Cluster III: Restorative Dentistry and Community Dentistry
Restorative Dentistry and Community Dentistry
1. To ensure better thermal and protective
insulation of the pulp during a caping
procedure, calcium hydroxide should be:
a. Applied to a thickness of 3.0mm
b. Placed in all cavity preparations
c. Covered with a stronger base
d. Preceded by application of a cavity varnish
e. Preceded by application of a zinc
phosphate cement
2. A dentist is preparing tooth #27 for an
occlusal amalgam restoration. Once the
ideal outline form and depth have been
establish, the dentist notice that caries
remains on the facial, pulpal and lingual
walls of the preparation. The next step in
treatment is to:
a. Extend the outline form
b. Remove the caries with a spoon excavator
c. Remove the caries with a large round bur
d. Place CAOH over caries
3. A dentist inadvertently sealed a small
carious lesion in the occlusal surface of a
maxillary first molar. This would most likely
result in:
a. Arrested caries
b. Extension of caries
c. Discoloration of the tooth
d. Increased microleakage
4. A Class II cavity preparation in a primary
molar for dental amalgam restoration will
not require a gingival bevel, because the
enamel rods in the area incline:
a. Facially
b. Lingually
c. Gingivally
d. Occlusally
e. Vertically
1
5. Which of the following is the least likely to
cause rampant caries in geriatric patients?
a. Poor oral hygiene
b. A decreased salivary flow
c. A change in the oral microflora
d. The side effects of medication
6. During the preparation of a class II cavity,
which of the following permanent teeth
pulp horns will be the most subject to
accident exposure?
a. Distofacial of a maxillary first molar
b. Distofacial of a mandibular first molar
c. Facial of a mandibular first molar
d. Lingual of a mandibular first molar
7. Which of the following is the most
effective way to reduce injury to the pulp
during a restorative procedure?
a. Prepare dentin with slow-speed burs
b. Use anesthetics without vasoconstrictors
c. Minimize dehydration of the dentinal
surface
d. Keep the dentinal surface clean by
frequent irrigation
8. A composite restoration is wider than the
diameter of the light tip of the curiing unit.
In this situation, the restoraton is cured by:
a. Moving the tip over the surface for the
required time
b. Placing the tip stepwise oveer each area
and exposing each area for the
required time
c. Positioning the tip far enough from the
surface to illuminate the entire surface
d. Centering the tip on the surface and
curing the entire restoration from this
position
Cluster III: Restorative Dentistry and Community Dentistry
9. What is the major difference between a
Class V cavity preparation for amalgam and
one for composite resin by the acid-etch
technique?
a. Depth
b. Convenience form
c. Position of retention points
d. Angulation of the enamel cavosurface
margins
10. The copal resin varnish that is placed in
the cavity preparation before the amalgam
is condensed provides:
a. Sealing of the margins for the lifetime of
the restoration
b. Long-term sealing of several years
duration
c. Short-term sealing of the margins
d. No sealing of the margins
11. How should the margins of a dental
amalgam restoration be trimmed?
a. By carving along the margins with a
sharp instrument that rests on the
tooth surface
b. By carving from the restoration to the
tooth with a sharp instrument
c. By carving from the tooth to the
restoration with a sharp instrument
d. By burnishing from the tooth to the
restoration until the amalgam is
trimmed to the margin
2
12. In preparing Class I cavity for dental
amalgam, the dentist will diverge the mesial
and distal walls towards the occlusal surface.
This divergence serves to:
a. Prevent undermining of the marginal
ridges
b. Provide convenience form
c. Resist the forces of mastication
d. Extend the preparation into areas more
readily cleansed
13. Bonding of composite restorative
materials to dentin depends on:
a. Difunctional coupling agents
b. Dehydration of the dentin
c. Etching with dilute phosphoric acid
d. Covalent bonding
14. In a Class V amalgam preparation for an
incipient lesion, the ideal internal form of
the preparation has which of the following
features?
a. The axial wall is flat
b. The mesial and distal walls converge
c. The occulsal and gingival walls converge
d. The axial wall is uniformly deep into
dentin
15. The newly condensed amalgam
restoration seems to chip away when being
carved. What is the likely cause of this
problem?
a. A low-copper alloy was used
b. Moisture contamination occured
c. The alloy was incompletely wetted with
mercury
d. The amalgam was not condensed with
recomended pressure
e. The amalgam was condensed after its
working time elapsed
Cluster III: Restorative Dentistry and Community Dentistry

16. The dentist bevels the gingival margins of
a gold onlay preparation. This process serves
each of the following, except:
a. To remove loose enamel rods
b. To facilitate finishing
c. To minimize marginal opening
d. To minimize the need for gingival
extension
17. The entist adjusts the shade of a
restoration using a complementary color.
This procedure will result in
a. Increased value
b. Decreased value
c. Intensified color
d. Increased translucency
18. Each of the folowing is a reason for
beveling a preparation for restoration with
composite resins, except:
a. To expose more inorganic tooth structure
b. To increase the surface area of enamel for
etching
c. To expose the ends rather than the sides
of enamel rods
d. To enhance the enamo-resin marginal seal
19. Which of the following is most related to
the initiation of caries in the elderly?
a. Erosion
b. Attrition
c. Gingival recession
d. A defective restoration
20. Visible light curing units are most
hazardous to the
a. Retina
b. Lens
c. Cornea
d. Iris
21. Duration of treatment regimens affect
patient compliance. The severity of disease
percieved by the patient affects patient
compliance.
a. Both statements are true
b. Both statements are false
c. The first statement is true, the second is
false
d. The first statement is false, the second is
true
22. An evaluation of which of the following
represents the most important aspect in
shade selection (for the restoration to match
an exixting dentition)?
a. Hue
b. Value
c. Chroma
d. Size
e. Shape
23. Tooth bleahing affects a color change in
which of the following tooth parts?
a. Dentin only
b. All of the enamel
c. Both dentin and enamel
d. Only the surface of enamel
24. Why is a matrix for a Class II dental
amalgan restoration extended occlusally to
the cavity preparation?
a. It serves as a guide to determine the
completed restoration
b. It allows for overfilling the amalgam
c. It prevents escape of the amalgam during
condensation
25. The reduction of which of the following
represents the most significant advantage of
acid-etch technique?
a. Microleakage
b. Pulpal irritation
c. Setting shrinkage of the matrix
d. Coeffecient of thermal expansion

3
Cluster III: Restorative Dentistry and Community Dentistry
26. After the dentist has completed an
etching procedure on a Class III composite
preparation, the preparation becomes
contaminated with saliva. In response the
dentist should do which of the following?
a. Blow away the saliva with air, the proceed
b. Rinse away the saliva with water, dry the
preparation, then proceed
c. Wipe away the saliva with a cotton pellet,
rinse the preparation with water, dry it
with air, then proceed
d. Rinse away the saliva with water, dry the
preparation with air, then repeat the
etching procedure
27. Which of the following is the best
methods for evaluating centric occlusion on
a newly placed onlay restoration?
a. Shim stock
b. Articulating paper
c. Patient feedback
d. Occlusal indicator wax
28. Which of the following is the most likely
postoperative complication of bleaching a
tooth that has not been adequately
obturated?
a. Fracture
b. Discoloration
c. Acute apical periodontitis
d. Chronic apical periodontitis
e. External cervical root resorption
29. For most effective cutting and long
usefulness of a tungsten carbide bur, it
should be:
a. Rotating slowly before contracting the
tooth
b. Rotating rapidly before contracting the
tooth
c. Placed in contract with the tooth before
starting
d. Rotating rapidly before entering the oral
cavity
4
30. A posterior tooth under a heavy occlusal
load has cusps undermined with caries. The
restorative material of choice would be:
a. Cast gold
b. Silver amalgam
c. Composite resin
d. Direct filling gold
e. Both A & B
31. The proper zone of a gas-air blowpipe
flame used for melting casting gold alloys is:
a. The reducing zone
b. The oxidizing zone
c. The zone closed to the nozzle
d. a combination of oxidizing and reducing
zone
32. The rate at which carious destruction of
dentin progresses tends to be slower in
older adults than in young persons because
of the:
a. Change in PH of saliva with aging
b. Increase in intertubular organic content
c. Generalized dentinal sclerosis with aging
d. Decrease in sugar consumption of older
adults
33. Which of the following is most related to
turbulence of molten gold in the casting
process?
a. Venting
b. Volume of metal
c. Temperature of the ring
d. Placement of sprue
e. Position of the ring
34. Class V cavities are found in:
a. Premolars and molars only
b. Proximal surfaces of premolars and molars
c. Pits in lingual surfaces of anterior teeth
d. The occlusal 2/3 of facial and lingual
surfaces of molars
e. The gingival 1/3 facial and lingual surfaces
of anterior and posterior teeth
Cluster III: Restorative Dentistry and Community Dentistry

35. Streptococcus mutants is considered to 40. Most detrimental to the strength of a

be a principal etiologic agent of caries posterior tooth in cavity preparation is an
because it produces organic acids and it: increase in:
a. Forms a gelatinous matrix a. Axial depth
b. Metabolizes substrate from saliva b. Pulpal depth
c. Derives energy from constituents c. Gingival depth
d. Lives symbiotically with Lactobacillus d. Faciolingual width
acidophilus e. Mesiodistal dimension of the cavity

36. In a Class III composite preparation, 41. An ion-releasing composite material that
retention should be placed: reduces secondary caries formation at the
a. In the axial wall margin of a restoration by inhibiting
b. Entirely in dentin bacterial growth:
c. At the DEJ a. Ceromers
d. At the expense of facial and lingual walls, b. Ormocers
but not the axial wall c. Flowable composites
d. Smart composites
37. The position of mesial and distal cavity e. Compomers
margins in a Ferrier Class V direct filling gold
restoration should be: 42. The ability of the handpiece to withstand
a. In an easily cleansable area the lateral pressure on the revolving tool
b. Perpendicular to the gingival margins without decreasing its speed or reducing its
c. Parallel to the long axis of the tooth cutting effeciency is called:
d. Just past the extent of the carious lesion a. Vibration
e. At the respective line angles of the tooth b. Torque
c. Amplitude
38. An indispensable factor in the etiology of d. Heat production
dental caries is: e. Pressure
a. pH of saliva
b. Poor oral hygiene 43. Most commonly used modification in an
c. Salivary amylase activity onlay preparation for teeth that exhibit the
d. Malformation of tooth structure split-tooth syndrome:
e. Activity of oral microorganisms a. Collar preparation
b. Skirt preparation
39. Which of the following factors contribute c. Slot preparation
the greatest amount of retention to the d. Facial and lingual surface groove
onlay restoration? extension
a. Near parallel axial wall
b. Flat pulpal and gingival wall
c. Cusp reduction and contrabevels
d. Proximal cavosurface margin bevels

5
Cluster III: Restorative Dentistry and Community Dentistry

44. The occlusal marginal enamel for an inlay 49. Contain acidic functional groups that can
restoration: participate in a n acid/base reaction
a. 30 degrees following polymerization of the resin
b. 40 degrees molecule:
c. 140 degrees a. Composite resin
d. 90 degrees b. Glass ionomers
e. None of these c. Compomers
d. Glomers
45. A retention groove whose length is in a e. None of these
longitudinal plane and in dentin:
a. Skirt 50. The gingival-to-occlusal divergence of the
b. Slot cavity walls for call II inlay cast metal
c. Lock restoration:
d. Collar a. 2-3 degrees
e. None b. 2-4 degrees
c. 2-5 degrees
46. A retention groove whose legth is in a d. 3-5 degrees
transverse plane and in dentin:
a. Skirt 51. In determining the caries rate for older
b. Slot adults, an epidemiologist usually uses the
c. Lock DMFT index, because it can be difficult to
d. Collar ascertain why teeth are missing.
e. None a. Both the statement and the reason are
correct and related
47. Thin extensions of facial and lingual b. Both the statement and the reason are
proximal margins of an onlay preparation: correct but not related
a. Collar c. The stataement are correct, but the
b. Slot reason is not
c. Locks d. The statement is not correct, but the
d. Skirts reason is accurate
e. Coves e. Neither the statement nor the reason is
correct
48. Refers to a laminated restoration using
glass ionomer to replace dentin and 52. Water irrigation devices in oral health
composite resin to replace enamel. regimens are useful in:
a. Composite veneers a. Eliminating plaque
b. Labial veneers b. Diluting bacterial products
c. Sandwich technique c. Reducing periodontal pockets
d. Laminates d. Eliminating gingival inflammation
e. None of these

6
Cluster III: Restorative Dentistry and Community Dentistry

53. A timed series of service ativities 58. Refers to measures taken to diagnose a
requiring physical, human and financial disease that is already present.
resources to achieve health policy a. Tertiary prevention
objectives; b. Secondary prevention
a. Civic action c. Primary prevention
b. Dental mission d. Any of the three
c. Outreach program
d. Health program 59. Measures taken before the disease
e. Public program occurs to reduce susceptibility;
a. Tertiary prevention
54. It describes the chain of superiors from b. Secondary prevention
the highest to the lower ranks; c. Primary prevention
a. Centralization d. Any of trhe three
b. Span of control
c. Scalar principle 60. Methods of imposing period’s values &
d. Administraation judgemenet of what is important on the raw
e. Autonomy data;
a. Limited resources
55. It is today’s design for tomorrow’s action; b. Allocation
a. Planning c. Priority determination
b. Coordination d. Both A & C
c. Objective e. None of these
d. Strategy
e. Action 61. They are involved in the treatment and
care of a patient whwn axtensive disease is
56. The maximum production with the least invoved;
coast with available resources; a. Para-dental professional
a. Principle of allocations b. Dental assistant
b. Principle of management c. Dental hygienists
c. Principle of administration d. Dental auxillaries
d. Principle of effeciency e. All of these
e. Both A & D
62. The Magna Carta of Public Health
57. The following are purposes of flouride Worker:
varnish except; a. RA 4419
a. Promote mineralization of the tooth b. RA 7305
b. Reserve the process of cavity formation c. RA 7530
c. Retard cavity administration d. RA 572
d. Decrease pH level e. None of these
e. None of the above

7
Cluster III: Restorative Dentistry and Community Dentistry

63. “In union there is strength” is the 68. It is a scientific discipline concerned with
principle of; the application of statistical method of
a. Autonomy problems in biology and medicine:
b. Organization a. Public health
c. Esprit de corps b. Biostatistics
d. Dental health c. Statistics
e. Centralization d. Sampling
e. None of these
64. This model was developed with the
specific intention of addressing 69. It is concerned in making estimates,
noncompliance issues in behavior that predictions, generalizations, conclusions
results in negative health consequence. about a population based on information
a. Self-care motivational model from a sample.
b. Contemporary community health model a. Descriptive statistics
c. Behavioral learning model b. Incriptive statistics
d. Fayol’s model c. Inferential statistics
e. None of the above d. Differential statistics
e. None of these
65. In conducting health educational, it
involves 2 or more teachers working 70. It is the study of the distribution and
cooperatively with certain group of students frequency of disease and injury in human
on a subject matter. population and those factors making groups
a. Developmental method susceptible to disease and injury;
b. Team teaching method a. Epidemiology
c. Discussion method b. Dental epidemiology
d. Lecture method c. Descriptive epidemiology
e. Both A & C d. Experimental epidemiology
e. None of these
66. Freedom of control from otehrs in
matters affecting the quality of work. 71. It is most often used in studies to
a. Autonomy determine the etiology of a disease;
b. Espirit de corps a. Experimental epidemiology
c. Authority b. Analytical epidemiology
d. Discipline c. Descriptive epidemiology
e. Projection d. Epidemiology
e. None of these
67. Nutritional disposal, food establishments,
transportation, community education and 72. It is commonly used in the area of
housing are the factors under; occupational health hazards:
a. Health related socio-economic factors a. Retrospective follow-up studies
b. Health status b. Case control study
c. Population anlysis c. Prospective cohort study
d. Health resource analysis d. Epidemiology
e. None of the above e. None of these

8
Cluster III: Restorative Dentistry and Community Dentistry

73. It measures the acid forming ability of 78. The S for supportive factor of primary
microorganisms present in saliva or oral health care program refers to:
tissue: a. Success of primary health care
a. Dental caries activity b. Strengthening intersectoral colalboration
b. Susceptibility test c. Sanitation of community
c. pH test d. Safe water supply
d. Both A & B only e. None of the above
e. A & C only
79. The T for supportive factor of primary
74. Proportion of a population affected with health care program:
a disease at a given point in time: a. Training and help manpower
a. Incidence development
b. Rate b. Treatment of common disease and injuries
c. Ratio c. Both A & B
d. Prevalence d. None of these
e. None of these
80. The CPITN index assessment is based on
75. Optimal level of flouride in drinking an evaluation of specified index teeth for:
water: a. Gingival inflammation
a. 7 - 12ppm b. Depth of periodontal pockets
b. 0.7 - 1.2ppm c. Both A & B
c. 0.07 - 0.12ppm d. All of the above
d. 0.7 - 12ppm
81. An index which use a dichotomous
76. It is laying down of foundation of the scoring system:
organization by bringing together several a. CPTN
leaders to have a better understanding of b. NIDR-GI
the community. c. GI
a. Mobilization d. PI
b. Training e. None of these
c. Core grouping
d. Area selection 82. Flourosis index was formulated by:
e. Setting up an organization a. Greene and Vermillion
b. Dean
77. The following are the physical c. Gayford
characteristics of a community, except: d. Hussy
a. Size e. None of them
b. Location
c. Gender
d. Occupational groupings

83. ART was pioneered in the mid 80’s in:

9
Cluster III: Restorative Dentistry and Community Dentistry

a. Africa description of a diagnosis based on carefully

b. Germany determined criteria under a specified
c. Thailand conditions.
d. Zimbabwe a. Indices
e. Pakistan b. Prevalence
c. Incidence
84. An index that measure the number of d. Epidemiology
surfaces and teeth affected by dental caries: e. None of these
a. RCI
b. GI 89. It is used to delineate disease patterns in
c. DMF community.
d. UTN a. Dental epidemiology
e. PI b. Experimental epidemiology
c. Descriptive epidemiology
85. An index that designed to be repeated d. Epidemiology
following patient oral hygiene education: e. None of these
a. OHI-S
b. PHP-M 90. It is the adjustment of the flouride
c. PI content of a community’s water supply to an
d. GI optimal level for thr prevention of dental
e. None of these caries.
a. Flouride supplements
86. This index assess pockets, bleeding, b. School water flouridation
plaque, retentive factors and periodontal c. Flouride mouthrinse program
treatment needs: d. All of these
a. CPITN
b. GI 91. Lack of planning in community layout is
c. PI evident in______community:
d. OHI-S a. Mature
e. None of these b. Immature
c. Progressive
87. It is a continuing effort to imbibe d. Organize
community life by removing legal and social e. None of these
barriers that impose segregation to a group
of people. 92. It is a set of educational economic and
a. Entry into community environmental incentives to support
b. Area selection behavioral changes that lead to a better
c. Community study level of heallth;
d. Integration a. Health promotion
e. Both C & D b. Public health
c. Preventive dentistry
d. All of these

88. It is an objective mathematical

10
Cluster III: Restorative Dentistry and Community Dentistry

93. All are under analytical epidemiology, 98. Are activities that are aimed at the early
except: diagnosis and prompt treatment of disease
a. Cohort study in order to prevent sequelae.
b. Establishes a relationship between a a. Tertiary prevention
factor and a disease b. Pathogenesis
c. Prevalence c. Secondary prevention
d. All of the choices d. Budgeting
e. None of these e. Procedure manual

94. The effectively date of the Magna Carta 99. Detained analysis of the working of the
of Public Health Workers: organization:
a. April 26,1992 a. Standing order
b. March 26,1992 b. Records
c. April 17,1992 c. Organization chart
d. March 17,1992 d. Budgeting
e. Jan 28,1992 e. Procedural manual

95. The following are the values to be 100. Process of putting the pain into
addopted by apublic health workers: operational;
a. Iuct a. Implementation
b. Bumane b. Evaluation
c. Service to mankind c. Monitoring
d. Both A & B d. Revision
e. All of the above e. Planning

96. It is commonly used in the area of

occupational health hazards:
a. Retrospective follow-up studies
b. Case control study
c. Prospective cohort study
d. Epidemiology
e. None of these

97. Refers to the measure taken to diagnose

a disease that is already present:
a. Tertiary prevention
b. Pathogenesis
c. Secondary prevention
d. Prepathogenesis
e. Primary prevention

11