Professional Documents
Culture Documents
Ectodermal Dysplasia
A group of inherited conditions where 2 or more ectodermally derived anatomic
structures fail to develop. Hypoplasia or aplasia of tissues may be seen. Best known is
hypohidrotic ectodermal dysplasia.
Etiology: Various types of the disorder may be inherited through a genetic problem such
as autosomal dominant, autosomal recessive and X linked.
Clinical Features:
Histological Features:
Treatment:
genetic counseling
dental problems are best managed by prosthetic replacement of the dentition with
complete dentures, overdentures or fixed dentures
endoosseous dental implants a possibility
5. Albright syndrome
Clinical Features:
early childhood
multiple, slow-growing, painless expansile bone lesions confined
to the craniofacial area or throughout the skeleton
endrocrine manifestations; in females often sexual precocity
irregular shaped Café Au Lait Spots on the torso and may be
intraorally
disfiguring
increased level of serum alkaline phosphattase
Radiographic Features:
Differential Diagnosis:
McCune-Albright syndrome
monostotic fibrous dysplasia
polyostotic fibrous dysplasia
Jaffe syndrome
ossifying fibroma
cherubism
neurofibromatosis
Etiology:
unknown
possible gene mutation
Histologic
Features:
abundant cellular fibrous connective tissue in a whorled pattern
proliferating fibroblasts form spicules of bone and cementum
Treatment:
surgery for cosmetic or functional problems
hormonal medications
Prognosis:
no accurate prediction of severity
life expectancy at or near normal
.
7. imp monomer in cement?
8. retard zinc phosphate add powder to water ration…add more water to powder
Nance Appliance
The Nance appliance is available with either straight or recurved arms. It can be
removable or soldered to the bands. The Nance is effective in preventing mesial molar
drift, and facilitates expansion or rotation of the molars.
Indications
• Active pockets over 4mm deep which are not responding to
initial treatment
• Pockets beyond the muco-gingival line with bone loss
• Pockets with marginal deformity.
Contraindications
Gingival enlargement by hyperplasia.
Unlike the mandibular block, the path the needle traverses during a Gow
Gates block contains much less muscle tissue than is traversed by the
needle in a standard mandibular block, and thus there is little release of
bradykinins which are the chemicals which cause the aching that patients
feel when receiving a mandibular block. Furthermore, the tissue through
which the needle passes contains no nerve receptors, and thus there is
little direct pain during the injection. It is not uncommon for patients to
remark that they felt nothing during the injection.
The area where the Gow-Gates is delivered is less vascularized. Studies
indicate that there is an 89-90% lower liklihood of giving an inter-vascular
injection using this technique. In addition, because of the lower
vascularization in the area, the action of the anesthetic is prolonged which
means that mepivicaine without vasorconstrictor may be used to greater
and longer lasting effect using the Gow-Gates. Some users of this
technique recommend that no vasoconstrictor be used at all.
Finally, the Gow-Gates anesthetizes the nerve trunk before it splits into its
three main branches; the lingual branch, the buccal branch and the
alveolar branch. Thus the Gow Gates delivers three shots in one. A single
shot does the work of three separate injections.
The Target
The image above shows the medial aspect of the right condyle and the relative
position of the nerve trunk. The shaded oval indicates the area of the condyle
where the tip of the needle should be placed. Note the proximity of the nerve
trunk with respect to the general target.
This intra-oral image shows the entry point of the needle. The patient's mouth
must be WIDE open so that the condyle is fully translated over the articular
eminence. The entry point of the needle is high and behind the tuberosity, well
distal and apical to the upper second molar.
The technique
With the patient lying fully reclined in the chair, have the patient open
his/her mouth as wide as possible. This technique is not possible if the
patient is not able to open wide enough to allow the condyles to translate
fully over the articular eminences.
Place your thumb in the patient's mouth retracting the cheek. The thumb
should be relatively close to the site of the entry point of the needle noted
in the image above.
Place the middle finger of the same hand over the intertragal notch. This
landmark is easily felt with the finger. Thus the hand is held in a "C" with
the thumb inside the mouth retracting the cheek and the middle finger
outside the mouth placed firmly over the intertragal notch.
Using a long needle, and holding the handle of the syringe at about the
level of the lower premolars, allow the needle to enter the buccal mucosa
just distal and apical to the tuberosity. (See the arrow in the intra-oral
image above.)
Now aim the tip of the needle toward the the intertragal notch.
This is fairly easy because you can feel the notch under your
middle finger, so in effect, you are simply aiming for your
finger! Keeping the middle finger in this position, and using it as the
aiming point makes giving the Gow-Gates block easy and predictable.
Proceed until the needle hits bone. The needle will enter about two-thirds
to three-quarters of its length before hitting bone. If the needle does not
hit bone, then you have missed the target and should withdraw and try
again, aiming slightly laterally, or medially. It should be noted that this
technique seems to produce very few misses. In any case, multiple tries do
not lead to post operative pain since the needle has penetrated little or no
muscle. Once you become familliar with the technique, missing the target
becomes a rare event.
Once the needle hits bone, aspirate and then inject the entire carpule
slowly.
After withdrawing the needle, ask the patient to remain open wide for
about one minute after the shot.
The Periotron has been been designed to permit the use for a variety of paper strips
for the collection of gingival crevice (GCF) and periodontal pocket (PPF) fluids,
salivary flow and saliva thickness measurements. elopment of periodontitis. The
Periotron has two electrodes that is used to measure moisture. The upper electrode
is moveable, controlled by a lever, and the lower electrode is stationary. Closing the
lever brings the two electrodes together and begins a measurement cycle. After a
reset time (15 seconds), the Periotron will display a number. This number is
referred to as a Periotron Score and represents the amount of fluid on the paper
strip. Periotron Scores may be converted to volume and thickness.
Research has established that gingivitis without periodontitis is the condition that is
evident at a lower range of GCF production but when the GCF is above this
threshold, this signals a level of bacterial activity that heralds arrival of periodontitis
(Lee et al., Alpha 1-Proteinase inhibitor in gingival crevicular fluid of humans with
adult periodontitis: serpinolytic inhibition by doxycycline. Journal of Periodontal
Research 32: 9, 1997). At that point, collagenase, a key degradative protease
appears in the GCF and rises within the crevice or pocket to levels where destruction
of epithelial attachment and other periodontal structures readily occurs.
Variance measures
the variability
(volatility) from an
average. Volatility
is a measure of
risk, so this statistic
can help determine
the risk an investor
might take on
when purchasing a
specific security.
Cross sectional studies represent a cheaper and quicker way to obtain data than prospective research. They
offer a reasonable degree of control over question design and a reasonable expectation of data completeness
that cannot be achieved with a retrospective approach. Cross sectional study designs can be used to identify
possible associations without a long trial but are limited in their ability to confirm causality. For example, drug
X’s mechanism of action may suggest gastrointestinal benefits. A cross sectional study of patients receiving
drug X and drug Y may reveal a much higher incidence of gastric pain in patients receiving drug Y. While this
finding is no way conclusive, the proven association may be sufficient to change clinical behavior.
Clinical Features:
Differential Diagnosis:
lichen planus
morsicatio buccarum (cheek biting)
frictional keratosis
keratosis
leukoplakia
nicotine stomatitis
candidiasis
leukoedema
white sponge nevus
tobacco pouch
Etiology:
tobacco
alcohol
ultraviolet radiation
microorganisms
trauma
Tissue of Origin:
epithelium
Histologic
Features:
Treatment:
a biopsy is mandatory
based on the exact nature of the lesion
Prognosis:
considered to be a precancerous or premalignant lesion
dependent on the exact nature of the lesion
Oral & Maxiollofacial Pathology List
69. bump on tongue
70. tx for herpes labialis. Antivirals
71. caries ph 5.5
72. bacterias in caries lactobacillus
73. high noble metal = gold pal plat
74. radilucent lesion no teeth ?primordial cyst, residual cyst aspiration biopsy
75. taurodontism
Taurodontism
A malformed multirooted tooth characterized by an altered crown-to-root ratio,
the crown being of normal length, the roots being abnormally short, and the pulp
chamber being abnormally large.
Clinical Features:
molar with an elongated crown, apically placed furcation, rectangular
pulpal chamber
may be unilateral or bilateral
affects permanent teeth more frequently than deciduous teeth
no sex predilection
may occur in patients with amelogenesis imperfecta, Down syndrome,
andd Klinefelter syndrome
Radiographic
Features:
multilocular
Etiology:
developmental
Tissue of Origin:
root sheath
Treatment:
no treatment but can be a complicating factor in root canal procedures
Prognosis:
good
There are two microscopic features that distinguish this malignancy from other salivary
gland neoplasms. First, it is composed largely of malignant epithelial cells arranged in
sheets of dilated duct cross-sections resembling a honeycomb or Swiss cheese. Second, it
is common to find malignant epithelial cells invading the sheaths of nearby nerves
(perineural invasion) a feature not commonly seen in other malignancies. While adenoid
cystic carcinoma may produce distant metastases, particularly to the lungs; paradoxically
spread to regional lymph nodes is less common.
As primary radiation is ineffective for these lesions, surgical excision is the treatment of
choice for eradication of adenoid cystic carcinoma. As with other malignancies, long-
term prognosis of this disease, depends on the stage in which is treated. Fifteen-year
survival rates may be as low as 10%
When plaque builds up on a tooth, bacteria in the plaque attack the bone around the tooth
as well as the fibers that connect the tooth to the bone. As the fibers and bone are
destroyed, a pocket, or space, forms between the gum and the tooth. Without proper
hygiene the process may continue, sometimes without symptoms, until the tooth is
endangered.
Guided Tissue Regeneration (GTR) is a procedure that enables bone and tissue to re-
grow around an endangered tooth or if the tooth is lost, to increase the amount of bone for
implant placement.
Prior to GTR therapy, your dental professional will recommend an appropriate oral
hygiene program. It is essential that you follow this program, otherwise, GTR therapy has
less chance of success and may be ruled out as a treatment option.
During GTR therapy (for teeth), the soft (gum) tissue is surgically separated from the
endangered tooth and the tooth surface is thoroughly cleaned and infected tissues are
removed from the area. After cleaning a small piece of material called a GTR membrane
is placed against the tooth. This GTR membrane serves as a barrier that separates fast-
growing soft (gum) tissue from the newly cleaned surface of the tooth root. The
membrane enables slower-growing fibers and bone cells to migrate into the protected
area.
Following GTR therapy, your doctor will provide specific instructions for proper oral
hygiene and care of the area under treatment. These may include the following:
• Your doctor may ask you to refrain from brushing or flossing the treated area for some
time following the procedure so as not to disturb the GTR membrane or the tissue that
covers it.
• Your doctor may prescribe an antibiotic to reduce the possibility of a bacterial infection
in the surgical area.
\
90. apical reposition flap
The Apically Displaced Flap
Apically displaced flaps have the important advantage of preserving the outer portion of
the pocket wall and transforming it into attached gingiva. Therefore they accomplish the
double objective of eliminating the pocket and increasing the width of the attached
gingiva.
The apically positioned flap procedure is the most commonly used surgical approach to
pocket elimination and osseous recontouring. Its advantages include its wide spectrum of
usefulness, retention of most existing gingiva, and ability to solve both mucogingival-
osseous and pure mucogingival problems. Because the flaps are fully reflected, the
access and vision requirements for osseous procedures are achieved. The major
disadvantages of the apically positioned flap procedure include possible unacceptable
esthetic results in areas in which esthetics may be important and the greater likelihood of
root sensitivity because of root exposure. Guided tissue regeneration (GTR) better
resolves these problems with less esthetic compromise
If adequate attached gingiva will remain if the flap is positioned at the crest of the bone,
the incision for the flap is made with an internal bevel to the crest of the alveolus on the
facial and lingual surfaces. It is scalloped interdentally to retain additional gingiva to
fit interproximally when the flap is sutured. It should be filleted so that its thickness is
similar over the tooth root and interdentally. If additional attached gingiva is needed, it
may be created by leaving several millimeters of coronal bone denuded when the flap is
positioned apically. This denuded area will granulate and heal as gingiva, which, when
added to the apically positioned old gingiva, will create a band of attached gingiva 2 to 5
mm high. Such a flap need not be scalloped to fulfill this need.
In the apically positioned flap approach, the flap is fully reflected into alveolar mucosa
(in contrast to the modified Widman flap approach). Because the palate does not have
alveolar mucosa, a gingival flap in that area cannot be apically positioned and is created
differently. Next the remaining interdental and marginal tissue is removed with curets
and chisels, exposing the bone and any osseous defects. These may be treated by osseous
recontouring or bone fill. If any defects are amenable to GTR, this technique should be
employed preferentially to pocket elimination because it provides greater support, better
esthetics, and easier cleansing of the area when healed.
Figure 90-1 A, The internal bevelled, scalloped incision is used for pocket elimination through
apical repositioning of the flap. B, The flap positioned apically for pocket elimination.
If more attached gingiva is needed, the flap may be positioned so that some bone is
exposed, and it may be sutured loosely with suspensory sutures to establish its position
before pack placement. Healing is more rapid if the only bone left exposed is between
teeth. Ideally performed, the apically positioned flap should result in pocket elimination
with improved gingival form, facilitating plaque removal by the patient.
The modified Widman flap has been described for exposing the root surfaces for
meticulous instrumentation and for removal of the pocket lining; it is not intended to
eliminate or reduce pocket depth, except for the reduction that occurs in healing by tissue
shrinkage.
The modified Widman flap does not intend to remove the pocket wall, but it does
eliminate the pocket lining. Therefore the internal bevel incision starts close (no more
than 1 to 2 mm apically) to the gingival margin and follows the normal scalloping of
the gingival margin (Figs. 61-1 and 61-2).
In full thickness flaps, all the soft tissue, including the periosteum, is reflected to expose
the underlying bone. This complete exposure of, and access to, the underlying bone is
indicated when resective osseous surgery is contemplated.
The partial thickness flap includes only the epithelium and a layer of the underlying
connective tissue. The bone remains covered by a layer of connective tissue, including
the periosteum. This type of flap is also called the split thickness flap. The partial
thicknesss flap is indicated when the flap is to be positioned apically or when the
operator does not desire to expose bone.
Mixed tumors (as the name implies) is composed of neoplastic parenchyma (epithelium)
and stroma (connective tissue). The epithelial component consists of countless duct-like
structures that may be empty or filled with salivary secretions. It is varied appearance of
the stroma, however, that is most helpful in making the diagnosis of mixed tumor. The
stroma may be a mixture of dense fibrous c.t., loose mesenchymal c.t., and cartilage. The
neoplasm is invariably well-demarcated by a fibrous c.t. capsule.
Mixed tumors must be surgically excised. Because the neoplasm is encapsulated, simple
enucleation should suffice. In cases of parotid mixed tumors, however, the nearness of
the facial nerve (cranial nerve VII) may cause the surgeon to be tentative about complete
removal leading to recurrences.
If these lesions are not detected, there is a remote possibility that they may transform into
the malignant mixed tumor summarized below.
How a lead collimator filters a stream of rays. Top: without a collimator. Bottom: with a
collimator.
In the illustration to the left, (bottom section}, a lead collimator has been added.
Effectively, this is a thick sheet of lead with many tiny holes bored through it. Only rays
travelling at nearly 90° will pass through - any others will be absorbed by hitting the side
of a passage. This ensures that rays are recorded in their proper place on the plate,
producing a clear image. Although collimators improve the signal to noise ratio, they also
reduce the intensity of the signal--most lead collimators let less than 1% of incident
photons through. For this reason, attempts have been made to replace collimators with
electronic analysis.
Collimating lenses may also be used in optical systems to make rays of light parallel by
(see also Collimating lens).
Proper collimation of a laser source with long enough coherence length can be verified
with a shearing interferometer.
Collimators are also used with radiation detectors in nuclear power stations for
monitoring sources of radioactivity.
This is a cancer of the plasma cells, usually beginning in the bone marrow. These
neoplastic plasma cells produce immunoglobulins and evolve from B lymphocytes. The
disease typically involves the bones and kidneys and may lead to kidney failure. Patients
may complain of back pain, weakness, and fatigue. However, rarely patients may be
diagnosed during a serum protein electrophoresis. The immunoglobulins which are
produced by the plasma cells may be detected in both the blood serum and urine by
sophisticated electrophoresis testing.
The bone marrow aspiration and biopsy, usually performed by the pathologist, is one of
the most important tests that can be performed to establish the diagnosis. If possible, the
biopsy should be directed at a site of a lytic bone lesion. The pathologist can use
immunohistochemistry upon the tissue sample to identify these abnormal
immunoglobulins and establish the diagnos
105. best careis detection,: explore catch, brown stain, open fissure, white
decalcification
106. how does caries indicator work degenerative
107. condylar hyperplasia
108. TMJ joint disfunction depression
109. Psudomembranous colitis
110. which one is contraindicated methodone (substance abuse)
111. which is prescribed for mod pain: tylonol 3
112. lingual tori radiograph
113. systemic drug for vaginal candida: fluconozole(diflucan),ketokanozole(nizoral)
Anphotericin B(fungizone), Itraconazole (Sporanox)
Topical therapy
Topical therapy includes mouth rinses or lozenges, vaginal tablets, suppositories and
creams. Topical drugs include amphotericin B suspension (Fungizone), clotrimazole
(Lotrimin), econazole (Spectazole), ketoconazole (Nizoral), miconazole (Monistat) or
nystatin (Mycostatin).
Mulberry Molars
Berry-like molars seen in congenital syphilis.
132. Amitryptiline red palate.. tricyclics cause dry mouth atropine side affects
ANTIDEPRESSANTS
• Most commonly used meds for depression → TCA’s
• Examples of TCA: imipramine, amitriptyline
• MAO inhibitors: tranylcypromine, phenylene
• 2nd generation drugs: fluoxetine, trazodone
A cohort study is a form of longitudinal study used in medicine and social science. It is
one type of study design. In medicine, it is usually undertaken to obtain evidence to try to
refute the existence of a suspected association between cause and disease; failure to
refute an hypothesis strengthens confidence in it. Crucially, the cohort is identified before
the appearance of the disease under investigation. A cohort is a group of people who
share a common characteristic or experience within a defined time period (e.g., are born,
leave school, lose their job, are exposed to a drug or a vaccine, etc.)
BASICS
DESCRIPTION
A term used to describe a group of patients with a non-progressive but not unchanging
disorder of movement or posture that is a result of a central nervous system insult that
occurred prenatally, perinatally, or during the first three years of life
Genetics: Rarely inherited. Small percentage of cases with symmetric signs are
associated with autosomal recessive transmission. Symmetric and idiopathic spastic CP
(4% of cases) has 1:8 recurrence risk.
Predominant age: Causative CNS insult during period of rapid brain growth but effects
are life long and evolve with time.
CAUSES
• 70% of the time, neither causes nor risk factors can be identified
• In utero bacterial infections (chorioamnionitis), viral infections (e.g. rubella), CNS
malformations, chromosomal abnormalities, coagulation disorders, kernicterus, CNS
trauma and intraventricular hemorrhage
• While most cases are due to prenatal events and prematurity, 10% or less of cases are
due to intrapartum events. Such cases are almost always of spastic quadriplegic type or
dyskinetic type and are associated with evidence of severe metabolic acidosis at birth (pH
7.00) and early onset neonatal encephalopathy at birth. Criteria which individually are
nonspecific but which together suggest intrapartum cause include a sentinel hypoxic
event immediately before or during labor (e.g. cord prolapse, abruption or uterine
rupture); sudden, rapid and sustained deterioration of the fetal heart rate pattern which
was previously normal; Apgar scores of 6 for greater than five minutes; early evidence
of multisystem involvement and early imaging showing acute cerebral abnormality.
• Children with cerebral palsy may demonstrate self injurious behavior, including:
tongue, cheek, and lip biting;
finger, arm, and hand chewing.
• Protective oral appliances may be useful in combating self-injurious behavior.
• Children who are affected by cognitive disability or mental retardation often
practice damaging oral habits, including:
bruxism, rumination, pouching, and pica.
155. Kaposi sarcoma: All of these are associated w/ Kaposi except? +Hard palate,
gingival, caused hhv 8(herpes virus 8) (not caused by HIV)
156. Hydroxyzine (Atarax): antihistamine w/ antiemetic activity;
Antiemetics/antivertigo; Antihistamines, H1; Anxiolytics; Sedatives/hypnotics
Hydroxyzine has been shown clinically to be a rapid-acting true ataraxic with a wide
margin of safety. It induces a calming effect in anxious, tense, psychoneurotic adults and
also in anxious, hyperkinetic children without impairing mental alertness. It is not a
cortical depressant, but its action may be due to a suppression of activity in certain key
regions of the subcortical area of the central nervous system.
157. If your giving a kid chloral hydrate, what else are you going to give? Give w/
hydroxyzine-often used for sedation prior to dental procedure surgeries
• Cholral hydrate is irrating to GI tract and causes epigastric distress
158. Increased vertical dimension 4 mm? what do you do? Take a new centric
relation
159. Pemiphigus Vulgaris? Which test would you do? Immunofluoresence, is the test
that you would do. Nikolsky’ sign positive: epithelium will slide off simply by
rubbing of apparently inafected area.
160. multiple osteomas- associated w/ gardner’s syndrome
161. what gland is most involved salivary gland tumor? Parotid
162. lichen planus? Associated w/ disruption of basal cell layer-acantholysis
Hyperparakeratin
saw tooth appearance of rete pegs
band-like lymphocytic infiltrate in the basement membrane region
hydrophic degeneration of basal cell layer (vaculation of basal cells)
Sturge-Weber Syndrome
(Encephalotrigeminal Angiomatosis, Sturge-Weber Angiomatosis)
A rare cevelopmental condition characterized by a vascular birthmark and
neurological abnormalities.
Clinical Features:
Etiology:
unknown
Tissue of Origin:
vascular and neurological tissue
Treatment:
no cure
treat symptoms
laser for cosmetic reasons
Prognosis:
disease itself is not fatal
developmental delay
emotional and behavioral problems
special education requirements
employment problems
165. picture of a cauliflower on the lateral border of the tongue? Choices were
squamous cell carcinoma or papilloma (was the answer)
166. floor of the mouth lesion that does not scrape off what would you do? Biopsy
167. in the mandible there was a radiolucencie (pretty big)? What would be the first
thing you do? Choices were aspiration w/ excisional biopsy
168. Flap- when you do a flap which do you not do? Do not separate periosteum from
the mucosa of the flap was the answer
169. apically repositioned flap- flap was made were pockets were reduced originally
the flap had hyperplastic tissue and after the flap the tissue went below the cej
170. take a max 2 molar out and there as a 2 mm perforation in the maxillary sinus what
would you do? Choices were peddicle flap, packing in bone I think the answer is peddicle
flap NO!(7mm or larger use flap )A figure eight suture should be place over the tooth
socket (2-6mm)
171. which of these cysts would most likely turn into a tumor? Dentigerous cyst will
become an ameloblastoma
172. mercury poisoning? What is the side effect? Tremor?
173. all of the following are toxic effects of lidocaine except? Myocardial depression,
convulsions, nervousness, renal failure. I think the answer had to w/ a renal
problem
174. Which drug would give hypokalemia? Hydrochlorothiazide diuretics
175. pt is taking amtryptiline (antidepressant ) pic of edentulous denture pt? what is the
problem? Candidiasis
176. which one of these is most carcinogenic? Answer is erythroplakia is the worst
one leads to carcinoma in situ
177. kid has this thing on the tongue that has grown in proportion to the rest similar to
hemangioma or lymphangioma? Example of what type of tumor? Hamartoma-
largest growth of normal cells A hamartoma is a common benign tumor in an
organ composed of tissue elements normally found at that site but that are growing
in a disorganized mass.
178. the question says has sessile bumps, w/ café au-lait spots Answer is that the
neurofibromatosis (not Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia )
179. kid has an ANB of 80. probably were talking SNA 82 SNB 80
180. Papillary hyperplasia-red dots in the palate a little inflamed
181. Fibromas vs calcifying fibroma.
182. Bump on the tongue what is it? Lipoma, neurofibroma
183. Bump on th gingival that is painless, compressible on the papilla what is it?
Fibroma (smooth surface, pink firm symmetric papule or nodule that arise at a site
of chronic irritation, such buccal mucosa, labial mucosa and tongue.) or peripherial
odontogenic fibroma (the gingival is the most common location for the POF)
Clinical Features:
Etiology:
developmental autosomal dominant trait
Tissue of Origin:
tooth
Histologic Features:
normal enamel and coronal dentin
numerous areas of interglobular dentin near the pulp
radicular dentin is tubular, amorphous, and hypertrophic
Treatment:
meticulous oral hygiene
prosthetic rehabilitation
Prognosis:
good
185. odontodysplasia
186. ectodermal dysplasia
187. primary tooth w/deep carious lesion which site would be the most common?
Furcation
188. Prilocaine (Citanest)-methomoglobinemia
189. Which drug would give to reverse xerostomia? Pilocarpine (cholinergic agonist)
190. Lithium is given for? Lithium is used for the treatment of manic/depressive
(bipolar) and depressive disorders
191. pt is taking theophylline (broncholdilatador) for what? Asthma
192. if pt is taking an inhalant steroid
inhalant steroid medicines used widely to treat asthma. and chronic obstructive
pulmonary disease (COPD)
193. Methotrexate abbreviated MTX and formerly known as amethopterin, is an
antimetabolite drug used in treatment of cancer and autoimmune diseases. It acts by
inhibiting the metabolism of folic acid. Methotrexate replaced the more powerful
and toxic antifolate aminopterin
210. The pt is taking amitryptilline and has an edentulous ridge w/red sore spots?
candidiasis
211. Denture pt opens mouth and lower denture pops out-triangularis
212. submand abscess how do you drain it extraorally? Skin then superficial fascia,
platysma, then deep fascia
213. Define cohort A cohort study is a form of longitudinal study used in medicine
and social science
Cohort Study is a study in which patients who presently have a certain condition and/or
receive a particular treatment are followed over time and compared with another group
who are not affected by the condition under investigation.
For instance, since a randomized controlled study to test the effect of smoking on health
would be unethical, a reasonable alternative would be a study that identifies two groups, a
group of people who smoke and a group of people who do not, and follows them forward
through time to see what health problems they develop.
Cohort studies are not as reliable as randomized controlled studies, since the two groups
may differ in ways other than in the variable under study. For example, if the subjects
who smoke tend to have less money than the non-smokers, and thus have less access to
health care, that would exaggerate the difference between the two groups.
The main problem with cohort studies, however, is that they can end up taking a very
long time, since the researchers have to wait for the conditions of interest to develop.
Physicians are, of course, anxious to have meaningful results as soon as possible, but
another disadvantage with long studies is that things tend to change over the course of the
study. People die, move away, or develop other conditions, new and promising treatments
arise, and so on. Even so, cohort studies are generally preferred to case control studies,
since they involve far fewer statistical problems and generally produce more reliable
answers.
Generally, a wall made of two layers of 5/8" offset gypsum board can be assumed to
provide the minimum protection from scattered radiation if the following conditions
are met:
3. The use of dental x-ray equipment does not exceed the following operating
parameters:
231. what is the best way to do a vitality test for a full cast restoration? Cold or
palpation
232. tooth that had a large carious lesion w/ no apical pathology, All except give a
good indicaton.
233. band and loop appliance
234. kid presents w/ ulcer w/ one week duration how would you treat it? Topical
steroids (probably because it looked like an apthous ulcer)
235. recurrent herpes? Tx, how long it takes? Everything
cream 4 days ion 7 days
236. pic of posterior palate w/no vesicles red?
237. ulcer on the upper lip-look into chancre (primary syphilis)
238. geographic tongue what is the chief complaint? No complains
239. what is the last thing to go in local sedation to get anesthetized? Deep pressure
(answer), pain temp touch (other choices)
Clx the order of loss of fuction is: (first the small unmyelinated fibers.
1. pain
2. temperature
3. touch
4. propioception
5. skeletal muscle tone
240. why is nitrous oxide-not soluble in blood
241. fast acting barbituates why is it so fast? Redistribution
242. enzyme in mouth rinse-how does it break up plaque? Hyaluronidase, collagenase,
dextranase (probably the answer)
243. band and loop appliance –does not have a vertical stop
244. atropine-which one stops secretion?
245. fibromas-know the different types peripheral, ossifying, ..
246. occlussal trauma would affect? periodonto
247. sensititivy-true positive
248. kid gets jittery? Side effect of epinephrine into a vessel answer was intravascular
injection
249. which of the following pathologies doe not occur on the midline? Cleft lip
250. if preparing an fpd, if there is a lot of tissue, how would this affect your pontic
design?
251. Function of EDTA? Chelating agent and debriding canal, naocl is only
antibacterial
252. which selective procedure would you do on a second trimester pregnant pt?
253. intensity is square of the distance differenc answer is 9
254. Teeth bleaching? Vita bleach.
255. Taurodontism associated w/ what? Amelogenisis imperfect
256. x –ray tube what is used for filtering? Aluminum
257. obturating Max 1st molar mb canal? Go from the distolingual approach
258. reason for inadequate obturation or leaving shavings in the canal? Inadequate
straight line access
259. after sc/rp you should use chlorohexidine for aids patients
260. optimal occlusal reduction for pfm is 2 mm
261. gold optimal reduction 1.5
262. cleft lip/palate what kind of malocclusion would you see? Class III
263. imbibition and syneresis? Irreversible and reversible hydrocolloid
264. anug what is the etiology? Spirochetes and gram - fusobactruim , ptertrppitala
265. long standing periodonitis what is the main chief immune cell? Neutrophil or
macrophage or plasma cell
266. etiology behind periodontitis? Decrease in neutrophils coming to the site to attack
neutrophil chemotactix response
267. dual cured resins? How are they cured? What are the two cures that happen?
Chemical and light cured
268. if a pt has bleeding problems, what other test do you beside PT? INR
269. cerebral palsy? Common oral findings/ fractured anterior teeth bc of ataxia
270. horizontal root fracture-mobilize and splint
A. hyoid bone.
B. mandibular foramen.
C. maxillary sinus polyp.
D. sialoliths in Wharton's duct
278. The maximal or "ceiling" effect of a drug is also correctly referred to as the drug's
A. agonism.
B. potency.
C. efficacy.
D. specificity.
279. In mg/kg body weight, the lethal dose of fluoride falls in the range of
A. 0.5-1.0.
B. 20-50.
C. 100-200.
D. 300-500.
280. The rate at which new disease occurs is classified as which of the following?
A. Incidence
B. Prevalence
C. Extent
D. Attributable risk
281. Which of the following types of chemical bonding is the least likely to be involved
in a drug-receptor interaction?
E. Covalent bonding
F. Hydrogen bonding
G. Dipole-dipole bonding
H. Electrostatic bonding
I. van der Waal's forces
A. Ankylosis
B. Osteoarthritis
C. Myofascial pain
D. Condylar hyperplasia
Incorporating additional moisture during mixing will accelerate the set of (a) plaster; (b)
polyether; (c) polysulfide impression material; (d) a zinc oxide-eugenol impression paste;
(e) an irreversible hydrocolloid impression. (a) and (c) (a) and (d) (b) and (c) (b) and (d)
(b) and (e) (c) and (d) (d) and (e)
On the basis of diagnostic test results, a dentist correctly classifies a group of patients as
being free from disease. These results possess high
A. sensitivity.
B. specificity.
C. generalizability.
D. repeatability.
Which of the following adverse conditions may arise if the occlusal vertical dimension is
increased?
A. cell-rich layer.
B. cell-free layer.
C. central pulp core.
D. odontoblast layer.
Which of the following principles requires health professionals to inform their patients
about treatment and to protect their confidentiality?
A. Justice
B. Autonomy
C. Beneficence
D. Nonmaleficence
Through the Bloodborne Pathogen Standard, the Occupational Safety and Health
Administration (OSHA) directs activity for each of the following EXCEPT one. Which
one is this EXCEPTION?
diagnostic test failed to identify five cases of true disease. This type of failure is known
as a
F. false negative.
G. false positive.
H. positive predictive value.
I. negative predictive value.
What is the major difference between a Class V cavity preparation for amalgam and one
for composite resin by the acid-etch technique?
A. Depth
B. Convenience form
C. Position of retention points
D. Angulation of the enamel cavosurface margins
Which of the following is MOST appropriate for testing differences between the means
of two groups?
A. Chi-square test
B. Multiple regression analysis
C. Correlation coefficient analysis
D. Student's t-test
When a removable partial denture is terminally seated, the retentive clasp tips should
A. be invisible.
B. exert no force.
C. apply retentive force into the body of the teeth.
D. resist torque through the long axis of the teeth
Which of the following represents the variability about the mean-value of a group of
observations?
A. Sensitivity
B. Standard deviation
C. t-Statistic
D. Specificity
Which of the following most strongly suggest cause-and-effect relationships?
E. Correlational studies
F. Controlled clinical trials
G. Case reports
H. Epidemiologic surveys
An operator has chosen to use a shielded open-ended cone. Which of the following will
contribute the most to patient gonadal dose?
A. Bell's palsy
B. Myasthenia gravis
C. Muscular dystrophy
D. Multiple sclerosis
E. Trigeminal neuralgia
Use of a gold casting instead of dental amalgam should be considered in the restoration
of an MOD carious lesion on a maxillary second molar when
denture set-up was balanced on the articulator with the condylar setting at 20 degrees.
This setting had been incorrectly recorded. When the correct setting of 45 degrees is
made on the articulator, and if a balanced occlusion is desired, it will be necessary to
A patient who wears complete dentures is having trouble pronouncing the letter "C". This
is probably caused by
The primary purpose of a plaster index of the occlusal surfaces of a maxillary denture
before removing the denture from the articulator and cast is to
The first sensations usually lost after local anesthetic administration are (a) touch; (b)
pressure; (c) pain; (d) temperature; (e) skeletal muscle movement.
A. antidiuretic.
B. antianabolic.
C. anti-infective.
D. antihypertensive.
E. anti-inflammatory
A. hypoglycemia.
B. hypofunction of the adrenal cortex.
C. hypofunction of the adrenal medulla.
D. hyperfunction of the pituitary gland.
E. hyperfunction of the thyroid gland
314. The adrenal steroids may be used to treat (a) rheumatoid arthritis; (b) leukemia; (c)
tuberculosis; (d) collagen diseases; (e) Cushing disease.