ORAL SURGERY 6.

Select from the following list factors that make

surgical removal of impacted third molars more
difficult. (Choose three.)
1. Which of the following classifications of impacted A. Distoangular positioned third molar
teeth must always involve both bone removal and B. Mesioangular positioned third molar
sectioning during the surgical procedure? C. Narrow periodontal ligament
A. Mesioangular impaction D. Tooth roots are one half to one third formed
B. Horizontal impaction E. Close proximity to inferior alveolar nerve
C. Vertical impaction F. Fused conical roots
D. A and B only
E. A, B, and C 7. For each clinical condition listed, select the most
appropriate biopsy methods from the list provided.
2. Which of the following does not represent a possible (Matching type)
finding of severe infection? 1. Excisional biopsy
A. Trismus 2. Incisional biopsy
B. Drooling 3. Aspiration or fine-needle biopsy
C. Difficult or painful swallowing 4. Hard or tissue or Intraosseous Biopsy
D. Swelling and induration with elevation of A. Soft tissue lesion is 0.5 cm in size
the tongue B. Osteomyelitis of the jaw
E. Temperature of 99°F C. Soft tissue lesion is 4 cm in size
D. Cystic or vascular soft tissue lesions deep to
3. Which of the following is considered the highest and mucosa
most severe classification of maxillary fracture?
A. Le Fort I 8. The major factor determining whether aspiration can
B. Le Fort II be reliably performed is the _____.
C. Le Fort III A. Needle gauge
D. Le Fort IV B. Needle length
C. Injection performed
4. Which of the following is not a relative D. Patient
contraindication for routine elective oral surgery?
A. Unstable cardiac angina 9. A patient who gives a history of heavy alcohol use is
B. History of head and neck radiation at increased risk of prolonged bleeding following
C. Chronic sinusitis surgery because
D. Hemophilia A. Alcoholism affects the liver, which is the site of
coagulation factors
5. Select from the following list correct applications and B. Alcoholism affects the synthesis of vitamin C
indications of antibiotic use in odontogenic C. the alcoholic patient will not follow postoperative
infections. (Choose three.) instructions
A. Antibiotic should cover Staphylococcus aureus and D. sickling traits are frequently found in alcoholics
aerobes
B. β-Lactam antibiotics (e.g., penicillin V) are preferred 10. Patients with heart disease who have some
C. No antibiotic coverage is indicated for patients with limitations placed upon their normal activity are best
high-grade fever managed for surgical procedures by
D. Clindamycin can be used if a patient is allergic to A. compulsory hospitalization and general anesthetic
penicillin B. Indefinite delay of all surgery
E. Broad-spectrum instead of narrow spectrum C. selective surgery performed after consultation with
antibiotic coverage is preferred patient’s physician
F. Bactericidal agents are preferred to bacteriostatic D. the use of local anesthetic without Vasoconstrictors
agents in immunocompromised patients
11. Patients who have rheumatic or congenital valvular
heart disease are given prophylactic antibiotics
before oral surgery to
A. Prevent recurrent rheumatic fever
B. prevent subacute bacterial endocarditis
C. reduce circulating bacteria
D. prevent myocardial infarcts
12. A 65-year old woman suffering from cirrhosis arrived
at your clinic. What can you anticipate during routine
dental therapy?
A. Extreme susceptibility to pain
B. prolonged hemorrhage
C. recurring oral infection
D. increased tendency to syncope
13. A hypoglycemic episode might occur in a patient
taking 20 units of insulin and undergoing an
extraction because the patient
A. Didn’t eat before going to the clinic
B. Ate a full meal but forgot to drink water
C. Went for 30-minute walk an hour before the
procedure
D. Drove to the clinic for 30 minutes
14. Patient received a heavy blow to the right body of the
mandible sustaining a fracture there. You should
suspect a second fracture to be most likely present in
A. Symphysis region
B. Left body of the mandible
C. Left subcondylar region
D. Right subcondylar region
E. Sub-condylar region
15. Signs and symptoms that commonly suggest cardiac
failure in a patient being assessed for oral surgery are
A. Elevated temperature and nausea
B. Palpitations and malaise
C. Ankle edema and dyspnea
D. Erythema and pain
E. Pallor and tremor
16. A persistent oroantral fistula for a 12 weeks period
following the extraction of a maxillary first permanent
molar is best treated by
A. Further review and reassurance since it will most
probably heal spontaneously
B. Antibiotic therapy and nasal decongestants
C. Curettage and dressing of the defect
D. Excision of the fistula and surgical closure
E. Maxillary antral wash out and nasal antrostomy.
17. As far as surgical removal of wisdom teeth is
concerned which of the following is true
A. Prophylactic prescription of antibiotic reduces
dramatically the chances of infection
B. Raising a lingual flap will increases the incidence of
neurapraxia but will reduce the incidence of
neurotmesis with respect to the lingual nerve
C. Prophylactic prescription of dexamethasone will
dramatically reduces post operative swelling
D. Inferior dental nerve injury is unlikely since the nerve
passes medial to the wisdom tooth root
E. The use of vasoconstrictors in local anaesthetics will
increase the chances of infection.
18. It is important to be able to see the operating area
well during surgery. Which of the following does not
contribute to improving visibility?
A. Good lighting
B. Proper flap extension
C. Hemostasis
D. Asepsis
19. During a blow out fracture of the skull, which bone
will likely fracture?
A. Zygomatic arch
B. Temporal bone
C. Floor of the orbit
D. Nasal septum
20. Odontectomy was done on tooth #48 and distal to it
was a 3cm mass that was sent for biopsy. What
solution is needed to submerge it in?
A. 10% formaldehyde
B. 10% acetaldehyde
C. 10% formalin
D. 15% glutaraldehyde
21. How long should one wait before obtaining a biopsy?
A. 4 days
B. 7 days
C. 14 days
D. 30 days
22. All of the following are true statements concerning
suturing technique, EXCEPT:
A. The needle should be perpendicular when it enters
the tissue
B. Sutures must be placed at an equal distance from the
wound margin (2-3mm) and at equal depths
C. Tissues must be closed under tension
D. Sutures must be placed from mobile tissue to thick
tissue
23. For maxillary extractions, the upper jaw of the patient 29. All of the following are cardinal signs of a localized
should be: osteitis (dry socket) EXCEPT ONE.
A. Below the height of the operator’s shoulder A. Throbbing pain
B. Above the height of the operator’s shoulder B. Bilateral lymphadenopathy
C. At the same height of the operator’s shoulder C. Fetid odor
D. It makes no difference where the patient’s upper jaw D. Bad taste
is in relation to the operator’s shoulder E. Poorly healed extraction site

24. All of the following are contraindications to tooth 30. Before removing a palatal torus
extractions, EXCEPT? A. An intraoral photo should be taken
A. Acute pericoronitis B. A mandibular tori, if present, should be removed
B. Acute apical abscess C. A stent should be fabricated
C. End-stage renal disease D. A biopsy should be taken
D. Acute infectious stomatitis
31. For impacted mandibular third molars, place the
25. During the extraction of the maxillary 3rd molar, following in their correct order from the least difficult
yourealize the tuberosity has also been extracted. to the most difficult to remove.
What is the proper treatment in this case? A. Vertical
A. Remove the tuberosity from the tooth and reimplant B. Horizontal
the tuberosity C. Distoangular
B. Smoothen the sharp edges and suture the remaining D. Mesioangular
soft tissue
C. No special treatment necessary 32. The root of which tooth is most often dislodged into
D. None of the above the maxillary sinus during an extraction procedure?
A. Palatal root of the maxillary first premolar
26. The ideal time to remove impacted third molars is: B. Palatal root of the maxillary first molar
A. When the root is fully formed C. Palatal root of the maxillary second molar
B. When the root is approximately 2/3 formed D. Palatal root of the maxillary third molar
C. Makes no difference how much the root is formed
D. When the root is approximately 1/3 formed 33. Regardless of the flap design used, certain principles
should be followed while incising and reflecting the
27. All of the following are normal post-extraction gingiva. With this in mind, the termination of a
procedures, EXCEPT: vertical incision at the gingival crest must be:
A. Digital compression of the alveolus A. Midbuccal of the tooth
B. Suture placement when the gingival papillae have B. At the line angle of the tooth
been excised or there is excessive bleeding C. Midlingual of the tooth
C. Patient is asked to bite down on a pressure dressing D. Beyond the depth of the mucobuccal fold
for 30-60 mins
D. Patient is told that they can return to normal smoking 34. While attempting to remove a grossly decayed
habits immediately following the extractions mandibular molar, the crown fractures. What is the
recommended next step to facilitate the removal of
28. The most commonly impacted teeth are the this tooth?
mandibular third molars, maxillary third molars, and A. Use a larger forcep and luxate the remaining portion
the: of the tooth to the lingual
A. Maxillary canines B. Separate the roots
B. Maxillary lateral incisors C. Irrigate the area and proceed to remove the rest of
C. Mandibular first molars the tooth
D. Mandibular premolars D. Place a sedative filling and reschedule the patient.
35. While extracting a mandibular third molar, you notice 41. A patient presents to your office after a skateboarding
that the distal root tip is missing. Where is it most accident with complaint of an anterior open bite and
likely to be found? deviation of his mandible to the right side. Based on
A. Infratemporal fossa what you know and anatomic distribution of
B. Submandibular space mandibular fractures, you suspect the patient has
C. Mandibular canal a/an ____ fracture on the ____side.
D. Pterygopalatine fossa A. Condylar, left
B. Angle, left
36. If a subcondylar fracture occurs, which of the C. Angle, right
following muscles will displace the condyle both D. Condylar, right
anteriorly and medially?
A. Digastric 42. Whether a bone cyst or other cysts are completely
B. Temporalis enucleated or treated by marsupialization depends
C. Lateral pterygoid on the:
D. Medial pterygoid A. Duration
B. Origin
37. The most frequent complication associated with C. Color
mandibular fracture management is D. Size and location to vital structures
A. Hematoma
B. Wound dehiscence 43. Which of the following is the gold standard for bone
C. Facial or trigeminal nerve injury regenerative grafting materials for several reasons,
D. Infection including the capability to support osteogenesis and
having osteoinductive and osteoconductive
38. Closed reduction is best used in the treatment of properties?
A. Favorable, non-displaced fractures A. Xenogenic bone
B. Displaced and unstable fractures, with associated B. Allogenic bone
midface fractures, and when MMF is contraindicated C. Autogenous bone
C. Either of the above D. Alloplastic bone
D. None of the above
44. The roots of the third, second, and first molars are all
39. The most common pathognomonic sign of a below the level of the mylohyoid. Infection of these
mandibular fracture is: teeth pass through the root, directly into the _______
A. Nasal bleeding and then to the lateral pharyngeal space.
B. Exophthalmos A. Buccal space
C. Malocclusion B. Canine space
D. Numbness in the infraorbital nerve distribution C. Infratemporal space
D. Submaxillary space
40. Which type o LeFort fracture is often referred to as a
transmaxillary fracture? 45. Body temperature can be measured in several
A. Le Fort I different ways, which one is the least accurate?
B. Le Fort II A. Orally
C. Le Fort III B. Axillary
D. Le Fort IV C. Rectally
D. Aurally

46. Why is a conventional handpiece that expels forced

air contraindicated when performing dentoalveolar
surgery?
A. Too much bone will be removed
B. These handpieces can cause tissue emphysema or an
air embolus, which can be fatal
C. These handpieces are not high-powered enough to
remove bone
D. All of the above
47. Incision for drainage (I&D) in an area of acute 53. The Caldwell-Luc procedure is an approach to the
infection should only be performed after: A. Masticator space
A. A culture for antibiotic sensitivity has been performed B. Maxillary sinus
B. Localization of the infection C. Ethmoid sinus
C. A sinus tract is formed D. Mediastinum
D. The patient’s fever has cleared up E. Submandibular space

48. A surgical procedure used to recontour the 54. The principal deterrent to normal wound healing is
supporting bone structures in preparation of a A. Poor nutrition
complete or partial denture is called a/an: B. Torn wound edges
A. Closed reduction C. Infection
B. Operculectomy D. Excessive bleeding
C. Alveoloplasty E. Inadequate suturing
D. Gingivoplasty
55. A 50-year old man has a maxillary second molar that
49. All of the following are systemic contraindications to is the only remaining posterior tooth on that side. It
elective surgery EXCEPT one. Which one is the has served as an abutment, but not it must be
EXCEPTION? extracted. Care must be taken during the extraction
A. Blood dyscrasias (I.e., hemophilia, leukemia) to prevent
B. Controlled diabetes mellitus A. Post operative osteitis
C. Addison disease or any steroid deficiency B. Displacement into the infratemporal fossa
D. Fever of unexplained origin C. Removing the floor of the maxillary sinus with the
E. Any debilitating disease tooth
D. Pushing the palatal root into the nasal cavity
50. Pericoronitis is acute inflammation of the tissue E. The patient from swallowing the tooth
overlying and surrounding a partially erupted or
erupting tooth. The most commonly involved tooth is 56. In the previous question, the best way to proceed
a: would be to
A. Maxillary third molar A. Use a number 88 beaked forceps
B. Maxillary second molar B. Prepare a flap and remove the tooth surgically
C. Mandibular third molar C. Use a suitable forceps and direct a strong, sudden
D. Mandibular second molar force down and out
D. Use a suitable forceps and direct a strong rotary force
51. Exophthalmos is a sign of which of the following to twist the tooth from its socket
endocrine disorders?
A. Hypoparathyroidism 57. Swelling beneath the eye due to an abscessed
B. Hypothyroidism maxillary canine tooth occurs because
C. Hypoadrenalism A. Maxillary bone is very porous
D. Hyperthyroidism B. Venous drainage takes place in that direction
E. Hyperinsulinism C. The root apex of the tooth lies above the attachment
of the levator labii superioris and the caninus muscles.
52. A small (0.4cm) pedunculated, nonpainful firm D. An allergic reaction to the infection is present
growth has been present on the patient’s buccal E. The maxillary antrum is involved
mucosa, along the tooth line, for about 2 months. The
patient occasionally bites it accidentally. This is best 58. Alveoloplasties following extractions should adhere
treated by to which of the following principles?
A. Incisional biopsy A. Conserve bone
B. Total excision and histologic examination of the B. Suture tightly to approximate cut gingiva
specimen C. Use only absorbable sutures
C. Correcting the occlusion to prevent biting D. Use bone wax to build contours
D. Semiannual observation an reassurance E. Reduce tuberosities to sinus floor levels for denture
access.
59. Following the removal of a lower molar tooth, the 63. A 20-year old man has a true prognathous
patient complains of numbness of the lip on the same relationship between his maxilla and his mandible.
side even after 10 days have passed. The dentist Which of the following procedures could be helpful in
should explain that restoring the arch relationship to normal?
A. All lower molar extractions result in temporary A. Le Fort I advancement
numbness and that it will get better B. Sagittal spit osteotomy of the mandible
B. There must have been an infection at the root ends C. Bone graft to the molar eminences advancement of
and that the numbness will disappear when the the mandible
wound is completely healed D. Menton reduction genioplasty
C. Numbness is a sign of a tumor and the patient should
see a specialist 64. Which of the following patients should be admitted to
D. The nerve was traumatized during the extraction and the hospital for necessary extraction of teeth?
will heal in a month or so 1. A patient who is 4 months pregnant and doing well in
E. The patient didn’t follow postoperative instructions her pregnancy
and an infection developed following the extraction 2. A hemophiliac (factor VIII) 18-year old male
3. A hyperthyroid patient (not well controlled)
60. During the extraction of a maxillary molar a snap is 4. A patient with a radiolucent area around the teeth to
heard and the tooth in the forceps shows that the be extracted where bruit is heard
palatal root has not been removed with the rest of the 5. A patient who is 66-years old and has no medical
tooth. Attempts are made to retrieve the root but it problem
disappears. The dentist is certain that it is in the A. 1 & 3
maxillary sinus. In order to retrieve it the dentist must B. 2 & 3
A. Enlarge the alveolus opening with a large bur and C. 3 & 4
rongeurs D. 2, 3, & 4
B. Place 1/4 in gauze strips into the sinus and try to trap E. 1, 2, & 5
the root
C. Close the socket opening with sutures and tell the 65. How would you extract #35?
patient what happened A. Rotational
D. Have the patient close the nostrils and attempt to B. Lingually
blow the root tip out of the socket C. Labially
E. Close the wound and open the maxillary sinus D. Mesio-distally
through the canine fossa
66. The most serious complications which may occur
61. Fractures of the mandible body that have fairly from abscess of max canine is
complete dentition are best treated by A. Cellulitis
A. Intraosseous wiring via external approach B. Cavernous sinus thrombosis
B. Intraosseous wiring via intraoral approach C. Lacrimal duct stenosis
C. Kirschner wire skewering D. Damage to infra orbital nerves
D. Closed reduction via intermaxillary wiring
67. Marsupialization is a technique used in the treatment
62. The most accepted way of treating a patient with of
trismus and an elevated temperature from acute A. Pericoronitis
pericoronitis of an impacted mandibular third molar B. Cysts
is to C. Abscesses
A. Administer a general anesthetic and remove the D. Tumors
tooth
B. Irrigate the tooth socket, administer antibiotics and
palliative treatment until the acute stage has
subsided , and remove the tooth
C. Remove the opposing maxillary third molar
D. Perform an extraoral I&D and place the patient on
antibiotics
68. A patient with long standing rheumatoid arthritis and 74. A mandibular permanent first molar had had to be
a history of steroid therapy, until a week ago, he extracted, this will affect
presents for multiple extractions. The dentist should A. Adjacent teeth
consult the patient’s physician because B. Teeth in the same quadrant
A. Patient is more susceptible to infection C. Both arches the same side
B. Patient may have a suppressed adrenal cortex D. Full mouth
C. Patient will need haematological evaluation
D. None of the above 75. A patient who has lost several teeth in an otherwise
healthy mouth, can get
69. A patient whose hands feel warm and moist is MOST A. TMJ dysfunction
likely to be suffering from? B. Changes in the vertical dimension
A. Anxiety C. Change in the interocclusal dimension
B. Congestive cardiac failure D. All of the above
C. Thyrotoxicosis
D. Rheumatic heart disease 76. Patient presents with fever of 39 C, pain, swelling of
upper lip and nose. Radiograph shows an
70. An adult patient with a history of bacterial enlargement of periodontal ligament space of 11
endocarditis requires prophylactic administration of which has a large restoration without a base. What
antibiotic prior to removal of teeth. indicate the pre- would your treatment be
operative regimen A. Rest and antibiotic
A. Amoxicillin 2 gram an hour before operation orally B. Antibiotic, analgesic followed by root canal treatment
B. Penicillin 250 mg orally six hours before operation after remission of acute phase.
C. Tetracycline 250-500 mg orally 2 hours before C. Complete debridement of root canal, analgesic and
treatment antibiotic
D. Azithromycin 650 mg orally 3 hrs before treatment D. Remove restoration, apply a sedative dressing with
corticosteroids
71. Immediate aim of dry socket treatment is to
A. Avoid osteomyelitis 77. 50 years old man presented after a full mouth
B. Control pain extraction complaining that he “bled all night”. Which
C. Prevent swelling of the following pre-existing conditions could be
D. Remove left debris and bacteria inside the socket responsible for the post operative bleeding
A. Blood pressure reading of 180/110
72. Patient on anticoagulant therapy requires an B. Gastric ulcer
extraction to be performed. Which of the following is C. Elevated prothrombin time
NOT true? D. A & C are correct
A. Post operative bleeding can be reduced somehow by E. None of the above
using tranexamic acid
B. Prothrombin values of at least 2.5 is required to 78. Patient has weak pulse, moist skin and dyspnea. What
perform extraction is the first thing to do
C. It takes at least 8 hours for heparin to take affects A. Maintain airway and place in supine position
D. Heparin should be administered subcutaneous B. Give insulin injection
C. Administer oxygen
73. A 65 year old patient needs extraction of 44; he has D. Inject adrenaline
taken insulin in the morning. What preoperative
advice should you give 79. It is important that dentists know the anatomy and
A. Eat more sugar proper flap designs to minimize tissue handling. This
B. Maintain normal diet principle of oral surgery is called
C. Antibiotic 2 hours before A. Asepsis
D. Medication should be increased preoperatively B. Atraumatic Surgery
C. Control of infection
D. Visibility
80. Your patient suddenly experiences pain on his left 85. Forceps most suited for extracting upper third molars
lower jaw, left arm and back. He then forms a fist with because of the conically shaped fused root trunks of
his right hand and rubs it on his left chest. You patient these teeth
might be experiencing? A. 150
A. Myocardial infarction B. 18 R/L
B. Levine’s sign C. 88 R/L
C. Angina Pectoris D. 240
D. Cardiac arrhythmia E. 215

81. A pregnant woman in her second trimester comes to 86. Type of flap said to give the biggest amount of access
your clinic complaining of a swelling on her gum. A. Envelope
Upon clinical examination, you see that tooth #16 is B. Semilunar
badly broken down and unrestorable. What will be C. Triangular
your course of action? D. Trapezoidal
A. Refer the patient to a hospital-based dental clinic for E. Oshenbien leubke
better management
B. Inform the patient that root canal treatment is no 87. If you are sitting/standing behind a patient, this
longer an option and proceed to extraction position is indicated for extracting which tooth
C. Review the patient’s medical records, and ask for a A. 11
clearance from her OB-GYN if necessary B. 24
D. Assure the patient that swelling will get smaller and C. 31
postpone the extraction after she gives birth D. 45
E. 37
82. Cryers and cross bars act as ________; while straight
elevators work as ________.
A. Wheel & axle; wedge 88. The recommended concentration and type of salt
B. Wedge; wheel & axle used in NSS is
C. Fulcrum; resistance A. 10% NaCl
D. Resistance; fulcrum B. 9% MgCl
C. 1% MgCl
83. Watson’s water hammer pulse is used to describe D. 0.9% NaCl
aortic regurgitation, associated with increased stroke E. None of the above
volume of the left ventricle and decrease peripheral
resistance. This can also be caused by which other 89. The teeth associated with the following pathologies
condition? are indicated for extraction, except:
A. Angina pectoris A. Periapical cyst
B. Thyrotoxicosis B. Chronic Apical Abscess
C. Odontogenic keratocyst C. Periapical granuloma
D. Cherubism D. Reversible pulpitis

84. Extraction principle which may have the biggest 90. This post-op instruction’s purpose is to help minimize
factor in minimizing the chances of fracturing the swelling and at the same time help minimize
tooth discomfort by initiating vasoconstriction
A. Apical pressure A. Cold, soft diet
B. Parallel to the long axis B. Negative pressure
C. Slow bucco-lingual movement C. 30 min pressure pack
D. Use the correct forceps D. Cold compress
E. Grip root surface firmly
91. If you are going to remove #16, and you need to open 96. You’re done with oral prophylaxis, restorations of 5
a 3-corner flap, the ideal extent of the flap should be teeth, and complicated extractions of #37 and #38.
A. Distal of 17 to Mesial of 15 After 3 hours on the chair, the patient cannot close
B. Distal of 18 to Mesial of 16 his mouth and starts to panic. What is your next
C. Distal of 17 to Mesial of 14 course of action?
D. Distal of 16 to Mesial of 15 A. Calm the patient down, let her/him relax, and
massage the jaw muscles gently.
92. Nerve most likely injured in an incorrect flap incision B. Rush the patient to the ER
for an impacted third molar C. Put your thumbs on the occlusal surfaces of the
A. Inferior alveolar posterior teeth, grab the mandible, pull it downward
B. Lingual and forwards.
C. Mental D. Give the patient some sedatives and reassure her/him
D. Incisive that it’ll be okay in a few minutes

93. A condition described as a transient loss of
consciousness resulting from inadequate cerebral
blood flow
A. Anaphylaxis
B. Tachyphylaxis
C. Syncope
D. Apnea
94. A patient prone to acquiring SBE was prescribed
prophylactic antibiotics prior to extracting #41. Does
the patient need to continue therapeutic dose of the
antibiotic for 7 days?
A. Yes, it is important to finish antibiotic regimen to
avoid resistance.
B. No, the patient doesn’t have to take therapeutic dose
of antibiotics
C. Yes, but the patient only needs to take the antibiotics
for 3 days.
D. I will refer the patient to a physician and let the
physician decide.
95. A 76-year old patient with BP 180/90 insists that you
extract his last remaining tooth #16 it is painful. What
do you advise the patient?
A. Refer to a physician for a check up and clearance
because his BP is high
B. It will be easy to remove a lone molar so you can
proceed to extraction
C. Wait for 10 minutes so the patient can rest, then
proceed with extraction
D. Prescribe analgesics and prophylactic antibiotics to
the patient
97. This number may indicate a surgical round bur
A. 704
B. 8
C. 169
D. 35
98. Your patient is a 67-year old with history of hip
operation, allergy to penicillin, myocardial infarction
(7 months ago), a long list of maintenance
medications for hypertension, diabetes, and
anticoagulants. She comes to you for extraction for
three teeth which experience sudden short pain upon
drinking cold beverages. Your next course of action
would be?
A. Refer the patient to a physician for medical clearance
B. Check the teeth clinically and take radiographs
C. Proceed to extracting the teeth
D. Stop the anti-coagulants for 7 days, then schedule
extraction
99. In making a surgical flap, all of the following are
correct, EXCEPT
A. Flap should be done on concavity not on convexity
area
B. The base should be wider than the free end for proper
blood supply
C. Flap should rest on a bone cavity
D. Bleeding is common upon extending the flap into the
mucobuccal fold due to presence of muscles
100. In a patient of liver disease the possible complication
during extraction is ________.
A. bleeding
B. fascial space infection
C. loss of clot
D. dry socket
ANSWER KEY: 54. C
55. C
1. B
56. –
2. E
57. C
3. C
58. A
4. C
59. D
5. B, D, F
60. E
6. A, C, E
61. D
7. A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
62. B
8. A
63. B
9. A
64. –
10. C
65. A
11. B
66. B
12. B
67. B
13. A
68. B
14. C
69. C
15. C
70. A
16. D
71. B
17. –
72. C
18. D
73. B
19. C
74. D
20. A
75. D
21. C
76. C
22. C
77. E
23. C
78. A
24. B
79. –
25. B
80. C
26. B
81. C
27. D
82. A
28. A
83. –
29. B
84. –
30. C
85. –
31. D<B<A<C
86. –
32. B
87. –
33. B
88. D
34. B
89. D
35. B
90. D
36. C
91. A
37. D
92. B
38. A
93. C
39. C
94. B
40. A
95. A
41. D
96. A
42. D
97. B
43. C
98. B
44. D
99. –
45. B
100. A
46. B
47. B
48. C
49. B
50. C
51. D
52. D
53. B