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欐掣垨掣

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 Section A 4. In a cavity preparation the cavosurface
margin will be the junction between
Choose the best answer:-
A. Cavity wall/floor and adjacent tooth
1. Hand cutting instruments are composed surface
of
B. Cavity wall and floor
A. Handle and neck
C. Floor of ocllusal box and approximal box
B. Handle and blade only
D. Approximal wall of one tooth with
C. Handle, shank and blade another
D. Handle neck and shank E. Axial wall & occlusal floor
E. Handle neck, shank and blade 5. Diamonds are superior to burs in cutting
2. Use of water spray during cutting A. Cementum
procedures has the following advantages
B. Dentine
A. Dehydration of oral tissues
C. Enamel
B. Tooth, restorative material & other debris
are carried away D. Soft tissues

C. Pulp is protected from heat E. Caries

D. Clean view of the cavity can be achieved 6. Instruments used for handling resins are
made from
E. Bacterial contamination controlled
A. Stainless steel
3. Senile carious lesion are most commonly
found exclusively on the following areas of B. Carbon steel
teeth C. Teflon coated metal
A. Pits and fissures D. Platanium
B. Occlusal incisial & facial embrasures E. Gold
C. Inclined planes of cusps 7. Toilet of a cavity
D. Root surfaces of teeth A. Is removal of debris by washing with
E. Interdental surfaces water

B. removal of debris by cold air spray

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C. removal of debris by hot air spray
D. Washing the cavity with soap solution
E. Washing the cavity with medicament
8. Most common fracture occurring in
amalgam restoration is seen at
A. Cavosurface margin
B. The contact area
C. The isthmus area
D. Proximal box
E. Gingival floor
9. The recommended concentration of
Fluoride in communal water supply is
A. 0.1 p.p.m
B. 0.5 p.p.m
11. What is the best predictor of success for
a composite resin restoration?
A. Depth of restoration
B. Size of the restoration
C. Presence of enamel in the entire
periphery
D. Presence of flat dentinal walls
12. Generally Glass Ionomer Cements
contain
A. Zinc oxide and distilled water
B. Floro-aluminu phosphate powder and
orthophosphoric acid
C. Zinc oxide & Polyaccrylic acid
D. Fluoro alumino Silicate powder &
polyaccrylic acid

C. 1.0 p.p.m 13. The PH of ZOE cement is

D. 2.0 p.p.m A. Near 1

E. 5.0 p.p.m B. Near 10

10. When using ultra high speed cutting C. Near 3

instruments the heat generated is related
D. Near 7
to all of the following EXCEPT
14. When mixing zinc phosphate cement a
A. Duration of cutting
cool glass slab is used to
B. Size of the bur
A. Decrease the working time by retarding
C. Speed of the bur the exothermic reaction

C. sharpness of bur B. Decrease the working time by

accelerating the exothermic reaction
D. Existing pulp pathology

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C. Increase the working time by retarding
the exothermic reaction
D. Decrease the working time by
accelerating the exothermic reaction
15. Which of the following is used as both a
restorative agent and cement
A. Zinc polycarboxylate
B. Zinc Phosphate
C. Zinc oxide Eugenol
D. Glass Ionomer cement
16. The main function of liners is to
A. Act as thermal insulators
B. Provide a barrier against chemical
irritation
C. Produce a structural form for the cavity
preparation
D. Resist forces applied during condensation
of the restorative material
17. Chronic caries is characterize by all of
the following EXCEPT
A. Common in adults
B. Extrinsic pigmentation
C. Slow progressing or arrested
D. Pain is common
18. Which of the following is formed in
large quantities after the degradation of
sucrose by Strepeococcus mutans
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A. Acetic Acid
B. Lactic Acid
C. Butyric Acid
D. Propionic acid
19. Which of the following is not an
essential factor in the initiation of a carious
lesion
A. Susceptible host (tooth)
B. Microflora with cariogenic potential
(plaque)
C. Saliva
D. Suitable substrate (dietary carbohydrates)
20. All of the following statements are true
concerning posterior composite ECXEPT
A. Posterior composite are frequently
indicated in the treatment of occlusal
lesions which allow conservative
preparations
B. Posterior composite restorations are
contraindicated with a patient that has
heavy occlusion (bruxism)
C. Posterior composite are indicated for
cusp replacement as long as a dry operating
field can be maintained
D. Posterior composites maybe indicated for
restoration for class II cavities in premolar
teeth where the appearance is very
important, the cavity margins are in the
enamel, and the occlusal contacts are in the C. Polyaccrylic acid
enamel
D. Tartaric acid
21. Composite filler particle function to do
25. What is the blade width with an
all of the following EXCEPT
instrument that has he following formula
A. Increase the coefficient of thermal 10-85-8-4
expansion
A. 10 mm
B. Increase the tensile strength and the
B.1.0 mm
compressive strength
C. 0.85 mm
C. Reduce the polymerization shrinkage
D. 0.80 mm
D. Increase the hardness
26. Chisels are used to cut primarly
E. Improve the wear resistance
A. Dentine
22. Which restorative material has the
lowest conductivity and diffusivity B. Enamel

A. Amalgam C. Cementum

B. Gold D. Amalgam

C. Unfilled resin 27. All of the following are parts of a dental

bur except
D. Filled resin
A. Shank
23. A properly etched enamel surface
appears B. Shoulder

A. Somewhat yellow in color C. Head

B. Identical to unetched enamel D. neck

C. Dull white and chalky 28. The two most quoted disadvantages of
using a rubber dam includes
D. Slightly grey with a shine
A. Time consumption & Patient objection
24. Enamel is etched with
B. Cost & staff allergies to the material
A. Maelic acid
C. Time consumption & staff allergies to the
B. Phosphoric acid
material

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D. Patient objection & Cost
29. After placing the rubber dam which
isolated the six maxillary upper anterior
teeth, the dentist observed an usual
amount of wrinkling of the rubber dam
between the isolated teeth this wrinkling is
a result of
A. The holes that where punched were too
small
B. The holes that were punched were too
close together
C. The holes that were punched were too far
apart
D. Crowding and overlapping of the anterior
teeth
30. The major factor for selecting teeth for
sealant application is
A. Age
B. Caries risk
C. Family history
D. Health status
31. Studies have shown that incipient
carious lesions__________ after sealant
placement
A. Progressively get bigger
B. Are arrested
C. Spread rapidly into the interproximal area
D. Remain the same
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32. Which of the following is defined as the
form of the cavity preparation that aid the
operator in preparing, placing or finishing a
restoration
A. Retention form
B. Resistance form
C. Convenience form
33. The outline form of a cavity is defined
as
A. The form the cavity takes to resist the
forces of mastication
B. That form the cavity takes to resist
dislodgment or displacement
C. The shape or form of the cavity on the
surface of the tooth
D. The shape or form the preparation
assumes after the retention form has been
completed
34. The brief but sharp electrical sensation
one can receive when two dissimilar metals
come into contact in the mouth is called
A. Electromagnetic pulse
B. Alternating current corrosion
C. Electrolytic explosion
D. Galvanic shock
35. Which cavity can involve any tooth,
anterior or posterior
A. Class I, Class V and Class VI
B. Class I, Class III and Class V 39. Which of the following factors tends to
decrease the setting expansion of amalgam?
C. Class III, Class VI and Class VI
A. Increasing the trituration time
D. Class III, Class IV and Class V
B. Increasing the amount of mercury in the
E. Class IV, Class V and Class VI
mix
36. The ideal amount of dentine required
C. Increasing the silver content of the alloy
between an amalgam restoration and the
pulp for insulation is D. Increasing the zinc content of the alloy

A. 0.5mm 40. The site of two retention grooves

commonly used in Class V amalgam are
B. 1.0 mm
A. Incisioaxial line angle & Mesioaxial line
C. 2.0 mm
angle
D. 3.0 mm
B.Distoaxial line angle and Gingivoaxial line
37. The amount of mercury remaining in a angle
set amalgam restoration is related to
C. Mesioaxial line angle and Gingivoaxial line
A. How much silver- tin matrix is in the angle
amalgam before condensation B. How much
D. Incisioaxial line angle & Distoaxial line
zinc is in the amalgam allow
angle
C. How much tin is in the amalgam alloy
E. Incisioaxial line angle & Gingivoaxial line
D. How much of the mercury- rich matrix is angle
left in the amalgam after condensation
41. Delayed expansion of amalgam is
38. The position for the gingival margin in a associated with two factors
class II amalgam restoration is dictated
A. Insufficient tirturation and condensation
primarily by
B. High residual mercury
A. Aesthetics
C. The contamination of amalgam during
B. The extent of the carious lesion
tirturation and condensation
C. The tooth being restored
D. Both A & B are correct
D. The thickness of the enamel
E. Both A & C are correct

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42. How is mercury content generally 45. Which tooth requires special attention
manifestated in the clinical amalgam when preparing the occlusal aspect for a
restoration? restoration?

A. By tissue irritation adjacent to the A. Mandibular first premolar

restoration
B. Mandibular second premolar
B. By severe marginal breakdown
C. Mandibular first premolor
C. By delayed expansion
D. Maxillary second premolar
D. By increased thermal shock resulting from
46. What is the proper amount of time to
hot and cold foods
wait until an amalgam restoration can be
43. The _________ Line angle is beveled to finished and polished
reduce concentration of stresses in when
A. 2hours
preparing a class II amalgam restoration
B. 12 hours
A. Axiobuccal
C. 24-48 hours
B. Axiolingual
D. Makes no difference
C. Axiopulpal
47. Which of the following statements in
D. None of the above
reference to amalgam is false?
44. Beveling the ginigival cavosurface
A. Increased tirturaton time will increase the
margin of the proximal box of class II
compressive strength and decrease setting
amalgam preparation on an a permanent
expansion
tooth
B.A decrease in particle size will decrease
A. Should result in a long bevel
the compressive strength and increase
B. Is contraindicated because of low-edge setting expansion
strength of amalgam
C. Increased condensation pressure will
C. Should remove unsupported enamel increase compressive strength and decrease
which may fracture setting expansion

D. Unnecessary since the tooth structure in 48. An occlusal cavosurface bevel is

this area is strong contraindicated in the cavity preparation
for an amalgam restoration. It is important

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to provide a ___________ cavosurface
angle

A. 45˚

B.60˚

C. 90˚

D. 120˚

49. In a conventional class I composite

preparation, retention is achieved by which
of the following features

A. Occlusal convergence

B. Occlusal Bevel

C. Retention grooves

D. Bonding

E. Both A&E are correct

F. Both A& D are correct

50. In comparison to amalgam restorations

composite restorations are

A. Stronger

B. More technique sensitive

C. More resistant to occlusal force

D. Not indicated for class II restorations

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Section B

Match the statement with the correct answer from the box below:-

G. V. BLACK CLASSIFED CARIES ACCORDING TO THEIR LOCATION INTO

1. Dental caries on proximal surfaces of incisors or canines extending to incisal

edge ( D )

2. Caries proximal of molars or premolars (B )

3. Occlusal or incisal cusp tip wear. ( F )

4. Dental caries on proximal surfaces of incisors or canines not involving incisial

edge ( C)

5. Cervical cavity (E )

6. Caries occlusal of molars or premolars ( A )

A. Class I B. Class II C. Class III D. Class IV

E. Class V F. Class VI

ZONES OF DENTINAL CARIES INCLUDE

7. Is the zone of bacterial Invasion, tubules are filled with bacteria. It is not
capable of remineralizatlon and must be removed prior to restoration.

8. Zone of demineralization created by the acid from caries. Damage to the

odontoblastic process is evident, however, no bacteria are found in this zone.
Capable of remineralization.

9. Softer than normal dentin, shows further demineralization. No bacteria are

present. Capable of remineralization.

10. Consists of decomposed dentin that is filled with bacteria. Must be totally
removed prior to restoration.

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11. Totally typical dentin with no bacteria in the tubules.

A. Zone 1 (normal dentin) B. Zone 2 (sub-transparent dentin)

C. Zone 3 (transparent dentin) D. Zone 4 (turbid dentin)

E. Zone 5 (infected dentin)

IDENTIFY DIFFRENT PARTS OF A RUBBER DAM & MATCH OCCORDING TO

THEIR FUNCTION

12. Is used to make holes in the rubber dam.

13. Used to locate the position of the teeth and determine the site that will be
punctured

14. Used to carry the clamp to the tooth.

15. Used to anchor the rubber dam to the most posterior tooth to be isolated

16. Make four point contact with the tooth.

17. Used to secure the borders of rubber dam in stretched condition

A. Forceps B. Clamp C. Frame

D. Puncture E. Stamp F. Prong

E. Rubber dam sheet

DESCRIBE THE BEST TYPE OF TOOTH PREPERATION FOR THE FOLLOWING

SITUATIONS:-

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18. Restoring a large carious lesion for which needs increased retention &/or
resistance on proximal surface of the crown of maxillary central incisior not
involving the incisial edge.E

19 Large restoration located partly on the crown and partially on the root
present on proximal surface of a maxillary canine not involving the incisial
edge.F

20. Small lesion on the proximal surface of a maxillary lateral incisor not
involving the incisal edge J

21. Small carious lesion on the facial cervical border surface of a mandibular
canine

22. Small faulty developmental pit located on a cusp tip of a mandibular first
premolarH

A. Class I B. Conventional Class III C. Conventional class IV

D. Conventional bevelled Class IV E. Conventional bevelled Class III

F. Combination of Conventional & bevelled Conventional Class III

G. Combination of Conventional & bevelled Conventional Class IV

H. Class VI I. Modified Class IV J. Modified Class III

MATCH THE INSTRUMENT ACCORDING TO THE FOLLOWING DESCRIPTION

23. Has the cutting edge of the blade directed in the same plane as that of the
long axis of the handle and is bi-beveled. Used on anterior teeth for preparing
retentive areas and sharpening internal line angles.

24. Has blades that are slightly curved and the cutting edges are either circular
or claw like are used for removing caries and carving amalgam or direct wax
patterns

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25. Is designed to produce a proper bevel on gingival enamel margins of
proximoocclusal preparations.

26. The teeth of the instrument are designed to make it either a push or a pull
instrument.

27. Is used principally for carving occlusal anatomy in unset amalgam

restorations

28. Used for light reflection & tissue retraction

29. Used to ddistinguish areas of discrepancies on teeth

30. Helps to carry, retrieve and place small objects

A. Cotton pliers B. Dental mirror C. Discoid cleiod

D. Dental file E. Gingival marginal trimmer F. Ordinary hatchet

G. Hoe excavator H. Spoon excavators

MATCH THE DENTAL MATERIAL GIVEN IN THE BOX BELOW TO THE

DESCRIPTION

31. This material should not be used as a base/ liner under a composite fillingA

32. This material has the ability to absorb fluoride when local ionic
concentrations are high and then release fluoride slowly when the
environmental concentration decreases.D

33. The initial mixture is highly acidic & its retention depends on mechanical
interlocking

34. Include an acid base reaction with a self amine perioxide polymerization
reaction. G

35. Reduces initial microleakage of an amalgam restoration E

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36. Is very effective in promotion of secondary dentine E

A. Zinc oxide eugenol B. Zinc Phosphate C. Zinc Polycarboxylate

D. Glass Inomer Cement E. Calcium Hydroxide F. Cavity varnish

G. Composite H. Amalgam

REGARDING THE CONSTIUENTS OF AMALGAM RESTORATION MATCH THE

STATEMENT FROM THE BOX BELOW

37. Responsible for delayed expansion zn

38. Resists tarnish & corrosion b

39. Helps in amalgamation since it has an affinity to mercury

40. Increases strength A

A. Silver B. Tin D. Mercury E. Gallium F. Copper

MATCH THE FOLLOWING TOOTH PREPERATION PRINCIPLE WITH THE FEATURE

FROM THE BOX BELOW (CAN USE OPTIONS FROM BELOW MORE THAN ONCE)

41. Flat floor C

42. Locks E

43. Converged buccal & lingual wall B

44. Occlusal dove tail B

45. Roundation of internal line angles C

46 Providing enough space for restorative material C

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47. Capping weak cuspsE

A. Outline form B. Primary retention C. Primary resistance

D. Convenience form E. Secondary Retention & Resistance

MINIMUM THICKNESS FOR RESTORATION TO WITHSTAND FRACTURE

48._____1.5_____________ for amalgam

49.__________1-2__________for cast restorations

50. _____________A_________for composite

A. Undefined B. 0.5-1mm C. 1-2mm D. 2.5-3mm E. 1.5mm

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 ANSWER SHEET

SECTION A
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

4 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50

SECTION B

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

4 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50

15
 rial rial

Section 1:
Choose the best answer:

1. Cavities beginning in the proximal surfaces of bicuspids and

molars are:
a. Class I
b. Class II
c. Class IV
d. Class VI
2. Pit and fissure caries is seen in:
a. Class I
b. Class I compound
c. Class II
d. Class II compound
3. Infected dentine shows:
a. Both organic and inorganic components in reversible form
b. Both organic and inorganic components in irreversible form
c. Organic components in irreversible form and inorganic components in reversible
form
d. Inorganic components in irreversible and organic components in irreversible form.
4. Incipient caries consists of opaque , chalky white areas that
appear when the tooth surface is dried this is referred as:
a. White spot
b. Hot spot
c. Translucent zone
d. Body of lesion
5. According to blacks classification caries on lingual pits of maxillary
central incisors are:
a. Class I
b. Class II
c. Class III
d. Class IV
6. Class ionomer cement is composed :
a. Zinc oxide powder and poly carboxylic acid
b. Zinc oxide powder and phosphoric acid
c. Aluminum silicate powder and poly carboxylic liquid
d. Aluminum silicate powder and phosphoric acid
7. Hand cutting instruments are composed of:
a. Handle and blade
b. Handle, shank and blade
c. Shank and blade
d. Handle , shank and head
8. The angle former is special type of:
a. Chisel
b. Excavator
c. Hatchet
d. Rotary instrument
9. Affected dentine differs from infected dentine in that , it has:
a. Been invaded by organisms
b. They both are precisely same
c. Not been invaded by microorganism
d. Not been demineralized
10. Proximal caries can be detected best with:
a. Intra oral periapical radiograph
b. Bitewing radiograph
c. Occlusal radiograph
d. Orthopantomographs

11. Affected dentine is to be left in cavity preparation because it:

a. Has capacity to reminerlize
 b. Hard, difficult to remove
c. Impermeable so protects pulp
d. Pain on excavation
12. Caries activity is more in persons suffering with:
a. Xerostomia
b. Parkinsonism
c. Downs syndrome
d. All of the above
13. Senile caries most frequently occurs on :
a. Proximal surface of the posterior teeth
b. Proximal surface of anterior
c. Root surface of both anterior and posterior
d. Proximal surface of both anterior and posterior
14. Dental caries result from a dynamic process of:
a. Attrition
b. Reminerlization
c. Demineralization and reminerlization
d. None of the above
15. All of the following are methods use in dental caries
diagnosis except:
a. Visual examination
b. Fine needle aspiration
c. Radiograph
d. Transillumination
16. The purpose of operative and restorative dentistry is to
restore and maintain:
a. Health of natural dentition
b. Function of natural dentition
c. Esthetic appearance
d. All of the above

17. In a system , a tooth is designated number ,46, the tooth is:

a. Permanent maxillary right first molar
b. Permanent maxillary right 2nd molar
 c. Permanent mandibular right first molar
d. Permanent mandibular left molar
18. Streptococcus mutans and lactobacilli are the primary
cariogenic organisms and are said to be :
a. Acidogenic only
b. Aciduric only
c. Both acidogenic and cariogenic
d. None of above
19. Arrested carious lesion is:
a. Discolored and remineralized
b. Intact and more resistant to caries attack than adjacent unaffected enamel
c. Not restored unless esthetically required
d. All of the above
20. Which part of tooth is least resistant to caries?
a. Surface enamel
b. Dentine
c. Dentino-enamel junction
d. Cementum
21. A bacteria not associated with caries process is :
a. Streptococcus mutans
b. Lactobacillus acidophilus
c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Actinomyces
22. Which of the following is considered one of causes of tooth
surfaces loss:
a. Trauma
b. Attrition
c. Caries
d. All of the above

23. Most effective treatment in preventing pit and fissure caries

is:
a. Local fluoride application
b. Systemic water fluoridation
 c. Pit and fissure sealants
d. Enameloplasty
24. Caries control refers to:
a. Removal of infected tooth structure
b. Medicating the teeth
c. Restoring defects with temporary material
d. All of the above
25. What is the difference between white spot of hypo-
calcification and white spot of incipient caries?
a. No difference , both are same
b. Hypocalcified spot disappears on wetting and reappears on drying while incipient
caries spot is not changed
c. Incipient caries spot partially or totally disappears visually when hydrated while
hypocalcified spot is unaffected on hydration
d. None of the above

Section 2
A. Clinical sites for caries initiation includes:
 i. ………………………………………….
ii. ……………………………………………
iii. …………………………………………….
iv. ………………………………………………

B. Role of saliva in caries prevention:

i. ……………………………………………………………
ii. ………………………………………………………………
iii. ………………………………………………………………..
iv. ………………………………………………………………….
v. ……………………………………………………………………..
 Cons exam
1- Douple inverted cone type of penetration of dental caries is seen in:
a- Smooth surface caries.
b- Pit and fissure caries.
c- Both of the above.
d- None of the above.
2- Smooth surface caries is mainly caused by:
a- Lactobacilli
b- Streptococcus mutans.
c- Actinomyces.
d- All of the above.
3- Arrested carious lesions is:
a- Discolored and remineralized.
b- Intact and more resistant to caries attack than adjacent unaffected enamel.
c- Not restored unless esthetically required.
d- All of the above.
4- Cavities that occur exclusively in posterior teeth are:
a- Class I cavities.
b- Class V cavities.
c- Class II cavities.
d- Class IV cavities.
5- which of the following is contraindicated beneath composite resins as liner/base:
a- calcium hydroxide.
b- Zinc oxide-eugenol.
c- Glass ionomer.
d- None of the above.
6- The greatest success in indirect pulp capping technique occurs in:
a- Attrited teeth.
b- Extensive carious teeth.
c- Young patients
d- Young patients with diminished pulp vascularity.
7- Cavity varnishes are film-forming solutions possessing:
a- Thermal insulating quality.
b- Semi-permiable quality.
c- Quality of not resisting microleakage.
d- All of the above.
8- The most predominant and strongest phase of the amalgam mass is:
a- Gamma 2
b- Gamma 1
c- Gamma
d- Voids.
9- Resistance to proximal displacement in a class II amalgam cavity is provided by:
a- Converging proximal walls.
b- Occlusal dovetail
c- Converging occlusal wall.
d- Gingival cavosurface bevel.
10- Which of the following is used to remove the smear layer of dentin surface:
a- Polyacrylic acid
b- EDTA
c- Tannic acid
d- All of the above.
11- The liquid system of glas ionomer restorative material is essentially:
a- Polyalkanoic acid.
b- Phosphoric acid.
c- Polyacrylic-itaconic acid.
d- None of the above.
12- An incipient carious lesion on an interproximal surface is usually located:
a- Lingual to contact area.
b- At the contact area.
c- Facial to contact area.
d- Gingival to contact area.
13- The in-office non vital bleaching technique is:
a- Walking bleach technique.
b- Power bleach technique.
c- Thermocatalytic technique.
d- Night guard technique.
14- Four root canals are most frequently found in the:
a- Mandibular first molar.
b- Maxillary first molar.
c- Maxillary second molar.
d- Maxillary third molar.
15- Lateral and accessory canals are formed due to:
a- Adherent epithelial rests.
b- Break in Hertwig's root sheath.
c- Defects in cementogenesis.
d- Dividing epithelial bridges.
16- Most useful in differentiating between an apical abcess and a periodontal abcess
would be:
a- Anaesthetic test.
b- Palpation
c- Percussion test
d- Pulp vitality test.
17- Which of the following is best barrier between a restorative material and the pulp:
a- Zinc phosphate.
b- Calcium hydroxide liner.
c- Sound dentin.
d- varnish