
Magnetic fields are capable of deflecting charged and uncharge
atoms in which the radius of curvature is proportional to the
energy of the atom.

True

False
1/1
Question 10
point
Measurement of the solar wind oxygen implanted in the SiC
from the Genesis concentrator

indicates that the oxygen isotopic abundance of the solar wind is isotopically
 light, lighter than most terrestrial materials.

was ambiguous because of oxygen contamination of the collector, most likely

resulting from the hard landing.

indicates that the solar wind oxygen has the same isotopic composition as Earth.

were conducted at multiple laboratories with multiple techniques; no agreement

has been achieved yet.

1/1
Question 11
point
SIMS is a mass spectrometric technique that uses a primary
beam to sputter secondary ions, the isotopic composition of the
secondary ions is measured after they pass through electrostatic
and magnetic sectors.

True

False
0/1
Question 12
point
The measurement of oxygen isotopes from the SiC detector
directly yielded the isotopic composition of the solar wind, no
corrections to the data were required.

True

False
1/1
Question 13
point
SIMS techniques are capable of providing an isotopic
composition as a function of depth since the primary beam
sputters the surface.
 True
False
The slope 1 line is hypothesized to be a mixing line between
solar composition oxygen and an isotopically heavy oxygen
reservoir.

True

False
1/1
Question 2
point
Meteorites can provide information about
 the early composition of the Solar System.

the composition of asteroids.

other planets.

all of the above

0/1
Question 3
point
Which are true about the picture of Allende?

This is a basaltic meteorite, it could be from Mars.

The small round objects are chondrules, objects formed early in the solar
system and incorporated into chondrites.

The irregular-shaped object roughly in the middle could be a calcium-

aluminum-inclusion, objects believed to be among the first solid materials in
the solar system.
 Allende was the first meteorite recognized to be a lunar meteorite, the round
objects are melt spherules from lunar volcanic activity.

0/1
Question 4
point
Which of the following have oxygen isotopes that lie on the
terrestrial fractionation line?

Lunar samples

Enstatite chondrites

Terrestrial sampes

Carbonaceous chondrites

Martian meteorites

H-chondrites

0/1
Question 5
point
Which of the following responses are true about the plot?

The gaps represent mean motion resonances with Jupiter.

The gaps have far fewer asteroids in them.

The gaps are populated by planets which have scattered the asteroids into
other orbits.

None of the above.

0/1
Question 6
point
The images below show data pertaining to sunspots. From these
data we can conclude that:
 There is a periodicity to sunspots. The cycle appears to about 11 years. That
is to say the sun goes from having a minimum to maximum number of
sunspots in about 11 years. 

In addition to the 11 year cycle it is also the case that the number of
sunspots at solar sunspot maxima is the same from cycle to cycle.

Early in the sunspot cycle the sunspot appear at higher solar latitudes and
then they migrate toward the solar equatorial region.

Although there is considerable evidence for the periodicity of

sunspots, there is no pattern to the location of their appearance within the
sunspot cycle.

1/1
Question 7
point
The large majority of meteorites are

a)  stony meteorites.

b)  stony-iron meteorites.

c)  iron meteorites.

 d)  cometary meteorites.

View Feedback
1 / 1 point
54
Measurements of  Cr in meteorites indicates a dichotomy
between carbonaceous and non-carbonaceous chondrites.

True

False
1/1
Question 9
point
A phenomenon known as self-shielding could be responsible for
the isotopic fractionation seen in meteorites.

True

False
1/1
Question 10
point
A possible explanation for the 54Cr dichotomy seen in
meteorites is that meteorites formed outside the orbit of Jupiter
have different isotopic compositions than those formed inside
the orbit of Jupiter.

True
False
What might be reasonable inferences that could be drawn from this plot?

Although many aspects of the solar nebula indicate thorough mixing, there

is nonetheless some heterogeneity in the solar nebula as evinced by Ti and
Cr isotopes.

The solar nebular was profoundly well-mixed in terms of elemental and

isotopic abundances.

A physical barrier, perhaps a massive planet like Jupiter, effectively

separated different reservoirs of material in the early solar system.

There is a dichotomy between carbonaceous and non-carbonaceous

materials in the solar system.

0/1
Question 2
point
Which of the following are reasonable inferences based on this plot?

The chondrites plotted on this plot likely formed at the same time.

The initial 87Sr/86Sr ratio was the same for all these chondrites.

Not all the chondrites had the same 87Rb/87Sr ratios when they initially
crystallized.

Shock processes likely redistributed both Rb and Sr in these meteorites so

the Sr did not evolve in a closed system.

0/1
Question 3
point
Which of the following are true about the plot?

Rb has a similar radius as K, so it can substitute for K in a mineral lattice.

Sr can also substitute for Ca in a mineral lattice.

Na is more likely to form a compound with Mg than it will with Cl.

Because of their relatively large atomic radii, K and Rb are often

incompatible.

1/1
Question 4
point
What can be said about asteroid orbits based on this figure.
 All asteroids have nearly circular orbits.

There are conspicuous gaps in the distribution of asteroids in the asteroid

belt; these are known as the Kirkwood Gaps.

The density of asteroids is greatest between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter.

The Trojans have orbits that intersect with Earth's orbit.

0/1
Question 5
point
What inferences can be reasonably made from this figure?
 Vesta has orbital parameters that are vastly different than any other
asteroids, this makes it unlikely that the howardites, eucrites, and
diogenites originate from Vesta.

The distribution of asteroids is homogeneous between the orbits of Mars

and Jupiter.

Many asteroids have orbits that are inclined relative to the ecliptic.

There are concentrations of objects that have nearly the same orbital
parameters; these may be the fragments of a catastrophically disrupted
larger body.

1/1
Question 6
point
An orbital resonance occurs when:
 a)  two planetary bodies come close enough to each other to make musical sounds

b)  there is no such thing,Professor Caffee is just running out of questions to ask

c)  two gaseous giant planets exchange atmospheric gases when they approach closely

d)  a planet gets too close to the Sun, thereby attracting sound waves out of the convective zoen

e)  two orbiting bodies exert a regular gravitational influence on each other

1/1
Question 7 poin
t
Perihelion is the point in an orbit __________ the Sun; aphelion is the point in an orbit
__________ the Sun.

furthest, closest

closest, furthest

closest, perpendicular to

furthest, perpendicular to

perpendicular to, furthest

1/1
Question 8
point
Apollo and Atens asteroids are notable because they exist in

1)   orbits that cross Earth's path.

2)  the main asteroid belt.

3)  an orbit shared by Jupiter.

4)  the Kuiper Belt.

View Feedback
 1 / 1 point
The solar wind consists of charged particles emanating outward from the Sun.

True

False
1/1
Question 10
point
What are some of the observations we conclude from the plot of solar abundances versus
carbonaceous abundances?

With a few noteworthy exceptions - N, C, Li, and B - the chemical composition

of primitive meteorites is similar to that observed in the solar photosphere.

C and N are depleted in carbonaceous chondrites relative to the sun, likely

indicating that carbonaceous chondrites formed at temperatures above the
freezing point of ices that could contain C and N.

We apparent correlation is really just a coincidence, there isn't much to be

learned from this plot.
 Since the sun is burning its nuclear fuel there is no point in comparing solar
photospheric abundances to meteorites.

1/1
Question 11
point
Which of the following are true about the solar chromosphere?

The chromosphere extends out from the photoshpere, accordingly it is cooler.

The chromosphere is a transient phenomenon, it only occurs during eclipses. 

Surprisingly, the temperature of the chromosphere is much greater than the photosphere.

The exact nature of the mechanism that is responsible for the temperature of the
chromosphere is uncertain, but it is likely related to magnetic fields.

Inside a solar nebula, as smaller particles collide and stick

together, forming larger particles, their self-gravity prevents
them from breaking apart, regardless of the strength of the
collision.

True

False
 1/1
Question 2
point
The solid form of a volatile material is generally referred to as
a(n):

a)  refractory material

b)  rock

c)  silicate

d)  metal

e)  ice

1/1
Question 3 poin
t
What is the age of our Solar System?

a)  4.6 billion years

b)  4.6 million years

c)  13.7 million years

d)  13.7 billion years

e)  13.7 trillion years

1/1
Question 4 poin
t
What is the most important factor in determining whether or not
a planet will be rocky like terrestrial planets or gaseous like
giant planets?
 a)  the planet’s internal temperature

b)  the time at which the planet forms

c)  whether the planet has moons

d)  the planet’s radius

e)  the planet’s distance from the Sun

1/1
Question 5 poin
t
Why do the terrestrial planets have a much higher fraction of
their mass in heavy chemical elements (as opposed to lighter
chemical elements) than the giant planets?

a)  Terrestrial planets are low in mass and high in temperature, thus their lighter chemical elements eventuall

b)  The giant planets were more massive than terrestrial planets, and the giant planets preferentially pulled th

c)  Terrestrial planets formed much earlier than giant planets before the hydrogen and helium had a chance to

d)  The heavier elements in the forming solar nebula sank to the center of the Solar System, thus the inner ter
elements.

e)  Terrestrial planets are colder and thus more massive chemical elements condensed on then than the giant

1/1
Question 6 poin
t
Why do the outer giant planets have massive gaseous
atmospheres of hydrogen and helium while the inner planets do
not?

a)  The inner planets were too close to the Sun, and the solar wind blew away their original gaseous atmosph
 b)  Temperatures were too high in the region of the Solar System that contains the inner planets.

c)  Frequent early collisions by comets with the inner planets caused most of their original atmospheres to di

d)  These gases were more abundant in the outer regions of the accretion disk where the outer planets formed

e)  The outer planets grew massive quickly enough to gravitationally hold on to these gases before the solar w

1/1
Question 7 poin
t
The difference in composition between the giant planets and the
terrestrial planets is most likely caused by the fact that:

a)  the terrestrial planets are closer to the Sun

b)  only small differences in chemical composition existed in the solar nebula

c)  only the terrestrial planets have iron cores

d)  the giant planets are much larger

e)  the giant planets are made mostly of carbon

0/1
Question 8 poin
t
Comets and asteroids are:

a)  primarily located within 1 AU of the Sun

b)  all more massive than Earth’s Moon

 c)  other names for meteors

d)  other names for moons of the planets

e)  material left over from the formation of the planets

1/1
Question 9 poin
t
Meteorites are more likely to come from asteroids than comets.

True

False
1/1
Question 10
point
The most common type of meteorites found are iron meteorites.

True

False
1/1
Question 11
point
Which of following is FALSE?

a)  Pluto was discovered by Clyde Tombaugh in 1930.

b)  Pluto has a thin atmosphere.

c)  Pluto has five moons.

d)  Pluto’s orbit sometimes brings it closer to the Sun than Neptune.

e)  Pluto has a mass that is 10 times less than the Earth’s mass.

1/1
Question 12 poin
t
Asteroids are primarily composed of:

a)  rock

b)  hydrogen and helium

c)  methane

d)  iron

e)  ice and dust

1/1
Question 13 poin
t
Meteorites contain clues to all of the following EXCEPT:

a)  the age of the Solar System

b)  the physical processes that controlled the formation of the Solar System

c)  the temperature in the early solar nebula

d)  the composition of the primitive Solar System

e)  changes in the rate of cratering in the early Solar System

Mars, Venus, and Earth are much less heavily cratered than
Mercury and the Moon. This is explained by the fact that:

a)  Mars, Venus, and Earth are much larger in size than Mercury and the Moon

b)  Mars, Venus, and Earth have thicker atmospheres

c)  the rate of cratering in the early Solar System was strongly dependent on location
 d)  Earth and Venus were shielded from impacts by the Moon, and Mars was protected by the asteroid belt

e)  Mars, Venus, and Earth were geologically active for a longer period of time than Mercury and the Moon

1/1
Question 2 poin
t
If a radioactive element has a half-life of 10,000 years, what
fraction of it is left in a rock after 40,000 years?

a)  1/8

b)  1/4

c)  1/2

d)  1/32

e)  1/16

1/1
Question 3 poin
t
Differentiation refers to materials that are separate based on
their:

a)  volume

b)  weight

c)  density

d)  heat capacity

 e)  mass

1/1
Question 4 poin
t
Which terrestrial object shows the least evidence of recent
volcanic activity?

a)  Earth

b)  Mars

c)  Mercury

d)  Venus

e)  the Moon

1/1
Question 5 poin
t
Which of the following are true based on the figure below?

Based on spacecraft measurements of K and Th Mercury most resembles the

lunar surface.

The K/Th ratio measured on Mercury is similar to Mars.

Mars, Venus, and Mercury share a common K/Th ratio.

K and Th can't really be measured anyway, so the graph is probably misleading.

1/1
Question 6
point
This figure schematically represents stages and time scales of
accretion and planetary formation. Which of the statements are
true?
 Nebular gas remained in the region of planet formation well after the formation
of the terrestrial planets.

The likely last stage of planet formation is a period of giant impacts.

Compared to the age of the solar system, accretionary processes occurred

rapidly, in less than 100 Ma

1/1
Question 7
point
According to our understanding of the Solar System, there once
were many more planetesimals than are observed today. What
became of most of the others?

They evaporated.
 They left the Solar System.

They became part of larger bodies.

They fragmented into smaller pieces.

1/1
Question 8
point
Asteroids are primarily composed of:

a)  ice and dust

b)  rock

c)  hydrogen and helium

d)  iron

e)  methane

1/1
Question 9 poin
t
An orbital resonance occurs when:

a)  two gaseous giant planets exchange atmospheric gases when they approach closely

b)  there is no such thing,Professor Caffee is just running out of questions to ask

c)  two planetary bodies come close enough to each other to make musical sounds

d)  two orbiting bodies exert a regular gravitational influence on each other

e)  a planet gets too close to the Sun, thereby attracting sound waves out of the convective zoen
Why have astronomers using the radial velocity method found
more Jupiter-sized planets at a distance of 1 AU around other
stars than Earth-sized planets?

a)  A Jupiter-sized planet exerts a larger gravitational force on the star than an Earth-sized planet, and the Do

b)  A Jupiter-sized planet shines brighter than an Earth-sized planet.

c)  Actually, the planets found at these distances have all been Earth sized.

d)  A Jupiter-sized planet occults a larger area than an Earth-sized planet.

e)  Earth-sized planets are much rarer than Jupiter-sized planets.

1/1
Question 2 poin
t
Detecting a planet around another star using the transit method
is difficult because the:

a)  star must be moving with respect to us

b)  planet’s orbital period is usually longer than 1 month

c)  star must be very dim

d)  planet must pass directly in front of the star

e)  planet must have a rocky composition

1/1
Question 3 poin
t
The Kepler mission is designed to search for extrasolar planets
using the _________ method.
 a)  microlensing

b)  Doppler shift

c)  transit

d)  direct imaging

1/1
Question 4 poin
t
A rotating disk of dense gas surrounding a young newly formed
star is called

1)  the pillars of creation

2)  the Mutara Nebula

3)  a polar jet

4)  a Herbig-Haro object

5)  protoplanetary disk

1/1
Question 5 poin
t
A surprising observation among the exoplanets is the closeness
of their orbits to their respective stars.

True

False
Question 6 0/1
 point
Among the first compounds to condense out of
a protoplanetary gas of solar composition would be

1)  water ice

2)  organic molecules, the building blocks of lifeextra-terrestrial

3)  Isaac Newton

4)  calcium and aluminum compounds

5)  extre-terrestrials

0/1
Question 7 poin
t
The first rocks in the solar system formed at temperatures
slightly below 2000 C. At these temperatures many atoms are
highly ionized so conventional thermodynamic calculations have
no predictive power. 

True

False
Question 0 / 10
8 points
Based on the information presented in the figure below which of
the following are true?

Meteorites from Mercury indicate that there is a wide variety of elemental

compositions on Mercury's surface

The diversity of elemental composition is caused by irradiation from the

nearby sun.

The presence of the distinct terranes of Mercury's surface indicates an early

history of complex geologic processes.

Measurements made by the Messenger spacecraft of elemental compositions

indicate the presence of distinct terranes on the surface of Mercury

0/1
Question 9
point
What conclusions might we draw from the graph of the
reconstructed surface density of our solar system?
 The deficit in mass near the orbit of Mercury indicates that Mercury could have been
larger.

The uncertainty in knowing the planets present mass makes a reconstruction of its
surface density nearly impossible so nothing can be ascertained from this graph.

The deficit in mass near the orbit of Mars indicates that it should have been a larger
planet.

It is possible to make conjectures about the radial dependence of surface density but
the estimates are highly uncertain.

In our solar system planets like Earth are found closer to the Sun
than planets like Jupiter.

True

False
1/1
Question 2
point
Our Solar System is the only planetary system in our galaxy.
 True

False
1/1
Question 3
point
Approximately how much mass was there in the protoplanetary
disk out of which the planets formed, compared to the mass of
the Sun?

a)  10 percent

b)  50 percent

c)  < 1 percent

d)  25 percent

e)  5 percent

1/1
Question 4 poin
t
The solid form of a volatile material is generally referred to as
a(n):

a)  silicate

b)  rock

c)  ice

d)  metal

e)  refractory material

Question 5 1/1
 poin
t
Based on the figure shown below, which planet(s) is (are) most
likely to have the largest fraction of its (their) mass made of
highly volatile materials such as methane and ammonia?

a)  Saturn

b)  Uranus

c)  Earth

d)  Venus, Earth, and Mars

e)  Jupiter

1/1
Question 6 poin
t
What is the age of our Solar System?

a)  13.7 billion years

b)  4.6 million years

c)  13.7 trillion years

d)  4.6 billion years

 e)  13.7 million years

1/1
Question 7 poin
t
What is the most important factor in determining whether or not
a planet will be rocky like terrestrial planets or gaseous like
giant planets?

a)  whether the planet has moons

b)  the planet’s internal temperature

c)  the time at which the planet forms

d)  the planet’s distance from the Sun

e)  the planet’s radius

1/1
Question 8 poin
t
The Nice Model was proposed in part to explain

Why Saturn has rings

A late heavy bombardment of the inner part of the solar system suggested by
some data

Why Venus and Earth are about the same size

The existence of volatiles on Mercury

1/1
Question 9
point
In the Nice model the giant planets are initially distributed closer
to the Sun.

True

False
1/1
Question 10
point
Which of the following phenomena are critical components of
the Nice model?

Collisions between the outermost giant planet and planetesimals ultimately move those
planets further away from the Sun.

The solar wind clears away the gas from the inner part of the solar system.

Saturn and Jupiter end up in a mean motion resonance which scatters objects throughout
the solar system, including the inner solar system.

A nearby super nova explosion injects some short-lived radionuclides into the solar
system.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the early Solar

System, based on current observations?

a)  Temperatures decreased with increasing distance from the Sun.

b)  The early solar nebula must have been flattened.

c)  The first objects to form started out small and grew in size over time.

d)  The initial composition of the solar nebula varied between its inner and outer regions.

e)  The material from which the planets formed was swirling about the Sun in the same average rotational dir

Question 2 1/1
 poin
t
Two competing models of the formation of giant gaseous
planets suggest they form either from gas accreting onto a rocky
core or from:

a)  materials condensing out of the solar wind

b)  planets stolen from another nearby protostar

c)  fragmentation of the accretion disk that surrounds the protostar

d)  an eruption of material from the protostar

e)  the merger of two large planetesimals

1/1
Question 3 poin
t
How much material in an accretion disk goes into forming the
planets, moons, and smaller objects?

a)  a small amount of it

b)  roughly half of it

c)  most of it

d)  none; these objects were not formed in the accretion disk

1/1
Question 4 poin
t
Astronomers believe that the “hot Jupiters” found orbiting other
stars must have migrated inward over time:
 a)  after colliding with another planet

b)  by slowly accreting large amounts of gas and increasing their gravitational pull

c)  by losing their gas due to evaporation

d)  by losing orbital angular momentum

e)  after a close encounter between their star and another star

1/1
Question 5 poin
t
When Earth-sized planets migrate in the presence of nebular gas
it is referred to as Type-II migration.

True

False
1/1
Question 6
point
Giant planets may migrate as a result of angular momentum
exchange with nebular gas, this is referred to as Type-II
migration.

True

False
0/1
Question 7
point
The Grand Tack model explains:

The rapidity of differentiation in primitive chondrites.

The small size of Mars relative to Earth.

 The mixing of carbonaceous types of asteroids with non-carbonaceous
types in the asteroid belts.

The inclined orbits of many of the asteroids.

1/1
Question 8
point
The preponderance of isotopic abundances in meteorites
indicate that the Gand Tack hypothesis is undoubtedly correct.

True

False
1/1
Question 9
point
The observation of "hot Jupiters" orbiting close to the sun
indicates that:

These stars are capturing rogue planets from the interstellar medium or other stars

The protostars were spinning so fast they spun off large amounts of hot material that
condensed into planets

Planets may migrate from the initial places of formation into other orbits

Dark matter inexplicably congregated near the sun attracting matter to it, which then
became a hot jupiter

Primary waves are seismic longitudinal waves whose paths are deflected when they travel
through the Earth’s liquid core.

True

False
1/1
Question 2
point
The interior of the Earth is differentiated because it cooled very quickly.

True
 False
1/1
Question 3
point
The lithosphere of a planet is:

a)  the layer of the atmosphere in which clouds form

b)  the molten layer under the crust

c)  its solid surface

d)  its frozen surface

e)  the upper layer of its atmosphere

1/1
Question 4 poin
t
Which picture illustrates an example of volcanism occurring on Earth?

a)  B

b)  C

c)  A

d)  D

1/1
Question 5 poin
t
Which picture  is an example of impacts occurring on Earth?

a)  B

b)  D

c)  A

d)  C

1/1
Question 6 poin
t
Suppose an earthquake occurs on an imaginary planet. Scientists on the other side of the planet
detect primary waves but not secondary waves after the quake occurs. This suggests that:

a)  part of the planet’s interior is liquid

 b)  the planet’s interior consists entirely of rocky materials

c)  the planet has an iron core

d)  The planet’s mantle is liquid

e)  all of the planet’s interior is solid

1/1
Question 7 poin
t
In the Earth’s crust, lower density igneous rock such as _________ make up the continents, and
higher density volcanic rock such as _________ make up the ocean floor.

a)  granite; iron-rich silicates

b)  limestone; sandstone

c)  limestone; granite

d)  marble; basalt

e)  granite; basalt

0/1
Question 8 poin
t
Examine the figure below that shows the continental plates of the Earth and the locations of
volcanoes and earthquakes. Which statement is FALSE?
 a)  Volcanoes occur more often where two plates are coming together rather than spreading apart.

b)  Southern California in the United States and Baja in Mexico are sliding northeastward relative to the res

c)  The Earth's crust is broken up into 13 separate continental plates.

d)  Earthquakes happen where two plates come together and when they spread apart.

e)  The Atlantic Ocean is getting smaller with time.

1/1
Question 9 poin
t
Which of the following are NOT sites of frequent volcanic and earthquake activity on Earth?

a)  subduction zones

b)  spreading centers

 c)  transform faults

d)  local hot spots

e)  inactive faults

1/1
Question 10 poin
t
Plate tectonics is NOT responsible for:

a)  mountain ranges

b)  ocean trenches

c)  volcanoes

d)  continental drift

e)  canyons

1/1
Question 11 poin
t
The largest volcanic mountains in the Solar System are found on

a)  Earth

b)  Mars

c)  Venus

d)  Mercury

e)  the Moon

There are two main forces that shape a planet’s surface: impacts and plate tectonics.
 True

False
1/1
Question 2
point
The interior of the Earth is hot mainly because of the pressure induced by the weight of the
material above it.

True

False
1/1
Question 3
point
Earth’s magnetic axis and its spin axis are not aligned.

True

False
1/1
Question 4
point
Permanent magnetism in the Earth’s solid iron core is the source of Earth’s magnetic field.

True

False
1/1
Question 5
point
Convection cannot take place in the Earth’s mantle because it is not molten.

True

False
1/1
Question 6
point
Volcanoes on Earth typically occur in the middle of oceans where two tectonic plates are
spreading apart.

True

False
0/1
Question 7
point
Which of these pictures illustrates an example of plate tectonics occurring on Earth?
a)  A

b)  D

c)  B

d)  C
 1/1
Question 8 poin
t
What is one of the main reason that the Earth’s interior is liquid today?

a)  convective motions in the mantle

b)  pressure on the core from Earth’s outer layers.

c)  tidal force of the Moon on the Earth

d)  seismic waves that travel through Earth’s interior

e)  decay of radioactive elements

0/1
Question 9 poin
t
Earth’s innermost core is solid, not liquid, because:

a)  the pressure is too high for the material to be in a liquid state

b)  Iron does not melt

c)  differentiation caused all of the heavy, solid material to sink to the bottom while Earth was forming

d)  the core temperature is too low to melt iron

e)  all the liquid has moved up into the mantle via convection
Which of the following are true about the figure below?

All solar system materials have about the same Cl/K ratios, so this ratio isn't
really an indicator of anything significant.

The Cl/K ratio measured on Mercury is similar to that of some carbonaceous

chondrites, indicating that volatiles may not be severely depleted on Mercury
afterall.
 Cl and K are considered volatile in solar system materials, so their abundance
may indicate the relative temperatures of condensation of solid materials.

Mercury looks most like lunar surface materials.

1/1
Question 2
point
The energy from the Sun comes from the fusion of helium into
hydrogen.

True

False
Question 0/2
3 points
Given the thermodynamic conditions that were likely prevalent in
the early solar nebula, what is likely true about the formation of
the first solids in the solar sytem?
 Corundrum and hibonite were likely the first solids to form.

In many regions of the solar nebula, especially where the terrestrial planets

form, liquid phases would be prevalent. 

Feldspars, olivines, and pyroxenes form at lower temperatures than perovskite,

hibonite, and corundrum.

Question 0/2
4 points
Which of the following are reasonable inferences based on this
plot?

The chondrites plotted on this plot likely formed at the same time.

The initial 87Sr/86Sr ratio was the same for all these chondrites.

Not all the chondrites had the same 87Rb/87Sr ratios when they initially
crystallized.

Shock processes likely redistributed both Rb and Sr in these meteorites so

the Sr did not evolve in a closed system.

1/1
Question 5
point
The following are typical lithophile elements:
 a)  C, N, and Ar. 

b)  Ra, Xe, and Np.

c)  Al, Mg, and Ca.

d)  Ag, Pb, and S.

View Feedback
0 / 2 points

This plot shows the hypothesized migration of Jupiter - and

Saturn - toward the sun, and then back out again. What
phenomena does this model explain?

The inward migration migration caused a quicker than expected accretion of

the precursors to achondrites, which in turn led to early differentiation of these
 objects. 

This migration explains why everything in the solar system does not have the
same oxygen isotopic composition as the sun. This migration fractionated the
oxygen isotopes with the result that ordinary chondrites have compositions that
differ from Earth and other meteorite groups.

The inward migration of Jupiter could have scattered material out of the orbit
of proto-Mars, resulting in Mars becoming less massive than it would have
otherwise.

The relatively high eccentricities of many of the asteroids.

All of the above.

Question 0/3
7 points
What is a typical speed (in MKS) for an ionized H atoms in the
sun's photosphere. Take the temperature of the photosphere to
be 5780 K. Use the following constants for your calculation.

kB  =  1.380649×10−23 J K-1

mp - 1.672623 x10-27 kg

Answer:
47,797.4850
(11,963.700)
3
0/3
Question 8
points
The high speed solar wind has a typical speed of ~
600 km/s. What temperature would we associate with this
velocity if we falsely assumed that thermal process are
responsible for the phenomenon? Assume the solar wind is
mostly ionized H. Use the following constants for your
calculation.

kB  =  1.380649×10−23 J K-1

mp - 1.672623 x10-27 kg

Answer:
0.0725561
(14,537,700)
1
1/1
Question 9
point
The Sun’s internal magnetic field becomes tangled over time
because of:

a)  coronal holes

b)  coronal mass ejections

c)  differential rotation

d)  temperature changes in the Sun’s core

e)  all of the above

0/1
Question 10 poin
t
The tabulation of elements that we refer to as "Solar System
Abundances" only has contributions from fusion, in does not
include nuclear species made by the r- and s- and p-processes.

True
False
Many of the geochemical signatures of Mercury point to a
composition similar to terrestrial Komatiites.
 True

False
0/1
Question 12
point
According to our understanding of the Solar System, there once
were many more planetesimals than are observed today. What
became of most of the others?

They evaporated.

They left the Solar System.

They became part of larger bodies.

They fragmented into smaller pieces.

0/3
Question 13
points
What is the escape velocity of a proton from the photosphere of
the sun. Use the following constants and work in MKS.

G = 6.67×10−11 m3·kg−1·s−2

r =  6.98x108 m (radius of sun)

Answer:
61
(617,567)
7
0/2
Question 14
points
What does this computer simulation represent?

The object in the lower right pane is the remains of a proto-planet after its
silicate mantle was stripped off, leaving an iron enriched planet, like
Mercury.

This computer simulation shows the proposed collision between Earth and a
large impactor that ultimately led to the formation of the moon.

This computer simulation represents a hypothesized collision that led to the

formation of Mercury.

The colliding planets have already differentiated, so their cores are enriched
in siderophiles.

0/2
Question 15
points
What reasonable hypotheses can be posited based on the plot
below?

Large planets orbiting close to their stars are a common feature of

exoplanet systems.

The planets are probably much smaller than measurements indicate because
of the presence of extended atmospheres on the giant planets.

The large Jupiter-like planets may be the result of a collision between the two
stars of a binary system.

Large Jupiter-like planets are unlikely to have formed close to the sun, so a
mechanism enabling the migration of planets inward may be common.

0/2
Question 16
points
This figure schematically represents stages and time scales of
accretion and planetary formation. Which of the statements are
true?
 Nebular gas remained in the region of planet formation well after the
formation of the terrestrial planets.

The likely last stage of planet formation is a period of giant impacts.

Compared to the age of the solar system, accretionary processes occurred

rapidly, in less than 100 Ma

1/1
Question 17
point
The magnetic field lines emanating from the sun are frozen into
the plasma, i.e. the solar wind, emanating from the Sun.

True

False
 1/1
Question 18
point
Siderophile elements are those elements that are geochemically
similar to iron, during differentiation they are likely to sink to a
planetary core.

True

False
0/1
Question 19
point
Energy balance in the Sun means that

the Sun does not change over time.

the Sun absorbs and emits equal amounts of energy.

radiation pressure balances the weight of overlying layers, a circumstance

known as hydrostatic equilibrium.

energy produced in the core equals energy emitted at the surface.

1/1
Question 20
point
Sunspots appear dark because they have _________ than the
surrounding gas.

a)  higher pressures

b)  lower temperatures

c)  lower densities

d)  higher temperatures

e)  higher densities

Coronal mass ejections

 carry away 1 percent of the mass of the Sun each year.

are caused by breaking magnetic fields.

are always emitted in the direction of Earth.

are unimportant to life on Earth, and after all, the Sun is big, it can lose a lot of
mass.

2/2
Question 22
points
In the photosphere of the sun an electron makes a transition
from the n=3 level to the n=2 level, emitting a photon. The
energy change is 7.55972 eV.  Calculate the frequency of this
photon.

Constants that you may or may not need.

Planck's constant h: 4.1357 x 10-15 eV s.

Stephan constant  : 5.6703 x 10-8 watts/(m2 K4)

9.49232 x 1014 Hz

1.60234 x 1016 Hz

4.88992 x 1015 Hz
1.82792 x 1015 Hz

None of the above.

1/1
Question 23
point
The Sun’s magnetic field reverses direction every:

a)  11 years

b)  12 months
 c)  22 years

d)  24 hours

e)  27 days

1/1
Question 24 poin
t
Oxygen isotopic compositions from many carbonaceous
chondrites fall on a slope 1 line displaced from the terrestrial
fractionation line. Several hypotheses have been offered. The
graph below illustrates results from laboratory experiments that
reproduce this slope 1 line. Which of the following explanations
might account for oxygen isotopic compositions shown in this
plot?

Non-mass-dependent mass fractionation caused by Alfven waves in the early

solar nebula. 
 Cosmic ray protons alter the isotopic compositions of the oxygen reservoir,
resulting in a slope 1 line.

Non-mass-dependent mass fractionation caused by self shielding of the more

abundant isotopes of oxygen from far UV irradiation.

Non-mass-dependent mass fractionation caused by the differing ionization

potential of the three isotopes of oxygen.

1/1
Question 25
point
Metamorphic rocks are formed by:

a)  impacts with meteorites.

b)  nuclear fusion.

c)  precipitation from sea water.

d)  subjecting any rock type — sedimentary, igneous rock, or another older metamorphic rock
pressure conditions than those in which the original rock was formed.

1/1
Question 26 poin
t
Identify the object in the picture below.
 a)  a meteor

b)  an iron meteorite

c)  a chondrite meteorite

d)  an asteroid

e)  an achondrite meteorite

1/1
Question 27 poin
t
The three types of rocks are:

a)  igneous, sedimentary, and metamorphic.

b)  green, black, and beige.

c)  quartz-bearing, glassy, and non-quartz bearing.

d)  terrestrial, extra-terrestrial, and mixtures of the two.

e)  none of the above, there is only one kind of rock, the kind I can't identify

View Feedback
1 / 1 point
R-process nuclides have been observed in the debris after a
neutron star merger.

True

False
1/1
Question 29
point
Sunspots peak every 11 years because the magnetic field shows
a periodicity of __________ years.

5.5

11

22

44
0/3
Question 30
points
The 18O/16O of an extraterrestrial sample is measured on a
stable isotope mass spectrometer. Measurements of SMOW on
the mass spectrometer yield an 18O/16O of .00200521. The
measurement of the sample yields a ratio of .00201725. What is
the 18δ for this sample?

Answer:

(6.003)

Which of the following are true about s- and r- process

nucleosynthesis?
 S-process refers to a nuclear process in which the nucleus is bombarded with
neutrons and if the nucleus is not stable it decays before it is bombarded by
another neutron.

R-process refers to a type of nuclear reaction that occurs in R-type stars,

these are stars that are extraordinarily hot.

R--process refers to a process in which the nucleus is bombarded by neutrons

so rapidly that the nucleus may not decay before it is hit by another neutron.

S-process refers to the quantum shell, within the nucleus, that the captured
neutron occupies.

0/3
Question 32
points
The decay constant for a radioactive nuclide is 4.74758 x 10-12 yr-1. What is its
half-life in years?

Answer:

1.23 (146,000,000,000)
Question 33 0/1
 point
A subduction zone is an example of a:

1)  divergent plate boundary, like the mid-Atlantic ridge

2)  convergent plate boundary in which an oceanic plate is being taken underneath a continental plate

3)  two plates slipping past each other, like the San Andreas fault

4)  the collision of two volanoes, which fortunately doesn't happen too often

1/1
Question 34 poin
t
The Goldschmidt classification, developed by Victor Goldschmidt, is a
geochemical classification which groups the chemical elements within the
Earth according to:

a)  the number of neutrons in the nucleus of the different elements.

b)  their affinity for making lithophiles (rock-loving), siderophile (iron-loving),

volatile compounds.

c)  the believed color of the pure form of the elements.

d)  the masses of the elements.

1/1
Question 35 poin
t
The Grand Tack hypothesis proposes that:

Jupiter and Saturn migrated in the early solar system, scattered asteroids

and Kuiper Belt objects into their current positions, and ultimately moved
outward as a result of orbital resonances.

asteroids were once part of a much larger planet that was pulled apart by tidal
 forces.

the rotation velocity of Earth was so great 4.5 billion years ago that it spun off
the moon.

comets impacting Earth brought enough water to fill the oceans.

1/1
Question 36
point
Most asteroids are located between the orbits of:

a)  Jupiter and Saturn

b)  Neptune and Pluto

c)  Mars and Jupiter

d)  Earth and Mars

e)  the Kuiper Belt and the Oort Cloud

1/1
Question 37 poin
t
Olympic Mons is:

a)  a large shield volcano on Mars - it is the largest known volcano in the solar system.

b)  a large stadium used for ancient Olympic games in Athens.

c)  a large meteorite that fell in Los Angeles during the Olympics.

d)  an impact structure on the lunar surface.

Question 38 1/1
poin
 t
Differentiation refers to materials that are separate based on
their:

a)  enthalpy

b)  heat capacity

c)  outer electron shell

d)  density

e)  volume

1/1
Question 39 poin
t
The Maunder Minimum was a 60-year period when:

a)  very few volcanic eruptions occurred on Mars

b)  the Voyager 2 spacecraft traversed the heliopause

c)  almost no sunspots occurred on the Sun

d)  very few dust storms occurred on Mars

e)  debris thrown up in a comet collision blanketed the Sun

0/2
Question 40 point
s
Which of the following are true about solar wind?
The slow solar winds (300 km/s at 1 AU) emanate from the equatorial regions and is
associated with the coronal streamers.
 

The solar wind consists of highly fractionated isotopes of He.

The particles comprising the solar wind originate in the sun's core, although they are
only accelerated in the corona.
 Fast solar wind (700 km/s) is associated with the coronal holes found mostly at
the polar regions.
If you observe a maximum number of sunspots right now, how
long would you have to wait to see the next solar maximum?

a)  11 years

b)  1 year

c)  24 hours

d)  22 years

e)  6 months

1/1
Question 42 poin
t
The difference in composition between the giant planets and the
terrestrial planets is most likely caused by the fact that:

a)  the giant planets are made mostly of carbon

b)  the terrestrial planets are closer to the Sun

c)  only small differences in chemical composition existed in the solar nebula

d)  only the terrestrial planets have magnetic fields

e)  the giant planets are much larger

1/1
Question 43 poin
t
When hydrogen is fused into helium, energy is released from
 gravitational collapse.

conversion of matter to photons and kinetic energy.

the increase in pressure.

the decrease in the gravitational field.

0/3
Question 44
points
Careful measurement of a radionuclide indicates the presence of
156,000 atoms/g in a substance. What is the concentration of
this radionuclide in atoms/g after 5 half-lives?

Answer:
31,20
(4,875)
0
0/1
Question 45
point
Photons from the center of the Sun take a very, very long time to
reach the surface.

True

False
1/1
Question 46
point
An orbital resonance occurs when:

a)  a planet gets too close to the Sun, thereby attracting sound waves out of the convective zone

b)  two orbiting bodies exert a regular gravitational influence on each other

c)  two planetary bodies come close enough to each other to make musical sounds

d)  two gaseous giant planets exchange atmospheric gases when they approach closely
 e)  there is no such thing, Professor Caffee is just running out of questions to ask

0/1
Question 47 poin
t
Many isotopes of the elements heavier than Fe are made by
either the r- or s-process. These two processes never make the
same nuclide though. In other words, there are no nuclides that
are made by both, a nuclide is either an s-process or r-process
nuclide.

True

False
0/1
Question 48
point
The Hawaiian Islands are formed by the movement of a hot spot underneath the fixed Pacific plate.

True

False
0/3
Question 49
points
What is the mass defect (mass deficit) of 3He. Give the answer in
amu.

Answer:
-
(0.0071889)
0.9995
0/3
Question 50
points
If the age of the sample is 170 x 106 years, and the half life
of 87Rb is 4.29 x 1010 years, what is the slope of the isochron?

Remember that the Ln(2) = .693.

Answer:

(0.00275)
1/1
Question 51
point
The darkest part of a sunspot is called the:

a)  granule

b)  penumbra

c)  umbra

d)  photosphere

e)  magnetic field

Most asteroids are found in orbit around the Sun between the
orbits of Jupiter and Saturn.

True

False
1/1
Question 2
point
Although asteroids are small individually, when combined they
make up about a quarter of all the mass in the Solar System,
excluding the Sun.

True

False
1/1
Question 3
point
Some asteroids have moons just like planets do.
 True

False
1/1
Question 4
point
Most asteroids are located between the orbits of:

a)  Earth and Mars

b)  Jupiter and Saturn

c)  Mars and Jupiter

d)  the Kuiper Belt and the Oort Cloud

e)  Neptune and Pluto

0/1
Question 5 poin
t
Most asteroids are:

a)  very large (> 100 km)

b)  large (30–100 km)

c)  very small (< 1 km)

d)  small (1–10 km)

e)  medium (10–30 km)

1/1
Question 6 poin
t
The mass of all the known asteroids combined is approximately
equal to:

a)  one-third the mass of the Moon

b)  three times the mass of Earth

c)  twice the mass of Mars

d)  the mass of Mars

e)  half the mass of Earth

1/1
Question 7 poin
t
Most asteroids are closest in shape to:

a)  a banana

b)  a stick

c)  a potato

d)  a hot dog

e)  a baseball

1/1
Question 8 poin
t
The darkest asteroids are:

a)  Q-type

b)  A-type
 c)  S-type

d)  C-type

e)  M-type

1/1
Question 9 poin
t
Iron meteorites are fragments of which type of asteroid?

a)  Q-type

b)  S-type

c)  C-type

d)  M-type

e)  A-type

1/1
Question 10 poin
t
Carbonaceous chondrite meteorites are fragments of which type
of asteroid?

a)  A-type

b)  S-type

c)  Q-type
 d)  C-type

e)  M-type

1/1
Question 11 poin
t
The most common type of meteorites are:

a)  achondrite meteorites

b)  stony-iron meteorites

c)  carbonaceous chondrite meteorites

d)  iron meteorites

e)  stony meteorites

1/1
Question 12 poin
t
Which group of meteorites represents the conditions in the
earliest stages of the formation of the Solar System?

a)  chondrites

b)  iron meteorites

c)  achondrites

d)  stony-iron meteorites

e)  icy meteorites

The Sutter's Mill meteorite is:

 a large ordinary chondrite that hit a Ken Sutter's flour mill in Oklahoma.

A carbonaceous chondrite that fell in Sutter's Mill California.

A meteorite discovered in Antarctica.

A meteorite found in a drawer in a museum.

0/1
Question 2
point
The pre-collisional orbit of Sutter's Mill indicates it belongs to the Aten meteor group.

True

False
1/1
Question 3
point
The orbits of near-Earth asteroids are stable over the lifetime of the solar system. Some of the
objects in these orbits could have been there for billions of years.

True

False
1/1
Question 4
point
Almahatta Sitta refers to:

A meteorite that fell in Africa; it's spectral characteristics were observed before
the fall.

A particularly interesting CAI occurring in CB chondrites.

The process that may account for the production of chondrules.

It is an ethnic stew, related to a tagine.

1/1
Question 5
point
Samples collected from the Almahatta Sitta strewn field indicate the presence of ureilites and
other different chemical types of meteorites. This may indicate that the parent body of Almahatta
Sitta was catastrophically fragmented and then reaccreted with foreign class.

True

False
1/1
Question 6
point
The Chelyabinsk meteor: 

Burned up in the atmosphere only leaving a beautiful trail.

Was a larger event than the meteor that caused dinosaur extinction.

Damaged buildings and caused numerous injuries during its ascent.

Was never recovered, it fell into a lake.

1/1
Question 7
point
The Kirkwood gaps are regions where:

The late heavy bombardment cleared out asteroids.

The terrestrial planets were formed.

Collisions between large asteroids occur.

The density of meteors is far less than surrounding areas.

1/1
Question 8
point
The Yarkovsky effect refers to a mechanism that can perturb the orbit of an asteroid because of
thermal effects.

True

False
Question 9 1/1
 point
The Yarkovsky, and more generally YORP effects, generally only act on large asteroids, such as
Ceres and Vesta. 

True

False
1/1
Question 10
point
The asteroids in the near-Earth orbits were likely inhabitants of the asteroid belt before they
became NEAs.

True

False
0/1
Question 11
point
Planetary scientists have associated each of the many spectral classes of asteroids with specific
chemical types of meteorites.

True

False

All meteorites of a specific chemical type have the same cosmic ray exposure age.

True

False
1/1
Question 2
point
Many meteorites are found in Antarctica because:

More meteorites fall in the polar regions of Earth

The cold weather inhibits weathering and the movement and ablation of ice
sheets concentrates them in places
 Meteoriticists just like spending a month in a tent in 30 below zero weather

0/1
Question 3
point
A complex cosmic ray exposure refers to:

An exposure age determined for a meteorite that is a complex regolith breccia

Inexplicably short cosmic rays exposure ages

Meteorites that have been exposed to cosmic rays in at least two different
geometries

A situation in which it isn't possible to determine an exposure age

1/1
Question 4
point
Iron meteorites in general have much longer exposure ages than stony meteorites

True

False
1/1
Question 5
point
Exposure ages cannot be determined using stable nuclides, you have to use radionuclides.

True

False
1/1
Question 6
point
A terrestrial exposure age for meteorites refers to:

How long ago the meteorite fell on Earth

How long ago the meteorite was found by a collector

The age of the geologic formation the meteorite was found on

 The time it took the meteor to fall through the atmosphere

0/1
Question 7
point
Cosmogenic nuclides are those nuclides produced by:

Really heavy nuclides, heavier than uranium

These are the nuclides produced from decay of actinides

Cosmic ray interactions with atoms in the mineral lattice

These are the nuclides left over from the big bang

1/1
Question 8
point
Since meteorites come from asteroids, and asteroids are ~ 4.5 Gyr, cosmic ray exposure ages are
all 4.5 Gyr.

True

False
1/1
Question 9
point
The cosmic ray exposure age of a meteorite represents the time the specimen was exposed to
galactic cosmic ray primaries.

True

False
1/1
Question 10
point
The pre-atmospheric size of most meteorites that impact the Earth is about 100 m in diameter.

True
False
Which group of asteroids regularly crosses Earth’s orbit and thus might possibly collide with our
planet?

a)  the Atens

 b)  the Kuiper Belt objects

c)  the Trojans

d)  all of the above

1/1
Question 2 poin
t
Antarctica is the best hunting ground for meteorites for all of the following reasons EXCEPT:

a)  the ground is covered with ice

b)  few native rocks are found on the glaciers

c)  more meteorites fall there than on other locations on Earth

d)  meteorites are protected from weathering and contamination there

1/1
Question 3 poin
t
Iron meteorites usually have much longer cosmic ray exposure ages than stony meteorites.

True

False
1/1
Question 4
point
The L-chondrite age spectra indicates:

Far more L-chondrites have exposure ages > 3 My than < 1 Myr

There is no obvious systematic difference in age spectra between metamorphic

type

The strongest peak in the spectrum is around 40 Myr in age

 All of the above

0/1
Question 5
point
Unlike ordinary chondrites, all carbonaceous chondrites have extremely short exposure ages.

True

False
0/1
Question 6
point
Dynamical models of the resonances responsible for bringing meteors into Earth-crossing orbits
indicate that the the 3:1 resonance is associated with long survival times. Only 10% of Earth
crossers would be gone after 40 Myr.

True

False
1/1
Question 7
point
Carbon-14 has a half-life of 5700 years. Which of the following are true regarding its presence in
meteorites?

After 57000 years of exposure in space the 14C activity is saturated

Carbon-14 is most useful for determining terrestrial ages

It is produced by cosmic ray spallation reactions

All of the above

0/1
Question 8
point
The production rate of a cosmogenic nuclide in meteorites depends on the location within the
meteor of the meteorite.

True

False
0/1
Question 9
point
It is always possible to figure out how big the pre-atmospheric mass of a meteor is from just
weighing all the recovered chunks. Nothing is lost upon atmospheric entry.

True

False
1/1
Question 10
point
Many CM chondrites have extremely short exposure ages, leading to the hypothesis that they are
associated with near Earth asteroids. Perhaps they were part of a rubble pile before being ejected.

True
False
All chondrites originate in the asteroid belt.

True

False
1/1
Question 2
point
Naklites, Chassignites, and Shergottites are believed to be from
Mars.

True

False
1/1
Question 3
point
Which of the following are true regarding the Martian
meteorites?

Gases released from one Martian meteorite indicated the presence of nitrogen
isotopes that resembled those measured by the Viking probe

Martian meteorites are all red.

All martian meteorites show evidence of micro-fossils.

 Many martian meteorites have crystallization ages younger than the age of the
solar system.

0/1
Question 4
point
Like carbonaceous chondrites, martian meteorites have many
CAIs embedded within them.

True

False
1/1
Question 5
point
The Naklite Lafayette, was named after the famous the Marquis
de Lafayette, who fought along George Washington in the
revolutionary war; he loved shooting stars.

True

False
1/1
Question 6
point
The martian surface shows a uniform density of cratering at all
latitudes and longitudes.

True

False
1/1
Question 7
point
The north-south dichotomy refers to:

The Civil War between the southern and northern states

The difference in topography between the northern and southern hemispheres on

Mars
 The observation that meteors are fare more likely to strike the southern
hemisphere than the northern hemisphere

Nothing really, it is something Professor Caffee made up late at night

1/1
Question 8
point
On Earth crust is constantly being generated by

Plate tectonics, which results in the extraction of crust from the upper mantle

Meteor impacts

Precipitation of solids out of the atmosphere

nothing, the crust is 4.5 Gyr

1/1
Question 9
point
Observations indicate that plate tectonics is not currently
generating crust on Mars.

True

False
1/1
Question 10
point
Valles Marineris is a large canyon system, but it isn't nearly as
large as the Grand Canyon in Arizona.

True

False
1/1
Question 11
point
The Tharsis uplift is:
The ice covered areas at the Martian poles

The outer areas of some large impact features

A large volcanic terrane on Mars

An ancient lake bed that was tectonically elevated after the lake went dry