1-Plates, minor connectors, guiding plates, and proximal contacts of

natural teeth all contribute to

A.Reciprocation
B.Esthetics
C.Good oral hygiene
D.The United Fund
E.Rigidity

2-Which of the following is/are true concerning Kennedy’s/ Applegates

rules?
1. Kennedy class 1 involves bilateral edentulous areas posterior to the natural
teeth while a Class II has a unilateral edentulous area posterior to the natural
teeth.
2. Kennedy Class 3 always has one unilateral edentulous area with teeth
posterior to it. A Class 4 has a single edentulous area crossing the midline
and anterior to natural teeth.
3. You may have up to 2 mods only in a Kennedy Class 4 case.
4. If a second or third molar is missing and is not to be replaced it is not
considered in Applegate's rules. If to be replaced it will determine the class.
5. Modifications are those areas other than those that determine the
classification and are designated by their number.
a) All the above are true
b) None are true
c) 1,2,3 are true
d) 1,4,5 are true
e) 3,4,5 are true
f) 1, 4 are true.

3-After surveying your diagnostic casts you determine your RPD design
and the necessary alterations. The design is then drawn on the cast and
you are now ready to make tooth modifications. In what sequence will
you follow?
A. Heights of contour / guiding planes / rest seats / impression
B. Guiding planes/ impression / heights of contour / rest seats
C. Guiding planes / heights of contour / rest seats / impression
D. Guiding planes/ heights of contour / impression / rest seats
4-What is the main purpose of a cast distal extension posterior metal
stop?
A. Provides for a more rigid RPD framework.
B. Increases overall retention of the RPD to resist displacement.
C. Provides a positive apical seat (tissue stop) for the RPD in function.
D. Provide stability of the distal extension framework during acrylic
processing.

5-Which one of the following is true regarding components of upper

removable partial denture?
A. Major connectors should be flexible so that functional chewing forces are
properly transmitted to the teeth and other tissues.
B. A minor connector is the unit of the partial denture that connects the parts of
the prosthesis located on one side of the arch with those on the other side.
C. The linguoplate can in itself serve as an indirect retainer.
D. Each direct retainer and each occlusal rest are joined to the major connector
by a minor connector.

6-The investment cast upon which a removable partial denture wax

pattern is formed is called a __________________ cast:
A. Reformed
B. Refractory
C. Reformatted
D. Blocked out

7 -The channel which allows molten metal to flow from the crucible to
the mold cavity during the casting procedure is called a __________.
A. Cannula
B. Barrel
C. Peanut
D. Sprue

8-Which of the following major clinical appointments for construction of

an RPD can be safely skipped?

A. Diagnosis and treatment planning

B. Mouth preps and final impressions
C. Post-preparation endodontic testing
 D. Delivery

9- I-bar is most often located in .01” undercut on the

A. Cemento-enamel junction
B. Greatest distal curvature of the buccal surface
C. Mesio-buccal line angle
D. Disto-buccal line angle

10 -Dislodging movement of a RPD is resisted by

A. Stabilizing clasps
B. Mechanical retainers
C. Reciprocating clasps
D. Denture base retainers
E. Denture base mesh

11-A master cast is placed in the cast holder and aligned at the zero
degree tilt. A 0.02 “undercut is found on the mesiolingual of the
mandibular right second molar. Tilting the cast to the anterior will
A.Increase the undercut
B.Decrease the undercut
C.Not affect the undercut
D.None of the above. The cast should not be tilted since all RPD’s are
designed at the zero degree tilt.

12-The rests of a RPD must be free to move in function (except

gingivally) in Kennedy Class
A. I, II, IV
B. I, II, III, IV
C. I, III, IV
D. II, III, IV
E. None. Rests should never move in function

13-All of the following are sites of arbitrary blockout of the mandibular

RPD master except
A. All gingival crevices
B. Gross tissue undercuts situated below areas involved in design of denture
framework
C. Labial and buccal tooth and tissue undercuts not involved in denture design
 D. Tissue undercuts to be crossed by origin of bar clasps
E.All of the above are sites of arbitrary blockout

14- All of the following features describe the proximal plate/guiding

plate area needed for proper functioning of the RPI clasp assembly,
except
A. A guiding plane is prepared on the distal surface of the abutment tooth in
the occlusal one-third
B. The guiding plane is approximately 2 3 mm in height occlusogingivally
C. An undercut should exist below the guiding plane to permit movement of
the proximal plate
D. The proximal plate contacts approximately 1-2 mm of the occlusal portion
of the guiding plane
E. The proximal plate contacts approximately 1 mm of the gingival portion of
the guiding plane

15-In distal extension removable partial denture, the jaw relations

should be recorded ____________ the secondary impression is made and
__________ the framework in place.
A. before; with
B.before; without
C. after; with
D. after; without
E.as; with

16-The only indication for use of box shape occlusal rest in

A. class I
B. class II
C. class II modification I
D. class III
E. class IV

17-Final impression for RPD can be made at

A. At impression stage with custom tray

B. At framework stage
C. At delivery stage
 D. All of above

18-During designing direct retention for upper RPD class III and you
found that the posterior abutment was severely tilted, what is the
most satisfactory option

A. Make a new undercut on the tooth

B. Make telescopic crown on abutment
C. Ring clasp
D. Extraction of abutment
E. Orthodontically abrightening tooth

19-Patient who has un-modified class II Kennedy classification with

good periodontal condition and no carious lesion, the best clasp to
use on the other side is

A. Reciprocal clasp
B. Ring clasp
C. Embrasure clasp
D. Gingivally approaching clasp
E. No need to clasp at dentate side

20-Guiding planes prepared on enamel surfaces should be

A. Flat occlusogingivally
B. Rounded occlusogingivally
C. Should not parallel to long axis of abutment
D. Should not prepared

21- The seat for occlusal rest on abutment should be

A. On proximal surface of abutment

B. On the marginal ridge at 900 to long axis of abutment
C. Parallel to pontic
D. Parallel to long axis of the tooth

23- Beading should have a depth and width of approximately

A. 0.25 to 0.5 mm
 B. 0.5 to 1 mm
C. 1 to 1.5 mm
D. 1.5 to 2 mm
E. 2 to 2.5 mm

24- For tooth supported partial dentures, denture base flange is kept

A. Just short of reflection of soft tissue

B. Too short of reflection of soft tissue
C. Just extended of reflection of soft tissue
D. All of above
E. Non of above

25- The best path of insertion of RPD is one

A. That is having right or left tilt

B. That is perpindicular to occlusal plane
C. That having anterior tilt
D. That having posterior tilt

26- Tissue stops is made by removing approximately

A. 1 square mm of relief wax

B. 2 square mm of relief wax
C. 6 square mm of relief wax
D. 4 square mm of relief wax
E. Non of above

27- Minimal width of finish line of RPD is

A. 0.5 mm
B. 1mm
C. 1.5 mm
D.2 mm
E. 2.25 mm
28- During waxing up of mandibular major connector it must be cut at

A. 45 degree
B. 90 degree
C. Obtuse angle
D. Non of above

29- Ring clasp is most often indicated in

A. Tipped canine
B. Tipped incisor
C. Tipped molar
D. Untilted canine
E. Any of them

30- Which of the following is an indication for an RPI?

A. Adjacent to a free distal extension

B. Guide plane only on the distal
C. Rest area only on the mesial occlusal
D. All of the above are indications.