GENERAL PHARMACOLOGY-9 (1 – 9)

1. In certain situations enterohepatic recycling of a drug is relied upon for increase in the
bioavailability of this drugs. Which of the following drugs can interfere with E/H recycling and can
lead to therapeutic failure by decreasing the bioavailability of the affected drug?
a. Broad spectrum antibiotics
b. Anti-tubercular drugs
c. Anti-cancer antibiotics
d. Anti-retroviral drugs
e. Systemic anti-fungal drugs
2. Pharmacokinetics of Aspirin, Phenytoin and Alcohol shifts from 1st order to Zero order on repeated
administration/in high dose range and risk of toxicity is disproportionately increased. In zero order
kinetic there is disproportionate increase in plasma concentration of drug because.
a. Half life of the drug remains constant
b. Rate of drug elimination remains constant
c. Fix fraction of drug is eliminated per unit time
d. Fix amount of drug is cleared per unit time
e. This is a non saturable pharmacokinetic process.
3. The two state receptor theory is the only receptor theory that can be used to adequately explain the
actions of which of the following?
a. Reversible antagonist
b. Full agonist
c. Irreversible antagonist
d. Partial agonist
e. Inverse Agonist
4. The elimination of a drug & its numerous metabolites is described as being heavily dependent on
phase II metabolic reactions. Which of the following is a phase II reaction?
a. Acetylation
b. Decarboxylation
c. Ester hydrolysis
d. Nitro reduction
e. Suloxide formation
5. Plasma half life is an important parameter which determines the time to reach the steady state plasma
concentration and duration of action of a drug. Plasma half life is directly proportional to which of
the following?
a. Rate of drug Clearance
b. Volume of distribution
c. Bioavailability of drug
d. Bioequivalence of drug
e. Concentration of drug
6. Most of the autonomic receptors like muscarinic cholinergic receptors & all adrenergic receptors
belong to G protein coupled family of receptors. Autonomic drugs produce their effects by binding
with these receptors. Which of the following descriptions relating to G-protein-coupled receptors
(GPCRs) is Unlikely to be true?
a. Many drugs and neurotransmitters are ligands for GPCRs
b. GPCRs provide ligand selectivity & signal amplification
 c. All GPCRs signal via modulation of intracellular cAMPs
d. GPCRs share common structure like transmembrane- helices
e. Their activation results in changes in second messenger
7. A patient diagnosed for anxiety disorder was prescribed diazepam a weak base, diffusion of this
weak base by the process of passive diffusion will be highest from which site after oral
administration?
a. Stomach
b. Duodenum
c. Small Gut
d. Colon
e. Rectum
8. In case of competitive/ reversible pharmacological antagonism, Which of the following is the correct
statement?
a. Parallel shift of curve to the right
b. Have longer duration of action
c. Covalent binding with the receptor
d. Decrease maximal efficacy of agonist
e. Clinically they are not useful drugs
9. In case of GPCRs the “G protein” is coupled with the effector system through an enzyme or an ion
channel. stimulatory G protein “Gs” is positively coupled with which of the following enzymes?
a. Adenylyl Cyclase
b. GuanylylCyclase
c. Phospholipase C
d. Cyclo-Oxygenase
e. Lipo-Oxygenase

Drugs acting on ANS-8 (10-17)

10. In certain patients, the duration of apnea produced after administration of succinylcholine goes to
hours rather than a few minutes. These patients probably have a deficiency of Which of the
following?:
a. Glucose 6-Po4 dehydrogenase
b. Plasma cholinesterase
c. Hepatic hydroxymethylase
d. Plasma glycine transamidase
e. Plasma xanthine Oxidase
11. Your pharmacology laboratory has been given a new compound for screening. It is found to
increase the heart rate but has no effect on the eye. It also caused a significant reduction in diastolic
blood pressure as well as relaxation of the bronchial smooth muscle. This compound would be
categorized as:
a. Muscarinic agonist
b. Beta agonist
c. Beta antagonist
d. Alpha antagonist
e. Muscarinic agonist
12. A 29-year old woman says that her eyes will not stay open despite the fact that she is not tired. On
physical examination, her facial musculature weakens as she talks. Which of the following drugs
would be most useful in helping to make a diagnosis in this patient?
a. Physostigmine
b. Neostigmine
c. Pyridostigmine
d. Edrophonium
 e. Tubocurarine
13. Mr. Ahmed a known diabetic and asthmaticpatient, presents in the medical OPD of RIHS with increased
blood pressure. Which of the following beta adrenergic antagonist will be preferred in this patient?
a. Propranolol
b. Metoprolol
c. Nadolol
d. Timolol
e. Pindolol
14. A 52 year old patient came in medical OPD of RIHS with complaints difficulty in urination and
increased frequency of micturition specially during night.He was diagnosed as a case of enlarged
prostate. Which of the following medication will be prescribed for symptomatic relief to the patient?
a. Doxazosin
b. Propranolol
c. Phentolamine
d. Tolazoline
e. Tamsulosin
15. The “First dose effect” occurring due to parazosin can be minimized by taking which of the following
measures?
a. Adjusting the first dose to one third of normal dose
b. Adjusting the first dose to one fourth of normal dose
c. By giving the 1st dose of the drug at bed time
d. By taking all of the above three measures
e. By pre drug Councelling of the concerned patient
16. Different cardiotonic drugs can be used in congestive cardiac failure to improve the pumping action
of the heart. Which of the following cardiotonic drugs increases the efficiency of myocardium?
a. Adrenaline
b. Dopamine
c. Dobutamine
d. Digoxin
e. Milrenone
17. A 30 year old patient came to OPD with complaints of dry mouth, blurring of vision & lack of tears
in the eyes. Physician diagnosed him as a case ofSjogren syndrome. Which is drug of choice for this
condition?
a. Pilocarpine
b. Acetylcholine
c. Carbachol
d. Physostigmine
e. Donepezil
CVS & Diuretics-8 (18-25)
18. Different cardiotonic drugs can be used in congestive cardiac failure to improve the pumping action
of the heart. Which of the following cardiotonic drugs increases the efficiency of myocardium?
a. Adrenaline
b. Dopamine
c. Dobutamine
d. Digoxin
e. Milrenone
19. The most suitable antihypertensive drug in 45 years old male company executive, who’s blood pressure is
160/100 mm of Hg, and he is a diabetic, controlled with glibenclamide would be:
a. Propranolol
b. Enalapril
c. Clonidine
d. Hydrochlorothiazide
e. Methyldopa
20. One of the following diuretic can cause gynaecomastia, hirsutism or menstrual disturbances on long term
use. Which one it can be?
a. Hydrochlorothiazide
b. Ethacrynic acid
c. Spironolactrone
d. Acetazolamide
e. Burnetanide
21. A 40 year old politician suffered from angina pectoris. He had a tense personality, was having
tachycardia,BP 160/100 mm of Hg, but blood sugar and lipid profile were normal. The most suitable
antihypertensive for initial therapy in above case would be:
a. Nifedipine
b. Chlorothiazide
c. Atenolol
d. Methyldopa
e. Clonidine
22. A patient of conjestive heart failure was being treated with furosemide and digoxin. He developed urinary
tract infection. Which of the following antimicrobials should be avoided:
a. Ampicillin
b. Norfloxacin
c. Co-trimoxazole
d. Gentamicin
e. Ciprofloxacin
23. A young boy of 20 year met a road traffic accident and suffered head injury as a result of which developed
cerebral edema, the most useful diuretic in the above condition is:
a. Acetazolamide
b. Amiloride
c. Ethaerymic acid
d. Mannitol
e. Furosemide
24. Nifedepine sublingual, a short acting calcium channel blocker, has been used for hypertensive
emergencies, but has been withdrawn now because of which of the following dangerous adverse
effect?
a. Postural Hypotension
b. Reflex tachycardia
c. Ankle oedema
d. Consitipation
e. Bradycardia
25. A patient undergoing treatment for essential hypertension for the last six months now complains of
impotence, vertigo, and difficulty in doing mental work. Llaboratory results show a positive
 Coomb's test. Which antihypertensive drug is capable of causing these effects?
a. Captopril
b. Hydralazine
c. Methyldopa
d. Prazosin
e. Clonidine

Blood – 7 (26 – 32)

26. A patient is given an anti-hyperlipidemic agent that reduces circulating cholesterol level by binding
to cholesterol in the gut. Which one of the following is it?
a. Clofibrate
b. Lovastatin
c. Gemfibrozil
d. Cholestyramine
e. Niacin
27. Cutaneous necrosis due to reduced protein C activity occurs during the first week of therapy with
which of the following drugs?
a. Streptokinase
b. Abciximab
c. Warfarin
d. Ticlopidine
e. Aspirin
28. Minralocorticoid deficiency and hyperkalemia can be a complication with the use of which of the
following anticoagulants?
a. Warfarin
b. Heparin
c. Enoxaparin
d. Fondaperinux
e. Bivalirudin
29. Patients with normal platelet counts and normal bleeding time may still bleed severely as a result of
aspirin ingestion prior to a dental or surgical procedure. The interference of aspirin with normal
platelet function may last as long as:
a. 4 hours
b. 12 hours
c. 2 days
d. 5 days
e. 7 days
30. A 53 year old obese female is brought to the emergency ward by her concerned husband 1 hour after
complaining of constant abdominal pain, nausea and shortness of breath. ECG and cardiac enzymes
confirm the diagnosis of MI. Which drug should be administered to this patient?
a. Streptokinase
b. Fondaperinux
c. Eptifibatide
d. Lovastatin
e. Enoxaparin
 31. One of the following drug reduces cholesterol synthesis in liver, increases expression of LDL
receptors on hepatocytes and has been found to reduce mortality due to coronary artery disease:
a. Simvastatin
b. Nicotinic acid
c. Gemtibrozil
d. Coletripol
e. Cholestyramine
32. 18 years old unmarried women is diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. Oral iron
tablets are given with which of these drugs to increase absorption:
a. Antacids
b. Tetracyclines
c. Sucralfate
d. Ascorbic acid
e. Phosphates

GIT, Resp&Misc -8 (33 – 40)

33. Choose the anti ulcer drug that inhibits gastric acid secretion, stimulates gastric mucus
and bicarbonate secretion and has cyto-protective action on gastric mucosa:
a. Misoprostol
b. Sucralfate
c. Carbenoxolone
d. Bismuth subcitrate
e. Esomeprazole
34. A 12 year old boy frequently experiences severe asthma attacks and becomes cyanotic, dyspnoeic
and breathless. Which one of the following can prevent these attacks
a. Ipratropium
b. CromolynNa
c. Epinephrine
d. Ephedrine
e. Atropine
35. A patient has severe diabetic gastroparesis and gastroesophageal reflux and he needs r relief of his
symptoms. Which drug would be most suitable for him?
a. Dronabinol
b. Loperamide
c. Pirenzepine
d. Metoclopramide
e. Ondansetron
36. A patient who has liver cirrhosis due to chronic hepatitis C viral infection presents with hepatic
encephalopathy. Which one of the following drugs would be most suitable for the relief of signs and
symptoms of this condition & which has replaced Neomycin
a. Diphenoxylate
b. Omeprazole
c. Lactulose
d. Loperamide
e. Ondansetron
37. Methylxanthines are widely used for management of bronchial asthma. Which of the following
 agents is usually employed therapeutically
a. Aminophylline
b. Caffeine
c. Acepephylline
d. Theobromine
e. Enprophylline
38. As a gastroenterologist, a pt of atrial fibrillation taking warfarin comes to you with symptoms of
dyspepsia with burning pain in epigastrium. You prescribe an anti-ulcer drug. After a few hours
you receive a call from his cardiologist that the pt has been admitted for warfarin toxicity. Which
anti-ulcer drug did you negligibly prescribed to him?
a. Omeprazole
b. Pirenzepine
c. Cimetidine
d. Famotidine
e. Sucralfate
39. Which one of the following statements regarding Omeprazole is correct?
a. Is an antagonist of H2 receptors
b. Inhibits gastric H+/K+ ATPase
c. Is inhibited by Spironolactone
d. Alters the composition of gall stones
e. Is a muscarinic receptor antagonist
40. Which one of the following combinations would be the most effectiveone in the treatment of peptic ulcer
for eradication of helicobacter pilori?
a. Mag trisilicate plus bismuth compound plus Ranitidine
b. Bismuthcompound plus Tetracycline plus Metronidazole
c. Metronidazole plus clarithromycin plus omeprazole
d. Bismuth compound plus omeprazole plus Ranitidine
e. Al hydro-oxide plus H2 Receptor Blocker plus Sucralfate
CNS - 8 (41-48)
41. A 36 year old man with a history of seizures is scheduled to undergo surgery for herenia. Which
drug for general anesthesia will be selected?
a. Enflurane
b. Nitrous oxide
c. Propofol
d. Sevoflurane
e. Thiopental
42. The drug which abolishes / decreases the therapeutic effect of levodopa in parkinsonism, but not
that of levodopa-carbidopa combination is:
a. Metoclopramide
b. Pyridoxine
c. Chlorpromazine
d. Isoniazid
e. Captropril
43. When compared with barbiturates, which of the following statements is unlikely to be true
about benzodiazepines?
a. They have a steaper dose response curve
b. They have much higher therapeutic index
c. They have lower abuse potential / liability
 d. They don’t induced hepatic microsomal enzymes
e. Muscle relaxant effect not blocked by flumazenil
44. For a 6 year old girl suffering from absence seizures with occasional generalized tonic clonic
seizures, which of the following is the most suitable drug?
a. Ethosuximide
b. Sodium valproate
c. Carbamazepine
d. Phenytoin
e. Diazepam
45. A 65 years old man was brought to the hospital with complaints of pain in lower abdomen and not
having passed urine for 16 hours. The bladder was found to be full. His son informed that he was
depressed for the last 2 years and only the day before a doctor had given him some medicine.
Which of the following drugs most likely he has received?
a. Alprazolam
b. Sertraline
c. Amitriptyline
d. Trazodone
e. Duloxetine
46. Most of the actions of morphine develop tolerance after prolonged administration. Which action of
morphine can never develop tolerance?
a. Analgesia
b. Resp depression
c. Miosis
d. Emesis
e. Histamine release
47. Malignant hyperthermia is a rare complication of use of which of the following anaesthetic, when used
with suxamathonium.
a. Ketamine
b. Thiopentone Na
c. Halothane
d. Ether
e. Desflurane
48. Malignant hyperthermia is a rare complication When certain inhalational anaesthetics are used along with
a muscle relaxant suxamrthonium. Which of the following inhalational anaesthetic can produce this
adverse effect?.
a. Ketamine
b. Thiopentone Na
c. Halothane
d. Ether
e. Desflurane
Chemo -10 (49 – 58)
49. Given the recent and widespread world wide outbreaks of swine flu there has been a great need
for prophylactic measures in certain at risk populations who may be susceptible. Which of the
following drugs is recommended for disease control?
a. Acyclovir
b. Amantadine
c. Zanamivir
d. Oseltamivir
e. Ritonavir
50. Which phase of the cell cycle is primarily affected by antimetabolite chemotherapeutic agents?
a. Growth 1 (G1) phase
b. Growth 2 (G2) phase
c. Synthesis (S) phase
d. Mitosis (M) phase
e. Growth 0 (G0) phase
51. A drug is being used in combination therapy for cancer . It acts by nucleophilic attack on DNA
that causes disruption of base pairing leading to fragmentation and strand breakage. Which of the
following drugs it could be?
a. Cyclophosphamide
b. Fluorouracil
c. Methotrexate
d. Prednisone
e. Thioguanine
52. A patient of fungal infection is being treated with a fungicidal agent .its mechanism of action
involves inhibition of squaleneepoxidase.Which of the following drugs it could be?
a. Amphotericin B
b. Ketoconazole
c. Miconazole
d. Nystatin
e. Terbinafine
53. A 25 year old intravenous drug abuser is diagnosed as being positive for human
immunodeficiency virus. Zidovudine is prescribed common..Which of the following is
unlikely/least likely to be a dose-related adverse effects of Zidovudine?
a. Severe anemia
b. Neutropenia
c. Severe nephrotoxicity
d. Neurotoxicity
e. Myalgias
54. Which of the following agents should be considered for prophylactic administration in a patient
Who is positive for HIV ?
a. Ganciclovir
b. Fluconazole
c. Human interferon
d. Pentamidine
e. Rubella Vaccine
55. Three months later, the patient develops oropharyngeal& esophageal candidiasis. The treatment
of choice would be:
a. Griseofulvin
b. Fluconazole
c. Miconazole
d. Clotrimoxazole
56. Which of the following agents has a profound (potent) effect on inducing liver microsomal
enzymes, which can lead to serious consequences when administering multiple drugs to a
patient?
a. Pyrazinamide
 b. Rifampin
c. Isoniazid
d. Ethambutol
e. Cycloserine
57. Electrolyte imbalance may result when giving large quantities of this penicillin to treat the very
young or elderly. This penicillin is:
a. Oxacillin
b. Carbenicillin
c. Ampicillin
d. Cloxacillin
e. Nafcillin

58. A child has an infection whose symptoms are consistent with a Spirochetialinfection.
Appropriate pharmacotherapy may include which one of the following drugs?
a. Rifampin
b. Chloroquine
c. Praziquantel
d. Pentamidine
e. Penicillin
59. A patient is suffering form Paget’s disease of the bone. Which naturally occurring substance is
useful in treating the disease of this patient?
a. Calcitonin
b. Parathyroid hormone
c. Thyroxin
d. Cortisol
e. Calcium Salt
60. A hypothyroid patient requires maintenance replacement therapy. Which of the following is the
drug of choice?
a. Liothyronine
b. Protirelin
c. Levothyroxin
d. Liotrix
e. Thyroxine
61. A male athlete is using anabolic steroids in excess. This can result in all of the following except:
a. Retention of fluid
b. Feminization
c. Decreased spermatogenesis
d. Anorexia
e. Altered Lipid Profile
62. Bromocriptine is used to treat some women with amenorrhea because it:
a. Stimulates release of GnRH
b. Stimulates the ovary directly
c. Inhibits prolactin release
d. Increases the synthesis of FSH
e. It increases prolactin levels
63. A patient is on regular chronic therapy with Leuprolide. Which of the following effects could
 result?
a. Increased GnRH receptors
b. Increased gonadotropin release
c. Decreased gonadotropin release
d. Reinitiation of menstrual cycles
e. Pituitary Stimulation
64. A patient is suffering from endometriosis. This may be treated with any of the following agents
except:
a. Leuprolide
b. A progestin
c. Danazol
d. Mestranol
e. Gonadorelin
65. A woman in her post-menopausal stage is suffering from osteoporosis. Which of the following
drugs would be most effective in relieving osteoporosis in this patient?
a. Clomiphene
b. Ethinyl Estradiol
c. Tamoxifen
d. Norethindrone
e. Progesterone