1.

This techinique of mandibular anesthesia is useful for patients suffering from trismus,
fractured mandible and mentally-handicapped children.
A. Gow-Gates Technique
B. Vazirani-Akinosi Technique
C. IAN Block
D. Mandibular Nerve Block

2. Regarding local anaesthesia which of the following is true?

A. Local anaesthetics act on large before small nerve fibres
B. Their main toxic effects are seen on the central nervous and cardiovascular systems C.
Preparations containing adrenaline are safe to use on digits and appendages
D. Lignocaine has a longer duration of action than bupivicaine

3. Anesthesia performed with general anesthetics occurs in 4 stages which may or may not be
ob- servable because they can occur very rapidly. Which stage is the one which skeletal
muscles re- lax, and the patient's breathing becomes regular?
A. Analgesia
B. Excitement
C. Surgical anesthesia
D. Medullary anesthesia
4. The recommended gas combination dose for conscious sedations: A. 50% oxygen; 50%
nitrous oxide
B. 60% oxygen; 40% nitrous oxide
C. 40% oxygen; 60% nitrous oxide
D. 30% oxygen; 70% nitrous oxide
E. varies according to the patient respond
5. Which of the following teeth could be removed without pain after administration of an inferior
alveolar and lingual nerve block?
A. All anterior teeth on the side of the injection
B. Canine and first premolar on the side of the injection
C. All teeth in that quadrant on the side ofthe injection
D. Both premolars and first molar on the side ofthe injection
6. You are considering your choice of local analgesia for a surgical procedure which you
anticipate will be ‘difficult’.Which one of the following agents provides the most prolonged
analgesia?
A. Articaine C. Bupivicaine
B. Lidocaine D. Mepivicaine
7. You notice a lesion on the labial alveolar mucosa of the lower right lateral incisor tooth of one
of your patients and decide to take a biopsy to send for oral pathology report Which nerve would
require local anaesthesia in order to carry out a pain-free biopsy?
A. The incisive nerve C. The mental nerve
B. The buccal nerve D. The lingual nerve
8. A successful inferior alveolar nerve block will produce anaesthesia of the
A. lower lip.
B. lower lip and mandibular teeth. C. lower lip, mandibular teeth and labial gingivae of the
anterior mandibular teeth.
D. lower lip, mandibular teeth and labial gingivae of the anterior and buccal gingivae of the
rior mandibular teeth.
9. A successful infraorbital nerve block will produce anesthesia of what part: A. maxillary
anterior teeth.
B. maxillary anterior teeth and their labial gingivae.
poste-

C. maxillary anterior teeth, their labial gingivae and the upper lip
D. maxillary anterior teeth, their labial gingivae, the upper lip and anterior hard palate
10. Which of the following structures travel through the substance of the parotid gland?
A. The maxillary artery
B. The maxillary artery and retromandibular vein C. The maxillary artery, retromandibular vein
and facial artery D. The maxillary artery, retromandibular vein, facial artery and buccal branch of
the mandibular nerve
11. The following are innervated by PSAN, except: A. Buccal soft tissue of Maxillary molars
B. Mx 2nd Molar
C. Mesiobuccal root of Mx 1st Molar
D. Distobuccal root of Mx 1st Molar
12. In patients who have a Le Fort II fracture, a common finding is paresthesia over the
distribution
of the:
a. Infraorbital nerve
b. Mylohyoid nerve
C. Inferior alveolar nerve D. Hypoglossal nerve
13. The anterior superior alveolar nerve arises as a branch of the:
A. Sphenopalatine nerve C. Infraorbital nerve
B. Posterior Superior alveolar nerve D. Greater palatine nerve E. Zygomatic nerve
14. The trigeminal provides sensory innervation for all of the following except the:
A. Posterior third of the tongue B. Nasal cavity
C. Oral Cavity D. Paranasal sinuses
15. The inferior alveolar nerve is a branch of the: Anterior trunk of the mandibular nerve
Posterior trunk of the mandibular nerve
C. Buccle nerve
Masseteric nerve Deep temporal nerves
E. Skin of the face
16. Branch of maxillary nerve given off before it enters the inferior orbital fissure. PSAN B.
ASAN C. MSAN
sopalatine E. Greater Palatine Nerve
17. Branch of maxillary nerve given off at the cranium:
A. nervusspinosus B. middle meningeal nerve C. zygomatic nerve D. auriculo-temporal nerve E.
sphenopalatine nerve
18. Xerostomia is a complication of mandibular blocking which occurs due to the ciation of
lingual nerve to which of the the following?
a. chorda tympani B. buccal nerve
glossopharyngeal D. Mylohyoid nerve
19. Mental nerve innervates the following except:
A. lower lip B. mucosa lower bicuspid D. lower bicuspid E. none
20. Injection in the area of mental nerve will also anesthetized the: A. lower lip B. mucosa lower
bicuspid
D. lower bicuspid E. none
21. Too much local anesthesia can result to:
paresthesia B. trauma C. trismus D. xerostomia E. dry socket
C. chin C. chin

22. Too much puncture injection in mandibular blocking can result to: paresthesia B. pain C.
trismus xerostomia E. dry socket
A. D.
A. C.
23. Toxic symptoms of local anesthesia is:
A. pain and swelling B.CNS stimulation D. shock E. stroke
24. Injection technique that is more prone to hematoma: mandi block B. Gow Gates
Akinosi D. MSAN block e. psan
25. #47 buccal injection indicated for:
A. RCT B. tooth extraction D. odontectomy E. none
C. cardiac arrest
E. PSAN block
C. Composite restoration
26. Best alternative technique after mandi block for still painful #36 for access in rct:
A. intraosseous B. intraseptal C. intrapulpal D.intraliga- mentary E. Gow Gates
27. Long lasting amide local anesthetics used for temporary relief of Tic Douloureux
A. Prilocaine B. Hurricaine Lidocaine E.Mepivacaine F. Bupivacaine
28. Contents of the anesthetic cartridge. A. anesthetic drug B.epinephrine D.distilled water E. all
C. Bupivacaine D.
C.sodiummetabisulfite
29. Node to node jumping of impulse
A. synapse B. saltatory conduction C. neurotransmission D. none
30. Factor that determine the level of pain tolerance
A. weight B. age C. fatigue D. height E. B and C
31. Method of controlling pain by taking analgesic drugs
A. raising pain threshold B.block painful impulse
C. removal cause D. psychosomatic methods E. pain prevention by cortical depression
32. Method of controlling pain by use of local anesthesia
A. raising pain threshold B. block painful impulse C. removal of cause D. psychosomatic
methods E. pain prevention by cortical depression
33. In the absence of MSAN , bicuspids can have innervation from what nerve
A. ASAN B. PSAN D. infraorbital E. Labial
34. Bell Palsy can best be prevented by A. use always long needle
C. fast injection
C. Pterygoid plexus
B. use short needle
D. aspiration
35. Painful #44 for RCT even after three intrapulpal, two infiltration, one intraligamentary, one
man- dibular blocking after two hours is best manage by
A. second IAN block B. more intraligamentary C. change anesthesia
D. IAN block opposite mandible E. general anesthesia
36. The cardiac glycosides will reduce the concentration of which ion in an active heart muscle?

Sodium C. Calcium
Bromide D. Chloride E. Potassium
37. Pretreatment with which of the following drug will potentiate the ability of an intravenous
injec- tion of acetylcholine to lower blood pressure?
A. Methacholine C. Pilocarpine
B. Epinephrine D. Physostigmine E. Pralidoxime
38. An excess of which of the following hormones may be associated with increased sensitivity
to epinephrine?
A. Testosterone C. Insulin
B. Parathyroid D. Thyroid E. both B & D
39. Before extracting a patient’s premolar, the dentist administers an inferior alveolar block.
Three minutes after receiving this block, the patient develops paralysis of his forehead muscles,
of his eyelids, and of the upper and lower lips on the same side of his face. These findings are
the most likely to be associated with the diffusion of the anesthetic solution into which of the
following?
A. Otic ganglion D. Auriculotemporal nerve
B. apsule of the parotid gland E. Ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve C. Motor branches
of the mandibular nerve supplying the masticatory muscles
40. The dentist, who planned to sedate a patient intravenously, first injects a test dose into the
pa- tient’s arm. Immediately, upon receiving the injection, the patient experiences a severe,
burning pain at the site of injection; it radiates distally. Simultaneously, her arm becomes blotchy
with sev- eral blanched areas. Although her pulse in that arm is regular, it is weaker than her
unaffected side. Which of the following might account for these findings?
A. an injection into an artery
B. an injection into the radial nerve
C. an injection into the muscle compartment D. an impending anaphylactic reaction.
41. The principal therapeutic action of the glucocorticoids is is:
A. Antidiuretic C. anti-infective
B. Antianabolic D. antihypertensive E. anti-inflammatory
42. The primary effect produced by digitalis therapeutic dose levels is: A. a slowing of the
cardiac rate
B. a decrease in the venous pressure
C. a decrease in cardiac enlargement
D. an increase in the force of myocardial contraction.
43. The single most useful agent in resuscitation is:
A. Oxygen C. an endotracheal tube
B. a respiratory stimulant D. 1:1000 epinephrine for injection
44. Inadvertently, an overdose of morphine is administered to a patient. To treat this condition, a
dentist should administer:
A. oxygen and inject naloxone hydrochloride
B. caffeine sodium, benzoate intravenously
C. doxapram intramuscularly
D. nalorphine and epinephrine intramuscularly
45. The activity of benzalkonium chloride is markedly antagonized by:
A. soap C. sodium chloride
B. sodium nitrite D. cetypyridinium chloride
C. alkylbenzyldimethyl ammonium chloride
E. aromatic spirits of ammonia

46. A patient informs his dentist that he has been taking mecamylamine regularly for the past
year. Upon oral examination the dentist is most likely to find:
A. ptyalism C. palatal petechiae
B. xerostomia D. gingival hypertrophy E. bullous lesions on the buccal mucosa
47. A patient receiving propranolol has an acute asthmatic attack while undergoing dental treat-
ment. The most useful agent for management of the condition is:
A. Morphine C. phentolamine
B. Epinephrine D. aminophylline E. norepinephrine
48. The systemic activity of the ester (procaine) types of local anesthetics is terminated primarily
by:
A. elimination by the kidney
B. metabolism in the liver only
C. storage in adipose tissue
D. metabolism in the liver and by pseudocholinesterase in the plasma
49. If a patient requiring an extraction reports that he is on bishydroxycoumarin therapy, the
labora- tory test most valuable in evaluating the surgical risk is:
A. clotting time C. sedimentation rate
B. bleeding time D. complete blood count E. plasma prothrombin time
50. The first clinically useful and systematically effective anti-nfective agent was: A. penicillin C.
tetracycline
B. sulfanilamide D. streptomycin E. bacitracin
51. During visit to the dentist, a patient develops a severe, acute bronchial asthmatic attack. He
should immediately receive:
A. cortisone C. tripelennamine
B. epinephrine D. 90% oxygen, 10% CO2
52. The most serious and life-threatening blood dyscrasia associated with drug toxicity is: A.
aplastic anemia C. thrombocytopenia
B. agranulocytosis D. hemolytic anemia E. megaloblastic anemia
53. When methohexital is used to induce general anesthesia, the initial effect wears off within a
short time and the patient awakens. This occurs because the drug is:
A. detoxified C. eliminated from the body
B. biotransformed D. redistributed from the brain
54. A dental patient on anticonvulsant therapy exhibits marked gingival hypertrophy. This patient
, most likely, is regularly taking:
A. primidone C. phenacemide
B. mephobarbital D. Phenobarbital E. diphenylhydantoin
55. Adrenergic neuron blocking drugs, such as guanethidine, are useful primarily in the
treatment of:
A. mental disease C. cholinergic crisis
B. cardiac arrest D. paroxysmal tachycardia
E. essential (primary) hypertension
56. The most important pharmacologic action of drug which suppress cardiac arrhythmias ia:
A. blockage of the vagus nerve B. stimulation of cardiac ATP-ase activity
C. blockage of the beta-adrenergic receptor
D. stimulation of alpha-adrenergic receptor
E. increased refractory period of cardiac muscle.

57. Tolerance is least likely to develop with the use of:

A. LSD B. marijuana C. Heroin D. methadone E. amphetamines
58. The principal danger associated with the use of nitrous oxide anesthesia in concentrations
ex- ceeding 80% is:
A. hypoxia C. liver damage E. irritation of the respiratory tract.
B. renal damage D. vomiting and nausea
59. For treating most oral infections, penicillin V is preferred to penicillin G because penicillin V;
A. is less allergenic D. is less sensitive to acid degradation
B. has a greater gram-negative spectrum E. has a longer duration of action
C. is bactericidal, whereas penicillin G is not.
60. When the combined action of two drugs is greater the sum of their individual action, this is:
A. induction C. idiosyncrasy
B.synergism D. hypersensitivity E. cumulative action
61. With an overdose of a cholinergic drug, one would expect to see each of the following,
except:
A. Sweating C. mydriasis
B. Urination D. bradycardia E. copious serious saliva
62. Which of the following is a beta-adrenergic receptor blocking agent used for the treatment of
hypertension?
A. Prazosin (Minipress ®) C. Atenolol (Tenormin®)
B. Clonidine (Catapres®) D. Hydralazine (Aprezoline®) E. Verapamil (Calan®)
63. In which of the following categories are ephedrine, tyramine, and amphetamine classified?
A. Anticholinesterases C. Alpha-adrenergic blocking agents
B. Indirect-acting sympathomimetics D. Direct-acting parasympathomimetics
64. Each of the following methods can be used to control pain, except:
A. Cortical depression D. Psychosomatic (hypnosis) methods B. Raising the pain threshold E.
Blocking the sensory pathway
C. Depression of the autonomic nervous system
65. Thiazides, which are used in the treatment of hypertension, may require supplemental
admin- istration of:
A. Sodium B. calcium C. Chloride D. potassium
66. Which of the following dentrifice components is most likely to inactivate the fluoride ion?
A. Anionic detergent C. Polyacrylic spheres
B. Dicalcium phosphate D. Monofluorophosphate
67. Which of the following adverse reactions of oral contraceptives is the most common and the
most serious?
A. Hypotension D. Uterine neoplasia
B. Hepatotoxicity E. Thromboembolic disorder
C.Decreased resistance to infection
68. In therapeutic doses, digitalis acts primarily on the cardiac muscle. It does so by increasing
the:
A. force of contraction C. refractory period of the atrial muscle
B. refractory period of the ventricular muscle D. rate of conduction of impulses to the muscle.
69. Each of the following is a pharmacologic effect of phenothiazines , except:
A. Sedation D. An antiemetic effect
B. Alpha-adrenergic blackage E. Potentiation of the action of narcotics
C. An anticonvulsant
70. Which of the following represents the drug-of-choice in the treatment of candidiasis for an
HIV- infected patient?
A. Acyclovir B. AZT C. Nystatin D. Chlorhexidine
71. Epinephrine antagonizes the effects of histamines by:
A. preventing the release of histamine
B. acting on the CNS
C. producing physiologic actions opposite to that of histamine D. competitively blocking
histamine at the cellular receptor site
72. Cyanosis, dyspnea and elevated temperature following general anesthesia may indicate: 1.
atelectasis 3. pulmonary embolus 2. pneumonia 4. acute renal shutdown
A. 1 only B. 1,2 & 3 C. 2 & 3 D. 2 & 4 E. 4 only
73. How many milligrams of epinephrine are in each carpule (1.8cc) of 2% lidocaine with
1:100,000 epinephrine? A. 0.018mg. B. 0.036 mg. C. 0.18mg D. 0.36mg E. 3.6mg
74. Your patient has history of drug abuse. Which agent could be given with no liability to cause
an
addiction? Morphine hydrocodone
B. ibuprofen C. codeine E. hydromorphone
A.
E. Diclofenac
D.
75. Which of the following agents has little value in treating acute inflammation? A. ibuprofen B.
paracetamol C. aspirin D. naproxen
76. Celecoxib is a member of which category of drugs?
A. Salicylates C. Cox-2 selective inhibitors
B. Opiates D. Non-selective Cox-inhibitors E Steroidal anti-inflammatories
77. Which category of drugs does not affect blood clotting and can be given to patients taking “
blood thinners”?
A. Salicylates B. NSAID’s C. Aspirin D. cox-2 selective inhibitors
78. Which of the following analgesics may interact with warfarin to cause increased bleeding? A.
Acetaminophen B. ibuprofen C. paracetamol
D. hydrocodone E. Morphine
79. Use of Opioid drugs in dentistry
A. analgesics B. antiinflammatories D. preanesthetic medications E.antidiarrheals
80. Which drug is the standard to which all opiates are compared?
A. Codeine B. meperidine C. oxycodone D. Morphine E. Fentanyl
C. antitussives
81. The major disadvantage with the use of opioid analgesics is: A. allergic response B. nausea
C. vomiting d. respiratory depression
82. Drug action that increase body activity :
A. stimulant C. depressants supplements E. prophylactic..
83.This is an act to promote and ensure the production of an adequate supply, distribution,
useand acceptance of the drug identified by their generic names is the:
B. R.A 6675 C. Generic Act of 1989 E. P.D. 825B
84. Drugs that can be used for what is lacking in the body. :
A. stimulant
D. supplements
C. depressants C. irritants E. prophylactic.
85. Fundamental action of vaccines :
a. stimulation B. prevention .
86. Sedatives and hypnotics are drugs which act as:
A. stimulant B. depressants C. irritants D. supplements
87. Group of drugs which acts on a mixed group of receptors:
A. agonist B. antagonist C. pure antagonist
D. partial agonist E. mixed agonist-antagonist
88. An intrinsic activity of < 1 is exhibited by.
A. agonist B. antagonis C. pure antagonist D. partial agonist E. mixed agonist-antagonist
89. Which of the following is a contraindication to the use of prilocaine? A.biliary tract disease B.
Type II diabetes
C. rheumatoid arthritis D.Hepatic disease
90. An affinity for a receptor with no intrinsic activity is demonstrated by:
A. agonist B. antagonist C. pure antagonist D. partial agonist E.mixed agonist-antagonist
91. Which of the following is NOT a site for drug metabolism:
A. liver B. GIT C. skin D. placenta E. kidney
92. These are reactions to drugs that cannot be explained by known mechanism.
A. Side effects C. Idiosyncracies
B. Allergic reaction D. Teratogenic effects E. Depressants
93. The metabolism of the drug en route from the gut lumen to the systemic circulation.
A. Biologic half- life C. First pass effect
B. Median effective dose D. portal circulation E. pharmacokinetics
94. An unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated with actual tissue damage: A.
analgesia B. inflammation C.pain D. infection
95. It is the least stimulus intensity at which a subject perceives pain :
A. pain threshold B. pain tolerance level
D. high threshold E. second pain
96. The reaction of the body to high threshold mechanoreceptor :
A. tolerance C. withdrawal reflex
B. inflammation D. suppurationE. analgesia
E. pus C. analgesia
97. This is the pain theory that is based on the existence of a specific pain system : A. pattern B.
central summation
B. Gate control D. sensory interaction E. specificity theory
98. Which of the following is NOT a peripheral mediators of pain:
A. histamine B. bradykinin C. prostaglandin D. amino acid E. leukptriennes
99. Drugs used as premedication to General Anesthesia to reduce secretions:
A. Anticholinergic B. Antihistamine C. Anxiolytic D. Antipsychotics

100. Antiemetic drugs _____.

A. dilates pupils B.causes nausea C. contracts uterus D.dries mouth E.prevents vomiting