1.

A good preventive and treatment strategy for dental

caries includes ____.
A. Limiting cariogenic substrate
B. Controlling cariogenic flora
C. Elevating host resistance
D. All of the above

2. Which of the following statements regarding caries

risk assessment is correct?
A. The presence of restorations is a good indicator of
current caries activity.
B. The presence of restorations is a good indicator of
past caries activity.
C. The presence of dental plaque is a good indicator
of current caries activity.
D. The presence of pit-and-fissure sealants is a good
indicator of current caries activity.

3. Which of the following is considered a reversible

carious lesion?
A. The lesion surface is cavitated.
B. The lesion has advanced to the dentin
radiographically.
C. A white spot is detected on drying.
D. The lesion surface is rough or chalky.

4. Which of the following statements about indirect pulp

caps is false?
A. Some leathery caries may be left in the
preparation.
B. A liner is generally recommended in the
excavation.
C. The operator should wait at least 6 to 8 weeks
before reentry (if then).
D. The prognosis of indirect pulp cap treatment is
poorer than the prognosis of direct pulp caps.
5. Smooth surface caries refers to ____.
A. Facial and lingual surfaces
B. Occlusal pits and grooves
C. Mesial and distal surfaces
D. Both A and C

6. How many blades does a finishing bur have compared

with a cutting bur?
A. Fewer blades
B. Same number of blades
C. More blades
D. Number of blades is unrelated to the bur type

7. The use of the rubber dam is best indicated for ____.

A. Adhesive procedures
B. Quadrant dentistry
C. Teeth with challenging preparations
D. Difficult patients
E. All of the above

8. A rubber dam is inverted to ____.

A. Prevent the dam from tearing
B. Prevent the underlying gingiva from accidental
trauma
C. Provide a complete seal around the teeth
D. All of the above

9. For a dental hand instrument with a formula of 10-8.5-

8, the number 10 refers to ____.
A. The width of the blade, in tenths of a millimeter
B. The primary cutting-edge angle, in centigrades
C. The blade length, in millimeters
D. The blade angle, in centigrades
10. The tooth preparation technique for a class I amalgam
on a mandibular first molar does not include which of
the following?
A. Maintaining a narrow isthmus width
B. Initial punch cut placed in the most carious pit
C. Establishment of pulpal depth of 1.5 to 2 mm
D. Orientation of bur parallel to the long axis of the
tooth

11. When placement of proximal retention locks in class

II amalgam preparations is necessary, which of the
following is not correct?
A. One should not undermine the proximal enamel.
B. One should not prepare locks entirely in the
axial wall.
C. Even if deeper than ideal, one should use the axial
wall as a guide for proximal lock placement.
D. One should place locks 0.2 mm inside the dentinoenamel junction
(DEJ) to ensure that the proximal enamel is not undermined.

12. When the gingival margin is gingival to the

cementoenamel junction (CEJ) in a class II amalgam
preparation, the axial depth of the axiogingival line angle
should be ____.
A. 0.2 mm into sound dentin
B. Twice the diameter of a No. 245 carbide bur
C. 0.75 to 0.80 mm
D. The width of the cutting edge of a gingival marginal
trimmer
13. Which of the following statements about class V
amalgam restorations is not correct?
A. The outline form is usually kidney-shaped or
crescent-shaped.
B. Because the mesial, distal, gingival, and incisal walls
of the tooth preparation are perpendicular to the
external tooth surface, they usually diverge facially.
C. Using four corner coves instead of two full-length
grooves conserves dentin near the pulp and
may reduce the possibility of a mechanical pulp
exposure.
D. If the outline form approaches an existing proximal
restoration, it is better to leave a thin section of
tooth structure between the two restorations
(<1 mm) than to join the restorations.

14. When preparing a class III or IV composite tooth

preparation, which of the following statements regarding
placement of retention form is false?
A. Placement of retention form often involves gingival
and incisal retention.
B. Placement of retention form is placed at the axiogingival line angle
regardless of the depth of the
axial wall.
C. Placement of retention form may be needed in
large preparations.
D. Placement of retention form is usually prepared
with a No. 14 round bur.

15. In the conventional class I composite preparation,

retention is achieved by which of the following
features?
1. Occlusal convergence
2. Occlusal bevel
3. Bonding
4. Retention grooves
A. 2 and 4
B. 1 and 3
C. 1 and 4
D. 2 and 3
16. The success of an amalgam restoration depends on all
of the following features of tooth and cavity preparation
except one. Which one is the exception?
A. Butt-joint cavosurface margin that results in a
90-degree margin for the amalgam
B. Adequate tooth removal for appropriate strength of
the amalgam
C. Divergent (externally) preparation walls
D. Adequate retention form features to lock the
amalgam mechanically in the preparation

17. Many factors affect tooth/cavity preparation. Which of

the following would be the least important factor?
A. Extent of the defect
B. Size of the tooth
C. Fracture lines
D. Extent of the old material

18. Which of the following statements about an amalgam

tooth/cavity preparation is true?
A. The enamel cavosurface margin angle must be 90
degrees.
B. The cavosurface margin should provide for a
90-degree amalgam margin.
C. All prepared walls should converge externally.
D. Retention form for class V amalgam preparations
can be placed at the dentinoenamel junction
(DEJ).

19. A “skirt” feature for a gold onlay preparation ____.

A. Has a shoulder gingival margin design
B. Is prepared by a diamond held perpendicular to the
long axis of the crown
C. Is used only for esthetic areas of a tooth
D. Increases both retention and resistance forms
20. Causes of postoperative sensitivity with amalgam
restorations include all of the following except one. Which
one is the exception?
A. Lack of adequate condensation, especially lateral
condensation in the proximal boxes
B. Voids
C. Extension onto the root surface
D. Lack of dentinal sealing

21. Factors that affect the success of dentin bonding

include all of the following except one. Which one is
the exception?
A. Dentin factors such as sclerosis, tubule morphology, and smear
layer
B. Tooth factors such as attrition, abrasion, and
abfraction
C. Material factors such as compressive and tensile
strengths
D. C-factor considerations

22. Which of the following statements regarding carving a

class I amalgam restoration is false?
A. Carving may be made easier by waiting 1 or 2
minutes after condensation before it is started.
B. The blade of the discoid carver should move parallel
to the margins resting on the partially set amalgam.
C. Deep occlusal anatomy should not be carved.
D. The carved amalgam outline should coincide with
the cavosurface margins.

23. The generally accepted maximum thickness of a

composite increment that allows for proper cure is ____.
A. 1 to 2 mm
B. 2 to 4 mm
C. 4 to 6 mm
D. There is no maximum thickness restriction.
24. The setting reaction of dental amalgam proceeds
primarily by ____.
A. Dissolution of the entire alloy particle into mercury
B. Dissolution of the copper from the particles into
mercury
C. Precipitation of tin-mercury crystals
D. Mercury reaction with silver on or in the alloy
particle

25. What is the half-life of mercury in the human body?

A. 5 days
B. 25 days
C. 55 days
D. 85 days
E. 128 days

26. Restoration of an appropriate proximal contact results

in all of the following except one. Which one is the
exception?
A. Reduces or eliminates food impaction at the interdental papilla
B. Provides appropriate space for the interdental
papilla
C. Provides increased retention form for the
restoration
D. Maintains the proper occlusal relationship

27. The best way to carve amalgam back to occlusal

cavosurface margin is to ____.
A. Use visual magnification
B. Use a discoid-cleoid instrument guided by the
adjacent unprepared enamel
C. Make deep pits and grooves
D. Use a round finishing bur after the amalgam
has set
28. Major differences between total-etch and self-etching
primer dentin bonding systems include all of the following
except one. Which one is the exception?
A. The time necessary to apply the material
B. The amount of smear layer removed
C. The bond strengths to enamel
D. The need for wet bonding

29. Which of the following statements is not true regarding

bonding systems?
A. Although dentin bonding occurs slowly, it results
in a stronger bond than to enamel.
B. Enamel bonding occurs quickly, is strong, and is
long-lasting.
C. One-bottle dentin bonding systems may be simpler
but are not always better.
D. Dentin bonding is still variable because of factors
such as sclerosis, tubule size, and tubule location.

30. A casting may fail to seat on the prepared tooth because

of all of the following factors except one. Which one is
the exception?
A. Temporary cement still on the prepared tooth after
the temporary restoration has been removed
B. Proximal contacts of casting are too heavy or too
tight
C. Undercuts present in prepared tooth
D. The occlusal of the prepared tooth was
underreduced

31. For a gold casting alloy, which of the following is added

primarily to act as a scavenger for oxygen during the
casting process?
A. Copper
B. Palladium
C. Silver
D. Zinc
32. All of the following are likely to indicate the need for
restoration of a cervical notch except one. Which one
is the exception?
A. Patient age
B. Esthetic concern
C. Tooth is symptomatic
D. Tooth is deeply notched axially

33. When comparing pin retention with slot retention for

a complex amalgam restoration, which of the following
statements is false?
A. Slots are used where vertical walls allow opposing
retention locks.
B. Slots provide stronger retention than pins.
C. Slots and grooves can be used interchangeably.
D. Pin retention is used primarily where there are few
or no vertical walls.

34. All of the following statements about slot-retained

complex amalgams are true except one. Which one is
the exception?
A. Slots should be 1.5 mm in depth.
B. Slots should be 1 mm or more in length.
C. Slots may be segmented or continuous.
D. Slots should be placed at least 0.5 mm inside the
dentinoenamel junction (DEJ).

35. Bonding of resins to dentin is best described as involving

____.
A. Mechanical interlocking
B. Ionic bonding
C. Covalent bonding
D. van der Waals forces
36. Which one of the following acids is generally
recommended for etching tooth structure?
A. Maleic acid
B. Polyacrylic acid
C. Phosphoric acid
D. Tartaric acid
E. Ethylenediamine tetraacetic acid

37. The principal goals of bonding are ____.

A. Sealing and thermal insulation
B. Strengthening teeth and esthetics
C. Esthetics and reduction of postoperative
sensitivity
D. Sealing and retention
E. Retention and reduction of tooth flexure

38. Triturating a dental amalgam ____.

A. Reduces the size of the alloy particles
B. Coats the alloy particles with mercury
C. Reduces the crystal sizes as they form
D. Dissolves the alloy particles in mercury

39. Which of the following is a primary contraindication

for the use of a composite restoration?
A. Occlusal factors
B. Inability to isolate the operating area
C. Nonesthetic areas
D. Extension onto the root surface

40. Which of the following materials has the highest linear

coefficient of expansion?
A. Amalgam
B. Direct gold
C. Tooth structure
D. Composite resin
41. Which of the following is the most common pin used
in restorative procedures?
A. Friction-locked pin
B. Cemented pin
C. Amalgam pin
D. Self-threaded pin

42. A cervical lesion should be restored if it is ____.

A. Carious
B. Very sensitive
C. Causing gingival inflammation
D. All of the above

43. With regard to the mercury controversy related to the

use of amalgam restorations, which of the following
statements is not correct?
A. Scientific evidence is lacking that amalgam poses
health risks to humans except for rare allergic
reactions.
B. Alternative amalgamlike materials with low or no
mercury content have promise.
C. True allergies to amalgam rarely have been
reported.
D. Efforts are under way to reduce the environmental
mercury to which people are exposed to lessen
their total mercury exposure.

44. Compared with amalgam restorations, composite

restorations are ____.
A. Stronger
B. More technique-sensitive
C. More resistant to occlusal forces
D. Not indicated for class II restorations
45. Which of the following statements regarding the choice
between doing a composite or amalgam restoration
is true?
A. Establishing restored proximal contacts is easier
with composite.
B. The amalgam is more difficult and techniquesensitive.
C. The composite generally uses a more conservative
tooth/cavity preparation.
D. Only amalgam should be used for class II
restorations.

46. Eburnated dentin has which of the following

characteristics? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Is sclerotic dentin
B. Indicates recent poor hygiene
C. Usually appears as a white patch
D. Is firm to the touch of an explorer
E. Is usually seen in older patients

47. Rounding internal cavity preparation angles is part of

what form in cavity preparation?
A. Resistance form
B. Retention form
C. Convenience form
D. Outline form

48. Which of the following terms refers to tooth structure

loss in the cervical area secondary to biomechanical
loading?
A. Abfraction
B. Abrasion
C. Attrition
D. Erosion

49. For a mechanical pulp exposure that is noncarious and

the exposure is less than 1.0 mm, what is usually the
most appropriate treatment?
A. No pulp treatment
B. Direct pulp cap
C. Indirect pulp cap
D. Endodontic therapy

50. A beveled shoulder design around a capped cusp of a

gold onlay preparation is termed a ____.
A. Skirt
B. Stubbed margin
C. Secondary flare
D. Groove extension bevel
E. Collar

51. After completing the tooth preparation for the

application of an etch-and-rinse (total-etch) three-step dental
adhesive, what is the next step?
A. Apply adhesive
B. Rinse etchant and leave surface wet
C. Apply two to three layers of primer
D. Etch enamel and dentin with phosphoric acid for
10 to 15 seconds
E. Light-cure