Centro Escolar University

School of Dentistry
PRE-BOARD THEORETICAL EXAMINATION

RESTORATIVE DENTISTRY AND COMMUNITY DENTISTRY

Shade AE if the answer is not in the given choices.

1. Isolating the proximal enamel is known as:

A. ditching B. pitching C. undercutting D. overcutting

2. Special attention is given to matrix application for the insertion of amalgam in an MO cavity in a
maxillary first premolar because of:
A. length of lingual cusp
B. restoration being on the esthetic zone
C. concavity on the cervical third of the mesial surface of the crown
D. faciolingual width of the mesial marginal ridge of the tooth

3. Which of the following is the weakest phase of the set amalgam?

A. beta-2 B. gamma C. gamma-1 D. gamma-2

4. Long molecules composed principally of nonmetallic elements that are chemically bonded by
covalent bonds:
A. metals B. ceramics C. polymers D. composites E. none

5. The ideal cavosurface margin for an indirect composite inlay is:

a. less than 90 degrees C. 90 degrees
b. more than 90 degrees D. between 90-100 degrees E. between 80-90 degrees.

6. Indirect composites is superior to porcelain for intracoronal posterior esthetic restorations for the
following reasons, except:
a. decrease polymerization shrinkage D. less wear on opposing tooth structures
b. easier to polish if adjusted E. lower bulk fracture rates
c. better marginal adaptation

7. Butt joint margins are recommended in an indirect composite inlay preparation for the following
reasons, except:
a. beveled margins remove less tooth structures
b. thin beveled margins can break off during sealing
c. beveled margins are more likely to fracture under occlusal force
d. beveled margins are more difficult to prepare in the mouth.
e. Beveled margins are more difficult to finish in the lab.

8. The following are fillers used for composite resins, except:

A. quartz C. amorphous silica
B. fluoride containing fluorosilicates D. aluminum oxide E. barium, strontium

9. Which plaque communities in high concentrations can produce a sufficiently low pH enough to
cause demineralization of teeth?
A. mutans streptococci B. S. sanguis C. lactobacillus D. A. viscosus E. both A & C.

10. Probably the most important organisms in the initiation of enamel caries:
A. mutans streptococci B. S. sanguis C. lactobacillus D. A. viscosus E. both A & C.

11. Most likely organism to initiate root caries:

A. mutans streptococci B. S. sanguis C. lactobacillus D. A. viscosus E. both A & C.

12. Two thirds of enamel has a right angled cavosurface angle and butt joint between amalgam and
tooth surface.
A. Partial bevel B. Long bevel C. Butt joint D. Concave bevel

13. Entire enamel beveled at 70 degree to cavite wall.

A. Partial bevel B. Long bevel C. Butt joint D. Concave bevel
14. Right angled cavosurface angle
A. Partial bevel B. Long bevel C. Butt joint D. Concave bevel

15. One-half of enamel wall at 40 degree to cavity wall.

A. Partial bevel B. Long bevel C. Butt joint D. Concave bevel

16. Cavity varnish functions in which of the following ways in the amalgam restoration?
I, Improves marginal seal
II, Prevents discoloration of dentin
III, Provides thermal protection
IV, Has a direct medicinal benefit to pulpal tissue
V, Prevents acid penetration to the pulp from cements
A. I & II only B. I, II & V C. I, III, IV & V D. II, III & IV E. all of the choices

17. Which of the following solutions is used to etch enamel when using the acid etch technique with
composite resins?
A. 50% silicophosphoric acid C. 37% phosphoric acid in water
B. 75% phosphoric acid in waterD. 25% hydrofluoric acid in a buffer

18. Three essential factors for the initiation of a carious lesion are:
A. bacteria, polysaccharides and enamel
B. bacteria, suitable substrate and susceptible tooth
C. proteolytic bacteria, easily fermentable carbohydrate and susceptible tooth
D. lactobacilli, suitable substrate and dental lamella

19. A marginal ridge wall in a prepared cavity for amalgam is:

A. at right angles to the pulpal floor
B. parallel to the long axis of the tooth
C. at an obtuse angle to the pulpal floor
D. determined by the extent of the fissures of the central groove

20. The distal wall in an MO cavity on a mandibular second premolar is:

A. at right angles to the pulpal floor
B. parallel to the long axis of the tooth
C. at an obtuse angle to the pulpal floor
D. determined by the extent of the fissures of the central groove

21. Have less well-defined margins, tends to be U-shaped in cross section, and progress more rapidly
due to lack of protection from an enamel covering:
A. Smooth surface lesion B. root surface lesion C. pit and fissure lesion D. all of these

22. Regions characterized by alternating phases of high and low mineralization activity:
A. line of Pickerel B. perikymata ridges C. striae of Retzius D. enamel rods

23. Can be observed clinically as intact, but discolored, usually brown or black spots.
A. incipient caries B. arrested caries C. remineralized caries D. both A & C E. both B & C.

24. This phenomenon proposes that flexure of the tooth at the cervical margin while under load is
responsible for the progressive breakdown of the brittle dental tissues..
A, Erosion B. attrition C. Abrasion D. abfraction E. both B & D

25. In a class 2 prepared cavity for dental amalgam, the facial and lingual proximal walls should be
formed:
A. approximately parallel with each other
B. at right angles to the gingival floor
C. slightly diverging as the walls approach the proximal surface
D. slightly diverging as the walls approach the occlusal surface.

26. The microorganism most commonly associated with root surface caries is:
A. Actinomyces viscosus C. Streptococcus salivarius
B. Streptococcus mutans D. Lactobacillus acidophilus

27. The ability of the handpiece to withstand lateral pressure on the revolving tool without decreasing its
speed or reducing its cutting efficiency is called:
A. vibration B. torque C. amplitude D. heat production E. pressure
28. Prevention form of the proximal portion of an incipient class 2 amalgam considers the final position
of the cavosurface margin. The single most controlling factor is:
A. enamel thickness
B. marginal ridge-cavosurface margin
C. gingival extent of caries
D. relationship with the approximating tooth surfaces

29. Retention grooves in the proximal box of a class 2cavity prepared for amalgam should be:
A. elongated and rounded in dentin at facioaxial and linguoaxial line angles extending from
the gingival floor to the axiopulpal line angle
B. sharp and well defined , extending from the gingival floor to the occlusal cavosurface angle along
facial and lingual line angle
C. sharp and elongated at the DEJ of facial and lingual walls
D. short and rounded at DEJ of facial and lingual walls

30. Pitted amalgam margins in a class 2 amalgam may be caused by:

A. poor cavity preparation C. overcarving the amalgam
B. inadequate lateral condensation D. improper finishing procedure.

31. Used in preparing depth gauge grooves on a cusp that needs capping:
A. # 169L B. # 271 C. flame shaped diamond bur D. paper disc.

32. Capping of cusp/s should be considered for an onlay restoration when:

A. occlusal outline is extended up to the cusp slopes more than ¼ the distance from the primary
grooves to the cusp tip
B. occlusal outline is extended up to the cusp slopes more than 2/3 the distance from the primary
grooves to the cusp tip
C. occlusal outline is extended up to the cusp slopes more than ½ the distance from the
primary grooves to the cusp tip
D. occlusal outline is extended up to the cusp slopes more than 1/3 the distance from the
primary grooves to the cusp tip

33. Cast metal restorations are indicated for which of the following conditions?
A. when extension of the mesiodistal dimension of the tooth is necessary to form a contact with an
adjacent tooth.
B. presence of fracture lines in enamel and dentin
C. large proximo-occlusal caries but the facial and facial tooth surfaces are relatively non-carious.
D. presence of facial and lingual smooth surface caries in addition to the carious occlusal
and proximal surfaces.
E, a molar that is treated endodontically.

34. The following are the reasons in preparing the secondary flare for an onlay restorations, except:
A. extends margins to embrasures making margins more self-cleansing
B. making margins more accessible to finishing procedures
C. conserve enamel
D. direction of flare results to 40-degree marginal metal which is burnishable.
E. a more blunted and stronger enamel is produced
.
35. The amount of gingival-to-occlusal divergence for an unusually short vertical wall for an inlay/onlay
tooth preparation is
A. maximum of 5 degrees C. minimum of 5 degrees
B. maximum of 2 degrees D. minimum of 2 degrees

36. The following are the advantages of cast metal inlay/onlays, except:
A. higher chair time D. biocompatible to soft tissues
B. high compressive and tensile strength E. low wear
C. control of contours and contact is easy to achieved.

37. The following are indications for cast metal restoration, except:
A. teeth at risk for fracture C. large restorations
B. High caries rate D. endodontically treated tooth
E. diasteama closure & occlusal plane correction

38. The ffg are true about skirt preparations, except:

A. eliminates chances of post restorative fracture
B. primarily an extracoronal restoration
 C. prepared in dentin
D. braces the tooth against forces that might split the tooth
E. satisfy retention and resistance form requirements.

39. This theory suggest that caries results from a shift in the balance of the resident microflora driven by
modifications in local environment conditions.
A. Non specific plaque hypothesis C. Ecological plaque hypothesis
B. Specific plaque hypothesis

40. These are biological factors that act directly on the biofilm:
I. saliva II. Diet III. Lifestyle IV. Fluoride V. socioeconomic status
A. I, II, III & IV B. I,II, III & V C. I, II & IV D. I, II & V E. I, II & III

41. Involves the occlusal and proximal surface/s of a posterior tooth and may cap one or more but not all
the cusps.
A. amalgam restorations C. cast inlay restoration
B. pin-retained restorations D. cast onlay restoration

42. Defined as the total complex formed when pellicle adheres to the tooth surface and becomes
populated with bacteria and their extracecullar products.
A, Plaque B. biofilm C. oral biofilm D. both A & B E. all of them

43. Most commonly used modification in an onlay preparation for teeth that exhibit the split-tooth
syndrome:
A. collar preparation C. slot preparation
B. skirt preparation D. facial and lingual surface groove extension

44. Bur # 557: A. cylindrical plain-cut fissure B. tapered plain-cut fissure C. cylindrical cross-cut
fissure D. tapered dentate fissure E. round-nose fissure bur.

45. Bur # 901 :

A. round bur B. inverted cone C. pear-shaped D. wheel bur E. end-cutting bur.

46. Salivary antibacterial agent that catalyses the oxidation of salivary thiocyanate by hydrogen peroxide
to the toxic molecule hypothiocyanite which inactivates bacterial enzymes.
A, apolactoferrin B. lactoperoxidase C, Lysozyme D. histatins E. lactoferrin

47. Salivary antibacterial agent that inhibit the growth of C. albicans and S. mutans:
A, apolactoferrin B. lactoperoxidase C.Lysozyme D. histatins E. lactoferrin

48. This technique uses two different materials to form one final restoration, with an objective of making
the most of the biological, physical and/or aesthetic properties of each material and, in the presence
of adhesion, to achieve as close as possible to a single monolithic reconstruction of a tooth.
A, “sandwich” technique C. lamination technique
B. Atraumatic restorative technique D. both A & C

49. Progressive permanent deformation of a set amalgam under load:

A, crevice corrosion B. creep C. crevice fatigue D. thermal expansion

50. Refers to the resistance offered by the amalgam to the forces of condensation used in placement.
A, Filling B. Compression C. Condensation pressure D. Packability

51. It is the study of the distribution and frequency of disease and injury in human populations and
those factors making groups susceptible to disease and injury.
A. epidemiology B. dental epidemiology C. descriptive epidemiology D. experimental epidemiology

52. It is used to delineate disease patterns in community.

A. dental epidemiology B. experimental epidemiology C. descriptive epidemiology D. epidemiology

53. It is used to aid in the conceptualization and quantification of the disease status of the community .
A. experimental epidemiology C. descriptive epidemiology
B. analytical epidemiology D. epidemiology
54. A timed series activities requiring physical, human and financial resourced to achieve a health policy
objectives:
A, civic action C. outreach program
B, dental mission D. health program E. public program

55. Nutritional disposal, food establishments, transportation, community education and housing are the
factors under:
A, health-related socio-economic C. population analysis
B, health status D. health resource analysis

56. State of normality and functional efficiency of the oral cavity in relation to mastication and
maxillofacial complexities.
A, Health C. desirable dental health
B, oral health D. dental health E. good oral health

57. The normal working hours of a public health worker shall not exceed by how many hours a day?
A, 10 B. 8 C. 6 D. 12

58. The Magna Carta of Public Health Workers:

A, RA 4419 B. RA 7305 C. RA 7530 D. RA 572

59. It describe the chain of superiors from the “highest to the lowest ranks”
A, centralization C. scalar principle
B, span of control D. administration E. autonomy

60. The art and science of preventing disease through organized community efforts:
A, community health C. public health activity
B, community oral health program D,. all of the above

61. Importance of community dentistry, except:

A. to cure and manage disease D. principle of efficiency
B. to apply learned principles in dentistry E. to evaluate community dental status
C, to reduce dental caries incidence

62. Choosing a community with no serious peace and order problem:

A, Entry into the community C. Area Selection
B, Community study D. Integration E. C & D

63. Performing observation, interview and surveying:

A, Entry into the community C. Area Selection
B, Community study D. Integration E. C & D

64. Choosing a modest dwelling individual to enhance integration:

A, Entry into the community C. Area Selection
B, Community study D. Integration E. C & D

65. An actual participation with the community’s work and social activities:
A, Entry into the community C. Area Selection
B, Community study D. Integration E. C & D

66. One of the dimensions of primary health care that tend to help the people to have a healthy and
productive life especially those who are in need.
A, as an approach C. as a structure of the health system
B, as a service D. as a promotion for intersectoral action

67. One of the elements of primary health care.

A, sanitation and safe water supply D. safety and protection
B, security system C. strengthening intersectoral collaboration

68. One of the supportive factors of primary health care program:

A, research C. rehabilitative services
B, resource mobilization D. referrals to treatment E. reduced incidence of diseases
69. The following are the conceptual framework of primary health care, except:
A, combination of socio-economic and biological factors
B, training and health manpower development
C, control and prevention of health problems
D, needs for intersectoral linkages

70. In this type of community, the natural resources are under developed:
A, mature community C. disorganized community
B, Immature community D. both B & C

71. In this type of community, social services and agencies are present.
A, mature community C. disorganized community
B, Immature community D. both B & C

72. This includes DMF, periodontal index, prosthetic status, restorative status
A, CPTIN B. Program activities C. Program goals D. Oral health survey

73. The population’s ability to get various health care service centers
A, educational system b. Labor data C. Transportation system
B, socio economic structure D. Health care facilities

74. These are more specific and describe in a measurable way the desired end result of program
activities.
A. process objectives C. Resource identification E. Planning
B. program objectives D. Outcome objectives

75. The followings are the barriers in access to dental care services except;
A. compensated time from work C. Limited outcome D. Lack of transportation
B. lack of awareness of seriousness to oral health E. Both B and C

76. The following are the criteria in resource identification

A. adequacy and appropriateness C. Manner and attitude
B. effectiveness and efficiency D. Both A and B E. Both A and B

77. To measure the effectiveness of such preventive regimen

A. the planner obtains the profile of the community
B. the planner would make periodic assessment of the school children at various time
intervals
C. the planner selects the best alternative to achieve a desired goal when resources is limited
D. the planner review the attitudes of the children to be surveyed
E. all of the above

78. It provides an overview of caries activity in a population

A. root caries index B. Unmet restorative Needs C. DMF index D. PHP-M E. OHI-S

79. It maybe used both to document and to assist in motivating changes in oral health habits
A. root caries index B. Unmet restorative needs C. DMF index D. PHP-M E. OHI-S

80. The popular index for epidemiologic research

A. Russell’s Periodontal index B. Gingival Index C. NIDR Gingival Index D. CPTIN E. OHI-S

81. It is a popular index used for gathering and quantifying information about periodontal disease
A. Russell’s Periodontal Index B. Gingival Index C. NIDR Index D. CPTIN E. OHI-S

82. To measure the effectiveness of such preventive regimen

A. the planner obtains the profile of the community
B. the planner would make periodic assessment of the school children at various time
intervals
C.. the planner selects the best alternative to achieve a desired goal when resources is limited
D. the planner review the attitudes of the children to be surveyed
E.. all of the above

83. People maybe induced to adopt health measures if they perceive a threat, according to a model of
change process theorized by
A. Hoch Baune B. Watson C. Lewin D. Merton
84. Arithmetic mean is called
A, rate B. Average C. Median D Mode E. Range

85. Dental Fluorosis in Agno, Pangasinan and Bacoor , Cavite is

A. Rare B. Endemic C. Epidemic D. Pandemic E. Spreading

86. Republic Act 3626 in June 22, 1963 is the

A. Generics Law B. Fluoridation law C. Fluoridization law D. Rural health law

87. Dental fluorosis is associated with fluoride content of

A,. 0.45-0.60 ppm B. 1.5-2.0ppm C. 1.0-1.5ppm D. 1.7-1.8 ppm

88. Scientific insights in Dentistry made by Miller in 1881 was called era of the Golden Age of
A. biostatistics B. Bacteriology C. Anatomy D. Chemistry E. History

89. Research begins with the first basic technique of

A, consulting the statistician B. Read literature C. Identification of problem

90. An intelligent prepared estimate of proposed future expenditures of management is :

A. accounting B. auditing C. budgeting D. reporting E. research

91. The following are the new roles/functions of the Department of Health except;
A. resource management C. research and development
B. school regulation D. standards, licensing, regulations E. policy making & planning

92. The identification and tracing of the agent of the disease after it has entered or affected the
individual or host
A. ecology B. epidemiology C. biostatistics D. etiology

93. Which of the following best describes epidemic disease?

A. diseases of significantly greater prevalence than normal
B. normal disease prevalence
C. disease occurring over a wide geographic area affecting an exceptional high proportion of the
population
D. disease with insignificant prevalence

94. The principle of organization herein there is a limit in each management position to the number of
persons and individual can effectively manage is;
A. principle of delegation C. scalar principle
B. principle of unity and command D. span of control

95. The following are models of community organization practice except;

A. social planning B. locality development C. social action D. social development

For numbers 96-100, use the codes for examination and recording of CPI as your choices..
A. 4 B. 0 C. 2 D. 1 E. 3

96. All black band on the probe visible ( C )

97. Black band on the probe not visible ( A )

98. Healthy ( B )

99. Bleeding ( D )

100. Pocket depth of 4mm ( E )