PHARMA-ANEST a.

Levodopa
1.These groups of drugs form covalent bonds with b. Physostigmine
nucleic acids and proteins with guanine as a common c. Acetylcholine
binding site and are effective in treating carcinomas, d. Atropine
chronic leukemia and lymphomas.
7. More widely used penicillin as it is more acid stable
a. Chelating agents because it does not break down in the GI tract.
b. Digi Toxins
c. Amyl nitrite a. V-cillin K
d. Alkylating agents b. Ampicillin
c. Pen G
2. H2 receptor blockers have the following actions, d. Pen V
except:
a. Treats acid peptic disease 8. A patient with grand mal epilepsy would be likely
b. Anti androgen effect under treatment with:
c. Treats Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
d. Inhibits liver metabolism
e. Antihistamine a. Trimethadione
b. Pentobarbital
3. Phenothiazines are the most widely used c. Meprobamate
antipsychotic agents for improvement of mood d. phenytoin
behavior. This drug is also used as an antiemetic agent.
The anti emetic action is the result from their inability 9. Mu, Kappa and delta receptors are associated with
to: which group of drugs?
a. Blockage of dopaminergic sites in the
brain a. Barbiturates
b. Inhibition of cyclooxygenase synthesis in b. Opioid analgesics
the brain c. NSAIDs
c. Depress the chemoreceptor trigger zone d. Antihistamines
d. Blockage of alpha adrenergic receptor
e. 10. The single most useful agent in resuscitation is:
4. Phenothiazine is used to:
a. Produce analgesia a. Aromatic spirits of ammonia
b. Alter psychotic behavior b. 1:1000 epinephrine for injection
c. Produce hypnosis c. Oxygen
d. Produce muscle relaxation d. An endotracheal tube
e. Suppress coughing
11. Which of the following drugs and adverse effects is
5. Which of the following is used to prevent INCORRECTLY paired?
laryngospasm?
a. Clindamycin-pseudomembranous colitis
a. Atropine b. Penicillin G-blood dyscrasia
b. Epinephrine c. Streptomycin-eighth cranial nerve
c. Neostigmine (prostigmine) damage
d. Succinylcholine (anectine) d. Halothane-hepatic necrosis
e. Diazepam (valium) e. Phenylbutazone-gastric bleeding

6. Disorientation, confusion, and hallucinations resulting 12. Acute opioid overdose is best managed by an opioid
from an overdose of scopolamine are MOST antagonist. Which among the opioid antagonists has a
efficaciously treated by administering highly affinity for opioid receptors with no intrinsic

1
ability but antagonizes opioid induced euphoria, c. Atropine
analgesia, drowsiness and respiratory depression? d. succinylcholine

a. Naloxone 18. Hearing loss is one of the common adverse effects

b. Naltrexone of this group of antibiotics:
c. Nalorphine
d. levallorphan a. Lincosamides
b. Macrolides
13. Which antibiotic is used cautiously due to its side c. Tetracyclines
effects such as Pseudomembranous colitis and severe GI d. Aminoglycosides
upset? e. quinolones

19. Adrenaline stimulates:

a. Azithromycin
b. Clindamycin a. Alpha 1 and 2 receptors only
c. Pen V b. Alpha 1 and beta 1 receptors only
d. Cephalexin c. All mentioned
d. Alpha 2 and beta 2 receptors only
14. Which of the following drugs is useful in treating e. Beta 1 and beta 2 receptors only
dermatologic manifestations of an allergic response?

a. Diazepam 20. The antibiotic that is commonly associated with Red

b. Chlorhexidine man syndrome
c. Cimetidine
d. Chlorpheniramine a. Vancomycin
e. Atropine b. Erythromycin
c. Streptomycin
15. A sedative often used in the management of anxious d. clindamycin
pediatric dental patient is:

a. Meperidine 21. Aspirin has an analgesic, antipyretic and anti-

b. Secobarbital inflammatory property at therapeutic doses. Which
c. Chloral hydrate among these is not true regarding Aspirins?
d. pentobarbital
a. Inhibits platelet aggregation
16. The adrenergic receptor predominantly seen in b. Inhibits peripheral prostaglandin
heart is the: synthesis
c. Increased risk of developing Reye’s
a. Both beta 1 and beta 2 syndrome
b. Alpha 1 d. Reduces thromboxane production
c. Beta 1 e. Inhibits central prostaglandin synthesis
d. Beta 2
e. Alpha 2 22. The PRIMARY effect produced by digitalis at
therapeutic dose levels is to:
17. This drug removes the restraining influence
normally exerted by the vagus on heart rate, thus used a. Slow the cardiac rate
to treat bradycardia and control excess salivation. At b. Decrease cardiac enlargement
therapeutic dose it does not produce CNS depression. c. Increase the force myocardial
contraction
a. Pilocarpine d. Decrease the venous pressure
b. Scopolamine
2
23. The medical uses of a drug having adrenergic
agonists actions would include which of the following? a. Barbiturate antiepileptics
b. Phenothiazine antipsychotics
a. Treat hypertension c. Tricyclic antidepressants
b. Prevent angina pectoris d. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors
c. Reduce anxiety
d. Reverse an anaphylactic reaction 30. Heparin inhibits the intrinsic pathway of blood
clotting thus used when anticoagulation is needed
24. Which of the following drugs is most likely to dry immediately. Which among the following is not an
secretions in the oral cavity? action of heparin?

a. Can enhance removal of fat particles

a. Diazepam from the blood after a fatty meal
b. Propantheline b. Neutralized tissue thromboplastin
c. Physostigmine c. Blocks thromboplastin generation
d. Promethazine d. Crosses the placental barrier and
cannot be used in pregnancy
25. The antiviral drug Acyclovir is for the treatment of:
31. The decrease in ventilation caused by morphine,
a. Respiratory syncytial virus meperidine and some of the related opioids depends
b. Hepa B and C virus CHIEFLY upon
c. HIV
d. Cytomegalovirus a. Peripheral blockade of chemoreceptor
e. Varicella zoster and herpes simplex impulses
virus b. An increase in carbon dioxide
concentration in the blood
26. Quinidine is used to treat: c. Depression of cortical activity
d. Loss of sensitivity of the medullary
a. Angina pectoris respiratory center to carbon dioxide
b. Hypertension
c. Ventricular fibrillation 32. Of the following, which is clinically significant
d. Atrial fibrillation adverse reaction due to Metoprolol?

27. A fear reaction activates the sympathetic division of a. Hallucination

the autonomic nervous system to result in: b. Dry mouth
c. Drowsiness
a. Miosis d. arthralgia
b. Hypertension 33. Beta receptors are located in the following except:
c. Increased salivation
d. Bradycardia
a. Bronchial smooth muscles
28. xerostomia , glossitis and metallic taste is associated b. Blood vessels of the kidney
with which antibiotic? c. Heart
d. Vascular smooth muscle
a. Erythromycin
b. Vancomycin 34. Atropine is DESIRABLE for preanesthetic medication
c. Metronidazole because it
d. Tetracycline

29. Tardive dyskinesia is a neurological side effect of a. Obtunds the cough reflex
which of the following classes of drugs?
3
 b. Increases secretions of the
gastrointestinal tract 40. Which of the following is a predictable result of an
c. Prevents vomiting adrenergic blockade?
d. Reduces glandular secretion in the
airway a. Lowered blood pressure
b. Bronchoconstriction
35. The intrinsic ability of a drug refers to the: c. Xerostomia
d. Mydriasis
a. Affinity of a drug to bind on the
receptor site 41. Which drug is the current drug of choice for the
b. Dosage of the drug that will kill a treatment of the manic phase of bipolar disorder (or
patient manic depressive syndrome)?
c. Ability of a drug to produce a desired
therapeutic effect regardless of dosage a. Haloperidol
d. Relative concentration of two or more b. Lithium
drugs that produce the same drug c. Phenobarbital
effect d. Imipramine
e. Specificity of a drug
42. Nitroglycerin dilates the coronary arteries in angina
36. Which of the following is NOT a problem pectoris by:
encountered by the dentist in treating a patient on
chronic adrenal corticosteroid therapy? a. Direct action smooth muscle in the
vessel walls
a. Tendency to bleed are increased b. Decreasing the heart rate reflexly
b. Signs of inflammation c. Increasing the metabolic work of the
c. Susceptibility to infection is increased myocardium
d. Ability to withstand stress is decreased d. Increasing the effective refractory
period in the atrium
37. A drug that reduces actions of the sympathetic
nervous system is called a: 43. Opioid receptors are activated by endogenous
chemicals that the body produces. Which among these
a. Sympathomimetic naturally occurring peptides that produce morphine-like
b. Sympathetic amine effects plays a role in pain perception, movement,
c. Adrenergic agent mood and behavior?
d. Sympatholytic
a. Kappa
38. Cardiovascular collapse elicited by a high circulating b. Beta endorphins
dose of local anesthetic may be caused by: c. Dynorphins
d. Encephalins
a. Medullary stimulation e. Mu
b. Histamine release
c. Syncope 44. The most widely used tricyclic antidepressant drug
d. Vagal stimulation is:
e. Myocardial depression a. Doxepin
b. Amitriptyline
39. The PRINCIPAL central action of caffeine is on the c. Imipramine
d. Desipramine
a. Corpus callosum
b. Hypothalamus 45. Administration of which of the following drugs will
c. Spinal cord NOT inhibit secretory activity in the oral cavity?
d. Cerebral cortex
4
 a. Scopolamine 51. A dental patient on clonidine therapy for
b. Mecamylamine hypertension MOST often complains of
c. Ephedrine
d. Atropine a. Restlessness
b. Severe postural hypertension
46. Penicillinase-resistant drugs are active against gram c. Frequent visits to the bathroom
positive aerobe and reserved for treating: d. Xerostomia

a. Staphylococcal infections 52. When tissue injury occurs, histamine is liberated by

b. Meningococcal infections the damaged tissue into the surrounding fluids. This
c. Streptococcal infections statement is not true regarding histamine.
d. Candida infections
a. Increase secretion of gastric acid and
47. All of the following are H1- receptor blockers, pepsin
except: b. Constricts the CNS blood vessels
c. Mediates the typical allergic and
a. Cimetidine (Tagamet) anaphylactic reaction responses
b. Loratadine (Clantin) d. Increases blood flow and capillary and
c. Chlorpheniramine maleate venule permeability
d. Diphenhydramine HCL (Benadryl) e. Stored in high concentration in mast
cells and basophilic blood cells
48. Pseudomembranous colitis is a common adverse
effect of which particular drug? 53. Displacement of a drug from protein binding sites is
expected to increase the
a. Cephalexin
b. Tetracycline a. Duration of drug effect
c. Clindamycin b. Drug effect observed
d. Vancomycin c. Dose required for a given effect
d. Activity of medullary center
49. Mechanism of action of Tranexamic acid
54. Which of the following hormones acts to elevate
a. Delays fibrinolysis by binding to lysine blood concentration of ionic calcium?
receptor sites on plasminogen
b. Activates blood-clotting proteins by a. Glucagon
catalyzing y-carboxyglutamic reductase b. Parathyroid
c. Increases tensile strength of fibrin c. Aldosterone
which holds blood clot d. thyrotropin
d. Activates platelets during hemostasis
e. Promotes platelet aggregation in 55. Pseudomembranous candidiasis is an opportunistic
response to prostaglandin synthesis infectious condition which can be seen in the buccal
mucosa, dorsal of the tongue and palate may be best
50. The physicochemical properties of drugs that treated by this polyene antibiotic:
influence their passage across biological membranes are
the following, except: a. Polymyxin B
b. Miconazole
a. Molecular size and shape c. Nystatin
b. Lipid solubility d. Griseofulvin
c. Degree of ionization
d. Degree of protein binding 56. Which of the following drugs is used principally for
its diuretic action?

5
 a. Chlorothiazide d. Effective in patients with insulin
b. Meprobamate dependent diabetes
c. Angiotensin e. Would give a hypoglycemic reaction
d. Vasopressin

57. Nystatin may be used to treat oral infections due to 62. All of the following drugs are alpha-adrenergic
receptor blockers. Except:
a. Herpesvirus
b. Streptococcus pyogenes a. Phentolamine hydrochloride
c. Candida albicans b. Doxazosin
d. Treponema pallidum c. Propranolol
d. Phenoxybenzamine hydrochloride

58. The principal danger associated with the use of 63. Factors common to all forms of drug abuse include
nitrous oxide anesthesia in concentrations exceeding
80% is: a. Physiological dependence
b. Tolerance
a. Renal damage c. Physical dependence
b. Irritation of the respiratory tract d. Miosis
c. Hypoxia
d. Liver damage 64. The cardiac glycosides will reduce the concentration
e. Nausea and vomiting of which ion in an active heart muscle?

59. Death of the affected fungal cell by the polyene a. Sodium

antibiotics are due to the following except: b. Chloride
c. Calcium
a. Increase membrane permeability and d. Potassium
permits leakage of intracellular
contents 65. During visit to the dentist, a patient develops a
b. Works on the growing cells that contain severe, acute bronchial asthmatic attack. He should
peptidoglycan in their cell wall immediately receive
c. Drugs bind to sterols in the fungal cell
membrane a. Cortisone
d. Suppress local Candida infection b. Diphenhydramine
c. 90 % oxygen, 10 % CO2
60. Alpha adrenergic receptors are located in the d. epinephrine
following except:
66. Cimetidine is administered to
a. Vascular smooth muscle
b. Presynaptic nerve terminals a. Aids in sleeping
c. Postganglionic nerve terminals b. Inhibit gastric secretion
d. Blood platelets c. Relieve cold and flu symptoms
d. Relieve asthma
61. All are characteristic of Sulfonylureas except:

a. Used in adjunct to diet to treat non 67. The barbiturates Phenobarbital, Mephobarbital and
insulin dependent DM primidone are classified as what type of barbiturate?
b. Causes the release of endogenous
insulin a. Long-acting
c. Oral antidiabetic agents b. Short-acting
c. Ultra-short acting
6
 d. Intermediate acting d. Carbon monoxide- carbon dioxide

68. The prostaglandins produce all of the following 74. Which of the following side effects are most
pharmacological actions EXCEPT common with the use of Diazepam (Valium)?

a. Increased capillary permeability a. Drowsiness, fatigue

b. Increased gastric secretion b. Difficulty with urination
c. Uterine contraction c. Rash, itch
d. Pyrexia d. Mouth, throat ulcers

69. “Epinephrine reversal” is a predictable result of the 75. Phenobarbital, an adult anticonvulsant and sedative
use of epinephrine in a patient who has received a/an: drug effective in all seizures. Which among the following
will not develop during drug therapy:
a. Alpha blocker
b. Alpha agonist a. Severe depression
c. Beta blocker b. Nausea
d. Adrenergic antagonist c. Anxiety
d. Drowsiness
e. irritability
70. Salicylates can cause gastric bleeding in the stomach
because of: 76. The prototype of penicillin and is the drug of choice
for streptococcal infections, skin and soft tissue
a. Decrease movement of intestines infections, treatment of syphilis and prevention of
b. Increase prostaglandin level rheumatic fever.
c. Decrease prostaglandin level
d. Increase movement of the intestine a. Ampicillin
b. V-cillin K
71. Digitoxin is effective in the treatment of cardiac c. Pen G
failure because it d. Pen V

a. Decrease abnormal cardiac rhythms 77. Acetaminophen is a para aminophenol derivative

b. Has a positive cardiac inotropic action used as an analgesic to relieve low intensity pain. Which
c. Is primarily a diuretic among these is true regarding Acetaminophen?
d. Produces peripheral vasoconstriction
a. Increased risk of developing Reye’s
72. Characteristics of COX 1 except: syndrome
b. Can cause hepatic necrosis
a. Elevates PGs during inflammation c. Inhibits peripheral prostaglandin
b. Induces arterial constriction synthesis
c. Involved in the formation of mucous d. Inhibits platelet aggregation
protective barrier in the stomach e. Inhibits central prostaglandins synthesis
d. A component of healthy tissue
e. Induces platelet aggregation 78. Which of the following antiepileptic drugs causes
hyperplasia of the gingiva?
73. Which of the following combinations represents
acceptable agonist-antagonist pairs in antidotal a. Ethosuximide
therapy? b. Valproic acid
c. Carbamazepine
a. Warfarin- phenylbutazone d. phenytoin
b. Morphine- naloxone
c. Dicumarol- protamine
7
79. This type of drug does not interact with receptors to 85. Red urine, sweat, saliva and other bodily fluids is a
produce a therapeutic or toxic effect. common side effect of this drug

a. Albumin a. Isoniazid
b. Protein plasma bound drug b. Pyrazinamide
c. Free drug c. Ketoconazole
d. Alpha acid glycoprotein d. Rifampicin
e. Ethambutol
80. Drug used for the treatment of trigeminal neuralgia
86. If diazepam (valium) is to be given intravenously, it
a. Phenytoin is recommended that a large vein be used in order to
b. Carbamazepine
c. Naloxone a. Decrease the risk of thrombophlebitis
d. Chlordiazepoxide b. Prevent release of acetylcholine
c. Hasten the onset of action
81. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of the d. Offset of the vasoconstrictor qualities of
thiazide diuretics? diazepam

a. Increase renal excretion of potassium 87. These 2 drugs are considered the first line anti TB
b. Increase renal excretion of sodium and drug because it suppress or kill the slow growing, acid-
chloride fast bacteria
c. Cause hypoglycemia
d. Increase hypokalemia a. INH and PZA
b. Ethambutol and PZA
82. An excess of which of the following hormones may c. Rifampicin and ethambutol
be associated with increased sensitivity to epinephrine? d. INH and Rifampicin

a. Insulin 88. Alpha receptors effects include the following except:

b. Thyroid
c. Testosterone a. Mydriasis
d. Parathyroid b. Vasoconstriction and contraction of
the uterus and spleen
83. The antiviral agent penciclovir is active against c. Reduction in motility and tone of the GI
which virus? smooth muscle
d. Vasodilation and relaxation of
a. Papilloma virus respiratory muscles
b. Genital herpes
c. Herpes zoster 89. If norepinephrine or epinephrine were to stimulate
d. Herpes simplex type 1 or combine with the alpha receptors in the eye, which
response would you expect?

a. No reaction will occur

84. Salicylates can cause gastric bleeding in the stomach b. Stenosis
because of the: c. Miosis
d. Mydriasis
a. Decrease movement of the intestine
b. Increase movement of the intestine 90. A cholinergic fiber secreted by the autonomic
c. Increase prostaglandin level nervous system which exhibits muscarinic and nicotinic
d. Decrease prostaglandin level response
a. Epinephrine
b. Acetylcholine
8
 c. Dopamine
d. Norepinephrine a. angina pectoris
b. Hypertension
91. This route of drug administration is most known for c. History of recent myocardial infarction
its significant hepatic first pass metabolism d. Epilepsy

a. Sublingual 97. All of the following drugs are indirect-acting-

b. Oral adrenergic agonists, Except:
c. Intramuscular
d. Inhalation a. Epinephrine
b. Amphetamine
92. Which of the following conditions is a c. Tyramine
CONTRAINDICATION to the use of atropine to reduce d. Methamphetamine
salivation?
98. All of the following neurons are cholinergic except:
a. Glaucoma
b. Bladder disease a. Postganglionic parasympathetic
c. Peptic ulcer neurons
d. Parkinson’s disease b. Preganglionic parasympathetic neurons
c. Preganglionic sympathetic neurons
93. Which of the following antibiotics is cross-allergenic d. Postganglionic sympathetic neurons
with penicillin and should NOT be administered to the
penicillin-sensitive patient? 99. Which of the following is not true about
acetaminophen,
a. Ampicillin
b. Clindamycin a. Possesses both analgesic and
c. Erythromycin antipyretic
d. Lincomycin b. Is a non- prescription drug
c. Is a cross-allergenic with aspirin
94. B1-adrenergic blocking agents will antagonize which d. May be the pharmacologically active
of the following actions of epinephrine? form of acetaminophen tidin
(phenacetin)
a. Vasoconstriction of the gastrointestinal e. May induce methemoglobinemia at
vasculature high doses
b. Glycogenolysis
c. Cardiac acceleration 100. Developed hyporeactivity to a drug is:
d. Vasodilation of skeletal muscle
vasculature a. Tolerance
b. Detoxification
95. Adrenal steroids are used successfully to treat all of c. Desensitization
the following conditions EXCEPT d. Dehydration
e. antagonism
a. Gastric ulcers
b. Aphthous stomatitis Pharma-Anesth May 1, 2021
c. Lupus erythematosus
d. Addison disease 1. Which of the ff drugs is useful in treating
e. Rheumatoid arthritis dermatologic manifestations of an allergic
response?
96. Which of the following disease states is a A. Cimetidine
contraindication to the use of nitrous oxide-oxygen B. Atropine
sedation? C. Chlorhexidine
9
 D. Chlorpheniramine A. Alpha blocker
E. Diazepam B. Adrenergic antagonist
C. Beta blocker
2. All of the ff are H1-receptor blockers, except: D. Alpha agonist
A. Chlorpheniramine maleate
B. Loratadine (Clantin) 9. Atropine is DESIRABLE for preanesthetic
C. Diphenhydramine HCL (Benadryl) medication because it
D. Cimetidine (Tagamet) A. Reduces glandular secretion in the airway
B. Prevents vomiting
3. These group of drugs form covalent bonds with C. Increases secretions of the gastro intestinal
nucleic acids and proteins with guanine as a tract
common binding site and is effective in treating D. Obtunds the cough reflex
carcinomas, chronic leukemia and lymphomas
A. Digitoxins 10. Which of the ff antiepileptic drugs causes
B. Alkylating agents hyperplasia of the gingiva?
C. Chelating agents A. Phenytoin
D. Amyl nitrite B. Ethosuximide
C. Carbamazepine
4. This route of drug administration is most known D. Valproic acid
for its significant hepatic first pass metabolism
A. Oral 11. Cimetidine is administered to
B. Sublingual A. Aid in sleeping
C. Intramuscular B. Relieve asthma
D. Inhalation C. Inhibit gastric secretion
D. Relieve cold and flu symptoms
5. Which of the ff is used to prevent
laryngospasm? 12. Which of the ff drugs and adverse effects in
A. Atropine INCORRECTLY paired?
B. Neostigmine (Prostigmine) A. Penicillin G – blood dyscrasia
C. Succinylcholine (anectine) B. Clindamycin – pseudomembranous colitis
D. Epinephrine C. Phenylbutazone – gastric bleeding
E. Diazepam (Valium) D. Halothane – heaptic necrosis
E. Streptomycin – eight cranial nerve damage
6. Beta receptors are located in the ff, except:
A. Bronchial smooth muscle 13. Which of the ff conditions is a contraindication
B. Blood vessels of the kidney to the use of atropine to reduce salivation
C. Vascular smooth muscle A. Parkinson’s disease
D. Heart B. Glaucoma
C. Bladder disease
D. Peptic ulcer

7. Which of the ff drugs is most likely to dry 14. Death of the affected fungal cell by the polyene
secretions in the oral cavity? antibiotics are due to the ff except:
A. Propantheline A. Works on the growing cells that contain
B. Promethazine peptidoglycan in their cell wall
C. Diazepam B. Increase membrane permeability and
D. Physostigmine permits leakage of intracellular contents
C. Suppress local candida infection
8. “Epinephrine reversal” is a predictable result of D. Drugs bind to sterols in the fungal cell
the use of epinephrine in a patient who has membrane
received a/an:
10
15. Phenothiazine is used to: E. Delays fibrinolysis by binding to lysine
A. Produce hypnosis receptor sites on plasminogen
B. Suppress coughing 22. Which of the ff side effects are most common
C. Alter psychotic behavior with the use of Diazepam (Valium)?
D. Produce analgesia A. Mouth, throat ulcers
E. Produce muscle relaxation B. Drowsiness, fatigue
C. Rash, itch
16. Which of the ff antibiotics os cross-allergenic D. Difficulty with urination
with penicillin and should NOT be administered
to the penicillin-sensitive patient? 23. Drug used for the treatment of trigeminal
A. Erythromycin neuralgia
B. Clindamycin A. Phenytoin
C. Lincomycin B. Naloxone
D. Ampicillin C. Carbamazepine
D. Chlordiazepoxide
17. Mu, kappa and delta receptors are associated
with which group of drugs? 24. These 2 drugs are considered the first line anti
A. Barbituates TB drug because it suppress or kill the slow
B. NSAIDs growing acid-fast bacterium
C. Antihistamines A. Rifampicin and ethambutol
D. Opioid analgesics B. Ethambutol and PZA
C. INH and PZA
18. Displacement of a drug from protein binding D. INH and rifampicin
sites is expected to increase the
A. Duration of drug effect 25. Salicylates can cause gastric bleeding in the
B. Activity of medullary centers stomach because of:
C. Drug effect observed A. Increase prostaglandin level
D. Dose required for a given effect B. Decrease movement of intestines
C. Decrease prostaglandin levels
19. All of the ff drugs are indirect-acting – D. Increase movement of the intestine
adrenergic agonists; except:
A. Amphetamine 26. Pseudomembranous candidiasis is an
B. Methamphetamine opportunistic infectious condition which can be
C. Epinephrine seen in the buccal mucosa, dorsal of the tongue
D. Tyramine and palate may be best treated by this polyene
antibiotic:
20. A sedative often used in the management of A. Greseofulvin
anxious pediatric dental patient is: B. Nystatin
A. Secorbarbital C. Polymyxin B
B. Meperidine D. Miconazole
C. Pentobarbital
D. Chloral hydrate 27. Digitoxin is effective in the treatment of cardiac
failure because it
21. Mechanism of action of Tranexamic acid A. Is primarily a diuretic
A. Activated blood-clotting proteins by B. Has a positive cardiac inotropic action
catalyzing y-carboxyglutanyl reductase C. Decreases abnormal cardiac rhythms
B. Promotes platelet aggregation in response D. Produces peripheral vasoconstriction
to prostaglandins synthesis
C. Increases tensile strength of fibrin which 28. Phenothiazines are the most widely used
holds blood clot antiphycotic agents for the improvement of
D. Activates platelets during hemostasis mood behavior. This drug is also used as an anti
11
 emeti agent. The anti emetic action is the result B. Streptococcus pyogenes
from their inability to: C. Herpesvirus
A. Blockage of dopamimergic sites in the brain D. Treponema pallidum
B. Blockage of alpha adrenergic receptor
C. Depress the chemoreceptor trigger zone 35. Quinidine is used to treat:
D. Inhibition of cyclooxygenase synthesis in A. Atrial fibrillation
the brain B. Hypertension
C. Ventricular fibrillation
29. Hearing loss is on of the common adverse D. Angina pectoris
effects of this group of antibiotics:
A. Aminoglycosides 36. The prostaglandins produce all of the following
B. Quinolones pharmacologic actions EXCEPT
C. Macrolides A. Increased capillary permeablitiy
D. Lincomasides B. Uterine contraction
E. Tetracyclines C. Pyrexia
D. Increased gastric secretion
30. Pseudomembranous colitis is a common
adverse effect of which particular drug? 37. This drugs removes the restraining influence
A. Clindamycin normally exerted by the vagus on heart rate,
B. Vancomycin thus used to treat bradycardia and control
C. Tetracycline excess salivation. At therapeutic dose it does
D. Cephalexin not produce CNS depression
A. Succinylcholine
31. The anti viral drug Acyclovir is for the treatment B. Scopolamine
of: C. Pilocarpine
A. Cytomegalo virus D. Atropine
B. Respiratory syncytial virus
C. Varicella zoster and herpes simples virus 38. A patient with grand mal epilepsy would be
D. Hepa B and C virus likely under treatment with:
E. HIV A. Phenytoin
B. Trimethadione
32. Which of the ff is NOT a problem encountered C. Pentobarbital
by the dentist in treating a patient on chronic D. Meprobamate
adrenal corticosteroid therapy?
A. Signs of inflammation 39. Adrenaline stimulates:
B. Ability to withstand stress is decreased A. Beta 1 and 2 receptors only
C. Susceptibility to infection is increased B. Alpha 1 and 2 receptors only
D. Tendency to bleed are increased C. Alpha 2 and Beta 2 receptors only
D. Alpha 1 and Beta 1 receptors only
33. The principal danger associated with the use of E. All mentioned
nitrous oxide anesthesia in concentrations
exceeding 80% is: 40. Alpha adrenergic receptors are located in the ff
A. Liver damage except:
B. Irritation of the respiratory tract A. Presynaptic nerve terminals
C. Nausea and vomiting B. Postganglionic nerve terminals
D. Renal damage C. Vascular smooth muscle
E. Hypoxia D. Blood platelets

34. Nystatin may be used to treat oral infections 41. A dental patient on clonidine therapy for
due to: hypertension MOST often complains of
A. Candida albicans A. Severe postural hypertension
12
 B. Restlessness among this naturally occurring peptides that
C. Xerostomia produce morphine like effect plays a role in pain
D. Frequent visits to the bathroom perception, movement, mood and behavior?
A. Kappa
42. Which of the ff hormones acts to elevate blood B. Enkephalins
concentration of ionic calcium? C. Dynorphins
A. Glucagon D. Mu
B. Parathyroid E. Beta endorphins
C. Aldosterone
D. Thyrotropin

43. The cardiac glycosides will reduce the

concentration of which ion in an active heart 49. Administration of which of the ff drugs will NOT
muscle? inhibit secretory activity in the oral cavity?
A. Calcium A. Scopolamine
B. Chloride B. Ephedine
C. Potassium C. Mecamylamine
D. Sodium D. Atropine

44. Tardive dysplasia is a neurological side effect of
which of the ff classes of drugs?
A. Barbiturate antiepileptics
B. Monamine oxidase inhibitors
C. Tricyclic antidepressants
D. Phenothiazine antipsychotics
45. All of the ff drugs are alpha-adrenergic receptor
blockers except:
A. Pheritotanine hydrochlodride
B. D
C. Phenocybenazamine hydrochloride
D. Pro
*** BLURRED PICTURE LOL
46. Penicillinase-resistant drugs are active against
gram positive aerobe and reserved for treating:
A. Staphylococcal infections
B. Streptococcal infections
C. Candida infections
D. Meningococcal infections
50. Aspirin has an analgesic, antipyretic and anti-
inflammatory property at therapeutic doses.
Which among these is not true regarding
Aspirins?
A. Reduces thromboxane production
B. Inhibits platelet aggregation
C. Inhibits central prostaglandin synthesis
D. Increased risk of developing Reye’s
syndrome
E. Inhibits peripheral prostaglandin synthesis
51. Acute opioid overdose is best managed by an
opioid antagonist. Which among the opioid
antagonist has a high affinity for opioid
receptors with no intrinsic ability but
antagonizes opioid induced euphoria, analgesia,
drowsiness and respiratory depression?
A. Nalorphine
B. Naloxone
C. Levallorphan
D. Naltrexone

47. The antiviral agent penicyclovir is active against 52. The antibiotic that is commonly associated with
which virus? Red Man Syndrome
A. Papilloma virus A. Clindamycin
B. Herpes zoster B. Streptomycin
C. Herpes simplex type 1 C. Erythromycin
D. Genital herpes D. Vancomycin

48. Opioid receptors are activated by endogenous

chemicals that the body produced. Which
13
53. The decrease in ventilation caused by
morphine, meperidine and some of the related
opioid depends CHIEFLY upon
A. Loss of sensitivity of the medullary
respiratory center to carbon dioxide
B. Depression of cortical activity
C. An increase in carbon dioxide concentration
in the blood
D. Peripheral blockade of chemoreceptors
impulses
E. Causes the release of endogenous insulin
59. The prototype of penicillin and is the drug of
choice for streptococcal infections, skin and soft
tissue infections, treatment of syphilis and
prevention of rheumatic fever
A. Pen G
B. Ampicillin
C. Pen V
D. V-cillin K

54. Which drug is the current drug of choice for the 60. The PRINCIPAL central action of caffeine is on
treatment of the manic phase of bipolar the
disorder for manic depressive syndrome? A. Cerebral cortex
A. Imipramine B. Hypothalamus
B. Lithium C. Spinal cord
C. Haloperidol D. Corpus callosum
D. Phenobarbital
61. Acetaminophen is a para aminophen derivative
55. During the visit to the dentist, a patient used as an analgesic to relieve low intensity
develops a severe, acute bronchial asthmatic pain. Which among these is true regarding
attack. He should immediately receive Acetaminophen?
A. Diphenhydramine A. Inhibits peripheral prostaglandin synthesis
B. 90% oxygen, 10% CO2 B. Inhibits central prostaglandin synthesis
C. Epinephrine C. Can cause hepatic necrosis
D. Cortisone D. Increase risk of developing Reye’s syndrome
E. Inhibits platelet aggregation
56. Alpha receptors effects include the ff except:
A. Vasodilation and relaxation of respiratory
muscles 62. A cholinergic secreted by the autonomic
B. Mydriasis nervous system which exhibits muscarinic and
C. Reduction in motility and tone of the GI nicotinic response d. dopamine
smooth muscle A. Acetylcholine
D. Vasoconstriction and contraction of the B. Norepinephrine
uterus and spleen C. Epinephrine
D. Dopamine
57. Which antibiotic is used due to its side effects
such as Pseudomembranous colitis and severe 63. H2 receptor blockers have the following actions,
GI upset? except:
A. Azithromycin A. Anti androgen effect
B. Clindamycin B. Treats Zollinger-Ellison sundrome
C. Pen V C. Treats acid peptic disease
D. Cephalexin D. Inhibits liver metabolism
E. Anti histamine
58. All are characteristic of Sulfonylureas except:
A. Oral antidiabetic agents 64. The medical uses of a rug having adrenergic
B. Effective in patients with insulin dependent agonists actions would include which of the
diabetes following?
C. Would give hypoglycemic reaction A. Prevent angina pectoris
D. Used in adjunct to diet to treat non insulin B. Reverse an anaphylactic reaction
dependent DM C. Reduce anxiety
14
 D. Treat hypertension E. Rheumatoid arthritis

65. Red urine, sweat, saliva and other bodily fluids 71. Disorientation, confusion and hallucinations
is a common side effect of this drug resulting from an overdose of scopolamine are
A. Isoniazid MOST efficaciously treated by administering:
B. Rifampicin A. Acetylcholine
C. Ketoconazole B. Levodopa
D. Ethambutol C. Physostigmine
E. Pyrizanamide D. Atropine

66. The adrenergic receptor predominantly seen in 72. An excess of which of the following hormones
heart is the: may be associated with increased sensitivity to
A. Beta 1 epinephrine?
B. Beta 2 A. Insulin
C. Alpha 1 B. Parathyroid
D. Alpha 2 C. Thyroid
E. Both beta 1 and beta 2 D. Testosterone

67. Xerostomia, glossitis and metallic taste is 73. This type of drug does not interact with
associated with which antibiotic? receptor to produce a therapeutic no toxic
A. Tetracycline effect
B. Vancomycin A. Protein plasma bound drug
C. Metronidazole B. Alpha acid glycoprotein
D. Erythromycin C. Albumin
D. Free drug
68. A fear reaction activates the sympathetic
division of the autonomic nervous system to 74. The intrinsic ability of a drug refers to the:
result in: A. Relative concentration of two or more drugs
A. Miosis that produce the same drug effect
B. Bradycardia B. Dosage of drug that will kill a patient
C. Increase salivation C. Specificity of a drug
D. Hypertension D. Affinity of a drug to bind on the receptor
69. When tissue injury occurs, histamine is liberated site
by the damaged tissue into the surrounding E. Ability of a drug to produce a desired
fluid. This statement is not true regarding therapeutic effect regardless of dosage
histamine
A. Constricts the CNS blood vessels 75. Nitroglycerin dilates the coronary arteries in
B. Mediated the typical allergic and angina pectoris by:
anaphylactic reaction responses A. Increasing the effective refractory period in
C. Increases blood flow and capillary and the atrium
venule permeability B. Decreasing the heart rate reflexly
D. Stored in high concentration in mast cells C. Increasing the metabolic work of the
and basophilic blood cells myocardium
E. Increase secretion of gastric acid and pepsin D. Direct action smooth muscle in the vessel
walls
70. Adrenal steroids are used successfully to treat 76. Salicylates can cause gastric bleeding in the
all of the ff EXCEPT: stomach because of:
A. Addison disease A. Increase prostaglandin level
B. Gastric ulcers B. Decrease movement of intestines
C. Lupus erythematosus C. Decrease prostaglandin levels
D. Aphthous stomatitis D. Increase movement of the intestine
15
77. If norepinephrine or epinephrine were to 83. The physiochemical properties of drugs that
stimulate or combine with the alpha receptors influence their passage across biologic
in the eye, which response would you expect? membranes are the ff, except:
A. No reaction will occur A. Degree of ionization
B. Miosis B. Degree of protein binding
C. Mydriasis C. Lipid solubility
D. Stenosis D. Molecular size and shape

78. Of the ff which is clinically significant adverse 84. Characteristics of COX 1 except:
reaction due to Metaprolol? A. Induces platelet aggregation
A. Dry mouth B. Involved in the formation of mucous
B. Hallucination protective barrier on the stomach
C. Arthralgia C. Elevates PGs during inflammation
D. Drowsiness D. Induces arterial constriction
E. A component of health tissue
79. Which of the following is NOT true about
acetaminophen? It 85. Developed hyporeactivity to a drug is
A. May induce methemoglobin at high doses A. Detoxification
B. Is a cross-allergenic with aspirin B. Antagonism
C. Possesses both analgesic and antipyretic C. Tolerance
effects D. Desensitization
D. May be the pharmacologically active form E. Dehydration
of acetophenetidin (phenacetin)
E. Is a non-presciption drug 86. Cardiovascular collapse elicited by a high
circulating dose of local anesthetic may be
80. Heparin inhibits intrinsic pathway of blood caused by
clotting thus used when anticoagulation is A. Histamine release
needed immediately. Which among the ff is not B. Myocardial depression
an action of heparin? C. Vagal stimulation
A. Crosses the placental barrier and cannot be D. Syncope
used in pregnancy E. Medullary stimulation
B. Neutralized tissue thromboplastin
C. Can enhance removal of fat particles form 87. Which of the ff drugs is used principally for its
the blood after a fatty meal diuretic action?
D. Blocks thromboplastin generation A. Meprobamate
B. Vasopressin
81. Drug that reduces the actions of the C. Angiotensin
sympathetic nervous system is called a: D. Chlorothiazide
A. Sympatholytic
B. Sympathomimetic 88. The single most useful agent in resuscitation is:
C. Sympathetic amine A. An endotracheal tube
D. Adrenergic agent B. 1:1000 epinephrine for injection
C. Aromatic spirits of ammonia
82. All of the following neurons are cholinergic, D. Oxygen
EXCEPT:
A. Preganglionic parasympathetic neurons 89. More widely used penicillin as it is more acid
B. Postganglionic parasympathetic neurons stable because it does not breakdown in the GI
C. Postganglionic sympathetic neurons tract
D. Preganglionic sympathetic neurons A. Ampicillin
B. Pen G
16
 C. Pen V D. Long acting
D. V-cillin K
90. Phenorbital, an adult anticonvulsant and 96. Which of the ff diseases states is a
sedative drug effective in all seiure. Which contraindication to the use of nitrous-oxygen
among the following will not develop during sedation?
drug therapy: A. Angina pectoris
A. Anxiety B. Epilepsy
B. Drowsiness C. Hypertension
C. Severe depression D. History of recent myocardial infarction
D. Nausea
E. Irritability 97. Most widely used tricyclic antidepressant drug
F. No answer text provided is:
A. Imipramine
91. Which of the ff is NOT characteristic of the B. Doxepin
thiazide diuretics? They C. Desipramine
A. Cause hypoglycemia D. Amitriptyline
B. Increase renal excretion of potassium
C. Increase hypokalcemia 98. Factors common to all forms f drug abuse
D. Increase renal excretion sodium and include:
chloride A. Miosis
B. Physiological dependence
92. If diazepam (valium) is to be given C. Tolerance
intravenously, it is recommended that a large D. Physical dependence
vein be used in order to
A. Prevent release of acetylcholine 99. B1- adrenergic blocking agents will antagonize
B. Hasten the onset of action which of the following action of epinephrine?
C. Decrease the risk of thrombophlebitis A. Vasodilation of skeletal muscle vasculature
D. Offset the vasoconstrictor qualities of B. Cardiac acceleration
diazepam C. Vasoconstriction of the gastrointestinal
vasculature
93. Which of the ff is a predictable result of a- D. Glycogenolysis
drenergic blockade?
A. Bronchoconstriction 100. The PRIMARY effect produced by
B. Xerostomia digitalis at therapeutic dose levels is to:
C. Mydriasis A. Slow cardiac rate
D. Lowered blood pressure B. Decrease cardiac enlargement
C. Increase the force myocardial contraction
94. Which of the ff combination represents D. Decrease the venous pressure
acceptable agonist-antagonist pairs in antidotal
therapy?
A. Morphine – naloxone Revalida 9/16/2021 (4TH RETAKE)
B. Carbon monoxide – carbon dioxide
C. Dicumarol – protamine 1.Responses or effects of drug wherein the dose is
D. Warfarin – phenylbutazone equivalent to effect:
A. quantal
95. The barbiturates Phenobarbital, Mephobarbital B. quantum
and Primidone are classified as what type of C. all of the choices
barbiturates? D. quantitative
A. Short acting E. none of the choice
B. Intermediate acting
C. Ultra short acting 2. The LD50 of a drug is:
17
A. 50% of the lethal dose in experimental animals A. low molecular weight
B. 50% of the lethal dose in humas B. none of the choices
C. Dose (mg/kg) that kills 50% of the treated animals C. all of the choices
D. one half the dose that kills all the treated animals D. highly ionized
E. none of the choices. E. lipid insoluble

3. Electrical action potential: 9. Route of administration of insulin

A. Impulse A. intradermal
B. Depolarization B. none of the choices
C. Refractory state C. intraperitoneal
D. None of the choices D. IM
E. Resting membrane potential E. Intrathecal

4. For immunocompromised patients, the best 10. A drug which act on the CNS prescribed for
antibiotic of choice would be ____. moderate to severe pain:

A. Expensive ones A. Morphine

B. Bacteriostatic B. None of the choices
C. The cheaper ones C. Acetaminophen
D. None of the choices D. Histamine
E. Bactericidal E. Nsaids
F. Salicylates
5. The following are the signs of inflammation, except:
11. The ff. are true of non-narcotic analgesics, except:
A. Hotness
B. Redness A. Non addicting
C. Fever B. Act principally at the peripheral nerve system
D. None of the choices C. Safer than narcotics
E. Swelling D. Has fewer side effects
E. Relieves pain by altering consciousness
6. The following gastrointestinal disturbances caused by
aspirin intake: 12. a prototype narcotic analgesics

A. Nausea A. Aspirin
B. None of the choices B. Morphine
C. Increased clotting time C. Naproxen sodium
D. Epigastric pain D. Mefenamic acid
E. Gastric erosion E. Papaverine

7. Antiemetic drugs____. 13. Which of the following cephalosporins would be the

most practical for dental use on an outpatient basis?
A. dilates pupils
B. causes nausea A. Cephazolin
C. contracts uterus B. Cephalotin
D. dries mouth C. Cephaloridine
E. prevents vomiting D. Cephalexin
E. Cephaloglycin
8. A drug can easily pass through the cell membrane if it F. None of the choices
is:
14. The following are true of Reye’s syndrome, except:
18
A. Rare disorder occurring in childhood E. Ability to work against concentration gradient
B. involves an acute encephalopathic illness
C. Enhanced b sodium and water resorption 20. Principal individual concerned in the development
D. none of the choices of the drug that performs biologic assays
E. involves an acute encephalopathic illness
A. Clinical pharmacologists
15. The following inhibits cell wall synthesis except: B. Toxicologists
C. Dentists
A. Penicillin D. Pharmacist
B. Vancomycin E. Biochemists
C. Nystatin
D. Bacitracin 21. Analgesics/ Antipyretic is an example of
E. Cephalosporin
A. Generic name
16. distribution of drugs is carried out by what part of B. Pharma sub-class
the blood? C. All of the choices
D. Pharmacologic class
A. Albumin E. None of the choices
B. Plasma
C. Platelet 22. The reaction of the vascular and supporting tissue to
D. First line drug injury which results in the formation of a protein rich
E. WBC exudates is known as:

17. The following are peripheral mediators of pain, A. None of the choices
except: B. Inflammation
C. Paresthesia
A. Bradykinin D. Pain
B. All of the choices E. All of the choices
C. None of the choices
D. Histamine 23. The range of drug activity is measured by:
E. Prostaglandin
A. None of the choices
18. The following are true of the haemostatic effect of B. Action
aspirin, except: C. Tolerance
D. Spectrum
A. It is due to impaired platelet aggregation E. Toxicity
B. All of the choices
C. Caused by inhibition of platelet thromboxane 24. Pharmacologic property of salicylates:
D. Irreversible
E. None of the choices A. Inhibition of synthesis of eicosanoids
B. All of the choices
19. The “specificity” of a carrier mediated transport C. Inhibition of synthesis of eicosanoids
system in the passage of drug across cell membrane is D. Inhibition of PGE
its: E. None of the choices

A. Ability to work against osmotic or elastic 25. A drug or hormone or neurotransmitter which
gradient combines with specific receptors, activates it and
B. Ability to concentrate a selected substance on initiates a sequence of effects:
one side of the cell membrane
C. All of the choices A. Mixed agonist-antagonists
D. None of the choices B. Antagonist
19
 C. Agonist B. Aqueous diffusion
D. None of the choices C. None of the choices
E. Receptor D. Absorption
F. All of the choices E. Partition coefficient
F. Lipid solubility
26. the following are gastrointestinal disturbances
caused by aspirin intake, except: 32. A process that deactivates drugs in the liver given
orally and was initially perfused into the hepatic
A. None of the choices circulation.
B. Increase in clotting time
C. Epigastric pain A. Enteral route
D. Gastric erosion B. Biologic half-life
E. Nausea C. None of the choices
D. All of the choices
27. oral administration of drugs is contraindicated to E. First pass metabolism
patients with:
33. Para-aminophenols are
A. G.I tolerance
B. None of the choices A. None of the choices
C. Precluded in coma B. Metabolized in the kidney
D. Preparing for anesthesia C. Acetaminophen
E. All of the choices D. Absorbed in the liver
E. Examples of schedule I substances
28. The generic name of a drug…
34. Partition coefficient refers to:
A. Makes healthy competition among drug
manufacturers A. All of the choices
B. It is hard to memorize B. None of the choices
C. It is universally accepted C. Lipid solubility of the drug
D. Provide wide selection of drugs D. Molecular weight of the drug
E. Gives little or no information about the drug E. Positive and negative charges of the drug

29. Acetylcholine is released at the site of stimulation 35. It is the time required for the concentration of drug
to decline to half of its original value
A. Resting membrane potential
B. Depolarization A. Median effective dose
C. None of the choices B. First pass effect
D. Impulse C. Relative safety
E. Refractory state D. Half-life
E. Metabolism
30. The desirable clinical action of a drug
36. Analgesics’ ulcerogenic properties is due to:
A. Effective dose
B. Toxic reaction A. None of the choices
C. Therapeutic effect B. All of the choices
D. Adverse effect C. The drug acidity
E. Side effect D. Inhibition of the production of mucus lining the
GIT
31. The relative solubility of fat and water is known as: E. Inhibition of prostaglandin

A. Water solubility 37. the following salicylates has analgesic effects, except
20
 antagonist has a high affinity for opioid receptors
A. Salicylic acid with no intrinsic ability but antagonizes opioid
B. Salicylamide induced euphoria, drowsiness and respiratory
C. Diflunisal disease
D. Acetyl salicylic acid
E. Sodium salicylate a) Naltrexone
b) Nalorphine
38. Reactions that cannot be explained by known c) Levallorphan
mechanism: d) Naloxone

A. Side effects 44. Hearing loss is one of the common adverse effects
B. Tetragenic effects of this group of antibiotics:
C. Allergic reactions
D. None of the choices a. Lincosamides
E. All of the choices b. Macrolides
F. Idiosyncrasies c. Tetracyclines
d. Aminoglycosides
39. Haemostatic effect of analgesics is due to: e. quinolones

A. All of the choices 45. Administration of which of the ff drugs will NOT
B. None of the choices inhibit secretory activity in the oral cavity?
C. No platelet aggregation
D. Inhibition of synthesis of platelets thromboxane A. Scopolamine
E. Impaired platelet B. Ephedine
C. Mecamylamine
40. Prescribed if patient is allergic with penicillin D. Atropine

A. Gentamycin 46. The PRIMARY effect produced by digitalis at

B. None of the choices therapeutic dose levels is to:
C. Sulfonamide
D. Erythromycin A. Slow cardiac rate
E. Tetracycline B. Decrease cardiac enlargement
C. Increase the force myocardial contraction
41. The nerve membrane is slightly permeable to K and D. Decrease the venous pressure
Cl ions:
47. The adrenergic receptor predominantly seen in
A. Refractory state heart is the
B. Resting membrane potential
C. None of the choices A. Alpha 1
D. Impulse B. Alpha 2
E. Depolarization C. Beta 1
D. Beta 2
42. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of the E. Both beta 1 and beta 2
thiazide diuretics?
48. If norepinephrine or epinephrine were to stimulate
A. Increase renal excretion of sodium and chloride or combine with the alpha receptors in the eye, which
B. Cause hypoglycemia response would you expect?
C. Increase renal excretion of potassium
D. Increase hypokalemia a. No reaction will occur
43. Acute opioid overdose is best managed by an b. Stenosis
opioid antagonist. Which among the opioid c. Miosis
21
d. Mydriasis
55. A patient develops the typical bell’s palsy expression
49. All of the following are H1- receptor blockers, within ten minutes after an attempted IAN block on the
except: same side. The most logical explanation is that the
injection was into the
a. Cimetidine (Tagamet)
b. Loratadine (Clantin) a) Parotid gland
c. Chlorpheniramine maleate b) Masseter muscle
d. Diphenhydramine HCL (Benadryl) c) Maxillary artery
d) Pterygoid plexus of veins
50. The principal danger associated with the use of
nitrous oxide anesthesia in concentrations exceeding 56. Node to node jumping of impulse:
80% is:
a) Synapse
a. Renal damage b) Repolarization
b. Irritation of the respiratory tract c) Saltatory conduction
c. Hypoxia d) Depolarization
d. Liver damage
e. Nausea and vomiting 57. Allergic reactions to LA are caused by

51. Method of controlling pain by taking analgesic drugs A. Rapid absorption

B. Improper technique
A. raising pain threshold C. Antigen antibody reaction
B. block painful impulse D. Fast administration
C. removal cause
D. psychosomatic methods 58. Which of the ff is an important consideration of the
E. pain prevention by cortical depression intrapulpal injection?

52. Complications of infraorbital nerve block: a. A long acting anesthetic should be used
b. The injection should be given with back-pressure
A. ecchymosis c. Another supplemental injection should not be
B. blindness attempted first
C.Tachycardia d. It will take several minutes for the injection to take
D. edema effect

53. Amide-type local anesthetics are metabolized in the 59. In combating an acute urticarial reaction following
local anesthetic administration, which of the following
A. Kidney would be indicated?
B. Liver
C. Spleen a. Inhalation of amyl nitrite
D. Plasma b. Inhalation of ammonia
c. Intravenous injection of amyl nitrite
54. Local anesthetic contains an aromatic group, an d. Intravenous injection of diphenhydramine
intermediate chain and a secondary tertiary amino
group. The intermediate chain has 2 purposes except 60. The only local anesthetic that increases the pressor
activity of both epinephrine and norepinephrine is:
A. A chemical link which serves as abasis for the
classification of local anestgetics A. Cocaine
B. Separates the lipophilic from hydrophilic end B. dibucaine
C. Furnishes water solubility C. Procaine
D. None D. lidocaine
22
E. mepivacaine
66. Which of the following is a major reason for adding
61. To give field block, the local anesthesia should be vasoconstrictors to local anesthetic injections?
deposited near ____
A. To decrease bleeding
a) Small branches of the peripheral nerve B. To reduce systemic toxicity
b) Periodontal ligament space C. To enhance the onset of action
c) Main trunk D. To decrease allergic reactions.
d) Large branch of peripheral nerve E. To prolong the duration of anesthesia

62. This technique of mandibular anesthesia is useful for 67. Syncope, perhaps the most frequent complication
patients suffering from trismus, fractured mandible and associated with administration of local anesthetics is
mentally handicapped children
a. Usually treated early with injectable drugs to
A. Vazirani-Akinosi Technique stimulate respirations
B. Gow Gates technique b. Always associated with a loss of consciousness
C. IAN block c. Recognized early by an increase in blood pressure
D. Mandibular block d. A form of neurogenic shock

63. Extent of the nasopalatine nerve block anesthesia:
A. Soft tissue of the anterior hard palate adjacent to the
bicuspid teeth
B. Bone of the anterior hard palate adjacent to the
anterior teeth
C. Soft tissue and bone of the hard palate on one side of
the midline to canine
D. Pulps of the upper molar teeth
E. Buccal gingival, periodontium and buccal, bone
adjacent to the molars
64. Extent of the greater palatine nerve block
anesthesia:
68. Which of the ffng statement best describes the
mechanism of action of local anesthetics on the nerve
axon?
a. Increases potassium outflow from inside to outside
the nerve
b. Increases the membranes permeability to sodium
c. Decreases sodium uptake through sodium channels of
the axons
d. Increases the excitability of the nerve axon
69. Following an inferior alveolar nerve block, the
inability to close the eye on the right side of the
injection can be attributed to

A. Soft tissue of the anterior hard palate adjacent to the A. Anesthetizing the trigeminal nerve
anterior teeth B. Anesthetizing the facial nerve
B. Bone of the anterior hard palate adjacent to the C. Anesthetizing the trochlear nerve
anterior teeth D. Toxic reaction to the solution
C. Soft tissue and bone of the hard palate on one side of
the midline up to the canine region 70. Pain may be reduced in local anesthetic injection by:
D. Pulps of the upper molar teeth
E. Buccal gingival, periodontium and buccal bone; bone a) Injecting and withdrawing as fast as possible
adjacent to the molars b) Using a large diameter needle with a sharp tip
c) Heating the anesthetic solution to 100 degress Celsius
65. Method of controlling pain by taking analgesic drugs before injecting
d) Pulling the tissue over the advancing needle rather
A. raising pain threshold than inserting the needle into the tissue
B. block painful impulse
C. removal cause 71. Bell Palsy can best be prevented by:
D. psychosomatic methods
E. pain prevention by cortical depression A. use always long needle
23
B. use short needle
C. fast injection A. external oblique ridge
D. aspiration B. internal oblique ridge
C. coronoid notch
72. The anterior superior alveolar nerve arises as a D. retromolar triangle
branch of the
78. Infiltration anesthesia where the anesthetic solution
A. Sphenopalatine nerve is deposited between the periosteum and the cortical
B. Greater palatine nerve plate.
C. Zygomatic nerve
D. Posterior superior alveolar nerve A. submucous
E. Infraorbital nerve B. subperiosteal
C. supraperiosteal
73. Which of the ff structures travel through the D. intraseptal
substance of the parotid gland? E. Intraosseous

a) Maxillary artery, retromandibular vein, facial artery 79. A dentist administers 1.8 ml of a 2% solution of
and buccal branch of the mandibular nerve lidocaine. How may mg of lidocaine dis the patient
b) Maxillary artery receive?
c) Maxillary artery, retromandibular vein and facial
d) Maxillary artery and retromandibular vein A. 3.6 mg
B. 18 mg
74. In which of the ff ways can be a patient be protected C. 36 mg
best from the toxic aspects of a local anesthesia D. 9 mg

a) Use an aspirating technique 80. Which of the following is a contraindication to the

b) Take a thorough medical history use of prilocaine?
c) Use a solution with an epinephrine concentration of
1:50,000 to delay absorption A. biliary tract disease
d) Have oxygen available B. Type II diabetes
e) Use the lowest possible concentration of the local C. rheumatoid arthritis
anesthesia D. Hepatic disease

75. Too much puncture injection in mandibular blocking 81. A successful infraorbital nerve block will produce
can result to: anesthesia of what part

A. paresthesia a) Maxillary anterior teeth and their labial gingivae

B. pain b) Maxillary anterior teeth, their labial gingivae, the
C. trismus upper lip and anterior hard palate
D. xerostomia c) Maxillary anterior teeth, their labial gingivae and the
E. dry socket upper lip
d) Maxillary anterior teeth
76. Area of bone resistance upon needle insertion in
IAN block: 82. Injection technique that is more prone to hematoma

A. external oblique ridge a. MSAN Block

B. internal oblique ridge b. Gow gates technique
C. coronoid notch c. Akinosi
D. retromolar triangle d. PSAN Block
77. Area of bone resistance upon needle insertion in e. Mandibular block
IAN block:
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83. The most probable cause for a serious toxic reaction
to local anesthetic
a. Excessive blood level of local anesthetic
b. Hyper sensitivity to the vasoconstrictor
c. Hypersensitivity to the local anesthetic
d. Deterioration of the anesthetic agent
84. The maximum recommended adult dose of lidocaine
is 300mg. How many milliliters of 2% lidocaine need to
be given to reach this level? a. 15mL b. 10mL c. 7.5mL d.
20 Ml
85.Following a satisfactory right IAN block injection, also
anesthetizing the lingual nerve, which teeth may be
extracted without pain? a. The right lateral and lateral
incisors b. All mandibular teeth on the right side except
the central incisor c. None with this injection alone d. All
mandibular teeth on the right side
86. Before extracting a patient’s premolar, the dentist
administers an inferior alveolar block. Three minutes
after receiving this block, the patient develops paralysis
of his forehead muscles, of his eyelids and of the upper
and lower lips on the same side of his face. These
findings are the most likely to be associated with the
diffusion of the anesthetic solution into which of the ff:
a) Capsule of the parotid gland b) Otic ganglion c) Motor
branches of the mandibular nerve supplying the
masticatory muscles d) Ophthalmic division of the
trigeminal nerve e) Auriculotemporal nerve
87. In this technique, the anesthetic solution is
deposited at the neck of the condyle e. Akinosi
technique f. gow Gates technique g. PSAN h. Long
buccal nerve block
88. local anesthesia depress which of the following
nerve fibers first? a. Small myelinated fibers b. Large
myelinated fibers c. Small unmyelinated fiber
89. In PSAN block, the needle approximates, except: a)
Posterior to posterior surface of maxillar b) Anterior to
pterygoid plexus of veins c) Anterior to external
pterygoid muscle d) Posterior to external pterygoid
90. Best alternative technique after mandibular block
fro still painful #36 for access in RCT: a) Intraligamentary
b) Intrapulpal c) Intraseptal d) Intraosseus e) Gow gates
91. This local anesthetic group should be avoided in
patients with severe liver disease because they can
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build up in the bloodstream and produce systemic
toxicity e. Ester group f. LA would have no systemic
effect g. Both groups produce systemic toxicity h. Amide
group
92. How many millimeter of nerve fibers should be in
contact with the anesthetic solution for effective
anesthesia: A. 1mm B. 2-3mm C. 4mm D. 5-6mm E. 8-
10mm
93. A successful inferior alveolar nerve block will
produce anesthesia of the e. Lower lip, mandibular
teeth and labial gingivae of the anterior mandibular
teeth f. Lower lip g. Lower lip and mandibular teeth h.
Lower lip, mandibular teeth and labial gingivae of the
anterior buccal gingivae of the posterior mandibular
teeth
94. Anesthesia performed with general anesthetics
occurs in 4 stages which may or may not be observable
because they can occur very rapidly. Which stage is the
one which skeletal muscles relax, and the patient's
breathing becomes regular? a. Analgesia b. Excitement
c. Surgical anesthesia d. Medullary anesthesia
95. What can be said about intraosseous injection? e. It
has been recommended as the primary injection
technique f. It allows the anesthetic solution to be
deposited directly into the cancellous bone adjacent to
the tooth g. It has not been proved effective h. It allows
the anesthetic solution to be deposited directly into the
pulp tissue of the tooth
96. General anesthesia with halothane is commonly
precede by administration of atropine to a. Reduce
salivation and bronchial secretions caused by halothane
b. Inhibit vagal overactivity commonly caused by
halothane c. Induce muscular relaxation by blocking
cholinergic receptors d. Block the cardiovascular effects
produced by the injection of sympathomimetic drug
97. This disease involves the afferent nerve of the
trigeminal nerve with the exception of the ophthalmic
branch. It is casued by pressure on the sensory root of
the trigeminal ganglion with px feeling excruciating
short term pain when facial trigger zones are touched.
a. None of the choices b. Sjorgren’s syndrome c. Tic
douloureux d. Bell’s palsy
98. Node to node jumping of impulse: a) Synapse b)
Repolarization c) Saltatory conduction d) Depolarization
99. The trigeminal provides sensory innervation for all
of the following except the: a. Posterior third of the
tongue b. Nasal cavity c. Oral Cavity d. Paranasal sinuses
e. Skin of the face

100. Too much local anesthesia can result to: a)

Paresthesia b) Xerostomia c) Trismus d) Dry socket

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