PharMaster’s Answer Key

Easy
1. The positive inotropic effect of cardiac glycosides results to:

a. Decrease in heart rate

b. Increase in conduction of heart cells
c. Decrease in myocardial contraction
d. Increase in myocardial conduction

Ans: D

2. Class I-B Sodium channel Blockers are used as antidysrhythmic drugs.

Which of the following is the correct mechanism of action of Class I-B Sodium
channel blockers?

a. Prolonged conduction with little or no effect on repolarization

b. Slow conduction; shortens repolarization
c. Slow conduction, prolongs repolarization
d. A and C

Ans: B

3. Any of the large group of narcotic and non-narcotic drugs that act on the
CNS and PNS to suppress the cough reflex is called:

a. Xanthine derivative
b. Antitussive
c. Expectorant
d. Corticosteroids

Ans: B

4. The following are true about sterile water diluents EXCEPT:

a. Helps remove secretions through liquefication

 b. Given by ultrasonic nebulization
c. Exerts osmotic pressure on plasma fluids
d. Decreases mucus plug formation

Ans: C

5. Which of the following is NOT a phase of inflammation?

a. chronic inflammation
b. immune response
c. acute inflammation
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

Ans: E

6. Which of the following drugs is effective for acute attacks of gouty

arthritis?

a. allopurinol (Zyloprim, Purinol)

b. colchicines
c. probenecid (Benemid)
d. acetaminophen (Tylenol, Panadol)

Ans: A

7. The following are Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) EXCEPT:

a. Aspirin
b. Ibuprofen
c. Naproxen
d. Naloxone

Ans: D

8. Biological factors which act like local hormones, have a brief duration, act
near the site of synthesis, and are not blood borne are called:
 a. Opioids
b. Autocoids
c. steroids
d. glucocorticoids

Ans: B

9. What type of autocoid drugs can be released during periods of exercise?

a. Vasodilator autocoids
b. Vasoconstrictor autocoids
c. Both
d. Neither

Ans: A

10. Which of the following types of macrodrip sets has the drop factor of 15
gtts per mL?

a. Travenol
b. Cutter
c. Abbott & McGaw
d. None because these are microdrip sets

Ans: C

11. Type of local anaesthetics that are generally unstable in solution and
fast-acting, and allergic reactions are common.

a. Amide

b. Ester

c. Both

d. Neither

Ans: B
12. The following belong to the group of amide local anaesthetics EXCEPT:

a. lidocaine

b. prilocaine

c. procaine

d. bupivicaine

Ans: C

13. Which of the following enzymes are inhibited by Non-steroidal anti-

inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)?

a. phosphodiesterase

b. polymerase

c. amylase

d. cyclooxygenase

Ans: D

Average
1. Antihypertensive drugs belonging to the same class:

a. doxazosin (Cardura), prazosin (Minipress), metoprolol (Lopressor)

b. nifedipine (Procardia, Adalat), verapamil (Isoptin, Calan), diltiazem
(Cardiazem)
c. clonidine (Catapres), guanabenz (Wytensin),terazosin (Hytrin)
d. lisinopril (Prinvivil, Zestril), fosinopril (Monopril), guanadrel (Hylorel)
e.

Ans: B

2. Mechanism of action:diltiazem (Cardiazem)

 a. phosphodiesterase inhibitor
b. alpha-1 receptor antagonist
c. beta-1 receptor antagonist
d. calcium channel blocker

Ans: D

3. Which of the following respiratory system drugs cross the blood brain
barrier?

a. Antihistamines
b. Xanthine derivatives
c. Leukotriene receptor antagonists
d. Diluents

Ans: A

4. Which of the following drugs do NOT belong to the group?

a. Zafirlukast (Accolate)
b. Zileuton (Zyflo)
c. Theophylline (Theolair)
d. Montelukast (Singulair)

Ans: C

5. How do Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) alleviate pain?

a. by altering the activation and migration of inflammatory cells

b. by counteracting the cyclooxygenase (COX) enzyme
c. Both
d. Neither

Ans: A

6. Which of the following drugs is effective in management of mild to

moderate pain, when anti-inflammatory action is not necessary?
 a. allopurinol (Zyloprim, Purinol)
b. colchicines
c. probenecid (Benemid)
d. acetaminophen (Tylenol, Panadol)

Ans: D

7. What will be the primary effect of direct infiltration of local anaesthetic

into skeletal muscle?

a. temporary paralysis of the muscle

b. muscle relaxation
c. muscle contraction
d. no effect

Ans: A

8. Cyclooxygenase isozyme responsible for prostaglandin synthesis by cells

involved in inflammation:

a. COX-I
b. COX-II
c. Both
d. None

Ans: B

9.Which of the following instructions to the patient is the most effective in

maintaining the correct metabolism of xanthine derivatives?

a. Be compliant with dosing, schedule and blood work

b. avoid smoking

c. increase water intake

d. do not crush or alter the dosage form

Ans: B
10. In which of these conditions would the patient need physician
consultation regarding taking decongestant drugs?

a. taking them with diet pills

b. taking them in empty stomach

c. patient is hypertensive

d. A and C

Ans: D

11. How many minutes should the patient taking an antitussive drug wait
before drinking any liquid?

a. 10-15 minutes

b. 15-20 minutes

c. 1-5 minutes

d. there’s no need to wait

Ans: B

12. What health condition is contraindicated with noncardioselective beta

blockers for hypertension?

a. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

b. diabetes mellitus

c. any renal disease

d. coronary heart disease

Ans: A
13.An opioid regarded as the gold standard, or benchmark, of analgesics
used to relieve severe or agonizing pain and suffering.

a. codeine

b. procaine

c. morphine

d. heroin

Ans: C

14. A drug used to counter the effects of opioid overdose, for example heroin
or morphine overdose.

a. calcium chloride

b. magnesium sulfate

c. atropine sulfate

d. naloxone

Ans: D

Difficult
1. A patient presents with a blood pressure of 160/110 mm Hg. The patient
has a history of coronary vascular disease, resulting in angina, but has no
evidence of congestive heart failure. The patient also has asthma and has
been treated mainly using terbutaline (Brethine), by aerosol inhalation
Propranolol (Inderal) was prescribed to manage essential hypertension. Was
this action appropriate?

a. Propranolol (Inderal) is appropriate because it will reduce heart rate

and cardiac output. Negative inotropism will help reduce the
incidence of angina. It is an effective antihypertensive agent
 b. Propranolol (Inderal) is inappropriate because it is only useful in
mild hypertension; a better drug would be minoxidil or hydralazine
because they are more effective in lowering blood pressure
c. Propranolol (Inderal) is appropriate because it is an effective, low-
cost antihypertensive. It will augment the effects of terbutaline, an
additional benefit
d. Propranolol (Inderal) is inappropriate because its use is
contraindicated in a patient with asthma.

Ans: D

2. What is the main rationale for not giving First generation antihistamine
drugs when the patient is about to drive a vehicle or operate a machine?

a. Rebound engorgement
b. drowsiness
c. bronchospasm
d. orthostatic hypertension

Ans: B

3. Select all the side effects that apply to digoxin toxicity:

a. Abdominal pain

b. Aanorexia

c. dizziness

d. nausea, vomiting

e. visual disturbances

f. indistinct speech

Ans: A, B, D, F
4. What is the health condition contraindicated with Acetaminophen
(Tylenol)?

a. liver disease

b. renal disease

c. heart disease

d. lung disease

Ans: A

5. Uncompensated congestive heart failure and pulmonary edema are

conditions that are contraindicated with:
a. Phenytoin (Dilantin)

b. Propranolol (Inderal)

c. Theophylline

d. Lidocaine (Xylocaine)

Ans: B

6. Which drug is used as an antidote for heparin to avoid toxicity?

a. portamine sulfate

b. atropine sulfate

c. morphine sulfate

d. naloxone

Ans: A

7. Calcium channel blocker(s) most likely to affect myocardial contractility

and AV conduction:

a. nifedipine (Procardia, Adalat)

b. nicardipine (Cardene)
c. diltiazem (Cardiazem)
d. all of the above
 Ans: C

8. A 60 year old patient with multivessel coronary vascular disease has

suffered several myocardial infarctions. The patient is in moderate heart
failure precariously controlled with diuretics and cardiac glycosides and has
exertional anginal episodes about twice a day. Consider a calcium channel
blocker in management of this patient:

a. Diltiazem (Cardiazem) is an effective antianginal drug which would be

appropriate in this case.
b. Diltiazem (Cardiazem) is only effective in Prinzmetal's angina-as such it
would not be appropriate here
c. Diltiazem (Cardiazem) is not appropriate because of its negative inotropic
properties (decrease myocardial contractility) which would worsen left
ventricular failure
d. Diltiazem (Cardiazem) in combination with propranolol (Inderal) would
work since reflex tachycardia would be blocked

Ans: C

9. Select all symptoms associated with nitrates:

a. bradycardia
b. hypertension
c. hypotension
d. Tachycardia
e. Nausea and vomiting
f. headache

Ans: C and F

10. A 70 year old male with confirmed coronary vascular disease also suffers
from COPD and angina. He is prescribed nifedipine for his angina, but shortly
after beginning the medication complains of increased angina incidence.
Choose an explanation:

A. Nifedipine (Procardia, Adalat) should not be used for angina.

B. Nifedipine (Procardia, Adalat), a calcium channel blocker, causes
significant vasodilation. Hypotension and reflex cardiac stimulation
result in increased anginal episodes
 C. Nifedipine (Procardia, Adalat) in combination with propranolol, since
propranolol would block reflex tachycardia due to nifedipine's
vasodilatory effects.
D. Nifedipine (Procardia, Adalat) has reached its toxicity level

Ans: B

11. This drug should probably not be administered to a patient with

congestive heart failure because the drug may further reduce contractility;
the drug should probably also not be prescribed to an asmatic since the drug
may increase bronchiolar smooth muscle tone.

a. digoxin (Lanoxin, Lanoxicaps)

b. terbutaline (Brethine)
c. metoprolol (Lopressor)
d. Atropine

Ans: C

12. Diuretic used in CHF that is most likely to cause hypokalemia

a. prazosin (Minipress)

b. captopril (Capoten)

c. hydrochlorothiazide (Diuril)

d. furosemide (Lasix)

Ans: D

13. Doctor ordered to incorporate 20 mL of NaCl solution to current IVF which

is at the level of 700 mL to be administered in 7 hours using drop factor 15
gtts per mL. What would be the IVF flow rate?

Ans: 25-26 gtts per min