Gpat Opat Omae Microbio COMPILATION

GEN.
PATHO/ OPATH/ MICROBIO- REVALIDA 1-37 APRIL 11, 2021
1. In which of the following mycotic infections are the organisms characteristically found
within the reticuloendothelial cells?
a. Histoplasmosis
b. Blastomycosis
c. Blastomycosis and Aspergillosis
d. Candidiasis
e. Aspergillosis
2. Lymphatic nodules are formed in the following lymphoid organs, except
a. Peyer's patch
b. Lymph node
c. Thymus
d. Tonsils
e. spleen
3. Which of the following is useful in differentiating between Salmonella typhi and Escherichia
coli?
a. Fermentation of lactose
b. Test of motility
c. Phenylalanine deaminase
d. Urease test
e. Production of acid from glucose
4. Enamel contains:
a. 96% inorganic material

b. 70% inorganic material
c. 30% inorganic material
d. 100% inorganic material
5. Which of the following is the most numerous group of microorganisms in the oral cavity?
a. Enterococci
b. Facultative streptococci
c. Anaerobic streptococci
d. Aerobic streptococci
e. Beta-hemolytic streptococci
6. The core of a cilium is composed of:
a. Tonofilaments
b. Microvilli
c. Microfibrils
d. Microtubules
e. microfilaments
7. A patient has two or more of her teeth joined only by cementum. This phenomenon is known
as:
a. Hypercementosis
b. Concrescence
c. Gemination
d. fusion
8. What kind of immunity would result in a susceptible person given tetanus antitoxin?
a. Natural, passive
b. Artificial, passive
c. Natural, active
d. Artificial, active
9. Each of the following structures is bound by a membrane, except:
a. Lysosome
b. Nucleolus
c. Mitochondria
d. Nucleus
e. Pinocytotic vesicle
10. Shock during infection with the gram-negative bacteria is most likely caused by:
a. A capsular antigen
b. A flagellar antigen
c. Ribonuclease
d. An exotoxin
e. An endotoxin
11. Which of the following forms of oral ulcerations involves oral, ocular and genital lesions?
a. Recurrent aphthous
b. Herpetiform and recurrent aphthous
c. Behcet’s
d. Herpetiform
12. The submucosa is present in each of the following, except:
a. Duodenum
b. Jejunum
c. Colon
d. Gallbladder
e. Stomach
13. Antibiotics are obtained from growth of:
a. Bacteria and fungi

b. Mycoplasma and rickettsiae
c. Tissue cell culture
d. Bacteria, fungi and spirochetes
e. Fungi and virus
14. Genetic disorders influencing permanent teeth eruption:
1. `genetic disorders influencing permanent teeth eruption

2. Apert syndrome
3. cherubism
a. 1&2
b. 1&3
c. 2&3
d. 1, 2 & 3
15. The following are characteristics of bronchioles, except?
a. Segmented cartilage plates

b. Absence of glands
c. Ciliated columnar cells
d. Irregularly shaped lumen
e. Complete ring of smooth muscle
16. The following are characteristics of spleen, except:
a. Presence of blood-forming tissues

b. Cortex has lymphatic nodules
c. Capsule has smooth muscle fibers
d. Billroth cords
e. Periarterial lymphatic sheath
17. MOST viral antigens of diagnostic importance are:
a. Proteins
b. Polysaccharides
c. Nucleic acid
d. Lipids
e. Lipopolysaccharides
18. Known as proliferation stage:
a. Bell stage
b. Cap stage
c. Bud stage
d. Cap, bell, bud stage
19. A rhabdomyosarcoma is a malignant neoplasm derived from:
a. Striated muscle tissue

b. The blood vessels
c. The nerve tissue
d. Smooth muscle tissue
20. In the digestive tract, glands in the submucosa are round only in:
a. Duodenum and jejunum

b. Liver and gallbladder
c. Stomach and esophagus
d. Liver and pancreas
e. Esophagus and duodenum
21. Tunica media of blood vessels is generally made up of:
a. Loose areolar tissue

b. Smooth muscle and elastic fibers
c. Fibrous tissue
d. All of the choices
e. Collagen bundles
22. A cigarette-smoking patient notices a gradual onset of progressive, labored breathing

characterized by prolonged, expiratory effort. The most likely diagnosis is:
a. Bronchopneumonia
b. carcinoma of the lung
c. chronic bronchitis
d. left sided heart failure with pulmonary congestion and edema
e. pulmonary emphysema
23. Dry heat destroys microorganisms primarily by:
a. lysis
b. precipitation of salts
c. oxidation
d. coagulation of protein
e. acceleration of enzyme metabolism
24. A zoonotic disease that spread among cattle, sheep and wild animals by tics and acquired
by humans through inhalation of the airborne organism, Coxiella Burnetii
a. Rocky Mountain Spotted fever

b. Epidemic Typhus fever
c. Human Q Fever
d. fever blister
e. African swine fever
25. In which of the following do adenomatoid odontogenic tumors most often occur?
a. Anterior maxilla
b. Anterior mandible
c. Posterior maxilla
d. Posterior mandible
26. Gustatory sweating is the chief symptom in
a. Bell’s palsy
b. orolingual paresthesia
c. Menlere’s disease
d. auriculotemporal syndrome
e. glossopharyngeal neuralgia
27. The wound is ‘rebuilt’ with new granulation tissue and a new network of blood vessels
develop.
a. Hemostasis
b. Remodelling
c. Inflammation
d. Proliferation
28. Which of the following is a soft tissue cyst?

a. Incisive canal cyst
b. Nasopalatine cyst
c. Nasolabial cyst
d. Median alveolar cyst
29. Tooth is derived from the:
a. Ectoderm only
b. Mesoderm and endoderm
c. Ectoderm and mesoderm
d. Mesoderm only
30. The most serious immunodeficiency disorders is:
a. Ataxia-telangiectasia
b. hyper-IgE syndrome
c. Severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID)
d. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
31. Areas of hypersegmentation of the skin of the axilla, ther neck and the groin with marked
hyperkeratosis and papillomatosis which may be indicative of internal malignancy are the
characteristics of
a. acanthosis nigricans
b. malignancy melanoma
c. junctional nevus
d. pigmented squamous cell carcinoma
e. basal cell carcinoma
32. Which of the following is not a category of external resorption?
a. Inflammatory
b. Regenerative
c. Replacement
d. surface
33. The biological purpose of meiosis is to maintain in somatic cells:
a. 46 pairs of chromosomes
b. 23 chromosomes
c. haploid number of chromosomes
d. none of the above
e. diploid number of chromosomes
34. Which of the following is the single most numerous group of microorganisms in the oral
cavity?
a. Enterococci
b. Anaerobic streptococci
c. Beta-hemolytic streptococci
d. Facultative streptococci
35. Defensive cells of the pulp that usually acts as macrophages:
a. histiocytes
b. resting wandering cells
c. undifferentiated mesenchymal cells and fibroblasts
d. Fibroblasts
e. undifferentiated mesenchymal cells
36. Which of the following is most likely to be cultured from chronic bilateral ulcerations at the
corners of the mouth?
a. Mucor
b. Treponema
c. Candida
d. Brucella
e. Aspergillus
37. Persons having anti-A and anti-B isoagglutinins in their serum belong in the blood group:
a. B
b. AB
c. O
d. A
38. The walls of the pulmonary alveoli are line with:
a. Simple squamous
b. Pseudostratified epithelium
c. Simple cuboidal
d. Stratified squamous
39. Staphylococci are characteristically grouped in:
a. Irregular clusters
b. Tetrads
c. Chains
d. Palisade arrangement
e. pairs
40. Microorganisms of which the following general are most predominant in the normal oral
flora?
a. Streptococcus
b. Lactobacillus
c. Bacillus
d. Staphylococcus
e. corynebacterium
41. What type of epithelium is one cell layer thick?
a. Stratified
b. Simple
c. Cuboidal
d. squamous
42. The interstitial tissue of the testi contains
a. Spermatogenic cells
b. All of the choices
c. None of the choices
d. Leydig cells
e. Sertoli cells
43. Which of the following represents the main support of the wall of a bronchus?
a. Elastic membrane
b. Elastic and collagenous connective tissue
c. Hyaline cartilage
d. Smooth muscle
e. Dense irregular connective tissue
44. Hypertensive heart disease is consistently associated with which of the following anatomic
findings?
a. Tricuspid stenosis
b. Left ventricular hypertrophy
c. Aortic stenosis
d. Pericardial effusion
e. Right ventricular hypertrophy
45. The renal corpuscle is made up of:
a. Glomerulus and Bowman’s capsule

b. Collecting tubules
c. All of the choices
d. Convoluted tubules
e. Loops of Henle
46. A virus which persists in the oral tissue throughout the life of most individuals is:
a. Varicella virus
b. Herpes zoster virus
c. Rubella virus
d. Herpes simplex virus
47. A tropical disease characterized by frambesiomas and gangosa which shows many
resemblances to syphilis.
a. Yaws
b. Chlamydia
c. Gonorrhea
d. pinta
48. Which of the following laboratory results is diagnostic of acute pancreatitis?
a. Decreased albumin
b. Elevated alkaline phosphatase
c. Elevated serum amylase
d. Elevated serum lipase
e. Decreased serum amylase
49. Most predominant microorganisms in the normal oral flora?
a. Lactobacillus
b. Corynebacterium
c. Staphylococcus
d. Streptococcus
e. Bacillus
50. A chronic obstructing fibrosis of the lymph nodes caused by the organism,
Wuchereriabancrofti or by Brugia Malayi
a. schistosomiasis
b. filariasis
c. ancylostomiasis
d. ascariasis
e. pediculosis
51. All are undergoing changes in the plasma membrane with cell injury, except:
a. Loosening of intracellular attachments

b. Blunting of microvilli
c. Formation of cytoplasmic blebs
d. Swelling
e. Detachment of ribosomes
52. Immediate phase of wound healing; occurs during dental surgical procedures.
a. Hemostasis
b. Inflammation
c. Remodelling
d. proliferation
53. Which of the following reactive lesions of the gingival tissue reveals bone formation
microscopically?
a. Osteoma
b. Peripheral ossifying fibroma
c. Traumatic neuroma
d. Irritation fibroma
54. Most antibodies are produced in the:
a. Heart and the liver

b. Thymus and the appendix
c. Spleen and the lymph nodes
d. Brain and the meninges
e. Upper and lower G.I. Tract
55. A lysogenic bacterium is one that:
a. Produces properdin
b. Lyses red cells
c. Produces spheroplasts when incubated anaerobically
d. Produces lecithinase when incubated anaerobically
e. Harbors a temperate bacteriophage
56. Acute osteomyelitis is most frequently caused by which of the following microorganisms?
a. Gonococcus
b. streptococcus
c. Enterococcus
d. staphylococcus
57. Bacterial capsules usually consists of:
a. Polypeptides
b. Chitins
c. Polysaccharides
d. cellulose
58. An individual that presents with keratoconjunctivitis, parotid gland enlargement and a
positive Rh factor is most likely to be diagnosed with:
a. Polyarteritis nodosa
b. Rheumatoid arthritis
c. Reiter’s syndrome
d. Sjogren's syndrome
e. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
59. Tuberculosis of the vertebrae or of the spine is called
a. scrofula
b. tabes mesenterica
c. tabes dorsalis
d. Pott’s disease
e. Tabes Spinae
60. The following are characteristics of thymus, except:
a. Lymphocytes are abundant in the cortex

b. None of the choices
c. Presence of Hassall’s bodies
d. Each lobule has cortex and medulla
e. Entire organ has cortex and medulla
61. Each of the following cell types secretes the substance with which it is paired, except:
a. Chromaffin cells of the suprarenal- catecholamine

b. Corpus luteum- progesterone
c. Alpha cells of the pancreas-glucagon
d. Sertoli’s cells-testosterone
62. Which of the following are viral diseases?
1. Mumps
2. Influenza
3. Scarlet fever
4. Herpes simplex
5. Whooping cough
a. 1&5
b. 2,3 & 5
c. 2, 4 & 5
d. 1, 2 & 4
e. 1&3
63. Tissues formed from the fusion of the maxillary and medial nasal process:
a. Palatine shelves
b. Primary palate
c. Secondary palate
d. Branchial arch
64. Mycotic organisms are characteristically found microscopically within reticuloendothelial

cells in:
a. Mucormycosis
b. Candidiasis
c. Aspergillosis
d. Histoplasmosis
65. Which of the following genera MOST frequently develops resistance to penicillin?
a. Staphylococcus
b. Actinomyces
c. Streptococcus
d. Treponema
e. Neisseria
66. Organisms belonging to which of the following genera can tolerate the lowest pH?
a. Staphylococcus
b. Lactobacillus
c. Bacteroides
d. Streptococcus
e. veillonella
a. Nucleus
b. Mitochondria
c. Lysosome
d. Pinocytotic vesicle
e. nucleolus
68. Dens invaginatus (dens in dente) occurs most commonly in which teeth?
a. Maxillary and mandibular lateral incisors

b. Maxillary lateral incisors
c. Maxillary canines
d. Mandibular first premolars
69. Systemic inflammatory disease with acute febrile attacks that occurs in the heart with
characteristic Aschoff nodules.
a. Impetigo contagiosa
b. Rheumatic fever
c. Scarlet fever
d. Erysipelas
e. Epidemic spotted fever
70. Wirtz Conklin is a special stain used to demonstrate:
a. Flagella
b. Capsule
c. Spore
d. Flagella and capsule
71. Which of the following acids is the chief product of carbohydrate metabolism of
Streptococcus mutans?
a. Propionic
b. Formic
c. Lactic
d. Acetic
e. butyric
72. Death of the odontoblasts usually results to:
a. Sclerotic dentin
b. Dead tracts formation
c. Tertiary dentin
d. Reparative dentin formation
e. Transparent dentin formation
73. The following are characteristics of trachea, except:
a. Muco-serous glands
b. Ciliated pseudostratified with goblet cells
c. None of the choice
d. C-shaped hyaline cartilages
e. Trachealis muscle
74. A disease of childhood characterized by mental retardation, delayed growth, and delayed
tooth eruption:
a. Testicular hormone
b. Oxytocin
c. Growth hormone
d. Mineralocorticoids
e. Thyroid hormone
75. An maculopapular rash caused by obligate intracellular organism that is transmitted from
human to human by body lice is:
a. Rheumatic fever
b. Scarlet fever
c. Typhoid fever
d. Winter fever
e. Epidemic typhus fever
76. Cells are involved in active growth and early keratin synthesis:
a. Stratum spinosum
b. All of the choices
c. Keratin layer
d. Stratum granulosum
e. Stratum basale
77. White matter of the spinal cord consists chiefly of which of the following?
a. Unmyelinated axons
b. Loose connective tissue
c. Myelinated axons
d. Nerve cell bodies
e. perineurium
78. In adult cells, the regressive change shown by variation in their size, shape and orientation
is known as:
a. Hyperplasia
b. Aplasia
c. Metaplasia
d. Dysplasia
e. Anaplasia
79. These are non calcified cementum:
a. Cementoid and cellular cementum

b. Cellular cementum
c. Amyloid
d. Cementoid
e. dentinoid
80. A sudden increase in the severity of the signs and symptoms during the course of a disease
is called:
a. Exacerbation
b. Complication
c. Sequel
d. Lesion
e. remission
a. Lysis
b. Coagulation of protein
c. Precipitation of salts
d. Acceleration of enzyme metabolism
e. oxidation
82. When this enzyme, lipase escapes into fatty depots, it will give rise to:
a. Coagulative necrosis
b. Gangrene necrosis
c. Caseous necrosis
d. Enzymatic fat necrosis
83. This disease refers to iron overload associated with organ failure.
a. Siderosis
b. Hemosiderosis
c. Hemoglobinuria
d. Hemochromatosis
e. Biliary pigmentation
84. What histologic feature differentiates a periapical granuloma from a periapical cyst?
a. Presence of lymphocytes
b. Presence of an epithelial line cavity
c. Presence of mast cells
d. Presence of plasma cells
85. A dark striae of retzius that occurs at the time of birth.
a. Enamel tuft
b. Neonatal line
c. DEJ
d. Gnarled enamel
e. Enamel lamellae
86. Infection of the kidney is usually caused by:
a. Traumatic introduction of bacteria

b. Septic emboli
c. Bacteria from the large bowel migrating to the kidney through retroperitoneal
lymphatics
d. Bacteria ascending from the lower urinary tract
e. Bacteria in the bloodstream
87. It is possible to distinguish histologically between the stomach and the duodenum because
of the presence of:
a. Mucosal glands in the stomach only

b. Submucosal glands in the duodenum only
c. Simple columnar epithelium lining the stomach only
d. Muscularis mucosa in the stomach only
e. Smooth muscle in the external musculature of the duodenum only
88. Glycocalyx is located:

a. None of the choices
b. Internal to nucleolemma
c. Within the plasma membrane
d. External to plasma lemma
e. External to nucleolemma
89. An organism which thrives in a 8.5 % NaCl solution is said to be:
a. Bacteriostatic
b. Antagonistic
c. Thermophilic
d. Pleomorphic
e. Halophilic
90. A child has a history of generalized growth failure (failure to thrive) during the first six
months of his life. Which of the following sequela is likely in this child?
a. enamel hypoplasia
b. retrusive mandible
c. retrusive midface
d. small permanent teeth
e. dentinogenesis imperfecta
91. The bacterial population in the gingival sulcus or the pocket that influences the courses of
periodontal disease involves:
a. Essentially a pure culture

b. Essentially the same organisms found in the healthy sulcus
c. Mostly aerobic bacteria
d. Organisms that are not usually found in the healthy sulcus
e. Bacteria not indigenous to the oral cavity
92. A low grade indolent infection caused by an obligate intracellular parasite with a strong
tropism for macrophages and Schwann cells and affects primarily the cooler areas of the body
like the skin and the peripheral nerves
a. tuberculosis
b. syphilis
c. leprosy
d. gonorrhea
e. diphtheria
93. One of the distinguishing characteristics of all viruses is:
a. Growth in cell-free medium

b. Failure to grow in the absence of living cells
c. Absence to nucleic acids
d. Adaptability to external environment
e. Constant route of infection
94. An infectious disease caused by a fungus which spreads from the lungs to the brain and
CNS, skin, skeletal system and urinary tract, characterized by development of tumors filled with
gelatinous material in visceral and subcutaneous tissues
a. candidiasis
b. cryptococcosis
c. actinomycosis
d. thrush
e. amebiasis
95. All of the following are DNA viruses except:
a. Coronaviridae
b. Hepadnaviridae
c. Adenoviridae
d. Poxviridae
e. Herpesviridae
96. In glycogen nephrosis, a complication of diabetes mellitus wherein the glycogen Infiltration
occurs in the
a. distal convoluted tubule

b. loop of Henle
c. glomerular tuft
d. proximal convoluted tubule
e. Bowman’s capsule
97. Which of the following forms of connective tissue has a preponderance of amorphous
ground substance over fibers?
a. Cartilage
b. Loose
c. Dense, irregularly arranged
d. Reticular
e. Dense, regularly arranged
98. This causes the changes in the coloration of the enamel.
a. Water
b. DEJ
c. Enamel tuft
d. Enamel lamellae
e. Striae of Retzius
99. Which of the following cell types is associated with antibody formation?
a. Basophil
b. Neutrophil
c. Plasma cell
d. Eosinophil
e. monocyte
100. Malignant malaria is caused by:
a. Plasmodium malariae
b. Plasmodium vivax
c. Plasmodium falciparum
d. Plasmodium ovale
GEN. PATHO/ OPATH/ MICROBIO- REVALIDA MAY 3, 2021
1. What type of tissue lines the esophagus?
a. Simple columnar epithelium

b. Simple cuboidal epithelium
c. Stratified squamous epithelium
d. Transitional epithelium
e. Simple squamous epithelium
2. Which of the following muscle tissues have the greatest chance for regeneration after
healing?
a. Skeletal muscle
b. Both smooth and cardiac muscle
c. Smooth muscle
d. Cardiac muscle
3. What is another term for an acinar gland?
a. Tubuloalveolar
b. Tubular
c. Simple gland
d. Compound gland
e. alveolar
4. What type of epithelium appears stratified, but is not?
a. Endothelium
b. Mesothelium
c. Epithelioid tissue
d. Transitional
e. pseudostratified
5. Which of the following explains why the Barr body found in certain epithelial cells is
significant?
a. It suggests mitotic activity.

b. It indicates protein synthesis.
c. It indicates a metaplasmic change.
d. It is a symptom of nuclear disintegration.
e. It assists in differentiating between the sexes.
6. What forms the striated border?
a. Cilia
b. Microvilli
c. Stereocillia
d. Keratinization
e. Microvilli and stereocilia
7. Which of the following groups of organs are all retro-peritoneal?
a. Kidney, transverse colon and ovary

b. Pancreas, transverse colon and descending colon
c. pancreas , stomach and ovary
d. Ureter, gallbladder, transverse colon
e. kidney , adrenal and rectum
a. Microfilaments
b. Tonofilaments
c. Microtubules
d. Microfibrils
e. microvilli
9. The basophils in the circulating blood are similar to which cell?
a. Platelet
b. Kupffer cell
c. Mast cell
d. macrophage
10. An active fibroblast is characterized by?
a. Abundant endoplasmic reticulum

b. Multiple nucleoli
c. An unusually large nucleus
d. A bloated appearance
e. A thick plasma membrane
11. Which of the following is NOT a cytoplasmic organelle?
a. Lysosome
b. Endoplasmic reticulum
c. DNA
d. Golgi apparatus
12. What type of epithelium is more than one layer thick?
a. Simple
b. Squamous
c. Cuboidal
d. Stratified
e. columnar
13. The formation of the secondary palate completes around:
a. 6th month
b. 3rd month
c. Between 2nd and 3rd month
d. 5th month
e. 4th month
14. What type of tissue lines blood vessels?

a. Simple cuboidal epithelium
b. Transitional epithelium
c. Simple columnar epithelium
d. Stratified squamous epithelium
e. Simple squamous epithelium
15. What is the collective name given to lifeless substances- such as yolk, fat and starch- that
may be stored in various parts of the cytoplasm?
a. ectoplasm
b. metaplasm
c. protoplasm
d. nucleoplasm
a. Collecting tubules
b. Convoluted tubules
c. Glomerulus and Bowman’s capsule
d. Loops of Henle
17. Which of the following is a pure serous gland?
a. Glands of brunner
b. Glands of von Ebner
c. Glands of Blandin-Nuhn
d. Sublingual gland
e. Submandibular gland
a. Sertolli’s cells-testosterone
b. Alpha cells of the pancreas-glucagon
c. Corpus luteum-progesterone
d. Chromaffin cells of the suprarenal-catecholamine
19. What are the characteristics of the cells in the epidermis of the skin?
a. Cilia
b. Stereocillia
c. Keratinization
d. microvilli
20. The nucleolus of a cell functions to:

a. synthesize t-RNA
b. synthesize r-RNA
c. synthesize m-RNA
d. synthesize DNA
21. Why are deeper carious lesions more injurious to the dental pulp?
a. Increased dentin permeability in deeper areas

b. Decreased density of dentinal tubules in deeper areas
c. Increased length of the dentinal tubules in deeper areas
d. Decreased diameter of dentin tubules in deeper areas
22. Dentin tubules are S-shaped in the crown of the tooth due to the:
a. Formation of peritubular dentin

b. Calcification pattern of maturing dentin
c. Epithelial diaphragm
d. Incremental pattern
e. Crowding of odontoblasts
a. Transparent dentin formation

b. Dead tracts formation
c. Tertiary dentin
d. Reparative dentin formation
e. Sclerotic dentin
24. At what week does the tongue begin to develop?
a. 3rd week
b. 6th week
c. 4th week
d. 7th week
e. 5th week
25. The cribriform plate:
a. Does not contain bundle bone

b. Is avascular
c. Is compact bone
d. Is spongy bone
e. Is supporting bone
26. Compared with intertubular dentin, peritubular dentin is characterized by which of the
following?
a. Greater sustainability
b. Greater content of inorganic salts
c. Higher quantity of fluids
d. Greater content of large collagen fibers
e. Lesser content of inorganic salts
27. Which of the following is derived from ectomesenchyme?
a. Stratum intermedium
b. Reduced enamel epithelium
c. Stellate reticulum
d. Odontoblasts
e. ameloblasts
28. Which of the following dentat entities is derived from the mesoderm?
a. Dental lamina
b. Permanent anlage
c. Lamina propia
d. Enamel spindle
e. Vestibular lamina
29. What type of collagen is the most prominent found in the dental pulp?
a. Type IV
b. Type III
c. Type I
d. Type II
30. Development of the body of the mandible involves:
a. Intramembranous bone development

b. A complete cartilage model
c. Reichert’s cartilage
d. A complete cartilage model and reichert’s cartilage
31. Kroff’s fibers are
a. Intracellular
b. Related to reticular fibers
c. The same as enamel spindles
d. Found in odontoblastic processes
e. The same as the enamel tufts
a. Bud stage
b. Bell stage
c. Cap stage
d. Cap, bell, bud stage
33. During which of the following stages of tooth development does fused or geminated teeth
occur?
a. Calcification
b. Initiation and proliferation
c. Eruption and exfoliation
d. Apposition
34. What is anachoresis?
a. Artificial formation of an apical barrier

b. Induction of a biologic calcified apical barrier
c. Systemic infection resulting from infected pulp tissue
d. Microorganism transport from blood vessels into damaged tissue
35. Tooth formation is similar to exocrine gland formation in that:
a. A proliferation of basal cells occurs

b. The secretions both calcify and the cells retreat
c. The secretory cells are cuboidal
d. Both are formed mostly by ectoderm
e. The dental lamina is a hollow cord of cells
36. What is the usual sequence of events in the histogenesis of s tooth?
1.deposition of the first layer of enamel

2.deposition of the first layer of dentin
3.elongation of inner enamel epithelial cells
4.differentiation of odontoblasts
a. 1,2,3,4
b. 3,4,1,2
c. 3,4,2,1
d. 4,1,2,3
e. 4,3,2,1
37. Hertwig’s epithelial sheath plays an important role in the development of:
a. Roots
b. Crown
c. Pulp
d. Dentin
e. enamel
38. Cellular cementum and compact bone contain:
a. Sharpey’s fibers and elastic fibers

b. All of the choice
c. Collagen fibers and blood vessels
d. Lacunae and elastic fibers
e. Canaliculi and incremental lines
39. The thickness of coronal dentin in primary teeth, compared with that in corresponding
permanent teeth, is approximately:
a. one-fourth
b. one-half
c. one-third
d. one-fifth
e. same thickness
40. During which trimester of pregnancy does calcification of teeth begin?
a. First
b. third
c. Second
d. fourth
e. Fifth
41. All are undergoing changes in the plasma membrane with cell injury, except
a. swelling
b. formation of cytoplasmic blebs
c. blunting of microvilli
d. detachment of ribosomes
e. loosening of intracellular attachments
42. Which of the following is MOST characteristic of cervicofacial actinomycosis?

a. Incrustation of the skin of the cheek and neck
b. Enlarged cervical lymph nodes
c. Multiple abscesses with sinuses
d. Indurated nodules in the skin of the neck
e. Single or multiple ulcers
43. Which adaptive response is most likely to fit the description of the uterus during pregnancy?
a. Aplasia
b. Hyperplasia
c. Hypertrophy
d. Dysplasia
e. metaplasia

a. Bronchopneumonia
b. carcinoma of the lung
c. chronic bronchitis
d. left sided heart failure with pulmonary congestion and edema
e. pulmonary emphysema
45. The virus that causes acute herpetic gingivostomatitis is closely related to the virus that
causes
a. Mumps
b. measles
c. chickenpox
d. cat-scratch disease
46. The most serious immunodeficiency disorder is a:
a. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
b. Severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID)
c. Ataxia-Telangiectasia
d. Hyper-IgE syndrome
47. Acute leukemia may be characterized by which of the following?
1. Anemia
2. Thrombocytopenia
3. Prolonged bleeding time
4. Elevated leukocyte count
a. 1,3,4
b. 1,2,3,4
c. 3,4
d. 1,2
e. 2,3
48. Which of the following has been shown to have a relationship to carcinoma of the cervix?
a. Papovavirus
b. Herpesvirus hominis type II
c. Varicella-zoster virus
d. Herpesvirus hominis type I
49. Vitamin A functions to:
a. Maintain the integrity of connective tissues

b. Promote absorption of calcium
c. Promote differentiation of epithelial cells
d. Prevent pellagra
e. Maintain skin hue
50. A non-specific stomatitis with severe and painful ulcerations and bloody encrustations,
malaise, fever and photophobia with lesions often in the pharynx and accompanied by
generalized cutaneous eruptions, conjunctivitis and balanitis or vaginal ulcer in women are the
findings of :
a. Behcet’s syndrome
b. lupus erythematosus
c. Steven-Johnson syndrome
d. Reiter’s syndrome
e. Darier white disease
51. Which type of chromosome is usually missing from the cells of persons with Turner’s
syndrome?
a. An autosome
b. a sex chromosome
c. Chromosome 21
d. a “ring” chromosome
e. a group A chromosome
52. Lymphangioma is most closely related to
a. Hemangioma
b. cystic hygroma
c. Angiosarcoma
d. Hemangiopericytoma
53. The pulmonary neoplasm to which the endocrine effect of hyperparathyroidism is attributed
is:
a. Medullary carcinoma
b. Oat cell carcinoma
c. Pheochromocytoma
d. Adenocarcinoma
e. Squamous cell carcinoma
54. When this enzyme, lipase escapes into fatty depots, it will give rise to:
a. Enzymatic fat necrosis

b. Gangrene necrosis
c. Caseous necrosis
d. Coagulative necrosis
55. The MOST common cause for megaloblastic anemia is:
a. Gastric bleeding
b. Lack of dietary folic acid
c. Lack of absorption of vitamin B12
d. Lack of dietary iron
e. Lack of dietary pyridoxine
a. scrofula
b. tabes mesenterica
c. tabes dorsalis
d. Pott’s disease
e. tabe spinae
57. Rigor mortis occurs approximately in how many hours after death?
a. 1-2
b. 2-4
c. 6-8
d. 4-6
Wuchereriabancrofti or by Brugia Malayi
a. schistosomiasis
b. filariasis
c. ancylostomiasis
d. ascariasis
e. pediculosis
59. A two-year-old baby fractured his femur while crawling. He has pale blue sclera, porosity of
the long bones, is extremely fragile, and is deaf. He suffers from:
a. Osteogenesis imperfecta
b. Craniofacial dysostosis
c. Mandibulofacial dysostosis
d. Cleidocranial dysostosis
e. Albers-Schonberg disease
60. The deletion theory which is a widely accepted concept of carcinogenesis is based on:
a. Heredity
b. Viruses
c. Loss of control mechanisms
d. Induction of chemical carcinogens
e. DNA destruction
61. Stiffening or fixation of a tooth as the result of a disease process, with fibrous or bony union
or fusion.
a. Ectopic eruption
b. Eruption cysts
c. Ankylosis
d. impaction
62. The oral vesicular lesions of herpangina and hand-foot-mouth disease are caused by:
a. Respiratory syncytial virus

b. Epstein-barr virus
c. Varicella-zoster virus
d. Herpes simplex type 1
e. coxsackievirus
63. Clear Cell Odontogenic Tumor is a rare neoplasm of the mandible and maxilla and the
etiology is unknown.
a. if the first statement is correct and the second statement is incorrect
b. if the first statement is incorrect and the second statement is correct
c. if both statements are correct
d. if both statements are incorrect
64. The enlarged mandible of adults who have an eosinophilic adenoma of the pituitary is due
to:
a. Frohlich’s syndrome
b. Simmond’s disease
c. Addison’s disease
d. Cushing’s syndrome
e. Acromegaly
65. In which of the following do adenomatoid odontogenic tumors most often occur?
a. Posterior maxilla
b. Anterior mandible
c. Anterior maxilla
d. Posterior mandible
66. The use of the suffix “blastoma” in oral neoplasia means:
a. Made of immature cells

b. Slow growing
c. Malignant
d. Rapidly growing
e. Benign
67. Examination of a 6-year old girl discloses macroglossia on the left side of her tongue. It
displays a diffuse distribution of 2-3mm elevated, gary-pink nodules, some of which contain
fluid. The remainder of the oral cavity is normal. The most likely diagnosis is:
a. lymphangioma
b. neurofibromatosis
c. cystic hygroma
d. granular cell tumor
e. Sturge-Weber syndrome
68. Described as an out of place path of eruption that causes root resorption of a portion of the
adjacent primary tooth.
a. Eruption cyst
b. Ectopic eruption
c. Ankylosis
d. Impaction
69. A rhabdomyosarcoma is a malignant neoplasm derived from:
a. The blood vessels

b. Smooth muscle tissue
c. The nerve tissue
d. Striated muscle tissue
70. An individual with Addison’s disease is most likely to experience which of the following?
a. Decreased ACTH levels

b. Hypoglycemia
c. Hypernatremia
d. Water retention
e. weight gain
71. Which of the following are common sites of intraoral squamous cell carcinoma?
1. Hard palate
2. Tongue
3. Gingiva
4. Labial mucosa
5. Floor of the mouth
a. 2&5
b. 2, 3, & 4
c. 3, 4, & 5
d. 1, 2, & 3
e. 1 & 3 only
72. Biopsy of a smooth, red, protruding lesion at the tip of the tongue reveals a stratified
squamous epithelium covering loose, fibrous connective tissue that contains many thin-walled,
engorged, vascular spaces. The diagnosis is:
a. Peripheral giant cell granuloma

b. Granular cell tumor (myoblastoma)
c. Papilloma
d. Hemangioma
e. Fibroma
73. Which of the following characteristics most readily distinguishes amelogenesis imperfecta
from dentinogenesis imperfecta?
a. Color of the teeth
b. Associated hair loss
c. Radiographic appearance
d. Presence of blue sclera
e. Hereditary background
74. A maxillary first premolar shows a typical wedge-shaped notch from dentifrice abrasion. The
area is sensitive to scratching with an explorer. This may be explained as:
a. Hypersensitive cementum’
b. Hypersensitive dentin
c. Neuritis
d. Hypersensitive ename
e. None of the choices
75. The characteristics oral manifestation of agranulocytosis (malignant neutropenia) consists

of:
a. Gingival hyperplasia
b. Ulceration of oral mucosa and gingiva
c. Acute stomatitis
d. Multiple palatal petechiae
76. Periapical cemento osseous dysplasia features include the following except:
a. usually involves more than one tooth

b. usually involves maxillary anterior teeth
c. involved tooth or teeth retain its vitality
d. initial lesion presents as radiolucency
77. A patient complains of severe pain and fever. A poorly circumscribed radiolucency of the
body of the mandible with a central sclerotic nidus is detected. The disease is probably:
a. osteosarcoma
b. ameloblastoma
c. osteomyelitis
d. fibrous dysplasia
e. ossifying fibroma
78. Chondrosarcoma more often involves the mandible and both gender affects with equal
distribution.
a. if the first statement is correct and the second statement is incorrect
b. if the first statement is incorrect and the second statement is correct
c. if both statements are correct
d. if both statements are incorrect
79. In osteogenesis imperfecta, the maxilla and mandible:
a. The teeth have elongated roots

b. Show failure in eruption of teeth
c. Show complete anodontia
d. Are easily fractured because they are thin
e. Contain well-calcified teeth
80. Of the following, which is most likely to recur after initial surgery?
a. Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor

b. Ameloblastoma
c. Cementoblastoma
d. Ameloblastic fibroma
e. Complex odontoma
81. High levels of Porphyromonas gingivalis-specific antibodies are seen in most adult
periodontitis. These antibodies are which of the following?
a. IgE
b. IgD
c. IgG
d. IgA
e. IgM
82. Which of the following bacterial exotoxins converts plasminogen to plasmin?
a. M-protein
b. Plasmolysis
c. Coagulase
d. Hyaluronidase
e. Streptokinase
83. A number of fungi that commonly cause superficial skin infections belong to the genus:
a. Aspergillus
b. Histoplasma
c. Blastomyces
d. Coccidioides
e. Trichophyton
84. Gram positive bacteria have been demonstrated:
1. To have a higher occurrence in post-instrumentation samples

2. To be more resistant to antimicrobial treatments
3. To able to adapt to harsh environmental conditions
a. 1 & 2
b. 1, 2 & 3
c. 2 & 3
d. 1 & 3
85. What kind of immunity would result in a susceptible person given tetanus antitoxin?
a. Natural, passive
b. Artificial, active
c. Artificial, passive
d. Natural, active
86. Type of organism needing small amounts of oxygen for existence is known as?
a. Obligate anaerobe
b. Microaerophile
c. Obligate aerobe
d. Facultative aerobe
87. Antibiotics are obtained from growth of:
a. Bacteria and fungi

b. Fungi and virus
c. Bacteria, fungi and spirochetes
d. Mycoplasma and rickettsiae
e. Tissue cell culture
88. The most likely source of bacteria found in diseased periodontal tissue?
a. Sub and supra gingival plaque

b. Serum
c. Saliva
d. Supragingival plaque
e. Subgingival plaque
89. Protection against encapsulated bacterial pathogens is mediated mainly by:
a. Cellular immunity
b. Non-specific anatomic barriers
c. Cellular and humoral immunity
d. Humoral immunity
90. Which of the following is not considered a natural or acquired discoloration source?
a. Calcific metamorphosis
b. Intrapulpal hemorrhage
c. Tetracycline stain
d. Stain from amalgam
91. Which of the following is the single most numerous group of microorganisms in the oral
cavity?
a. Beta-hemolytic streptococci
b. Facultative streptococci
c. Anaerobic streptococci
d. enterococci
92. Persons having anti-A and anti-B isoagglutinins in their serum belong in the blood group:
a. AB
b. A
c. O
d. B
93. Shock during infection with gram-negative bacteria is most likely caused by:
a. A capsular antigen
b. A flagellar antigen
c. Ribonuclease
d. An endotoxin
e. An exotoxin
94. In which of the following mycotic infections are the organisms characteristically found within
the reticuloendothelial cells?
a. Aspergillosis
b. Histoplasmosis
c. Candidiasis
d. Blastomycosis and aspergillosis
e. blastomycosis
95. Which of the following is an example of natural passive immunity?
a. Vaccination with dead organisms

b. Placental transfer of mother’s antibody
c. Treatment with antibiotics
d. Injection of gamma globulin’
96. Which of the following is most likely to be cultured from chronic bilateral ulcerations at the
corners of the mouth?
a. Mucor
b. Treponema
c. Aspergillus
d. Brucella
e. candida
97. Which of the following genera MOST frequently develops resistance to penicillin?
a. Staphylococcus
b. Streptococcus
c. Actinomyces
d. Treponema
e. Neisseria
98. A lysogenic bacterium is one that:
a. Harbors a temperate bacteriophage

b. Produces spheroplasts when incubated anaerobically
c. Produces properdin
d. Lyses red cells
e. Produces lecithinase when incubated anaerobically
99. The major cariogenic property of Streptococcus mutans is associated with its ability to
produce which of the following enzymes?
a. Glucosyltransferase
b. Aminopeptidase
c. Chondroitinase
d. Fructosyltransferase
e. hyaluronidase
100. An Rh-negative mother delivered a normal first child. Her second child developed
symptoms of erythroblastosis fetalis. Which of the following can be concluded?
a. The first baby is Rh-negative

b. The mother has very high levels of serum complement and anti-Rh IgE
c. The first baby is a girl; the second baby is a boy
d. None of the choices
e. The father is Rh-negative
Centro Escolar University

School of Dentistry
PRE-BOARD THEORETICAL EXAMINATION
GENERAL AND ORAL MICROSCOPIC ANATOMY & EMBRYOLOGY;

GENERAL AND ORAL PATHOLOGY; MICROBIOLOGY
1. It is possible to distinguish histologically between the stomach and the duodenum

because of the presence of:
A. mucosal glands in the stomach only
B. submucosal glands in the duodenum only
C. simple columnar epithelium lining the stomach only
D. muscularis mucosa in the stomach only
E. smooth muscle in the external musculature of the duodenum only.
A. smooth muscle C. elastic membrane
B. hyaline cartilage D. dense irregular connective tissue
E. elastic and collagenous connective tissue
significant?
A. It suggests mitotic activity. D. It indicates protein synthesis.
B. It indicates a metaplasmic change. E. It is a symptom of nuclear disintegration.
C. It assists in differentiating between the sexes.
4. Which of the following characteristics most readily distinguishes amelogenesis

imperfecta from dentinogenesis imperfecta?
A. Radiographic appearance C. Presence of blue sclera
B. Hereditary background D. color of the teeth E. associated hair
loss
5. During which of the following stages of tooth development does fused or geminated
teeth occur?
A. Apposition C. Eruption and exfoliation
B. Calcification D. initiation & proliferation
6. The thickness of coronal dentin in primary teeth, compared with that in corresponding
permanent teeth, is approximately:
A. one-fourth C. one-half
B. one-third D. one-fifth E. same thickness
7. In the normal dental pulp, which of the following histologic features is (are) the least
likely to appear?
A. Cell-free zone of Weil C. Lymphocytes and plasma cells
B. Palisade odontoblastic layer D. undifferentiated mesenchymal cells
8. Which of the following anomalies can occur with a disturbance during the initiation and
proliferation stages in tooth development?
A. Size B. number C. Shape D. calcification

following?
A. Greater stainability D. Greater content of inorganic salts
B. Higher quantity of fluids E. Greater content of large collagen fibers.
C. Lesser content of inorganic salts
10. Which of the following dental entities is derived from the mesoderm?
A. dental lamina C. enamel spindle
B. vestibular lamina D. permanent anlage E. lamina propria
11. Enamel spindles are formed by

A. cracks C. odontoblasts
B. ameloblasts D. hypoplastic rods E. hypocalcified rods
12. Which of the following microorganisms is the most commonly associated with root
surface caries?
A. Actinomyces viscosus C. Streptococcus salivarius
B. Streptococcus murtans D. Lactobacillus acidophilus
13. The thinnest epithelium of the oral cavity is found on the :

A. soft palate C. lingual gingiva
B. buccal gingival D. sublingual mucosa E. oral surface of lip

A. Reichert’s cartilage D. both B & C
B. A complete cartilage model E. none of these
C. Intramembranous bone development
15. Hypertensive heart disease is consistently associated with which of the following
anatomic findings?
A. aortic stenosis C. left ventricular hypertrophy
B. tricuspid stenosis D. right ventricular hypertrophy E. pericardial effusion
16. Reddish-purple discoloration of the skin, about 2-3 hours after death is
A. autolysis B. algor mortis C. rigor mortis D. livor mortis E. all of
these.
17. The most commonly involved organ in enzymatic fat necrosis is the:
A. brain B. skin C. pancreas D. bone E. heart
18. Which of the following layers is thickest in veins:

A. tunica intima C. tunica adventitia
B. tunica media D. vasa vasorum E. nervi vasorum
19. In the digestive tract, glands in the submucosa are found only in:
A. duodenum & jejunum C. stomach & esophagus
B. liver & gall bladder D. esophagus & duodenum E. liver and
pancreas
20. An individual that presents with keratoconjunctivitis, parotid gland enlargement and a
positive Rh factor is most likely to be diagnosed with:
A. Polyartenitis nodosa C. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Reiter’s syndrome D. Sjogrens syndrome E. Systemic Lupus
Erythematosis
21. Reed-Sternberg cell is characteristic of which type of lymphoma?

A. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma C. Hodgkin’s disease
B. Burkitt’s lymphoma D. Mycosis fungoides
22. Which of the following is the most common malignancy found in bone?
A. Osteosarcoma C. multiple myeloma
B. Acute leukemia D. squamous carcinoma E. metastatic carcinoma
23. Which of the following tumors has the best prognosis for patient survival?
A. Hepatoma D. adenocarcinoma of the gallbladder
B. Melanoma of the gingival E. squamous cell carcinoma of the lip
C. Osteogenic sarcoma of the femur

A. Nasolabial cyst C. incisive canal cyst
B. Nasopalatine cyst D. median alveolar cyst E. median palatine cyst
25. Which of the following has the potential of undergoing “spontaneous” malignant
transformation?
A. Osteomalacia C. Paget’s disease of bone E. Osteogenesis
imperfecta
B. Albright’s syndrome D. von Recklinghausen’s disease of bone
26. Which of the following dental findings is frequently observed in cases of Paget’s
disease of bone?
A. Hypercementosis C. apical root resorption
B. Internal resorption D. widening of the periodontal ligament space
27. In which of the following do adenomatoid odontogenic tumors most often occurs?
A. Anterior maxilla B. Anterior mandible C. Posterior maxilla D. Posterior
mandible
A. Hemangioma B. cystic hygroma C. Angiosracoma D.
hemangiopericytoma
29. Metastatic carcinoma to the jaws is least likely to arise from the:
A. Brain B. breast C. kidney D. prostate E. lung
30. The function of lines of Owen :

A. Mark growth period of dentin C. mark degree in matrix calcification of
enamel
B. Mark growth period of enamel D. mark the degree in matrix calcification of
enamel
31. Under pits and fissures, the rods are arranged in a:

A. Horizontal mannerB. oblique manner C. tent-like manner
32. Yellow marrow consists of

A. osteoprogenitor cells C. blood cell progenitor cell E. hyaline cartilage
B. adipose D. spongy bone
33. Chondroblasts produce:

A. Basement membranes C. cartilage matrix
B. Bone matrix D. mesothelium E. endothelium
34. Goblet cells are associated with which of the following epithelial tissues?
A. Stratified cuboidal C. transitional
B. Simple squamous D. simple columnar E. stratified
squamous
35. Kuppffer cells:

A.Capillaries B. Sinusoids C. Liver D. Pituitary gland E.
Kidney
36. The index of red blood cell production or erythropoiesis is the:

A. Complete Blood Count C. Differential Count
B. RBD Count D. Reticulocyte Count E. WBC
Count.
37. All pertain to bone development and growth except:

A. bone has a canalicular system
B. bone can grow only by appositional process
C. Bone undergoes continuous process of reconstruction
D. bone is vascular or richly supplied by capillaries
E. bone can grow only by interstitial mechanism.
38. The most common peripheral retinal degeneration that may lead to retinal break is?
A. Cystoid degeneration C. retinoschisis
B. Pavingstone degeneration D. lattice degeneration E.
none of these
39. The majority of case of pharyngitis are caused by:
A. alpha-hemolytic streptococcus C. herpes simplex virus
B. Staphylococcus aureus D. hemophilusinfluenza E. a variety of
viruses
A. Acetic B. Formic C. Lactic D. Butyric E. Propionic
41. An organism which thrives in a 8.5% NaCL solution is said to be:

A. Halophilic C. bacteriostatic
B. Thermophilic D. antagonistic E. pleomorphic

A. Flagella B. capsule C. spore D. both A & B E. all
of these

A. Herpesviridae C. Poxviridae
B. Adenoviridae D. Hepadnaviridae E.
Coronaviridae
44. Which of the ffg are used in protective vaccines because they retain their antigenicity but
have lost their toxicity?
A. antitoxins C. toxoids
B. mycotoxins D. endotoxins E. none of these.
45. In Gaucher’s disease, the lipid stored in excess in the histiocytes and in RE cells is
A. cerebrosidekerasin C. cephalin
B. sphingomyelin D. cholesterol palmitate E.
glucocerebroside.
46. This is a primary skin lesion characterized as a circumscribed flat area less than 1 cm of
discoloration without elevation or depression of surface relative to surrounding skin
A. papule C. macule
B. pustule D. patch E. vesicle.
47. A chromosome mutation whereby the chromosome has lost one of its arms and
replaced it with an exact copy of the other arm
A. deletion C. duplication
B. isochromosome D. translocation E. dysjunction.
48. In glycogen nephrosis, a complication of diabetes mellitus wherein the glycogen

Infiltration occurs in the
A. distal convoluted tubule C. loop of Henle
B. glomerular tuft D. proximal convoluted tubule E. Bowman’s
capsule
A. swelling C. formation of cytoplasmic blebs
B. blunting of microvilli D. detachment of ribosomes
E. loosening of intracellular attachments.
50. In adult cells, the regressive change shown by variation in their size, shape and
orientation is known as
A. metaplasia C. anaplaisia
B. dysplasia D. aplasia E. hyperplasia.

A. Treatment with antibiotics D. Injection of gamma globulin
B. Vaccination with dead organisms E. Vaccination with live organisms
C. Placental transfer of mother’s antibody
A. an exotoxin C. ribonuclease
B. an endotoxin D. a capsular antigen E. a flagellar antigen

A. lysis C. precipitation of salts
B. oxidationD. coagulation of protein E. acceleration of enzyme metabolism

cells in;
A. candidiasis C. mucormycosis
B. aspergillosis D. histoplasmosis E. all of the above
55. Hepatitis B surface antigen in a patient’s serim indicates that the patient is:
A. recovered C. now an acceptable blood donor
B. potentially infectious D. immune to subsequent exacerbations of the
disease

A. humoral immunity C. non-specific anatomic barriers
B. cellular immunity D. none of these.
57. Malformation resulting from fusion between the maxillary and lateral nasal process.
A. Median cleft lip C. bilateral cleft lip
B. Macrostamia D. oblique facial cleft E. unilateral cleft lip
58. This outgrowth appears in the oral cavity that grows downward from the frontonasal
process along the midline:
A. nasal septum C. secondary palate
B. palatine shelves D. maxillary process E. mandible

A. 6th month C. 4th month
th
B. 5 month D. 3rd month E. between 2nd to 3rd month
60. This egg divides into two cells while resulting cells divide again and again.
A. zygote B. ovum C. sperm D. egg cell
E. gotus
A. DEJ C. enamel lamella
B. Stria of Retzius D. enamel tuft E. water
62. A dark stria of retzius that occurs at the time of birth.

A. Gnarled enamel C. neonatal line
B. Emanel lamella D. DEJ E. enamel tuft
63. This is not hypo-mineralized and the enamel rods are layed down in this pattern by
ameloblasts to make the enamel strong.
A. Neonatal line C. DEJ
B. Gnarled enamel D. enamel tuft E. enamel lamella
64. Enamel contains:

A. 96% inorganic material C. 30% inorganic material
B. 70% inorganic materials D. none of the choices.

A. reparative dentin formation C,.sclerotic dentin
B. dead tracts formation D. transparent dentin formation
E. tertiary dentin
65. Chromosomes are composed of:

A. RNA and DNA C. Protein and RNA
B. DNA and protein D. Lipids and phospholipids

A. synthesize t-RNA C. synthesize r-RNA
B. synthesize m-RNA D. synthesize DNA
67. Which cell is considered to be most versatile in the body?

A. macrophage B. hepatocyte C. kupffer cell D.
erythrocyte
68. Which cell present in mesenchyme and capable of differentiating into any of the special
types of connective tissue or supporting tissues, smooth muscles, vascular endothelium,
or blood cells?
A. alpha cells B. B cells C. mesenchymal cells D.
Leydig cells
69. All of the following conditions are associated with a prolonged bleeding time, except:
A. idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura D. hemophilia
B. von Willebrand’s disease E. long-term treatment with aspirin.
C. patients taking anticoagulants
70. Which of the following is also known as marble bone disease or Albers Schonberg
disease?
A. fibrous dysplasia C. osteopetrosis
B. osteogenesisimperfecta D. achondroplasia
71. Osgood-Schlatter disease is:
A. destruction of the growth plate in the neck of the tighbone.
B. inflammation of the bone and cartilage at the top of the shinbone
C. a relatively common condition in which backache and humpback are caused by
changes in the vertebrae
72. Which of the following is most likely to cause a sudden arrest of heart function?
A. Mitral stenosis C. constrictive pericarditis
B. Angina pectoris D. cardiac tamponade E. subacute bacterial
endocarditis
73. Which of the following represents the most frequent cause of a clinically palpable breast
mass in an adult women?
A. Sarcoma C. adenocarcinoma
B. Fibroadenoma D. fibrocystic disease E. intraductal
papilloma
74. An odontogenic lesion that contains ductlike or glandlike structures and seen in an age
range between 5 and 30 years old, very common to female and usually affects the
anterior maxillary:
A. ameloblastoma D. Pindborg tumor
B. clear cell odontogenic tumor E. squamous odontogenic tumor
C.. adenomatoid odontogenic tumor

75. It is composed of islands of tumor cells that mimic the normal dental follicle:
A.. plexiform ameloblastoma D. basaloid ameloblastoma
B. follicular ameloblastoma E. granular cell ameloblastoma
C. desmoplastic ameloblastoma

76. 3The following are true for Odontogenic Myxoma except:
A. no gender predilection C. multilocular and often has honeycomb
pattern
B. very common in the maxilla D. age between 10 to 50 yrs with mean age
30
77. Cementoblastoma:
A. True Cementoma C. very common to male
B. mandibular posterior region D. a and b E. a and c

78. Differential diagnosis for Osteblastoma except:
A. cementoblastoma C. odontogenic myxoma
B. ossifying fibroma D. fibrous dysplasia E.
osteosarcoma
79. Microorganisms of which the following genera are most predominant in the normal oral
flora?
A. Bacillus C. lactobacillus
B. Streptococcus D. staphylococcus E. corynebacterium
A. Gonococcus C, streptococcus
B. Enterococcus D. staphylococcus E. all of them
81. Which of the following is most likely to be cultured from chronic bilateral ulcerations at
the corners of the mouth?
A. Mucor C.. Treponema
B. Candida D. Brucella E. Aspergillus
82. A high titer of serum heterophile antibodies is found in patients with which of the
following conditions?
A. Hepatitis A C. Actinomycosis
B. Hepatitis B D. Herpes Zoster E. Infectious
mononucleosis
CNS, skin, skeletal system and urinary tract, characterized by development of tumors
filled with gelatinous material in visceral and subcutaneous tissues
A . candidiasis C. cryptococcosis
B. actinomycosis D. thrush E. amebiasis
Wuchereriabancrofti or by Brugiamalayi
A. schistosomiasis C filariasis
B. ancylostomiasis D. ascariasis E. pedinculosis.
84. Malignant malaria is caused by

A. Plasmodium malariae C. Plasmodium vivax
B. Plasmodoimfalcifarum D. Plasmodium ovale E. all of them.
85. A maculopapular rash caused by obligate intracellular organism that is transmitted from
human to human by body lice is
A. epidemic typhus fever C.typhoid fever
B. rheumatic fever D. scarlet fever E. winter fever.
86. A zoonotic disease that spread among cattle, sheep and wild animals by tics and
acquired by humans through inhalation of the airborne organism, Coxiellaburnetti
A. Rocky Mountain Spotted fever C. Epidemic Typhus fever
B. Human Q Fever D. fever blister E. all of
them.

A. scrofula C. tabesmesenterica
B. tebesdorsalis D. Pott’s disease E. tabesspinae.
tropism for macrophages and Schwann cells and affects primarily the cooler areas of the
body like the skin and the peripheral nerves
A. tuberculosis C. syphilis
B. leprosy D. gonorrhea E. diphtheria
89. Also known as the “Great Mimic Disease” because it simulates the clinical
manifestations of other infectious diseases
A. phthisis C. lues
B. syphilis D. both A and B E. both B and C.
resemblances to syphilis
A. pinta C. yaws
B. gonorrhea D. chlamydia E. all of them.
91. An acute contagious disease of childhood caused by an erythrotoxin-producing strain of

Group A hemolytic Streprococcus, characterized by irritability, sore throat, fever,
enlarged lymph nodes in the neck, and a diffused bright red rash
A. impetigo contagiosa C. scarlet fever
B. erysipelas D.German measles E. hemorrhagic
fever.
92. Which of the following is NOT primarily composed of connective tissue?

A. Bone marrow C. Articular cartilage
B. Heart D. Mesenchyme E. Fat
93. Which one of these cells is not a cell type routinely found in loose connective tissue?
A. Fibroblast C. Microglia
B. Histiocyte D. Plasma cell E. Mast cell
94. Which connective tissue cell is a tissue macrophage?

A. Fibroblast C. Myofibroblast
B. Histiocyte D. Plasma cell E. Mast cell

A. Bronchopneumonia D. carcinoma of the lung
B. chronic bronchitis E. left sided heart failure with pulmonary congestion
and edema
C. pulmonary emphysema
anatomic findings?
B . tricuspid stenosis D. right ventricular hypertrophy E. pericardial
effusion
97. The most aggressive type of bronchogenic carcinoma?

A. squamous cell carcinoma C. small cell carcinoma
B.adenocarcinoma D. large cell carcinoma
98. Differentiation is a measure of a tumor’s resemblance to normal tissue. Anaplasia is:

A. a high degree of differentiation C. a moderate degree of differentiation
B. the absence of differentiation D. total differentiation
99. Type of shock that is most often associated with severe trauma to the CNS?
A. hypovolemic shock C. neurogenic shock
B. cardiogenic shock D. anaphylactic shock E. septic shock
100. Most common bone lesion is a/an:

A.Osteochrondroma C. Osteoma
B. Fracture D. Osteoblastoma

School of Dentistry

Shade AE if the answer is not found in the given choices.
1. The development of the 2nd palate is characterized by the formation of what?

A. Two palatal shelves on the maxillary prominence C. Tuberculum impar
B. Two lateral lingual swellings D. Hypobrachial eminence
C. Median cleft lip C. bilateral cleft lip
D. Macrostamia D. oblique facial cleft E. unilateral cleft lip
3. This outgrowth appears in the oral cavity that grows downward from the frontonasal
process along the midline:

C. 6th month C. 4th month
D. 5th month D. 3rd month E. between 2nd to 3rd month
B. zygote B. ovum C. sperm D. egg cell E. gotus

C. DEJ C. enamel lamella
D. Stria of Retzius D. enamel tuft E. water
7. A dark stria of retzius that occurs at the time of birth.

C. Gnarled enamel C. neonatal line
D. Emanel lamella D. DEJ E. enamel tuft
8. This is not hypo-mineralized and the enamel rods are layed down in this pattern by
ameloblasts to make the enamel strong.
C. Neonatal line C. DEJ
D. Gnarled enamel D. enamel tuft E. enamel lamella
9. Enamel contains:

A. reparative dentin formation C,. sclerotic dentin
B. dead tracts formation D. transparent dentin formation E. tertiary
dentin
11. Hertwig’s epithelial sheath plays an important role in thedevelopment of:

A. Enamel B. dentin C. crown D. roots E. pulp
12. These are uncalcified cementum:

A. Amyloid B. cementoid C. dentinoid D. cellular cementum E both
B&D

A. Histiocytes C. resting wandering cells
B. Undifferentiated mesenchymal cells D. fibroblast E. both
B&D

A. Cap stage B. Bell stage C. Bud stage D. all these
15. At what week does the tongue begins to develop?

A. 4th week B. 5th week C. 6th week D. 7th week E. 3rd week
16. This structure developed between the tuberculum impar and cupula:
A. Hypobrachial eminence C. palatine tonsil
B. Lateral lingual swelling D. foramen ceacum E. both B & C
17. Cranial nerve that supply the mucosa of the posterior third of the tongue.
A. Hypoglossal B. glossopharyngeal C. trigeminal D.
vestibulocochlear
18. Clinical condition wherein the tongue is tied down to the floor of the mouth due to
excessive frenula:
A. Ankyloglossia B. microglossia C. bifid tongue D. median rhomboid glossitis
19. Tissue formed from the fusion of the maxillary and median nasal process:
A. Secondary palate B. primary palate C. palatine shelves D. brachial
arch
20. Tooth is derived from the:

A. Ectoderm only C. endoderm only
B. Mesoderm only D. mesoderm and endoderm E. ectoderm and
mesoderm
21. Granulation tissue is characterized by:
A. proliferation of new capillaries with fibroblasts and new collagen formation
B. giant cells and fibroblasts
C. giant cell and lymphocytes
D. giant cells, plasma cells and lymphocytes
E. neutrophils and necrotic tissue.
22. The ffg are characteristics of thymus, except:

A. entire organ has cortex and medulla C. presence of Hassall’s bodies
B. each lobule has cortex and medulla D. lymphocytes are abundant in the cortex
23. The ffg are characteristics of arteries, except:

A. tunica intima is scalloped after rigor mortis
B. wall appears rigid even after death
C. diameter of the lumen is lesser than the width of its wall
D. width of wall is lesser than diameter of lumen
24. These are unicellular mucous-secreting glands:

A. duodenal glands B. goblet cells C. esophangeal glands D. sertoli cells E. parietal
cells.
25. The interstitial tissue of the testi contains:

A. sertoli cells B. spermatogenic cells C. Leydig cells D. all of the cells

27. The ffg are characteristics of bronchioles, except:

A. segmented cartilage plates C. complete ring of smooth muscle
B. absence of glands D. irregularly shaped lumen E. ciliated columnar
cells.

A. Convoluted tubules C. glomerulus and Bowman’s capsule
B. Loops of Henle D. collecting tubules
29. The primary purpose of cilia in mammalian cells is to:

A. Move solids over their surface
B. Move fluid, mucous or cells over their surface
C. Absorb fluid, mucous or cells over their surface
D. Absprb solids and liquids over their surface
30. The basophils in the circulating blood are similar to which cell ?
A. platelet B. mast cell C. macrophage D. Kupffer cell
31. Which cell is committed to differentiate into antibody-producing plasma cells?

A. stern cell B. macrophage C. T cell D. B cell
.
32. A distinctive array of microtubules in the core of cilia and flagella comprised of a central
pair surrounded by a sheath of none doublet microtubules (characteristic “9+2” pattern)?
A. tubulin B. centriole C. axoneme D. malleolus
33. Which of the following is the cartilaginous bar of the first branchial arch?
A. Meckel’s cartilage B. Reichert’s cartilage C. John’s cartilage D. Smith’s cartilage
34. The Golgi apparatus functions to:

A. give form to the cell and control passage of materials in and out of the cell
B. serve as a matrix substance in which chemical reactions occur
C. synthesize complex structure carbohydrates molecules, which combine with protein
produced by rough endoplasmic reticulum to form secretory products
D. release energy from food molecules and transform energy to usable ATP.
35. What is the collective name given to lifeless substances- such as yolk, fat and starch-
that may be stored in various parts of the cytoplasm?
A. ectoplasm B. metaplasm C. protoplasm D. nucleoplasm
36. Which of the following is known as the sex chromatin body?

A. Golgi body B. Barr body C. Pineal body D. Lateral body
37. Chromosomes are composed of:

A. RNA and DNA C. Protein and RNA
B. DNA and protein D. Lipids and phospholipids

A. synthesize t-RNA B. synthesize r-RNA C. synthesize m-RNA D. synthesize
DNA
39. Which cell is considered to be most versatile in the body?

A. macrophage B. hepatocyte C. kupffer cell D. erythrocyte
40. Which cell present in mesenchyme and capable of differentiating into any of the special
types of connective tissue or supporting tissues, smooth muscles, vascular endothelium,
or blood cells?
A. alpha cells B. B cells C. mesenchymal cells D. Leydig cells
41. All of the following conditions are associated with a prolonged bleeding time, except:
A. idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura D. hemophilia
B. von Willebrand’s disease E. long-term treatment with aspirin.
C. patients taking anticoagulants
42. Which of the following is also known as marble bone disease or Albers Schonberg
disease?
A. fibrous dysplasia C. osteopetrosis
B. osteogenesis imperfecta D. achondroplasia
43. Osgood-Schlatter disease is:
A. destruction of the growth plate in the neck of the tighbone.
B. inflammation of the bone and cartilage at the top of the shinbone
C. a relatively common condition in which backache and humpback are caused by changes in
the vertebrae
D. a rare form of inflammation of bone and cartilage affecting one of the small bones in the foot.
44. Lymphomas principally involve which of the following?
A. lymph nodes B. spleen C. liver D. bone marrow E. all of the choices.
45. Neoplastic epidermal cells, often with keratin “pearls”, characterize which type of skin
cancer?
A. squamous cell carcinoma C. malignant melanoma
B. basal cell carcinoma D. all of the choices
46. An endocrine disorder affecting the skeleton and kidney, that promotes metastatic
calcification is:
A. Hyperadrenalism C. hyperpituitarism
B. Hyperthyroidism D. hyperparathyroidism E. hyperfunction of
the thymus
47. Bone pain, osteolytic lesions, plasma cell infiltration of marrow and synthesis of
abnormal immunoglobulins describe:
A. Systemic lupus erythematosus C. polyclonal gammopathy
B. Selective IgA deficiency D. Paget’s disease of bone E. multiple
myeloma
48. Blood in the sputum is characteristic of each of the following, except:

A. Emphysema C. lobar pneumonia
B. Tuberculosis D. pulmonary embolism E. bronchogenic carcinoma
49. The most important characteristic of malignant neoplasms, which distinguishes them
from benign neoplasms, is their:
A. Nonencapsulation C. ability to metastasize
B. Rapid growth rate D. lack of differentiation E. excessive mitotic activity
50. Which of the following is the usual cause of chronic pyelonephritis?

A. Systemic hypertension D. chronic glomerulonephritis
B. Type IV hypersensitivity E. bacteremic seeding of the kidneys
C. Infection resulting from urinary reflux
51. Which of the following is most likely to cause a sudden arrest of heart function?
C. Mitral stenosis C. constrictive pericarditis
D. Angina pectoris D. cardiac tamponade E. subacute bacterial
endocarditis
52. Which of the following represents the most frequent cause of a clinically palpable breast
mass in an adult women?
C. Sarcoma C. adenocarcinoma
D. Fibroadenoma D. fibrocystic disease E. intraductal
papilloma
53. Which of the following represents the chief complication of mumps in the adult male?
A. Orchitis B. Prostatitis C. glomerulonephritis D. chronic nonspecific
sialadenitis
54. Which of the following is a demyelinating disease of the CNS?

A. Multiple sclerosis C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
B. Alzheimer’s disease D. Parkinson’s diseases
55. Which type of chromosome is usually missing from the cells of persons with Turner’s
syndrome?
A. An autosome C. a sex chromosome
B. Chromosome 21 D. a “ring” chromosome E. a group A
chromosome
56. A classic hemophilia is due to a deficiency of normal Factor VIII which in turn is due to a
genetic deficiency that is:
A. Partially dominant C. autosomal recessive
B. Autosomal dominant D. sex-linked dominant E. sex-linked
recessive
57. Cementoblastoma presents the following features except:

A. an opaque lesion attached to the root of the teeth
B. opaque spicules radiate from central area
C. affect mandible more than maxilla
D. usual age range of patient is 2nd to 3rddecades of life e. none of the above
58. Periapical cementooseous dysplasia features include the following except:

A. usually involves more than one tooth C. involved tooth or teeth retain its
vitality
B. usually involves maxillary anterior teeth D. initial lesion presents as
radiolucency
59. Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor except:

A. favors the mandibular molar-ramus area
B. radiolucent with or without opaque foci
C. mean age of occurrence around 40
D. behavior and prognosis are similar to an ameloblastoma e. none of the above
60. Ameloblastoma features include the following except:

A. may arise in wall of dentigerous cyst C. asymptomatic c. asymptomatic
B. may exhibit aggressive behavior D. multilocular radiopacities
61. Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor exhibits the following except:

A. usually affects anterior jaw segment C. asymptomatic
B. well defined radiolucency D. usually associated with crown of impacted tooth
e. none of the above
62. Biologic subtypes of ameloblastoma are the following except:
A. solid ameloblastoma B. cystic ameloblastoma C. follicular ameoblastoma
63. Pindborg tumor exhibit the following features except:

A. microscopic features are similar to an ameloblastoma
B. usually affects the mandibular molar-ramus area
C, slow growing
D, age of occurrence is same as that in ameloblastoma
64. Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor is characterized by the following except:

A. teenagers most commonly affected
B. rarely seen over the age of 30 years
C. presents radiolucent or lucent-opaque pattern
D. enucleation is the treatment of choice e. none of the above
65. Of the following, which statement about osteosarcoma is true?

A. It is a very common malignancy in female.
B. It most commonly arises in young adult. D. It is common in maxilla,
C. It can be cured by conservative local excision. E. It has a good prognosis.
66. Which of the following contains enamel and dentin?

A. ameloblastoma C. adenomatoid odontogenic tumor
B. cementoblastoma D. complex odontoma E. ameloblastic fibroma
A. ameloblastoma C. complex odontoma E. ameloblastic fibroma
B. cementoblastoma D. adenomatoid odontogenic tumor
68. Most ameloblastoma are located in the:

A. posterior maxilla C. midline of the mandible
B. posterior mandible D. maxillary anterior region
69. An uncommon benign odontogenic neoplasm in which both epithelial and

connective tissue components are neoplastic, which affects young people, occurs in the
posterior mandible, and does not infiltrate the surrounding tissues is a/an:
A.. mixed tumor C. odontogenic myxoma
B. ameloblastoma D. ameloblastic fibroma E. odontogenic adenomatoid tumor
70. An odontogenic tumor consisting of miniature tooth-like structure is:

A. odontoma C. ameloblastoma E. cementoblastoma
B. odontogenic myxoma D. cementoma
71. A panorex radiograph shows a well-defined, mixed radiolucent/radiopaque lesion in the

left ramus. Differential diagnosis considerations for this lesion include:
1. ameloblastic fibroma 2. complex odontoma
3. odontogenic myxoma 4. central ossifying fibroma
A. 1 and 3 B. 2 and 4 C. 1, 2 and 3 D. 4 E. 1,2, 3 and 4
72. Select the correct associations.

1. In cementoblastoma, the associated tooth remains vital.
2. In central ossifying fibroma, the radiographic appearance can range
from radiolucent to radiopaque.
3. In ameloblastic fibroma, there is unilocular or multilocular radiolucency.
4. Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor is exclusively radiolucent in appearance
A. 1 and 3 B. 2 and 4 C. 1, 2, and 3 D. 4 E. 1, 2, 3, and 4
For numbers 18-25

Shade A – if the first statement is correct and the second statement is incorrect
B – if the first statement is incorrect and the second statement is correct
C – if both statements are correct
D – if both statements are incorrect
73. 90% of Ewing’s Sarcoma occurs between the ages of 5 and 30 years and more than
60% affects males. A
74. Chondrosarcoma more often involves the mandible and both gender affects with equal
distribution. B
75. Odontogenic Myxoma usually occurs in females and more often involve the maxillary. D
76. Periapical Cementooseous Dysplasia causes cortical expansion of the jaw and it is best
treated by surgical excision. D
77. Odontoma usually occurs at the mandible and there is no gender predilection. B
78. Clear Cell Odontogenic Tumor is a rare neoplasm of the mandible and maxilla and the
etiology is unknown. C
79. Cementoblastoma is also known as True Cementoma and it occurs predominantly in

females. A
80. Periapical Cementooseous Dysplasia requires biopsy and can be found at the apex of a
non-vital tooth. D
81. Odontoma is a mixed odontogenic tumor since it is composed of both epithelial and
mesenchymal dental hard tissues. C
82. Which of the following genera most frequently develops resistance to penicillin?
A, Neisseria C. Actinomyces
B, Treponema D. Streptococcus E. Staphylococcus
83. Which of the following viruses maybe transmitted from man to man by inhalation of
respiratory droplets generated by talking or sneezing by infected patients?
I. Rubeola II. Adenoviruses III. Influenza virus IV. Varicella-zoster virus
A. I, II & III B. I, II & IV C. I, III & IV D. II, III & IV E. I, II, III & IV
84. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) can directly infect all of the following cells, except:
A, neurons C. CD4 (helper) lymphocytes
B, macrophages D. CD8 (suppressor) lymphocytes
85. Anaerobic bacteria lacking catalase are generally”

A, Motile C. able to ferment lactate
B, sensitive to H2O2 D. resistant to penicillin E. producers of O2 and H2O from
H2O2
86. Which of the following organisms represents a significant secondary invader of carious
lesions?
A, Bacillus subtilis C. Streptococcus mutans
B, Lactobacillus casei D. Staphylococcus aureus
87. Which of the following viral-associated enzymes is unique to RNA tumor viruses?
A, Neuramidase C. Reverse transciptase
B, Capping enzyme D. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
88. Which of the following microorganisms is most likely to be cultured from chronic, bilateral
ulcerations at the corners of the mouth?
A, Candida B. Treponema C. Brucella D. Histoplasma E.
Trichophyton
A, an exotoxin C. ribonuclease
B, an endotoxin D. a capsular antigen E. a flagellar antigen
90. Which of the following is the most frequently employed diagnostic laboratory technique
for the microscopic detection of antigens in tissue secretions or in cell suspensions?
A. immunofluorescence C. agglutination E. radioimmunoassay (RIA)
B. precipitation D. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
91. Infections caused by certain nematodes cause:

A. marked neutrophilia B. marked eosinophilia C. marked basophilia D. all of these
92. A single-called parasite that causes amebiasis in humans is:

A. giardia lamblia B. entamoeba histolytica C, trichomonas vaginalis D. balantidium
coli
93. All of the following are RNA enveloped viruses, except:

A. picornaviruses C. human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
B. measles, mumps, rubella, and hepatitis D. respiratory viruses
94. Infection with Epstein-Barr virus can cause infectious mononucleosis, which may be
characterized by the appearance of:
A. Koplik’s spots C. Owl’s eye inclusions
B. Heterophile antibodies D. Cowdry type A inclusions
95. Which herpes simplex virus causes acute herpetic gingivostomatitis, recurrent herpes
labialis, keratoconjunctivitis and encephalitis?
A. herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1) B. herpes simplex virus type 2 (HSV-2).
96. Type of organism needing small amounts of oxygen for existence is known as?
A,obligate aerobe B. obligate anaerobe C. facultative aerobe D. Microaerophile
97. A number of fungi that commonly cause superficial skin infections belong to the genus:
A, Aspergillus C. Histoplasma E. Blastomyces
B. Coccidiodes D. Trichophyton
98. A bacterium well known for its large polysaccharide capsule is:
A, Clostridium tetani C. Hemophilus influenzae
B. Staphylococcus aureus D. Streptococcus pneumonia E. Mycobacterium
tuberculosis
99. The progression of impetigo in children involves streptococci and

A, diphtheroids C. Corynebacteria
B, staphylococci D. streptococcal hypersensitivity E. all of the choices
100. What is the fastest, safestand most effective method to sterilize a metal
impression tray with a solder that metls at a temperature above 175 degrees
centrigrade?
A, Filtration C. dry heat sterilization
B, Autoclaving D. soaking in 2% gluteraldehyde E. ethylene oxide sterilization

School of Dentistry

1. Enamel well suited to withstand severe masticatory forces:

A. Root enamel C. gnarled enamel
B. Cervical enamel D. enamel lamellae E. both A & D
2. In the life cycle of an ameloblast, there are cells that contain Tome’s processes. These
cells are in which of the following stage:
A. Secretory B. morphogenic C. organizing D. maturative
3. The following are the characteristics of cellular cementum, except:

A. Structural components are cementocytes C. layer of cementum with
cells
B. Extend to the inner wall of dentin D. thickest at the apex
4. The distinguishing characteristic of the alveolar bone proper:

A. Continuous with the cortical plate at the orifice of the alveoli.
B. Consists of Haversian systems (osteons) and interstitial lamellae
C. Heavily perforated bony lamellae
D. Presence of bundle bone
E. All of the above.
5. Preserves that the odontoblastic process is the primary structure exited by the stimulus:
A. Direct Neural Stimulation B. Hydrodynamic Theory C.
Transduction Theory
6. Pulpal cells that are nonphagocytic and participate in pulpal immunosurvelliance:

A. Cementocytes B. cementoblasts C. cementoclasts D. both B & C E.
none of these
7. Pulpal cells which are supposedly capable of maturing into macrophages or assuming
the function of fibroblasts and odontoblasts.
A. Odontoblasts B. Fibroblasts C. undifferentiated mesenchymal cells
D. both A & B
8. Which of the following has the highest fluoride content:

A. Enamel B. dentin C. cementum D. bone E. both A & B
9. Dentinal tubules are S-shape in the crown due to the:

A. Incremental pattern C. epithelial diaphragm
B. formation of dentin D. crowding of odontoblasts E. both
B&C
10. Also called interdental ligament and have been implicated as a major cause of post
retention relapse of orthodontically positioned teeth:
A. Alveologingival B. dentoperiosteal C. transeptal D. circular E.
none of these
11. The most frequent neural termination found in the periodontal ligament:
A. Ruffini corpuscles C. encapsulated spindle type ending
B. Coiled ending D. end bulb of Krause E. naked
nerve ending
12. Periodontal fiber group that prevents vestibule-oral tipping:

A. Interradicular C. alveolar crest fiber group
B. Apical D. horizontal E. oblique
13. Vitality of cementum depends on:

A. Sharpey’s fiber B. periodontal ligament C. cementocytes D. lacuna
E. both A & C
14. Which of the following refers to calcific bodies in the periodontal ligament:
A. Cementicles B. hypercementosis C. cementun spur D. coronal cementum
E. both A & B
15. Ovoid or elongated indentations on the attached gingiva that reflects the arrangement,
thickness and frequency of the rete ridges:
A. Stipples B. free gingival groove C. gingival sulcus D. both A & C
16. Grade of keratinization where stratum corneum is homogenous and consists of flat
keratinized cells with pyknotic nuclei and remnants of cytoplasmic organelles:
A. Orthokeratinized C. incomplete parakeratinized
B. Parakeratinized D. both A & B E. none of
these
17. Multinucleated giant cells that work with osteoblasts in remodeling existing alveolar
bone:
A. Cementoblast B. cementoclast C. fibroblast D. odontoblast
E. both A & D
18. The function of lines of Owen :

C. Mark growth period of dentin C. mark degree in matrix calcification of
enamel
D. Mark growth period of enamel D. mark the degree in matrix calcification of
enamel
19. Under pits and fissures, the rods are arranged in a:

C. Horizontal mannerB. oblique manner C. tent-like manner
20. Pulpal cells involved in the elimination of dead cells whose existence indicates turnover
in the dental pulp:
A. Histiocytes B. Lymphocytes C. Macrophages D. A or C E. all of
these.
21. What type of epithelium lines the trachea?

A. Simple squamous epithelium D. Simple cuboidal epithelium
B. Simple columnar epithelium E. Stratified squamous epithelium
C. Pseudostratified epithelium
22. What type of tissue lines blood vessels?

A. Simple squamous epithelium. C. Simple cuboidal epithelium
B. Simple columnar epithelium D. Stratified squamous epithelium E. Transitional
epithelium
23. What do you call a tissue composed of a conglomeration of cells which are tightly
packed together, yet which does not have a free surface? An example of such a tissue
would be the parenchyma of the adrenal gland.
A. Epithelioid tissue B. Mesothelium C. Endothelium D. Transitional E.
Pseudostratified
24. Which of the following is lined by a mucosa?

A. Peritoneal cavity B. Pericardial cavity C. Pleural cavity D. Alimentary canal
E. All of them
25. What type of gland secretes its product directly into the bloodstream?
A. Endocrine gland B. Multicellular gland C. Exocrine gland D. All of the above E.
None of these
26. What is a gland called if the secretory portion is tube shaped ending in a flask shaped
area at the terminus?
A. Simple gland B. Compound gland C. Tubular D. Alveolar E.
Tubuloalveolar
27. What is the surface modification seen on the cells of the epididymis?
A. Microvilli B. Stereocilia C. CiliaD. Keratinization E. Both A and
B

28. These two components in bone are responsible for the hardness and pliability of bone
A. Osteoclasts & collagen C. mineralized salts & collagen
B. Mineralized salts & osteocytes D. collagen & elastic fiber E. collagen &
mesenchyme
29. Yellow marrow consists of

A. osteoprogenitor cells C. blood cell progenitor cell E. hyaline cartilage
D. adipose D. spongy bone
30. Chondroblasts produce:

C. Basement membranes C. cartilage matrix
D. Bone matrix D. mesothelium E. endothelium
31. These structures are at the center of compact bone lamellae and carry blood vessels
along the bone length:
A. Haversian canals B. canaliculi C. perforating canals D. osteocytes
E. lacunae
32. Rouget cells:

A. Capillaries B. Sinusoids C. Liver D. Pituitary gland E. Kidney
33. The cell type that is responsible for maintaining bone matrix once it has formed is:
A. Osteoclasts B. chondrocytes C. osteocytes D. fibroblasts E.
osteoblasts
34. Soft connective tissue membranes between the cranial bones at birth are:
A. An indication of microcephaly C. epiphyseal plates
B. Frontal sinuses D. cribriform plates E. fontanelles
35. Littoral cells:

36. Endochondral and intramembranous are two mechanisms of:

A. Bone remodeling C. controlling blood calcium levels
B. Embryonic skeletal ossification D. cartilage synthesis
37. Goblet cells are associated with which of the following epithelial tissues?
C. Stratified cuboidal C. transitional
D. Simple squamous D. simple columnar E. stratified
squamous
38. Kuppffer cells:

A. Capillaries B. Sinusoids C. Liver D. Pituitary gland E.
Kidney
39. Cartilage is classified as:

A. Adipose tissue C. reticular connective tissue
B. Supportive connective tissue D. osseous tissue E. none of
these
40. Which of the primary tissue is most likely to have the function of holding an organ
against the body wall?
A. Connective tissue C. nerve tissue
B. Muscle tissue D. epithelial tissue E. adipose tissue
41. This excitable tissue is characterized by having intercalated discs and striations:
A. Smooth muscle B. skeletal muscle C. cardiac muscle D. neurons E. glial
cells
42. The index of red blood cell production or erythropoiesis is the:

C. Complete Blood Count C. Differential Count
D. RBD Count D. Reticulocyte Count E. WBC
Count.
43. All pertain to bone development and growth except:

F. bone has a canalicular system
G. bone can grow only by appositional process
H. Bone undergoes continuous process of reconstruction
I. bone is vascular or richly supplied by capillaries
J. bone can grow only by interstitial mechanism.
44. The oligodencytes surrounding nerve cell bodies are the:

A. interfascicular oligodendrocytes C. protoplasmic astrocytes
B. perivascular oligodendocytes D. perineuronal oligodendrocytes E)
none of them.
45. Chromophobes:
anterior maxillary:
A. ameloblastoma D. Pindborg tumor
B. clear cell odontogenic tumor E. squamous odontogenic tumor
C. adenomatoid odontogenic tumor
47. It is composed of islands of tumor cells that mimic the normal dental follicle:
A. Plexiform ameloblastoma C. basaloid ameloblastoma
B. follicular ameloblastoma D. granular cell ameloblastoma E. desmoplastic
ameloblastoma
48. The following are true for Odontogenic Myxoma except:

A. No gender predilection
B. age range is between 10 to 50 years with a mean age of 30 D. Very common in
the maxilla
C. It is often multilocular and often has honeycomb pattern E. None of
these.
49. Cementoblasma:
A. True Cementoma C. mandibular posterior region
B. very common to male D. both A and B E. both A and
C
50. Differential diagnosis for Osteblastoma except:

A. cementoblastoma C. ossifying fibroma
B. odontogenic myxoma D. fibrous dysplasia E. osteosarcoma
51. Periapical Cementooseous dysplasia:

A. occurs at the apex of vital teeth
B. biopsy is unnecessary bec. the condition is usually diagnostic by clinical & radiographic
features
C. black women are usually affected
D. A, B and C
E . A and C
52. The following are true except;

A. Fibrous dysplasia is very common during the 1st and 2nd decades of life.
B. Ossifying fibroma is very common during the 3rd and 4th decades of life.
C. Fibrous dysplasia is treated with surgical excision.
D. Ossifying fibroma is treated with surgical excision.
E. Fibrous dysplasia usually occurs at the maxilla.
53. The following are true for ameloblastoma except:

A. in the maxilla, the premolar and anterior region are more commonly affected
B. usually asymptomatic
C. no gender predilection
D. has an unknown cause
E. block excision or resection is the treatment for large lesion
54. Differential diagnosis for Pindborg tumor except:

A. dentigerous cyst C. odontogenic myxoma
B. ameloblastoma D. ossifying fibrom E. none of the above
55. A condition in which medullary bone is replaced by an abnormal fibrous connective

tissue:
A. odontogenic myxoma C. fibrous dysplasia
B. cementifying fibroma D. ameloblastic fibroma E. central odontogenic
fibroma
56. This tumor occurs between the ages of 5 and 30 years, and more than 60% affect
males. Pain and swelling are the most common presenting symptoms. The lower
extremities or pelvis are the most involve bones. When found in the oral cavity, the
predilection is for the ramus of the mandible.
A. osteoma C. Ewing’s sarcoma E.
chondroma
B. central giant cell granuloma D. osteoblastoma
57. A tumor that is rarely encountered before the 5th decade of life. It appears at a mean age
of 63 years with a slight male predominance. Involvement of the jaw may be
asymptomatic or may produce pain, swelling, expansion, numbness and mobility of
teeth.
A. osteoma B. Ewing’s sarcoma C. multiple myeloma D. osteoblastoma E.
chondroma
58. Mandibular chondrosarcoma occurs most often in the:

1. premolar and molar regions 2. lateral and canine regions
3. Symphisis 4. coronoid process
A. 2, 3 and 4 B. 1 and 2 C. 1, 2 and 4 D. 1 and 4 E. 1, 3, and 4
59. The following tumors occur in children and young adults except:
A. ameloblastic fibroma C. odontoma E. odontogenic
myxoma
B. ameloblastic fibroodontoma D. central giant cell granuloma
60. Signs and symptoms of jaw malignancy include the following except:
A. paresthesia C. pain E. acquired
malocclusion
B. tooth resorption more likely than displacement D. none of the above
61. Genes that may be altered in osteosarcoma involving the jaws include the following
except:
A. p53 B. Rb C. CDK4 D. c-myc E. none of the above
62. Sarcomas of the facial skeleton involve:

A. surgery only C. surgery & chemotherapy
B. surgery & irradiation D. chemotherapy & irradiation E. surgery, irradiation &
chemotherapy
63. Periosteal osteosarcoma occurs more often than parosteal osteosarcoma. A.
True B. False
64. The most common peripheral retinal degeneration that may lead to retinal break is?
C. Cystoid degeneration C. retinoschisis
D. Pavingstone degeneration D. lattice degeneration
E. none of these

A. alpha-hemolytic streptococcus C. herpes simplex virus
B. Staphylococcus aureus D. hemophilus influenza E. a variety of viruses
66. The time from exposure to HIV to seroconversion is

A. 4 weeks to 6 months C. 5 weeks to 20 months
B. 10 weeks to 10 months D. 6-10 months E. any of them
67. Mordant of Acid Fast stain is:

A. 95% ethanol C. Methylene Blue
B. Carbol Fuchsin D. Iodine E. None of the above
68. Which of the following is not a pleomorphic arrangement of the rod shape bacteria?
A. Tetrad B. sarcinae C. Staphylococci D. spiral E. all of the above
A. Acetic B. Formic C. Lactic D. Butyric E. Propionic

C. Halophilic B. bacteriostatic C.Thermophilic D. antagonistic E.
pleomorphic

B. Flagella B. capsule C. spore D. both A & B E. all
of these

A. Herpesviridae B. Poxviridae C. Adenoviridae D. Hepadnaviridae E.
Coronaviridae
A. antitoxins B. toxoids C. mycotoxins D. endotoxins E. none of
these.
74. The following are the manifestations of AIDS, except:

A. hairy leukoplakia C. pneumocystic caranii pneumonia
B. Kaposi’s sarcoma D. herpes E. none of the above
75. The infectious viral particle is called a:

A. viroid B. virion C. prion D. neon.
76. Which of the following diseases are caused by the virus family Picornaviridae?
A. Polio B. Hepatitis A C. Influenza D. Colds E. None of the Above
77. All of the following ate classifications or types of mycosis or fungal infections except:
A. Systemic B. Opportunistic C. Peritoneal D. Subcutaneous E. Superficial
78. Immunoglobulins which are involved in hypersensitivities

A. IgG B. IgM C. IgA D IgE E. all of the above
79. The genetic ability of a bacterium to grow in the presence of several antibiotics is passed
in vivo from one bacterium to another by:
A. conjugation B. transduction C. rarefaction D. transformation E.
none of these
80. What is the fastest, safest and most effective method to sterilize a metal impression tray
with a solder that melts at a temperature above 175 degrees centrigrade?
A. Filtration C. dry heat sterilization
B. Autoclaving D. soaking in 2% gluteraldehyde E. ethylene oxide sterilization
81. An outstanding, disabling defective response from abnormalities which the HIV uses to
cripple the B lymphocytes and often results in a fatal illness in infants and children is the
failure to produce the immunoglobulin
A. IgG B. IgM C. IgA D. IgD E. IgE
82. This disease is characterized by severe uveitis and retinal vasculitis with optic atrophy
and aphtous lesions of the mouth and the genitals
A.Behcet’s syndrome C. erythema multiforme
B. Reye’s syndrome D. Steven-Johnson’s syndrome E. Reiter’s syndrome
generalized cutaneous eruptions, conjunctivitis and balanitis or vaginal ulcer in women
are the findings of : A)Behcet’s syndrome B)lupus erythematosus C)Steven-Johnson
syndrome D)Reiter’s syndrome E)Darier white disease.
C. cerebroside kerasin C. cephalin
D. sphingomyelin D. cholesterol palmitate E.
glucocerebroside.
85. Patients with CML (chronic myelogenous leukemia) present a structural chromosome
anomaly arising at the somatic level known as the Philadelphia chromosome. There is
translocation from chromsosome 9 to A. 12 B.21 C,22
D.20 E.23
86. Which adaptive response is most likely to fit the description of the uterus during
pregnancy?
A. hyperplasia B. hypertrophy C. aplasia D. dysplasia E. metaplasia
87. This disorder, related to any occupational activity associated with stone cutting,
manifests as nodules of fibrosis that are black. Those affected have a propensity for
developing tuberculosis.
A. anthracosis B. berylliosis C. asbestosis D. siderosis E. silicosis
88. Which of the following inflammation commonly is characterized by collections of dead

and dying polymorphs, dead and dying bacteria, and necrosis of tissue, all of which form
a turbid or thick fluid in tissues?
A. catarrhal inflammation C. phlegmonous inflammation
B. cellulitis D. abscess formation E. granulomatous
inflammation
89. Which of the following best describes the phenomenon of epithelial dysplasia?
A. an increase in thickness of the epithelium because of increased number of cells
B. a decrease in thickness of the epithelium owing to decrease in the number of dividing cells
C. an irregular proliferation and maturation of cells throughout the layers of the
epithelium
D. an increase in the thickness of the epithelium owing to enlargement of the component cells
E. absence of epithelium because of lack of cell proliferation
90. Which of the following findings is an invariably histologic feature of granulomatous

inflammation?
A. caseous necrosis D. multinucleated giant cells
B. positive acid-fast staining of causative organism E. surrounding cuff of lymphocytes
C. epithelioid cells
91. This is a primary skin lesion characterized as a circumscribed flat area less than 1 cm of
discoloration without elevation or depression of surface relative to surrounding skin
A. papule B. macule C. pustule D. patch E. vesicle.
92. A chromosome mutation whereby the chromosome has lost one of its arms and
replaced it with an exact copy of the other arm
C. deletion B. duplication C. isochromosome D. translocation E. dysjunction.
93. In glycogen nephrosis, a complication of diabetes mellitus wherein the glycogen

Infiltration occurs in the
A. distal convoluted tubule C. loop of Henle
B. glomerular tuft D. proximal convoluted tubule E. Bowman’s
capsule
C. swelling C. formation of cytoplasmic blebs
D. blunting of microvilli D. detachment of ribosomes E. loosening of
intracellular attachments.
orientation is known as A. metaplasia B. anaplaisia C. dysplasia D. aplasia E.
hyperplasia.
96. When this enzyme, lipase escapes into fatty depots, it will give rise to
A. caseous necrosis C. coagulative necrosis
B. enzymatic fat necrosis D. gangrene necrosis E. none of
them.
97. Areas of hypersegmentation of the skin of the axilla, ther neck and the groin weith
marked hyperkeratosis and papillomatosis which may be indicative of internal
malignancy are the characteristics of
A. acanthosis nigricans C. malignancy melanoma
B. junctional nevus D. pigmented squamous cell carcinomna E. basal cell
carcinoma.
98. This disease refers to iron overload associated with organ failure A)hemoglobinuria
B)hemosiderosis C)siderosis D)hemochromatosis E)biliary pigmentation.
99. .A sudden increase in the severity of the signs and symptoms during the course of a
disease is
A. remission B. lesion C. complication D. sequel E. exacerbation
100. Systemic inflammatory disease with acute febrile attacks that occurs in the heart
with characteristic Aschoff nodules
A. impetigo contagiosa B. scarlet fever C. rheumatic fever D. epidemic spotted
fever E. erysipelas
CENTRO ESCOLAR UNIVERSITY
School of Dentistry

2/14
CNS, skin, skeletal system and urinary tract, characterized by development of tumors filled with
gelatinous material in visceral and subcutaneous tissues
A . candidiasis B. cryptococcosis
C. actinomycosis D. thrush E. amebiasis

Wuchereriabancrofti or by Brugiamalayi
A. schistosomiasis B. filariasis
C. ancylostomiasis D. ascariasis E. pedinculosis.
3. Malignant malaria is caused by

A. Plasmodium malariae B. Plasmodium vivax
C. Plasmodoimfalcifarum D. Plasmodium ovale E. all of them.
4. A maculopapular rash caused by obligate intracellular organism that is transmitted from

human to human by body lice is
A. epidemic typhus fever B.typhoid fever
C. rheumatic fever D. scarlet fever E. winter fever.
5. A zoonotic disease that spread among cattle, sheep and wild animals by tics and acquired by
humans through inhalation of the airborne organism, Coxiellaburnetti
A. Rocky Mountain Spotted fever B. Epidemic Typhus fever
C. Human Q Fever D. fever blister E. all of them.

A. scrofula B. tabesmesenterica
C. tebesdorsalis D. Pott’s disease E. tabesspinae.
tropism for macrophages and Schwann cells and affects primarily the cooler areas of the body
like the skin and the peripheral nerves
A. tuberculosis B. syphilis
C. leprosy D. gonorrhea E. diphtheria
8. Also known as the “Great Mimic Disease” because it simulates the clinical manifestations of
other infectious diseases
A. phthisis B. lues
C. syphilis D. both A and B E. both B and C.
resemblances to syphilis
A. pinta B. yaws
C. gonorrhea D. chlamydia E. all of them.
10. An acute contagious disease of childhood caused by an erythrotoxin-producing strain of

Group A hemolytic Streprococcus, characterized by irritability, sore throat, fever, enlarged lymph
nodes in the neck, and a diffused bright red rash
A. impetigo contagiosa B. scarlet fever
C. erysipelas D.German measles E. hemorrhagic fever.
11. Which of the following is NOT primarily composed of connective tissue?

A. Bone marrow B. Articular cartilage
C. Heart D. Mesenchyme E. Fat
12. Which one of these cells is not a cell type routinely found in loose connective tissue?
A. Fibroblast B. Microglia
C. Histiocyte D. Plasma cell E. Mast cell
13. Which connective tissue cell is a tissue macrophage?
A. Fibroblast B. Myofibroblast
C. Histiocyte D. Plasma cell E. Mast cell
14. Which of the following can be classified as "specialized connective tissue"?

A. Cartilage B. Loose connective tissue
C. Mesenchyme D. Dense connective tissue E. Mucous
connective tissue
15. Which of the following can be classified as "connective tissue proper"?

A. Adipose tissue B. Dense irregular connective tissue
C. Bone D. Blood E. Cartilage
.
16. What type of tissue is Wharton's jelly?
A. Mucous connective tissue B. Mesenchyme
C. Loose irregular connective tissue D. Dense irregular connective tissue
E. Dense regular connective tissue
17. What type of tissue is a tendon composed of?

A. Mucous connective tissue B. Mesenchyme
C. Loose irregular connective tissue D. Dense irregular connective tissue
E. Dense regular connective tissue
18. What does connective tissue develop from?

A. Mesothelium B. Mesenchyme
C. Mesangial cells D. Mesentery E.. Wharton's jelly
19. What color do elastic fibers stain with Verhoeff Elastic stain?
A. Red/Orange B. Pink/red
C. Purple/Red D. Blue/black E. Green/blue
20. Which of the following is a component of the ground substance?
A. Hyaluronic acid B. Proteoglycans
C. Glycosaminoglycans D. Chondroitin sulfate E. All of the above
21. What type of epithelium forms the epidermis?

A. Simple squamous epithelium B. Simple cuboidal epithelium
C. Simple columnar epithelium D. Stratified squamous epithelium
E. Pseudostratified epithelium
22. What type of tissue lines most of the gastrointestinal tract?

E. Transitional epithelium
23. What type of tissue forms the alveoli in the lung?

E. Pseudostratified epithelium
24. What type of epithelium is composed of flat cells?

A. Simple B. Stratified
C. Squamous D. Cuboidal E. Columnar
25. What do you call the simple squamous epithelium that lines the abdominal cavity?
A. Epithelioid tissue B. Mesothelium
C. Endothelium D. Transitional E. Pseudostratified
26. What type of epithelium is composed of cells which all touch the basement membrane
and is only one cell layer thick?
A. Stratified squamous epithelium B. Transitional epithelium
C. Stratified cuboidal epithelium D. Pseudostratified epithelium
E None of the above
27. Which of the following is NOT lined by a mucosa?

A. Genitourinary tract B. Pericardial cavity
C. Respiratory tract D. Alimentary canal
E. All of the above are lined by a mucosa
.
28. What is a gland called if it has an branched duct?
A. Simple gland B. Compound gland
C. Tubular D. Alveolar E. Tubuloalveolar
29. What are finger like projections on the surface of some cells called?
A. Microvilli B. Stereocilia
C. Cilia D. Keratinization E . Both a and b
30.What cell surface modification is made of microtubules?

A. Microvilli B. Stereocilia
C. Cilia D. Keratinization E. Both a and b

C. slow growing
D. age of occurrence is same as that in ameloblastoma
E. none of the above

32. Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor is characterized by the following except:
A. teenagers most commonly affected B. rarely seen over the age of 30 yrs
C. presents radiolucent or lucent-opaque pattern
D. enucleation is the treatment of choice E. none of the above

33. Of the following, which statement about osteosarcoma is true?
A. It is a very common malignancy in female. B. It is common in maxilla,
C. It most commonly arises in young adult. D. It can be cured by conservative local
excision. E. It has a good prognosis.

34. A self-limiting fibroosseous developmental condition of young people that may cause a
facial swelling that usually does not cross the midline, has a “ground glass” x-ray appearance
is: A. fibrous dysplasia B. odontogenic myxoma
C. Pindborg tumor D. ossifying fibroma
E. florid osseous dysplasia

A. ameloblastoma B. cementoblastoma
C. complex odontoma D. ameloblastic fibroma
E. adenomatoid odontogenic tumor

A. ameloblastoma B. complex odontoma
C. ameloblastic fibroma D. cementoblastoma E. adenomatoid odontogenic tumor

37. Most ameloblastoma are located in the:
A. posterior maxilla B. posterior mandible
C. midline of the mandible D. maxillary anterior region E. midline of the hard palate

38. An uncommon benign odontogenic neoplasm in which both epithelial and connective tissue
components are neoplastic, which affects young people, occurs in the posterior mandible, and
does not infiltrate the surrounding tissues is a/an:
A. mixed tumor B. ameloblastoma
C. ameloblastic fibroma D. odontogenic myxoma E odontogenic adenomatoid tumor

39. An odontogenic tumor consisting of miniature tooth-like structure is:
A. odontoma B. ameloblastoma
C. cementoblastoma D. odontogenic myxoma E. cementoma

40. A panorex radiograph shows a well-defined, mixed radiolucent/radiopaque lesion in the left
ramus. Differential diagnosis considerations for this lesion include: 1. ameloblastic fibroma
2. complex odontoma 3. odontogenic myxoma 4. central ossifying fibroma
A 1 and 3 B. 2 and 4 C. 1, 2 and 3 D. 4 E. 1,2, 3 and 4

41. Select the correct associations.
1. In cementoblastoma, the associated tooth remains vital.
2. In central ossifying fibroma, the radiographic appearance can range
from radiolucent to radiopaque.
3. In ameloblastic fibroma, there is unilocular or multilocular adiolucency.
4. Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor is exclusively radiolucent in appearance
A. 1 and 3 B. 2 and 4 C. 1, 2, and 3 D. 4 E. 1, 2, 3, and 4
42. Periapical cementooseous dysplasia features include the following except:

A. usually involves more than one tooth B. usually involves maxillary anterior teeth
C. involved tooth or teeth retain its vitality D. initial lesion presents as radiolucency

43. Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor except:
A. favors the mandibular molar-ramus area B. radiolucent with or without opaque foci
C. mean age of occurrence around 40
D. behavior and prognosis are similar to an ameloblastoma e. none of the above

44. Ameloblastoma features include the following except:
A. may arise in wall of dentigerous cyst B. may exhibit aggressive behavior
C. asymptomatic D. multilocular radiopacities E. none of the above

A. usually affects anterior jaw segment B. well defined radiolucency
C. usually associated with crown of impacted tooth D asymptomatic

A. solid ameloblastoma B. cystic ameloblastoma
C. follicular ameoblastoma D. peripheral ameloblastoma E. none of the above
47. Dentinal tubules are S-shaped in the crown of the tooth due to the:
A. incremental pattern D. crowding of odontoblasts
B. epithelial diaphragm E. formation of peritubular dentin
C. calcification pattern of maturing dentin.
48. Which of the following represent fan-shaped, hypocalcified areas that originates at the DEJ
and extend into enamel for part of its thickness?
A. tufts C. Lamellae
B.spindles D. Hunter-Schreger bands E. Contour lines of Owen
following?
50.Which of the following dental entities is derived from the mesoderm?


52. Which of the following microorganisms is the most commonly associated with root surface
caries?
53. Which of the following compounds is used as an antiviral agent?

A. Amantadine (Symmetrel®) C. Novobiocin
B. Miconazole (Monistat®) D. Amphotericin B
54. The Lancefield streptococcal group most likely to contain strains pathogenic for man is:
A. group A B. group B C. group D D. group E E. group H
55. Production of a potent exotoxin is characteristic of certain strains of:

A. Salmonella typhi C. Hempphillus influenzae
B. Clostridium tetani D. Streptococcus faecalis E. Neisseria meningitides
56. Which of the following is necessary for cementum to be deposited during tooth
development?
A. the tooth must be erupting
B. a bony socket must develop
C. An apical vascular plexus must be present
D. The continuity of the root sheath (Hertwig) must be broken.

1. deposition of the first layer of enamel
2. deposition of the first layer of dentin
3. elongation of inner enamel epithelial cells
4. differentiation of odontoblasts
A. 1,2,3,4 B. 3,4,1,2 C. 3,4,2,1 D. 4,1,2,3 E. 4,3,2,1
58. Which of the following is the embryonic precursor of cementoblasts?

A. dental sac C. inner enamel epithelium
B. dental papilla D. outer enamel epithelium E. epithelial root sheath
59. Maxillary teeth are developed from which of the following embryonic structures?
1. Arch 1 2. Arch II 3. Globular process 4. lateral nasal process
A. 1 & 2 B. 1 & 3 C. 2 & 3 D. 2 & 4 E. 3 & 4

B. Buccal gingival D. sublingual mucosa E. oral surface of lip

62. Hypertensive heart disease is consistently associated with which of the following anatomic
findings?

B. adenocarcinoma D. large cell carcinoma
64. Differentiation is a measure of a tumor’s resemblance to normal tissue. Anaplasia is:

A. autolysis B. algor mortis C. rigor mortis D. livor mortis E. all of these.

68.In the digestive tract, glands in the submucosa are found only in:
B. liver & gall bladder D. esophagus & duodenum E. liver and pancreas
69. Microorganisms of which the following genera are most predominant in the normal oral
flora?
A. Gonococcus B. streptococcus
C.Enterococcus D. staphylococcus E. all of them

cells in;
72. Which of the following is an early colonizer of supragingival plaque?

A. Streptococcus sanguis C. Porphyromonasgingivalis
B. Streptococcus salivarius D. Capnocytophagegingivalis
73. Which of the following species is a usual constituent of floras that are associated with
periodontal health?
A. Campylobacter recta C. Eubacteriumnodatum
B. Porphyromonasgingivalis D. Streptococcus gordonii
74. A dentist uses an unsaturated, chemical sterilizer for sterilizing dental instruments. To
effectively kill all microorganisms and spores, the dentist must maintain a temperature of 132ºC
at 20 – 40 psi for at least how many minutes?
A. 10 B. 20 C. 30 D. 40
75. Each of the following diseases has been associated with the Epstein-Barr virus, except:
A. Burkitt’s lymphoma C. Infectious mononucleosis
B. Oral hairy leukoplakia D. Adenoid cystic carcinoma
76. Which of the following microorganisms is the most commonly associated with root surface
caries?
A. Actinomycesviscosus C. Streptococcus salivarius
A. Tetrad B. sarcinae
C. Staphylococci D. spiral E. all of the above
A. Acetic B. Formic
C. Lactic D. Butyric E. Propionic

A. Halophilic B. bacteriostatic
C.Thermophilic D. antagonistic E. pleomorphic

A. Flagella B. capsule
C. spore D. both A & B E. all of these

A. Herpesviridae B. Poxviridae
B. Adenoviridae D. Hepadnaviridae E. Coronaviridae
A. antitoxins B. toxoids
C. mycotoxins D. endotoxins E. none of these.

A. hairy leukoplakia C. pneumocysticcaranii pneumonia
84. The infectious viral particle is called a:

A. viroid B. virion C. prion D. neon.
85. Which of the following diseases are caused by the virus family Picornaviridae?
A. Polio B. Hepatitis A C. Influenza D. Colds E. None of the Above
86. All of the following ate classifications or types of mycosis or fungal infections except:
A. Systemic B. Opportunistic
C. Peritoneal D. Subcutaneous E. Superficial
87. Immunoglobulins which are involved in hypersensitivities

A. IgG B. IgM C. IgA D IgE E.all of the above
88. The genetic ability of a bacterium to grow in the presence of several antibiotics is passed in
vivo from one bacterium to another by:
A. conjugation B. transduction
C. rarefaction D. transformation E. none of these
89. What is the fastest, safest and most effective method to sterilize a metal impression tray
with a solder that melts at a temperature above 175 degrees centrigrade?
A. Filtration C. dry heat sterilization
B. Autoclaving D. soaking in 2% gluteraldehyde E. ethylene oxide sterilization
90. An outstanding, disabling defective response from abnormalities which the HIV uses to
cripple the B lymphocytes and often results in a fatal illness in infants and children is the failure
to produce the immunoglobulin
A. IgG B. IgM C. IgA D. IgD E. IgE
91. This disease is characterized by severe uveitis and retinal vasculitis with optic atrophy and
aphtous lesions of the mouth and the genitals
A.Behcet’s syndrome C. erythema multiforme
B. Reye’s syndrome D. Steven-Johnson’s syndrome E. Reiter’s syndrome
generalized cutaneous eruptions, conjunctivitis and balanitis or vaginal ulcer in women are the
findings of :
A. Behcet’s syndrome B. lupus erythematosus
C.Steven-Johnson syndrome DReiter’s syndrome E.Darier white disease.
A. cerebrosidekerasin C. cephalin
B. sphingomyelin D. cholesterol palmitate E. glucocerebroside.
94. Hertwig’s epithelial root sheath is derived from which of the following?
A. Inner dental epithelium and stellate reticulum.
B. Inner dental epithelium and stratum intermedium.
C. Outer dental epithelium and stellate reticulum.
D. Outer dental epithelium and stratum intermedium.
E. Inner dental epithelium and outer dental epithelium.
95. The development of the 2nd palate is characterized by the formation of what?
A. Two palatal shelves on the maxillary prominence C. Tuberculumimpar
B. Two lateral lingual swellings D. Hypobrachial eminence
A. Median cleft lip C. bilateral cleft lip
B. Macrostamia D. oblique facial cleft E. unilateral cleft lip
97. This outgrowth appears in the oral cavity that grows downward from the frontonasal process
along the midline:

A. 6th month C. 4th month
th
B. 5 month D. 3rd month E. between 2nd to 3rd month
A. zygote B. ovum C. sperm D. egg cell E. gotus

A. DEJ C. enamel lamella
B. Stria of Retzius D. enamel tuft E. water

School of Dentistry

101. Kaposi’s sarcoma is frequently associated with:

A. diabetes B. AIDS C. chronic renal failure D. hypertension
102. Almost all patients with a lung cancer present with:

A. diarrhea B. cough and fever C. malaise D. weight loss E. all
of these
103. Lymphomas principally involve which of the following:

1. lymph nodes 2. spleen 3. liver 4. bone marrow
A. 1 & 2 B. 1,2 & 3 C. 2,3 & 4 D. 1,2,3 & 4 E. 1 only
104. A structure that lines the lumen of the entire vascular system:
A. mesothelium C. endothelium
B. uroepithelium D. elastic membrane E. both C & D
105. The oral epithelium is covered by a layer of:

A. stratified cuboidal epithelium C, stratified squamous epithelium
B. stratified columnar epithelium D. pseudostratified columnar
epithelium
106. A belt-like junction that completely encircles the epithelial cell, binding it to all its
neighbors.
A. tight junctions (zonula occludens) C. desmosomes ( macula
adherens)
B. intermediate junction (zonula adherens) D. none of the above.
107. Fertilization occurs in the:

A. upper third of the fallopian tube C. posterior wall of uterus
B. cervix of the uterus D. fimbriated fold of fallopian tube
108. Macula adherens is found mainly in between cells of:

A. Stratified epithelium C. muscles of the heart
B. linings of intestinal tract D. endothelium E. any of the above
109. The apical cytoplasm of active serous glandular cells is typically filled with which
of the following?
A. Large amount of DNA. D. Abundance of lipid droplets.
B. Abundance of ribosomes. E. Abundance of zymogen granules.
C. Abundance of mitichondria
110. The cerebellar cortex is characterized histologically by which of the following

types of cells?
A. Basket B. Pyramidal C. Purkinje D. Martinotti E. Horizontal
111. Which of the following are pure serous glands?

A. sublingual glands C. submandibular glands
B. glands of Brunner D. glands of von Ebner E. glands of Blandin-Nuhn
112. Anaphase stage is mainly characterized by:

A. alignment of chromosomes along the equatorial plane
B. chromosomes split and are pulled towards opposite poles
C. prominent cleavage furrow
D. cytokinesis occurs
E. chromosomes are uncoiled
113. The biologic purpose of meiosis is to maintain in somatic cells:

A. 46 pairs of chromosomes D. 23 chromosomes
B. haploid number of chromosomes E. none of the above
C. diploid number of chromosomes

A. external to nucleolemma C. within the plasma membrane
B. internal to nucleolemma D. external to plasma lemma E. none of the
above.
115. Cleavage is characterized by:

A. union of sperm and ovum C. series of mitotic cell divisions
B. implantation of the fetus D. all of the above. E. formation of
corona radiate
116. It is possible to distinguish histologically between the stomach and the
duodenum because of the presence of:
118. Which of the following explains why the Barr body found in certain epithelial cells
is significant?
B. It indicates a metaplasmic change. E. It is a symptom of nuclear disintegration.

loss
120. During which of the following stages of tooth development does fused or
geminated teeth occur?
121. The thickness of coronal dentin in primary teeth, compared with that in
corresponding permanent teeth, is approximately:
122. Qhich of the following vesiculobullous disorders features an autoantibody that

localizes in the intercellular cementing substance of stratified squamous epithelium?
A. Bullous pemphigoid C. erythema multiforme
B. Pemphigus vulgaris D. dermatitis herpetiformis
123. The oral vesicular lesions of herpangina and hand-foot-mouth disease are
caused by:
A. Coxsackievirus C. herpes simplex type 1
B. Epstein-Barr virus D. varicella-zoster virus E. respiratory syncytial virus
124. Which of the following syndromes is associated with predisposition to oral and
pharyngeal carcinoma?
A. Gardner’s B. Cushing’s C. Sjogren’s D. Peutz-Jeghers E. Plummer-
Vinson
125. In the normal dental pulp, which of the following histologic features is (are) the
least likely to appear?
126. Which of the following anomalies can occur with a disturbance during the
initiation and proliferation stages in tooth development?
A. Size B. number C. Shape D. calcification
127. A cleft lip occurs following the failure of permanent union between which of the
following?
A. The palatine processes
B. The maxillary processes
C. The palatine process with the frontonasal process
D. The maxillary process with the palatine process
E. The maxillary process with the frontonasal process
A. incremental pattern D. crowding of odontoblasts
B. epithelial diaphragm E. formation of peritubular dentin
C. calcification pattern of maturing dentin.
129. Which of the following represent fan-shaped, hypocalcified areas that originates
at the DEJ and extend into enamel for part of its thickness?
130. Compared with intertubular dentin, peritubular dentin is characterized by which of

the following?

133. Which of the following microorganisms is the most commonly associated with
root surface caries?
135. The Lancefield streptococcal group most likely to contain strains pathogenic for
man is:

B. Clostridium tetani D. Streptococcus faecalis E. Neisseria
meningitides
development?

A. 1,2,3,4 B. 3,4,1,2 C. 3,4,2,1 D. 4,1,2,3 E. 4,3,2,1

B. dental papilla D. outer enamel epithelium E. epithelial root
sheath
A. 1 & 2 B. 1 & 3 C. 2 & 3 D. 2 & 4 E. 3 & 4


anatomic findings?

145. Differentiation is a measure of a tumor’s resemblance to normal tissue. Anaplasia

is:

A. Osteochrondroma B. Osteoma C. Fracture D.
Osteoblastoma
148. Acute osteomyelitis is most frequently caused by which of the following

microorganisms?
149. Which of the following is most likely to be cultured from chronic bilateral
A. Mucor B. . Treponema C. Candida D. Brucella E.
Aspergillus
B. Hepatitis B D. Herpes Zoster E. Infectious mononucleosis
151. A nuclear change that involves the condensation and shrinking of the cell
nucleaus with chromatin clumping is known as:
A. Pyknosis B. Karyolysis C. Karyopyknosis D.
Karyorrhexis
152. A neoplasm derived from all three germ cell layers:

A. Carcinoma B. teratoma C. Sarcoma D. APUDoma
A. autolysis B. algor mortis C. rigor mortis D. livor mortis E. all of
these.
B. liver & gall bladder D. esophagus & duodenum E. liver and
pancreas
157. An individual that presents with keratoconjunctivitis, parotid gland enlargement

and a positive Rh factor is most likely to be diagnosed with:
B. Reiter’s syndrome D. Sjogrens syndrome E. Systemic Lupus
Erythematosis
158. Proud flesh or exuberant growth of cells are also known as:
A. cicatrix B. keloid C. massive elastin D. granulation tissue E. all
of them
159. Humans may acquire Toxoplasma gondii by:

A. swimming in contaminated water C. sustaining a dog bite
B. ingestion of cysts in poorly cooked meat D. airborne conidia
160. Which area of the oral cavity has mucosa that is lined with keratinized
epithelium?
A. soft palate B. sublingual regions C. gingiva D. buccal
regions
161. Mucosal areas of the oral cavity that are not keratinized;
1. soft palate 2. sublingual 3. buccal 4. hard palate
A. 1 & 2 B. 2 & 3 C. 3 & 4 D. 1,2 & 3 E. 4 only
162. Type of epithelium that lines the mucous membranes of the nasopharynx:
A. simple squamous epithelium C. stratified squamous epithelium
B.pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium D. transitional epithelium
163. The most serious immunodeficiency disorders ia:

A. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome C. Severe combined immunodeficiency disease
(SCID)
B. Ataxia-Telangiectasia D. Hyper-IgE syndrome

167. Examination of a 6-year old girl discloses macroglossia on the left side of her
tongue. It displays a diffuse distribution of 2-3mm elevated, gary-pink nodules, some of
which contain fluid. The remainder of the oral cavity is normal. The most likely diagnosis
is:
A. lymphangioma C. neurofibromatosis
B. cysticd hygroma D. granular cell tumor E. Sturge-Weber
syndrome
168. Bifid ribs, multiple radioluscent lesions of the maxilla and the mandible, multiple
skin lesions and calcification of the falx cerebri are characteristic of:
A. Horner’s syndrome C. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
B. Gardner’s syndrome D. Sturge-Weber syndrome E. basal cell nevus
syndrome

transformation?
A. Osteomalacia C. Paget’s disease of bone E. Osteogenesis
imperfecta
B. Albright’s syndrome D. von Recklinghausen’s disease of bone
disease of bone?
172. An individual with Addison’s disease is most likely to experience which of the
following?
A. Decreased ACTH levels C. Hypogylcemia
B. Hypernatremia D. Water retention E. weight gain
173. Biopsy of a smooth, red, protruding lesion at the tip of the tongue reveals a
stratified squamous epithelium covering loose, fibrous connective tissue that contains
many thin-walled, engorged, vascular spaces. The diagnosis is:
A. Fibroma C. peripheral giant cell granuloma
B. Papilloma D. granular cell tumor (myoblastoma) E.
Hemangioma
174. A patient complains of severe pain and fever. A poorly circumscribed
radiolucency of the body of the mandible with a central sclerotic nidus is detected. The
disease is probably:
A. osteosarcoma C. ameloblastoma
B. osteomyelitis D. fibrous dysplasia E. ossifying fibroma

A. Bell’s palsy C. orolingual paresthesia
B. Menlere’s disease D. auriculotemporal syndrome E. glossopharyngeal
neuralgia
176. A patient states that fr almost a year now, she has had a rubbery, firm, painless
nodule within the substance of the parotid gland.The condition described is most likely a:
A. mucocele C. benign mixed tumor
B. lymph node D. squamous cell carcinoma E. sialolith with
encapsulation
177. Which of the following reactive lesions of the gingival tissue reveals bone
formation microscopically?
A. Peripheral ossifying fibroma C. Irritation fibroma
B. Traumatic neuroma D. Osteoma E. Pyogenic
granuloma
178. A patient has two or more of her teeth joined only by cementum. This
phenomenon is known as:
A. Fusion C. germination
B. Hypercementosis D. dilacerations E. concrescence
A. Anterior maxilla B. Anterior mandible C. Posterior maxilla D. Posterior
mandible

hemangiopericytoma
182. Electron microscope examination of the bacterial flora of necrotizing ulcerative

gingivitis indicates the presence of microorganisms within non-necrotic tissues in
advance of other bacteria. The organisms involved are:
A. cocci. B. Bacteriophages C. Spirochetes. D. filamentous rods

A. Streptococcus sanguis C. Porphyromonas gingivalis
B. Streptococcus salivarius D. Capnocytophage gingivalis

185. Which of the following species is a usual constituent of floras that are associated
with periodontal health?
A. Campylobacter recta C. Eubacterium nodatum
B. Porphyromonas gingivalis D. Streptococcus gordonii
186. A child has a history of generalized growth failure (failure to thrive) during the first
six months of his life. Which of the following sequela is likely in this child?
A. enamel hypoplasia C. retrusive mandible
B. retrusive midface D. small permanent teeth E. dentinogenesis
imperfecta

A. First B. third C. Second D. fourth E. fifth
E.Inner dental epithelium and outer dental epithelium.
189. A dentist uses an unsaturated, chemical sterilizer for sterilizing dental

instruments. To effectively kill all microorganisms and spores, the dentist must maintain
a temperature of 132ºC at 20 – 40 psi for at least how many minutes?
A. 10 B. 20 C. 30 D. 40
190. The virus that causes acute herpetic gingivostomatitis is closely related to the
virus that causes
A. Mumps B. measles C. chickenpox D. cat-scratch disease
191. Each of the following diseases has been associated with the Epstein-Barr virus,
except:
193. For the majority of individuals, the initial infection with herpes simplex virus
results in:
A. genital herpes C. a dermal rash in childhood
B. a subclinical disease D. encephalitis as a young adult E.herpes labialis in
puberty
194. A child that has blood taken and analyzed reveals a high IgM titer for the mumps
antigen. The presence of this antigen indicates which of the following?
A. The child has developed an immunity to mumps.
B. The child has recovered from the mumps.
C. The child is about to develop the mumps.
D. The child is allergic to mumps.
E. The child is not able to “spread” the mumps to anyone else.
195. A cigarette-smoking patient notices a gradual onset of progressive, labored

breathing characterized by prolonged, expiratory effort. The most likely diagnosis is:
B. chronic bronchitis E. pulmonary emphysema
C. left sided heart failure with pulmonary congestion and edema

B. oxidation D. coagulation of protein E. acceleration of enzyme
metabolism
197. Mycotic organisms are characteristically found microscopically within

reticuloendothelial cells in;
disease

200. Microorganisms of which the following genera are most predominant in the
normal oral flora?

School of Dentistry
GENERAL AND ORAL MICROSCOPIC ANATOMY;

Shade AE if the answer is not in the choices given.

A. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome C. Ataxia-
Telangiectasia
B. Severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID) D. Hyper-IgE
syndrome

A. diabetes B. AIDS C. chronic renal failure D. hypertension

A. diarrhea B. cough and fever C. malaise D. weight loss
E. all of these

A. 1 & 2 B. 1,2 & 3 C. 2,3 & 4 D. 1,2,3 & 4 E. 1 only

206. Microorganisms of which the following genera are most predominant in the
normal oral flora?

microorganisms?
A. Gonococcus B, streptococcus C.Enterococcus D. staphylococcus
E. all of them
A. Mucor B. Treponema C. Candida D. Brucella
E. Aspergillus

A. autolysis B. algor mortis C. rigor mortis D. livor mortis E. all
of these.
213. An individual that presents with keratoconjunctivitis, parotid gland enlargement

and a positive Rh factor is most likely to be diagnosed with:
B. Reiter’s syndrome D. Sjogrens syndrome E.Systemic Lupus
Erythematosis
A. cicatrix B. keloid C. massive elastin D. granulation tissue E. all
of them
epithelium?
A. soft palate B. sublingual regions C. gingiva D. buccal
regions
A. swimming in contaminated water C. sustaining a dog bite
B. ingestion of cysts in poorly cooked meat D. airborne conidia

B. oxidationD. coagulation of protein E. acceleration of enzyme metabolism

disease


A. 1,2,3,4 B. 3,4,1,2 C. 3,4,2,1 D. 4,1,2,3 E. 4,3,2,1
sheath
A. 1 & 2 B. 1 & 3 C. 2 & 3 D. 2 & 4 E. 3 & 4


A. 1 & 2 B. 2 & 3 C. 3 & 4 D. 1,2 & 3 E. 4 only
A. simple squamous epithelium C. stratified squamous epithelium
B. pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium D. transitional epithelium

A. upper third of the fallopian tube C. posterior wall of uterus
B. cervix of the uterus D. fimbriated fold of fallopian tube

A. First B. Second C. thirdD. fourth E. fifth
A. stratified epithelium C. muscles of the heart
B. linings of intestinal tract D. endothelium E. any of the above

above.
C.
A. union of sperm and ovum D. series of mitotic cell divisions
B. implantation of the fetus E. all of the above.
C. formation of corona radiate

A. smooth muscle D. elastic membrane
B. hyaline cartilage E. dense irregular connective
tissue
C. elastic and collagenous connective tissue
236. Which of the following explains why the Barr body found in certain epithelial cells
is significant?
B. It indicates a metaplasmic change. E. It is a symptom of nuclear
disintegration.

loss
A. one-fourth B. one-half C. one-third D. one-fifth E.
same thickness
240. .In the normal dental pulp, which of the following histologic features is (are) the
least likely to appear?
A. Size B. number C.Shape D. calcification
242. A cleft lip occurs following the failure of permanent union between which of the
following?
A. The palatine processes D. The maxillary processes
B. The palatine process with the frontonasal process E. The maxillary process with the
palatine process
C. The maxillary process with the frontonasal process
243. A child has a history of generalized growth failure (failure to thrive) during the first
six months of his life. Which of the following sequela is likely in this child?
B. retrusive midface D. small permanent teeth E. dentinogenesis
imperfecta
244. A patient states that fr almost a year now, she has had a rubbery, firm, painless
nodule within the substance of the parotid gland.The condition described is most likely a:
B. lymph node D. squamous cell carcinoma E. sialolith with encapsulation
A. Peripheral ossifying fibroma C. Irritation fibroma
B. Traumatic neuroma D. Osteoma E. Pyogenic
granuloma
A. Fusion B. germination C. Hypercementosis D. dilacerations E.
concrescence
A. Anterior maxilla B.. Anterior mandible C. Posterior maxilla D. Posterior
mandible
A. incremental pattern C. crowding of odontoblasts
B. epithelial diaphragm D. formation of peritubular dentin
E. calcification pattern of maturing dentin.
250. Which of the following represent fan-shaped, hypocalcified areas that originates
at the DEJ and extend into enamel for part of its thickness?
A. tufts B. Lamellae B.spindles D. Hunter-Schreger bands E. Contour lines of
Owen
251. Compared with intertubular dentin, peritubular dentin is characterized by which of

the following?

254. A belt-like junction that completely encircles the epithelial cell, binding it to all its
neighbors.
A .tight junctions (zonula occludens) C. intermediate junction (zonula adherens)
B. desmosomes ( macula adherens)
255. For the majority of individuals, the initial infection with herpes simplex virus
results in:
A. genital herpes D. a dermal rash in childhood
B. a subclinical disease E. encephalitis as a young adult
C. herpes labialis in puberty
256. A child that has blood taken and analyzed reveals a high IgM titer for the mumps
antigen. The presence of this antigen indicates which of the following?
257. A cigarette-smoking patient notices a gradual onset of progressive, labored

breathing characterized by prolonged, expiratory effort. The most likely diagnosis is:
B. chronic bronchitis E. left sided heart failure with pulmonary congestion
and edema
C. pulmonary emphysema
anatomic findings?

260. Differentiation is a measure of a tumor’s resemblance to normal tissue. Anaplasia

is:

A. Osteochrondroma B. Osteoma C. Fracture D. Osteoblastoma
A. Pyknosis B. Karyolysis C. Karyopyknosis D.
Karyorrhexis

A. Carcinoma B. teratoma C. Sarcoma D. APUDoma
266. Qhich of the following vesiculobullous disorders features an autoantibody that

localizes in the intercellular cementing substance of stratified squamous epithelium?
caused by:
B. Epstein-Barr virus D. varicella-zoster virus E. respiratory syncytial virus
268. Which of the following syndromes is associated with predisposition to oral and
pharyngeal carcinoma?
A. Gardner’s B. Cushing’s C. Sjogren’s D. Peutz-Jeghers E. Plummer-
Vinson
270. Examination of a 6-year old girl discloses macroglossia on the left side of her
tongue. It displays a diffuse distribution of 2-3mm elevated, gary-pink nodules, some of
which contain fluid. The remainder of the oral cavity is normal. The most likely diagnosis
is:
B. cysticd hygroma D. granular cell tumor E. Sturge-Weber syndrome

272. Bifid ribs, multiple radioluscent lesions of the maxilla and the mandible, multiple
skin lesions and calcification of the falx cerebri are characteristic of:
B. Gardner’s syndrome D. Sturge-Weber syndrome E. basal cell nevus
syndrome
273. The apical cytoplasm of active serous glandular cells is typically filled with which
of the following?
274. The cerebellar cortex is characterized histologically by which of the following

types of cells?
A. Basket B. PyramidaL C. Purkinje D. Martinotti E.
Horizontal


A. 46 pairs of chromosomes C. 23 chromosomes
B. haploid number of chromosomes D. diploid number of
chromosomes

transformation?
A. Osteomalacia C. Paget’s disease of bone
B. Albright’s syndrome D. Osteogenesis imperfect E. von Recklinghausen’s
disease of bone
disease of bone?
280. An individual with Addison’s disease is most likely to experience which of the
following?
281. Biopsy of a smooth, red, protruding lesion at the tip of the tongue reveals a
stratified squamous epithelium covering loose, fibrous connective tissue that contains
many thin-walled, engorged, vascular spaces. The diagnosis is:
A. Fibroma C. peripheral giant cell granuloma
B. Papilloma D. granular cell tumor (myoblastoma) E. Hemangioma

hemangiopericytoma
283. The virus that causes acute herpetic gingivostomatitis is closely related to the
virus that causes

radiolucency of the body of the mandible with a central sclerotic nidus is detected. The
disease is probably:

B. Menlere’s disease D. auriculotemporal syndrome E. glossopharyngeal
neuralgia
287. Electron microscope examination of the bacterial flora of necrotizing ulcerative

gingivitis indicates the presence of microorganisms within non-necrotic tissues in
advance of other bacteria. The organisms involved are:
A. cocci. B. Bacteriophages C. Spirochetes. D. filamentous rods

289. Which of the following species is a usual constituent of floras that are associated
with periodontal health?

instruments. To effectively kill all microorganisms and spores, the dentist must maintain
a temperature of 132ºC at 20 – 40 psi for at least how many minutes?
A. 10 B. 20 C. 30 D. 40
291. Each of the following diseases has been associated with the Epstein-Barr virus,
except:
292. Which of the following microorganisms is the most commonly associated with
root surface caries?

294. The Lancefield streptococcal group most likely to contain strains pathogenic for
man is:
development?

A .tunica intima B. tunica adventitia C. tunica media D. vasa vasorum E. nervi
vasorum
B. liver & gall bladder D. esophagus & duodenumE. liver and pancreas

A. stratified cuboidal epithelium C.stratified squamous epithelium
B. stratified columnar epithelium D.pseudostratified columnar epithelium

B. Clostridium tetani D. Streptococcus faecalis E. Neisseria
meningitides
CENTRO ESCOLAR UNIVERSITY

School of Dentistry
THEORETICAL EXAMINATION
GENERAL AND ORAL MICROSCOPIC ANATOMY AND EMBRYOLOGY;
GENERAL AND ORAL PATHOLOGY ; MICROBIOLOGY
1. A structure composed of two or more tissues is referred to as:

A. organ C. serous membrane
B. complex tissue D. organ system E. none of these
2. Which of the following can be found in cartilage but not in bone tissue:
A. Lacunae C. protein fibers
B. blood vessels D. chondroitin E. none of these
3. Epithelia that consist of more than one layer of cells is termed:

A. striated C. stratified
B. stipilated D. intercalated E. none
4. The matrix of connective tissue is composed of:

A. cells, fibers and ground substance C. cells and fibers
B. fibers and ground substance D. cells and ground substance
5. Which of the following heals the quickest after injury:

A. bone C. epithelium
B. cartilage D. muscle E. none of these
6. Which of the following does not describe skeletal muscle tissue fibers:
A. striated C. voluntary
B. multinucleate D. branched E. none of these
7. Which of the following suffixes implies "growth" or "formation":

A. -blast C. -lemma
B. -stasis D. -cyte E. none of these
8. Based on basic tissue type, which of the following terms does not belong grouped with the
others:
A. muscle C. ligament
B. cartilage D. blood E. none of these
9. A tissue viewed under the microscope displays cells in little holes, densely packed fibers and
no blood vessels. This describes:
A. dense regular connective tissue C. hyaline cartilage
B. fibrocartilage D. adipose tissue E. none of these
10. Which of the following is a structural, fibrous protein found in the dermis?
A. Collagen C. Heparin
B. Lipocyte D. Melanin E. Sebum
11. Yellow marrow consists of:

A. osteoprogenitor cells C. blood cell progenitor cells
B. hyaline cartilage D. adipose E. spongy bone
12. The ffg are characteristics of bronchioles, except:

A. segmented cartilage plates C. complete ring of smooth muscle
B. absence of glands D. irregularly shaped lumen E. ciliated columnar cells.

A. convoluted tubules C. glomerulus and Bowman’s capsule
B. loops of Henle D. collecting tubules E. all of these.
14. In the digestive tract, glands in the submucosa are round only in:
A. duodenum and jejunum C. stomach and esophagus
B. liver and gallbladder D. esophagus and duodenum E. liver and pancreas.
15. Tooth is derived from the :

A. ectoderm only B. endoderm only C. mesoderm only
D. both mesoderm and endoderm E. both ectoderm and mesoderm
16. Primitive cells of enamel:

A. ameloblast C. osteoblast
B. odontoblast D. fibroblast E. none of the above
17. Hertwig’s epithelial sheath plays an important role in the development of:
A. enamel B. dentin C. roots
D. pulp E. none of the choices.
18. Also known as proliferation stage:

A. cap B. bell C. bud
D. all of the above E. none of the choices.
19. Give rise to the pulp:

A. inner dental epithelium C. dental papilla
B. stellate reticulum D. dental sac E. none of the choices.

21. The proper formation of collagen in a healing wound requires:

A. high levels of adrenocortical hormones C. vitamin C
B. cholesterol D. vitamin D E. vitamin K.
22. Marks the daily appositional growth of enamel:

A. Hunter-Schreger bands C. transverse striations
B. Incremental lines of Retzius D. all of the above E. none of the above
23. A scalloped junction:

A. DEJ B. CEJ C. DCJ D. none of the above.
24. Enamel contains:


A. histiocytes C. resting wandering cells
B. undifferentiated mesenchymal cells D. none of the choices.
26. Contributes to the lengthening of the roots:

A. cellular cementum C. cementum hyperplasia
B. accellular cementum D. cementum hypertrophy E. none.

A. reparative dentin formation C. sclerotic dentin
B. dead tracts formation D. transparent dentin formation E. none.
28. Uncalcified cementum:

A. amyloid B. cementoid C. dentinoid D. none
29. Causes death of odontoblast:

A. caries C. overcrowding of odontoblasts
B. attrition D. all of the above E. none.
30. A type of dentin with few & trusted dentinal tubules:

A. reparative B. secondary C. primary D. sclerotic
31. .A lysosomal storage disease characterized by deficiency of hexosaminidase A with “cherry-

red spot formation in the retina leading to blindness is:
A. Niemann-Pick disease C. Pompe’s disease
B. Tay-Sach’s disease D. Gaucher’s disease E. Her’s disease.
32. Which of the following disorders is characterized by painful musculoskeletal "tender points":
A. fibromyalgia C. myasthenia gravis
B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy D. Becker muscular dystrophy
33. Muscular dystrophy is a congenital disorder characterized by

A. skeletal muscle degeneration C. excessive convulsions
B. shaking and trembling D. only cardiac damage
34. The "Hunchback" of Notre Dame probably suffered from:

A. cleft palate B. scoliosis C. kyphosis D. lordosis E. spina bifida
35. Patients with which of the following diseases are treated with injections of vitamin B-12?
A. Bell's palsy C. Crohn's disease
B. Diabetes mellitus D. Graves' disease E. Pernicious anemia
36. Cystic hygroma is associated with which of the ffg. disease entities?
A. lipoma C. chondroma
B. myxoma D. lymphangioma E. hemangioma
37. . “Sulfur granules” are of diagnostic value in suspected cases of:

A. histoplasmosis B. scrofula C. furumcolosis
D. actinomycosis E. none.
38.. Congenital pits and fistulae seen on the lower lip of some patients maybe considered:
A. natal injuries C. inherited type of cheilitis
B. developmental anomalies D. a syphilitic pathosis E. none of these
39. Presence of a recognizable dental plaque is essential for the development of:
A. bacteremia of dental origin C. pit and fissure caries
B. smooth surface caries D. all of the choices E. none of these
40. All of the following are RNA enveloped viruses, except:

A. Picornaviruses C. HIV
B. Measles, mumps, rubella & hepatitis C viruses D. Respiratory viruses
41. Bacterial vaccines are composed of:

A. Capsular polysaccharides C. Killed bacteria
B. Inactivated protein exotoxins D. Live attenuated bacteria E. all of these.
42. Which of the following bacterial exotoxins converts plasminogen to plasmin?

A.M-protein C. Plasmalysin
B. Coagulase D. Hyaluronidase E. Streptokinase

A. alpha-hemolytic streptococcus B. herpes simplex virus
C. Staphylococcus aureus D. hemophilus influenzae E. a variety of viruses
44. Hypersensitivity to M. Tuberculosis is manifested by which of the following?

A. Necrosis C. Epithelioid cells
B. Exudation D. Langhan’s giant cells E. spreading of the initial focus
45. Administration of tetanus toxoid provides what type of immunity?

A. Innate C. Natural passive
B. Natural active D. Artificial active E. Artificial passive
46. . Ameloblastoma features include the following except:

A.. may arise in wall of dentigerous cyst C.. asymptomatic
B. may exhibit aggressive behavior D. multilocular radiopacities

A. usually affects anterior jaw segment
B. well defined radiolucency D. asymptomatic
C. usually associated with crown of impacted tooth E. none of the above

A. solid ameloblastoma C. follicular ameoblastoma
B. cystic ameloblastoma D.. peripheral ameloblastoma E. none of the above

C. slow growing
D. age of occurrence is same as that in ameloblastoma
A. ameloblastoma B. complex odontoma C. cementoblastoma
D. ameloblastic fibroma E.. adenomatoid odontogenic tumor
51. Organisms that must have oxygen for survival is known as:
A. facultative aerobe C. obligate anaerobe
B. obligate aerobe D. facultative anaerobe E. microaerophilic
52. Which of the following is not a type of tube medium?

A. Butt B. butt-slant C. plated D. slant E. broth
53. Which of the following is needed for the synthesis of nucleic acids and phospholipids of the
cell membrane:
A. Sulfur B. nitrogen C. carbon
D. phosphorus E. lithium
54. Which is not a spiral microorganism?

A. comma shaped C. wavy
B. corkscrew like D. both A & B only E. none of these.
55. Rod shape organisms in chains is known as:

A. staphylococci C. streptobacilli
B. streptococci D. tetrad E. none of these
56. Most common differential stain in microbiology:

A. Wirtz Conklin C. Methylene blue
B. Gram stain D. Negative staining E. Acid fast stain
57. An individual who has received all three doses of hepatitis B vaccine and who has never
had hepatitis B virus (HBV) infection would be expected to have which of the following serologic
marker(s)?
A. HbcAb B. HbsAb C. HbeAb
D. HbeAB and HbsAb E. none of these
58. Which of the following, if ingested raw or poorly cooked, can be the source of Taenia
saginata infections?
A. Pork B. beef C. lamb D. fish E. none of these
59. Of the following viruses, which is the most common nosocomial pathogen in pediatric
wards?
A. Respiratory syncytial virus C. Herpes simplex virus
B. Adenovirus D. Cytomegalovirus E. none of these
60. Which of the following are associated with Histoplasma capsulatum?

A. Tuberculate macroconidia C. Sclerotic bodies
B. Spherules D. Aythroconidia
61. Acute infantile diarrhea is most commonly due to infection with which of the following?
A. Enteroviruses C. Enteric adenoviruses
B. Rotaviruses D. Noroviruses E. none of these
62. The nucleolus produces?
A. DNA C. ribosomal RNA
B. Transfer RNA D. messenger RNA E. both A & B
63. Which of the following lymphoid tissues in the body are considered subepithelial and
nonencapsulated?
A. Thymus gland and lymph nodes C. Lymph nodes and aggregated nodules
B. Pharyngeal tonsils and thymus gland D. Peyer’s patches & pharyngeal tonsils
64. Salivary, sweat, sebaceous, and von Ebner’s glands all have in common the characteristic
of being?
A.Simple B. compound C. exocrine D. holocrine E. merocrine
65. The osteon is a cylinder of compact bone composed of?

A. basal laminae C. interstitial lamellae
B. concentric lamellae D. circumferential lamellae E. both B & D
66. The connective tissue sheath that surrounds the muscle as a whole and is synonymous
with the gross anatomical deep fascia is the:
A. epimysium C. perimysium
B. endomysium D. periosteum E. perichondrium
67. Oxyphil cells are characteristic of which organ?

A. Pineal body C. exocrine portion of pancreas
B. Adrenal medulla D. Thyroid gland E. Parathyroid gland
68. The mandible develops:

A. from Meckel’s cartilage D. from the same cartilage that forms the malleus
B. from the second branchial arch E. as endochondral bone
C. as intramembranous bone
69. Hunter Schreger bands are due to

A. increased organic content in some areas
B. daily growth rhythms
C. dietary change after birth
D. hypoclacified areas alternating with hypercalcified areas
E. changes in the prism orientation from one group of prisms to the next group of
prisms.
70. Cells of the periodontal ligament associated with the formation of mineralized tissue,
include:
I. Fibroblast III. osteoblats
II. Cementoblast IV. chondroblats
A. I and II B. II and III C. I and III D. II and IV E. III and IV
71. The zigzag line that traverses the I band is the

A. H band B. A band C. Z line D. M band E. light band.
72. All pertain to the gray matter of the brain and spinal cord, except:
A. consists of several nerve cell bodies
B. nerve cells with abundant Nissl bodies
C. contain more blood vessels
D. contain myelinated nerve fibers
E. contain naked nerve fibers.
73. The very distinct nerve cells of the cerebral cortex are the:
A. pyknomorphous cells C. small pyramidal cells
B. large pyramidal cells D. both A and B E. A, B and C
74. Properties exhibited by the nervous tissues to a very high degree are:
A. contractility and conductivity
B. conductivity and irritability D. growth and reproduction
C. contractility and irritability E. metabolism and reproduction.
75. The skeletal muscle fiber unit deliNeated between two Z disks (lines) is termed a
A. Sarcolemma C. I (isotropic) band
B. Sarcomere D. A (anisotropic) band E. T tubular system
76. The T tubular system of a thin surface membrane tubule extending deep into the
sarcoplasm and two lateral extensions of sarcoplasmic reticulum contains:
A. Ribosomes C.. lipids
B. high calcium concentration D. glycogen E. neurotransmitter
77. Skeletal muscle fiber bundles are anchored to bone by:

A. Ligament C. tendon
B. Periosteum D. fascia E. anchoring filaments
78. Bone remodeling depends on the presence of

A. Mesenchyme C. osteoblasts alone E. chondroblasts
B. Osteocytes D. osteoblasts and osteoclasts
79. Outer circumferential lamellae are derived by osteogenesis at the

A. endosteum C. Haversian system
B. periosteum D. Both A & B E. Both B & C
80. Podocytes are described as having

1. primary and secondary foot processes/pedicels
2. large oval-shaped nuclei and light grandular chromatin pattern
3. with filtration slit membranes
4. sitting on the glomerular basement membrane
A. 1,2,3 B. 1,2,4 C. 2,3,4 D. 1,3,4 E. 1,2,3,4
81. Glomerular endothelium:

1. is fenestrated
2. with its basement membrane lamina densa containing type IV collagen
3. a lamina rara interna
4. a lamina rara externa with fixed negatively charged (polyanionic) sites
A. 1,2,3 B. 1,2,4 C. 2,3,4 D. 1,3,4 E. 1,2,3,4
82.The juxtaglomerular apparatus consists of

1. renin-producing cells at the vascular hilum of the glomerulus
2. lacis cells
3. macula densa
4. distal convoluted tubule
A. 1,2,3 B. 1,2,4 C. 2,3,4 D. 1,3,4 E. 1,2,3,4
83. Transitional epithelium, allowing distension and relaxation lines

1. minor calyx 3. renal pelvis
2. major calyx 4. urinary bladder
A. 1,2,3 B. 1,2,4 C. 2,3,4 D. 1,3,4 E. 1,2,3,4
84. Functions of the bacterial membrane:
A. Osmosis C. plasmolysis
B. Permeability D. primer for biosynthesis E. site of antigenic determinant

A. Flagella C. spore
B. Capsule D. both A & B E. all of these
86. Which is not a basic stain?

A. Safranin C. crystal violet
B. methylene blue D. carbol fuchsin E. none of these
87. Common solidifying agents in the preparation of culture media?

A. Gelatin C. iodine
B. Agar D. both A & B E. both B & C
88. Which of the following is not an enrichment substance in culture media?

A. Chocolate C. glycerine
B. blood components D. albumin E. none of the above
89. Produces heparin, histamine and serotonin

A. Lymphocyte C. Basophil
B. Neutrophil D. Monocyte E. Eosinophil
90. Responsible for short term response to injury

91. The normal value of glucose is:

A. 3-5mg/dl C. 3-5& uug%
B. 55-90mM/liter D. 55-90 mg/dl E. all of them.
92. .All are stains used to identify amyloid when deposited in tissues, except:
A. Sirius red C. Methyl red
B. Congo red D. Methyl violet E. Iodine.
93. Litmus paper is a ____ method of pH determination.

A. colorimetric C. electrometric
B.Geometric D. trigonometric E. indirect
94.Phase in the bacterial growth curve where the number of growth = the number of death
A. Latent phase C. Log phase
B. Death phase D. Stationary E. Lag phase
95. Which is not a physical method of sterilization?

A. Filtration C. UV light
B. Xray D. Surfactants E. Cold sterilization
96. Mikulicz’s disease differs from malignant lymphoma involving salivary glands, because the
latter disease:
A. epimyoepithelial islands are not present
B. the lymphoid elements are atypical
C. interlobular septa are infiltrated by lymphoid tissue
D. all of the above
97. Radiographically, the “onion skin” effect is associated with:

A. Burkitt’s lymphoma C. osteosarcoma
B. Multiple myeloma D. osteoid osteoma E. Ewing’s sarcoma
98. The “ground glass” or “Peau d Orange” radiographic effect is commonly associated with:
A. Ossifying Fibroma C. Osteoma
B. Chondroma D. Fibrous Dysplasia E. Osteoblastoma
99. Virus associated with Ewing’s Sarcoma:

A. (a) Epstein-Barr virus C. Herpes Simplex
B. Cytomegalovirus D. Herpes Zoster E. None of the above
100. Neurilemmoma is a benign neoplasm that is derived from a proliferation of:

A. neuritis B. axons C. schwann cells
D. langerhan cells E none of the above

College of Dentistry
0106A

B. liver & gall bladder D. esophagus & duodenum
E. liver and pancreas
A. stratified cuboidal epithelium
B. stratified squamous epithelium
C. stratified columnar epithelium
D. pseudostratified columnar epithelium
305. A belt-like junction that completely encircles the epithelial cell, binding it to
all its neighbors.
A. tight junctions (zonula occludens)
B. intermediate junction (zonula adherens)
C. desmosomes ( macula adherens)
D. none of the above.
epithelium?
A. soft palate C. sublingual regions
B. gingiva D. buccal regions
A. 1 & 2 B. 2 & 3 C. 3 & 4 D. 1,2 & 3 E. 4 only
A. simple squamous epithelium
B. stratified squamous epithelium
C. pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium
D. transitional epithelium

A. upper third of the fallopian tube
B. posterior wall of uterus
C. cervix of the uterus
D. fimbriated fold of fallopian tube
E. none of the above.
F.
A. stratified epithelium C. muscles of the heart
B. linings of intestinal tract D. endothelium
E. any of the above
311. The apical cytoplasm of active serous glandular cells is typically filled with
which of the following?
312. The cerebellar cortex is characterized histologically by which of the
following types of cells?
A. Basket C. Pyramidal
B. Purkinje D. Martinotti E. Horizontal




B. internal to nucleolemma D. external to plasma lemma
E. none of the above.
A. union of sperm and ovum D. series of mitotic cell divisions
B. implantation of the fetus E. all of the above.
C. formation of corona radiate

319. Which of the following represents the main support of the wall of a
bronchus?
320. Which of the following explains why the Barr body found in certain
epithelial cells is significant?
A. It suggests mitotic activity.
B. It indicates protein synthesis.
C. It indicates a metaplasmic change.
D. It is a symptom of nuclear disintegration.
E. It assists in differentiating between the sexes.
321. Which of the following characteristics most readily distinguishes

amelogenesis imperfecta from dentinogenesis imperfecta?
B. Hereditary background D. color of the teeth
E. associated hair loss
324. .In the normal dental pulp, which of the following histologic features is
(are) the least likely to appear?
A. Size C. number
B. Shape D. calcification
326. A cleft lip occurs following the failure of permanent union between which
of the following?
A. The palatine processes
B. The maxillary processes
C. The palatine process with the frontonasal process
D. The maxillary process with the palatine process
E. The maxillary process with the frontonasal process
327. A child has a history of generalized growth failure (failure to thrive) during
the first six months of his life. Which of the following sequela is likely in this child?
B. retrusive midface D. small permanent teeth
E. dentinogenesis imperfecta
A. First C. third
B. Second D. fourth E. fifth
331. Which of the following represent fan-shaped, hypocalcified areas that

originates at the DEJ and extend into enamel for part of its thickness?
332. Compared with intertubular dentin, peritubular dentin is characterized by

which of the following?

335. Which of the following is necessary for cementum to be deposited during

tooth development?

A. 1,2,3,4 B. 3,4,1,2 C. 3,4,2,1 D. 4,1,2,3 E. 4,3,2,1

B. dental papilla D. outer enamel epithelium
E. epithelial root sheath
338. Maxillary teeth are developed from which of the following embryonic
structures?
A. 1 & 2 B. 1 & 3 C. 2 & 3 D. 2 & 4 E. 3 & 4


341. For the majority of individuals, the initial infection with herpes simplex
virus results in:
A. genital herpes D. a dermal rash in childhood
B. a subclinical disease E. encephalitis as a young adult
C. herpes labialis in puberty
342. A child that has blood taken and analyzed reveals a high IgM titer for the
mumps antigen. The presence of this antigen indicates which of the following?
343. A cigarette-smoking patient notices a gradual onset of progressive,

labored breathing characterized by prolonged, expiratory effort. The most likely
diagnosis is:
B. chronic bronchitis E. left sided heart failure with pulmonary
C. pulmonary emphysema congestion and edema
344. Hypertensive heart disease is consistently associated with which of the

following anatomic findings?
A. aortic stenosis D. left ventricular hypertrophy
B. tricuspid stenosis E. right ventricular hypertrophy
C. pericardial effusion

346. Differentiation is a measure of a tumor’s resemblance to normal tissue.

Anaplasia is:
A. a high degree of differentiation
B. a moderate degree of differentiation
C. the absence of differentiation
D. total differentiation
347. Type of shock that is most often associated with severe trauma to the
CNS?
A. hypovolemic shock D. neurogenic shock
B. cardiogenic shock E. anaphylactic shock
C. septic shock

A. Osteochrondroma C. Osteoma
B. Fracture D. Osteoblastoma
A. Pyknosis C. Karyolysis
B. Karyopyknosis D. Karyorrhexis

A. Carcinoma C. teratoma
B. Sarcoma D. APUDoma
A. autolysis C. algor mortis
B. rigor mortis D. livor mortis E. all of these.
353. An individual that presents with keratoconjunctivitis, parotid gland

enlargement and a positive Rh factor is most likely to be diagnosed with:
B. Reiter’s syndrome D. Sjogrens syndrome
E.Systemic Lupus Erythematosis
A. cicatrix C. keloid
B. massive elastin D. granulation tissue E. all of them

A. swimming in contaminated water
B. sustaining a dog bite
C. ingestion of cysts in poorly cooked meat
D. airborne conidia

A. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
B. Severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID)
C. Ataxia-Telangiectasia
D. Hyper-IgE syndrome

A. diabetes C. AIDS
B. chronic renal failure D. hypertension

A. diarrhea C. cough and fever
B. malaise D. weight loss E. all of these

A. 1 & 2 B. 1,2 & 3 C. 2,3 & 4 D. 1,2,3 & 4 E. 1 only

362. Qhich of the following vesiculobullous disorders features an autoantibody

that localizes in the intercellular cementing substance of stratified squamous
epithelium?
caused by:
B. Epstein-Barr virus D. varicella-zoster virus E. respiratory
syncytial virus
364. Which of the following syndromes is associated with predisposition to oral

and pharyngeal carcinoma?
A. Gardner’s C. Cushing’s
B. Sjogren’s D. Peutz-Jeghers E. Plummer-Vinson
366. Examination of a 6-year old girl discloses macroglossia on the left side of
her tongue. It displays a diffuse distribution of 2-3mm elevated, gary-pink
nodules, some of which contain fluid. The remainder of the oral cavity is normal.
The most likely diagnosis is:
B. cysticd hygroma D. granular cell tumor E. Sturge-Weber syndrome
367. Bifid ribs, multiple radioluscent lesions of the maxilla and the mandible,
multiple skin lesions and calcification of the falx cerebri are characteristic of:
B. Gardner’s syndrome D. Sturge-Weber syndrome
E. basal cell nevus syndrome

369. Which of the following has the potential of undergoing “spontaneous”

malignant transformation?
A. Osteomalacia C. Paget’s disease of bone
B. Albright’s syndrome D. Osteogenesis imperfecta
E. von Recklinghausen’s disease of bone
370. Which of the following dental findings is frequently observed in cases of

Paget’s disease of bone?
371. An individual with Addison’s disease is most likely to experience which of

the following?
372. Biopsy of a smooth, red, protruding lesion at the tip of the tongue reveals
a stratified squamous epithelium covering loose, fibrous connective tissue that
contains many thin-walled, engorged, vascular spaces. The diagnosis is:
A. Fibroma D. peripheral giant cell granuloma
B. Papilloma E. granular cell tumor (myoblastoma)
C. Hemangioma

radiolucency of the body of the mandible with a central sclerotic nidus is
detected. The disease is probably:

B. Menlere’s disease D. auriculotemporal syndrome
E. glossopharyngeal neuralgia
375. A patient states that fr almost a year now, she has had a rubbery, firm,
painless nodule within the substance of the parotid gland.The condition
described is most likely a:
B. lymph node D. squamous cell carcinoma
E. sialolith with encapsulation
A. Peripheral ossifying fibroma D. Irritation fibroma
B. Traumatic neuroma E. Osteoma
C. Pyogenic granuloma
A. Fusion C. germination
B. Hypercementosis D. dilacerations E. concrescence
378. In which of the following do adenomatoid odontogenic tumors most often

occurs?
A. Anterior maxilla C. Anterior mandible
B. Posterior maxilla D. Posterior mandible

A. Hemangioma C. cystic hygroma
B. Angiosracoma D. hemangiopericytoma
381. Electron microscope examination of the bacterial flora of necrotizing

ulcerative gingivitis indicates the presence of microorganisms within non-necrotic
tissues in advance of other bacteria. The organisms involved are:
A. cocci. C. Bacteriophages
B. Spirochetes. D. filamentous rods

383. Which of the following species is a usual constituent of floras that are
associated with periodontal health?

instruments. To effectively kill all microorganisms and spores, the dentist must
maintain a temperature of 132ºC at 20 – 40 psi for at least how many minutes?
A. 10 B. 20 C. 30 D. 40
385. The virus that causes acute herpetic gingivostomatitis is closely related to
the virus that causes
386. Each of the following diseases has been associated with the Epstein-Barr
virus, except:
387. Which of the following microorganisms is the most commonly associated
with root surface caries?

389. The Lancefield streptococcal group most likely to contain strains

pathogenic for man is:

B. Clostridium tetani D. Streptococcus faecalis
E. Neisseria meningitides
391. Shock during infection with gram-negative bacteria is most likely caused
by:

B. oxidation D. coagulation of protein
E. acceleration of enzyme metabolism

394. Hepatitis B surface antigen in a patient’s serim indicates that the patient
is:
A. recovered
B. now an acceptable blood donor
C. potentially infectious
D. immune to subsequent exacerbations of the disease
395. Protection against encapsulated bacterial pathogens is mediated mainly

by:
396. Microorganisms of which the following genera are most predominant in

the normal oral flora?

microorganisms?
A. Mucor C. Treponema
B. Candida D. Brucella E. Aspergillus
399. A high titer of serum heterophile antibodies is found in patients with which
of the following conditions?

A. Treatment with antibiotics
B. Injection of gamma globulin
C. Vaccination with dead organisms
D. Vaccination with live organisms
E. Placental transfer of mother’s antibody
“For I know what my plans for you are,

plans to save you and not to harm you,
plans to give you a future and to give you hope.”
Jeremiah 29:11
/dent
07-10-2006

School of Dentistry
1. Pre-Board Theoretical Examination
GENERAL & ORAL MICORSCOPIC ANATOMY; GENERAL & ORAL PATHOLOGY;

MICROBIOLOGY


4. The articular disk of the TMJ consists of:

A. an outer fibrous layer and an inner synovial layer
B. areolar tissue covered by dense fibrous connective tissue
C. an outer layer of mesothelium and an inner layer of calcified cartilage
D. dense fibrous connective tissue which may be associated with
chondrocytes
5. Which area of the oral cavity has mucosa that is lined with keratinized epithelium?
A, soft palate B. sublingual regions C, gingiva D. buccal regions
6. Gardner’s syndrome features include the following, except: A. intestinal polyposis B.
multiple osteoblastomas C. fibromas of the skin D. impacted teeth and
supernumerary E. none of the above
anterior maxillary: A. ameloblastoma B. Pindborg tumor C. clear cell
odontogenic tumor D. squamous odontogenic tumor E. adenomatoid
odontogenic tumor
8. It is composed of islands of tumor cells that mimic the normal dental follicle: A. plexiform
ameloblastoma B. basaloid ameloblastoma C. follicular ameloblastoma
D. granular cell ameloblastoma E. desmoplastic ameloblastoma
9. The following are true for Odontogenic Myxoma except: A. no gender predilection
B. it is often multilocular and often has honeycomb pattern C. very common in the
maxilla D. age range is between 10 to 50 years with a mean age of 30 E. none of the
above
orientation is known as A. metaplasia B. anaplaisia C. dysplasia D. aplasia E.
hyperplasia.
11. The deletion theory which is a widely accepted concept of carcinogenesis is based on: A.
viruses B. loss of control mechanisms C. heredity D. induction of chemical carcinogens
E. DNA destruction.
12. A metabolic disorder characterized by massive accumulation of glycogen in the liver and
kidney and its inability to be mobilized is known as A. Wilson’s disease B. von
Recklinghausen’s disease C. von Gierke’s disease D. Kimmelstiel-Wilson disease
E. Tay-Sach’s disease.
13. When a high dosage of antigen is injected subcutaneously in a previously sensitized

animal, severe persistent local edema, necrosis and hemorrhage occurs. This famous
reaction which can occur clinically in a human being is known as A. Portier’s anaphylaxis
B. Schartzman phenomenon C. Arthus phenomenon D. Arthur’s reaction E. NONE
14. The phenocytic marker on cells of the immune system which is the receptor for the HIV is
the molecule identified as A. CD1 B. CD3 C. CD4 D. CD2 E. CD5.
15. The Reed-Sternberg giant cell is pathognomonic for A. malignant lymphoma B. CM

Leukemia C. Hodgkin’s disease D. Brill-Gymmer’s disease E. sarcoidosis.
16. Weil’s disease or leptospirosis affect mainly the A. liver B. lungs C. heart D. brain
E. spleen.
17. An irregular, star-shaped structure that develops in a giant cell which is a microscopic
feature of a A. tubercle B. osteoclastoma C. leprosy D. Cat-scrath disease E.
sarcoidosis.
18. The diagnostic lesion of squamous cell carcinoima or epidermoid carcinoma is a
keratinized or cornified acidophilic lesions called :A. cell nests B. epithelial pearls C.
keratin pearls D. all of them.
19. Volutin granules are believe to be: A. Clumps of DNA B. Storehouse of ATP C.
Mitotic spindle proteinsD. Clumps of RNA
20. Volutin granules appear when C. diptheria is cultured in: A. nutritionally deficient
medium B. Presence of antibiotics C. Symbiosis with pneumococci D. All
of the above
21. Gram positive bacteria with fimbriae is : A. G. diptheirae B. G. rena C.

Morganella D. B. Subtilis
22. A nephalometer is used to measure: A. Rate of bacterial multiplication B. Count of

bacteria C. Metabolic rate of bacteria D. Motility of bacteria E.
none of these
23. During lag phase of bacterial growth there is : A. Increase in number B.

Increase in size C. Increased metabolic rate D. Decreased metabolic rate
24. Differential diagnosis for a radiolucent calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor includes
the following, except: A. calcified odontogenic cyst B. adenomatoid
odontogenic tumor C. ossifying fibroma D. osteoblastoma E. none of the above
25. Cementoblastoma may exhibit the following features, except: A. cortical expansion
B. no gender predilection C. predilection for the mandible D. radiolucent
E. involved tooth is vital
26. Periapical cementooseous dysplasia manifests the following, except: A. teeth involved
are vital B. asymptomatic C. expands cortical bone D. typically affect lower
incisors E. none of the above
27. Radiographically, ameloblastic fibroma may appear as any of the following, except:
A. well circumscribed B. surrounded by sclerotic margin C. unilocular or multilocular
radiolucent D. maybe associated with an impacted tooth E. none of the above
28. Features of odontoma include the following, except: A. generally asymptomatic B. no

gender predilection C. affects mandible more often D. contains pulp E.
none of the above
29. Hirschprung’s disease is a congenital absence of autonomic ganglia in the smooth

muscle resulting to very poor peristalsis, accumulation of feces, and dilatation of the
bowel, What organ is involved? A. lungs B. stomach C. small intestines D. colon E.
rectum.
31. White matter of the spinal cord consists chiefly of which of the following?
A. Perineurium C. unmyelinated axons
B. myelinated axons D. nerve cell bodies E. loose connective tissue

A. Microvilli C. microfibrils
B. Microtubules D. tonofilaments E. microfilaments
33. UV rays is used for sterilizing : A. Operating rooms B. Beds C. Hospital

Waste D. All of the above
34. Disposable syringes are best sterilized by: A. Autoclaving B. Hot air oven C.
Chemicals D. Gamma rays
35. Heart lung machines and respirators are sterilized by: A. Formaldehyde B.
Ethylene ozide C. Gluteraldehyde D. Gamma rays
36. Rideal walker test is used to test the efficacy of : A. Autoclave B. Hot air oven
C. Filters D. Chemical disinfectant
37. Anomaly in dentin which shows obliteration of pulp with osteogenesis imperfecta:
A. Dentinogenesis Imperfecta Type I C. Dentinogenesis Imperfecta Type
III
B. Dentinogenesis Imperfecta Type II D. none of these
38. Amyloid deposits in the splenic lobules is called ; A. lardaceous spleen B. idiopathic
spleen C. sago spleen D. congested spleen E. atrophied spleen.
39. Failure or almost complete failure of an organ to develop is A. anaplasia B. aplasia C.

hypoplasia D. metaplasia E. dysplasia.
40. Over expression of these anti apoptotic proteins enables ameloblastoma to enlarge and
invade surrounding tissues except: A. Bcl –2 B. Bcl – 1 C. Bcl-xl D. FGF
E. MMps
41. Ameloblastomas have a low proliferation rate as seen on the staining of this cell cycle-
related protein: A. Ki – 67 B. Ki-66 C. Ki-68 D. Kia-67 E. Kia-66
42. What is lyophilization? A. Means of destroying bacteria B. a method of sterilization

C. Freeze drying of bacteria
43. Which of the following enzyme is absent in anaerobes: A. Catalase B.

Cytochrome oxidase C. Pyruvate carboxylase D. All of the above E. Powdering
of bacteria
44. Following are sterilized by hot air oven except: A. Glassware B. Swabs C.
Liquid Paraffin D. Vaccines
45. In pasteurization by holder method the temperature used is : A. 63 C for 30 min

B. 72 C for 15 seconds C. 100 C for 20 min D. 120 C for 15
minutes
46. The temperature used in tyndallization is A. 62 C B. 80 C C. 100 C
D. 120 C
47. This disease is characterized by severe uveitis and retinal vasculitis with optic atrophy
and aphtous lesions of the mouth and the genitals: A. Behcet’s syndrome B. Reye’s
syndrome C. erythema multiforme D. Steven-Johnson’s syndrome E. Reiter’s syndrome
48. Calcification of the aorta when it becomes degenerative or necrotic is: A. calcinosis B.
metastatic calcification C. lithiasis D. dystrophic calcification E. all of them.
49. Hyaline bodies accumulated in the affected cells of the pituitary gland in Cushing’s
syndrome are called: A. Mallory bodies B. Councilman bodies C. Zenker’s hyaline
masses D. Crooke’s bodies E. Russel bodies.
50. All are undergoing changes in the plasma membrane with cell injury, except ; A. swelling
B. formation of cytoplasmic blebs C. blunting of microvilli D. detachment of ribosomes
E. loosening of intracellular attachments.
51. Blue, brown, red granules of exogenous pigments in the lungs of shipbuilders, insulation
and electrical works are due to: . A. hytopneumoconiosis B. anthracosis C. sbestosis
D. plumbism E. silicosis.
52. All of the following are differentiating factors between Gram + & – cell wall except :A.
presence of lipopolysaccharide B. Presence of Teichoic acid C. Presence
of sulfur containing amino acid D. Thickness of cell wall
53. Sporulation occurs: A. Lag phase B. Log phase C. Stationary phase D. Decline
phase
54. Which of the following bacteria can grow in a very wide range of temperature? A.
Pseudomonas B. Gonococcus C. Pneumococcus D. Spirochetes
55. The high lipid content of the aging pigment, a.k.a “wear-and-tear pigment” is due to A.
hematin B. carotenoid C. hemosiderin D. lipofuchsin E. porphyrin.
56. When iron does not interfere with organ functions, it is due to ; A. chloroma B. chloasma
C. hemosiderosis D. hemochromatosis E. melasma.
57. Lipofuchsin is a yellowish brown pigment found in the atrophied heart muscles is called A.
disuse atrophy B. pressure atrophy C. brown atrophy D. endocrine atrophy E.
vascular atrophy.
58. Microscopic subtype most commonly seen in solid ameloblastoma:

A. plexiform B. desmoplastic C. basaloid D. granular cell E. follicular
59. Ossifying fibroma, except: A. affects men more than women B. slow growing
C. asymptomatic D. expansile lesion E. none of the above
60. Histopathology of ossifying fibroma includes the following, except: A. presence of
inflammatory cells B. shows osteoblast C. no osteoclast D. cellular fibrous matrix
61. Fibrous dysplasia may manifest the following, except: A. slow growth B.
mobility of involved tooth C. unilateral swelling D. ground glass effect
62. Laboratory values for these serum elements are within normal limits in patients with
monostotic fibrous dysplasia, except: A. calcium B. phosphorous C. acid
phosphatase D. alkaline phosphatase E. none of the above
63. Serum values for calcium and other elements involved with bone metabolism may be
altered or changed in polyostotic fibrous dysplasia: A. True B. False
64. “Chinese-character” trabecular bone pattern is seen in; A. osteoblastoma B. osteoid

osteoma C. osteoma D. fibrous dysplasia E. cementoblastoma
65. Cementoblastoma: A. True Cementoma B. very common to male C.

mandibular posterior region D. A and B E. A and C
66. Differential diagnosis for Osteblastoma except: A. cementoblastoma B.

odontogenic myxoma C. ossifying fibroma D. fibrous dysplasia
E. osteosarcoma
67. The first human disease to have viral etiology was: A. smallpox B. chicken pox C.
rabies D. yellow fever E. none of these
70. Which of the following best characterizes the alveolar mucous membrane?
A. Has no melanocytes.
B. Firmly bound to underlying bone.
C. Well developed epithelial ridges.
D. Separated from the gingiva by the free gingival groove.
E. Appears red due to high vascularity and thickness of epithelium.
71. Which of the following is a thermophilic organism: A. H. influenzeB. B.

stearothermopilus C. C. tetani D. C. perfringens E. none of these
72. TDP of most bacteria is between: A. 40 & 55 B. 50 & 65 C. 70 and 80 D. 80
and 100
73. Which of the following organelles have a double-unit membrane?

I. Nucleus III. Golgi complex
II. lysosome IV. Mitochondrion V. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
A. I, II & III B. I & III only C. I & IV only D. I, IV & V E. II, III & IV
74. The nucleolus produces?

A. DNA C. ribosomal RNA
B. Transfer RNA D. messenger RNA E. both A & B
75. Which of the following features distinguishes bone from osteoid?

A. Bone is not resorbed.
B. Bone has a mineralized matrix.
C. Osteoid contains fewer lacunae per unit area.
D. Osteoid contains a different type of fiber in its matrix.
E. All of these.

above.
A. Sertoli’s cells- testosterone C. alpha cells of the pancreas- glucagon
B. Corpus luteum- progesterone D. chromaffin cells of the suprarenal-
catecholamine

79. A condition where the enamel has defective formation of matrix:

A. Enamel Hypoplasia C. Enamel Hypomaturation
B. Enamel Hypocalcification D. none of these
80. If fusion occurs during the early odontogenesis, the result will be:
A, Fusion of roots C. Dens Evaginatus
B, Fusion of crowns D. complete fusion E. none of these
A, mucosal glands in the stomach only
B, submucosal glands in the duodenum only
C, simple columnar epithelium lining the stomach only
D, muscularis mucosa in the stomach only
E, smooth muscle in the external musculature of the duodenum only.
82. Which of the following represent fan-shaped, hypocalcified areas that originates at the
DEJ and extend into enamel for part of its thickness?
following?
A. Greater stainability D. Greater content of inorganic
salts
B. Higher quantity of fluids E. Greater content of large collagen
fibers.
84. Odontoblasts are characterized by:

A. being located on external surfaces of roots.
B. Being shed from the tooth at the time of eruption.
C. Differentiating first at the cervical region of a forming tooth.
D. Secreting a non-fibrous matrix composed of chains of amino acids.
E. Possessing long cytoplasmic processes which lie within dentinal tubules.
85. Which of the following is derived from ectomesenchyme?

A. Ameloblasts C. Stellate reticulum
B. Odontoblasts D. Stratum intermedium E. Reduced enamel
epithelium

A. 1,2,3,4 B. 3,4,1,2 C. 3,4,2,1 D. 4,1,2,3 E. 4,3,2,1

sheath
A. 1 & 2 B. 1 & 3 C. 2 & 3 D. 2 & 4 E. 3 & 4
89. Which of the following elements are present during the development and growth of the
alveolar process?
A. Osteoblasts, osteoclasts, osteoid
B. Perichondrium, osteoblasts, periosteal bud
C. Osteoblasts, osteoid, megakaryocytes.
D. Periosteum, epiphyseal ossification centers, osteoblasts
90. Which of the following occurs during the early stage of the eruption of a tooth?
A. Maturation of enamel C. Formation of stellate reticulum
B. Formation of the dental sac D. Differentiation of the stratum intermedium
91. Mineral-poor ectodermal structures in enamel include:

I. tufts II. Lamellae III. Spindles IV. Odontoblastic processes
A. I & II B. II & III C. II, III & IV D. III & IV E. I, II, III & IV
A. 1 & 2 B. 2 & 3 C. 3 & 4 D. 1,2 & 3 E. 4 only
93. Each of the following develops as an outpocketing of the gut , except:

A. lung B. liver C. spleen D. pancreas E. gallbladder
94. An active fibroblast is characterized by?

A. multiple nucleoli C. a thick plasma membrane
B. a bloated appearance D. an unusually large nucleus
E. abundant endoplasmic reticulum
significant?
B. It indicates a metaplasmic change. E. It is a symptom of nuclear
disintegration.
96. The apical cytoplasm of active serous glandular cells is typically filled with which of the
following?
97. The cerebellar cortex is characterized histologically by which of the following types of
cells?
A. Basket B. Pyramidal C. Purkinje D. Martinotti E. Horizontal
98. The submucosa is present in each of the following, except:

A. colon B. stomach C. jejunum D. gallbladder E. duodenum

A. nucleolus B. lysosome C. nucleus D. mitochondrion E. pinocytotic vesicle
100. Which of the following forms of connective tissue has a preponderance of amorphous
ground substance over fibers?
A. Loose C. reticular
B. Cartilage D. dense, regularly arranged E. dense, irregularly
arranged

College of Dentistry 0208
GENERAL AND ORAL MICROSCOPIC ANATOMY;

GENERAL AND ORAL PATHOLOGY AND MICROBIOLOGY
2. The zigzag line that traverses the I band is the

A. H band B. A band C. Z line D. M band E. light band.
3. All pertain to the gray matter of the brain and spinal cord, except:
A. consists of several nerve cell bodies
B. nerve cells with abundant Nissl bodies
C. contain more blood vessels
D. contain myelinated nerve fibers
E. contain naked nerve fibers.
4. The very distinct nerve cells of the cerebral cortex are the:
A. pyknomorphous cells C. small pyramidal cells
B. large pyramidal cells D. both A and B E. A, B and C
5. Properties exhibited by the nervous tissues to a very high degree are:

A. contractility and conductivity
B. conductivity and irritability D. growth and reproduction
C. contractility and irritability E. metabolism and reproduction.
6. The thyroid acinus is:

A. epithelium derived from endoderm
B. may be simple cuboidal or columnar epithelium D. a follicle
C. with a cavity containing colloid E. all of the above
7. The skeletal muscle fiber unit deliNeated between two Z disks (lines) is termed a
A. Sarcolemma C. I (isotropic) band
B. Sarcomere D. A (anisotropic) band E. T tubular system
8. The T tubular system of a thin surface membrane tubule extending deep into the
sarcoplasm and two lateral extensions of sarcoplasmic reticulum contains:
A. Ribosomes C.. lipids
B. high calcium concentration D. glycogen E. neurotransmitter
9. Skeletal muscle fiber bundles are anchored to bone by:

A. Ligament C. tendon
B. Periosteum D. fascia E. anchoring filaments
10. Bone remodeling depends on the presence of

A. Mesenchyme C. osteoblasts alone E. chondroblasts
B. Osteocytes D. osteoblasts and osteoclasts
11. Outer circumferential lamellae are derived by osteogenesis at the

A. endosteum C. Haversian system
B. periosteum D. Both A & B E. Both B & C
12. The synovial joint between two articulating bones has all of the following components
except:
A. hyaline cartilage C. annulus fibrosus
B. fibrocollagenous capsule D. synovium E. ligament
13. The renal corpuscle is composed of an arterial glomerulus that is encapsulated by

Bowman's capsule of the nephrogenic tubular system. The ureteric space formed by the
capsule can be described as having:
1. a parietal layer of simple squamous epithelium
2. a visceral layer of podocytes
3. an efferent tubular neck continuous with simple cuboidal cells with brush border
4. slit diaphragms or filtration slit membranes between it and the glomerular space
A. 1,2,3 B. 1,2,4 C. 2,3,4 D. 1,3,4 E. 1,2,3,4
14. Podocytes are described as having

1. primary and secondary foot processes/pedicels
2. large oval-shaped nuclei and light grandular chromatin pattern
3. with filtration slit membranes
4. sitting on the glomerular basement membrane
A. 1,2,3 B. 1,2,4 C. 2,3,4 D. 1,3,4 E. 1,2,3,4
15. Glomerular endothelium:

1. is fenestrated
2. with its basement membrane lamina densa containing type IV collagen
3. a lamina rara interna
4. a lamina rara externa with fixed negatively charged (polyanionic) sites
A. 1,2,3 B. 1,2,4 C. 2,3,4 D. 1,3,4 E. 1,2,3,4
16. The juxtaglomerular apparatus consists of

1. renin-producing cells at the vascular hilum of the glomerulus
2. lacis cells
3. macula densa
4. distal convoluted tubule
A. 1,2,3 B. 1,2,4 C. 2,3,4 D. 1,3,4 E. 1,2,3,4
17. Transitional epithelium, allowing distension and relaxation lines

1. minor calyx 3. renal pelvis
2. major calyx 4. urinary bladder
A. 1,2,3 B. 1,2,4 C. 2,3,4 D. 1,3,4 E. 1,2,3,4
18. Produces heparin, histamine and serotonin

19. Responsible for short term response to injury
20. Reveal the intercalated discs or the bands of Eborth

A. Smooth muscle C. Skeletal muscle
B. Cardiac Muscle D. all of these E. none of them
21. Contains interdigitating arrangement of fine collagenous fibers

A. Hyaline Cartilage C. Fibrocartilage
B. Elastic Cartilage D. All of these E. None of these
22. The cervical loop determines:

A. the shape of the root D. the shape of the bony crypt
B. the number of roots E. none of the above
C. two of the above are correct
22. Mesial shift occurs:

A. to compensate proximal wear D. a & b are correct
B. because of the inclined plane of the cusps E. all are correct
C. with resorption on distal side
23. The pulp:

1. has a defensive function through the apical foramen
2. is devoid of any sensitivity
3. has more odontoclasts than fibroblasts
4. contains only collagen type III
A. 1,2,3 B. 2,3,4 C. 1,3,4 D. all of them E. none of
them
24. The ameloblasts form:

A. enamel rod C. only collagen type 1
B. enamel prism D. the cell free layer E. predentine
25. Inorganic, hypocalcified areas in enamel are:

A. enamel spindle C. enamel lamellae
B. enamel tuft D. enamel rods E. caries
26. The odontoclasts:

A. resorbs the bony crypt around the permanent tooth D. forms predentin
B. in a multinucleated cell E. has a terminal web
C. Two of the above are correct
27. The bulk of the tooth is made up of

A. Secondary dentine C. Interglobular dentine
B. Predentin D. Mantle dentin E. circumpulpal
dentine
28. Which of the following statements about the dental sac is false?
A. It ultimately forms the fibrous sac which protects enamel
B. Dental follicle cells give rise to the cementum and ligament
C. Perifollicular mesenchyme cells give rise to bone
D. The dental sac is formed from mesodermal cells
E. More than one of the above is false
29. Cementum...
A. is the hardest tissue in the body
B. is thinnest at the apical foramen
C. is composed of acellular cementum at its apical two-thirds
D. has different types one of which is intermediate cementum
E. lines the dentin along the pulp
30. Regarding periodontal ligament fibres...

A. alveolar crest group inserts on the cementum below its origin on the alveolar bone
B. oblique is a small group of fibres found near the apical foremen
C. the interradicular group connects adjacent teeth
D. the oblique group runs from the alveolar bone downward to insert in
cementum
E. more than one of the above is correct
31. Concerning mucous membranes...

A. the oral mucous membrane contains a small submucosa filled with fatty tissue
B. the oral mucosa of the cheek is a keratinized lining mucosa
C. the epithelium of the inferior surface of the tongue is composed of three cell
types
D. floor of the mouth contains a large lamina propria filled will salivary glands
E. the soft palate contains an aponeurosis between the epithelium and lamina propria
32. Concerning the gingiva...

A. 10% of the gingiva is parakeratimzed
B. mucogingival line separates the free gingiva from the attached
C. transseptal fibres travel horizontally in the tissue from one tooth to the
adjacent tooth
D. melanocytes are found in the basal layer and play a role in the immune response
E. dentogingival fibres travel from the dentin to the alveolar bone
33. Which of the following statements about the TMJ are false?
A. the head of the condyle is covered by fibrous connective tissue
B. there is no secondary centre of ossification
C. blood vessels enter the head of the condyle
D. parallel fibres are found on the periphery of the articular disc
E. pseudocavernous spaces are false spaces in the retrodiscal pad whose function is
unknown
34 Which statement concerning salivary glands is true?

A. the parotid is mixed
B. the submandibular is mixed but predominantly mucous
C. sublingual is mixed but predominantly mucous
D. mucous cells form demilunes of Guinnuzzi
E. the presence of a capsule around the sublingual gland prevents the spread of
infection
35. The maxillary sinus...
A. is covered by stratified squamous non-keratinized epithelium
B. is connected to the orbit
C. is lined by the Schneiderian membrane
D. can also be called the antrum of Davis
E. often contains the roots of the central incisors
36. Functions of dental lamina

A. connection of the tooth bud to oral epithelium D. both A & B
B. formation of permanent teeth E. all are correct
C. formation of supernumerary teeth
37. The origin of enamel

A. endoderm C. ectoderm
B. mesoderm D. ectomesenchyme E. E. both A & C
38. The largest component of a tooth

A. enamel B. dentine C. pulp D. cementum
39. What's incorrect about epithelial diaphragm?

A. its plane remains horizontal
B. it keeps a fixed distance from the basal part of the adjacent eolar bone
C. its growing tip is located apically
D. it's responsible for multi-root formation
40. What's not a function of tooth movement in the phase III of eruption?
A. accommodate the growth of jaws
B. compensate for tooth attrition
C. maintain the proximal tooth contact
D. create room for additional enamel production
41. The Anitschow myocytes or “caterpillar cells of the Aschoff nodue in RHD are seen in
what stage?
A) exudative stage C) stage of resolution
B) classic proliferative stage D) late healed phase E) all of them.
42. All are skin infections caused by pathogenic strains of Streptococci, except:
A) scarlet fever C) erysipelas
B) impetigo contagiosa D) gangosa E) none of them.
43. Fully expressed clinical symptoms in diabetes mellitus is seen in

A) prediabetes stage C) stress diabetes stage
B) chemical or subclinical stage D) latent stage E) overt stage.
44.Erythema nodosum is a characteristic of

A) rheumatoid arthritis C) systemic lupus erthymatosus
B) sarcoidosis D) diabetes mellitus E) diabetes insipidus.
45.All are functions of insulin, except:

A) lowers blood glucose level D) forms glycogen in the liver
B) inhibit breakdown of neutral fats E) synthesizes nucleic acid
C) inhibits transport of glucose and amino acids.
46.The normal value of glucose is:

A) 3-5mg/dl C) 3-5& uug%
B) 55-90mM/liter D) 55-90 mg/dl E) all of them.
47.All are stains used to identify amyloid when deposited in tissues, except:
A) Sirius red C) Methyl red
B) Congo red D) Methyl violet E) Iodine.
48.Niemann-Pick disease is an autosomal recessive disease with accumulation of

A) cerebroside kerasin C) purines
B) glucose-6-phosphatase D) cholesterol E) sphingomyelin
49.The time from exposure to HIV to seroconversion is

A) 4 weeks to 6 months C) 5 weeks to 20 months
B)10 weeks to 10 months D) 6-10 months E) any of them
50.The lips and genital organs are the most commonly affected by an acute erythematosus and
vesicular eruptions with grouped lesions in:
A) herpes zoster C) herpes labialis
B) herpes simplex D) Kaposi’s sarcoma E) shingles.
51.Large warty granulomas of cutaneous and mucous lesasions in yaws are called
A) erysipelas C) frambesiomas
B) gangosa D) bejel E) condyloma latum.
52. Which cell types are the most characteristic of tissue with acute inflammation?
A. plasma cells
B. foreign body giant cells D. lymphocytes
C. Langhan’s giant cells E. polymorphonuclear leukocytes.
53. The first ultrastructural evidence of sub-lethal damage is swelling of

A. mitochondria C. golgi complex
B. endoplasmic reticulum D. both A & B E. both B & C.
54. Strawberry gall bladder is due to

A. glycogen infiltration C. fatty infiltration
B. lipoidal infiltration D. mucoid infiltration E. calcium deposition.
55. Which of the following microscopic descriptions is most characteristics of hyaline

degeneration?
A. accumulation of lipid cells
B. homogenous ground-glass, pink-staining appearance in cells
C. presence of calcium salts with destruction of cellular detail
D. pyknotic densely stained nucleus
E. total amourphous appearance with no cell membrane discernable
56. All are components of a tubercle except

A. faintly epitheliod cells
B. peripheral zone of neutrophils D. peripheral zone of lymphocytes
C. presence of two or more Langhan’s giant cells E. central caseous necrotic
core.
57. The type of necrosis which is diagnostic of acute hemorrhagic pancreatitis is

A. caseous necrosis C. colliquative necrosis
B. coagulative necrosis D. enzymatic fat necrosis E. none of them.
58. Brain abscesses are caused by the following except :

A. viruses B. bacteria. C. protozoans. D. rickettsiae E. none of them
59.The combination of coagulative and liquefactive necrosis is

A. traumatic fat necrosis C. moist gangrene
B. dry gangrene D. caseous necrosis E. enzymatic fat necrosis.
60. The physiologic death cell is called

A. necrosis B. psychosis C. autolysis D. necrobiosis E. apoptosis.
61. Kochs Postulates was designed based on studies done on:

A. Leprosy C. Tuberculosis
B. Typhoid fever D. Syphilis E. Cowpox
62. Mordant of Acid Fast stain is:

95% ethanol C. Methylene Blue
Carbol Fuchsin D. Iodine E. None of the above
63. All of the following are describing prokaryotes, except:

A. bacteria are representatives D. reproduce by simple binary
fission
presence of axial filaments in spirochetes E. presence of cytoplasmic streaming
undergoes meiosis and mitosis
64. Which is not a unit of measurement used in microscopy?

A. Angstrom C. micron
Micrometer D. Coulumb E. none of the above.
A. Tetrad C. sarcinae
Staphylococci D. spiral E. all of the above
66. Which stain can be used to demonstrate the plasma membrane?

A. Victoria Blue C. Crystal Violet
Methylene Blue D. Congo Red E. all of the above
67. Type of specialized structure which could help in locomotion:

A. Pili C. Spores
Flagella D. both A & C E. both A & B

A. Halophilic C. bacteriostatic
Thermophilic D. antagonistic E. pleomorphic
69. Functions of the bacterial membrane:
A. Osmosis C. plasmolysis
Permeability D. primer for biosynthesis E. site of antigenic determinant

A. Flagella C. spore
Capsule D. both A & B E. all of these
71. Which is not a basic stain?

A. Safranin C. crystal violet
methylene blue D. carbol fuchsin E. none of these
72. Common solidifying agents in the preparation of culture media?

A. Gelatin C. iodine
Agar D. both A & B E. both B & C
73. Which of the following is not an enrichment substance in culture media?

A. Chocolate C. glycerine
blood components D. albumin E. none of the above
74. Which type of media is most commonly used for biochemical testing?
A. Solid C. liquid
semi solid D. both A & B E. both B & C
75. Which type of culture is usually stored in the laboratory containing only one strain of
microorganisms?
A. Stock B. mixed C. pure D. streak E. none of these
76. Type of organism needing small amounts of oxygen for existence is known as a:
A. Obligate aerobe C. Obligate anaerobe
Facultative aerobe D. Microaerophile E. none of these.
77. Which is the most essential bit of information for the proper culture of a microorganism?
A. MGT mGT C. OGT D. all of these E. none of these
78. Litmus paper is a ____ method of pH determination.

A. colorimetric C. electrometric
Geometric D. trigonometric E. indirect
79. Phase in the bacterial growth curve where the number of growth = the number of death
is:
A. Latent phase C. Log phase
Death phase D. Stationary E. Lag phase
80. Which is not a physical method of sterilization?

A. Filtration C. UV light
Xray D. Surfactants E. Cold sterilization
81. Mikulicz’s disease differs from malignant lymphoma involving salivary glands, because the
latter disease:
F. epimyoepithelial islands are not present
G. the lymphoid elements are atypical
H. interlobular septa are infiltrated by lymphoid tissue
I. all of the above
J. none of the above
82. Clinical manifestations of a typical malignant salivary gland tumor include the following,
except:
A. early local pain D. fixation to deeper structures
B. local invasion E. none of the above
C. facial nerve paralysis in the case of parotid involvement
83. Acinic Cell Carcinoma is characterized by the following, except:

A. tend to be encapsulated and lobulated D. occurs predominantly in middle age
B. occurs chiefly in the parotid E. none of the above
C. the lips and buccal mucosa are the most common intraoral sites
84. Warthin’s tumor is usually characterized by the following, except:

A. it is not painful
B. firm to palpation
C. clinically distinct from other benign lesions of the parotid gland
D. has epithelial and lymphoid tissue components
85. Clinical and histologic features of Papillary Cystadenoma Lymphomatosum include the
following, except:
A. predilection for men C. generally superficial and small
B. primarily affects parotid gland D. not encapsulated E. none of the above
86. Secondary Sjogren’s Syndrome more frequently manifests the following features compared
with Primary Sjogren’s Syndrome:
A. parotid gland enlargement C. lymphadenopathy
B. purpura D. Raynaud’s phenomenon E. none of the above
87. The following are benign neoplasms affecting bone, except:

A. Benign chondroblastoma C. osteoid osteoma
B. osteoma D. benign osteoblastoma E. none of the above
88. Radiographically, the “onion skin” effect is associated with:

C. Burkitt’s lymphoma C. osteosarcoma
D. Multiple myeloma D. osteoid osteoma E. Ewing’s sarcoma
89. The “ground glass” or “Peau d Orange” radiographic effect is commonly associated with:
C. Ossifying Fibroma C. Osteoma
D. Chondroma D. Fibrous Dysplasia E. Osteoblastoma
90. Virus associated with Ewing’s Sarcoma:

C. (a) Epstein-Barr virus C. Herpes Simplex
D. Cytomegalovirus D. Herpes Zoster E. None of the
above
91. Recurrence of pleomorphic adenoma can be attributed to the following, except:
A. incomplete resection C. incomplete encapsulation
B. hypocellularity D. a and c E. none of the above
92. All are true regarding Papiloma, except:

A. an epithelial neoplasm D. has finger-like projections
B. a pedunculated lesion E. treated by radical resection
C. has a rough surface
93. Benign neoplasms of connective tissue origin include the following, except:
A. Fibroma B. Papilloma C. Chondroma D. Lipoma E. leiomyoma
94. In the head and neck region, the most common location for Granular Cell Tumor is on the:
A. palate B. gingiva C. buccal mucosa D. floor of the mouth E. tongue
95. Neurilemmoma is a benign neoplasm that is derived from a proliferation of:

A. neuritis B. axons C. schwann cells D. langerhan cells E none of the above
96. Microscopic subtypes of Liposarcomas which play an important factor in predicting its
clinical behavior are the following, except:
A. well differentiated B. round cell C. myxoid D. pleomorphic E. embryonal
97. The following are the ways to acquire AIDS except:

A infected needle B. blood transfusion C. sex D. mother to baby E. kissing

A. hairy leukoplakia C. pneumocystic caranii pneumonia
99. The following are true in mucoepidermoid carcinoma, except:

A. common site is the parotid gland
B. most common malignant tumor of salivary glands
C. most common salivary gland malignancy of childhood
D. equal gender predilection
100. Oncocytoma:
A. oxyphilic adenoma D. seen predominantly in the parotid gland
B. composed of oncocytes E. growth rate is slow and the course is benign
C. all of the above
/dent
11-20-2008

Gpat Opat Omae Microbio COMPILATION

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GEN.

PATHO/ OPATH/ MICROBIO- REVALIDA 1-37 APRIL 11, 2021

2. Lymphatic nodules are formed in the following lymphoid organs, except

a. 96% inorganic material

9. Each of the following structures is bound by a membrane, except:

12. The submucosa is present in each of the following, except:

13. Antibiotics are obtained from growth of:

a. Bacteria and fungi

14. Genetic disorders influencing permanent teeth eruption:

1. `genetic disorders influencing permanent teeth eruption

15. The following are characteristics of bronchioles, except?

a. Segmented cartilage plates

16. The following are characteristics of spleen, except:

a. Presence of blood-forming tissues

18. Known as proliferation stage:

19. A rhabdomyosarcoma is a malignant neoplasm derived from:

a. Striated muscle tissue

a. Duodenum and jejunum

21. Tunica media of blood vessels is generally made up of:

a. Loose areolar tissue

22. A cigarette-smoking patient notices a gradual onset of progressive, labored breathing

23. Dry heat destroys microorganisms primarily by:

a. Rocky Mountain Spotted fever

26. Gustatory sweating is the chief symptom in

28. Which of the following is a soft tissue cyst?

29. Tooth is derived from the:

30. The most serious immunodeficiency disorders is:

32. Which of the following is not a category of external resorption?

33. The biological purpose of meiosis is to maintain in somatic cells:

35. Defensive cells of the pulp that usually acts as macrophages:

38. The walls of the pulmonary alveoli are line with:

39. Staphylococci are characteristically grouped in:

41. What type of epithelium is one cell layer thick?

42. The interstitial tissue of the testi contains

a. Glomerulus and Bowman’s capsule

48. Which of the following laboratory results is diagnostic of acute pancreatitis?

49. Most predominant microorganisms in the normal oral flora?

a. Loosening of intracellular attachments

54. Most antibodies are produced in the:

a. Heart and the liver

55. A lysogenic bacterium is one that:

57. Bacterial capsules usually consists of:

59. Tuberculosis of the vertebrae or of the spine is called

60. The following are characteristics of thymus, except:

a. Lymphocytes are abundant in the cortex

a. Chromaffin cells of the suprarenal- catecholamine

64. Mycotic organisms are characteristically found microscopically within reticuloendothelial

a. Maxillary and mandibular lateral incisors

70. Wirtz Conklin is a special stain used to demonstrate:

72. Death of the odontoblasts usually results to:

73. The following are characteristics of trachea, except:

79. These are non calcified cementum:

a. Cementoid and cellular cementum

81. Dry heat destroys microorganisms primarily by:

85. A dark striae of retzius that occurs at the time of birth.

86. Infection of the kidney is usually caused by:

a. Traumatic introduction of bacteria

a. Mucosal glands in the stomach only

88. Glycocalyx is located:

89. An organism which thrives in a 8.5 % NaCl solution is said to be:

a. Essentially a pure culture

a. Growth in cell-free medium

95. All of the following are DNA viruses except: