Centro Escolar University

School of Dentistry
Pre-Board Theoretical Examination

RESTORATIVE DENTISTRY AND COMMUNITY DENTISTRY

1. The facial embrasure form of a class IV composite restoration is best evaluated by viewing the
restoration from:: A. the incisal. B. the facial. C..the mesial and distal. D. .the gingival.

2. Pits in the occlusal surfaces of molars and premolars are generally found at the junctions: A.
marginal ridges and inclined planes B. inclined planes and cusp tips C. facial and mesial
surfaces D. developmental grooves

3. Adaptation of a matrix band to the gingival aspect of a Class II dental amalgam cavity preparation may
be most difficult in which of the following preparations? A. A DO in a mandibular second molar
B .A DO in a mandibular second premolar C. A DO in a maxillary first premolar D. A MO in a
maxillary first premolar E. A MO in a maxillary second premolar

4. Root sensitivity is overcome or reduced when the tooth reacts by formation of : A. cementum
B. hypercementosis C. dentinal tubules D. reparative dentin E. thickened periodontal
Iigament

5. Overheating an amalgam restoration during a polishing procedure may cause injury to: A.
ameloblasts B. odontoblasts C. lamina dura D. enamel cuticle

6. Which of the following is the most effective way to reduce injury to the pulp during a restorative
procedure? A..prepare the dentin with slow-speed burs B..use anesthetics without
vasoconstrictors C..minimize dehydration of the dentinal surface D..keep the
dentinal surface clean by frequent irrigation

7. Teeth are frequently hypersensitive to temperature changes following cavity preparation but later
show normal responses to temperature stimulation. This temporary pulpal hypersensitivity is due to:
A. chronic pulpitis B. trigeminal neuralgia C. occlusal traumatism D. hyperemia of the
pulp E. formation of secondary dentin

8. The pulp horns most likely to be exposed accidentally in the preparation of a Class II cavity in the
maxillary first molar are the: A. mesiobuccal and mesiolingual B. mesiolingual and
distolingual C. distolingual and distobuccal D. distobuccal and mesiobuccal

9. Direct pulp capping is indicated when there is : A. a large exposure B. pain response to cold C.
no hemorrhage from the exposure D. an accidental mechanical exposure in clean, dry field
E. all of the above

10. The least acidic environment in which demineralization of a tooth can occur has a pH of:  
A.  9.0 B.  7.0 C.  5.0 D.  3.0 E.  1.0

11. Root surface caries is most likely caused by which of the following microorganisms? A. 
Actinomyces viscosus B.  Streptococcus mutans C.  Bacteroides gingivalis D.  Veillonella
alcalescens E.  Actinobacillus ctinomycetemcomitans

12. Which of the following describes the microscopic form of the incipient pit and fissure caries in
enamel?
A. A cone-shaped lesion with the apex towards the dentinoenamel junction
B. A cone-shaped lesion with apex toward the outer surface
C. A circular-shaped lesion, open at the surface
D. A circular-shaped lesion, appearing along fissures

13. In diagnosing dental caries, the estimated mean time for progression through the tooth enamel is:
A. 3 - 6 months B. 6 months – 1 year C. 2 - 3 years D. 3 – 4 years E. 4 – 5 years

14. The type of caries that is observed around the edges of restorations is:
A. Recurrent caries B. Rampant caries C. Chronic caries. D. Acute caries.

15. Caries activity can be expected to increase in the mouth of: A. an expectant mother. B. a
lactating mother C. xerostomatic D. a rachitic. E. all of the above.
16. Erosion is chemically induced loss of tooth structure. Attrition is the physiologic wear of teeth as a
result of normal tooth to tooth contact.: A. the first statement is true, the second statement is false
B. the first statement is false, the second statement is true C. both statements are true
D. both statements are false

17. ______ results from flexure and fatigue of enamel and dentin at a location removed from the point of
loading, resulting in a wedged-shaped cervical lesion.:
A. Attrition B. Erosion C. Abrasion D. Abraction

18. Cavities on the incisal edges or the cusp tips of teeth are::
A. Class l B. Class ll C. Class lll D. Class lV E. Class Vl

19. A mesial cavity in a mandibular right second premolar is classified as a:

A. Class I B. Class II C. Class III D. Class IV E. Class V

20. Class V cavities on teeth involve: A. only the occlusal surface B. the occlusal surface and at least
one proximal surface C. the proximal surface of anterior teeth D. the incisal edge of anterior teeth E.
the gingival third of all teeth

21. Three walls of a cavity preparation meet to form a: A. line axis B. point axis C. margin
D. point angle E. line angle

22. A patient reports a serious allergic reaction to Oil of Cloves.  Which of the following cements should
be avoided? A. BIS-GMA B. glass ionomer C. phosphoric acid D. ethoxybenzoic acid
 E. Zinc oxide-eugenol

23. The width of the blade of the 6 ½ - 2 ½ -9 hoe is:

A. .5mm B. 1 mm C. 1.5 mm D. 6.5 mm E. .65 mm

24. The operating the distance from the patient's mouth to the eyes of the operator should be
approximately: A. 16" B. 12" C. 24" D. 8"

25. Bevelling of the axiopulpal line angle is always a routine procedure. A. True B. False

26. A retainerless matrix system designed for any tooth regardless of its circumference.
A. Tofflemire B. Ivory #9 C. Composi-tight D. Pallodent E. Automatrix

27. The occlusal isthmus of an MO dental amalgam restorations is more resistant to fracture if the
A. pulpal depth is 1mm B. occlusal dovetail is present C. axiopulpal line angle is rounded
D. unsupported enamel at the gingivocavosurface margin is planed

28. The axial wall of an occlusolingual amalgam preparation on maxillary molars should be in dentin
and: A. parallel to the dentinoenamel junction B. parallel to the axis of the tooth C. at an acute
angle with the pulpal floor

29. Why do you break the contact in a Class II amalgam? A. to allow matrix band to be placed properly
B. to obtain good contact between adjacent teeth C. to place restoration in self-cleansing area D. to
allow instrumentation

30. A bevel is contraindicated on the cavosurface angles of a Class I dental amalgam cavity preparation.
Which of the following best explains why? A. this type of margin is prone to microleakage B. the
cavosurface bevel makes burnishing more difficult C. a thin flange of the amalgam restorative
material might fracture D. as the tooth undergoes natural attrition, the amalgam margin can abrade

31. When doing a Class II amalgam preparation the direction of the buccal and lingual proximal walls in
an occlusal gingival direction is determined by: A. the direction of the enamel rods. B. Achieving even
access with the adjacent tooth. C. The contour and alignment of the adjacent tooth. D. the gingival
extension of the preparation. E. Meeting the gingival wall creating a sharp angle.

32. Which of the following weakens dental amalgam? A. Zinc in the alloy B. Copper in the alloy
C. High condensation pressure D. High final mercury content

33. The most common cause of overhangs on a Class II amalgam restoration is A. improper cavity
preparation B. expansion of the alloy after placement C. improper contouring and placement of the
matrix band and the wedge D. excessive condensation of amalgam the into proximal segment E.
none of the above

34. In applying a posterior matrix, the lesser circumference of the band should be placed:
A. lingually B. occlusally C. gingivally

35. A wooden wedge is used with a matrix band to: A. make the band taut B. retract the gingiva
C. give shape to the restoration D. force the band against the tooth
E. keep the matrix band retainer away from the gingiva

36. Which of the following is most likely to cause delayed expansion in an amalgam restoration
containing zinc? A. Heavy condensation B. Excess mercury in the mix C. Overtrituration of the
amalgam D. Contamination by moisture during manipulation

37. The primary reason for polishing an amalgam restoration is to : A. increase esthetics B. reduce
surface irregularities C. remove excess surface mercury D. adapt the amalgam to open cavity
margins

38. Rationale given for polishing amalgam in a wet field includes which of the following? A. Reducing
heat B. Improving the luster C. Removing surface mercury D. Preventing marginal fracture E.
Reducing air-borne particulate matter

39. List the following in the proper sequence in restoring a Class lll composite restoration:
1.Rubber dam isolation 2.Tooth preparation 3.Shade selection 4.Bonding and finishing of the
restoration : A.1, 2, 3, 4 B.3, 2, 1, 4 C.2, 3, 1, 4 D.3, 1, 2, 4

40. Each of the following determines the outline form for Class III composite restoration EXCEPT one.
Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. convenience for access B. extension for prevention
C. size, shape, and location of caries

41. When restoring a tooth with resin material, acid etching can do all of the following except
A. Increase the surface area B. Permit chemical bonding between resin and enamel
C. Create surface irregularities in enamel for better mechanical retention of resin.
D. Condition the tooth surface for better wetting.

42. Radio opacity of composite resins is achieved by the addition of : A. Borax B. Barium and
strontium glasses . C Small amount of lead and carbon D. Rare earthmetallic oxides

43. When over drying a cavity prep, which of the following effects will it have on the dentin?
A. decreases bonding strength B. increases bonding strength C. breaks down collagen in dentin

44. Where is recurrent decay most seen in Class II composite? A. facioproximal B. linguoproximal
C. gingivoproximal D. occlusal

45. When doing a casting preparation a base is used to: A. increase the retention and resistance of the
preparation. B. decrease the amount of metal in the final restoration. C. block out undercuts
D. reduce thermal sensitivity E. 2, 3, & 4

46. The axial walls in an MOD cavity preparation for a cast gold onlay should: A. form acute angles with
pulpal wall B. form acute angles with the proximal walls C. diverge from the gingival walls to the pulpal
wall D. converge from the gingival walls to the pulpal wall

47. You do all the following for a composite inlay preparation except: A. divergent internal walls
B. cavosurface margin bevel C. retentive grooves and boxes D. all the margins finished in sound
enamel

48. For an onlay preparation, which of the following is the most effective means for verifying adequate
occlusal clearance? A. wax bite chew-in B. proper depth cuts C. visual inspection
D. articulating paper

49. After a wax pattern is formed, the resulting casting will be more accurate if the pattern is
A. invested immediately B. kept in a refrigerator C. kept at room temperature D. immersed in room-
temperature water before investing

50. Which is the most common reason for the failure of a casting to seat? A. deficient margins
B. overextended margins C. proximal contacts D. buccal overcontouring
51. Reason why a planner should conduct a needs assessment:
A. to evaluate the effectiveness of the program B. to define the problem
C. to obtain a profile of the community D. a & c E. all of the above

52. It determines the direction of the program will take.

A. socio-economic structure of the community B. politics of the community
C. median income of the community D. program planning E. none of the above

53. Information relevant to population and community may come from:

A. survey B. observation C. communication D. a & c E. all of the above

54. Number of dentists providing care. : A. politics of the community B. median income of the
community C. labor data D. health care facilities E. none of the above

55. To gather information on a population, a population profile should be obtained.

Such profile includes the ff. except A. ethnic background B. rate of growth
C. diet and nutritional levels D. all of the above E. none of the above

56. To evaluate the effectiveness of the program, it is accomplished through the ff. except:
A. obtaining baseline information B. measuring the amount of progress achieved in
solving the specific problem C. investigate surveys that have been done in the past
by other organization D. all of the above E. none of the above

57. Constraints that are commonly occurring in a community dental program are the ff. except:
A. lack of funds B. labor shortages C. adequate facilities D. all of the above E. none of the
above

58. In the development of program goals and objectives, consider the ff. except:
A. nature of the situation B. scope and magnitude of the situation
C. geographic areas of the program D. all of the above E. none of the above

59. Cost and amount of time expended to complete the job.

A. appropriateness B. effectiveness C. adequacy D. efficiency E. efficacy

60. Describes how the objectives will be accomplished. A. outcome objectives B. program goal
C. program objective D. procedural objective E. program activities

61. Denotes how capable the resources in completing job.

A. appropriateness B. effectiveness C. adequacy D. efficiency E. efficacy

62. Provide a means by which to quantitatively measure the outcome of the specific objective.
A. outcome objective B. program goals C. program objective
D. procedural objective E. program activities

63. Method of imposing peoples values and judgments of what is important on the raw data.
A. limited resources B. allocation C. priority determination D. a & c E. none of the
above

64. Sources of information relevant to the population and the community may come from: A. local state
B. federal agencies C. private organizations D. all of the above E. none of the above

65. Fluorosis on Cavite. : A. creation of the plan B. program planning

C. design of SOP D. problem solving E. none of the above

66. All are criteria in resource identification except:

A. appropriateness B. efficacy C. adequacy D. effectiveness E. efficiency

67. Components of program activities are the ff except:

A. When it will be done? B. Who will be doing it? C. What is going to be done?
D. How it will be done? E. none of the above

68. The program objectives should specify the ff. except:

A. when B. who C. what D. how E. none of the above

69. Implementation process involves the ff. except:

A. individuals B. organizations C. community D. evaluation E. none of the above
70. Evaluation allows us to: A. measure the progress of the activity B. measure the effectiveness
of each activity C. plan revision D. a & c E. all of the above

71. A program’s success is determined by: A. implementation B. evaluation C. monitoring D.

identifying constraints E. all of the above

72. A decision about a course of action. A. planning B. organizing C. recording D. implementing

E. budgeting

73. It involves the identification and resolution of a problem. A. program planning B. creation of a
plan C. problem solving planning D. design of SOP E. none of the above

74. This describes selecting the best alternative to achieve a desired goal when the amount of
resources is limited. A. problem solving B. creation of a plan C. program planning D. planning
for the allocation of resources E. all of the above

75. The planner wants to interview a small group of individuals on their attitudes and feelings about a
particular issue. A. clinical exam B. personal communication C. data D.
questionnaires E. observation

76. The Magna Carta of Public Health Workers:

A. R.A. 4419 B. R.A. 7305 C. R.A. 7530 D. R.A. 572 E. None of the above

77. The public health workers are: A. persons engaged in health & health-related work
B. employed in the hospital, clinic and other related establishment owned by the gov’t or political
subdivision C. includes medical, allied health professionals, administrative & support personnel
employed regardless of their employment status D. all of the above E. none of the above

78. The effectivity date of the Magna Carta of Public Health workers: A. April 26, 1992 B. March
26,1992 C. April 17, 1992 D. March 17, 1992 E. Jan. 28, 1992

79. The Magna Carta of Public Health workers was approved last: A. April 26, 1992 B. March 26,
1992 C. April 17, 1992 D. March 17, 1992 E. Jan. 28, 1992

80. The ff are the values to be adopted by a public health workers: A. just B. human C. service to
mankind D. a&b E. all of the above

81. The ff are aims of the Magna Carta for Public Health Workers except: A. to promote &
improve the social economic well being B. to develop the skills & capabilities C. to engage those
with proper qualifications & excellent abilities to join D. a&c E. none of the above

82. The ff are the duties & obligations of public health workers except: A. discharge their duty with
dignity B. discharge their duty with conscience C. perform their duty with utmost respect for life
D. discharge their duty humanely E. none of the above

83. General principles of public health workers are the ff. except: A. service to mankind B. maintain
honorable tradition of the health and medical profession C. continually seeks to improve & develop
themselves D. b&c E. none of the above

84. Magna Carta of Public Health Workers was a consolidation of Senate Bill 3592 & House Bill 1369.
A. True B. False

85. Magna Carta was enacted during the Congress Assembly. A. True B. False

86. One of the dimensions of primary health care that tends to help the people to have a healthy and
productive life especially those who are in need. A. as an approach B. as a service C. as a
structure of the health system D. as a promotion for intersectoral action E. all of the above

87. One of the elements of primary health care. A. sanitation and safe water supply B. security
system C. safety and protection D. strengthening intersectoral collaboration E. none of the above

88. One of the supportive factors of primary health care program. A. research B. resource
mobilization C. rehabilitative services D. referrals for treatment E. reduced incidence of
diseases
89. The ff. is the conceptual framework of primary health care except: A. combination of socio-
economic and biological factors B. training and health manpower development C. control and
prevention of health problems D. needs for intersectoral linkages E. none of the above

90. The primary objective of primary health care is…. A. to be fully integrated with community
development project B. to utilize appropriate techniques C. to define its strategy to achieve its
commitment and mutually support each other D. to promote basic community services thru
public health care in all communities E. to promote maximum community participation

91.Indicates quantified change from existing levels of occurrence. A. activity target B. evaluation
indicator C. linkages D. approaches E. disease target

92. It intends to solve the status of the program. A. name of the program B. basis of the program C.
objective D. condition target E. service targets

93. It is the technical arm of the sectoral planning organ. A. advisory component B. service
component C. technology D. efficiency criterion E. value criterion

94. The art and science of preventing disease through organized community efforts.
A. community heath B. community oral health program C. public health activity
D. all of the above E. none of the above

95. Community dentistry is a science offering services, which are _________ in nature.
A. preventive B. promotive C. educative D. a&b E. a&c

96. Percentage of the population that should retain all the teeth at the age 18. (FDI Global Goals)
A.25% B. 65%C. 85% D. 50% E. 30%

97. General types of program except:

A. health education B. field of operation C. direct service D. technology E. none of the
above

98. The medium term planning should be accomplished within

A. 3 yrs. B. annually C. biannually D. 2 months E. none of the above

99. Nutritional disposal, food establishments, transportation, community education and housing are the
factors under: A. health-related socio-economic B. health status C. population analysis D.
health resource analysis E. none of the above

100. The ff: are problems of insufficient coverage and inadequate quality of care except:
A. motivation B. policy C. manpower D. technology E. budget