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PRE-BOARDS 1 EXAMINATION
TEST 7: ORTHODONTICS & PEDODONTICS
Philippine Dentistry Licensure Examination
NAME: DATE: SCORE: /100
1. An active finger spring of a removable appliance usually 9. A 5 year old child with a massive cellulitis of dental
touches the tooth with a point contact. What is the most origin did not respond to penicillin therapy and a broad
likely type of tooth movement produced in this situation? spectrum tetracycline antibiotic was prescribed. It is
A. Tipping possible that side-effects of tetracycline administration
B. Extrusion will later be seen in which of the following permanent
C. Intrusion teeth?
D. Translation
A. Canines and second molars
2. Prior to direct bonding, ___ is used as an etching agent.
B. Premolars
Prior to placing bands, _____ is used as an etching agent. C. Incisors and first molars
A. Nothing, 35-50% unbuffered phosphoric acid D. Both 1 and 2
B. 35-50% unbuffered phosphoric acid; nothing E. Both 2 and 3
C. Nothing; 10-15% unbuffered phosphoric acid 10. Children in the primary dentition most often present
3. Orthodontic force can be treated mathematically as with _____.
vectors. Forces produce either translation (bodily A. An increased overbite
movement), rotation, or a combination of translation and B. A decreased overbite
rotation, depending upon the relationship of the line of C. An ideal overbite
action of the force to the center of resistance of the tooth. D. A significant open bite
A. The first statement is true; the second statement 11. In placing an alloy in the class II preparation on a
is false primary tooth, much consideration is given to the
B. The first statement is false; the second statement placement of the matrix band and wedging because the
is true contact point is
C. Both statements are true A. Broad and flat
D. Both statements are false B. Narrow and close to the marginal ridge
4. Which of the following may cause extrusion of the C. Closer to the buccal, and the wedge should be
maxillary first molars which can cause an open bite? placed from the lingual
A. Straight-pull headgear D. Closer to the lingual, and the wedge should be
B. Reverse-pull headgear placed from the buccal
C. Cervical-pull headgear 12. An adult patient with a Class II molar relationship and
D. High-pull headgear a cephalometric ANB angle of 2 degrees has which type
5. Which condition is appropriately treated at an early of malocclusion?
age? A. Class II dental malocclusion
A. Deviated midline in the absence of a functional B. Class II skeletal malocclusion
shift C. Class I dental malocclusion
B. Mild crowding of lower permanent incisors D. Class II skeletal malocclusion
C. Two deciduous molars nearly in crossbite 13. What is the chief factor in the formation of the alveolar
D. Posterior crossbite with a functional shift process?
6. The "V" principle of growth is illustrated by the:
A. Eruption of teeth
A. nasal septum B. Normal process of growth
B. mandibular condyle C. Lengthening of the condyle
C. mandibular symphysis D. Overall growth of the bodies of the maxilla and
D. spheno-occipital synchondrosis the mandible
7. Arch length space for the eruption of permanent 14. This is a process of reshaping and resizing as a
mandibular second and third molars is created by: consequence of progressive continuous relocation:
A. apposition of the alveolar process A. Drift
B. apposition at the anterior border of the ramus B. Displacement
C. resorption at the anterior border of the ramus C. Remodeling
D. resorption at the posterior border of the ramus. D. Translation
8. The most stable point in a growing skull from a 15. When do the permanent teeth begin to calcify?
cephalometric standpoint is: A. At birth
A. Sella turcica B. One month
B. Nasion C. Four months
C. Pogonion D. One year
D. Upper central incisor

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16. A 20-month-old female presents with her mother to
your office for her first check-up. Her mother is concerned
because her daughter only has a few erupted teeth. Upon
examining the patient, which teeth should you expect to
find?
A. Primary centrals and laterals only
B. Primary centrals, laterals, canines
C. Primary centrals, laterals, first molars, second
molars
D. Primary centrals, laterals, first molars
E. Primary centrals, laterals, first molars, ca-nines
17. A 5-year-old girl lives in an area with 0.4 ppmF in the
city drinking water. How much supplemental fluoride
should you prescribe for the patient to consume the
optimal amount of fluoride?
A. 0
B. 0.25 mg
C. 0.33 mg
D. 0.5 mg
E. 1.0 mg
18. A child presents to your office after a fall from a tree,
during which his primary maxillary central incisor was
avulsed. The mother has brought the tooth in a cup of
milk and says the fall occurred 2 hours ago. What is the
best treatment for this patient?
A. Replant the tooth, stabilize the tooth for 1 to2
weeks at which time a pulpotomy should be
performed
B. Replant the tooth, stabilize for 1 to 2 weeks, and
then perform a pulpectomy
C. Replant tooth, stabilize for 1 to 2 weeks, and
begin apexification if pulp necrosis is evident
D. Take a radiograph, irrigate socket, do not re-plant
tooth
19. A 6-year-old child presents with a Class I fracture to
a tooth with an immature apex. What is the treatment of
choice for this patient?
A. Restore tooth
B. Place calcium hydroxide to exposed
dentin,restore tooth
C. Perform pulpotomy, then temporarily restore
D. Perform pulpectomy, place stainless steelcrown
E. Extract tooth, place space maintainer
20. A disease process is characterized by painful, bleeding
gingival tissue, punched out erosions covered by gray
pseudomembrane, blunting of interproximal papillae, and
a fetid odor. Treatment usually comprises debridement,
mouth rinses, and antibiotics. This description is
associated with which of the following conditions that may
exist in teenagers?
A. Aggressive periodontitis
B. Acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
C. Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis
D. Severe gingivitis
E. Early childhood caries
21. How much fluoride, in ppm, is conained in commonly
used toothpastes?
A. 1,000 ppm C. 9,000 ppm
B. 5,000 ppm D. 12,300 ppm
22. As compared with permanent teeth, primary teeth
have:
A. Pulp horns further away from the tooth surface
B. Smaller pulp relative to crown size
C. Thicker and shorter roots
D. Increased number of accessory canals in pulpal
floor
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23. The calcification of maxillary and mandibular
permanent first molars occurs at what age?
A. 3 to 4 months
B. Birth
C. 10 to 12 months
D. 1.5 to 2 years
24. The definition of primate space is:
A. The space mesial to the mandibular primary
canines and distal to the maxillary primary
canines
B. The space distal to the mandibular primary
canines and distal to the maxillary primary
canines
C. The space mesial to the maxillary primary canines
and distal to the mandibular primary canines
D. The space mesial to the maxillary primary canines
only
25. A diastema between the maxillary central incisors at
age 8 should be treated by:
A. Leaving it alone
B. Surgical excision of the labial frenum
C. Hawley appliance
D. Taking a radiograph to rule out fibrous frenum
26. All of the following are functional appliances EXCEPT
one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Frankel
B. Bionator
C. Clark’s Twin Block
D. Herbst
E. Quad-Helix
27. All of the following are advantages of the indirect
method of bonding brackets to a tooth over the direct
method EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Reduced chair-side time
B. More precise location of brackets possible in the
laboratory
C. Controlled thickness of the resin between the
tooth and the bracket interface
D. Less techniques sensitive
E. Easier clean-up during bonding and de-bonding
28. A 12-year-old boy was classified as having class II
division 2 malocclusion. What position would you suspect
the patient’s maxillary centrals and laterals are in?
A. Maxillary centrals tipped palatally and inretruded
position; maxillary lateral tipped labially and
mesially
B. Maxillary centrals tipped palatally and inretruded
position; maxillary lateral tipped palatally
C. Maxillary centrals tipped labially and inprotruded
position; maxillary lateral tipped labially and
mesially
D. Maxillary centrals tipped labially and inprotruded
position; maxillary lateral tipped palatally
29. In a pseudo–class III malocclusion, the patient has
the ability to:
A. Bring the mandible back with strain so that the
mandibular incisors touch the maxillary incisors
B. Bring the mandible forward without strainso that
the mandibular incisors touch the
maxillary incisors
C. Bring the mandible forward with strain sothat the
mandibular incisors touch the maxillary incisors
D. Bring the mandible back without strain sothat the
mandibular incisors touch the maxillary incisors
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30. When the lines connecting sella–nasion and gonion–
menton meet, they create an angle that helps to
determine the malocclusion. What type of anterior vertical
dimension and malocclusion correlates with this steep
angle?
A. Long anterior vertical dimension and a deep-bite
malocclusion.
B. Short anterior vertical dimension and an open-
bite malocclusion.
C. Short anterior vertical dimension and a deep-bite
malocclusion.
D. Long anterior vertical dimension and an open bite
malocclusion.
31. The pulp of a permanent first molar of a 7 year
old is exposed while excavating. The pulp is vital, there is
no periapical involvement. The tx of choice is:
A. Pulpotomy
B. Pulp capping
C. Pulpectomy
D. Extraction
32. Sequence and time of eruption of permanent teeth
are largely determined by
A. race
B. genes
C. habits
D. nutrition
33. Dianne, aged 7, has a carious 1o maxillary left first
molar that is causing discomfort. The buccal soft tissue is
inflamed and spongy to palpation. A furcal bone lesion is
evident radiographically. The appropriate tx will be:
A. Pulpotomy
B. Pulpectomy
C. Establish drainage into the pulp chamber and
permit the tooth to remain until exfoliated
D. Tooth removal and placement of space
maintainer appliance
E. Tooth removal
34. The behavior management that increases the
likelihood of a particular behavior to than attempting to
repress it is
A. positive reinforcement
B. both of the choices
C. punishment
D. none of the choices
35. The mother of a 5-year-old patient is concerned
about the child’s thumb-sucking habit. Six months ago,
the patient had 5-mm overjet and a 3-mm anterior open
bite. Today, the patient has 10% overbite and 3.5-mm
overjet. The mother says that the child only sucks his
thumb every night when falling to sleep. Of the following,
which is the best advice?
A. Refer to a speech pathologist.
B. Recommend tongue thrust therapy.
C. Recommend a thumb-sucking appliance.
D. Counsel the parent regarding thumb-sucking, and
recall the patient in 3 months.
36. In the preparation of a primary molar tooth for a
stainless steel crown
A. The mesial and distal contact areas must be
broken
B. The buccal surface must be reduced
C. The occlusal surface must be reduced
D. All angles must be rounded
E. All of the above
37. Orthodontic closure of a midline diastema in a patient
with a heavy maxillary frenum _____.
A. Is accomplished prior to the frenum surgery. B. Is
accomplished after the frenum surgery. C. After
orthodontic closure, frenum surgery is typically not
indicated. D. After frenum surgery, orthodontic closure is
typically not indicated.
38. The possible result of not correcting a simple anterior
crossbite is
1. Loss of maxillary arch length
2. Gingival stripping of mandibular incisors
3. Excessive incisal abrasion of upper and lower incisors
4. Facets on the labial surface of the malposed incisor
A. 1 and 2 C. 3 and 4
B. 2 and 3 D. All of the above
39. The outline form for an occlusal class I cavity
preparation should insure that
1. All unsupported enamel is removed to prevent lateral
spread of caries at the dentinoenamel junction
2. It goes around cusps to conserve tooth structure and
avoid exposing pulp horns
3. Margins are not in stress-bearing areas
4. If a weak enamel wall (2mm) separates two outlines
they are joined together
A. 1,2 and 3 C. 1, 2 and 4
B. 2, 3 and 4 D. All of the above
40. Topical fluoride applications act to reduce the
incidence of dental caries in all of the ff ways EXCEPT by:
A. Having a direct antimicrobial effect on plaque
B. Making the enamel more resistant to acid
demineralization through improving crystallinity
and decreasing solubility
C. Promoting remineralization of surface enamel
inhibiting plaque glycolysis
D. Enhancing the coalescence of sesceptible enamel
pits and fissures
41. Among the etiologic factors in malocclusion in a child
the following is the least likely modified
A. congenital defect C. nutritional deficiency
B. heredity D. abnormal oral
42. Most common cause of sealant failure:
A. Moisture contamination
B. Occlusal trauma
C. Lack of curing time
D. Differences in th ecoefficient of thermal
expansion between tooth and sealant
43. A 4-year old child visited a dentist for the first time
and received propyhlaxis quite well. Left the dentist was
so glad that he gave the child a toy. This kind of gesture
is called
A. classical conditioning C. bribery
B. positive reinforcement D. public
44. The most reasonable restoration for the grossly
broken down anterior primary tooth is
A. Stainless steel crown C. Gold crowns
B. Porcelain crowns D. Resin crowns
45. Which of the following primary teeth are most
severely involved with nursing caries?
A. Canines C. Maxillary incisors
B. Mandibular incisors D. Second molars
46. What should the dentist avoid while treating a young
uncooperative patient?
A. losing one's temper and becoming angry
B. gracefulness
C. all the given choices
D. being unreasonable

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47. They are considered remnants of the epithelial tissue
trapped along the raphe
A. Bohn’s nodules
B. Epstein pearls
C. Dental lamina cyst
D. None of these
E. Both A and C
48. This has been adapted as the best horizontal
orientation that assesses lateral representation of the
skull. Which of the following cephalometric landmarks
make up this plane when a line is drawn to connect them?
A. Sella and nasion
B. Gonion and gnathion
C. Porion and orbitale
D. Spheno-occipital synchondrosis and ante-rior
nasal spine (ANS)
49. A 37-year-old Caucasian man has SNA angle of 88
degrees. What does SNA angle of 88 degrees indicate
regarding the patient’s occlusion?
A. Maxillary retrusion
B. Maxillary protrusion
C. Class I skeletal pattern
D. Mandibular prognathism
E. Mandibular retrognathism
50. Which headgear has an extraoral component that is
supported by chin and forehead and is used in skeletal
class III malocclusions to protract the maxilla?
A. Cervical-pull headgear
B. Straight-pull headgear
C. High-pull headgear
51. Which is a true statement about edgewise brackets?
A. The magnitude of the forces generated in the
faciolingual and occlusogingival direction is
dependent on the bracket slot size.
B. Twin bracket is used to gain more
rotationalcontrol.
C. Single-wing bracket is used to gain
morerotational control.
D. All statements above are true.
52. Why would an orthodontist place a nonrigid archwire
at the beginning of treatment?
A. The appliance may break if a rigid archwireis
placed.
B. The nonrigid archwire is more pliable,which is
needed in the initial stages of treatment of
malocclusions.
C. The rigid archwire may become perma-nently
deformed if placed at the beginning of treatment.
D. All of the above are correct.
53. Which statement is true regarding Invisalign
treatment?
A. Aligners are worn 24 hours a day and taken off
for eating, drinking, and oral hygiene.
B. Change set of new aligners every two weeks.
C. Focus is esthetic and functional alignment
without utilization of complex orthodontic
auxiliary treatments.
D. Treatment is focused on straight forward cases
(20 aligners or less).
E. All of the above are true.
54. Which case would satisfy the Invisalign criteria?
A. More than 2 mm crowding between any two
anterior teeth
B. Class III bilateral molar relationship
C. Patient with moderate to severe periodontal
ldisease
D. A 9-year-old patient
E. Patient must have fully erupted second molars.
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55. What are the determining factors of the load–
deflection rates of wires?
A. Modules of elasticity C. Cross-sectional area
B. Length of wire D. All of the above
56. What type of tooth movement are open-coil springs
used for?
A. Close spaces between teeth C. Intrusion
B. Upright teeth D. Translation
57. Methods employed in orthodontic treatment to align
a crowded dentition include:
A. Extraction of teeth
B. Expansion of arches
C. Distalization of teeth
D. Interproximal reduction of teeth
E. All of the above
58. Which of the following will require the most force to
move tooth #27?
A. Tipping
B. Translation
C. Root uprighting
D. Rotation
E. Extrusion
59. Below are the indications for using bands instead of
brackets, except for:
A. Patient with amelogenesis imperfecta
B. Teeth with long clinical crowns
C. Patient with cuspal interference
D. Teeth that will need both lingual and labial
attachment
60. Which one of the following statements is true about
primate space in the primary dentition?
A. Primate space is located between canine and first
molar in the mandibular arch.
B. Primate space is located between canine and first
molar in the maxillary arch.
C. It should be present in permanent teeth.
D. It should be present in permanent teeth and
deciduous teeth.
61. Which one of the following statements is false about
headgear?
A. Headgear is typically used in skeletal class II.
B. Headgear needs to be worn 10 to 14 hoursper
day to be effective.
C. Treatment length is 6 to 18 months.
D. Headgear can be used in adult patients.
E. All of the above statements are true.
62. The wrist–hand radiograph is used by orthodontists
to predict the time of the pubertal growth spurt and thus
jaw growth. What is examined in the wrist–hand
radiograph?
A. Carpal bones of the wrist
B. Metacarpal bones of the hand
C. Phalanges of the fingers
D. All of the above
63. What is the most common site to find a
supernumerary tooth?
A. Distal to the third molars
B. Between the central incisors
C. Between the central and lateral incisors
D. Inferior border of the mandible
64. Which of the following is not considered a method of
closing a diastema?
A. Posterior bite plate
B. Lingual arch with finger spring
C. Hawley appliance with finger spring
D. Cemented orthodontic bands with inter-tooth
traction
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65. Which of the following is used to maintain the space
of one prematurely missing primary molar?
A. Lingual holding arch
B. Distal shoe
C. Band and loop
D. A and B
E. B and C
66. A pediatric patient has premature loss of tooth #A,
but tooth #B is present, and #3 has not erupted yet. What
is the best space maintainer for this situation
A. Hawley with finger spring
B. Hawley without finger spring
C. Distal shoe
D. Nance appliance
67. When is a Nance appliance indicated?
A. Bilateral loss of primary maxillary molars
B. Bilateral loss of primary mandibular molars
C. Loss of one primary molar
D. To control thumb-sucking behavior
68. What percent of the population is in class I occlusion?
A. Less than 5% C. 50%
B. 25% D. 70%
69. The mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first molar is
between the mandibular first molar and mandibular
second molar. What classification of occlusion is this?
A. Class I C. Class II division 2
B. Class II division 1 D. Class III
70. In class II occlusion, in what relationship is the
maxillary canine to the mandibular teeth?
A. Mesial to the embrasure between mandibu-lar
canine and mandibular first premolar
B. Between the mandibular canine and mandibular
first premolar
C. Distal to the embrasure between the mandibular
canine and mandibular first premolar
D. Lingual to the mandibular canine
71. The left molar is in a class II relationship, whereas the
right molar is in a class I relationship.
A. Class II division 1 subdivision left
B. Class II division 1 subdivision right
C. Class II division 1 subdivision 1
D. Class I division 2 subdivision left
72. A headgear appliance is used for:
A. Anchorage
B. Traction
C. Both anchorage and traction
D. Neither anchorage or traction
73. All of the following are fixed orthodontic appliance
EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Lingual archwires
B. Whip-spring appliances
C. Palate-separating devices
D. Frankel’s appliance
E. Edgewise mechanism
74. All of the following are materials used for archwires
EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Stainless steel
B. Beta titanium
C. Nickel-titanium
D. Vitalium
75. Which appliance is probably the most widely used
today by orthodontists?
A. The beg appliance
B. The edgewise appliance
C. The universal appliance
D. None of the above
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76. Functional appliances have dental and skeletal effect
and can be tissue-borne or tooth-borne. Which of the
following appliances is tissueborne?
A. Bionator
B. Frankel functional appliance
C. Herbst
D. Edgewise appliance
77. A 10-year-old girl has teeth #12, #13, #14, and #15
in crossbite. The orthodontist has placed a palatal
expander as part of her treatment. Which of the following
statements are correct?
A. After activation is complete, the expander
remains in the mouth for at least 3 months.
B. After activation is complete, the expander can be
taken off right away.
C. The expander is activated once a day by the
patient.
D. The expander is never activated by the patient,
only by the physician.
E. The expander is activated 0.5 mm each turn.
78. A 20-year-old man is finishing his comprehensive
orthodontic treatment that involved a rotated tooth #7.
What is the next step of treatment?
A. Perform circumferential supracrestal fibro-tomy
prior to removal of orthodontic appliances.
B. Perform circumferential supracrestal fibro-tomy
after removal of orthodontic appliances.
C. Perform circumferential subcrestal fibro-tomy
prior to removal of orthodontic appliances.
D. Perform circumferential subcrestal fibro-tomy
after removal of orthodontic appliances.
E. Circumferential fibrotomy should not be
performed.
79. What site is responsible for mandibular vertical growth
and how will this site affect the facial height during
puberty?
A. Coronoid process, increase in posterior facial
height
B. Coronoid process, no change in posterior facial
height
C. Body of mandible, no change in posterior facial
height
D. Condylar cartilage, increase in posterior facial
height
E. Condylar cartilage, no change in posterior facial
height
80. Which process does mandibular growth follow?
A. Reposition occurring at the posterior sur-face of
the ramus and apposition of bone occurring along
the posterior surface of the ramus as well
B. Reposition occurring at the anterior surfaceof the
ramus and apposition of bone occurring along the
anterior surface of the ramus as well
C. Reposition occurring at the posterior sur-face of
the ramus and apposition of bone occurring along
the anterior surface of the ramus
D. Reposition occurring at the anterior surfaceof the
ramus and apposition of bone occurring along the
posterior surface of the ramus
81. What is the most common cause of an anterior
crossbite of maxillary teeth in young children?
A. Oral habits
B. Trauma to the incisors
C. Jaw size discrepancies
D. Prolonged retention of primary teeth
E. All of the above
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82. In orthodontic therapy, adult patients in comparison 90. Following premature loss of the second primary molar,
with adolescent patients: an unerupted first permanent molar will migrate and
A. Need less periodontal maintenance during cause space loss in
comprehensive orthodontic treatment A. The mandible or the maxilla
B. Are more compliant B. The maxilla only
C. Are less concerned with esthetic C. The mandible only
D. Are more prone to decalcification stains on D. Neither the mandible nor the maxilla
enamel 91. All of the following are types of tooth movement
83. A 7-year-old boy was previously diagnosed with EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
marked “bowing of the femurs” and decreased A. Tipping D. Torque
radiographic bone opacity. What disease does this patient B. Pulling E. Rotation
have? What would you notice upon the examination of C. Extrusion
this patient’s oral cavity and intraoral radiographs? 92. The dovetail on a modified class III cavity preparation
I. Hyperthyroidism in the primary dentition should be accentual toward the
II. Rickets A. Gingival
III. Scurvy B. Incisal
C. Midline
IV. Missing or delayed tooth eruption
D. Crest of the contour of the tooth
V. Premature exfoliation of primary teeth VI. Normal 93. Once bone is formed, it grows by:
eruption pattern A. Interstitial growth only
A. III and VI D. I and V B. Appositional growth only
B. III and V E. II and IV C. Both appositional and interstitial growth
C. I and VI D. Degenerative changes into bony structures
84. All these conditions are associated with 94. By what mechanism does the mandibular condyle
supernumerary teeth except: grow?
A. Gardner syndrome A. Subperiosteal surface addition
B. Down syndrome B. Endosteal bone growth
C. Ectodermal dysplasia C. Appositional growth
D. Cleidocranial dysplasia D. Endochondral bone formation
E. Sturge–Weber syndrome 95. What are some of the potential negative tissue
85. What is the most efficient way to move teeth, responses to heavy forces?
reinforce anchorage, and avoid friction in the appliance A. Root resorption C. Discomfort
system? B. Excessive tooth mobility D. All of the above
A. Apply gentle constant force. 96. An example of simple anchorage is
B. Incorporate springs into archwire. A. Diastema closure by elastic traction tipping the
C. Incorporate interarch elastic. crown together
D. Bond magnets to individual teeth. B. Extraoral force
E. All of the above C. Diastema closure by bodily movement of incisors
86. What is the condition that may complicate molar D. Intraarch elastics
uprighting? 97. Serious and difficult open bite cases are often
A. Open bite characterized by which of the following cephalometric
B. Presence of periodontal disease findings?
C. Extruded maxillary and mandibular molars A. Shortened face height
D. Molar having short roots B. Parallel relationship of anterior cranial base,
87. Which of the following malocclusions is the easiest to palatal, occlusal and mandibular planes
maintain after orthodontic treatment? C. Palatal plane tipped upward in the anterior in
A. Expansion conjunction with a steep mandibular plane
B. Rotation D. Class II skeletal and dental pattern
C. Anterior crossbite 98. Which of the following cannot be assessed with
D. Generalized spacing cephalometric radiographs
E. Generalized crowding
A. Mandibular retrusion
88. What single morphologic characteristic of the B. Mandibular lateral asymmetry
permanent first molar necessitates early restorative C. Vertical facial disproportion
procedures in most children? D. Incisor position and angulation
A. Mesial proximal contact E. Adequacy of dental arch perimeter
B. Deep grooves and fissures 99. Bones of the cranial base include which of the
C. Large pulp chamber following?
D. Early beginning of calcification A. Maxilla, mandible, and cranial vault
E. Presence of an auxiliary cusp B. Ethmoid, sphenoid, and occipital
89. The cranial vault is made up of a number of flat bones C. Palatal, nasal, and zygoma
that are formed by ___, ____ cartilaginous precursors. D. Frontal and parietal
A. Endochondral bone formation; with 100. According to Scammon’s growth curves, which of the
B. Intramembranous bone formation; without following tissues has a growth increase that can be used
C. Both endochondral and intramembranous bone to help predict timing of the adolescent growth spurt?
formation; with A. Neural tissues
D. Both endochondral and intramembranous bone B. Lymphoid tissues
formation; without C. Reproductive tissues

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