Prostho-Dent Mat 1-12 B.

Bleeding
C. Gingival recession may be problem
May 2 D. None of the above
REVALIDA

1. Important point about gingiva electrosurgery – Use 8. Exclude first, shades which are ______
_____ instruments (mirror, explorer, etc.) instead of A. Too dark only
______ to prevent burning and tissue destruction of the B. Too light or too dark
surface contact. C. Too light only
A. Plastic, metal D. None
B. Metal, plastic
C. Silver, copper 9. All of the following statements concerning pontics are
D. Silver, plastic true EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?
A. With regard to the ease of cleaning and good tissue
2. The pontic design that looks most like a tooth. It covers health; proper design is more important than the
the ridge labiolingually with a large concave contact. This choice of material used in fabricating the pontic
is impossible to clean, therefore not recommended. B. The contour and nature of the pontic contact with
A. Modified ridge-lap pontic design the ridge is very important
B. Sanitary (hygienic) pontic design C. The area of contact between the pontic and the
C. Saddle-ridge-lap pontic design ridge should be small
D. None D. The portion of the pontic approximating the ridge
should be as concave as possible
3. Which luting agent (cement) has the lowest solubility? E. The pontic should exert no pressure on the ridge
A. Resin-modified glass ionomer (passive contact with no blanching of the tissue)
B. Zinc polycarbonate
C. Glass ionomer 10. This is the term used to refer to the suspended member
D. Zinc phosphate of a fixed bridge that replaces a missing tooth
A. Pontic
4. A non-rigid connector is comprised of: B. Abutment
A. A keyway C. Artificial tooth
B. A key D. None
C. A key and a keyway
D. None 11. A seven-eighths crown is a three-quarter crown whose
vertical:
5. Under which of the ff conditions will it be critical to A. Mesiolingual margin is positioned slightly distal to
mount a patient’s casts on the true hinge axis? the middle of the lingual surface
A. When the patient has a severe Class II occlusal B. Mesiobuccal margin is positioned slightly distal to
relation the middle of the buccal surface
B. When the dentist plans to change the vertical C. Distolingual margin is positioned slightly mesial to
dimension through restorations the middle of the lingual surface
C. When the dentist plans to fabricate dentures D. Distobuccal margin is positioned slightly mesial to
with high-cusped teeth on a fully adjusted the middle of the buccal surface
articulator
D. When the patient requires several fixed partial 12. Contraindication for electrosurgery
denture A. For crown lengthening procedures prior to
fabrication a provisional crown
6. Gingival electrosurgery involves the reduction of the B. Where attached gingiva tissues are thin and where
______ wall of the gingival sulcus (removal of a _____ an underlying dehiscence is suspected
layer of crevicular gingival tissue) C. None of the above
A. Inner, thick
B. Inner, thin 13. While doing shade selection, remember that ____ fatigue
C. Outer, thick accentuated _____ sensitivity.
D. Outer, thin A. Blue, yellow
B. Blue, green
7. Reason for contraindications of electrosurgery C. Orange, yellow
A. Esthetics D. Green, red

1

14. The pontic design gives illusion of being a tooth, but
possesses all convex surfaces for ease of cleaning. This
design is one of the choice for pontics in the appearance
zone where esthetics are important.
A. Modified ridge-lap pontic design
B. Sanitary (hygienic) pontic design
C. Saddle-ridge-lap pontic design
D. None
15. Margin design for all ceramic or porcelain jacket crowns
A. Bevel (feather edge or chamfer)
B. Shoulder with bevel or chamfer
C. Shoulder
D. None of the above
16. All ceramic crowns generally are accepted to be ____
esthetically, their lack of a metal substructure makes
them inherently _____
A. Superior, weak
B. Inferior, strong
C. Superior, strong
D. Inferior, weak
17. The main reason for the use of porcelain jacket crowns
and all-ceramic crowns is ________
A. Superior esthetics
B. Strength
C. Efficient function
D. None
18. First sentence: “Blue” fatigue accentuates “yellow”
sensitivity
Second Sentence: This means that if you look at blue
color objects (drapes, charts, wall-color or any other
object around) while selecting the shade; it will help to
accentuate the ability to discriminate yellow shades
A. First statement is false, second statement is true
B. First statement is true, second statement is false
C. Both sentences are false
D. Both sentences are true
19. The pontic design that leaves a space between the pontic
and the ridge. This most commonly used where esthetics
are not important (nonappearance zone, posterior
mandible)
A. Sanitary (hygienic) pontic design
B. Saddle-ridge-lap pontic design
C. Modified ridge-lap pontic design
D. None
20. Margin design for metal ceramic with metal collars
A. Bevel
B. Shoulder with bevel or chamfer
C. Shoulder
2
D. None of the above
21. For non-rigid connector, the path of insertion of the key
into the keyway should be ____ to the pathway of the
retainer ____ with the keyway
A. Parallel, not involved
B. Parallel, involved
C. Perpendicular, not involved
D. Perpendicular, involved
22. The absolute maximum number of posterior teeth, which
can be safely replaced with a fixed bridge
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
23. The first step in relining a distal extension removable
partial denture is to:
A. Correct the occlusion
B. Eliminate undercuts in the denture base
C. Verify the fit of the framework
D. Border mold the denture base
24. In surveying cast for removable partial dentures
A. Retentive undercuts are .03 inch deep for casted
chrome cobalt alloys
B. Retentive undercuts are determined after tilting the
cast
C. Retentive undercuts are .01 inch deep for casted
chrome cobalt alloys
D. Retentive undercuts are determined at zero lit
25. Stability in removable partial dentures is best insured by:
A. Using flat plane teeth
B. Incorporating adequate bracing areas
C. Incorporating harmonious occlusion
D. Clasping and indirect retention
26. In order to achieve maximum intercuspation to centric
occlusion when setting posterior artificial teeth for rpd,
the artificial teeth are first set in hyper occlusion and
then equilibrated back to the original vertical dimension
of occlusion. This procedure must be accomplished for all
of the following situations with the exception of setting:
A. Mandibular artificial posteriors against a maxillary
posterior fixed prosthesis
B. Maxillary artificial posteriors against mandibular
artificial posteriors
C. Maxillary artificial posteriors against mandibular
natural posteriors
D. None
27. The ridge mesh should:
A. Extend the entire length of the upper residual ridge
for strength of resin
B. Extend 2/3 of the length of the upper residual ridge
for strength of resin
 C. Be well adapted on the residual ridge for adequate 35. The anteroposterior curvature (in the median plane) and
adaptation of resin the mediolateral curvature (in the frontal plane) in the
D. Extend 1/3 of the length of the lower residual ridge alignment of the occluding surfaces and incisal edges of
for strength of resin artificial teeth that are used to develop balanced
occlusion is called:
28. A basic difference between a distal extension case and A. Compensating curve
tooth bounded case is that a distal extension case B. Curve of spee
requires C. Curve of pleasure
A. Direct retention D. Curve of Wilson
B. Guide plane preparation
C. Indirect retention 36. Rotational movements take place in which compartment
D. An RPI design of the TMJ?
A. Both upper and lower compartments
29. Which can provide retention if abutments do not have B. Upper (mandibular fossa – articular disc)
undercut? compartment
A. Tripoding C. Lower (condyle - articular disc)
B. Beading D. None
C. Enameloplasty
D. Tilting the cast 37. Which of the following is the most important reason for
treatment of hyperplastic tissue before construction of a
30. What important consideration would you make you complete or removable partial denture?
choose cusp teeth over monoplane teeth? A. It will make the patient feel better
A. Chewing efficiency B. To provide a firm, stable base for the denture
B. Esthetics C. The final impression material will flow better
C. Elimination of lateral stress on movement D. It will make the face-bow transfer easier to perform
D. Ease in teeth set up 38. The primary reason for obtaining the most extensive
areal coverage for a mandibular complete denture are:
31. Primary reason for plaster washing impression A. To increase the capacity of underlying structures to
A. Remove saliva, blood and other debris withstand the stress due to biting force and to
B. Produce smoother cast surface improve appearance
C. Increasing rigidity of the impression B. To improve retention and to increase tongue space
D. None C. To increase the capacity of the underlying structures
to withstand the stress due to biting force and to
32. According to the rules of classifying edentulous spaces by increase the effectiveness of the seal
Kennedy, which classification can never have a D. To provide balanced occlusion and to increase
modification space? tongue space
A. Classification 1 B. Classification 2 C. Classification 3
D. Classification 4 39. The incisal edges of the maxillary anterior teeth should
just touch the wet/dry line of the lower lip when
33. If careless handling of the prosthesis has distorted the enunciating which sound (s)
major connector, the steps taken in the corrective A. Linguo-alveolar sounds or sibilants (such as s, z, sh
procedure are to and ch)
A. Remake the prosthesis B. Fricatives or labiodental sounds (such as f, v, or ph)
B. Reestablish the taper of the clasp arm b, p and m sounds
C. Adjust the major connector C. Linguo-dental sounds (such as this, that or those)
D. Remount and equilibrate the prosthesis D. None
E. Accomplish a functional reline
40. After border molding the mandibular custom tray, it is
34. Contraindications of RPI systems are the following important to check for dislodgement in order to detect
EXCEPT: areas of:
A. Mesio-buccal undercut A. Underextension of the tray
B. Disto-buccal undercut B. Thickness of the tray
C. Lingually tilted abutment C. Overextension of the tray
D. High buccal frenum D. None

3
41. Which of the following adverse conditions may arise if
occlusal vertical dimension is increased? 48. Posterior teeth that are set edge to edge may cause:
A. The closing muscles may become strained A. Gagging
B. The opening muscles may become strained B. Cheek biting
C. The closing muscles may become too relaxed C. Reduced taste
D. Soreness may occur at the corners of the mouth D. Speech aberrations

42. The lingual cusps of the maxillary cusps of the maxillary 49. To the biologically and mechanically acceptable, a
posterior teeth are: soldered joint of a fixed bridge should be so formed that
A. Non supporting and working it;
B. Supporting and working A. Extends to the buccal margin of the retainer
C. Non supporting and balancing B. Is circular in form and occupies the region of the
D. Supporting and balancing contact area
C. Is thin occlusogingivally and wide buccolingually
43. The primary role of anterior teeth on a denture is: D. Fills the entire interproximal space occlusogingivally
A. To incise food
B. Esthetics 50. Dental stone and dental plaster both have a slightly
C. Occlusion different type of principal component (calcium sulfate
D. Stability of the denture hemihydrate) dental plaster has:
A. Beta-hemihydrate and dental stone has alpha-
44. The chronically ill-fitting denture may cause an hemihydrate
inflammatory fibrous hyperplasia adjacent to its border. B. Alpha-hemihydrate and dental stone has beta-
This condition is known as: hemihydrate
A. Stomatitis nicotina C. Gamma-hemihydrate and dental stone has beta-
B. Epulis fissuratum hemihydrate
C. Inflammatory papillary hyperplasia
D. Verrucous vulgaris 51. The filler in alginate gives the mixed material “body” that
allows acceptable handling. Without filler, the mixed
material would be too runny for use. Which of the
45. Which tooth should ideally provide the predominant following is a main component of the alginate powder
guidance through the full range of movement in lateral and functions as the filler?
mandibular excursions? A. Zinc oxide
A. First molars B. Calcium sulfate
B. Premolars C. Potassium titanium fluoride
C. Incisors D. Diatomaceous earth (silica)
D. Canines E. Tri-sodium phosphate
F. Potassium alginate
46. During typical empty mouth swallowing, the mandible is
braced in which jaw position to allow for proper 52. Which of the following was the result of leaving dental
stabilization? impressions immersed in water for a few hours?
A. Centric relation (CR) A. Inhibition
B. Intercuspal position (IP) B. Gelation
C. Protruded contact position (PCP) C. Syneresis
D. Retruded contact position (RCP) D. Hysteresis

47. Which of the following explains why mandibular molars 53. If a mold that is created for investing and casting does
should not be placed over the ascending area of the not _____ to compensate for the action of the metal
mandible? alloy, the casting will not fit
A. The occlusal forces over the inclined ramus would A. Equate
dislodge the mandibular denture B. Expand
B. The teeth in this area would encroach on the tongue C. Shrink
space D. Contract
C. The molars would interfere with the retromolar pad
D. The teeth in this area would interfere with the action 54. Glazed porcelain is:
of the masseter muscle A. Obtained by heating the previously fired body very
E. The denture base ends where the ramus ascends slowly for 60mins. at its fusing temperature

4
 B. Nonporous, resists abrasion, possess esthetic ability C. Sets quickly
and is well tolerated by the gingiva D. Excellent detailed reproduction
C. Not as durable (in its surface characteristics) as an E. No shrinking if store for many days
over-glazed porcelain
D. None
62. A post and core is preferred to a post crown for an
55. How does porcelain chemically bond to metal? abutment tooth because:
A. Interposition of an intermediate metal layer A. it is stronger
B. Mixing of oxidized metal layers with porcelain oxides B. better esthetics can be achieved
C. Wetting of the porcelain onto the metal surface C. it can be treated as an independent abutment
D. Mixing of the metal atoms with the porcelain D. less chair time is required in its fabrication
structure
63. Under which of the following conditions will it be critical
56. The ____ the ceramic crystals, the better, as more to mount a patient’s casts on the true hinge axis?
boundaries prevent dislocations in the structure A. When the patient has a severe Class II occlusal
A. Longer relation.
B. Wider B. When the patient requires several fixed partial
C. Larger dentures.
D. Smaller C. When the dentist plans to change the vertical
E. None of the above dimension through restorations.
D. When the dentist plans to fabricate dentures with
57. In cobalt-chromium alloys, the constituent responsible high-cusped teeth on a fully adjusted articulator.
for corrosion resistance is:
A. Tungsten 64. Repeated fracture of a porcelain-fused to metal
B. Silver restoration is due primarily to:
C. Cobalt A. occlusal trauma
D. Chromium B. improper firing schedule
E. Nickel C. failure to use a metal conditioner
D. an inadequately designed framework
58. Gypsum bonded investment material can be used for:
A. Type IV gold alloys 65. Indirect retention is designed to:
B. The substructure for metal crowns A. stabilize tooth-borne RPDs
C. Dowel crowns to be cast in silver-palladium alloys B. engage an undercut area of an abutment tooth
D. Titanium crowns and copings C. help resist tissueward movement of an extension
base partial denture
D. help resist dislodgement of an extension base
partial denture in an occlusal direction.
59. In mixing alginate, the higher the temperature of water, E. None of the above.
the shorter the gelation time, the lower the temperature:
A. The shorter the gelation time
B. The longer the gelation time
C. Gelation time is not affected 66. The dentist should place the terminus of a retentive clasp
arm at (in) the:
60. Ceramic material are fundamentally distinct from alloys A. junction of the gingival and middle one third of the
or polymers; ceramic contain strong, directional, _____ clinical crown
between m and oxygen that impart strength but will not B. junction of the middle and occlusal one third of the
tolerate distortion clinical crown
A. Ionic bonds C. level of the free gingival margin
B. Covalent bonds D. occlusal one third of the clinical crown
C. Polar covalent bonds
D. All of the above 67. Which of the following design characteristics of a partial
denture is most important to oral health?
61. All of the following are characteristics of ZOE impression A. Bracing B. support C. stability
paste EXCEPT. Which one is the EXCEPTION? D. retention
A. Dimensionally stable
B. Sets hard

5
68. The relationship of denture base to bone that resists 75. When a cusp is in deflective occlusal contact in centric
dislodgement of the denture in a horizontal direction is: relation, but does not contact in one or more of the
A. supportB. pressure C. esthetics eccentric movements, grinding should be performed on:
D. stability A. both the cusp and the opposing area
B. the opposing fossa or the marginal ridge
69. Tripod marks are placed on the cast after surveying for C. the cusp that is in deflective occlusal contact
which of the following reasons? D. the opposing areas in eccentric positions
A. To record the undercut areas on the abutment
teeth. 76. The most likely tissue reaction to gross overextension of
B. To help mount the cast on the articulator a complete denture that has been worn for a long time
C. To record the orientation of the cast to the is:
articulator A. epulis fissuratum
D. To record the orientation of the cast to the surveyor B. pyogenic granuloma
C. papillary hyperplasia
70. Which of the following is the primary reason for using D. giant cell reparative granuloma
plastic teeth in a removable partial denture? Plastic teeth
are: 77. Translation in a mandibular opening movement occurs;
A. resistant to wear A. on closing from centric relation
B. resistant to stains B. on initial opening from centric relation
C. esthetically acceptable C. in the upper compartment of the TMJ
D. retained well in acrylic resin D. in the lower compartment of the TMJ

71. Which of the following mechanical properties limits the 78. A patient has a chronically tender, knife-edge mandibular
amount of adjustment of a base metal removable clasp residual ridge. In fabricating a complete denture for this
arm? patient, a dentist should consider which of the following?
A. Hardness B. stiffness C. A. Maximal extension of the denture- to distribute
elongation D. tensile strength forces of occlusion over a greater area
B. Minimal extension of the denture- to limit
72. When the mandible is in its physiologic rest or portural tenderness to a smaller area
position, contact of teeth is: C. Decreased occlusal vertical dimension- to decrease
A. maximum B. not present C. premature biting forces
D. slight D. A broad occlusal table- to provide a firmer contact
in eccentric jar relations
73. In a complete denture patient, when the teeth, occlusion
rims and central bearing point are in contact and the 79. The posterior occlusal plane is determined on an
mandible is in centric relation, the length of the face is occlusion rim by paralleling the rim with the;
A. ala-tragus plane
known as the:
B. ala-canthus plane
A. interocclusal rest space
C. tragus-canthus plane
B. vertical dimension D. ala-external auditory meatus plane
C. physiologic rest position
D. rest vertical dimension 80. A dentist relined a patient’s maxillary complete denture.
E. occlusal vertical dimension This patient returned repeatedly for adjustments of the
erythematous areas on the ridge crest. Which of the
74. Which of the following jaw-relation records should be following is the most likely cause?
used for setting both the medial and superior condylar A. An allergy to the acrylic resin that was used for
guides on an arcon articulator? relining
A. Intercuspation C. lateral interocclusal
B. Presence of a pressure spot in the relined
records
impression
B. Centric relation D. protrusive interocclusal
records C. The loss of even centric relation contacts
D. A decrease in the occlusal vertical dimension

81. The discolored, corroded, superficial layer frequently

seen on the surface of a dental amalgam restoration is
most likely;

6
 A. mercury B. a sulfide C.
gamma-2 D. copper oxide
82. A tray for a polysulfide rubber impression that lacks
occlusal stops may result in:
A. holding the tray for the entire time in the mouth
B. a more prolonged period of setting in the mouth
before the tray is removed
C. an inaccurate final impression because of
permanent distortion during polymerization
D. an inaccurate final impression because of elastic
distortion during removal from the mouth
83. Practitioner pickles gold alloy restorations by heating
them to redness and plunging them into an acid bath.
This procedure can result in which of the following?
A. Oxidation of the metal
B. Porosity in the casting
C. warpage of the restoration
D. surface roughness of the restoration
PROSTHO DENT MAT 9-17-2021
1. The setting of zinc phosphate may be retarded by? A.
Increased in the ratio of powder to liquid
B. Diluting the liquid with water
C. Increase the addition of powder to liquid
D. Decrease the addition of powder to liquid
2. The principal factor in minimizing the firing shrinkage of
porcelain is the; A. fusion temperature C. uniformity of
particle size B. ratio of flux to feldspar D. thoroughness of
condensation
3. Greater pressure is applied during calcination resulting to a
denser gypsum product A. Die/improved stone B. Plaster of
Paris C. Cast stone D. None of the choices E. All of the choices
4. Reversible hydrocolloids exhibit the property of
transformation from sol to gel and gel to sol as a function of
the ; A. concentration of the fillers and plasticizers B. percent
composition by weight of water C. concentration of
potassium sulfate D.temperature
5. Polycarboxylate cement has which of the following
advantages over zinc phosphate cement? A.Longer working
time B. increased compressive strength C.Lower film
thickness D. superior biologic compatibility
6. The dentist can BEST control the setting time of an
irreversible hydrocolloid by altering the A. mixing time B.
7
water-powder ratio C. none of the choices D. temperature of
the water E. amount of the retarder or accelerator added
7. Porcelain bonded to metal is strongest when A. air fired B.
tempered after firing C.under compression D. fired several
times before completion
8. the walls of the mixing bowl should be smooth and
resistant to abrasion, because: A. spatula may drag during
mixing B. none of the choices C. it allows easier mixing D.
scratches or creases may retain set plaster even after washing
which will alter setting time and other properties E. all of the
choices
9. Which of the following materials will produce the
most rigid restoration for frameworks of the same
dimension? A. Wrought gold C. Cobalt-chromium alloys
B. Palladium alloys D. partial denture casting gold in the
hardened condition
10. The property that most closely describes the ability
of a cast gold inlay to be burnished is; A.elastic limit B.
percentage elongation C. ultimate strength D. modulus
of resilience E. modulus
11. For the best results when using an elastomeric impression
material, the prepared tooth should be A. covered with a
surface tension-reducing agent and air dried B. free of surface
moisture C. none of the choices D. Very Dry E. covered thinly
with a water-soluble lubricant
12. effects of cooling the mixing slab prior to cementation
include 1. increasing the amount of powder that can be
incorporated into the mix 2. Increasing the setting time in the
mouth 3. Increasing the working time on the slab 4.
Decreasing free acid in the set cement A. 1,3 B. 3,4 C. 2,4 D.
none of the choice E. 1,2
13. The strength of dental investments for gold alloys is
dependent upon the amount of; A. silica B. carbon C.
gypsum D. alumina
14. Dental stone and dental plaster both have a slightly
different type of principal component (calcium sulfate
hemihydrate). Dental plaster has: A. beta-hemihydrate and
dental stone has alpha-hemihydrate B. gamma-hemihydrate
and dental stone has beta-hemihydrate C. alpha-hemihydrate
and dental stone has beta-hemihydrate
15. A frequent cause of distortion of a rubber-base
impression of a bridge preparation area is A. Improper
base-accelerator ratio B. Prolonged mixing of the
material C. Failure to retract the gingival tissue properly
D. Removal of the impression prior to the complete set
of material
16. Which of the following describes a material with
high compressive strength but low tensile strength?
A.Tough B. brittle C. ductile D. malleable E. resilient
17. Chroma is that aspect of color that indicates; A.
degree of translucency B. degree of saturation of the
hue C. combined effect of hue and value D. all of the
above E.none of the above.
18. An acidic agent that dissolves the inorganic structure
in dentin, resulting in a collagen mesh that allows
infiltration of an adhesive A. Cavity varnish B. Dentin
conditioner C. Zinc phosphate cement D. Dentin
bonding
19. ____ increases as yield strength increases. A. ductility B.
yield point C. Hardness D. none of the above E. all of the
above
20. Rank of the following dental materials in order of
increasing value of their coefficient of thermal
expansion: amalgam, teeth, porcelain and unfilled
acrylic plastics A. Teeth, porcelain, amalgam and
unfilled acrylic plastics B. Porcelain, teeth, unfilled
acrylic plastics and amalgam C. Porcelain, teeth,
amalgam and unfilled acrylic plastics D. Teeth,
porcelain, unfilled acrylic plastics, amalgam
21. Which of the following syringe materials is the most
rigid and, therefore, the most difficult to remove from
the mouth? A. Polyether C. Addition silicone B.
Polysulfide D. Condensation silicone E. reversible
hydrocolloid
22. Which of the following dental material has a value of
thermal conductivity similar to a human tooth A. Dental
amalgam B. Composite C. Zinc phosphate cement D.
Gold alloys
23. dental plaster and stone are vibrated after mixing to: A.
increase the setting time B. eliminate air bubbles C. minimize
distortion D. reduce setting time
8
24. . Using a thinner mix of a gypsum-bonded
investment will A. Produce a smoother cast B. Increase
setting expansion C. Decrease setting expansion D.
Increase thermal expansion
25. Due to this property of impression compound, the
material is kneaded when manipulated in a water bath
A. Flow B. Thermal conductivity C. Brittleness D.
Distortion
26. Which of the following is not a reason for paralleling
proximal walls in porcelain jacket crown preparations?
A. Obtain maximal retention B. Obtain maximal support
for the porcelain against the occlusal forces C. Make the
proximal amounts of porcelain approximately equal D.
Obtain stability
27. The following are indications of porcelain veneers,
except: A. Coverage of labial surface defects –
hypoplasia of the enamel B. Masking of discolored teeth
– tetracycline staining, discoloration following loss of
vitality C. The severe overspreading of teeth D. Repair of
structural damage – fractured incisal edges E. Reduction
of spacing in cases when orthodontics would be
inappropriate
28. In order to achieve optimum casting results in the
metal-ceramic technique, it is necessary to use a A.
Gypsum-bonded investment B. Phosphate-bonded
investment C. Properly adjusted gas-air torch D.
Carefully cleaned crucible
29. The strength of the solder joint is proportional to its
A. Porosity B. Thickness C. Surface area D. All of the
above
30. The usual reason for including a semi-rigid connector
in fixed partial denture is to A. Improve esthetics by
providing for a simple restoration to be used on the
more anterior abutment B. Provide for limited individual
movement of abutment teeth in long span serial fixed
splinting C. Avoid simultaneous preparation of the
abutment teeth of a three unit fixed partial denture D.
Reconcile alignment of non-parallel abutment teeth
without excessive reduction E. Reduce torquing forces
on the abutment teeth
31. The following are disadvantages of a metal-ceramic
crown except: A. Removal of substantial tooth structure
B. Superior esthetics in comparison with all-metal crown
C. Inferior esthetics in comparison with all-ceramic
crown D. Difficult to obtain accurate occlusion in glazed
porcelain
32. A non-rigid connector is comprised of A. A key B. A
keyway C. A key and a keyway D. None
33. The following guidelines ensure proper tooth
structure conservation except: A. Use of partial
coverage rather than complete coverage restorations B.
Preparation of teeth with maximum practical
convergence angle between axial walls C. Preparation of
occlusal surface so that reduction follows the anatomic
planes to give uniform thickness in the restoration D.
Preparation of the axial surfaces so that a maximal
thickness of residual tooth structure surrounding pulpal
tissues is retained
34. All ceramic restorations require which margin
design? A. Wide 90-degree shoulder B. Wide 90-degree
chamfer C. Wide 120-degree bevel D. Narrow 90-degree
shoulder
35. The path of insertion for an anterior ¾ crown A. Be
perpendicular to the incisal one-half of the labial
surface rather than the long axis of the tooth B. Be
parallel to the incisal one-half to two-thirds of the labial
surface rather than the long axis of the tooth C. Be
parallel to the long axis of the tooth D. Be parallel to the
cervical one-third of the labial surface rather than the
long axis of the tooth
36. A permanently cemented fixed partial denture may
become loose because of these factors except: A.
Insufficient retention in the abutment preparation B.
Deformation of the metal casting on the abutment C.
Lack of embrasure space D. Torque
37. The functional cusp bevel for a full or partial veneer
casting A. Enhances resistance form when buccal to
lingual forces are applied B. Serves a positive stop when
the casting is seated during cementation C. Relieves the
functional cusp from additional stresses when the
restoration is loaded in the long axis of the tooth D.
9
Provides space for restorative material of adequate
thickness in an area of heavy occlusal contact
38. To achieve optimum periodontal health when
planning for a fixed prosthodontic treatment,
restoration finish line should be: A. Within the sulcus at
least 1.0 mm and away from the free gingival margin
without encroaching on the biological width B.
Terminated at the free gingival margin C. Supragingival
whenever possible (at least 0.5 mm from the free
gingival margin) to allow for hygienic cleansing D. As far
as possible subgingivally into the attachment apparatus
39. The following are advantages of supragingival
margins except: A. They can be easily finished without
associated soft tissue trauma B. They are more easily
kept plaque free and are more esthetically pleasing C.
Impressions are more easily made, with less potential
for soft tissue damage D. Restorations can be easily
evaluated at the time of placement or at recall
appointments
40. The preparation for a full veneer crown is begun
with occlusal reduction. There should be ___ clearance
on the functional cusps and about ___ on the non-
functional cusps A. 0.5 mm; 1.0 mm B. 1.5 mm; 1.0 mm
C. 2.0 mm; 1.5 mm D. 2.5mm; 2.0 mm
41. What describes quenching? A. A metal is a metal is
elevated to a temperature above room temperature
and held there for a length of time B. A metal is rapidly
cooled from an elevated temperature to room
temperature or below C. Softening a metal by
controlled heating and cooling D. None of the above
42. According to ADA classification for alloy systems
used for metal-ceramic restorations, noble alloys: A.
Have a noble metal content of >60% B. Have a noble
metal content of >45% C. Have a noble metal content of
>25% D. Have a noble metal content of >15%
43. Repeated fracturing of a porcelain facing results
primarily from A. Traumatic occlusion B. Improper
mouth hygiene C. Improper selection of a pontic D. An
inadequately designed pontic casting
44. The forces acting through a fixed partial denture on
to the abutment tooth should be directed I. As far as
possible at right angles to the long axes of the teeth II.
Parallel to the long axes of the teeth III. By decreasing
the faciolingual dimension of the pontic IV. By
decreasing the mesiodistal dimension of the pontic V.
Inn a mesial direction so that teeth nearer the midline
will offer additional support The CORRECT answer is: A.
I, III, IV B. I, III, V C. I, IV, V D. II, III E. II, V
45. Which margin design is indicated for cast metal
restorations, lingual margin of metal-ceramic crowns,
and metal-ceramic crowns with metal collar A. Chamfer
B. Shoulder C. Sloped shoulder D. Shoulder with bevel
46. This pertains to the quality of a preparation that
prevents the restoration from becoming dislodged by
such forces parallel to the path of placement A.
Retention B. Resistance C. Stability D. Support
47. The following features increase the retention of a
preparation except: A. Increased surface area B.
Increased axial wall height C. Increased preparation
smoothness D. Decreased angle of convergence
48. Fracture or failure in metal ceramic restoration
occurs A. In the porcelain B. At the porcelain-metal
interface C. In the metal D. All surfaces
49. To achieve optimum margin for a casting that can
easily be burnished to improve the fit A. Butt joint B.
Acute edge C. Knife edge D. Supra gingival
50. The following margin designs provide adequate bulk
of restorative material except: A. Feather edge B.
Shoulder C. Sloped shoulder D. Shoulder with bevel
51. Functional stresses applied to any portion of a
partial denture can be distributed throughout the
mouth only when major and minor connectors are: A.
rigid C. cast in a base-metal alloy B. flexible D.
positioned in the same plane E. none of these.
52. When the mandible is in the physiologic rest or
postural position, contact of teeth is? A. maximum B.
not present C. premature D. slight
53. Major connectors of a maxillary removable partial
denture may be beaded to: A. retain the acrylic to the
metal framework B. produce a positive contact against
10
the tissue C. Aid in the retention of the denture D.
Produce a stronger framework and form a finish line
between metal and acrylic E. all of the choices
54. The reciprocal arm of a circumferential clasp should
always A. Contact a guiding plane near its tip B. Contact
a guiding plane near its attachment to the minor
connector C. Contact a guiding plane approximately 180
degrees around the tooth from its tip D. Be rigid E. Be
flexible A. A and B B. C and D C. A and C D. B and D E. B
and C
55. The flexibility of a retentive arm of clasp depends on
which of the following? 1. length of the clasp 4. cross-
sectional form 2. thickness of the clasp 5. taper of the
clasp 3. width of the clasp 6. clasp material A. 1,2,3,5,6
B. 1,2,3,5 C. 1,2,3,6 D. all of the above
56. Which of the following describes the major
connector? A. The connecting tang between the
denture and other units of the prosthesis. B. The part of
the denture base which extends from the necks of the
teeth to the border of the denture. C. The units of a
partial denture that connects parts located on one side
of the arch with those on the opposite side. D. Both B &
C are correct E. none of the above.
57. Occlusal rest seats for RPDs are prepared primarily
to: 1. protect occlusal surfaces C. resist lateral chewing
forces 2. stabilize the partial dentures D. resist vertical
forces of occlusion
58. In addition to joining the denture parts, the minor
connector serves what other purposes: A. transfer of
functional stresses B. add flexibility to the restoration C.
eliminate the flexibility of the retentive parts D. acts as
indirect retainer E. none of the choices
59.which ligament is the only one that gives direct support to
the capsule of the TMJ? A. stylomandibular ligament B.
Temporomandibular ligament C. all of the choices D. none of
the choices E. sphenomandibular ligament
60. When a removable denture is completely seated,
the retentive terminals of the retentive clasp arms
should be A. Passive and applying no pressure on the
teeth B. Contacting the abutment teeth only in the
suprabulge areas C. Resting lightly on the height of the
contour line on the abutment teeth D. Applying a
definite, positive force on the abutment teeth in order
to prevent dislodgment of the removable partial
denture
61. the temporomandibular joint is which type of joint?
A. all of the choices B. hinge only C.combined hinge and
gliding D. gliding only E. none of the choices
62. border of the maxillary major connector adjacent to the
gingival crevices should not be closer than: A. 2-3mm B. 4-
6mm C. all of the choices D. 3-4mm E. 6-8mm
63. for a lower bilateral distal free end case with high frenal
attachment, there should be _____indirect retainer to
prevent the occlusal dislodgement of the denture. A. none of
the choices B. 3 C. 2 D. 1 E.4
64. what factors generally determine the selection of the
retainer type? 1. Pulpal or axial extension of decay 2. Location
of the carious lesion 3. Periodontal support of the abutment
tooth 4. Aesthetic demands A. 4 only B. none of the choices C.
all of the above D.2 &4 E. 1 &2 F. 1,2,3
65. A RPD n which a portion of the functional load is carried
by the residual ridge at one end of the denture base segment
while the other end of the base segment is supported by
natural teeth. A. tissue borne RPD B. all of the choices C.
tooth-borne RPD D. none of the choice E. distal extension
RPD
66. Indirect retention is designed to: A. stabilize tooth-
borne RPDs B. engage an undercut area of an abutment
tooth C. help resist tissue ward movement of an
extension base partial denture D. help resist
dislodgement of an extension base partial denture in an
occlusal direction. E. None of the above
67. the following are advantages of using wrought gold alloy
clasps instead of cast gold clasps when fabricating partial
dentures 1. Higher yield strength 2. Greater flexibility 3. More
ductile 4. More resilient A. 2,3,4 B. 1,3,4 C. 1,2,3 D. all of the
choices E. 1,4
68. The basic principle of clasp design requires more than
___degrees of engagement of the greatest circumference of
the abutment tooth. A. 120 B. 360 C. 90 D. none of the choice
E. 180
69. If you are fabricating both mandibular and maxillary
immediate dentures for a patient, the ideal treatment is
which of the following?
11
A. makes no difference which one you fabricate first B. none
of the choices C. all of the choices D. fabricate both the
maxillary and mandibular immediate at the same time
E. fabricate the mandibular immediate first F. fabricate the
maxillary immediate first
70. the following are situations in which a RPD is specifically
indicated rather than a FPD 1. Distal extension 2. Short span
edentulous area 3. Periodontally involved abutment teeth 4.
Following recent extraction A. none of the choices B. 1,3,4 C.
1,2,3 D. 1,2,4 E. 2,3,4
71. the most important step in RPD construction: A. all of the
choices B. surveying C. designing D. none of the choices E.
tooth alteration procedure F. clinical examination
72. the shape of the rest seat in natural posterior teeth
should be: A. flat B. none of the choices C. all of the above D.
convex E. saucer shaped F. box shaped
73. clasps that originate from above the survey line, usually
from an occlusal rest, and angle downward across the clinical
crown until the tip is located in a prescribed amount of
undercut are called what? A. all of the choices B. suprabulge
retainers C. none of the choices D. infrabulge retainers
74. which position is one in which there is a relative muscular
equilibrium? A. postural position B. protruded contact
position C. all of the choices D. none of the choices E.
retruded contact position
75. the precision attachment, under masticatory stresses
against the partial denture: A. tends to torque the tooth B.
direct all stresses parallel to the long axis of the tooth. C.
none of the choices D. lacks allowance for sufficient tooth
movement E. employs all fibers of the periodontal ligaments
76. Which of the following landmarks is least relevant
to the location of posterior palatal seal area? A.
Pterygomaxillary notch B. Vibrating line C. Hamular
process D. Fovea palatine
77. The anteroposterior curvature (in the median plane)
and the mediolateral curvature (in the frontal plane) in
the alignment of the occluding surfaces and the incisal
edges of artificial teeth that are used to develop
balanced occlusion is called: A. Curve of Spee B.
Compensating Curve C. Curve of Wilson D. Curve of
Pleasure
78. posterior teeth that are set edge to edge may cause: A.
reduced taste B. speech aberrations C. cheek biting D. gagging
79. The face-bow is used to record; A. centric relation C.
relation of the mandible to the maxilla B. relation of the
maxilla to the TMJ D. relation of the mandible to the
TMJ
80. When the mandible is in its physiologic rest or
postural position, contact of teeth is: A. maximum B.
not present C. premature D. slight
81. An incorrect occlusal vertical dimension causes a
patient to overclose and to have a poor facial profile. To
correct this problem, the dentist should do which of the
following? A. increase the rest vertical dimension and
increase the interocclusal distance B. decrease the rest
vertical dimension and diminish the interocclusal
distance C. decrease the occlusal vertical dimension and
increase interocclusal distance D. increase the occlusal
vertical dimension and diminish the interocclusal
distance
82. A dentist determined that it would be necessary to
adjust a patient’s denture teeth to correct the centric
occlusion at the wax try-in appointment. Which of the
following should this dentist do? A. Make a new centric
relation record and remount B. Make a new face bow
and centric record C. Make a slight occlusal adjustments
in the mouth D. Make adjustments only for Class II jaw
relation patients
83. In lateral movements, the non-working condyle
moves in what direction? A.Out, back and up C. down,
forward and medially B. Up, back and down D. down,
forward and laterally E. none of the above.
84. Excessive vertical dimension of occlusion may result
in: A. Trauma to the underlying supporting tissues B.
increased interocclusal distance C. creases and wrinkles
around the lip D. poor denture retention E. drooping of
the corners of the mouth
85. In complete denture fabrication, which of the
following regulate/s the paths of the condyles in
mandibular movements? A. the height of the cusps of
posterior teeth. B. The amount of horizontal and
vertical overlap. C. The size and shape of the bony
12
fossae and the menisci and muscular influence. D. The
vertical occlusion, centric relation, and degree of
compensating curve.
86. The secondary peripheral seal area of a mandibular
complete denture is the; A. labial border B. distolingual
C.border buccal border D. anterior lingual border
87. An incorrect occlusal vertical dimension causes a
patient to overclose and to have a poor facial profile. To
correct this problem, the dentist should do which of the
following? A. increase the rest vertical dimension and
increase the interocclusal distance B. decrease the rest
vertical dimension and diminish the interocclusal
distance C. decrease the occlusal vertical dimension and
increase interocclusal distance D. increase the occlusal
vertical dimension and diminish the interocclusal
distance
88. The retruded contact position is what type of
position? A. “tooth-guided” B. “ligament-guided” C.
“muscle-guided”
89. An edentulous patient has slight undercuts in both
tuberosities and also in the facial of the anterior maxilla.
To construct a satisfactory maxillary complete denture,
you should reduce which of the following? A. All
undercuts B. Both tuberosity undercuts C. The anterior
undercut only D. None of them.
90. The most common cause of dry mouth (xerostomia)
is: A. aging B. alcoholism C. vitamin A or Vitamin B
deficiency D. medications E. diabetes
91. Translation in a mandibular opening movement
occurs; A. on closing from centric relation B. on initial
opening from centric relation C. in the upper
compartment of the TMJ D. in the lower compartment
of the TMJ
92. The distolingual extension of the mandibular
impression for a complete denture is limited by the
action of the: A. stylohyoid muscle B. lateral pterygoid
muscle C. medial pterygoid muscle D. superior
constrictor muscle
93. Balancing side (non-working side) interferences
generally occur on the inner aspects of which teeth? A.
facial cusps of mandibular molars B. lingual cusps of on: A. both the cusp and the opposing area B. the
mand molars C. facial cusps of maxillary premolars D. opposing fossa or the marginal ridge C. the cusp that is
facial cusps of maxillary molars in deflective occlusal contact D. the opposing areas in
eccentric positions.
94. All of the following are disadvantages to immediate
denture therapy. Which one is considered to be the major
disadvantage to immediate denture therapy? A. a higher cost
of treatment B. increased post-insertion care C. increased
post-insertion soreness D. not being able to have an anterior
tooth try-in to evaluate esthetics E. greater complexity of
clinical procedures

95.the most important benefit of an overdenture (root-

retained denture) is: A. the psychological comfort of avoiding
the loss of all teeth B. the improved support and stability for
the denture C. the preservation of the alveolar ridge D. the
continuous functional feedback for the neuromuscular system
from proprioceptors in the periodontal membrane E. the
increased retention of the denture

96. In a complete maxillary denture, accurate

adaptation of the border of the maxillary facial flange
affects which of the following the most? A.Speech B.
support C. stability D. esthetic

97. The most likely tissue reaction to gross

overextension of a complete denture that has been
worn for a long time is: A. epulis fissuratum B. papillary
hyperplasia C. pyogenic granuloma D. giant cell
reparative granuloma

98. the most frequent cause of porosities in a denture is: A. a

rapid elevation in temperature to 212 0 F causing vaporization
of the liquid B.insufficient pressure on the flask during
processing C. insufficient time for processing D. insufficient
material in the mold

99. During non-working, excursive movements, the

permanent maxillary first molar's mesiolingual cusp
escapes through the A. distobuccal groove of the
mandibular first molar B. the lingual groove of the
mandibular first molar C. Buccal groove of the
mandibular second molar D. space between the
mesiobuccal and distobuccal cusps of the mandibular
first molar E. mesiobuccal groove of the mandibular first
molar

100. When a cusp is in deflective occlusal contact in

centric relation, but does not contact in one or more of
the eccentric movements, grinding should be performed
13
\

14