Paradise Weekly Model Test Cee Mds Based Model Test: (Saturday, Kartik 19, 2079)

PARADISE WEEKLY MODEL TEST – CEE MDS BASED QAE Kartik 19
PARADISE WEEKLY MODEL TEST

CEE MDS BASED MODEL TEST
(Saturday, Kartik 19, 2079)
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QUESTIONS & ANSWERS EXPLANATIONS
1. Perfect occlusion of the teeth is present NATURALLY in:

A. less than five percent of the population.
B. about 25 percent of the population.
C. about 50 percent of the population.
D. nearly 100 percent of the population.
Answer: a. less than five percent of the population
2. How much force is usually used to move a tooth with an orthodontic appliance?
A. extremely light force, less than 1 gram
B. b moderate force, in the range of 50 to 150 grams
C. very heavy force, greater than 500 grams
D. whatever the patient can tolerate
Ans B. moderate force, in the range of 50 to 150grams
3. When is the best time for an individual to receive orthodontic treatment?

A. in the primary dentition
B. in the mixed dentition
C. in the permanent dentition
D. d whenever the situation calls lor it
Answer d. whenever the situation calls for it
4. A properly-taken lower impression for orthodontic study casts includes all of the teeth in the arch, plus the
retromolar pad. A properly-taken lower impression for orthodontic study casts registers all of the alveolar
process to the deepest part of the vestibule.
A. The first statement is true, the second is false.
B. The first statement is false, the second is true.
C. Both statements are true.
D. Both statements are false
Answer:A both true T, T
Paradise Institute & Self Study Centre Page 1

5. What Angle is the relation of mandibular first molar to the upper first molar in Angles III malocclusion of the
lower?
A. distal
B. lateral
C. mesial
D. normal
Answer:C Mesial
6. Malocclusion can be caused by both hereditary and environmental factors. Which of the following is
environmental?
A. Crowding
B. dental agenesis
C. posterior crossbite
D. Thumb sucking
Answer D - thumb sucking
7. Which is the most common type of malocclusion in children and youth?

A. Antero posterior problems
B. Crowding/malalignment problems
C. Transverse problems
D. Vertical problems
Answer. Crowding/malalignment problems
8. How does the occlusion reflect a transverse maxillary deficiency?

A. Crossbite
B. Overbite
C. Openbite
D. Overjet
Ans A. Crossbite
9. Which of the following cephalometric landmarks is located at the suture between two bones?
A. Gonion
B. Nasion
C. Porion
D. Sella
Answer. Nasion
10. Which of the following must be constant in the cephalometric apparatus?

A. Film size
B. Film speed
C. Floor-to-subject distance
D. Source-to-midsagittal plane distance
Answer:D Source-to-midsagittal plane distance
11. Which of the following should be used to position the head for a cephalometric radiograph?
A. Anterior cranial base parallel to the floor
B. Ear rods inserted into both external ear openings
C. Mandibular plane parallel to the floor
D. Natural head position
Answer: Natural head position

12. What is the purpose of the soft tissue shield when taking a cephalometric radiograph?
A. To correct for improper magnification of soft tissues
B. To ensure proper visualization of the soft tissues on the radiograph
C. To protect the soft tissue from excess radiation
D. To standardize head position in a series of radiographs
Answer. To ensure proper visualization of the soft tissues on the radiograph
13. Orthodontic problems cannot be properly diagnosed and treated without first obtaining documentation. An
essential piece of documentation for every patient is the postero-anterior (PA ) cephalometric radiograph.
A. The first statement is true, the second is false.
B. The first statement is false, the second is true.
C. Both statements are true.
D. Both statements are false.
Answer A: T, F
14. Which of the following is used to establish a patient's growth status?

A. A hand-wrist radiograph
B. Dental history
C. Facial photographs
D. Study models
Answer A: A hand-wrist radiograph
15. The facial angle measures the position of which of the following?
A. Forehead
B. Mandible
C. Maxilla
D. Nose
Answer B: Mandible (parameters are FH plane and N pog)
16. Patients with acute herpetic gingivostomatitis are instructed to avoid eating all except
A. arginine-rich foods
B. chocolate
C. amino acid lysine
D. nuts
Ans: c. amino acid lysine

Explanation: The remedies for herpes simplex infection include the amino acid lysine. The oral therapy is based on
lysine’s antagonistic effect on another amino acid, arginine. Patients are instructed to avoid eating arginine-rich
foods, such as chocolate and nuts.
Source: Mc Donald 11th edition, page- 295
17. According to Kraus and Jordan, the first macroscopic indication of morphologic development occurs at
approximately at
A. 11 weeks in utero
B. 13 and 14 weeks in utero
C. 14 and 16 weeks in utero
D. 17 weeks in utero
Ans: a. 11 weeks in utero (memorized past ques)
Source: Mc Donald 11th edition, page- 91

18. Pulp canal obliteration (PCO) occurs more frequently in teeth with open apices which have suffered
A. Subluxated
B. Crown fractured
C. Luxation injury
D. None
Ans: c. Luxation injury
Explanation: Pulp canal obliteration (PCO) occurs more frequently in teeth with open apices which have suffered a
severe luxation injury. It usually indicates the presence of viable tissue within the root canal. Extrusion, intrusion, and
lateral luxation injuries have high rates of PCO.39,40 Subluxated and crownfractured teeth also may exhibit PCO,
although with lower frequency.41 Additionally, PCO is a common occurrence following root fractures.
19. Tetracycline or doxycycline are generally not recommended for patients under
A. 10 years of age
B. 12 years of age
C. 14 years of age
D. 15 years of age
Ans: b. 12 years of age
Explanation: Tetracyclines are contraindicated in children aged under 12 years, as they are associated with impaired bone
growth and permanent discoloration of teeth and enamel hypoplasia. This is because tetracyclines bind to calcium
molecules and are deposited in calcifying areas in bone, nails and teeth
20. The radiographs used for Four film survey

A. Two primary molar-premolar periapical radiographs, two canine periapical radiographs
B. Right and left maxillary posterior occlusal, right and left mandibular posterior periapicals
C. Four permanent molar radiographs
D. Maxillary and mandibular anterior occlusal and two posterior bitewing radiographs
Ans: d. Maxillary and mandibular anterior occlusal and two posterior bitewing radiographs
Explanation:
21. MTAD is a mixture of

A. Doxycycline, citric acid, and a detergent
B. Sodium hypochlorite, doxycycline, citric acid, and a detergent
C. Chlorhexidine, doxycycline, citric acid, and a detergent
D. Sodium hypochlorite, saline, and a detergent
Ans: a.Doxycycline, citric acid, and a detergent

Explanation: MTAD is a mixture of doxycycline, citric acid, and a detergent (Tween 80). The numerous properties of
MTAD are antimicrobial activity, smear layer- and pulp-dissolving capability, effect on dentin and adhesion, and
biocompatibility.
Source: MTAD in endodontics: An update review,
https://www.researchgate.net/publication/51101856_MTAD_in_endodontics_An_update_review

22. Which is no longer recommended for antibiotic prophylaxis for a

dental procedure?
A. Amoxicillin
B. Cephalexin
C. Clindamycin
D. Cefazolin
Ans: c. Clindamycin
Explanation:
23. Dental procedures not requiring antibiotic prophylaxis except

A. Shedding of primary teeth
B. Taking dental radiographs
C. Placement of removable prosthodontic
D. Procedures that involve manipulation of gingival tissue
Ans: d. Procedures that involve manipulation of gingival tissue

Explanation:
24. When holes punched too close in rubber dam

A. holes pull away from teeth causing leakage
B. dam bunches up between teeth
C. dam covers patient’s eyes or nose
D. dam does not extend over upper lip
Ans: a. holes pull away from teeth causing leakage
Explanation:
➢ Holes punched too close- holes pull away from teeth causing leakage
➢ Holes punched too far- dam bunches up between teeth
➢ Holes too low on the dam- dam covers patient’s eyes or nose
➢ Holes too high on the dam- dam does not extend over upper lip

25. The method of isolation is/are

A. Rubber dam
B. Dri -angle
C. Wafers
D. All of the above
Ans: d. All of the above
26. According to the Mount & Hume (1998)classification, when caries is present in cervical third of teeth, it is
A. Site 1
B. Site 2
C. Site 3
D. All of the above
Answer: c. Site 3
Explanation:
27. Early childhood caries is also called

A. Nursing Bottle Caries
B. Soother Caries
C. Circular Caries
D. All of the above
Ans: d. All of the above
28. A child of age 3 yrs came with multiple dental caries and restorations due to caries. The diagnosis will be
severe early childhood caries when the total caries, missing due to caries or filling is
A. ≥4
B. ≥5
C. ≥6
D. All of the above
Ans: a. ≥4
Explanation:
➢ ≥4 (age 3)
➢ ≥5 (age 4)
➢ ≥6 (age 5)
29. During the process of dental caries, the greatest amount of demineralization occurs ---------beneath the enamel
surface
A. 5 to 10 μm
B. 10 to 15 μm
C. 15 to 20 μm
D. 20 to 25 μm
Ans: b. 10 to 15 μm
Explanation:

Because the outer surface of enamel is far more resistant to demineralization by acid than is the deeper
portion of enamel, the greatest amount of demineralization occurs 10 to 15 μm beneath the enamel surface
30. According to the international caries detection and assessment system (ICDAS), code for ‘Distinct visual
change in enamel visible when wet, lesion must be visible when dry’ is
A. Code 0
B. Code 1
C. Code 2
D. Code 3
Ans: c. Code 2
31. Which one of the following drugs is approved by FDA for treatment of COVID-19?
A. Remdesivir
B. Chloroquine
C. Azithromycin
D. Amoxicillin
(Key-A)
32. The highest number of enamel rods (12 million) is found in:
A. Lower laterals
B. Upper laterals
C. Upper first molars
D. Lower first molars
(key- c)
33. Identify the systemic factor in the etiologic chart of periodontal disease:
A. Food impaction
B. Faulty nutrition
C. Bruxism
D. Improper tooth brushing
(key-b)
34. Which of these cancer are least likely to be an occupational hazard?

A. Skin
B. Breast
C. Lung
D. Bladder
(Key-b)
35. An index measuring the conditions of the past and present are:
A. Composite
B. Cumulative
C. Simplified
D. Simple
(key-b)
36. The process of matching patients with a particular disease to their controls is:
A. Meta analysis
B. RCT
C. Longitudinal cohort study
D. Case control study
(key- d)

37. The approach employed to assist people in identifying their own concerns and priorities and developing skills
to address their problems is termed as:
A. Preventive approach
B. Behaviour change
C. Educational approach
D. Empowerment
(key- d)
38. According to Guyatt, if the lower boundary of the confidence interval is above the threshold considered for
clinical significance, then the trial is:
A. Positive and definitive
B. Negative and definitive
C. Deemed positive
D. More trials are needed with larger sample size
(key- a)
39. Which stage of Erikson’s theory is equated to oral stage of Freud’s theory?
A. Trust vs mistrust
B. Autonomy vs shame
C. Initiative vs guilt
D. Identity vs Role confusion
(Key- a)
40. The motto of capitalism is:

A. All for each
B. All for all
C. Each for all
D. None for all
(key-a)
41. The process by which an individual gradually acquires culture and becomes a member of a social group is
called
A. Acculturation
B. Socialization
C. Family
D. Custom
(key-b)
42. A gene which manifests in both heterozygous and homozygous state is a:

A. Dominant gene
B. Recessive gene
C. Polygene
D. Multiple gene
(key-a)
43. Genes whose combined action affectsone particular character are known as
A. Polygene
B. Uni-gene
C. Dominant gene
D. Recessive gene
(key-a)

44. Which of the following is not a predisposing factor to mutation?

A. Maternal age
B. Ultraviolet rays
C. Virus
D. Bacteria
(Key-d)
45. The history of present illness evaluates:

A. The mode of onset of symptoms
B. The progress of the disease
C. Cause of onset of disease
D. All the above
(key-d)
46. A complete denture came back after 1 day of delivery complaining of clicking of denture during speaking.
This is due to
A. Increased vertical dimension of occlusion
B. Increased interocclusal space
C. Decreased vertical dimension of occlusion
D. Using acrylic teeth against porcelain teeth
Ans A
47. In a complete denture patient a semi-adjustable articulator was used. For obtaining lateral condylar guidance
angle what formula the dentist should apply?
A. L = 12 + D/H
B. L = H/8 + 12
C. L = H + 8/12
D. L = H + D/12
Ans B
48. A medical-supply company shipped a semi-adjustable articulator to you. How could you make sure that this
articulator is an Arcon one?
A. The condylar heads are placed on the upper member of the articulator
B. The condylar heads are placed on the lower member of thearticulator
C. The condylar elements are non-movable
D. The inclination of condylar path is in a curved plane
Ans B
49. While preparing heavily restored mandibular right first molar, you find that the clinical crown height is less
than 4 mm. As the patient has to travel back to his country in couple of days he did not have time for any
crown lengthening procedure. So, as a prosthodontist, how can you
obtain extra retention in this abutment tooth?
A. Dovetail
B. Slots, pins and grooves
C. Outline form
D. Decreasing tooth reduction
Ans : B

50. During diagnosis and treatment planning for a FPD Ante’s law should be respected. In your opinion, If you
want to apply this law while planning for fixed partial denture restoration it will provide an aid for
A. Selection of pontic
B. Selection of connector
C. Selection of retainer
D. Selection of abutments
Ans D
51. The mechanical principle of tooth preparation plays a major role in overall success of the fixed partial
denture prosthesis. You can obtain extra retention by different methods while preparing the tooth. Grooves
are one of the features for enhancing retention. When you prepare grooves in vertical walls of bulk tooth
structure it must be
A. At least 1.0 mm
B. At least 2.0 mm
C. At least 1.5 mm
D. At least 1.2 mm
Ans A
52. A 45 years old patient came to your clinic asking for a restoration for his teeth. After clinical and
radiographic examination, you found that the maxillary right first molar is endodontically treated with large
restoration. You planned to make complete metal cast crown for this
patient. What is the best choice for the finish line in this case?
A. Chamfer
B. Chamfer with bevel
C. Feather edge
D. Shoulder
Ans A
53. In your fixed prosthodontic pre-clinical lab session, you were asked to do metal ceramic preparation for
mandibular second molar. As per your knowledge, how much amount of occlusal reduction is required for
functional cusp in metal-ceramic crown restoration?
A. 1.0 – 2.5 mm
B. 2.0 – 2.25 mm
C. 1.5 – 2.0 mm
D. 2.25 – 3 mm
Ans C
54. The technician applies a layer of die spacer on the die to create a space for the luting agent, the ideal
dimension for this luting agent space is
A. 0 – 20 microns
B.20 – 40 microns
C. 40 – 80 microns
D. 80 – 100 microns
Ans B

55. A patient came for post and core restoration on upper central incisor in which root canal treatment has been
done, upon examination of the tooth before starting the treatment, the tooth was painful on percussion, the
ideal treatment is
A. To proceed with post and core restoration
B. To give patient antibiotic and analgesics and proceed the post and core restoration
C. To proceed post and core but don’t make full crown until the tooth get relieve
D. Don’t make post and core
Ans D
56. Many clinical situations such as distal extension partially edentulous conditions, require making functional
impression of the arch, In a functional impression for RPD
A. Teeth are recorded in anatomical form and ridge in functional form
B. Teeth are recorded in functional form and ridge in anatomical form
C. Teeth and ridge are recorded both in anatomical and functional form
D. None of above
Ans A
57. A patient reported to the clinic after 3 months of implant surgery with firmly attached implant at the site of
placement. This phenomena by which the bone adapts to the implant is known as
A. Osteofixation
B. Osseoadaptation
C. Ossification
D. Osseointegration
Ans D
58. The most advantageous aspect of implant supported FPD over a conventional FPD is that
A. It is cheaper than conventional FPD
B. It precludes no damage to the abutment teeth
C. Requires no maintenance
D. It provides superior strength with good hygiene
Ans B
59. One of the most important factors in treatment planning for implant therapy is the quantity and quality of
bone available. The most effective way to determine bone dimensions and density for treatment planning in
implant treatment is
A. Cone beam tomography
B. Clinical bone mapping
C. Radiograph
D. Bimanual palpation of the ridge
Ans A
60. A young adult patient consulted you about advantages of a resin retained FPD over an Implant to restore his
missing lateral incisor. The following are the advantages of the resin retained bridge except
A. Minimal or no preparation required
B. Good aesthetics if ideal spacing exists
C. Less expensive than conventional bridges and implants
D. More durable than conventional bridge or implants
Ans D

61. Patient attitudes toward implant treatment are often vague due to lack of knowledge about the advantages of
overdentures. Studies have shown that patient satisfaction after therapy is significantly higher in patients who
receive mandibular overdentures versus conventional
dentures. The main reason for the increased satisfaction is improved
A. Oral function
B. Aesthetics
C. Adaptation of the denture to the edentulous ridge
D. Proprioception
Ans D
62. Using proper terminology is essential for communicating with the patient as well as the lab technician, what
would you call the component of the implant assembly on which the prosthetic tooth is fixed?
A. Retainer
B. Denture
C. Abutment
D. Connector
Ans C
63. A patient by name Abdulla came to college of Dentistry clinic for replacement of his missing teeth. On
thorough intraoral examination, treatment plan include a distal extension partial denture. Which of the
following is considered the least favorable choice of retainer in a
distal extension removable partial denture design?
A. I bar
B. Embrassure clasp
C. Aker’s clasp
D. Wrought wire clasp
Ans B
64. A patient came for replacement of missing teeth. What is the minimal acceptable crown/prosthesis-to- root
ratio for planning a fixed partial denture?
A. 1:2
B. 1:3
C. 1:1
D. 1:4
Ans D
65. If a patient comes to dental clinic, which of the following is the most important reason for treatment of
hyperplastic tissue before construction of a complete or removable partial denture?
A. To feel the patient better
B. To make the face-bow transfer easier
C. To make the final impression material flow better
D. To provide firm, stable base for the denture
Ans D
66. The origin of dental pain is interpreted by which part of brain?

A. Mesencephalic nucleus
B. Thalamic nucleus
C. Pons
D. Subthalamic nucleus
Ans: A
Explanation: There are no proprioceptors in pulp hence it is difficult to localize the pulpal pain but once the periapical
area is involved then due to the presence of receptors the pain is easy to localize.

67. When dispensing paste/paste dental materials, equal ……. are usually the proper method for proportioning
the two pastes.
A. Weights
B. Volumes
C. Lengths
D. Loads
Ans: C
Explanation: The tubes of paste/paste materials have openings sized to dispense the proper ratio of pastes when equal
lengths are utilized.
68. Which of the following dental cements is significantly accelerated by humidity?

A. Calcium hydroxide
B. ZOE
C. Both
D. Neither
Ans: C
Explanation: Both calcium hydroxide and ZOE are significantly accelerated by humidity as water increases ionization of
the components and thus setting.
69. An operator is polishing an amalgam and inadvertently overheats it. The overheating may likely cause the
following except one. Which one is the exception?
A. Pulpal injury
B. Release of mercury
C. A dull appearance to restoration
D. Decreased susceptibility to corrosion
Ans: D
Explanation: Excessive heat generation may produce an increased susceptibility to breakdown and corrosion.
70. When polishing amalgams, green and brown points and cusps are utilized to:
A. Remove the gross irregularities from the amalgam surface
B. Remove bulky contact area
C. Polish the amalgam to achieve high surface luster
D. Prepare the surface for finishing burs
Ans: C
Explanation: Green and brown points and cups are used to produce a smooth satin and shiny surface to the amalgam
restoration. They are used only for polishing and not for finishing.
71. When finishing the lingual of a composite restoration in an anterior tooth, the most effect abrasive would be
a?
A. Finishing disk
B. Finishing cup
C. Flame-shaped finishing bur
D. Egg/football-shaped finishing bur
Ans: D
Explanation: The egg/football-shaped finishing bur most closely matches the desired shape of the anatomy of the lingual
surface of an anterior tooth and therefore, is the most effective abrasives to use.
72. The term ‘Non-vital’ may be used to describe a tooth that has:
A. Been treated with a root canal procedure
B. A necrotic pulp
C. No pulp tissue in the pulp cavity
D. All of the above

Ans: D
Explanation: A non-vital tooth is one that does not have a live (vital) pulp. The pulp may be present but necrotic, missing
or replaced with a root canal filling material.
73. Which of the following statements is the most accurate?

A. Hydrogen peroxide is more stable than carbamide peroxide
B. Carbamide peroxide is used in the nonvital tooth whitening technique known as a walking bleach
C. Hydrogen peroxide decomposes into water and free radicals of oxygen
D. Carbamide peroxide is most often applied to teeth as a gel at a 35% concentration
Ans: C
Explanation: Carbamide peroxide is more stable than hydrogen peroxide. It is used only in the vital tooth whitening
technique. It decomposes into hydrogen peroxide and is used in concentration from 10% to 20%. Hydrogen peroxide
decomposes into water and oxygen radicals.
74. A complete or incomplete isthmus between three or more canals is classified as:
A. Type II
B. Type III
C. Type IV
D. Type V
Ans: C
Explanation: According to Kim et al classification, the complete or incomplete isthmus between three or more canals
come under Type IV.
75. Metaseal is a …………. generation meth-acrylate based resin sealer.

A. Fifth
B. Fourth
C. Third
D. Second
Ans: B
Explanation: Hydron falls under first generation meth-acrylate based resin sealer whereas Endorez falls under second
generation and resilon under third generation. Similarly, Metaseal and Realseal come under fourth generation
methacrylate-based resin sealer.
76. Warm vertical compaction technique was introduced by:

A. Schilder
B. Grossman
C. Torabinejad
D. Ingle
Ans: A
Explanation: Schilder introduced warm vertical compaction as a method of filling the radicular space in three
dimensions. The technique involves fitting a master cone short of the corrected working length (0.5 to 2 mm) with
resistance to displacement.
77. Two separate, distinct canals extend from the pulp chamber to the apex in which Type of Vertucci’s
classification?
A. IV
B. V
C. VI
D. VII
Ans: A
Explanation: The morphological patterns of the root canal systems in Type IV consist of two separate, distinct canals
extending from the pulp chamber to the apex.

78. The conduction velocity of ……………fiber is 70-120 m/sec

A. A-alpha
B. A-beta
C. A-gamma
D. B fibers
Ans: A
Explanation: A-alpha fibers have diameter of 12-20 um with conduction velocity of 70-120 m/sec. They help in
proprioception.
79. According to Cohen, the preferred temperature for performing heat test is:..
A. 130 F
B. 140 F
C. 150 F
D. 160 F
Ans: C
Explanation: The temperature of 150 F or 65.5 degree Celsius was recommend by Cohen for the process of heat test.
80. In Universal protaper retreatment file, end cutting tip is seen in:
A. D-1
B. D-2
C. D-3
D. All of the above
Ans: A
Explanation: D-1 has a cutting tip for effective entrance into the obturation material in the coronal third. D-2 and D-3 are
used in the middle third and apical third fo the canals respectively and have non-cutting tips.
81. Drug induced gingival enlargement is more severe in:

A. Anterior region
B. Premolar region
C. Molar· region
D. Edentulous areas
Answer: A- Though we’re unsure about why it happens, DIGE is more severe in anterior region.
82. Chronic periodontitis is:

A. Tooth specific
B. Site specific
C. Area specific
D. Mouth specific
Answer: B- Chronic periodontitis is typically site specific.
83. B.forsythus, B.gingivals and T.denticolaa are together called as

A. White complex
B. Green complex
C. Red complex
D. Yellow complex
Answer: C- They are the members of the red complex.
84. Which of the following is absent in parakeratinizedgingiva:

A. Stratum corneum
B. Stratum spinosum
C. Stratum granulosum
D. Stratum basale

Answer: C- There is no definite Stratum granulosum; just merely dispersed keratohyaline granules.
85. The lifespan of a tooth that undergoes ankylosis is:

A. 5 years
B. 15 years
C. 10 years
D. 20 years
Answer: A- The estimated life span is 5 years.
86. Why cementum does not sense pain?

A. Because it lacks neural component.
B. Because it is avascular.
C. Because it lacks cells.
D. Because it lacks fibers
Answer: A-Cementum does not have a neural component for any kind of sensation.
87. The major component of facial and lingual plates of alveolar bone:
A. Cortical bone
B. Cancellous bone
C. Bone marrow
D. Neurovascular bundle
Answer: A- The major component, incl the alveolar bone proper is cortical bone.
88. The least stable periodontal tissue:

A. Gingiva
B. Periodontal ligament
C. Cementum
D. Alveolar bone
Answer: D- The least stable of the four is the alveolar bone.
89. What is the adequate width of keratinized gingiva necessary to maintain gingival health (Lang and Löe)?
A. 2 mm.
B. 3 mm.
C. 4 mm.
D. 5 mm.
Answer: A- At least 2mm of keratinized gingiva is required.
90. The first bone to be formed during development of alveolar bone is called:
A. Lamellar bone
B. Woven bone
C. Compact bone
D. Bundle bone
Answer: B- The first formed bone is the woven bone.
91. The alveolar bone of a permanent tooth develops from:

A. Basal bone
B. Dental follicle
C. Endomesenchyme
D. Alveolar bone of deciduous tooth
Answer: B- It develops from dental follicle.

92. The width of periodontal ligament is around:

A. 0.2
B. 0.2 A
C. 0.2 mm
D. 0.2 cm
Answer: C- The answer is 0.2 mm.
93. The increase in thickness of cementum with aging is greater:

A. Coronally
B. Labially
C. Apically
D. At midroot level
Answer: C- Cementum deposition is more rapid in the apical region.
94. Which of the following does not have modifying effect on gingivitis:
A. Pregnancy
B. Puberty
C. Diabetes
D. Hypertension
Answer: D- Hypertension is the least likely among the four to have an effect on periodontium.
95. Significant serum antibody response to specific plaque organisms is found in:
A. Localized form of chronic periodontitis
B. Generalized form of chronic periodontitis
C. Localized form of aggressive periodontitis
D. Generalized form of aggressive periodontitis
Answer: C- The serum antibody response is robust in LAP.
96. Most common benign bone cancer is

A. Osteosarcoma
B. Ewing sarcoma
C. Osteochondroma
D. Fibroma
97. Which tumor does not occur in minor salivary glands?

A. Pleomorphic adenoma
B. Adenocarcinoma
C. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
D. Papillary cystadenoma lymphomatosum
98. Which of the following occurs most commonly on tongue?

A. Lipoma
B. Lymphagioma
C. Neuroblastoma
D. Fibroma

99. Splitted papule at corner of mouth is seen in

A. Primary syphilis
B. Secondary syphilis
C. Recurrent herpetic stomatitis
D. Recurrent herpes labialis
100. Auspitz’s sign is characteristic of

A. Lichen planus
B. White sponge nevus
C. Erythema multiforme
D. Psoriasis
101. Trigeminal neuralgia

A. Can be treated with NSAIDs.
B. Does not disturbs the patient during sleep
C. Always biilateral in distribution
D. Is a hereditary condition.
102. Which is also known as multifocal eosinophitic granuloma

A. Letterer-Sieve disease
B. Hurler’s syndrome
C. Hand-Schuller-Christian disease
D. Osteoclastoma
103. Hypercalcemia is seen in

A. Hyperparathyroidism
B. Hypoparathyroididm
C. Hyperthyroidism
D. Hypothyroididm
104. Still’s disease is a form of

A. Osteodeformans
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Osteoporosis
D. Osteoarthritis
105. Floating of teeth is seen in

A. Paget’s disease
B. Giant cell granuloma
C. Fibrous dysplasia
D. Cherubism
106. Sarcoma of the soft tissues spread by

A. Blood vessels
B. Lymphatics
C. Direct extension
D. Local invasion

107. Carcinoma arising within the odontogenic cyst linings is a complication seen most commonly in which
cyst?
A. Dentigerous cyst
B. Odontogenic keratocyst
C. Lateral periodontal cyst
D. Radicular cyst
(The lining of a dentigerous cyst might undergo neoplastic transformation to an ameloblastomas and in a squamous
cell carcinoma. It is also possible for some intraosseous mucoepidermoid carcinomas to develop from mucous cells
in the lining of a dentigerous cyst.)
108. Human dentition are not characterized by

A. Heterodont
B. Pleurodont
C. Thecodont
D. Diphyodont
(Human dentition is thecodont because of the presence of sockets in the jawbone where the teeth are embedded.
Human dentition shows a diphyodont character because of the presence of two sets of teeth throughout the life cycle.
The first set is called the deciduous teeth and the second set is the permanent teeth. Human dentition shows
heterodont character because of the presence of four types of teeth which are incisors, canine, premolars and molars.)
109. How much of a person's height is their skull?

A. 6 x skull
B. 8 x skull
C. 10 x skull
D. 12 x skull
110. Not a component of Gustafson’s method?

A. Attrition
B. Cementum apposition
C. Root resorption
D. Dentition
111. Portal hypertension is characterized by all of thefollowing except:

A. Spleenomegaly
B. Variceal bleeding
C. Dilated veins over the abdomen
D. Gynaecomastia
Ans'D' [Ref. DAVIDSON 20th edPg 957]Normal pressure in portal vein is 5-10mm Hg.In Portalhypertension the
pressure increases more than 10mmHg.
112. Mallory - Weisstear occurs at

A. Root of aorta
B. Oesophago gastric junction
C. Middle cerebral artery
D. Vertebro basilar artery
Ans ‘B' [Ref. Davidson 20th edPg 867]Mallory-Weiss tear is one of the causes of acute uppergastrointestinal bleeding. It
occurs at theoesophago gastric junction.

113. Microalbuminuria is defined as albumin

A. <30 microgms/24 hrs. urine collection
B. 30-300 microgms/24 hrs. urine collection
C. 300-550 microgms/24 hrs. urine collection
D. >550 microgms/24 hrs. urine collection
114. In Henoch Scholien purpura there is all except:

A. Abdominal pain with proteinurea
B. Acute arthritis
C. Rectal bleeding
D. More common in adults
Ans D. Henoch Scholien purpura is most common in children.The mechanism of ecchymosis or purpura in
HenochScholien is vasculitis.
115. Which laboratory test is most useful for patienunder dicumarol therapy? .
A. PT
B. Platelet count
C. BT
D. CT
Ans A.
116. Clinical Haemophilia is characterized by (BTBleeding Time, CT Clotting Time, PT - Prothrombin

time, PTT Partial thromboplastin time):
A. Prolonged PT and normal BT
B. Prolonged BT, PT and PTT
C. Normal BT and PT and prolonged PTT
D. Prolonged BT and normal CT, PT and PTT
Ans C. Normal BT and PT and prolonged PTT

117. Regarding leukemias, which of the following iscorrect?

A. All are common in children
B. Bone marrow transplant is done in all
C. Bleeding tendency is AML
D. All of these
Ans C. Bleeding tendency is AML
118. Alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency causes:

A. Centrilobular emphysema
B. Panacinar emphysema
C. Lung cysts
D. Bronchiectasis
Ans B
119. All are seen in emphysema except:

A. Hyper inflation
B. Rhonchi
C. Damaged to alveoli
D. None of the above
Ans D

120. The recent terminology for status asthmaticus is:

A. Episodic asthma
B. Chronic asthma
C. Acute asthma
D. Severe acute asthma
Ans D
121. Pulsating varicose vein is due to

A. Arterio venous fistula
B. Sapheno femoral incompetence
C. Deep vein thrombosis
D. Abdominal tumour
Ans A. [S. Das 3rd ed 194] Communication between an artery and adjacent vein leads to arteriovenous aneurysm or
arteriovenous fistula. When an arteriovenous fistula is created surgically, this is called iatrogenic arteriovenous fistula.
For Renal dialysis,iatrogenic fistula is mostly used in the wrist or in the ankle and such temporary arteriovenous fistula is
known as Cimino fistula. Presence of a pulsating thrill over the site of the lesion is quite characteristic, particularly if the
lesion is located near the surface. If a finger is pressed on the artery proximal to the fistula,there will be slowing of pulse
rate and rise in the diastolic pressure. This is known as Branham's sign.
122. Operations for varicose veins are best accomplished by

A. Stripping
B. Multiple subcutaneous ligatures
C. Subfascial ligatures
D. Division and ligation at the superficial venous system
Ans'D' [B & L 23rd ed 245 / 24th ed 962] Varicose veins occur commonly due to incompetence of the valves of long
and short saphenous veins resulting in reverse flow (venous reflex) and dilation of the vein below the valve. Varicose
veins occasionally may develop complications like superficial thrombophlebitis, haemorrhage or venous ulceration. The
main surgical treatment are to ligate the source of venous reflex and to remove the incompetent saphenous trunks.
123. Chronic lymphedema predisposes to all except

A. Lymphangiosarcoma
B. Marjolins ulcer
C. Recurrent infections
D. Thickening of skin
Ans'B' [B & L 23rd ed 260 / 24th ed 977] Lymphoedema is the end result of insufficient lymphatic outflow.
Chronic lymphoedema can predispose to dermal thickening,fungalinfections, eczema or lymphangiosarcoma.
Marjolins ulcer is a malignant ulcer arising in a chronic benign ulcer or scar.
124. The main source for pulmonary embolism:

A. Haemorrhoids
B. Deep leg vein
C. Portal vein
Ans B.

125. Best way to monitor perfusion of free flap:

A. Pulse oximeter
B. Laser dopplervelocimetery
C. Prick test
D. Flourescin&dermoflourometer
Ans C. [Steel and Marran's head and neck surgery 4th ed 137] During the postoperative phase,the flap is closely
monitored for signs of compromised perfusion. Flaps are best assessed by inspection. Clinical monitoring is the current
gold standard for assessing free flaps.
Dermal bleeding or prick test is used to assess the colour of the blood within the flap circulation. Also scalpel mark on
the flap can also be used to assess the colour of the blood.
Many high-end techniques are described in literature tomonitor free flaps such as
• Serial fluorometry
• Plethysmography
• Laser doppler flow-metry
126. Which of the following is not an indicator of difficultmask ventilation?

A. Patient having history of snoring
B. Patient having beard
C. Old age patient
D. Full set of teeth present
Ans D.

127. In long surgical procedure intubation method is

A. Nasotracheal tube with cuff
B. LMA
C. Nasotracheal tube without cuff
D. Endotracheal tube
Ans A. LMA (laryngeal mask airway) is used mostly in situations of emergency and by non-anaesthesiologists.
Endotracheal tube is commonly used method during general anaesthesia. For prolonged surgeries especially facio-
maxillary surgeries nasaltracheal or Orotracheal intubation especially with cuff is used.
128. Which of the following is common to all types of shock?

A. Vasoconstriction
B. Hypotension
C. Sepsis
D. Bradycardia
Ans B
129. An accurate method of measuring fluid replacementfollowing acute blood loss is to check the:
A. Hematocrit
B. Hemoglobin
C. Blood pressure
D. Central venous pressure
Ans D
130. Tachycardia in a patient in shock is response to:

A. Hypotension
B. Vasoconstriction
C. CNS anoxia
D. Anxiety
Ans C
131. The supraperiosteal injection is contraindicated for larger areas because

A. the success rate of this injection is quite low.
B. the risk of positive aspiration is moderately high.
C. this particular injection technique is particularly painful.
D. more anesthetic would be administered than absolutely necessary.
Ans D. Administering several supraperiosteal injections over a larger area will require greater total volumes of local
anesthetic than that of a nerve block for the same area
132. Which needle is recommended for the posterior superior alveolar nerve (PSA) block?
A. 25-gauge short.
B. 25-gauge long.
C. 27-gauge short.
D. 27-gauge long.
Ans C. A 27-gauge short needle is recommended for the administration of the posterior superior alveolar nerve block.
133. Compared to adults, pediatric patients

A. experience a slower onset of local anesthesia.
B. need notably different local anesthetic techniques.
C. require a larger dose of local anesthetic for clinical results.
D. exhibit a higher success rate with the inferior alveolar nerve block
Ans D. The inferior alveolar nerve block is a highly successful technique in pediatric patients

134. Transient facial paralysis results when which cranial nerve is anesthetized?
A. V.
B. VII.
C. IX.
D. XI.
Ans B. The seventh (VII) cranial nerve innervates the muscles of facial expression; its inadvertent anesthesia results in
transient hemiparalysis of the face.
135. A prolonged jaw muscle spasm, which restricts the opening of the mouth, is called
A. ageusia.
B. trismus.
C. paralysis.
D. dysesthesia
Ans b. Trismus is a restricted opening of the mouth due to a prolonged jaw muscle spasm.
136. Dry heat damages microbes by:

A. Destructive oxidation of essential cell constituents
B. Denaturing proteins
C. Denaturing nucleic acid
D. None of the avove
Ans a
137. Which of the above is nonsense codon?

A. UAA
B. GGC
C. AAG
D. CGA
Ans: a
138. Most abundant class of immunoglobulin in the body is:

A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgD
D. IgE
Ans: a
139. C1,C2 and C4 are components of:

A. Classical pathway of complement
B. Alternative pathway of complement
C. Both of them
D. None of them
Ans: a
140. Anaphylactic reactions are mediated by which of the class of immunoglobulin?

A. IgE
B. IgM
C. IgA
D. IgD
Ans: a

141. All of the following are precancerous except

A. Chronic gastritis of pernicious anaemia
B. Solar keratosis
C. Crohn’s disease
D. Leukoplakia
Answer: C.Crohn’s disease
Prothrombogenic factors include all of the following except

A. Platelet activating factor
B. Von Willebrand factor
C. Nitric oxide
D. Tissue factor
Answer: C.Nitric oxide
142. The factor conferring the most risk in thromboembolic disease is

A. smoking
B. atrial fibrillation
C. oral contraceptives
D. prolonged bed rest
Answer: D.prolonged bed rest
143. Iron deficiency anaemia features

A. a normal haematocrit
B. increased serum ferritin
C. normal mean red cell volume
D. none of the above
Answer: D.none of the above
144. What is the temperature which is maintained by theFreezers in the pathology labs?
A. 10℃– 15℃
B. 0℃– 10℃
C. -10℃– -60℃
D. -100℃
Answer: CClarification: When pathological samples are collected, they may have
to be stored for further study or for future use. They are stored at a
temperature of -10℃– -60℃. At this temperature, the solution used
for preserving freezes without causing damage to the samples.
145. All of the following are medical ethics theories EXCEPT:

A. Deontological Theory
B. Virtue Theory
C. Autonomy Theory
D. Teleological Theory
AnsC Autonomy Theory
146. All of the following are characteristics of Consequential Theory EXCEPT:

A. Choosing the actions that provide the best outcome.
B. An act is moral if it could become a universal rule for society.
C. Study the outcomes of actions while analyzing moral activity.
D. B+C
Ans: B. An act is moral if it could become a universal rule for society

147. Cyanosis in which location of the neonate is concerning in the hours after birth?
A. Hands
B. Feet
C. Lips
D. Cyanosis in all of these are concerning
Ans c. Cyanosis that is only present in the hands and feet is considered a normal finding in most neonates (i.e.
acrocyanosis). Cyanosis in the hands and feet is not particularly concerning. However, blueness in the perioral area (lips,
tongue, gums) or on the chest, abdomen, and back is a cause for concern.
148. During cardiopulmonary resuscitation, deliver oxygen at:

A. 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula
B. Titrated to keep oxygen saturation ≥ 85%
C. Titrated to keep oxygen saturation ≥ 94%
D. 100% fraction of inspired oxygen
And D. CPR is performed during cardiac arrest and 100% oxygen should be administered during cardiac arrest
149. The leader in team resuscitation must:

A. Be able to perform all the skills if needed
B. Be certified as a leader
C. Be a physician
D. Undergo leadership training
A. There is no special training required to be a team leader other than the ability to perform all facets of the resuscitation,
if needed. While the team leader is often a physician, this is not essential as long as a team member is capable of
prescribing ACLS medications.
150. Which abrasive agent used in dentifrices interferes with fluoride efficacy?
A. Calcium salts.
B. Hydrated silica.
C. Aluminum oxide.
D. Polymethyl methacrylate.
Ans A. When calcium salts are used as an abrasive agent they cause fluoride to be ineffective
151. Which is a fatal dose of fluoride for an adult?

A. 0.5 g.
B. 1.0 g.
C. 1.5 g.
D. 2.5 g
Ans D The fatal dose of fluoride for an adult is 2.5 to 5 g
152. Which powerful, naturally occurring anticoagulant originates from the saliva of leeches?
A. Hirudin.
B. Heparin.
C. Bivalirudin.
D. Danaparoid.
Ans A. Hirudin is a powerful, naturally occurring anticoagulant that originates from the saliva of leeches. heparin is
produced endogenously; commercial preparations are derived from recombinant DNA techniques. ;bivalirudin is a
semisynthetic analog of hirudin,danaparoid is made up of heparan sulfate, dermatan sulfate, and chondroitin sulfate.

153. Which anti-platelet drug is an adenosine diphosphate receptor inhibitor?

A. Aspirin.
B. Tirofiban.
C. Abciximab.
D. Clopidogrel.
Ans D. Clopidogrel is an adenosine diphosphate receptor inhibitor.Aspirin is Xoz Inhibitor, tirofiban is a
glycoproteinIIb/IIIa receptor inhibitor, abciximab is a glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor inhibitor
154. Which asthmatic drug is not effective when administered as an inhalant?

A. Ipratropium.
B. Epinephrine.
C. Theophylline.
D. Isoproterenol.
Ans C. Theophylline is administered orally, due to its ineffectiveness when administered as an inhalant
155. Which is NOT a division of the bands of the articular disc?

A. Superior.
B. Anterior.
C. Posterior.
D. Intermediate.
Ans A. There is no superior band of the articular disc. . When the mouth is closed, the anterior band lies anterior to the
condyle. . When the mouth is closed, the posterior band is located superior to the disc. When the mouth is closed, the
intermediate band is located along the articular eminence
156. Which portion of the articular disc is the main load-bearing area?
A. Medial.
B. Lateral.
C. Anterior.
D. Posterior
Ans B. The lateral portion is the main load-bearing area of the articular disc.
157. The parotid gland has a capsule made of which layer?

A. Visceral fascia.
B. Parietal fascia.
C. Superficial fascia.
D. Deep cervical fascia.
Ans D. The parotid gland has a capsule made of deep cervical fascia.
158. Which is NOT a border of the anterior triangle of the neck?

A. Midline of the neck.
B. Inferior border of the mandible.
C. Anterior border of the trapezius muscle.
D. Anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid
Ans C. The anterior border of the trapezius muscle is a border of the posterior, not the anterior, triangle
159. Which is the insertion for muscles of facial expression?

A. Skin.
B. Bone.
C. Deep fascia.
D. Superficial fascia
Ans C. Arteries, veins and nerves of the scalp are found in the layer of connective tissue.

160. A lipid bilayer is permeable to

A. Urea
B. Fructose
C. Glucose
D. Potassium
Ans A.
161. The Golgi complex

A. Synthesizes proteins
B. Produces ATP
C. Provides a pathway for transporting chemicals
D. Forms glycoproteins
Ans D.
162. The aldose sugar is

A. Glycerose
B. Ribulose
C. Erythrulose
D. Dihydoxyacetone
Ans A.
163. A hormone secreted from anterior pituitaryis

A. Growth hormone
B. Vasopressin
C. Oxytocin
D. Epinephrine
Ans A.
164. A cup of strong coffee would be expectedto

A. Interfere with the synthesis of prostaglandins
B. Decrease the effect of glucagon
C. Enhance the effect of epinephrine
D. Provide the vitamin nicotinic acid
Ans C.
165. Somatostatin is produced in the

A. hypothalamus
B. anterior pituitary
C. delta cells of pancreas
D. alpha cells of pancreas
166. SA node is located

A. epicardially
B. intra myocardial
C. sub epicardially
D. endocardially
167. Highest concentration of vitamin C in the body is found in the

A. liver
B. kidney
C. adrenal medulla
D. spleen

168. Most potent vasopressor is

A. angiotensin II
B. rennin
C. aldosterone
D. cortisol
169. Spirometer cannot measure

A. tidal volume
B. vital capacity
C. expiratory reserve volume
D. residual volume
170. Which of the following is characteristic feature of lefort-1 fracture

A. CSF rhinorrhoea
B. Bleeding from nose
C. Bleeding into antrum
D. Both A and B
Ans: D,
171. What is the fluid of choice in patient with hypovolemic shock?

A. Ringers lactate
B. Normal saline
C. Blood transfusion
D. Plasma expanders
Ans: A,
172. In horizontally unfavorable angle fracture of mandible, the proximal segment is displaced
A. Superiorly
B. Medially
C. Posteriorly
D. Both A and B
AnsD,
173. Which of the following is compound fracture?

A. Parasymphysis fracture
B. Angle fracture
C. Condyle fracture
D. Both A and B
AnsD,
174. Lefort-1 fracture is also called as

A. Guerin’s frcture
B. Pyramidal fracture
C. Craniofacial disjunction
AnsA,

175. The latest method of fixation of mandible fracture is

A. Trans-osseous wiring
B. Compression plates
C. Miniplates
D. Lag screw
AnsC,
176. Treatment of choice for condyle fracture in pediatric patient is

A. IMF for 3-4 weeks
B. ORIF
C. Advice for mouth opening exercise
D. All of the above
ANs C,
177. The confirmatory test for CSF rhinorrhea is

A. Beta-2 transferrin test
B. Glucose level test
C. Protein level test
Ans: A,
178. Diplopia is the feature of

A. Orbital floor fracture
B. Lefort-1 fracture
C. Middle cranial fossa fracture
D. Nasal bone fracture
AnsA,
179. Diplopia in trauma refers to

A. Blindness
B. Blurring of vision
C. Monocular double vision
D. Biocular double vision
ANs D,
180. Forced duction test is used to check

A. Entrapment of extraocular muscles
B. Entrapment of intraocular muscles
C. Detachment of ligament of lockwood
D. Functions of auricular muscles
AnsA,
181. Enophthalmos means

A. Inward displacement of eyeball
B. Outward displacement of eyeball
C. Downward movement of eyeball
D. Upward movement of eyeball
AnsA,

182. The ideal line of osteosynthesis for miniplate fixation in mandible is

A. Macgregor line
B. Champy’s line
C. Gray’s line
AnsB,
183. Absolute contraindication for extraction of tooth is

A. Haemangioma
B. Hyperthyroidism
C. Hypertension
D. Uncontrolled DM
AnsA,
184. ZMC fracture is

A. Tripodal fracture
B. Tetrapodal fracture
C. Dentoalveolar fracture
D. Compound fracture
AnsB,
185. The most effective anti-plaque agent is

A. Benzydamine
B. Potassium Nitrate
C. Amphotericine
D. Chlorhexidine
AnsD
186. Prophylactic bisphosphonates are indicated in which of the following patients

A. Patients above the age of 50
B. Patients with serum calcium deficiency
C. Patients on radiation therapy of bone cancers
D. Patients on prednisolone ≥5mg/day for more than 3 months
Ans D
187. A 20 year old female student presents with red patches on her tongue that move from one location to
another. They have been previously symptomless but have recently become sensitive to spicy foods and tongue
has become sore. Student feels tired & week. The most likely cause of these symptoms are:
A. Progression of geographic tongue to malignancy
B. Iron deficiency anaemia accompanying geographic tongue
C. Patient has developed lichen planus from benign migratory glossitis
D. Symptoms are typical of geographic tongue and no further management isrequired
AnsB

188. A 70 year old gardener presents with crusting of lower lip for the last 4-5 years which gets worse in the
cold weather. It is diagnosed as actinic cheilitis which shows significant dysplasia on histopathology. Its
management is:
A. Advise the patient to apply Vaseline when going outdoors
B. Advise the patient to avoid of sun exposure
C. Advise the patient to apply sun blocks with high sun protection factor (SPF)
D. Vermillionectomy or Laser ablation, sun avoidance & use of sun screens
AnsD
189. A 30 year old male presents with a painful ulceration on the gingiva adjacent to carious lower right 5 for
the last one week. He has been placing aspirin as a remedy for toothache in this carious tooth. The
management of this patient includes:
A. Treat the carious tooth
B. Take an incisional/excisional biopsy of the ulceration depending upon its size
C. Extraction of the adjacent tooth and application of lignocaine gel on ulceration
D. Cessation of aspirin placement and application of topical benzydamine andchlorhexidine preparations
Ans d
190. A 50 years old ex-smoker is referred to you by a cardiologist. He has a history of severe recurrent oral
ulcerations affecting lateral borders of tongue, labial mucosa & soft palate. Ulcers are one or two at a time
and persist for about 8 weeks. Patient has been on potassium channel activator (nicorandil) for unstable
angina and aspirin (75mg/day) since his MI 9months ago. He has no eye, skin or genital ulcerations. The most
probable cause of these major RAS ulcers is:
A. Smoking cessation
B. Use of nicorandil (potassium channel activator)
C. Behcet’s disease
D. Both a & b
Ans: d
191. All of the following are etiologically associated with aphthous ulcers except:
A. Trauma, stress
B. Diabetes Mellitus
C. Smoking cessation
D. Microbial agents
AnsB
192. In a patient with chronic hyperplastic candidiasis, topical antifungal treatment fails to eliminate the
infection. Systemic anti-fungal (Fluconazole) was prescribed to this patient. The best dosage regime of
fluconazole is
A. 50-100mg daily
B. 150-200mg daily
C. 500mg daily
D. 1g daily
AnsA

193. A 40 year old female presents to you with painless, indurated, dark red swelling in her mouth with glazed
surface. These were diagnosed as chancres and Traponema Pallidum was isolated from these chancres. The
first & second drug of choice for this patient is
A. Tetracycline and Erythromycin
B. Acyclovir and Fluconazole
C. Fluconazole and tetracycline
D. Penicillin and Tetracylince or erythromycin
AnsD
195.. A patient presents with soreness and bleeding of gingivae, necrosis of the gingival
papillae and marked halitosis. The drug of choice in this case would be
A. Metronidazole 200mg T.D.S with chlorhexidine mouthwash
B. Penicillin 500mg T.D.S with amphotericin mouthwash
C. Chlorhexidine mouthwash with lignocaine gel
D. Systemic steroids and anti-fungals
AnsA
196. All are components added to flm emulsion that serve to improve silver halide crystal
sensitivity EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Gold.
B. Iodide.
C. Polyethylene terephthalate.
D. Sulfur-containing compound.
Ans C. The base of the flm is made of polyester polyethylene terephthalate.
Trace amounts of gold are added to the flm emulsion to improve silver halide crystalsensitivity.
Iodide is added to the flm emulsion to improve silver halide crystal sensitivity.
Sulfur-containing compounds are added to the flm emulsion to improve silver halide
crystal sensitivity
197. Which flm type contains silver halide grains that are ﬂat, tabular crystals about 1.8 µm in diameter?
A. InSight.
B. Panoramic.
C. Duplicating.
D. Ultra-Speed.
Ans A. InSightflm contains silver halide grains that are ﬂat, tabular crystals about1.8 µm in diameter.
Panoramic flm contains silver halide grains that are sensitive to visible light.
Duplicating flm contains silver halide grains that are sensitive to visible light.
Ultra-Speed flm contains silver halide grains that are globular-shaped and about 1 µmin diameter.
198. Which is the standard format that specifes handling, storage, printing, and transmission of medical
images?
A. DICOM (digital imaging and communications in medicine).
B. Tagged Image File Format (tiff ).
C. Joint Photography Experts Group (jpeg).
Ans A. DICOM is a standard that specifes handling, storage, printing, and transmission of medical images. The
American Dental Association endorses the use of DICOMas the standard for exchange of all dental digital images and
recommends that all newdigital X-ray units should be DICOM compliant.
Tagged Image File Format (tiff ) is a standard imaging format. It is not the standard thatspecifes handling, storage,
printing, and transmission of medical images.

Joint Photography Experts Group (jpeg) is a standard imaging format. It is not the
standard that specifes handling, storage, printing, and transmission of medical images.
199. The presence of scratches or debris on the intensifying screen results in which artifact?
A. Dark lines.
B. Light areas.
C. Loss of sharpness.
D. Obscured anatomy.
Ans B. The presence of scratches or debris on the intensifying screen results in lightareas on the resultant image.
200. If the supporting cassette foam fails to hold the intensifying screen tightly against the flm, the resulting
image
A. appears light.
B. loses sharpness.
C. has a dark density.
D. shows dark pebbling
Ans B. The panoramic flm must be held securely against the intensifying screen or theimage loses sharpness.

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QUESTIONS & ANSWERS EXPLANATIONS

1. Perfect occlusion of the teeth is present NATURALLY in:

3. When is the best time for an individual to receive orthodontic treatment?

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7. Which is the most common type of malocclusion in children and youth?

8. How does the occlusion reflect a transverse maxillary deficiency?

10. Which of the following must be constant in the cephalometric apparatus?

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14. Which of the following is used to establish a patient's growth status?

Ans: c. amino acid lysine

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20. The radiographs used for Four film survey

21. MTAD is a mixture of

Ans: a.Doxycycline, citric acid, and a detergent

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22. Which is no longer recommended for antibiotic prophylaxis for a

23. Dental procedures not requiring antibiotic prophylaxis except

Ans: d. Procedures that involve manipulation of gingival tissue

24. When holes punched too close in rubber dam

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25. The method of isolation is/are

27. Early childhood caries is also called

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34. Which of these cancer are least likely to be an occupational hazard?

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40. The motto of capitalism is:

42. A gene which manifests in both heterozygous and homozygous state is a:

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44. Which of the following is not a predisposing factor to mutation?

45. The history of present illness evaluates:

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66. The origin of dental pain is interpreted by which part of brain?

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68. Which of the following dental cements is significantly accelerated by humidity?

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73. Which of the following statements is the most accurate?

75. Metaseal is a …………. generation meth-acrylate based resin sealer.

76. Warm vertical compaction technique was introduced by:

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78. The conduction velocity of ……………fiber is 70-120 m/sec

81. Drug induced gingival enlargement is more severe in:

82. Chronic periodontitis is:

83. B.forsythus, B.gingivals and T.denticolaa are together called as

84. Which of the following is absent in parakeratinizedgingiva:

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85. The lifespan of a tooth that undergoes ankylosis is:

86. Why cementum does not sense pain?

88. The least stable periodontal tissue:

91. The alveolar bone of a permanent tooth develops from:

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92. The width of periodontal ligament is around:

Answer: C- The answer is 0.2 mm.

93. The increase in thickness of cementum with aging is greater:

96. Most common benign bone cancer is

97. Which tumor does not occur in minor salivary glands?

98. Which of the following occurs most commonly on tongue?

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99. Splitted papule at corner of mouth is seen in