WELLS_OPERATIVE_DENTISTRY

1. Caries activity could well increase 10. The radiographic appearance of a proximal carious lesion is
a. During pregnancy 1. Larger than the actual lesion
b. Following radiation therapy in the head and neck region 2. Smaller than the actual lesion
c. Following a serious emotional problem 3. An accurate reproduction of the size of the
d. Following periodontal therapy lesion
1. A and B only 4. Variable depending upon the exposure time and
2. B and C only development process
3. A, C and D only 11. Proximal caries typically progresses in a pattern characterized
4. AOTA by a double cone or pyramid as it extend through the enamel
2. The location of the teeth in the arch and tooth morphology and into the dentin. The apices of each cone are
affects their caries susceptibility. Those least susceptible to 1. Directed toward the pulp
caries attack in the permanent dentition are 2. Pointing in opposite direction
1. Maxillary cuspids 3. Touching at each other at the DEJ
2. Mandibular incisors 4. Directed towards the enamel surface
3. Mandibular premolar 12. Bite-wing radiograph are a useful diagnostic tool for the
4. Maxillary third molar detection of
3. The principal bacterial agent involved in the caries process is 1. Class I carious lesion
1. Lactobacillus acidophilus 2. Proximal surface caries
2. Streptococcus sanguis 3. Caries on the facial surface
3. Streptococcus salivarius 4. Caries on the lingual surface
4. Streptococcus mutans 5. AOTA
4. Three factors required for the initiation of dental caries are 13. The characteristic shape of smooth surface carious lesion in
1. Polysaccharides, microorganism, and enamel enamel relates to the
2. Enamel lamella, lactobacilli, and polysaccharides 1. Striae of Retzuis
3. Susceptible tooth, susceptible substrate, and 2. Incremental line of Owen
bacterial enzyme system 3. Direction of the enamel rods
4. Bacterial plaque, susceptible tooth, and 4. Mamelons of the tooth
polysaccharides 5. Direction of the Tomes fibers
5. Fluoride affect the tooth structure in the following manner to 14. If, following placement of a metallic restoration, the tooth
make it more resistant to dental caries. remains sensitive to heat, cold and pressure after occlusal
a. Fluoride removes the organic component of the enamel adjustment, the dentist should
matrix 1. Remove the restoration and place a sedative
b. Fluoride ions chemically react with the hydroxyapatite temporary restoration
crystals and replace the hydroxyl ions 2. Initiate endodontic therapy
c. Fluoride ions react chemically with calcium in the enamel 3. Grind the opposite tooth to free it from any
d. When topically applied, the fluoride ion only affects the occlusal contact
outer layer of enamel 4. Tell the patient to put up the discomfort and it
e. Fluoride ions react with the apatite crystals to make it will eventually go away
more resistant to acid 15. A split tooth could well display which of the following
1. A, B, and D characteristics
2. B, D and E a. Not visible radiographically
3. C, D and E b. Sensitive to pressure
4. A, C and D c. Sensitive to temperature change
5. AOTA d. Mild to moderate pain which comes and goes
6. The optimum concentration of fluoride in the community 1. B and C only
drinking water is considered to be 2. A and C only
1. 0.5 PPM 3. B, C and D only
2. 0.75 PPM 4. AOTA
3. 1 PPM 16. A proper treatment sequence would include the following in
4. 2 PPM what order?
5. 4 PPM a. Complete diagnosis and treatment plan
7. Commonly used acid for etching teeth in conjunction with pits b. Control of pain
and fissure sealant is c. Prophylaxis and home care instruction
1. Hydrochloric acid d. Temporization of deep carious lesion
2. Phosphoric acid e. Restorations placed
3. Acetic acid 1. A, B, C, D, and E
4. Sulfuric acid 2. B, D, A, C, and E
8. Bacterial plaque can be most effectively removed from the 3. C, B, A, D and E
proximal surfaces of the teeth by using 4. C, B, D, A and E
1. Dental floss 17. The restorative materials considered suitable for restoration of
2. A toothbrush the distal of a canine involving the contact include
3. An interdental simulator a. Direct filling gold
4. Water pick b. amalgam
5. Periodontal aid c. gold casting
6. AOTA d. composite resin
9. Chronic dental caries differs from acute dental caries in that e. filled acrylic resin using acid etching
a. There is greater pigmentation of the lesion 1. A and B
b. There is greater depth than width to the lesion 2. A, B, and C
c. The unsupported enamel is usually fractured away 3. B and D
d. There is usually minimal sensitivity 4. B, C, and D
1. A and B 5. A, D and E
2. A, B and D 6. AOTA
3. B, C and D 18. Pulpal hyperemia result when some from a trauma causes an
4. A, C and D inflammation. The characteristics of hyperemia include
5. AOTA a. Pain of short duration
b. No radiographic indication of pulp pathology
c. Increased sensitivity to cold temperature
WELLS_OPERATIVE_DENTISTRY
d. Reversibility under usual conditions 27. The rubber dam, in addition to maintain a dryfield, also
1. A, B, and C serves to
2. A, B, and D 1. Retract the cheeks and soft tissue
3. B, C, and D 2. Protect the operator and the assistant
4. AOTA 3. Protect the patient
4. Improve accessibility
19. Approximately 1 month following the placement of a large 5. Save time
MOD amalgam with deep proximal boxes, the patient 6. AOTA
experience definite pain in the region of the tooth. The
probable cause for the pain is 28. If the dental papillae protrude from beneath the rubber
1. Moisture contamination of the amalgam dam, the likely cause is
2. An undetected exposure of the pulp horn 1. Failure to ligate each tooth
3. Supra-occlusion 2. Too heavy gauge rubber dam material
4. Gingival excess 3. Too light gauge rubber dam material
5. An open contact du to faulty matrix application 4. Punching the holes too close together
20. Pain following the placement of the amalgam restoration 5. Punching the holes too far apart
is most frequently related to 29. When applying rubberdam to control the operating field
1. Heat for a class V restoration that is located at the cervical line,
2. Cold the dentist should
3. Occlusal pressure a. Place a ligature around each tooth to force
4. Galvanic shock down the papilla
21. The rational instrument which leaves the roughest surface b. Punch the hole for the involved tooth to the
on cut tooth structure is a lingual of normal alignment
1. Medium grit diamond at low speed c. Use a 212 clamp for gingival retraction
2. Cross cut fissure bur at ultra speed d. Punch the hole for the involved tooth to the
3. Cross cut fissure bur at low speed facial direction of a normal alignment
4. Garnet disc at low speed e. Use a hatch clamp prior to pacing the da to
5. Medium grit diamond at ultra speed retract the tissue
22. The hazards of using air only as a coolant when cutting at 1. A
ultra high speed are that it may 2. B and C
a. Cause dehydration 3. C and D
b. Supercool the tooth 4. B and E
c. Cause postoperative hypersensitivity 5. D and E
d. Result in the odontobasts becoming 30. The most widely utilized current for electro-surgery in
disoriented and drawn into the dentinal dentistry is
tubules 1. Electrodisection
e. Interfere with visibility 2. Fulguration
1. A and B 3. Electrocoagulation
2. B, D, and E 4. Electrosection
3. A, C, and D 31. Retraction cord containing racemic epinephrine has the
4. AOTA potential hazard of
23. The second number on those instrument having a three- 1. Localized vasoconstriction
number formula indicates the 2. A caustic reaction to the tissue it contacts
1. Angle of the cutting edge in degrees centigrade 3. Systemic vasoconstriction action
2. Length of the blade un tenth of millimetres 4. A localized astringent action
3. Length of the blade in millimeters 5. There are no hazard to its use
4. Width of the blade in millimetres 32. The chemical tissue packs used for soft tissue management
24. In order to maintain periodontal health the best position prior to impression taking are classified as
for the cavosurface margin is a. Caustics
a. In the gingival sulcus midway between the b. Astringent
crest of the tissue and the epithelial c. Anticoagulants
attachement d. Vasoconstrictors
b. At the epithelial attachment e. Vasodilators
c. At the free gingival crest 1. A and C
d. Occlusal to the free gingival crest 2. B and D
1. A 3. B and C
2. A or C 4. C and E
3. B or C 5. A and D
4. C or D 33. In positioning an assistant so that the right-handed
25. An endodontically treated maxillary first permanent molar operator is assure of visibility and access to the field of
with a small carious lesion on the mesial and distal would operation, it is generally agreed that the assistant sit at
be restored best by 1. The right rear of the patient and the same height
1. A Mesio-Occluso-Distal cast gold alloy as the operator
2. A Mesio-Occluso-Distal amalgam 2. The left side of the patient and somewhat
3. A Mesio-Occluso-Distal cast gold onlay higher than the operator
4. A full crown 3. The left side of the patient and the same height
5. A ¾ crown as the operator
26. In restoring an endodontically treated maxillary central 4. Any position that is comfortable for the assistant
incsors with an abraded incisal edge and moderate
composite resins on the mesial and distal, the treatment
of choice would be
1. Post-retained porcelain jacket crown
2. A pin ledge gold casting
3. Composite resin usig acid etch
4. Post retained porcelain-metal crown
WELLS_OPERATIVE_DENTISTRY
2. The cavity after the resistance and retention
form has been established
34. The dental assistant must be comfortably seated on a stool 3. The preparation as it related to the surface of
which supports the back and legs and permits the feet to the tooth
1. Hang freely 4. AOTA
2. Rest on the floor 44. That instrument which creates the roughest cut surface on
3. Rest on a platform or ring approximately 8 in. off a tooth is
the floor 1. Cross cut fissure bur at ultra speed
4. Rest on a ring or platform approximately 4 in. 2. Plane fissure bur at ultra speed
off the floor 3. Cross cut fissure bur at low speed
35. An adverse pulpal reaction is more likely to occur when 4. Plane fissure bur at low speed
which of the following materials is placed directly into a 5. Medium sandpaper disk at low speed
deep cavity preparation? 45. That form in class III cavities which helps to ensure the
1. Silver amalgam proper line of force condensation of direct filling gold is
2. Zinc oxide-eugenol 1. Outline form
3. Polycarboxylate cement 2. Retention form
4. Silicate cement 3. Resistance form
5. Zinc phosphate cement 4. Convenience form
6. Calcium hydroxide
36. Following the placement of an amalgam restoration, the 46. The retention form for a class II amalgam preparation is
patient may experience sensitivity as a result of achieved by:
1. Cold 1. A flat gingival wall
2. Sweets 2. A parallel facial and lingual walls
3. Heat 3. Facial and lingual grooves placed at the axial
4. Biting pressure line angle
5. Galvanic shock 4. Walls converging in an occlusal gingival direction
37. Following the placement of a gold onlay in a mandibular 5. AOTA
second bicuspid , the patient experiences hypersensitivity 47. Finish of the enamel margin at the gingival cavorsurface on
under chewing pressure only. This indicates a cavity prepared for amalgam is
1. Chemical irritation caused by the cementing 1. Not indicated because of the poor tensile
medium strength of amalgam
2. Irritation resulting from the high thermal 2. Accomplished by creating a steep cavosurface
conductivity o the gold bevel
3. Hyperemia of the pulp 3. Not required since no stress is placed on the
4. Periodontal ligament involvement restoration in this region
38. When a patient experiences a throbbing pain in a specific 4. Accomplished by removing all unsupported
tooth which is sensitive to pressure and when the pain is enamel rods or prisms
aggravated by heat and relieved by cold, the most likely 48. Stainless steel pins are principally used in conjuction with
diagnosis is amalgam restorations tto enhance the
1. Suppurative pulpitis 1. Retention
2. A radicular cyst 2. Strength
3. A follicular cyst 3. Resistance form
4. Occlusal hyperfunction 4. AOTA
5. Hyperemia 5. Only 1 and 2
39. The reduction of cusp tends to decrease 49. To provide maximum strength in an amalgam restoration,
1. Outline form the cavosurface angles should
2. Resistance form a. Approach at 75° angle with the outer surface
3. Retention form b. Approach at 90° angle with the outer surface
4. Convenience form c. Be supported by sound dentin
5. The width of the occlusal table d. Be located in areas free of occlusal stress
40. The form given to a cavity to resist displacement of the 1. A, C and D
restoration in any direction is 2. A and C
1. Outline form 3. B, C, and D
2. Retention form 4. C and D
3. Resistance form 50. In tipping the cusp for a complex amalgam restoration, the
4. Convenience form cusp should be reduced
41. Those instruments normally used for placing gingival 1. 0.5mm – 1mm
bevels are 2. 1mm – 1.5mm
a. Safe side diamond disks 3. 1.5mm – 2mm
b. Margin trimmers 4. 2mm – 3mm
c. Angle former 5. 3mm – 4 mm
d. Tapered carbide burs 51. When utilizing self-threading, friction-locked pins for the
e. Fine tapered diamond stones retention of amalgam, it is generally agreed that the pin
1. A, B, and C should extend about equally into the dentin and alloy. The
2. A, B, and E recommended depth is about
3. B, C, and D 1. 1mm
4. B, D, and E 2. 2mm
5. AOTA 3. 3mm
42. A line angle that can be found in proximooclussal cavity is 4. 4mm
the 52. Posterior teeth that have been endodontically treated are
1. Mesioaxial line angle better restored by a cast gold onlay because
2. Facioaxial line angle 1. Gold is more aesthetic than amalgam
3. Gingivoaxial line angle 2. Gold renders the tooth more resistant to
4. Facioocclusal line angle recurrent caries
43. The outline form of a cavity implies the shape of 3. Maximum protection is afforded to the tooth
1. The cavity following removal of the caries 4. Gold is less likely to disturb the gutta percha
filled canals than condensation of amalgam
WELLS_OPERATIVE_DENTISTRY
53. The gingival margin and occlusal cavosurface angles are 62. Retention form for composite resin restorations in class III
bevelled for a gold inlay preparation because this preparation is achieved by
a. Protect the enamel at the margins 1. Sharp, well-defined line angles
b. Improve marginal adaptation 2. Parallel walls
c. Helps to evaluate the accuracy of the 3. Rounded undercuts at the incisal and gingival
impression point angles
d. Improves the seal of the cavity 4. Sharp, acute point angles at the incisal,
e. Facilitates finishing labioaxiogingival, and linguoaxiogingival
1. A, B and D
2. A, C, and E 63. In class V preparations to receive composite resin the
3. B, D, and E extension is determined by the
4. B, C, and D 1. Position of the gingival crest
5. AOTA 2. Contour o the tooth
54. Gold inlays have improved retention when 3. Caries susceptibility of the patient
1. There is a large cement film thickness 4. Extent of caries involvement
2. The opposing walls diverge toward the occlusal 5. AOTA
3. There is less surface area involved in the
preparation 64. Preparation for a porcelain-bonded-to-metal restorations
4. The axial length in the cavity preparation is should have a
increased 1. Shoulder all around the tooth
55. To help insure maximum gingival adaptation of a gold inlay 2. Shoulder on the lingual and proximal surfaces
restoration the dentist should and a chamfer on the labial surface
1. Use a soft gold alloy 3. Beveled shoulder on the labial surface and a
2. Employ the direct wax pattern procedure to chamfer on the lingual surface
avoid inaccuracies in the die 4. Feather edge around the entire tooth to
3. Employ the indirect wax pattern facilitate finishing
4. Utilize a gingival reverse bevel 65. When compared to a porcelain jacket crown preparation,
5. Establish a precise gingival cavosurface magin a tooth prepared for a porcelain-bonded-to-metal
56. In the preparation of the proximal cavities the gingival restorations has
extension is influenced by a. More tooth structure removed on the labial
a. The need to create adequate retention for a surface
cast gold restoration b. More tooth structure removed on the lingual
b. The degree of gingival recession surface
c. The position of the contact area c. Less tooth structure removed on the labial
d. The location and extent of caries surface
1. A and D d. Less tooth structure removed on the lingual
2. B and C surface
3. B, C, and D 1. A
4. AOTA 2. B
57. Retention form is created in a class V cavity prepared for 3. C
direct filling gold at 4. D
1. The mesial and distal axial line angles 5. A and D
2. The occlusal and gingival axial line angles 6. B and C
3. The four point angles of the cavity
4. Circumferential around all four walls
58. Retention form for a class III cavity prepared from either
the labial or lingual approach is placed in the
a. Incisal point angle
b. Linguoaxiogingival point angle
c. Labioaxiogingival point angle
1. A and B
2. A and C
3. B and C
4. AOTA
59. Retention form for composite resin restoration is achieved by
1. A chemical bind with the tooth
2. Adhesion to the enamel and dentin
3. Mechanical undercuts
4. AOTA
60. The margins of porcelain inlay are fragile and must be
considered in the design of a class V preparation. This is
accomplished by
1. Preparing the walls with a labial convergence
2. Preparing the walls with a large labial divergence
3. Deepening the axial wall
4. Preparing the cavosurface angles to
approximate 90°
61. The primary factor in developing the outline form for a
composite resin restoration on the proximal surface of an
anterior tooth is
1. The position of the contact
2. The relationship to the adjacent tooth
3. The aesthetics required
4. The extent of caries involvement
5. Extension for prevention
WELLS_OPERATIVE_DENTISTRY
76. When an amalgam is prepared using the minimal mercury
66. A commonly used acid solution for etching enamel in technique and compared with a high-mercury-content
conjunction with composite resin restoration is technique, it is found to
1. 50% phosphoric acid a. Have a high 1-hour strength
2. 50% sulfuric acid b. Set more rapidly
3. 75% phosphoric acid c. Require less pressure during condensation
4. 50% silicophosphoric acid d. Have a greater plasticity and thereby better
5. 75% hydrofluoric acid adaptability to cavity walls
67. Direct filling resins can be activated by e. Eliminate the need for a squeeze cloth
a. Tertiary amines 1. A, B, and C
b. Benzoin methyl ether 2. A, B, and E
c. Benzoyl peroxide 3. B, C, and D
d. Hydroquinone 4. B, C, and E
1. A 5. D
2. A and C 77. The principal reasons for using a wedge in conjunction
3. A and B with matrix preparatory to condensing a class II amalgam
4. B and D are to
5. AOTA a. Retract the gingival tissue
68. Tin is incorporated to an amalgam alloy for the purpose of b. Separate the teeth to ensure the creation of
1. Increase expansion and strength proper contact
2. Reducing expansion and hardness c. Adapt the matrix band firmly against the tooth
3. Increasing strength cervical to gingival margin
4. Acting as a scavenger d. Prevent seepage of fluids into the prepared
69. Most amalgam alloys are compromised of approximately cavity
what percentage of silver 1. A, B, C, and D
1. 50% 2. B, and C
2. 70% 3. A, B, and D
3. 80% 4. B
4. 90% 5. C
70. In melting gold preparatory for casting, the appropriate 78. When carving a wax pattern, the occlusal surface should
zone of the flame to use is be
1. The reducing zone since it is not as hot 1. Left a little high so that the final restoration will
2. The oxidizing zone to remove oxides be certain to have adequate occlusal contact
3. The reducing zone since it prevents oxidation 2. Carved to establish a proper occlusal contact
and is a higher temperature than the oxidizing relationship in centric as well as the excursive
zone movement
4. Either zone may be used since with the current 3. Carved just out of the occlusion to provide for
type of alloys both provide satisfactory result the thickness of cement during the seating of the
71. Hardness and strength are increased in a gold alloy by the restoration
addition of 4. Carved according to the opposing arch relation
a. Zinc when the mandible is in its most retruded
b. Silver position
c. Copper 79. One of the principal advantages of a cast gold restoration
d. Platinum is its
1. A and C 1. Aesthetic qualities
2. B and C 2. Ability to inhibit recurrent caries
3. B and D 3. Pulp protection because of the thermal
4. C and D insulating qualities of the cement medium
5. D 4. Ability to restore anatomic form
72. Direct filling gold can be supplied in a noncohesive 80. Asbestos is utilized to line a casting ring in order to
condition by 1. Help uniformly distribute the heat throughout
1. Alloying the metal with calcium the mold
2. Employing a special sintering process 2. Facilitate venting of the mold
3. Applying surface contaminants 3. Permit expansion of the mold
4. NOTA 4. AOTA
73. Gold foil, mat gold, and powdered gold differ from each 81. The main reason for placing a cavosurface bevel on an
other by the inlay preparation is to
1. Percentage of pure gold present 1. Remove the undermined enamel
2. Degree of cohesiveness 2. Facilitate marginal adaptation
3. Method of fabrication 3. Reduce marginal percolation
4. AOTA 4. Improve the visibility for the operator
5. NOTA 5. Increase the resistance form
82. The amount of force which must be applied in order to
74. Silver amalgam should be condensed within 4min compact direct filling gold adequately is influenced by the
following trituration because 1. Angle of the compacting instrument relative to
1. Excess will be more easily removed the surface of the tooth
2. The final set takes place within 5 min 2. Depth and therefore the bulk of the restoration
3. The studies indicate this is the most efficient 3. Surface area of the condenser point
working time 4. Annealing time
4. Beyond this time the residual mercury 83. During condensation the surface hardness of a direct filling
retention is markedly increased gold
75. A minimal mercury level for amalgam varies with the 1. Increases
brand of alloy used but it falls within the range of 2. Decreases
1. 40%-50% 3. Remains the same
2. 46%-53% 4. Increase or decrease in relation to the amount of
3. 50%-55% force applied
4. 55%-60%
WELLS_OPERATIVE_DENTISTRY
84. Compared to the unfilled resin, composite resin have 5. 1 and 4
1. Greater compressive strength 6. AOTA
2. Less solubility 95. An interim dressing cement is condensed down into the
3. Greater working time pin holes of a pin ledge inlay preparation because failure
4. Smoother finished surface to do this will result in a nonretentive temporary
5. Greater color stability 1. Both statement and reason are correct and
85. Metal instruments are contraindicated for use with related
composite resin because 2. Both the statement and reason are correct but
1. Metal is abraded by the filler and discolors the not related
restoration 3. The statement is correct but the reason is not
2. Monomer reacts with the metal and forms 4. The statement is not correct but the reason is an
corrosive products which affect the final shade accurate statement
3. Polymer reacts with the to affect the shade 5. Neither statement nor reason is correct
4. Metal inhibits the polymerization 96. Which of the following relates to the functionally
86. The best surface finish on a composite resin restoration is generated path for occlusal registration?
created by 1. Centric relation
1. The 12 fluted finish burs 2. Anatomic registration
2. Fine silica grit disk 3. Vertical dimension
3. Lubricated cuttle disk 4. Most retruded mandibular position
4. The matrix band with no additional finish 5. Static registration of dynamic occlusion
87. One should select the shade for a composite resin utilizing 97. Occlusal correction is
a 1. Only considered when patient presents with TMJ
1. Bright light problem
2. Dry shade guide 2. Never essential if only one tooth is affected
3. Dry tooth isolated by rubberdam 3. A terminal treatment performed only after all
4. AOTA restorative work is complete
5. NOTA 4. Preformed as an initial and final procedure
88. When a metal casting is prepared to receive a porcelain
veneer, the interior angles of the area to be veneered
should
1. Have sharply defined undercuts to help retain
the porcelain
2. Have rounded channels to enhance porcelain
retention
3. Not have undercuts but sharply defined angles
for uniform thickness
4. Have rounded interior angles to enhance
adaptation
89. Calcium hydroxide is regarded as a good pulp capping
agent because
1. The pulp responds by forming secondary dentin
2. It creates better cavity seal then other material
3. Its alkaline nature is non-irritating to the pulp
4. It has a sedative effect on the pulp
90. Cavity varnish is desirable under amalgam restoration
because it
1. Eliminates the possibility of galvanic shock
2. Improves the marginal seal of the restoration
3. Completely seal all the dentinal tubules
4. Is an effective thermal insulator
5. AOTA
91. One of the best materials for pulpal sedation is
1. Cavity varnish
2. Zinc-oxide-eugenol
3. Calcium hydroxide
4. Zinc phosphate
5. Polycarboxylate cement
92. A material which is contraindicated as a base under resin
restoration is
1. Carboxylate cement
2. Calcium hydroxide
3. Zinc oxide-eugenol
4. Zinc phosphate
93. The interim restoration of choice for placement between
completion of the cavity preparation and the seating of
the cast MOD inlay restoration is
1. Zinc oxide-eugenol
2. Zinc phosphate
3. Polycarboxylate cement
4. An acrylic onlay cemented with ZOE
94. Interim restoration which will, of necessity, be in the
mouth for longer periods of time must take into
consideration
1. Pulp response
2. Occlusion
3. Contact and contour
4. Patient comfort