PROSTHODONTICS 6.

Occlusal contact should never occur at the

junction of the porcelain and the metal of
1. For best results, the occlusion on a pontic the unveneered area because
should be: a. prematurities are hard to detect in this area
a. eliminated by adjusting to remove occlusal so adjustments are difficult
contact b. contact produces flow or burnishing of the
b. confined to only the buccal portion of the metal leading to fracture of the porcelain
pontic c. bonding in this area is usually weaker
c. confined to only the lingual portion of the d. the metal layer is considerably stronger than
pontic the porcelain so stress distribution is uneven
d. essentially the same as on the other teeth
e. confined to only the area next to strongest 7. The final shape of a tooth produced by
abutment instrumentation:
a. abutment
2. The underlying surface of an anterior pontic b. emergency profile
should be: c. pontic
a. modified ridge lap d. tooth preparation
b. ridge lap type
c. saddle type 8. The walls of a full crown preparation should
d. hygienic type have:
a. a 2 °-5 ° convergence towards the occlusal
3. Because of stresses received by the fixed b. an 8°-10° convergence towards the occlusal
material denture, the inlay abutment c. a 5°-8° divergence towards the occlusal
preparation should provide the following d. walls parallel to each other
EXCEPT:
a. parallelism of cavity walls 9. The porcelain-metal crown requires what
b. sufficient proximal surface width type of labial finish line on the preparation of
c. flat, deep pulpal wall for strength anterior teeth?
d. plenty of undercuts a. knife edge
b. chamfer
4. Ante's law concerns the: c. shoulder
a. degree of tipping allowable in an abutment d. shoulder with a bevel
tooth e. the finish line type is not critical if the
b. amount of curvature acceptable in the plan reduction is sufficient
of occlusion
c. amount of increase in retentive factors with 10. The following are examples of partial veneer
a crown versus a three-quarter crown restorations EXCEPT:
d. crown : root ratio none of the above a. Maryland bridge
b. laminate veneers
5. Repeated fracture of a porcelain-fused-to- c. pin ledge
metal conditioner restoration is due d. 3/4 crowns
primarily to
a. occlusal trauma 11. Occlusal reduction for the three-quarter
b. improper firing schedule crown preparation should equal
c. failure to use a metal conditioner approximately
d. an inadequately designed framework a. the depth of all existing restorations
b. 1.5 – 2.0 mm
c. 0.75 – 1.0 mm
d. 3.0 – 4.0 mm
12. The bevel is placed on the finish line of the
inlay, onlay, and three-quarter crown
primarily to
a. provide ease of adaptation of the gold
margin
b. remove unsupported enamel rods
c. provide increased strength to the gold
margin
d. produce a better-defined finish line
17. The chief disadvantage of hydrocolloid
compared to the two rubber base
impression materials is that:
a. requires a stock tray
b. is not as accurate
c. requires a dry field free of blood, saliva, etc.
d. is dimensionally unstable so it must be
poured soon
e. takes longer to “set” (solidify)

13. Proximal grooves on posterior 3/4 crowns 18. The impression material with the longest
should be placed parallel to the: shelf-life:
a. occlusal third of the buccal surface a. reversible hydrocolloid
b. long axis of the tooth b. irreversible hydrocolloid
c. cervical third of the buccal surface c. polyethers
d. middle third of the buccal surface d. polysulfides

14. What is the chief contraindication for using 19. The most widely used impression material
epinephrine impregnated retraction cord? for RPD cases:
a. It is chemically irritating to the tissue, a. Silicone
causing sloughing. b. reversible hydrocolloid
b. It produces systemic reactions affecting the c. irreversible hydrocolloid
cardiovascular system d. polysulfide
c. It produces inadequate retraction of the
tissues 20. For best results when using an elastomeric
d. Its size makes it difficult to use where the impression material, the prepared tooth
gingival sulcus is shallow and the tissues should be:
firm. a. very dry
b. free of surface moisture
15. The resistance to breakage of the solder joint c. covered thinly with water-soluble lubricant
by occlusal forces is mostly determined by d. covered with a surface tension-reducing
a. buccolingual width of the joint agent and air dried
b. fineness of the solder used
c. type of retainer involved 21. The by-product of polymerization of the
d. occlusogingival thickness of the joint silicone that results in high shrinkage of the
e. none of the above material and prevents storage after setting
is:
16. The keyway for a nonrigid connector is a. chlorinated paraffin
usually placed in the b. benzene sulphonate ester
a. most mesial abutment c. alcohol
b. abutment with the porcelain veneered d. all of these
retainer 22. A temporary crown should fulfill the same
c. abutment with the all metal retainer general requirements as the final restoration
d. most distal abutment except for:
e. either abutment can be used a. Aesthetics
b. occlusal contact
c. durability
d. marginal adaptation
e. a and b
23. Porcelain bonded to metal is strongest when 29. Each of the following factors positively
a. air fired influences a patient's ability to clean a fixed
b. under compression partial denture except
c. tempered after firing a. pontic design
d. fired several times before completion b. openness of embrasures
c. occlusion of the prosthesis
24. Metallic substances such as indium and d. adaptation of the retainer to the finish line
cobalt are added to porcelain to
a. add strength to the porcelain 30. How thick must the metal coping be to resist
b. increase the translucency of the porcelain deformation under occlusal pressures?
c. provide a matrix around which the other a. 0.1-0.3 mm
materials b. 0.3-0.5 mm
d. lower the fusion temperature c. 0.5-0.75 mm
e. alter the color or shade d. 0.75-1.1 mm

25. Chroma is the aspect of color that indicates 31. Usually the biggest potential problem in
a. degree of translucence pouring an impression is
b. degree of saturation of the hue a. mixing the stone accurately
c. combined effect of hue and value b. entrapment of air bubbles
d. all of the above c. achieving the proper thickness of the stone
layer
26. A substance used in the casting procedure to d. placement of the die pins
prevent oxidation of the molten metal e. none of the above
a. antiflux
b. solder 32. A rough or chalky cast is a result of
c. nitric acid a. potassium sulfate in the impression
d. flux b. premature removal from the mouth
c. incorrect water powder ratio
27. In esthetics, the value of a denture tooth d. all of these
depends upon the
a. density of the hue 33. The technique for making cast restorations is
b. intensity of the color referred to as the
c. metamerism of the basic color a. lost wax technique
d. relative whiteness or blackness of its colors b. molten gold technique
c. inlay investment technique
28. After fitting the coping and the case was d. G.V. Black technique
returned to the laboratory for the porcelain e. centrifugal casting technique
build-up the margins did not fit the die. The
resultant cause 34. Hygroscopic expansion of the investment
a. overtrimmed die material occurs because of
b. distortion of the casting a. 900 F heat in the oven
c. accidental damage of the margins of the die b. the water present when the investment is
d. overcontoured porcelain on the proximal mixed
areas c. the 100 F water bath which increases the
setting expansion by releasing a gaseous
component
d. the 100 F water bath which allows the
crystallization process to go to completion
35. The pattern should be sprued
a. in an area of bulk
b. in a thin area to assure complete casting of
the area
c. near a margin to assure complete casting of
the margin
d. with a small sprue to minimize obliterating
the anatomy carving
36. Arrange the following steps for clinical trial
insertion and adjustment of a fixed partial
denture.
1. check margins
2. check centric contacts
3. adjust functional contacts
4. adjust proximal contacts and pontic tips
a. 1,2, 3, 4
b. 1, 4, 2, 3
c. 2, 1, 3, 4
d. 4, 1, 2, 3
37. Excellent dental castings are dependent
upon:
a. the points of attachments and the manner of
attachment of the sprue to the cast
b. the configuration of the sprues
c. the size of the sprues
d. all of these
38. The porcelain-fused-to-metal framework
must NOT be contaminated by handling
between which two steps of the overall
porcelain application process?
a. bisque bake and glazing
b. opaque bake and bisque bake
c. heat treatment and opaque bake
d. presoldering and heat treatment
39. Low and medium fusing porcelain are made
by a special process called
a. bisque baking
b. Devitrification
c. Crystallization
d. Fritting
e. Fusion
40. Light cured glass ionomer cement or
restoration is also known as
a. Resin modified glass ionomer
b. Simply glass ionomer
c. Composite
d. Compomer
41. The biggest advantage of polycarboxylate
cement is its
a. good compressive strength
b. lack of irritation to the pulp
c. low film thickness
d. low solubility
e. ease of mixing and using
42. Even correctly mixed zinc phosphate cement
is irritating to the pulp. How can this
irritation be minimized?
a. Place 2 coats of cavity varnish over the
preparations.
b. Add 1 drop of eugenol to the cement after
mixing.
c. Apply eugenol with a cotton pellet to the
preparation.
d. Decrease the liquid: powder ratio of the
cement.
43. Prolonged sensitivity to heat, cold and
pressure after cementation of a crown or a
fixed partial denture is usually related to
a. occlusal trauma
b. improper cementation
c. impingement on the marginal gingiva
d. failure to desensitize abutment teeth
44. An example of use of unreinforced Z0E
cement
a. Cementation of temporary crown
b. Cementation of laminates
c. Cementation of inlays and onlays
d. Cementation of permanent crown
45. The advantage of a wide thin palatal bar as
compared to a narrow bar is that the wide
bar
a. is more stable
b. is easier to polish
c. is less irritating to soft tissue
d. can be adequately rigid with less apparent
bulk
46. The lingual bar interferes with phonetics
involves
a. coverage of the lingual surface of the
anterior teeth
b. placement close to the close to the gingival
margins of the teeth
c. close contact with lingual surfaces of the
anterior teeth
d. placement at lowest level of mucolingual
fold in function
47. When a removable partial denture is
completely seated, the retentive terminals
of retentive clasp arms should be
a. passive and applying no pressure on the
teeth
b. contacting the abutment teeth only in the
suprabulge areas
c. resting lightly on the height of contour
lineon the abutment teeth applying a
definite positive force on the abutment of
the removable partial denture
48. A high survey line that allows placement of
the retentive terminus of a clasp arm on the
gingival one-third of the abutment tooth
indicates that
a. the angle of cervical convergence is small
b. the angle of cervical convergence is large
c. the abutment tooth must be recontoured
d. a bar clasp is the clasp design of choice
49. The horizontal mandibular position recorded
for a maxillary complete denture opposing a
Kennedy Class III, modification 1 removable
partial denture should provide
a. centric occlusion coincident with centric
relation
b. maximum intercuspation anterior to centric
relation
d. a and b
e. a or b
50. Indirect retention is designed to
a. stabilize tooth-borne removable partial
dentures
b. engage an undercut area of an abutment
tooth
c. help resist tissueward movement of an
extension base partial denture
d. help resist dislodgement of an extension
base partial denture in an occlusal direction
51. Tooth-borne removable partial dentures
should normally have the rests located
a. next to edentulous areas
b. away from edentulous areas
c. primarily on molars because they are the
strongest teeth
d. on as few teeth as feasible in order to
preserve many teeth as possible
52. An excellent objective in partial denture
prosthesis is
a. to utilize new materials
b. to keep appliance design as simple as
possible
c. to produce a highly complex design
d. none of these
53. Which of the following maxillary partially
edentulous arches does not generally
require record base and occlusion rims (or
framework) for an accurate facebow record?
a. Kennedy Class I, modification I
b. Kennedy Class III, modification I
c. Kennedy Class II
d. Kennedy Class II, modification 2
54. Which of the following treatment
approaches should be considered for a
severely extruded abutment tooth the loss
of which would create a distal extension
area?
a. Extraction
b. Occlusal recontouring
c. Endodontic therapy and coping placement
d. Cast restoration
55. Which of the following materials will
produce the most rigid restoration for
frameworks of the same dimension?
a. wrought gold
b. palladium alloys
c. cobalt-chromium alloys
d. partial denture casting gold in the hardened
condition
56. Which of the following is likely to occur
under the distal extension maxillary partial
denture of a patient with Paget's disease?
a. The bone will tend to expand and the partial
denture will have to be remade periodically
b. The bone is like "cottonwool" and will be
resorbed rapidly, thus, making frequent
rebasing necessary
c. The bone will become very dense and hard;
thus, soreness of the basal seat is likely to
occur
d. Nothing will occur because maxillary bone is
not usually affected
57. Proper lip support for a patient with
complete dentures is provided primarily by
the
a. convex surface of the labial flange
b. rounded contours of the interdental papillae
c. thickness of the border in the vestibule
d. facial surfaces of teeth and simulated
attached gingiva
58. The following problems are associated with
too much show of the denture base material
EXCEPT:
a. teeth set are too big
b. teeth set too low
c. occlusal plane is too low
d. arch form too full
59. Treatment of choice for a patient with a
maxillary complete denture with severe
bilateral tuberosity undercuts is to
a. remove both tuberosity undercuts
b. reduce the tissue on one side only
c. reduce the tissue bilaterally
d. None of the above. No treatment is
necessary.
60. The cause of anterior denture tooth
movement
a. premature posterior tooth contact
b. ill-fitting bases
c. poor centric relation and occlusion
d. all of these
61. The amount of lingual reduction required on
a posterior tooth that will receive a complete
veneer metal crown is __mm.
a. 1.2 - 1.5
b. 1 - 1.2
c. 0.5 - 0.75
d. 0.75 – 16
62. In a complete maxillary denture, loss of
retention can be the result of a palatal vault
that:
a. is v-shaped and square
b. is square and deep
c. has medium dept
d. is flat and v shaped
63. The relationship of the denture base to bone
that resists dislodgement of the denture in a
horizontal direction is
a. Support
b. Pressure
c. Esthetics
d. Stability
64. After placing a new complete denture, a
patient exhibits cheek-biting opposite the
molars. The teeth were set in a conventional
anatomic relationship. To correct cheek-
biting, the dentist should reduce the
a. central fossae of maxillary molars
b. lingual cusps of maxillary molars
c. facial surfaces of mandibular molars
d. facial surfaces of maxillary molars
65. In a completed monoplane denture
arrangement
a. maxillary anterior teeth may exhibit a small
degree of vertical overlap in relation to the
mandibular anterior teeth when an
orthognathic ridge relationship exists
b. the degree of horizontal overlap of maxillary
posterior teeth to mandibular teeth must be
small regardless of ridge relationship
c. central fossae areas of maxillary molars are
always aligned over the mandibular crest of
ridge line
d. inadequate buccal overlap or maxillary
posterior teeth in relation to mandibular
posterior teeth may result in cheek biting
66. Which of the following combinations of
artificial teeth should not be used in
complete maxillary and mandibular
dentures?
a. Anterior, plastic; posterior, porcelain
b. Anterior, porcelain; posterior, plastic
c. Anterior, plastic; posterior, plastic
d. Anterior, porcelain; posterior, porcelain
67. All of the following are landmarks concerned
with location of the posterior palatal seal
except the
a. fovea palatina
b. hamular notch
c. anterior nasal spine
d. posterior vibrating line
e. aponeurotic palate
68. When the posterior maxillary buccal space is
entirely filled with the denture flange,
interference may occur with the movement
of the
a. masseter muscle
b. coronoid process
c. condyloid process
d. zygomatic process
69. Which of the following masticatory muscles
are the most responsible for positioning and
translating the condyles?
a. temporal muscles
b. masseter muscles
c. lateral pterygoid muscles
d. medial pterygoid muscles
70. The muscle responsible for elevating the
floor of the mouth during swallowing and
whose action may impart characteristic S
appearance to the lingual flange of a
mandibular complete denture is the
a. mylohyoid muscle
b. genioglossus muscle
c. superior constrictor muscle
d. digastric muscle
71. Salivary control is not a significant factor for
final impression procedures using rubber
base or zinc oxide-eugenol because saliva
will be absorbed by these impression
materials.
a. The statement is true and the reason is true.
b. The statement is true but the reason is false.
c. The statement is false but the reason is true.
d. The statement is false and the reason is
False.
72. The final impression materials combination
of choice for immediate complete dentures
is
a. heavy body rubber base and irreversible
hydrocolloid
b. irreversible hydrocolloid and stone
c. plaster of paris and heavy body rubber base
d. zinc oxide-eugenol and irreversible
hydrocolloid
73. At the wax try-in, the maxillary plane
appears to be correct, yet when the patient
closes lightly in centric relation, the
mandibular teeth appear to show too much.
The patient's lips do not contact unless the
patient forces them to do so. The error that
has most likely occurred is
a. inaccurate face-bow transfer
b. excessive amount of free way space
c. excessive vertical dimension of occlusion
d. overclosed vertical dimension of occlusion
74. The posterior occlusal plane is established
on the occlusion rim by paralleling it with
the:
a. ala-tragus line
b. Monson's curve
c. interpupillary line
d. compensating curve
75. Camper's Line is an imaginary line from
a. inferior border of the tragus of the ear to the
inferior border of the nose
b. middle of the tragus of the ear to the inferior
border of nose
c. superior border of the tragus of the ear to
the inferior border of nose
d. none of these
76. A defect in the occlusal plane will result to
a. cheek biting
b. instability of the lower denture in function
c. an increased vertical dimension of occlusion
d. a decrease vertical dimension of occlusion
77. The purpose of face-bow records in
complete denture construction is to:
a. orient the cast to the centric relation record
b. allow for exact determination of the vertical
dimension of occlusion
c. record the relation of the mandible to the
opening and closing axis of the TMJ
d. None of these
78. Protrusive jaw relation records are used to
a. give direction to the occlusal plane
b. set the incisal guides of the articulator
c. set the lateral posts of the articulator
d. set the condylar inclinations of the
articulator
79. The incisal guidance, which is generally
agreed to be the anterior path traveled by
the mandible during functional movement,
is a path that
a. should never be altered during
restorative procedures if a normal
occlusion is to be maintained
b. is influenced by the contacting
surfaces of mandibular and
maxillary anterior teeth
c. cannot be influenced by the
anatomic relationship of the
occluding surfaces of posterior
teeth during mastication
80. In lateral movements, the non-working
condyle moves in what direction?
a. out, back and up
b. up, back and down
c. down, forward and medially
d. down, forward and laterally
81. Translation in a mandibular opening
movement occurs
a. on closing from centric relation
b. on initial opening from eccentric relation
c. in the upper compartment of the
temporomandibular joint
d. in the lower compartment of the
temporomandibular joint
82. Centric relationship is defined as the
a. most retruded position of the mandible
from which opening and lateral
movements can be made comfortably
b. position in which the greatest amount of
intercuspation of the teeth occurs
c. position in which the supporting or
centric cusp strikes the marginal ridge of
the opposing teeth
d. position in which the supporting or
centric cusp strikes the fossa of the
opposing teeth
e. none of the above
83. Centric relation must be accurately
recorded, so that the
a. face-bow record can be accurately
taken as the next step in denture
construction
b. centric occlusion can be developed
in harmony with centric relation
c. vertical dimension of rest can be
determined
d. degree of Bennet angle can be
measured
84. Occlusal rest seats in crowns and inlays
compared to those in enamel are made
a. smaller and deeper
b. larger and shallower
c. larger and deeper
d. smaller and shallower
85. It is generally accepted that a more accurate
method of finally equilibrating complete
dentures is on the articulator rather than
intraorally because the denture supporting
tissues allow a degree of movement of the
denture bases that can mask inconsistencies
in the occlusion.
a. The statement is false but the reason is true.
b. The statement is true and the reason is true.
c. The statement is true but the reason is false.
d. The statement is false and the reason is false.
86. Before relieving an area on the denture base
which appears to be related to an area of
mucosal irritation, the dentist should first
a. be certain that the patient has worn
the denture because the irritation
could be due to trauma from hard
sharp food
b. determine the precise area of the
base to be relieved by using one of
the disclosing materials available
c. examine the occlusion since
occlusal discrepancies may cause
tissue irritation
d. remove the dentures and apply a
topical anesthetic ointment
e. All of the above
87. The amount of lingual reduction required on
an anterior tooth that will receive a porcelain
fused to metal crown is _ mm.
a. 1.2 – 1.5
b. 1 - 1.2
c. 0.5 - 0.75
d. 0.75 – 1
88. Rebasing and relining complete dentures
include
a. restoring the accuracy of denture
base fit to supporting tissues
b. maintaining occlusal relations of
teeth
c. maintaining the vertical dimension
of occlusion
d. recording supporting tissue in a
resting position
e. a and b
f. all of the above
89. When relining is needed for a patient with a
maxillary complete denture opposed by a
removable partial denture, it is best to:
a. reline the mandibular removable
denture first
b. to orient the mandibular denture first
c. reline both dentures simultaneously
d. reline the maxillary denture first
90. Which of the following is a major
disadvantage to immediate complete
denture therapy?
a. trauma to extraction sites
b. increased potential for infection
c. impossibility for an anterior try-in
d. excessive resorption of residual
ridges
91. Which of the following are criteria pertinent
to the fabrication of an acceptable
temporary record base?
a. It must be constructed on the final cast
b. It must be constructed on the preliminary
cast to preserve the accuracy of the final
cast
c. Its construction must include the entire
vestibular fold portion of the cast
d. All surfaces that contact lips, cheeks, and
tongue should be finished.
e. a, c, and d
f. b, c, and d
92. The biologic width when violated can lead to 97. Glass ionomer and compomers cements are
a. Caries formation not recommended for all ceramic
b. Gingivitis restorations because of its __
c. Bone resorption a. Fluoride release
d. Pulpal exposure b. low compressive strength
c. low tensile strength
93. When a patient needs a complete denture, d. excessive hygroscopic expansion
preprosthetic surgery is generally not
indicated when which of the following 98. What type of fixed partial denture has
conditions exist? abutment or abutments at one end only,
a. Pedunculated torus palatinus with the other end of the pontic remaining
b. Papillary hyperplasia unattached?
c. Epulis fissurata a. Cantilever
d. Root tips embedded in mandibular b. Compound
bone c. Simple
e. Torus mandibularis d. Non-cantilever

94. Inflammatory fibrous hyperplasia of the 99. What is the most commonly used self-cured
alveolarmucosa (epulis fissurata) is usually a resin in fabricating treatment restorations
result of denture irritation seen about the which is relatively inexpensive but releases
anterior vestibule. The treatment consists of great exothermic heat during
I. occlusal equilibration polymerization?
II. removal of irritant a. Polymethyl Methacrylate
III. reduction of vertical dimension of b. Vinylpolyethyl Methacrylate
occlusion c. Epimine
IV. surgical removal of epulis fissurata d. Urethane dimethacrylate
V. only the construction of a new denture
a. I and II 100. The outline form of an occlusal rest seat
b. II and III a. Triangular shape
c. II and IV b. Round shape
d. III c. Half spoon shape
d. Box for
95. What type of a partial veneer crown is like a
three quarter crown but rotated ninety
degrees?
a. Reverse three-quarter
b. Laminate
c. Seven-eighths
d. One-half
96. The occlusal rest seat outline on premolars
buccolingually is
a. one fourth the distance between
the buccal and lingual cusp tips
b. half the distance between the
buccal and lingual cusp tips
c. one fifth the distance between the
buccal and lingual cusp tips
d. one third the distance between the
buccal and lingual cusp tips
ANSWER KEY:
1. D 49. A 97. D
2. A 50. D 98. A
3. D 51. A 99. A
4. E 52. B 100. A
5. D 53. B
6. B 54. C
7. D 55. C
8. A 56. A
9. C 57. D
10. A 58. A
11. B 59. B
12. A 60. D
13. B 61. C
14. B 62. D
15. D 63. D
16. A 64. C
17. D 65. D
18. C 66. B
19. C 67. C
20. B 68. B
21. C 69. C
22. C 70. A
23. B 71. D
24. E 72. D
25. B 73. C
26. D 74. A
27. D 75. C
28. D 76. B
29. C 77. C
30. B 78. D
31. B 79. B
32. D 80. C
33. A 81. C
34. D 82. A
35. A 83. B
36. D 84. C
37. D 85. B
38. C 86. C
39. D 87. B
40. A 88. F
41. B 89. A
42. A 90. C
43. A 91. F
44. A 92. C
45. D 93. D
46. D 94. C
47. A 95. D
48. A 96. B