* NLE * NCLEX * HAAD * PROMETRICS * DHA * MIDWIFERY * LET * RAD TECH * CRIMINOLOGY * DENTISTRY * PHARMACY * MED TECH *RESPI

PRE-BOARDS 1 EXAMINATION
TEST 5: ORAL SURGERY, ORAL DIAGNOSIS & ROENTGENOLOGY
Philippine Dentistry Licensure Examination
NAME: DATE: SCORE: /100
1. What is the minimal safe distance for implant 8. Methods of object localization:
placement from the mental foramen? A. 2 films at right angle.
A. 2 mm B. Tube shift technique
B. 0.5 mm C. Clark’s techniques
C. 2 cm D. Buccal object rule
D. 1 mm E. All of these
E. 3 mm 9. Methods to reduce magnification
2. What are the most common teeth that may cause i. Use of small focal spot.
referred pain to the ear? ii. Increase focal spot to film distance
A. Maxillary central incisors iii. Increase focal spot to film distance
B. Mandibular central incisors Iv. Decrease object to film distance
C. Mandibular molars V. Increase object to film distance.
D. Maxillary premolars
A. 1&2
E. Maxillary molars
B. 2&3
3. Which of the following is the most commonly used
C. C.3&4
surgical procedure to correct maxillary retrognathia? D. 4&5
A. C-osteotomy E. None.
B. Inverted L osteotomy 10. All of the following are advantages of a panoramic
C. LeFort1 Osteotomy. radiograph except:
D. Anterior maxillary osteotomy A. It shows areas that may not be visible on a
4. Which of the following describes osseointegrated bitewing or periapical
implants? B. It shows both arches on the same film
A. they have a direct structural and functional C. It gives better detail and definition than PAs
connection with bone only at the radiographic D. It is more comfortable for the patient because it
level detection. eliminates the gagging reflex
B. they are anchored directly to living bone as E. It requires less time than a full mouthseries
determined by radiographical and light
11. A phenomenon caused by a relatively lower xray
microscopic analysis.
absorption on the mesial or distal of a tooth between he
C. they form a junctional epithelium with the
edgeof the enamel and the adjacent crest of the alveolar
surrounding tissue
D. they form a pseudo-periodontal ligament. ridge is called
5. A patient who is on dicumarol therapy requires a tooth A. Apical burnout C. Coronal burnout
extraction. Which laboratory test is the most valuable in B. Cervical burnout D. Root burnout
12. Radiography shows treatment needed for large
evaluating this patient’s surgical risk?
residual cyst to prevent Jaw fracture:
A. Clotting time.
B. Prothrombin time. A. Enucleation C. marsupialization
C. Bleeding time B. Caldwell luc D.Incision and drainage.
D. Sedimentation rate 13. The component of developer that gives detail to the
E. Complete blood cell count. radiographic image is.
6. All of the following belong to the lector-magnetic A. hydroquinone
radiation, except: B. Sodium carbonate
A. Gamma ray C. Potassium bromide
B. X-ray D. None of these
C. beta ray E. Sodium sulfite.
D. Ultraviolet ray. 14. Which intra-oral radiographs are the most useful in
E. None detecting interproximal caries?
7. In object localization, if the tube is shifted mesially, and A. Periapical x-rays
the object in question appears to move distally, then the B. Bitewing x-rays
object. C. Occlusal x-rays
15. Foreshorting where the teeth appear too short is
A. buccal.
B. Lingual caused by:
C. Mesial A. Too much vertical angulation
D. Distal B. Too little vertical angulation
E. None of these C. Incorrect horizontal angulation
D. Beam not aimed at the center of the film

TOP RANK REVIEW ACADEMY, INC. Page 1 | 6

16. A 65-year old man has an ulcerated, 3cm lesion on A. Temporalis C. Lateral pterygoid
the lateral border of the tongue. The recommended B. Masseter D. Medial pterygoid
procedure for making a diagnosis is to: 27. You are a member of the craniofacial team at the local
A. excise the entire lesion hospital. As the team dentist, you are approached by the
B. perform an incisional biopsy mother of an 8-day-old baby girl. She is curious about the
C. take a cytologic smear of the ulcerated area timing of cleft palate repair. What is the appropriate
D. none of the above. timing of treatment?
17. The beak of an extraction forceps is designed so that A. Rule of tens. When the patient is at least10 lbs,
most of the extraction pressure is transmitted to the has10mg/dL of hemoglobin,and is at least 10
A. Root of the tooth weeks of age
B. Crown of the tooth B. The palate repair is usually performed between 9
C. Cemento-enamel junction and 18 months of age
D. Dentino-enamel junction C. As soon as possible. Usually between the first
E. Alveolar bone week of life and 6 months
18. It is also known as decompression, partsch operation: D. It only has to be repaired if the baby develops
A. enucleation problems with speech
B. enucleation after marsupialization 28. A 35-year-old male presents to the emergency
C. marsupialization department after an incident with his girlfriend. He was
D. enucleation with curettage stabbed in the face with a box cutter, and upon your
E. none of these. arrival, his vitals are stable and the bleeding is controlled
19. All of the following are weak points in the mandible
with direct pressure. You assess the patient and note that
where fractures are most common except the:
portions of the parotid gland are herniating out of the
A. angle
wound. Your examination would include which of the
B. condylar neck
C. coronoid process following?
D. symphysis I. Facial nerve function
E. none II. Mandibular nerve function
20. It is a sequential, comprehensive method of eliciting III. Maxillary nerve function
patient symptoms on an organ system: IV. Vitality of his teeth
A. Medical history V. Patency of Stensen’s duct
B. Family history VI. Patency of Wharton’s duct
C. Review of systems VII. Patency of nasolacrimal gland
D. Case history
A. I, II, IV
E. History of present illness
B. VI, VII
21. A type of implant that are surgically inserted into the
C. I, II, III, IV, V, VI
jaw bone: D. D. I, V
A. transosseous C. endosseous E. E. III, VII
B. subperiosteal D. osteointegration 29. Epileptic patient having tough gingival.
22. A wound resulting from tear. A. ANUG
A. contusion B. Hyperplastic gingivitis.
B. abrasion C. Gingivofibromatosis.
C. laceration D. dilantin hyperplasia.
D. penetrating wound E. Puberty gingivitis.
E. gun shot, missile and war wounds. 30. The following are those properties deemed most
23. In a patient of liver disease the possible complication
desirable for a local anesthetic, except _____.
during extraction is
A. It should not be irritating to the tissue to which it
A. bleeding C. loss of clot
is applied
B. fascial space infection D. dry socket
24. In a patient who is on long term steroid therapy, what B. It should cause a permanent alteration of nerve
precaution is to be taken prior to tooth extraction? structure
A. Additional steroids to be given C. Its systemic toxicity should be low
B. Continue steroids as it is D. It must be effective regardless of whether it is
C. More antibiotic cover injected into the tissue or applied locally to
D. Stop steroids before extraction mucous membranes
25. Displacement of a root into the maxillary sinus during 31. You have placed a dental implant for replacement of
extraction is most likely to happen during the extraction tooth #9. Preoperatively you obtained a panoramic
of the maxillary and a periapical film. During the surgery, you used a
A. deciduous first molar C. canine crestal incision, series of drills, and paralleling pins as
B. first molar D. canine
necessary. Upon restoration of the crown, obtaining
26. A 43-year-old male presents with trismus and pain
ideal esthetics is difficult because the implant is
localized to the right preauricular region. On examination,
placed too close to the labial cortex, causing the
he has limited range in jaw movements, and it is noted restoration to appear overcontoured. Which of the
that he has a right posterior open bite. CT maxillofacial techniques below could most adequately have
shows a calcified growth of his right condyle, which you prevented this problem?
suspect to be an osteochondroma. You plan to resect the A. Using an anterior surgical template
right condyle and condylar neck. What muscle would be B. Obtaining preoperative tomograms of the
required to be stripped, according to your plan, to remove alveolus
the condylar segment successfully?

TOP RANK REVIEW ACADEMY, INC. Page 2 | 6

 C. Using a tissue punch technique 41. A phenomenon caused by a relatively lower xray
D. Using a smaller size of implant absorption on the mesial or distal of a tooth between
32. The third molar impaction most difficult to remove is the edge of the enamel and the adjacent crest of the
the _____. alveolar ridge is called
A. Vertical A. Apical burnout C. Coronal burnout
B. Mesioangular B. Cervical burnout D. Root burnout
C. Distoangular 42. Removing parts of the x-ray spectrum by using
D. Horizontal absorbing materials in the x-ray beam is called:
33. On a panoramic radiograph of a 13-year-old patient, A. Elimination C. Collimation
there is evidence of crown formation of the third B. Filtration D. Reduction
molars but no root formation yet. These teeth fall into 43. The normal serum concentration of glucose is
the category of impacted teeth. A. 130-150 mg/dl C. 80-120 mg/dl
A. True B. False B. 20-40mg/dl D. 50-70 mg/dl
34. Which of the following is not appropriate treatment 44. A palatal lesion in denture wearers that appears as
for an odontogenic abscess? multiple inflamed small projections in the vault area
A. Placing the patient on antibiotics and having them is called
A. papillary hyperplasia C. papilloma
return when the swelling resolves
B. epulis fissuratum D. hyperkeratosis
B. Surgical removal of the source of the infection as
45. Which of the following is NOT a differential diagnosis
early as possible for squamous papilloma?
C. Drainage of the abscess with placement of A. Nicotinic stomatitis C. Sjogrens syndrome
surgical drains B. Cowdens syndrome D. Darries disease
D. Close observance of the patient during resolution 46. You have taken a periapical radiograph and the
of the infection resulting film is very pale. The following are causes
E. Medical management of the patient to correct any of this to happen, EXCEPT
compromised states that might exist A. The film is underexposed
35. Before the exploration of any intrabony pathologic B. The film is overexposed
lesion, which type of biopsy must always be done? C. The developer was contaminated
A. Cytologic smear D. Too much fixing time
47. In order to limit the dose for periapical radiograph,
B. Incisional biopsy
one must use
C. Excisional biopsy
A. lead apron
D. Aspiration biopsy B. optimal voltage of 70kv
36. You are performing a 5-year follow-up on a 43-year- C. low speed film
old implant patient. When comparing radiographs, D. bisecting angle technique
you estimate that there has been almost 0.1 mm of 48. without distortion or magnification. To produce an
lost bone height around the implant since it was image as close to this, which of the following
placed. Which of the following is indicated? principles must NOT be applied?
A. Removal of the implant and replacement with a A. the distance between the tube and object should
larger-size implant. be as little as possible
B. Removal of the implant to allow healing before B. the beam should be as near to perpendicular to
another one can be placed 4 months later. the tooth as possible
C. Remaking the prosthetic crown because of C. the distance between the tube and film should be
as little as possible
tangential forces on the implant.
D. the film should lie as near to parallel the tooth as
D. The implant is doing well; this amount of bone
possible
loss is considered acceptable. 49. If your film-based radiographs start coming out too
37. The major mechanisms for the destruction of light, it may be that the
osseointegration of implants are _____. A. Fixer needs changing
A. Related to surgical technique B. Exposure time is too long
B. Similar to those of natural teeth C. Developer is too hot
C. Related to implant material D. Developer needs changing
D. Related to nutrition 50. As digital radiography has becoming more prevalent
38. The techniques that show the upper and lower for use in the dental settings, the common digital
crowns on the same radiograph is called the: detectors used have changed. What is the most
A. bisecting angle technique common digital detector used currently in dental
B. paralleling technique digital radiography?
C. bite wing technique A. Charged-couple device (CCD)
B. Intensifying screen phosphors (ISP)
D. occlusal technique
51. Upon evaluation of an immediate postoperative
E. non
panoramic film of a dental implant replacing tooth #30,
39. The Nikolsky sign (loss of epithelium occasioned by
rubbing apparently unaffected skin) is see in you measure a distance of 1.5 mm from the apex of the
A. Varicella C. erythema multiforme implant to the inferior alveolar nerve canal. This is a
B. pemphigus D. herpes simplex titanium implant in an otherwise healthy patient. Which
40. Which positioning error would most likely cause a of the following actions is indicated?
reverse occlusal plane curve on a Panorex? A. You may proceed with immediate loading of the
A. Chin tilted too far upward implant.
B. Chin tilted too far downward B. You should continue but only perform a two-
C. Head turned slightly laterally stage procedure.

TOP RANK REVIEW ACADEMY, INC. Page 3 | 6

 C. Back the implant out approximately 0.5 mm to
ensure a safe distance from the nerve.
D. Remove the implant and plan a repeat surgery
after 4 months of healing.
52. A 21-year-old man is referred to your oral and
maxillofacial surgery practice for an orthognathic surgery
consult. After your routine exam and review of
radiographs, you note the following problem list: Class III
skeletal facial deformity with a negative overjet of 6 mm
and significant maxillary crowding; missing left
mandibular first molar due to dental decay with multiple
other early carious lesions; and calculus on the lingual
surfaces of teeth #22 through #27 with gingival
inflammation. Which of the following is the most
appropriate order in which this patient’s oral health needs
should be sequenced?
A. Definitive crown and bridge therapy, orthodontics
to relieve crowding and to coordinate arches,
caries management, surgery to correct the
skeletal discrepancy, and periodontal therapy to
control gingival inflammation.
B. Caries management, orthodontics to relieve
crowding and to coordinate arches, definitive
crown and bridge therapy, periodontal therapy to
control gingival inflammation, and surgery to
correct the skeletal discrepancy.
C. Periodontal therapy to control gingival
inflammation, definitive crown and bridge
therapy, orthodontics to relieve crowding and to
coordinate arches, surgery to correct the skeletal
discrepancy, and caries management.
D. Periodontal therapy to control gingival
inflammation, caries management, orthodontics
to relieve crowding and to coordinate arches,
surgery to correct the skeletal discrepancy, and
definitive crown and bridge therapy.
53. Systemic effects of obstructive sleep apnea syndrome
(OSAS) include all of the following except _____.
A. Hypertension
B. Cor pulmonale
C. Aortic aneurysm
D. Cardiac arrhythmia
54. Which of the following is not a vital part of the physical
exam for patients with TMJ complaints?
A. Soft-tissue symmetry
B. Joint tenderness and sounds
C. Soft-palate length
D. Range of motion of the mandible
E. Teeth
55. Which of the following is considered the highest and
most severe classification of maxillary fracture?
A. LeFort I C. LeFort III
B. LeFort II D. LeFort IV
56. Which of the following is not a relative
contraindication for routine, elective oral surgery?
A. Unstable cardiac angina
B. History of head and neck radiation
C. Chronic sinusitis
D. Hemophilia
57. Which of the following is true regarding
temporomandibular disorders?
A. The primary treatment for the majority of
patients with facial pain is TMJ surgery.
B. Disc displacement without reduction can cause a
decrease in interincisal opening.
C. Myofascial pain is commonly related to
parafunctional habits, but not commonly related
to stress.
TOP RANK REVIEW ACADEMY, INC.
D. Systemic arthritic conditions do not affect the TMJ
because it is not a weight-bearing joint.
58. What is the minimal safe distance for implant
placement from the mental foramen?
A. 2 mm D. 1 mm
B. 0.5 mm E. 3 mm
C. 2 cm
59. Mass or dough-like produced by the sebaceous glands
found on the floor of the mouth is:
A. Ranula D. Sialothiasis.
B. dermoid cysts. E. None of these.
C. Ludwig’s angina.
60. Grayish yellow pseudomembrane with punched out
interdental papilla.
A. anug.
B. Hyperplastic gingivitis.
C. Gingivofibromatosis.
D. Dilantin hypeplasia.
E. Pubertal gingivitis.
61. You are observing an orthognathic surgery in the
operating room, when the healthy patient, who is under
general anesthesia, begins to develop hypercarbia,
rigidity, elevated temperature, and tachycardia. The
anesthetist has his hands full and asks you to get the
medication that is used to treat this condition.
A. This condition is benzodiazepine overdose and
should be treated with flumenazil
B. This condition is an opioid overdose and should
be treated with naloxone
C. This condition is neuroleptic malignant syndrome
and should be treated with dantrolene
D. This condition is malignant hyperthermia and
should be treated with dantrolene
62. A compound fracture is characterized by.
A. Many small fragments.
B. An incomplete break in the bone.
C. communication with oral cavity.
D. A “start” shaped appearance.
E. Bleeding into the masticator space.
63. The surgical procedure most frequently performed to
correct a skeletal mandibular retrognathia is bilateral.
A. Body ostectomy.
B. “C” type osteotomy of the ramus.
C. sagittal split osteotomy of the ramus.
D. Horizontal osteotomy of the ramus.
64. When the uvula curtain does not rise symmetrically
when the patient says “ah”, it suggests which one of the
following cranial nerves maybe damaged?
A. Glossopharyngeal nerve.
B. Hypoglossal nerve.
C. Superior alveolar branch of the trigeminal nerve.
D. Vagus nerve.
E. None
65. A patient presents continuous, spontaneous pain
associated with the maxillary right central incisor. The
tooth has a large class V composite restoration. Cold
testing procedures lingering pain. There is no sensitivity
to percussion or palpitation. The most like diagnosis is:
A. Necrotic pulp, chronic apical periodontitis.
B. Reversible pulpitis, normal periapex.
C. Irreversible pulpitis, normal periapex.
D. Irreversible pulpitis, acute apical periodontitis.
66. A54-year-oldmalepresentswitha4-dayhistory of tooth
pain and swelling of his right mandible. Trismus of 10 mm,
odynophagia, and dysphagia findings are noted. PMH:
HTN, DM II Meds: HCTZ All: Pen VK. What is the
necessary treatment for this patient?
Page 4 | 6
 A. Incision and drainage B. Low cost of sensors
B. Antibiotic therapy with pen VK C. Increased image resolution and contrast as
C. Antibiotic therapy with clindamycin compared to D speed film
D. Incision and drainage followed by IV antibiotics D. Delayed display of images
67. Bell’s palsy is caused by injury to what cranial nerve? E. Increased ability to detect proximal carries in
A. CN V C. CN XII noncavitated teeth
B. CN VII D. CN XI 77. What are the components of a dental x-ray tube?
68. Timing of surgical repair of clefts for babies follow A. Glass envelope D. Tungsten target
“rule of 10” which means the following, except: B. Cathode E. All of the above
A. 10 months old C. Anode
B. 10 grams of hemoglobin. 78. A first-year dental student helping out in the clinic for
C. 10 lbs in body weight the first time repeatedly obtains x-rays of tooth #14 with
D. 10 weeks old
a zigzagged pattern. What could have prevented the
E. None of them.
zigzagged pattern on the radiographic image?
69. A paroxysmal and intermittent pain usually confined
A. Placing the film in correctly with the lead portion
to specific nerve branches and is most commonly present
facing the cone
in the maxillofacial region:
B. Telling the patient not to move during the
A. Neuritis. C. Paralysis.
exposure
B. Neuralgia D. None of these.
C. Bending the film less when placing in position
70. A wound resulting from tear:
D. Using the film only once instead of exposing it
A. Confusion
multiple times E. Decreasing the kilovoltage
B. Abrasion.
C. laceration 79. A periapical film of tooth #9 was obtained in
D. Penetrating wound preparation for a root canal and an initial measurement
E. Gunshot, missile and war wounds. or length of the canal was performed. After initial
71. A 33-year old female patient states that her debridement of the canal was performed, another x-ray
mandibular first molar has been hurting since the recent was captured with the initial root length measured and it
placement of an amalgam restoration. She describes the appears that the file is approximately 4 mm from the
pain as mild-to-moderate, which is not spontaneous, but apex. How could we have obtained a more accurate initial
length measurement?
is provoked by cold, heat and sweets. These symptoms
A. Increasing the vertical angulation of the cone in
most likely correspond with:
relation to the film
A. Pulp necrosis
B. Decreasing the vertical angulation of the cone in
B. Internal resorption
relation to the film
C. reversible pulpitis.
D. Irreversible pulpitis C. Decreasing the horizontal angulation of the cone
E. None of these. in relation to the film
72. High-flow 100% O2 is indicated for treating each of D. Increasing the horizontal angulation of the cone
the following types of syncope, except: in relation to the film
A. Vasovagal 80. A 17-year-old male was referred to an oral
B. Neyrogenic surgeonforextractionofanimpactedtooth#11that
C. Orthostatic islocatedinareaapicaltoteeth#10–#12, which was found
D. hyperventilation syndrome on routine x-rays. How would the oral surgeon decide as
73. Neuralgia that effects the 7th cranial nerve resulting to where the impacted tooth lay in respect to being either
to pain of the external auditory canal, auricles and soft buccal or palatal to teeth #10 and #12?
palate: A. Application of the SLOB rule
A. Tic doloureux B. Use of panoramic radiograph
B. Atypical facial neuralgia C. Towne’s view x-ray D. Water’s view x-ray
C. ramsay hunt syndrome D. Lateral head radiograph
D. Post herpertic neuralgia 81. the exposed silver salts on the emulsion film into silver
E. Vasoglossopharyngeal neuralgia metallic ions?
74. The application of microsurgical technique procedure A. Sodium carbonate D. Hydroquinone
in the treatment of maxillofacial nerve injuries are : B. Potassium bromide E. Acetic acid
A. Brain and peripheral nerve C. Sodium sulfite
B. Nerve grafting and anastomoses 82. What are the components of a developing solution?
C. Nerve decompression A. Clearing agent, antioxidant preservative,
D. Both A&C acidifier, hardener
E. Both B&C B. Developing agent, acidifier, antioxidant
75. Which of the following suture materials is classified as preservative, hardener
nonresorbable? C. Developing agent, accelerator, restrainer
A. Vicryl C. Plain gut D. Clearing agent restrainer, accelerator, acidifier
B. Chromic gut D. Nylon 83. In trying to reduce the amount of low-quality, long-
76. A general dentist has been practicing dentistry for 36 wavelength x-rays from exiting the cone, what is
years and is currently in the midst of remodeling his office. commonly added to the cone for added filtration?
He would like to switch to digital radiography. The A. Aluminum disks
following are advantages of digital radiology technique in B. Tin disks
comparison to traditional techniques except for: C. Thicker glass
A. Radiation dose reduction up to 60% D. Different color plastics

TOP RANK REVIEW ACADEMY, INC. Page 5 | 6

84. A 55-year-old female with a history of laryngeal
cancer who underwent a prolong course of radiation and
chemotherapy presents with pain to her left mandible for
3 weeks. Patient has also noticed a white material
appearing through her mucosa. One examination,
exposed alveolar bone is noted in teeth #19–#21 area
and no erythema or purulence noted in the area. Teeth
#19–#21 are without decay. What is likely the first choice
in treatment?
A. Antibiotics
B. Daily sodium peroxide rinses
C. Hyperbaric oxygen therapy
D. Extraction of teeth #19–#21
E. Resection of left mandible with reconstruction
F. Saline rinses
85. The extraction of which of the following is most
difficult in maxillary arch?
A. First premolar C. Lateral incisor
B. Canine D. Second premolar
86. Restoring bone bulk by placing bone grafts to enlarge
denture bearing areas for denture retention is referred
to as
A. Vestibuloplasty C. Sulcoplasty
B. Alveoloplasty D. Ridge augmentation
87. Which is the BEST treatment for pericoronitis involving
an impacted mandibular third molar?
A. Extraction of the involved third molar
B. Antibiotic and analgesic therapy
C. Operculectomy
D. Gentle application of the heat and cold
simultaneously
88. Which of the following is NOT a relative
contraindication for routine elective oral surgery?
A. Hemophilia
B. Unstable cardiac angina
C. Chronic sinusitis
D. History of head and neck radiation
89. What healing response is characterized by restitution
of new tissue that is structurally and functionally
indistinguishable from old tissue?
A. Refraction C. Regrowth
B. Regeneration D. Repair
90. From the list of classifications of impacted teeth
below, which one(s) must always involve both bone
removal and sectioning during the surgical procedure?
A. Mesioangular impaction
B. Horizontal impaction
C. Vertical impaction
D. A and B only
E. A, B, and C
91. In an attempted venipuncture, each of the following
indicates accidental intra-arterial injection except one.
Which one is this exception?
A. The needle moves with pulsation action
B. A vessel tends to collapse and obstruct
C. Aspirated blood is bright red in color
D. Injection of a small test dose of the agent is
acutely painful
E. Penetration of a vessel meets resistance and is
painful
92. Which of the following does not represent a possible
finding of severe infection?
A. Trismus
B. Drooling
C. Difficult or painful swallowing
D. Swelling and induration with elevation of the
tongue
E. A temperature of 99˚ F
TOP RANK REVIEW ACADEMY, INC.
93. Which of the following is not a vital part of the physical
exam for patients with TMJ complaints?
A. Soft-tissue symmetry
B. Joint tenderness and sounds
C. Soft-palate length
D. Range of motion of the mandible
E. Teeth
94. Which of the following is considered the highest and
most severe classification of maxillary fracture?
A. LeFort I C. LeFort III
B. LeFort II D. LeFort IV
95. Which of the following is not a relative
contraindication for routine, elective oral surgery?
A. Unstable cardiac angina
B. History of head and neck radiation
C. Chronic sinusitis
D. Hemophilia
96. Which of the following is true regarding
temporomandibular disorders?
A. The primary treatment for the majority of
patients with facial pain is TMJ surgery.
B. Disc displacement without reduction can cause a
decrease in interincisal opening.
C. Myofascial pain is commonly related to
parafunctional habits, but not commonly related
to stress.
D. Systemic arthritic conditions do not affect the TMJ
because it is not a weight-bearing joint.
97. Which of the following does not represent a fascial
space for the spread of infection?
A. Superficial temporal space
B. Pterygomandibular space
C. Masseteric space
D. Rhinosoteric space
E. Submental space
98. From the list of classifications of impacted teeth
below, which one(s) must always involve both bone
removal and sectioning during the surgical procedure?
A. Mesioangular impaction
B. Horizontal impaction
C. Vertical impaction
D. A and B only
E. A, B, and C
99. Which of the following does not represent a possible
finding of severe infection?
A. Trismus
B. Drooling
C. Difficult or painful swallowing
D. Swelling and induration with elevation of the
tongue
E. A temperature of 99˚ F
100. You are performing a 5-year follow-up on a 43-year-
old implant patient. When comparing radiographs you
estimate that there has been almost 0.1 mm loss of bone
height around the implant since it was placed. Which of
the following is indicated?
A. Removal of the implant and replacement with a
larger size implant.
B. Removal of the implant to allow healing before
another one can be placed 4 months later.
C. Remaking the prosthetic crown because of
tangential forces on the implant.
D. The implant is doing well; this amount of bone
loss is considered acceptable.
Page 6 | 6