AHEAD Test and Discussions AIIMS SIMULATED TEST IV

1.
What is implicated for treatments under general anesthesia?

a. b. c. d. 2.

Extract only the most grossly carious or symptomatic teeth Treatment can be provided under general anaesthesia for a child who could be able to cope with operative dental care under local anaesthesia Restoration of ALL carious teeth Placing pit and fissure sealants

b. Cellular activity in connective tissue capsule c. Production of bone resorbing factors d. All of these 9. High recurrence rate of keratocysts is due to all factors except a. Satellite cysts b. Difficulty of surgical removal c. Focal areas of active growth of the cyst wall d. Cystic contents have a low soluble protein level 10. Epstein pearls are a. Same as enamel pearls b. Imperfection in the tooth bud c. Seen in vitamin D deficiency d. Small keratin cysts of newborn infant 11. Cyst resembling the bunch of grapes is a. Gingival cyst b. Developmental lateral periodontal cyst c. Dentigerous cyst d. OKC 12. Most cases of pulpitis are caused by a. Injudicious cavity preparation b. Chemical irritation from sterilizing agent c. Bacterial invasion from bloodstream d. Bacterial invasion from carious lesion 13. Mears from a lesion showing cells with ballooning degeneration and multinucleated giant cells are laboratory features of a. Acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis b. Pembhigus c. Recurrent apthous stomatitis d. Recurrent intraoral herpes simplex infection 14. Which of the following lesion shows intra-epithelial blisters? a. Mucous Membrane Pemphigoid b. Pemphigus Vulgaris c. Erythema muliforme d. Angina bullosa haemorragica 15. Which of the following autoantiboies react with desmosomal component in Pemphigus? a. Ig A b. Ig E c. Ig G d. Interferon 16. What is the characteristic feature of Mucous Membrane Pemphigoid ? a. Supraepithelial bullae b. Circulating antibodies present in high concentaration c. Subepithelial bullae d. Positive Nikolsky sign 17. What is the correct name for the ocular scarring that may lead to blindness in mucous membrane pemphigoid? a. Retinopathy b. Cataract c. Symblapharon d. Trachoma 18. Pemphigoid is found to be co- associated with which of the following lesion? a. Lichen Planus b. Oral cancer c. Desquamative gingivitis d. Geographic tongue 19. For a upper molar band, usually the final seating is with heavy biting force on the a. Mesiolingual surface b. Distolingual surface c. Mesiobuccal surface d. Distobuccal surface 20. The cements for orthodontic use, differ from those used for restorative purposes in that they

Children are anatomically and physiologically different from adults but not in one of the following ways a. Breathing is through a narrower, more fixed 'wind pipe b. Child is less capable of taking in a bigger volume of air even when urgently required c. The demand for oxygen (consumption) is lower compared to adults d. Incidence of periodic breathing and apneas are higher compared to adults Up to what age children are unable to distinguish between pressure and pain a. Infants up to about 2 years b. 5 yrs c. 8 yrs d. Nearly the age when they are losing their last primary teeth In a case when a child under 16 years says 'no' a. Continue with the procedure b. Manage by a change in the procedure or by establishing a temporal respite c. Obtain written consent from the parents d. Refer the child to a pediatrician or psychologist What can be said truly about the Rectal administration of a drug) a. Not as commonly used in world as are the routes of administration b. Absorption from the rectal mucosa is slow c. Dose needs careful estimation as theres a risk of an overdose or underdose d. Consent is not required Which of the following is incorrectly mentioned about pain control in pedodontics? a. Common drugs used for pain control in children are paracetamol and ibuprofen b. Increase in asthma among children requires that safety of ibuprofen be considered c. Narcotic analgesics such as codeine or morphine can be used on children d. Aspirin is one of the safest drugs to be used among children
A 30 year old patient complains of a swelling in the area of lower rt. Third molar region where he had undergone a surgery 3 years ago. Early radiographic features reveal multilocular radioluscency. Histopathogenes is reveals that the lesion is lined by even layer of parakeratinized squamous epithelium with a palisaded basal layer and presence of satellite cysts in capsule. The diagnosis is

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

a. c. 8.

OKC Radicular cyst

b. Dentigerous cyst d. Ameloblastoma

The unique pattern of growth of the odontogenic keratocyst, in comparison to the other cysts is due to which of the following mechanisma. Active epithelial growth

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AHEAD Test and Discussions AIIMS SIMULATED TEST IV

a. b. c. d. Have liquid that contains more free H3PO4 Are mixed thicker Isolation is not required Set faster than other cements
b. c. In class 2 the overjet is more than 3 mm and in class 3 the overjet is less than 3 mm. In class 2 the overjet is more than 3 mm and in class 3 the overjet is less than 2 mm.

21. With both ZnPO4 & GIC, cementation of multiple bands is

greatly facilitated by

a. Using a thinner mix b. Mixing each time a band is seated c. Using a cold mixing slab. d. Increasing powder liquid ratio 22. The major difficulty with direct bonding of orthodontic attachments is that a. It is time consuming b. The dentist must be able to judge the proper position for the attachment and must carry it to space rapidly and accurately c. It is difficult in excessive salivation d. All of the above 23. In the original edgewise appliance, without adequate second
order bends, the incisor teeth are positioned too straight up & down with the roots too close together, producing an effect called

In class 2 the overjet is more than 2 mm and in class 3 the overjet is less than 3 mm 32. Concept of LINGUALIZED OCCLUSION introduced by Alfred Gysi in 1927 is which of the following a. Lingualized occlusion uses the maxillary lingual cusp as the dominant functional element, occluding against corresponding position of mandibular tooth. b. Lingualized occlusion uses the mandibular lingual cusp as the dominant functional element, occluding against corresponding position of mandibular tooth. c. Lingualized occlusion uses the maxillary buccal cusp as the dominant functional element, occluding against corresponding position of mandibular tooth. d. Lingualized occlusion uses the mandibular buccal cusp as the dominant functional element, occluding against corresponding position of mandibular tooth.

d.

33. Incorporation of lingualized occlusion in teeth arrangement involves- Buccolingually the lingual cusps 24. Anchorage preparation was accomplished by Tweed by of the mandibular teeth are located within a line drawn a. Tipping the molars distally b. Tipping the molars mesially from the c. Extruding the molars d. Intruding the molars a. Distal of canine to the buccal and lingual sides of the retromolar pad. 25. An Excisional biopsy is characterized by b. Distal of first premolar to the buccal and lingual sides a. Superficial scrapings from the lesion of the retromolar pad. b. Including part of the lesion c. Distal of canine to the buccal and lingual sides of the c. Including normal tissue and most of the lesion mandibular ramus. d. Including normal tissue and all of the lesion d. Distal of first premolar to the buccal and lingual sides 26. Repeat biopsies are indicated of the mandibular ramus. a. When clinical course differs from the one to be expected 34. The Concept of Occlusion given by Monson in 1918 because of a reported benign lesion which allows the anteroposterior and mesiodistal b. When ulcers fail to heal within 3 days inclines of the artificial teeth to be arranged in harmony c. For hyperkeratotic lesions d. For bone pathologies with a spherical surface is 27. All of the following may be done to arrest intraa. Spherical concept of occlusion. operative hemorrhage except b. Bonwill's theory of occlusion. a. Ligation of cut arteries and veins c. Conical theory of occlusion. b. Pressure application with help of sterile gauge d. Organic concept of occlusion. c. Bone compression to arrest bleeding 35. The theory of occlusion that proposes that the teeth d. Infiltration of area with lignocaine move in relation to each other as guided by the condylar 28. The most common cause for tooth extraction is controls and the incisal point and there is a 4 inch a. Dental caries b. Periodontal disease distance between the condyles and between condyles and c. Trauma d. Hypocalcification incisor point. a. Spherical concept of occlusion. 29. The teeth most commonly extracted to orthodontically correct b. Bonwill's theory of occlusion. malocclusion is c. Conical theory of occlusion. a. Canines b. First molars d. Organic concept of occlusion. c. First premolars d. Second premolars 30. Antibiotic prophylaxis is required prior to any surgical
procedure if the patient is suffering from any of the following except

a. c.

Orthodontic look Hollywood smile

b. Prosthodontic look d. Ugly duckling look

a. Ventricular septal defect b. Prosthetic heart valve c. Hypertension d. Renal dialysis patient with arteriovenous shunt placement 31. Normal overjet values should not exceed 2mm in class 1
situation a. In class 2 the overjet is more than 2 mm and in class 3 the overjet is less than 2 mm.

36. All are uses of face bow except a. When balanced occlusion in eccentric position is desired b. When a Definite cusp fossa a or cusp tip to cusp incline Relation is needed c. When a non cusp form(cuspless) teeth are used d. For verification of jaw position 37. The smooth part of the right atrium derives from which of the following embryonic structures? a. Bulbus cordis b. Primitive atrium

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AHEAD Test and Discussions AIIMS SIMULATED TEST IV

c. Primitive ventricle d. Sinus venosus 38. Microscopic examination of a PAS-stained histological section of a Graafian follicle demonstrates a bright reddish-pink, acellular ring around the ovum. Which of the following terms most accurately describes this ring? a. Corona radiata b. Cumulus oophorus c. Theca externa d. Zona pellucida 39. Following a surgical procedure on the right side of the neck, a
patient can no longer raise his right arm above the horizontal position. The patient also cannot shrug his right shoulder. Which of the following nerves was injured?

a. Extracellular fluid (ECF) volume b. Effective renal plasma flow (ERPF) c. Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) d. Plasma volume 49. The clearance of several substances was measured at a constant glomerular filtration rate and constant urine flow rate, but at increasing plasma concentrations of the substance. Under these conditions, clearance will increase at high plasma concentrations for which of the following substances? a. Creatinine b. Mannitol c. Penicillin d. Phosphate 50. An individual lacking the enzyme tyrosinase would be particularly predisposed to develop which of the following? a. Glioblastoma multiforme b. Hemangioblastoma c. Hepatoma d. Melanoma 51. Thiamine is used by which coenzyme in order to prevent a lactic acid acidosis? a. Lactate dehydrogenase b. Pyruvate carboxylase c. Pyruvate dehydrogenase d. Pyruvate kinase 52. A patient's lab studies demonstrate a deficiency of cytochrome C oxidase activity. A defect in which of the following subcellular organelles would cause this deficiency? a. Golgi apparatus b. Lysosomes c. Mitochondria d. Ribosomes 53. A genetic mutation that results in abnormal stimulatory G protein (Gs) structure would adversely affect which of the following mechanisms? a. Active transport b. Facilitated diffusion c. Pinocytosis d. Signal transduction 54. Which of the following is the action of dietary fiber? a. Increases the blood cholesterol b. Decreases the blood cholesterol c. Decreases bowel motility d. Increases the exposure of gut to carcinogens 55. Which of the following inhibits the activity of acetylCoA carboxylase? a. Citrate b. Glucagon c. High-carbohydrate, low-fat diet d. Insulin 56. A patient was recently prescribed fludrocortisone inhalation
therapy to improve his current asthma treatment regimen. Ten days after starting therapy he presents with white patches on the inside of the cheeks that can be easily wiped off leaving a red, bleeding, sore surface. This patient would be best treated with which of the following?

a. c.

Axillary nerve Greater occipital nerve

b. Great auricular nerve d. Spinal accessory nerve

40. Zygomycosis, a destructive fungal infection of the sinuses, is likely to reach the brain by which of the following routes? a. Cavernous sinus b. External carotid artery c. Internal carotid artery d. Superior sagittal sinus 41. A surgeon inadvertently sections the recurrent laryngeal nerve during a procedure. Which of the following muscles would retain its innervation subsequent to this injury? a. Cricothyroid b. Lateral cricoarytenoid c. Posterior cricoarytenoid d. Thyroarytenoid 42. As a result of a viral infection, a patient has swelling of the left
facial nerve within the facial canal. The patient's face appears asymmetrical, and he complains that saliva drips from his mouth while he is chewing. Paralysis of which of the following muscles accounts for these symptoms?

a. c.

Buccinator Palatoglossus

b. Masseter d. Palatopharyngeus

43. An increase in which of the following best explains the mechanism by which the cardiac output increases in severe anemia? a. Arteriolar diameter b. Blood viscosity b. Peripheral vascular resistance d. Splanchnic blood flow 44. Which of the following is found in the respiratory zone of the lung? a. Goblet cells b. Main bronchi c. Mucous cells d. Type I epithelial cells 45. Laboratory studies of an automobile accident victim show a significant elevation of creatine kinase (CK). Which of the following tissues is most likely to be the source of the enzyme? a. Bone b. Brain c. Heart d. Skeletal muscle 46. Which of the following binds to von Willebrand factor at the platelet membrane? a. Adenosine diphosphate (ADP b. Calcium c. Glycoprotein GPIb d. Platelet factor 3 (PF3) 47. Which of the following statements about Troponin C is true? a. Inhibits the interaction of actin and myosin b. Attaches the troponin complex to tropomyosin c. Permits the interaction of actin and myosin d. Is located at the junction of A band and I band 48. Which of the following can be determined by calculation of the clearance of paraaminohippuric acid (PAH)?

a. Acyclovir Capsules c. Cephalexin Suspension

b. Ampicillin Capsules d. Clotrimazole Troches

57. A patient is suffering from pneumonia, and culture shows

numerous gram-positive cocci that are identified as Streptococcus pneumoniae. Which of the following immune effector mechanisms is most important in completely clearing this infection?

a. b. c.

ADCC (antibody-dependent cell cytotoxicity) Complement-mediated opsonization Cytotoxic T cell lymphocytes d. LAK cells

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AHEAD Test and Discussions AIIMS SIMULATED TEST IV

58. A 33-year-old man with AIDS and a history of shingles develops a severe, multifocal encephalitis. Which of the following viruses is the most likely cause of his encephalitis? a. Cytomegalovirus b. Herpes simplex type I c. Herpes simplex type II d. Herpes zoster-varicella 59. A patient with a lung lesion coughs up sputum that contains thin, acid-fast positive rods. Which of the following features would most likely be associated with these bacteria? a. Nutritional requirement for factors V and X b. Streptokinase c. Toxic shock syndrome toxin d. Waxy envelope 60. A 58-year-old alcoholic with multiple dental caries develops a pulmonary abscess and is treated with antibiotics. Several days later he develops nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, and voluminous green diarrhea. Which of the following antibiotics is most likely responsible for this patient's symptoms? a. Chloramphenicol b. Clindamycin c. Gentamicin d. Metronidazole 61. A 37-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with
shortness of breath, cyanosis, and fever. Chest x-rays reveal consolidation of the right lower lobe with relative sparing of the remaining lobes. A clinical diagnosis of lobar pneumonia is made and supported by the results of sputum cultures. Which of the following is the genus of the bacterium most likely to be isolated from this patient's sputum?

69. When mandible is protruded, disocclusion of posterior teeth is resulted. This phenomenon is called as a. Bennet movement b. Christensens phenomenon c. Spee movement d. Hanaus phenomenon 70. Interocclusal distance is the a. Value of the vertical dimension of rest in denture. b. Difference between the occlusal vertical dimension and the rest vertical dimension. c. Distance or gap existing between the upper and lower teeth when the mandible is in the physiologic rest position. It usually is 2 to 4 mm when observed at the position of the first premolars. d. Clinically recorded rest position. 71. Other names for centric relation are a. Retruded mandibular position b. Centric jaw relation c. Hinge axis position and d. All of the above 72. How much fluoride is contained in an

average 4.6-ounce tube of toothpaste? a. 50 mg b. 100mg c. 130mg d. 150mg.

73The proportion of a population affected

with a disease at a given point in time, i.e., (cases)/(population) refers to as a. Incidence b. Prevalence c. Sensitivity d. Specificity
74. Standard TMS pins are used in except a. Molars b. Premolars c. Cross splinting of cusps d. Type IV fracture 75. Which of the following is not the requirement of direct gold restoration? a. Metholodical condensation b. Systematic polishing c. Extensive cavity preparation d. Ideal surgical filed. 76. Hand condensation of regular cohesive gold restoration is done by: a. Black, Woodbury, Ferrier and Loma Linda instrument sets b. Black, prime, Ferrier and Woodbury instrument sets c. Black, prime and Woodbury instrument sets d. Prime and Ferrier 77. Class III prepared for direct gold restoration in mandibular anterior teeth does not include a. Mesial contact area b. Distal contact area c. All of the contact area d. Lingual area 78. Method used to allow gingival displacements during indirect procedures for cast construction are:
a. String saturated with 1:1000 epinephrine for 10 mins 10 mins b. Sting saturated with 5% Aluminum chloride solution 10 mins c. Sting saturated with ferric subsurface or with 8% zinc chloride for 3 mins d. All of the above

a. Haemophilus c. Streptococcus, alpha-hemolytic d. Streptococcus, beta-hemolytic

b. Klebsiella

62. At what percentage does shrinkage of fgg take place? a. 10% b. 30% c. 50% d. 75% 63. What is the ideal thickness of free gingival graft? a. 0.5-1.5mm b. 1-1.5mm c. 1.5-2 mm d. 1.5-2.5mm 64. What is the concentration of edta used as root conditioning ? a. 6% b. 12% c. 18% d. 24% 65. Which suture material contains lactide &glycolide? a. Vicryl b. Descon c. Pds d. Dacron 66. Increased chances of tissue laceration are with a. Conventional cutting type needle b. Reverse cutting c. Side cutting d. Taper point 67. Which organisms increase in number in supragingival plaque after scaling and root planing? a. Actinobacilli b. Prevotella c. Porphyromonas d. Coccoids 68. Which of the following factors does not influence mandibular movements? a. Muscles and Ligament as force for the movement. b. Condylar path. c. Inclination of contacting surfaces of opposite teeth. d. Tongue musculature

79. Nylon pin technique was devised by: a. Melvin R Luned b. Charles Huery

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AHEAD Test and Discussions AIIMS SIMULATED TEST IV

c. Wood Bury d. David Shooshan 80. Which of these can lead to irreversible pulpal injury? a. Anesthetics containing high concentrations of a vasoconstrictor b. Use of sharp burs c. Appropriate preparation depth d. Ample air and water coolants 81. Deliberate perforation of the apical foramen should be done for all of the following EXCEPT a. Periapical tenderness b. Pressure sensitivity c. Developing swelling d. Cracked tooth syndrome 82. Occlusal reduction during endodontic treatment is indicated for a. Teeth with irreversible pulpitis b. Teeth that manifest periapical symptoms c. Only those teeth that fail to respond d. All teeth undergoing root canal treatment 83. Management of a localized soft tissue swelling is facilitated by a. Antibiotics b. Serratiopeptidase c. Incision and drainage d. Subsequent instrumentation of the root canal 84. Onset of acute pain in the middle of endodontic treatment
therapy in vital teeth can be due to all of the following except

88. An alginate impression is to be taken of a patient known to have a problem with gagging. The dentist should follow all of the following precautions EXCEPT a. Insertion of the impression material into the mouth can be delayed until just before the end of the working time, but allowing enough time to seat the impression. b. The impression should then be removed at the earliest possible time after it sets c. A fast-setting alginate can be selected that not only sets in a shorter time d. The anterior part of the maxillary tray should be seated before the posterior portion 89. The set alginate impression separated from the tray during removal from the mouth, resulting in distortion and tearing of the impression. Which factor is LEAST LIKELY to be the remedy of this problem? a. A change in the brand of alginate to one that adheres to the metal tray b. Select a tray with perforations that provides mechanical retention. c. Use commercial tray adhesives specifically formulated for retention of alginate impressions. d. Make a smooth, creamy mix of alginate 90. The World Health Organization criterion for evidence of a xerophthalmia problem in the community is: a. Night blindness prevalence of more than 1% in 6 months to 6 years age group b. Prevalence of Bitots spots more than 2% in 6 months to 6 years age group c. Serum retinol of less than 10 microgram/100 ml in more than 3% in 6 months to 6 years age group d. Corneal ulcers in more than 0.5% of population of 6 months to 6 years age group 91. The index for chronic malnutrition is: a. Weight for age b. Height for age c. Weight for height d. Quetlets index 92. All the following steps are recommended under Baby Friendly
Hospital Initiative promoted by the WHO and UNICEF except:

a. Copious sodium hypochlorite irrigation b. Presence of residual pulp tissue c. Undetected canal d. Hyper occluding temporary filling 85. Calcium hydroxide paste is used as an a. Inter-appointment intracanal medicament b. An antimicrobial c. Necrotic tissue dissolver d. All of these 86. A mix of alginate was made, and the setting time was shorter than previously experienced. The material was too stiff at the time of insertion to obtain adequate seating and surface detail. All of the following are causes of this problem EXCEPT
a. b. c. d. The most common cause for the shorter setting time is too high a temperature of the mix water. Aging of the alginate powder in a warm, humid atmosphere can affect the setting The increased amount of powder causes the setting or gelation time to be less than normally experienced. Use of water substantially less than the 21degree Celsius

a. b. c. d.

87. An alginate impression was taken of a patient with a fixed appliance, and tearing of the impression occurred in critical areas as a result of severely undercut areas. Choose the INCORRECT statement
a. b. c. d. Strength of the alginate improves quite rapidly for 5 to 10 minutes after setting, and the impression can be left in the mouth a few extra minutes before removal. Tear strength is a function of the rate of removal of the impression, and rapid rates enhance the chances of an acceptable impression. Mixes with low powder/liquid ratios have higher tear strengths To obtain a smooth consistency that will record the desired level of surface detail, the ratio must not be increased or decreased beyond the limit.

Allowing mothers and infant to remain together for 24 hours a day Mother to initiate breast feeding after 4 hours of normal delivery Giving newborn infant no food or drink other than breast milk Encouraging breast feeding on demand

93. In a stable situation: a. Incidence = Prevalence + Duration b. Prevalence = Incidence Duration c. Incidence = Prevalence Duration d. Prevalence = Incidence + Duration 94. The local anaethetic known to cause Methaemoglobinaemia as adverse effect is: a. Lidocaine b. Bupivacaine c. Tetracaine d. Prilocaine 95. Which of the following skeletal muscle relaxants undergoes Hoffmann elimination?

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AHEAD Test and Discussions AIIMS SIMULATED TEST IV

a. c. Pancuronium Atracurium b. Rocuronium d. Succinyl choline

96. Which of the follwing antitubercular drugs does not cause hepatotoxicity? a. Isoniazid b. Ethambutol c. Pyrazinamide d. rifampicin 97. The betablocker having intrinsic sympathomimetic activity is: a. Propronolol b. Atenolol c. Sotalol d. Pindolol 98. Kllovoltage controls the speed of: a. Photons b. Electrons c. Anodes d. Cathodes

99. The most effective means in reducing the time of exposure, the amount of radiation reaching the patient and the amount of radiation scattered to the dentist is: a. A lead apron b. Ultra-speed film c. Lead diaphragms d. Increasing target-film distance 100. All of the following are true concerning collimation except a. It prevents overexposure to patients b. It increases the area of patient exposure c. It reduces secondary radiation to the film d. It reduces secondary radiation to the patient

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