PUNJAB PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION

Objective Type Test (Feb-2019) for Recruitment of Analysts in the Department of

Health & Family Welfare, Government of Punjab
READ INSTRUCTIONS BEFORE FILLING ANY DETAILS OR ATTEMPTING TO ANSWER THE QUESTIONS.

Total Questions: 120

Time Allowed: 2 Hours 30 Minutes
Candidate’s Name ____________________________________________

Father’s Name ____________________________________________

Date of Birth Category Code*

DD MM YYYY (*as given in the admit card)

OMR Response Sheet No. ______________________________________

Booklet Series No.
Roll No. __________

Candidate’s Signature (Please sign in the box)

INSTRUCTIONS
1. The candidate shall NOT open this booklet till the time told to do so by the Invigilation Staff. However, in the
meantime, the candidate can read these instructions carefully and subsequently fill the appropriate columns
given above in CAPITAL letters. The candidate may also fill the relevant boxes out of 1 to 9 of the Optical
Mark Reader (OMR) response sheet, supplied separately

2. Use only blue or black ball point pen to fill the relevant columns on this page as well as in OMR sheet. Use of
Ink pen or any other pen is not allowed.

3. The candidate shall be liable for any adverse effect if the information given above is wrong or illegible or
incomplete.

4. Each candidate is required to attempt 120 questions in 150 minutes, except for orthopedically/visually
impaired candidates, who would be given 50 extra minutes, by marking correct responses on the OMR
sheet.

5. The candidates, when allowed to open the question paper booklet, must first check the entire booklet to
confirm that the booklet has complete number of pages, the pages printed correctly and there are no blank
pages. In case there is any such error in the question paper booklet then the candidate should
IMMEDIATELY bring this fact to the notice of the Invigilation Staff and obtain a new booklet of the same
series as given earlier.

6. The serial number of the new Question booklet if issued for some reason should be entered in the relevant
column of the OMR. The Invigilation Staff must make necessary corrections in their record regarding the
change in the serial no. of Question booklet.

7. The question paper booklet has 22 pages.

8. The paper consists of total 300 Marks. Each question shall carry 2.5 marks. There are four options for each
question and the candidate has to mark the MOST APPROPRIATE answer on the OMR response sheet.

9. There is no negative marking for wrong answers or questions not attempted by the candidate.

10. The candidate MUST READ INSTRUCTIONS BEHIND THE OMR SHEET before start answering the
Questions and check that two carbon copies attached to the OMR sheet are intact.
1. In a certain language, 'pre nat bis' means 'smoking is harmful', 'vog dor nat' means
'avoid harmful habit' and 'dor bis yel' means 'please avoid smoking'. Which of the
following means 'habit' in that language?
a) Vog
b) Nat
c) Dor
d) Bis

2. In a certain coding system, 'rbm std bro pus' means 'the cat is beautiful', 'tnh pus dim
std' means 'the dog is brown', 'pus dim bro pus cus' means 'the dog has the cat'.
What is the code for 'has'?
a) Std
b) Dim
c) Bro
d) Cus

3. In a certain language, 'put tir fin' means 'delicious juicy fruit', 'tie dip sig' means
'beautiful white lily' and 'sig lon fin' means 'lily and fruit'. Which of the following
stands for 'and' in that language?
a) Lon
b) Sig
c) Fin
d) None of the above

4. In a certain code language, '234' means 'spark and fire', '456' means 'spark is cause'
and '258'means 'fire is effect'. Which of the following numerals is used for 'cause'?
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6

5. In a certain code, '467' means 'leaves are green', '485' means 'green is good' and '639'
means 'they are playing'. Which digit stands for 'leaves' in that code?
a) 4
b) 6
c) 7
d) 3

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6. A woman introduces a man as the son of the brother of her mother. How is the man
related to the woman?
a) Nephew
b) Son
c) Cousin
d) Uncle

7. Introducing a man, a woman said, "He is the only son of my mother's mother". How is
the woman related to the man?
a) Mother
b) Aunt
c) Sister
d) Niece

8. Looking at a portrait of a man, Harsh said, "His mother is the wife of my father's son.
Brothers and sisters I have none." At whose portrait was Harsh looking?
a) His son
b) His cousin
c) His uncle
d) His nephew

9. Pointing to Kapil, Shilpa said, "His mother's brother is the father of my son Ashish."
How is Kapil related to Shilpa?
a) Sister-in-law
b) Nephew
c) Niece
d) Aunt

10. Showing the man receiving the prize, Saroj said, "He is the brother of my Uncle's
daughter." Who is the man to Saroj?
a) Son
b) Brother-in-law
c) Nephew
d) Cousin

Directions (Q. 11-13): Read the following information and answer the Questions given
below it:
Six students A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in the field. A and B are from Nehru House
while the rest belong to Gandhi House. D and F are tall while the others are short. A, C
and D are wearing glasses while the others are not.

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 11. Which two students, who are not wearing glasses, are short?
a) A and F
b) C and E
c) B and E
d) E and F

12. Which short student of Gandhi House is not wearing glasses?

a) F
b) E
c) B
d) A

13. Which tall student of Gandhi House is not wearing glasses?

a) B
b) C
c) E
d) F

Directions: (Q 14-18) Study the following information carefully to answer the questions
given below:

P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are seven professors. Each one teaches a different subject from
Physics, Chemistry, Biology, English, Mathematics, Economics and Geography, not
necessarily in the same order. Each of them teaches one day each on seven days of the
week from Monday to Sunday not necessarily in the same order. R teaches Biology on
Friday. Q teaches Mathematics on the previous day of the day on which the professor
teaches Physics. V teaches on Sunday but does not teach Chemistry or English. S teaches
Economics on the previous day on which U teaches. P teaches Geography on Tuesday. T
does not teach English.

14. Which subject does T teach?

a) Chemistry
b) Physics
c) Either Chemistry or Physics
d) Date inadequate

15. Which subject does U teach?

a) Physics
b) English
c) Either Physics or English
d) Date inadequate

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 16. On which day does T teach?
a) Monday
b) Wednesday
c) Thursday
d) Date inadequate

17. On which day does U teach?

a) Wednesday
b) Thursday
c) Wednesday or Thursday
d) Date inadequate

18. Which subject does V teach?

a) Chemistry
b) English
c) Biology
d) None of these

Directions (Q.19-23) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions
given below it:

Of the five boys, A,B,C,D and E, two are good, one is poor and two are average in studies.
Two of them study in post-graduate classes and three in under-graduate classes. One comes
from a rich family, two from middle-class families and two from poor families. One of them
is interested in music, two in acting and one in sports. Of those studying in under-graduate
classes, two are average and one is poor in studies. Of the two boys interested in acting,
one is a post-graduate student. The one interested in music comes from a middle-class
family. Both the boys interested in acting are not industrious. The two boys coming from
middle-class families are average in studies and one of them is interested in acting. The boy
interested in sports comes from a poor family, while the one interested in music in
industrious. E is industrious, good in studies, comes from a poor family and is not interested
in acting, music or sports. C is poor in studies in spite of being industrious. A comes from a
rich family and is not industrious but good in studies. B is industrious and comes from a
middle-class family.

19. Name the boy interested in sports.

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D

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 20. Name the boy interested in music.
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D

21. Name the middle-class family boy interested in acting.

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D

22. Name the boys studying in post-graduate classes.

a) A,D
b) A,E
c) B,C
d) D,E

23. Name the boy who is not industries and is average in studies.
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D

Directions (Q 24-28) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions
given below it:
There are five friends A, B, C, D and E. Two of them are businessmen while the other
three belong to different occupations viz., medical, engineer and legal. One businessman
and the lawyer stay in the same locality S, while the other three stay in three different
localities P,Q and R. Two of these five persons are Hindus while the remaining three come
from three different communities viz. Muslim, Christian and Sikh. The lawyer is the oldest
in age while one of the businessmen who runs a factory is the youngest. The other
businessman is a cloth merchant and agewise lies between the doctor and the lawyer. D is a
cloth merchant and stays in locality S while E is a Muslim and stays in locality R. The doctor
is a Christian and stays in locality P, B is a Sikh while A is a Hindu and runs a factory.
24. Who stays in locality Q?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) E

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 25. What is E's occupation?
a) Business
b) Engineer
c) Lawyer
d) Doctor

26. Agewise who among the following lies between A and C?

a) Lawyer
b) Doctor
c) Cloth merchant
d) Engineer

27. What is B's occupation?

a) Business
b) Engineer
c) Lawyer
d) Doctor

28. What is C's occupation?

a) Doctor
b) Lawyer
c) Engineer
d) Business

29. Ravi wants to go to the university. He starts from his home which is in the East and
comes to a crossing. The road to the left ends in a theatre, straight ahead is the
hospital. In which direction is the university?
a) North
b) South
c) East
d) West

Directions (Q 30-31): These questions are based on the following information:

Seven villages A, B,C, D, E, F and G are situated as follows:

E is 2 km to the west of B F is 2 km to the north of A
C is 1 km to the west of A D is 2km to the south of G
G is 2 km to the east of C D is exactly in the middle of B and E
30. A is in the middle of
a) E and C
b) E and G
c) F and G
d) G and C

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31. Which two villages are the farthest from one another?
a) D and C
b) F and E
c) F and B
d) G and E

32. A postman was returning to the post office which was in front of him to the north.
When the post office was 100 metres away from him, he turned to the left and
moved 50 metres to deliver the last letter at Shantivilla. He then moved in the same
direction for 40 metres, turned to his right and moved 100 metres. How many
metres was he away from the post office?
a) 0
b) 90
c) 150
d) 100

33. A boy rode his bicycle northwards, then turned left and rode one km and again
turned left and rode 2 km. He found himself exactly one km west of his starting
point. How far did he ride northwards initially?
a) 1 km
b) 2 km
c) 3 km
d) 5 km

34. If 'South-east' is called 'East' , 'North-west' is called 'West', 'South-west' is called

'South' and so on, what will 'North' be called?
a) East
b) North-east
c) North-west
d) South

35. If South-east becomes North, North-east becomes West and so on, what will West
become?
a) North-east
b) North-west
c) South-east
d) South-west

36. If the letters in the word UNDERTAKING are rearranged in the alphabetical order,
which one will be in the middle in order after the rearrangement?
a) G
b) I
c) K
d) N

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37. Which letter in the word CYBERNETICS occupies the same position as it does in the
English alphabet?
a) C
b) E
c) I
d) T

38. If the first and second letters in the word DEPRESSION were interchanged, also the
third and the fourth letters, the fifth and the sixth letters and so on, which of the
following would be the seventh letter from the right?
a) R
b) O
c) S
d) None of the above

39. If the first and the second letters of the word UNPRECEDENTED are interchanged with
the last and the second last letters and similarly the third and the fourth letters are
interchanged with the third and the fourth letters from the last respectively, then
what will be the seventh letter to the right of the third letter from the left?
a) C
b) E
c) P
d) R

40. If the last four letters of the word CONCENTRATION are written in reverse order
followed by next two in the reverse order and next three in the reverse order and
then followed by the first four in the reverse order, counting from the left, which
letter would be eighth in the new arrangement?
a) N
b) T
c) E
d) R

41. If in the word DISTURBANCE, the first letter is interchanged with the last letter, the
second letter is interchanged with the tenth letter and so on, which letter would
come after "T" in the newly formed word?
a) I
b) N
c) S
d) D

42. In a class of 60, where girls are twice that of boys, Kamal ranked seventeenth from
the top. If there are 9 girls ahead of Kamal, how many boys are after him in rank?
a) 3
b) 7
c) 12
d) 23

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43. Ravi is 7 ranks ahead of Sumit in a class of 39. If Sumit's rank is seventeenth from the
last, what is Ravi's rank from the start?
a) 14th
b) 15th
c) 16th
d) 17th

44. In a row of boys, A is fifteenth from the left and B is fourth from the right. There are
three boys between A and B. C is just left of A. What is C's position from the right?
a) 9th
b) 10th
c) 12th
d) 13th

45. Forty boys are standing in a row facing the North. Amit is eleventh from the left and
Deepak is thirty-first from the right end of the row. How far will Shreya, who is third
to the right of Amit in the row, be from Deepak?
a) 2nd
b) 3rd
c) 4th
d) 5th

46. In a queue, A is eighteenth from the front while B is sixteenth from the back. If C is
twenty-fifth from the front and is exactly in the middle of A and B, then how many
persons are there in the queue?
a) 45
b) 46
c) 47
d) 48

47. A number of friends decided to go on a picnic and planned to spend Rs.96 on

eatables. Four of them, however, did not turn up. As a consequence, the remaining
ones had to contribute Rs.4 each extra. The number of those who attended the
picnic was :
a) 8
b) 12
c) 16
d) 24

48. After distributing the sweets equally among 25 children, 8 sweets remain. Had the
number of children been 28, 22 sweets would have been left after equal distribution.
What was the total number of sweets?
a) 328
b) 348
c) 358
d) Data inadequate

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49. A player holds 13 cards of four suits, of which seven are black and six are red. There
are twice as many diamonds as shades and twice as many hearts as diamonds. How
many clubs does he hold?
a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 7

50. In a family, each daughter has the same number of brothers as she has sisters and
each son has twice as many sisters as he has brothers. How many sons are there in
the family?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5

51. A father tells his son, "I was of your present age when you were born". If the father is
36 now, how old was the boy five years back?
a) 13
b) 15
c) 17
d) 20

52. In a family, a couple has a son and a daughter. The age of the father is three times
that of his daughter and the age of the son is half of that of his mother. The wife is 9
years younger to her husband and the brother is seven years older than his sister.
What is the age of the mother?
a) 40 years
b) 45 years
c) 50 years
d) 60 years

53. A father is now three times as old as his son. Five years back, he was four times as
old as his son. The age of the son (in years) is:
a) 12
b) 15
c) 18
d) 20

54. A city has a population of 300000 out of which 180000 are males. 50% of the
population is literate. If 70% of the males are literate, then the number of literate
females is:
a) 24000
b) 30000
c) 54000
d) 60000

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55. In an examination, every candidate took Physics or Mathematics or both. 65.8% took
Physics and 59.2% took Mathematics. The total number of candidates was 2000.
How many candidates took both Physics and Mathematics?
a) 750
b) 500
c) 250
d) 125
56. Two numbers X and Y are respectively 20% and 28% less than a third number Z. By
what percentage is the number Y less than that of the number X?
a) 8%
b) 9%
c) 10%
d) 12%

57. A question paper had 10 questions. Each question could only be answered as True (T)
or False (F). Each candidate answered all the questions. Yet, no two candidates wrote
the answers in an identical sequence. How many different sequences of answers are
possible?
a) 20
b) 40
c) 512
d) 1024

58. Groups, each containing 3 boys are to be formed out of 5 boys, A, B, C, D and E such
that no group can contain both C and D together. What is the maximum number of
such different groups?
a) 5
b) 6
c) 7
d) 8

59. 2 men and 1 woman board a bus in which 5 seats are vacant, one of these 5 seats is
reserved for ladies. A woman may or may not sit on the seat reserved for ladies. In
how many different ways can the five seats be occupied by these passengers?
a) 15
b) 36
c) 48
d) 60

60. A selection is to be made for one post of principal and two posts of vice-principal.
Amongst the six candidates called for the interview, only two are eligible for the post
of principal while they all are eligible for the post of vice-principal. The number of
possible combinations of selectees is:
a) 4
b) 12
c) 18
d) None of these

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61. In a society, it is customary for friends of the same sex to hug and for friends opposite
sex to shake hands when they meet. A group of friends met in a party and there
were 24 handshakes. Which one among the following numbers indicates the possible
number of hugs?
a) 39
b) 30
c) 21
d) 20

62. Twelve people form a club, By picking lots, one of them will host a dinner for all once
in a month. The number of dinners a particular member has to host in one year is
a) One
b) Zero
c) Three
d) Cannot be predicted

63. Out of 130 students appearing in an examination 62 failed in English, 52 failed in

mathematics, whereas 24 failed in both English and mathematics. The number of
students, who passed finally, is
a) 40
b) 50
c) 55
d) 60

64. If 93% Indians like tea and 76% like coffee, then how many Indians like both?
a) 61%
b) 69%
c) 71%
d) 79%

65. There are 50 students admitted to a nursery class. Some students can speak only
English and some can speak only Hindi. 10 students can speak both English and Hindi.
If the number of students who can speak English is 21, then how many students can
speak Hindi, how many can speak only Hindi and how many can speak only English?
a) 21, 11 and 29, respectively
b) 28, 18 and 22, respectively
c) 37, 27 and 13, respectively
d) 39, 29 and 11, respectively

66. In a group of 50 persons, if 15 drink milk, but not tea and 33 drink milk, then how
many persons drink tea only?
a) 15
b) 17
c) 18
d) 14

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67. Out of 80 students in a class, 25 are studying Commerce, 15 Mathematics and 13
Physics. 3 are studying Commerce and Mathematics, 4 are studying Commerce and
Physics. One student is studying all the three subjects together. How many students
are not studying any of the three subjects?
a) 35
b) 40
c) 20
d) 15

68. In an examination, every candidate took Physics or Mathematics or both, 65.8% took
Physics 59.2% took Mathematics. The total number of candidates was 2000. How
many candidates took both Physics and Mathematics?
a) 750
b) 500
c) 250
d) 125

69. Between 6 pm and 7 pm, the minute hand of a clock will be ahead of the hour hand
by 3 min at
a) 6 : 15 pm
b) 6 : 18 pm
c) 6 : 36 pm
d) 6 : 48 pm

70. An accurate clock shows 8 O'clock in the morning through how many degrees will the
hour hand rotate when the clock shows 2 O'clock in the afternoon?
a) 150o
b) 144o
c) 168o
d) 180o

71. Assume that

I. The hour and minute hands of a clock move without jerking.
II. The clock shows a time between 8 O'clock and 9 O'clock.
III. the two hands of the clock are one above the other.

After how many minutes (nearest integer) will the two hands be again lying one
above the other?

a) 60
b) 62
c) 65
d) 67

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Directions (Q. 72-75) In each of the following questions, certain code values are
assigned to a word and you have to find out the code which will be used for the given
word from the given options.
72. If code for 'TEACHING' is 'CHEATING', then what will be the code for 'GRADIENT'?
a) DIRAGENT
b) DIAGRENT'
c) DIERATNG
d) RATIGEND

73. In a code language 'PUBLIC' is written as 'SXEOLF', which option will decode
'VHUYLFH'?
a) SERVICE
b) SARVICE
c) SURVECE
d) SERVECE

74. If 'PRINT' is coded a 'RUMSZ', then 'DRINK' will be coded as

a) FUMSP
b) FUMSQ
c) GUMSR
d) FUPSM
75. If the code of 'ABSENT' is 'ZYHVMG', then code for 'PRESENT' is
a) KIHVHGM
b) KIVHVMG
c) KITMHMG
d) GKITYTL

76. A Man has two wives A and B. A is Sunny's step mother. How is Sunny related to B?
a) Stepdaughter
b) Sister-in-law
c) Son
d) Husband

77. Amit's mother-in-law's granddaughter is Madhuri's niece. What could be the relation
between Amit and Madhuri?
a) Cousin-Cousin
b) Father-daughter
c) Brother-Sister
d) None of the above

Directions (Q 78-80) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions
given below:
There are six children playing football namely, G, H, I, J, K and L. G and K are brothers. L
is the only sister of K. I is the only son of G's uncle. H and J are the daughters of the
brother's of I's father.

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78. How is J related to G?
a) Sister
b) Niece
c) Cousin
d) Uncle

79. How is I related to L?

a) Cousin
b) Son
c) Uncle
d) Brother

80. How many male players are there?

a) One
b) Three
c) Four
d) Five

81. Fish can survive inside a frozen lake because

a) Fish are warm blooded animals
b) Fish hibernate in ice
c) Water near the bottom does not freeze
d) Ice is a good conductor of heat

82. A pyrex tumbler does not crack when hot water is poured into it because pyrex
a) Is a strong material
b) Does not expand much on heating
c) Is a good conductor of heat
d) Expands equally from inside and outside

83. If there were no atmosphere, the length of the day would

a) Decrease
b) Remain unaffected
c) Increase
d) Be almost half

84. Planets do not twinkle because

a) They emit light continuously
b) They are luminous sources of light
c) They are nearer to us and therefore their light does not pass through the
atmosphere
d) They are nearer to us and therefore minor variations in their intensity are not
noticeable

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85. After a shower of rain, a rainbow is seen
a) Towards the sun
b) Opposite the sun
c) Anywhere, irrespective of the position of the sun
d) Even in the absence of the sun

86. A woman's voice is shriller than a man's due to

a) Higher frequency
b) Higher amplitude
c) Lower frequency
d) Weak vocal chords

87. Sounds cannot travel through

a) Vacuum
b) Hydrogen gas
c) Water
d) Steel

88. The Central Drug Research Institute of India is located at:

a) Delhi
b) Bangalore
c) Madras
d) Lucknow

89. After Naina Sahni was brutally murdered, there was a most horrendous revelation
that her body was stuffed in the 'tandoor' of a restaurant and burnt beyond
recognition before it could be taken out. In the absence of any witness to identify her
body the tests performed to prove the correct identity of the victim was
1. Skull reconstruction
2. Ultrasound and detailed autopsy
3. DNA fingerprinting
4. CAT scanning
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
a) 1 and 2
b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 3
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

90. Silicosis is a
a) Kidney disease
b) Liver disease
c) Lung disease
d) Neurological disorder

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91. Which of the following is/are included in the Directive Principles of State Policy?
1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
2. Prohibition of consumption except for medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks
and of other drugs which are injurious to health
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

92. In India, who is the Chairman of the National Water Resources Council?
a) Prime Minister
b) Minister of Water Resources
c) Minister of Environment and Forests
d) Minister of Science and Technology

93. If a Panchayat is dissolved, elections are to be held within

a) 1 month
b) 3 months
c) 6 months
d) 1 year

94. The authorization for the withdrawal of funds from the Consolidated Fund of India
must come from
a) The President of India
b) The Parliament of India
c) The Prime Minister of India
d) The Union Finance Minister

95. Under the Constitution of India, which one of the following is not a fundamental
duty?
a) To vote in public elections
b) To develop the scientific temper
c) To safeguard public property
d) To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals

96. Which of the following act/regulation enacted by Charles Metcalfe earned him the
epithet, 'Liberator of the Indian Press?
a) Licensing Regulations, 1823
b) Press Act, 1835
c) Licensing Act, 1857
d) Registration Act, 1867

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97. Who was the First Women President of Indian National Congress?
a) Nellie Sengupta
b) Annie Besant
c) Kadambini Ganguly
d) Sarojini Naidu

98. Which of the given statements about the Jallianwala Bagh massacre is/are correct?
1. General Dyer was the then Lieutenant-Governor of the Punjab.
2. The victims gathered in the bagh or garden to protest against the arrest and
deportation of their popular leaders, Dr Satyapal and Dr Kitchlu.
3. Michael O'Dyer was the person who ordered police firing on the un-armed
crowd.
4. Rabindranath Tagore renounced his knighthood.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

a) Both 1 and 2
b) 3, 4
c) Both 2 and 4
d) Only 2

99. The Indian National Army (INA) came into existence in 1943 in
a) Japan
b) Burma
c) Singapore
d) Malaya

100.Consider the following:

1. Rowlatt Act Movement
2. Kheda Movement
3. Champaran
4. Ahmedabad Strike
What is the correct chronological order of the above mentioned Gandhian
Movements?
a) 3, 4, 2 and 1
b) 3, 2, 4 and 1
c) 2, 3, 1 and 4
d) 2, 1, 3 and 4

101.Match the following:

List-I List-II
A. Bhagat Singh 1. Chittagong Armoury Raid
B. Laxmi Sehgal 2. Kakori Conspiracy Case
C. Ram Prasad Bismil 3. Indian National Army
D. Surya Sen 4. Lahore Conspiracy Case

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 A B C D
a) 1 2 3 4
b) 1 3 2 4
c) 4 2 3 1
d) 4 3 2 1

102.Consider the following statements regarding Khilafat Movement.

1. Gandhiji worked to bring the Muslims into the mainstream of Indian nationalism
2. It was a Pan-Islamic Movement
Which of the statements(s) given above is/are correct?
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

103.Who amongst the following founded Theosophical Society in USA?

a) Dr Annie Besant
b) Allan Octavin Hume
c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Gopal Krishna Gokhale
d) Madam Blavatsky and Olcott

104.Fort St George (White town), the first English (British) fortress in India was founded at
a) Bombay
b) Chinsura
c) Madras
d) Calcutta

105.Which of the following statements is true?

a) Cotton can be grown only on black soil.
b) Eastern part of Rajasthan is wetter than the Western part
c) Climate of Tamil Nadu shows an influence of Western disturbances
d) Whole of Rajasthan desert is a sandy desert

106.The endangered Ridley turtles have the world's largest aggregation at

a) Gahirmatha
b) Sagarmatha
c) Lakshadweep Islands
d) Andaman and Nicobar Islands

107.What is not true about laterite soil?

a) It is highly porous
b) Silica is leached out of it
c) It is poor in fertility for grain crops
d) It is poor in iron compounds.

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108.Trees shed their leaves in winter season to
a) Conserve heat
b) Take rest after the summer growth
c) Conserve water
d) Escape being eaten by animals

109.What was Montreal Protocol concerned with?

a) Checking global warming
b) Checking ozone depletion
c) Checking global warming and ozone depletion
d) Checking global warming, ozone depletion and protecting biodiversity

110.Which process does not result in the return of carbon dioxide to the atmoshphere?
a) Combustion of fossil fuels
b) Decomposition of fossil fuels
c) Respiration by bacteria
d) Photosynthesis by green plants

111.Consider the following pairs

Wetlands Confluence of Rivers

1. Harike : Confluence of Beas and Satluj
2. Keoladeo Ghana : Confluence of Beas and Chambal
National Park
3. Kolleru Lake : Confluence of Musi and Krishna

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

a) Only 1
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) 1,2 and 3

112.What is the role of Ultraviolet (UV) radiation in the water purification systems?
1. It inactivates/kills the harmful microorganisms in water
2. It removes all the undesirable odours from the water
3. It quickens the sedimentation of solid particles, removes turbidity and improves
the clarity of water.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) Only 1
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) 1,2 and 3

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113.NAFED is concerned with
1. Promotion of inter-state and export trade of farm produce
2. Import of foodgrains for buffer-stocking and public distribution
3. Marketing of eggs and poultry at national level
4. Movement of consumer goods from surplus areas to scarcity areas
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a) 1 and 2
b) 1,2 and 3
c) 3 and 4
d) 1, 3 and 4

114.Consider the following statements about the Navratna Status Industries

1. Navratna was originally assigned to nine public sector enterprises in 1997.
2. The number of PSEs having Navratna status is now more than 15 industrues.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

115.Which of the following countries in not a member of SAARC?

a) Nepal
b) Bangladesh
c) Afghanistan
d) Myanmar

116."Mittar Payare Nu Haal Murida Da Kehna....." was written by:

a) Guru Nanak Dev Ji
b) Guru Gobind Singh Ji
c) Guru Arjan Dev Ji
d) Guru Teg Bahadur Ji

117.Who accompanied Bhagat Singh when he threw bombs in Assembly against passing
of Public Safety and Trade Dispute Bill?
a) Batukeshwar Dutt
b) Sukhdev
c) Raj Guru
d) Chander Shekhar Azad

118.From where was Banda Singh Bahadur captured by the Mughal forces?
a) Anandpur Sahib
b) Samana
c) Chamkaur di Garhi
d) Fort of Gurdas Nangal

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119.How was Guru Nanak Dev Ji related to the place of Kartarpur Sahib?
a) It is the birth place of Guru Nanak Dev Ji
b) Guru Nanak Dev ji's sister lived at Kartarpur Sahib
c) Guru Nanak Dev ji spent the final 18 years of his life at Kartarpur Sahib
d) Bhai Mardana belonged to Kartarpur Sahib

120.Who among the following was associated with the 'Pagdi Sambhal Jatta' movement
during the Indian freedom struggle?
a) Sardar Ranjit Singh
b) Sardar Ajit Singh
c) Bankim Chander
d) Subhash Chander Bose

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