10.

Identify the ACE inhibitor(s)

a. atenolol (Tenormin)
b. captopril (Capoten) -- hint-- look for the "pril" suffix!
c. propranolol (Inderal)
d. ranitidine (Zantac)

_____ 11. Digoxin (Lanoxin) causes

a. negative inotropic, positive chronotropic action
b. negative inotropic, negative chronotropic action
c. positive inotropic, positive chronotropic action
d. positive inotropic, negative chronotropic action

_____ 12. Your patient is lethargic, nauseated,  and has a pulse of 52.  You see that he is
taking digoxin (Lanoxin) 0.25mg daily, and also has hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDiuril)
50mg twice daily.  He is also playing with the color knobs on the television.  You would
check for a
a. drop in sodium levels
b. drop in potassium levels
c. drop in digoxin (Lanoxin) levels
d. drop in calcium levels

_____ 13. Asthmatic patients could experience bronchoconstriction problems with which of
the following agents?
a. isoproterinol (Isuprel)
b. digoxin (Lanoxin)
c. pindolol (Visken)  -- a beta blocker can cause B-2 blocking which can result in
bronchospasm
d. dextromethorphan

17. Angiotensin II
a. is increased in the presence of enalapril (Vasotec)
b. causes drops in aldosterone levels
c. can result in water retention
d. increases sodium excretion

16. Nonpharmacologic therapy of hypertension includes

a. dynamic exercise at least 3 times a week
b. magnesium and calcium supplementation
c. moderation in alcohol consumption
d. weight loss
e. all of the above
f. a, c, d only
1. Antidote for warfarin overdose
  a. protamine zinc insulin
  b. protamine sulfate
  c. vitamin K
  d. warfarin

_____ 2. Antidote for heparin overdose

  a. protamine sulfate
  b. vitamin K
  c. vitamin E
  d. cyanocobol

9. A classic drug interaction, greatly involving an increased bleeding time, involves warfarin and
  a. vitamin B-6
  b. acetaminophen
  c. acetylsalicylic acid
  d. all of the above

1. Which of the following is not a side effect of the cholinoreceptor blocker (Atropine)?

A. Increased pulse
B. Urinary retention
C. Constipation
D. Mydriasis

2. Which of the following is not a side effect of the Ace Inhibitor (Captopril)?

A. Rash
B. Angioedema
C. Cough
D. Congestion

3. Which of the following is not a side effect of the Vasodilator (Nifedipine)?

A. Nausea
B. Flush appearance
C. Vertigo
D. Sexual dysfunction

4. Which of the following is not a side effect of the Sympathoplegics (Clonidine)?

A. Hypertension
B. Asthma
C. Dry oral cavity
D. Lethargic behavior
5. Which of the following is not a side effect of the Dieuretics (Loop dieuretics)?

A. Alkalosis
B. Nausea
C. Hypotension
D. Potassium deficits

6. Which of the following is not an effect of the drug (Isoflurane)?

A. Elevated lipid levels

B. Nausea
C. Increased blood flow to the brain.
D. Decreased respiratory function

7. Which of the following is not an effect of the drug (Midazolam)?

A. Amnesia
B. Decreased respiratory function
C. Anesthetic
D. Dizziness

8. Which of the following is not an effect of the drug (Clozapine)?

A. Agranulocytosis
B. Antipsychotic
C. Used for Schizophrenia
D. Increased appetite

9. Which of the following is not treated with (Epinephrine)?

A. Renal disease
B. Asthma
C. Hypotension
D. Glaucoma

10. Which of the following is not treated with (Ephedrine)?

A. COPD
B. Hypotension
C. Congestion
D. Incontinence

11. Which of the following are not treated with Barbiturates?

A. Seizures
B. Hypotension
C. Insomnia
D. Anxiety
12. Which of the following are not treated with opoid analgesics like (dextromethorphan and
methadone)?

A. Pulmonary Edema
B. Cough suppression
C. Sedation
D. Pain

13. Which of the following are not treated with Hydrochlorothiazide?

A. CHF
B. HTN
C. Nephritis
D. Hypercalciuria

14. Which of the following are not treated with Nifedipine?

A. Angina
B. Arrhythmias
C. Htn
D. Fluid retention

15. Which of the following are not treated with Methotrexate?

A. Sarcomas
B. Leukemias
C. Ectopic pregnancy
D. Rheumatic fever

16. Which of the following are not treated with Prednisone?

A. Cushing's disease
B. Testicular cancer
C. Lympthomas
D. Chronic leukemias

17. Which of the following are not treated with Dexamethasone?

A. Inflammation
B. Asthma
C. Addison's disease
D. Wilson's disease

18. Which of the following are not treated with Lansoprazole?

A. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
B. Gastritis
C. Hypertension
D. Reflux
19. Which of the following is the antidote for the toxin Heparin?

A. Protamine
B. Methylene blue
C. N-acetylcysteine
D. Glucagon

20. Which of the following is the antidote for the toxin Copper?

A. Glucagon
B. Aminocaproic acid
C. Atropine
D. Penicillamine

Answer Key
1. B
2. D
3. D
4. B
5. B
6. A
7. D
8. D
9. A
10. A
11. B
12. C
13. C
14. D
15. D
16. B
17. D
18. C
19. A
20. D
1. Which of the following is the antidote for the toxin Benzodiazepines?

A. Flumazenil
B. Methylene blue
C. Deferoxamine
D. Alkalinize urine

2. Which of the following is the antidote for the toxin Lead?

A. Naloxone
B. Nitrite
C. CaEDTA
D. Dialysis

3. Which of the following is the primary site of activity for the drug Warfarin?

A. Kidney
B. Liver
C. Blood
D. Heart

4. Lansoprazole is not used in which of the following cases?

A. Gastritis
B. Peptic Ulcers
C. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
D. Thalamus hypertrophy

5. Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of Cinchonism?

A. Valproic acid
B. Quinidine
C. Isoniazid
D. Ethosuximide

6. Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of hepatitis?

A. Valproic acid
B. Quinidine
C. Isoniazid
D. Ethosuximide

7. Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of Stevens-Johnson

syndrome?

A. Valproic acid
B. Quinidine
C. Isoniazid
D. Ethosuximide
8. Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of Tendon dyfunction?

A. Digitalis
B. Niacin
C. Tetracycline
D. Fluoroquinolones

9. A drug ending in the suffix (pril) is considered a ______.

A. H
B. ACE inhibitor
C. Antifungal
D. Beta agonist

10. A drug ending in the suffix (azole) is considered a ______.

A. H
B. ACE inhibitor
C. Antifungal
D. Beta agonist

11. A drug ending in the suffix (tidine) is considered a ______.

A. Antidepressant
B. Protease inhibitor
C. Beta antagonist
D. H2 antagonist

12. A drug ending in the suffix (navir) is considered a ______.

A. Antidepressant
B. Protease inhibitor
C. Beta antagonist
D. H2 antagonist

13. Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of extreme photosensitivity?

A. Digitalis
B. Niacin
C. Tetracycline
D. Fluoroquinolones

14. Which of the following is not related to a drug toxicity of Prednisone?

A. Cataracts
B. Hypotension
C. Psychosis
D. Acne
15. Which of the following is not related to a drug toxicity of Atenolol?

A. CHF
B. Tachycardia
C. AV block
D. Sedative appearance

16. Which of the following is considered a class IA Sodium Channel blocker?

A. Mexiletine
B. Aminodarone
C. Quinidine
D. Procainamide

17. Which of the following is considered a class IA Sodium Channel blocker?

A. Propafenone
B. Disopyramide
C. Aminodarone
D. Quinidine

18. Potassium sparing diuretics have the primary effect upon the _____ found in the kidney.

A. Proximal convoluted tubule

B. Loop of Henle
C. Collecting duct
D. Distal convoluted tubule

19. Which of the following is not directly related to a drug toxicity of Nitroglycerin?

A. Headaches
B. Tachycardia
C. Dizziness
D. Projectile vomiting

20. Which of the following is not directly related to a drug toxicity of Ibuprofen?

A. Nausea
B. Renal dysfunction
C. Anemia
D. Muscle wasting

Answer Key
1. A
2. C
3. B
4. D
5. B
6. C
7. D
8. D
9. B
10. C
11. D
12. B
13. C
14. B
15. B
16. B
17. A
18. D
19. D
20. D

1. An inflammatory response characterised by chills,

tachycardia, syncope and flushing of the face and trunk
following rapid bolus administration of vancomycin is termed
as: Copyright@ www.nursingplanet.com/Quiz

A. Red neck syndrome

B. Anaphylactic reaction

C. Rabit syndrome

D. Idiosyncrasy Copyright@ www.nursingplanet.com/Quiz

Answer Key
2. Cyclobenzaprine is a:

A. Anticancer drug

B. Skeletal muscle relaxant

C. Antithyroid drug

D. Antiepileptic drug

Answer Key
3. Therapeutic serum drug level of theophylline is:

A. 0.8 to 2 ng/mL Copyright@ www.nursingplanet.com/Quiz

B. 0.8 to 1.2 meq/dL

C. 5 to 20 µg/mL

D. 50 to 100 µg/mL
 Answer Key
4. Aspirin should not be given to children or adolescents with
viral diseases specially in varicella and influenza because of its
association with :

A. Reye’s syndromeCopyright@ www.nursingplanet.com/Quiz

B. Rett’s Syndrme

C. Anphylactic reaction

D. Hepatotoxicity

Answer Key
5. Which one of the following listed drugs has the highest
potential for postural hypotension:

A. Haloperidol

B. Loxapine

C. Trifluoperazine

D. Chlorpromazine

Answer Key
6. What is the usual antidepressant dose of fluoxetine:

A. 50-300 mg

B. 75 to 200 mg Copyright@ www.nursingplanet.com/Quiz

C. 20-80 mg

D. 150-600 mg

Answer Key
7. The basic pharmacologic action of nitrates is to:

A. Decrease venous tone

B. Reducing blood return

C. Dilation of normal and stenotic epicardial coronary arteries

D. All of the above

Answer Key
8. Which one of the following listed drugs is not a calcium
channel blocking drug:

A. Diltiazem

B. Nifidipine

C. Propranolol Copyright@ www.nursingplanet.com/Quiz

D. Verapramil

Answer Key
9. The major difference between cardiovascular effects
dopamine and  those of dobutamine are  related to:

A. Dopamine’s ability to elicit systemic vasoconstriction owing to

more potent activation of α-receptors

B. Dobutamine’s ineffective for stimulation of β-receptors

C. Dopamine’s ability to stimulate β-receptors

D. None of the above Copyright@ www.nursingplanet.com/Quiz

Answer Key
10. Lidocaine is given either intravenously or intramuscularly
because:

A. The drug undergoes 90% first-pass hepatic metabolism

B. The drug causes severe gastric irritation

C. The drug is inactivated by gastric acid

D. The drug causes severe nausea and vomiting

Answer Key
11. Flecainide is a

A. Class III antiarrythmic drug

B. Antiplatelet aggregator

C. Class IC Antiarrythmic drug

D. Antihypertensive drug

Answer Key
12. Hemodynamically stable patients with supraventricular
tachycardia, who are not responding to vagal manoeuvres can be
treated with:

A. Amiadorone 800-1200 mg/day

B. Adenosine 3-13 mg

C. Lidocaine

D. Betablockers

Answer Key
13. Edrophonium chloride (Tensilon) is an:

A. Anticholinergic drug

B. Antihistaminic drug

C. Short-acting cholinesterase inhibitor

D. Antiparkinsonism drug

Answer Key
14. Adenosine has a elimination half life of

A. 1-2 days Copyright@ www.nursingplanet.com/Quiz

B. 1-6 seconds

C. 4-6 hours

D. 8-12 hours

Answer Key
15. The drug of  choice in torsades de pointes is:’

A. Lignocaine

B. Procainamide

C. Bretlium Copyright@ www.nursingplanet.com/Quiz

D. Magnesium Sulphate

Answer Key
16. The goal of the heparin therapy in a patient with pulmonary
embolism is to prolong the activated partial thromboplastin time
(aPTT) to;
A. 2 to 3 times the control

B. 1 ½ -2 times the control

C. To keep same as control

D. To keep 1 ½ times below the control

Answer Key
17. Over dosage of heparin is treated with:

A. Warfarin

B. Protamine sulphate 50 mg given IV over 10 minutes

C. Ethamsylate

D. Vitamin K1

Answer Key
18. Aspirin, NSAIDs, and acetaminophen can act by:

A. inhibiting the synthesis of prostaglandins.

B. increasing the production of prostaglandins.

C. activating the cyclooxygenase enzymes.

D. releasing histaine from the mast cells and basophils.

Answer Key
19. Contraindications to aspirin include:

A. peptic ulcer disease and GI bleeding

B. history of hypersensitivity reactions

C. impaired renal function.

D. All of the above

Answer Key
20. Which of the following NSAIDs is a propionic acid
derivative:

A. ibuprofen Copyright@ www.nursingplanet.com/Quiz

B. diclofenac

C. mephanamic acid

D. indomethacin

Answer Key
Answer Key
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. A 5.D 6. C 7. D 8. C 9.A 10. A
11. C 12.B 13. C 14. B 15.D 16. B 17. B 18. A 19. D 20. A
Back to Top
1. Anaphylactic shock or IgE-mediated hypersensitivity
reactions are:

A. Type I reactions Copyright@ www.nursingplanet.com/Quiz

B. Type II reactions.

C. Type III reactions.

D. Type IV reactions.

Answer Key
2. Among the listed drugs, which has the shortest biological half-
life;

A. Adenosine

B. Dobutamine

C. Benzylpenicillin

D. Amoxycillin

Answer Key
3. Which of the following listed drug has the longest biological
half-life;

A. Diazepam

B. Lorazepam

C. Midazolam

D. Clonazepam Copyright@ www.nursingplanet.com/Quiz

Answer Key
4. When a drug is given at a constant rate, the generally accepted
time to reach steady state (plateau) is:

A. 1 plasma half-life

B. 2 plasma half-life

C. 3 plasma half-life

D. 5 plasma half-life

Answer Key
5. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) activity is
important to the integrity of the:

A. red blood cells

B. white blood cells

C. platelets

D. mast cells

Answer Key
6. Drugs that carry a possible risk of hemolysis in some G6PD
deficient individuals include:

A. aspirin

B. menadione

C. quinidine

D. all of the above

Answer Key
7. Asthmatic attacks can be precipitated by:

A. sympathomimetics.

B. digitalis glycosides

C. beta-adrenoceptor blockers.

D. aminoglycoside antibiotics.

Answer Key
8. Lithium toxicity may result when:
A. a thiazide diuretic is co-administered.

B. there is sodium depletion.

C. there is dehydration

D. in all of the above situations.

Answer Key
9. A type A adverse reaction is also called:

A. Augmented reactions

B. Bizarre reactions

C. Chronic reactions

D. Delayed effects

Answer Key
10. Type II allergic/hypersensitivity reactions are also called:

A. immediate or anaphylactic type.

B. antibody-dependent cytotoxic type.

C. immune complex-mediated type.

D. lymphocyte-mediated type.

Answer Key
11. Zero-order kinetics refers to:

A. The rates at which absorption, distribution, metabolism and

excretion of a drug occur are directly proportional to its
concentration in the body.

B. Processes by which a constant amount of drug is transported/

metabolized in unit time irrespective of its concentration in the
body.

C. The time in which the biological effect of a drug declines by

one half. Copyright@ www.nursingplanet.com/Quiz

D. Presystemic elimination of the drug.

Answer Key
12. Salivation, lacrimation, abdominal cramps, urinary and fecal
incontinence, vomiting, sweating, miosis and muscle fasciculation
are characteristics of:

A. Antimuscarinic syndromes

B. Cholinergic (muscarinic) syndromes

C. Sympathomimetic syndromes

D. None of the above .

Answer Key
13. Which is a gram negative bacteria:

A. Staphylococcus aureus

B. Streptococcus pyogenes

C. Streptococcus pneumoniae

D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Answer Key
14. Which is an anerobic bacteria:

A. Haemophilus influenzae

B. Neisseria meningitidis

C. Clostridium perfringens

D. Streptococcus pneumoniae

Answer Key
15. Ziehl-Neelsen staining is used to diagnose:

A. methicillinresistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infection.

B. acid-fast tubercle bacilli infection.

C. Neisseria meningitidis infection.

D. Clostridium perfringens infection.

Answer Key
ANSWER KEY Copyright@ www.nursingplanet.com/Quiz
1. A 2. A 3. A 4.D 5. A
6. D 7. C 8. D 9. A 10. B
 11. B 12. B 13. D 14. C 15. B

1. Aspirin, NSAIDs and acetaminophen act by

A. Inhibiting impulses to brain.

B. Inhibiting the synthesis of prostaglandins.

C. Competitively blocking the neuronal terminal

D. Releasing endorphin

Answer Key
2. Salicylate intoxication (salicylism) is characterized by the
following symptoms, except

A. Nausea, vomiting, fever

B. Tinnitus, decreased hearing, visual changes

C. Fluid and electrolyte deficiencies

D. Hypoventilation Copyright@ www.nursingplanet.com/Quiz

Answer Key
3. Which of the following statements about Aspirin is TRUE?

A. Aspirin has no ototoxic characteristics

B. Aspirin is least likely to cause gastric irritation.

C. Aspirin should generally be avoided for 1 to 2 weeks before and

after surgery

D. enteric-coated Aspirin (Ecospirin) should be chewed or crushed

before swallowing.

Answer Key
4. Which of the following statements is WRONG about NSAIDs?

A. NSAIDs decrease effects of ACE inhibitors.

B. NSAIDs decrease antihypertensive effects

C. NSAIDs increase the risk of bleeding by prolonging the

prothrombin time.

D. NSAIDs decrease the serum lithium levels

Answer Key
5. Which of the following drugs on overdose is known to cause
liver failure;

A. Acetaminophen

B. Ibuprofen

C. Piroxicam

D. Ketorelac Copyright@ www.nursingplanet.com/Quiz

Answer Key
6. Drugs that increase effects of indomethacin are all, EXCEPT:

A. Corticosteroids

B. Salicylates

C. Heparin

D. Antacids

Answer Key
7. Intravenous (IV) indomethacin is approved for treatment of:

A. Cardiogenic pain

B. Pain associated with gastritis

C. Patent ductus arteriosus in premature infants

D. Trigeminal neuralgia

Answer Key
8. The enzyme involved in the therapeutic action of NSAIDs is

A. Cyclo-oxygenase

B. Monoamine oxidase

C. Cytochrome
D. Lipocortin-1

Answer Key
9. A commonly used NSAID, Ibuprofen belongs to the subclass
of

A. Salicylates

B. Pyrazolone derivatives

C, Indole derivatives

D. Prpionic acid derivatives

E. Oxicam derivatives

Answer Key
10. Which of the following agents is associated with high
incidence of agrnulocytosis?

A. Phenylbutazone Copyright@ www.nursingplanet.com/Quiz

B. Phenylbutazone

C. Indomethacin

D. Mephanamic acid

Answer Key
ANSWER KEY Copyright@ www.nursingplanet.com/Quiz
1. C 2. D 3. C 4. D 5. A
6. D 7. C 8. A 9. D 10. A
References

1). The drug used in acetaminophen overdose is:

A. Physostigmine

B. Flumazenil

C. Acetyl salicylic acid

D. Acetylcysteine

Answer Key
2). The drug used as an antodote of anticholinergic poisoning is:
A. Atropine

B. Pyridoxine

C. Physostigmine

D. Deferoxamine

Answer Key
3). Protamine sulfate is administerd in overdose of:

A. Warfarin

B. Heparin

C. Anticholinergica

D. Insulin

Answer Key
4). Severe lead poisoning is treated with:

A. Succimer

B. Naloxone

C. Pyridoxine

D. Atropine

Answer Key
5). Vitamin K1 is administerd as an antidote for poisoning with:

A. Heparin

B. Warfarin

C. Diphenoxalate

D. Aminocaproic acid

Answer Key
6). Adult dose of naloxone in opioid posoning is:

A. IM 1 g q8h PRN
B. IV 50–150 mcg/kg

C. PO 140 mg/kg

D. IV 0.4–2 mg PRN

Answer Key
7. Overdose of Benzodiazepines is treated wtih:

A. Flumazenil

B. N-Acetylcysteine

C. Physostigmine

D. Protamine

Answer Key
8). Deferoxamine is administered in overdose of:

A. Iron

B. Calcium gluconate

C. Digoxin

D. Beta blockers

Answer Key
9). Digibind is used as an antidote for poisoning due to:

A. Cholinergics

B. Atropine

C. Benzodiazepines

D. Digoxin

Answer Key
10). Isoniazid (INH) toxicity is treated with:

A. Pyridoxine

B. Atropine

C. Diphenhydramine
D. Aminocaproic acid

Answer Key
11). Lithum toxicity happens at serum lithium level of:

A. 0.8 mEq/L

B. >2 mEq/L

C. 0.6 mEq/L

D. >0.1 mEq/L

Answer Key
12). A therapeutic agent which is some times called the universal
antidote:

A. Protamine sulphate

B. Glucose

C. Activated charcoal

D. Physostigmine

Answer Key
13). Idiosyncrasy refers to:

A. a fever associated with administration of a medication.

B. the ability of a substance to cause abnormal fetal development

when taken by pregnant women.

C. the ability of a substance to cause cancer.

D. an unexpected reaction to a drug that occurs the first time it

is given.

Answer Key
14). Drug-induced movement disorders may be treated with:

A. benzatropine

B. calcium gluconate

C. atropine
D. acetylcysteine

Answer Key
15). Penicillamine is administered as an antidote for poisoning
with:

A. opioids

B. antimuscarinic drugs

C. carbon monoxide

D. copper, gold, lead and mercury

Answer Key
ANSWER KEY
1. D 2. C 3. B 4. A 5. B
6. D 7. A 8. A 9. D 10. A
11. B 12. C 13. D 14. A 15. D

1. The penicillins act by : Copyright@ www.nursingplanet.com/Quiz

A. inhibition of protien synthesis

B. interfering with bacterial cell wall synthesis.

C. inhibition of neuclic acid synthesis

D. phagocytic action.

Answer Key
2. The most important side-effect of the penicillins is

A. gastrointestinal disturbances.

B. ototoxicity.

C. hypersensitivity reactions

D. hepatotoxicity.

Answer Key
3. A penicillin preparation which is suitable for oral administration is

A. Benzathine Penicillin
B. Benzylpenicillin

C. Procaine benzylpenicillin

D. Phenoxymethylpenicillin

Answer Key
4. Penicillinase-resistant penicillins include

A. benzylpenicillin

B. phenoxymethylpenicillin

C. cloxacillin

D. ampicillin Copyright@ www.nursingplanet.com/Quiz

Answer Key
5. Co-amoxiclav is a: Copyright@ www.nursingplanet.com/Quiz

A. penicillin-beta-lactamase inhibitor combinations

B. penicillin active against gram negative bacteria.

C. carbapenem group of antibiotic.

D. narrow spectrum penicillin.

Answer Key
6. Which statement about penicillins is FALSE

A. Penicillins cross CSF if the meninges are inflamed.

B. Benzylpenicillin is highly active against Streptococcus

pneumoniae .

C. Procaine penicillin, given i.m. only.

D. penicillins do not cause neutropenia in high does given for longer

than 10 days.

Answer Key
7. Which statement abot penicillins is TRUE

A. Penicillins on high doses cause convulsions.

B. Benzylpenicillin is not effective for infections due to normal

strains of Neisseria meningitidis

C. Phenoxymethylpenicillin is not resistant to gastric acid.

D. Penicillins are not effective against normal strains of gram

positive bacteria.

Answer Key
8. Identification of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus
(MRSA) in patients indicates:

A. the organisms are sensitive to flucloxacillin and cloxacillin

B. the organisms are sensitive to beta-lactam antibiotics

C. the organisns are resistant to flucloxacillin, cloxacillin, and other

beta-lactam antibiotics

D. usual infection-control measures are satisfactory to manage the

infections.

Answer Key
9. Which statement about ampicillin is FALSE:

A. Ampicillin cause diarrhoea on oral administration.

B. Ampicillin may cause maculopapular rashes

C. Amoxycillin is better absorbed from gut than ampicillin.

D. Ampicillin is a cephalosporin group of antibiotic.

Answer Key
10. Ureidopenicillins are: Copyright@ www.nursingplanet.com/Quiz

A. adapted from the ampicillin molecule, and effective against

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

B. carboxypenicillins .

C. monobactam antibiotics.

D. beta-lactamase resistant penicillins.

Answer Key
ANSWER KEY Copyright@ www.nursingplanet.com/Quiz
1. B 2. C 3. D 4. C 5. A.
 6. D 7. A 8. C 9. D 10. A

1. A 10-year-old boy with generalized tonic seizures is seen by his

dentist at a routine checkup. The dentist observes that the
patient has an overgrowth of gum tissue.The patient was most
likely receiving which of the following agents?

A. ethosuximide

B. clonazepam

C. primidone

D. phenytoin Copyright@ www.nursingplanet.com/Quiz

E. zonisamide

Answer Key
2. The metabolism of which AED frequently displays zero-order
kinetics following moderate to high therapeutic doses?

A. Carbamazepine

B. Phenytoin

C. Valproic acid

D. Ethosuximide

E. Zonisamide

Answer Key
3. A 14-year-old patient is diagnosed with absence epilepsy. Any
of the following drugs could be considered a reasonable choice to
prescribe EXCEPT

A. Ethosuximide

B. Phenobarbital

C. Carbamazepine

D. Valproic acid

Answer Key
4. Which of the following agent was first introduced for
treatment of epilepsy?

A. Phenobarbital

B. Phenytoin

C. Carbamazepine

D. Valproic acid

E. Tiagabin Copyright@ www.nursingplanet.com/Quiz

Answer Key
5. Sodium Channel Blocking antiepileptic agents include, all
EXCEPT

A. Phenytoin

B. Ccarbamazepine

C. Topiramate

D. Valproic acid

E. Diazepam

Answer Key
6. Adverse effects of carbamazepine include, all EXCEPT

A. Skin rashes

B. Drowsiness

C. Diplopia

D. Hair loss

Answer Key
7. The most serious adverse effect associated with valproic acid
is:

A. Fatal hepatic failure

B. Gingival hyperplasia

C. Drowsiness Copyright@ www.nursingplanet.com/Quiz

D. Mood disorder
E. Dementia

Answer Key
8. Which AED is related to an increased incidence of neural tube
defects in the fetus of mothers who received the drug during the
first trimester of pregnancy?

A. Diazepam

B. Phenytoin

C. Valproic acid

D. Gabapentin

E. Topiramate

Answer Key
9. Sodium valproate is contraindicated in

A. Tonic-clonic seizures

B. Partial sezures

C. Bipolar affective disorders

D. Hepatic dysfunction

Answer Key
10. Which of the following toxic side effect is related to use of
topiramate?

A. Aplastic anemia

B. Stevens-Johnson syndrome

C. Nephrolithiasis

D. Hepatotoxicity Copyright@ www.nursingplanet.com/Quiz

Answer Key
11. All are side effects of phenytoin, except:

A. Ataxia

B. Hypoglycemia=
C. Hirsuitism

D. Gum hypertrophy

 
 

ANSWER KEY Copyright@ www.nursingplanet.com/Quiz

1. D 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. E
6. D 7. A 8. C 9. D 10. C
11. B