Question 1

The right answer was The removal of drug is independent of drug concentration.

Question 2
The right answer was Excretion rate.

Question 3

The answer is Extraction ratio

Question 4
The right answer was All are correct.

Question 5
The right answer was 2.4 mg.

Question 6
The right answer was 1.25 mg.

Question 7
The right answer was 30 L/hr/70 Kg.

Question 8
The right answer was a & b.

Question 9

The right answer id CYP51

Question 10
The right answer was CYP51.

Question 11
The right answer was All of the above.

Question 12
The right answer was Both carry out oxidative deaminations.

Question 13
The right answer was Glucuronide conjugation.

Question 14
The right answer was Hydroxylation.

Question 15
The right answer was Decrease.
In a zero order elimination process, which of the
following is true?
The removal of drug is independent of drug concentration
Cl = Elimination rate/Cp
t1/2 = .7VD/Cl
All are true

For highly polar drugs (e.g. mannitol) what primarily

determines elimination rate?
Excretion rate
Metabolism rate
Absorption rate
Distribution rate
All of the above

Bioavailability is related to which of the following

parameters, according to the equation F = 1 - E
Excretion
Elimination
Extraction Ratio
Enterohepatic Recycling

For the majority of drugs, which of the following

equations correctly defines clearance?
Cl = Elimination rate/Cp
Cl = QxE
Cl = .7VD/t1/2
All are correct

How much of a 10 mg dose of morphine reaches the

systemic circulation given F = .24?
 24mg
0.24 mg
2.4 mg
4.1 mg

Given that the VD = 230 L/70Kg and Cl = 60 L/hr/70

Kg for morphine, approximately how much of a 10 mg
IV dose remains after 8 hr, given to a normal 70 Kg
patient?
5 mg
2.5 mg
1.25 mg
625 mg

Given F = .24, what is the overall hepatic clearance of morphine

if the above patient has portal hypertension such that their
hepatic blood flow is reduced by ½? Assume the clearance
value given in the previous question is entirely hepatic
clearance.
30 L/hr/70 Kg
60 L/hr/70 Kg
120 L/hr/70 Kg
250 L/hr/70 Kg
Which of the following enzymes could directly act on
codeine?
Glucuronyl transferase
Sulfotransferase
Glutathione transferase
a&b
All of the above

Which Cytochrome P450 isozyme does not participate

appreciably in drug metabolism?
 CYP1A2
CYP2C9
CYP3A4
CYP51
All are drug metabolizing isoforms

Which of the following Cytochrome P450 isozymes is

responsible for the bulk of phase I metabolism?
CYP1A2
CYP2C9
CYP2D6
CYP3A4
CYP51

Which of the following enzymes could metabolize

ethanol?
Cytochrome P450
Alcohol Dehydrogenase
Glucuronyl Transferase
Sulfotransferase
All of the above

Which of the following are similarities between

Cytochrome P450 and MAO?
Both add oxygen from O2 to substrates and also form water
Both carry out direct heteroatom oxidations
Both carry out oxidative deaminations
Both carry out N-dealkylations
All of the above

What would be the preferred route of metabolism of

succinyl choline?
 Ester hydrolysis
N-oxidation
Glucuronide conjugation
a&b
All of the above

Which of the following causes the smallest change in

solubility?
Hydroxylation
Glucuronidation
Sulfation
Glutathione conjugation

Cigarette smoke causes an increase in levels of CYP1A

isozymes. Theophylline is primarily metabolized by
the CYP1A system. What would happen to
theophylline clearance for an asthmatic patient in
hospital who could not smoke?
No change
Increase
Decrease

Pharmacology 2

Question 1

Flumazenil

Question 2
The right answer was CaEDTA.

Question 3

liver

Question 4
The right answer was Thalamus hypertrophy.
Question 5

Quinidine

Question 6
The right answer was Isoniazid.

Question 7

Ethosuximide

Question 8
The right answer was Fluoroquinolones.

Question 9
The right answer was ACE inhibitor.

Question 10

Antifungal

Question 11

H2 agonist

Question 12

Protease inhibitor

Question 13
The right answer was Tetracycline.

Question 14
The right answer was Hypotension.

Question 15
The right answer was Tachycardia.

Question 16
The right answer was Aminodarone.

Question 17
The right answer was Propafenone.

Question 18

Distal convoluted tubule

Question 19
The right answer was Projectile vomiting.

Question 20
The right answer was Muscle wasting.

Which of the following is the antidote for the toxin Benzodiazepines?

Flumazenil
Methylene blue
Deferoxamine
Alkalinize urine

Which of the following is the antidote for the toxin Lead?

Naloxone
Nitrite
CaEDTA
Dialysis

Which of the following is the primary site of activity for the drug Warfarin?

Kidney
Liver
Blood
Heart

Lansoprazole is not used in which of the following cases?

Gastritis
Peptic Ulcers
Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
Thalamus hypertrophy

Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of Cinchonism?

Valproic acid
 Quinidine
Isoniazid
Ethosuximide

Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of hepatitis?

Valproic acid
Quinidine
Isoniazid
Ethosuximide

Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of Stevens-Johnson

syndrome?

Valproic acid
Quinidine
Isoniazid
Ethosuximide

Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of Tendon dyfunction?

Digitalis
Niacin
Tetracycline
Fluoroquinolones

A drug ending in the suffix (pril) is considered a ______.

H2 agonist
ACE inhibitor
Antifungal
Beta agonist

A drug ending in the suffix (azole) is considered a ______.

H2 agonist
ACE inhibitor
 Antifungal
Beta agonist

A drug ending in the suffix (tidine) is considered a ______.

Antidepressant
Protease inhibitor
Beta antagonist
H2 antagonist

A drug ending in the suffix (navir) is considered a ______.

Antidepressant
Protease inhibitor
Beta antagonist
H2 antagonist

Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of extreme

photosensitivity?

Digitalis
Niacin
Tetracycline
Fluoroquinolones

Which of the following is not related to a drug toxicity of Prednisone?

Cataracts
Hypotension
Psychosis
Acne

Which of the following is not related to a drug toxicity of Atenolol?

CHF
Tachycardia
AV block
 Sedative appearance

Which of the following is considered a class IA Sodium Channel blocker?

Mexiletine
Aminodarone
Quinidine
Procainamide

Which of the following is considered a class IA Sodium Channel blocker?

Propafenone
Disopyramide
Aminodarone
Quinidine

Potassium sparing diuretics have the primary effect upon the _____ found in the
kidney.

Proximal convoluted tubule

Loop of Henle
Collecting duct
Distal convoluted tubule

Which of the following is not directly related to a drug toxicity of Nitroglycerin?

Headaches
Tachycardia
Dizziness
Projectile vomiting

Which of the following is not directly related to a drug toxicity of Ibuprofen?

Nausea
Renal dysfunction
Anemia
Muscle wasting
Website: Pharmainfo.net
Active learning center
Test prepreview

Pharmacology

Indication of doxycycline is:

A. Bacteroides (other than Bacteroides fragilis)

B. Asthma
C. Meniere's disease
D. Water intoxication
E. Broad spectrum antibacterial agent *

Contraindication of indacrinone is:

A. Pregnancy
B. Hyperlipidemia
C. Diabetes
D. Diabetes mellitus *
E. Hearing impairment

Mechanism of action of indinavir is:

A. beta-2 agonist
B. Inhibits RNA-dependent RNA polymerase
C. Inhibits reverse transcriptase
D. Inhibits viral protease *
E. Stimulates lipoprotein lipase

Class of famciclovir is:

A. NSAID
B. Antidepressants
C. Autonomic nervous system drugs
D. Antivirals *
E. Oral hypoglycemics

Indication of ticarcillin is:

A. Streptococcus pneumoniae *
B. Varicella zoster virus
 C. Myocardial infarction
D. Generalized motor seizures
E. Bone marrow failure states (aplastic anemia, myelodysplasias) (investigational)

Mechanism of action of cefoxitin is:

A. monoamine reuptake inhibitor

B. Inhibits cholesterol synthesis
C. Inhibits activation of GPIIb/IIIa
D. Inhibits transpeptidase *
E. Inhibits Na-K-2Cl transporter

Which of the following statements refers to phenelzine:

A. Mechanism of action probably involves NO.

B. Rapid IV infusion predisposes to neuromuscular paralysis.
C. May work when other antidepressants fail.
D. Long half-life.
E. MOA is inhibited irreversibly. Response occurs when >80% platelet MOA is
inhibited. *

Effect of diltiazem is:

A. May increase heart rate

B. Decreases triglycerides by 10-20%
C. May decrease heart rate
D. Inhibits basal gastric acid secretion
E. Decreases AV conduction *

Which of the following statements refers to etidronate:

A. Binds to DNA, preferentially to GC pairs. Inhibits RNA, DNA, and protein

synthesis.
B. Human, pig, salmon, and eel calcitonins are available.
C. Is used for both therapy and prophylaxis of influenza A.
D. Bioavailability increases with administered dose. *
E. Only approved by FDA for hypertension treatment.

Class of nystatin is:

A. Thiazides
B. Antiprotozoan agents
C. Autonomic nervous system drugs
D. Polyenes *
E. Oral hypoglycemics
Mechanism of action of isoetharine is:

A. Inhibits phosphodiesterase
B. Reduces calcium influx into neurons
C. Potentiates glucose-mediated insulin secretion
D. Inhibits phospholipase A2
E. beta-2 agonist *

Mechanism of action of vancomycin is:

A. Potentiates glucose-mediated insulin secretion

B. Inhibits phospholipase C
C. Mitotic spindle poison
D. Inhibits transpeptidase
E. Inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis *

Class of buspirone is:

A. Anticonvulsants
B. Lipid lowering drugs
C. Beta blockers
D. Benzodiazepines
E. Sedatives *

Contraindication of sulfamethoxazole is:

A. Gout
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. Hyperlipidemia
D. Liver disease
E. Late pregnancy *

Site of metabolism of zolpidem is:

A. Liver *
B. None
C. Reticuloendothelial system
D. Leukocytes
E. Unknown

Mechanism of resistance of dicloxacillin is:

A. Decreased drug uptake by bacteria

B. Mutations in M (matrix) protein
C. Beta-lactamase
D. Penicillin binding proteins (PBPs) *
 E. Antibodies resulting from streptococcal infection

Half-life of streptomycin is:

A. 10-50 hours
B. 8 hours
C. 1 hour
D. 16 hours
E. 3-4 hours *

Interactions with other drugs of clonazepam is:

A. Lactose: increases absorption

B. meperidine
C. Tricyclic antidepressants: potentiate sedation
D. cis-platinum - augments nephrotoxicity
E. Oral contraceptives: inhibit metabolism *

Class of nelfinavir is:

A. Glucocorticosteroids
B. Anti-asthmatic agents
C. Polyenes
D. Antivirals *
E. Autonomic nervous system drugs

Side effect of fluvastatin is:

A. Seizures
B. Skin rash
C. Nausea
D. Urinary tract complications
E. Myalgia *

Indication of salmeterol is:

A. Thyrotoxicosis - preparation for surgery

B. Chronic renal disease
C. Scleroderma renal crisis
D. Asthma *
E. Allergic rhinitis

Mechanism of action of chlorthalidone is:

A. Mitotic spindle poison

B. Binds to ergosterol in cell membrane resulting in formation of pores.
 C. Unknown
D. Induces "freezing" of initiation complex
E. Inhibits Na-Cl transporter *

Mechanism of action of neomycin is:

A. Inhibits dihydropteroate synthetase

B. Blocks K channels
C. Blocks Na channels
D. Binds to 30S subunit of bacterial ribosome *
E. Inhibits mycolic acid synthesis

Mechanism of action of amyl nitrite is:

A. dopamine antagonist
B. Unknown
C. Holds water in stool
D. Potassium channel agonist
E. Stimulates guanylate cyclase *

Class of cilastin is:

A. Azoles
B. ACE inhibitors
C. Retinoids
D. Dehydropeptidase I inhibitors *
E. K sparing diuretics

Mechanism of action of flunisolide is:

A. Inhibits DNA gyrase

B. Inhibits phosphodiesterase
C. Inhibits phospholipase A2 *
D. beta-2 agonist
E. Competitively inhibits H2 receptors

Mechanism of action of enalapril is:

A. serotonin reuptake inhibitor

B. Inhibits bone resorption
C. beta-2 agonist
D. Inhibits angiotensin converting enzyme *
E. Induces "freezing" of initiation complex

Which of the following statements refers to HPMPC

 A. Tricyclic.
B. Cytosine monophosphate analog *
C. Works by accumulating in and changing pH of lysosomes.
D. Mild intrinsic sympathomimetic activity - does not decrease heart rate and
contractility as much during exercise.
E. Metabolized in liver by P450.

Route of administration of interferon alpha is:

A. Intramuscular *
B. Inhalation
C. Topical
D. Oral
E. Intra-auricular

Side effect of clindamycin is:

A. Colitis (by Chlostridium difficili) *

B. Malabsorption
C. Constipation
D. Hypoglycemia
E. Hepatotoxicity

Indication of clindamycin is:

A. Benzodiazepine intoxication
B. Hypercalcemia
C. Kaposi's sarcoma
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae *
E. Angina

Indication of phenoxybenzamine is:

A. Pain
B. Movement disorders
C. Thyrotoxicosis - preparation for radioactive iodine therapy
D. Anaphylactic shock
E. Acute hypertension *

Which of the following statements refers to buspirone:

A. Fatal overdosage rare unless taken with alcohol or other CNS depressants.
B. Choice between quinidine and disopyramide should be made based on side
effects. In patients with AV conduction problems or quinidine-induced GI toxicity,
disopyramide ought to be chosen. In patients with MI or anticholinergic side
effects, quinidine is the agent of choice.
 C. Less effective than tricyclics or ECT in unipolar depression.
D. Is metabolized to several substances with long (>24 hours) half lives. These do
not contribute to anticonvulsant effect but do contribute to sedative effect.
E. No difference in effects between elderly and average population *

Mechanism of action of FK506 is:

A. Reduces calcium influx into neurons

B. Inhibits calcineurin *
C. Inhibits phospholipase C
D. Inhibits phospholipid synthesis
E. Induces DNA damage under anaerobic conditions

Mechanism of resistance of Invirase is:

A. Mutation of viral DNA polymerase

B. Mutations of viral protease *
C. Mutation of thymidilate synthase decreasing its affinity for the drug's active
metabolite
D. Tolerance
E. Mutation of viral reverse transcriptase

Effect of cascara is:

A. Decreases water absorption *

B. Stimulates segmentation
C. Decreases meal-stimulated gastric acid secretion
D. May increase triglycerides
E. Afterload increase

Class of nitrogen mustard is:

A. Aquaretics
B. Alkylating agents *
C. Lipid lowering drugs
D. Drugs affecting calcium homeostasis
E. Antivirals

Indication of PTU is:

A. Glaucoma
B. Migraine prophylaxis
C. Thyrotoxicosis - preparation for radioactive iodine therapy *
D. Severe recurrent ventricular tachyarrhythmias
E. Broad spectrum antibacterial agent
Half-life of adenosine is:

A. 70 days
B. 7-20 hours
C. 4 hours
D. 2 hours
E. 1-2 minutes *

Route of excretion of cinoxacin is:

A. Unknown
B. Kidneys *
C. Intestines
D. Liver

Indication of metoprolol is:

A. Bacteroides (other than Bacteroides fragilis)

B. Duodenal ulcer
C. Stage fright
D. Ventricular tachyarrythmias provoked by exercise *
E. Cardiac arrest

Mechanism of action of ampicillin is:

A. Inhibits cholesterol synthesis

B. Inhibits transpeptidase *
C. Inhibits viral DNA polymerase
D. Potentiates glucose-mediated insulin secretion
E. Inhibits renal epithelial Na channels

Subclass of NTG is:

A. Inorganic nitrates
B. Potassium channel agonists
C. Surface active agents
D. Organic nitrates *
E. Phenylpiperidine

Indication of Norvir is:

A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Cytomegalovirus retinitis
C. Diarrhea
D. Influenza A
E. HIV *
Route of administration of ofloxacin is:

A. Intra-auricular
B. Sublingual
C. Oral *
D. IV
E. Intramuscular

Interactions with other drugs of tramadol is:

A. beta-lactam antibiotics - synergism

B. Rifampin: stimulates metabolism
C. Phenytoin: stimulates metabolism
D. MAO inhibitors: increase hyperpyrexia, excitation, delirium, seizures.
E. Antihistamines: enhance analgesia *

Class of demeclocycline is:

A. Analgesics
B. Inotropic agents
C. Penicillins
D. Antithyroid agents
E. Aquaretics *

Mechanism of action of doxorubicin is:

A. Inhibits topoisomerase II *
B. alpha antagonist
C. Inhibits peptidyl transferase
D. beta antagonist
E. Allosterically enhances GABAergic inhibition

Side effect of dipyridamole is:

A. Diarrhea
B. Headache *
C. Bleeding
D. Hypercalcemia
E. Pseudothrombocytopenia (clumping of platelets)

Which of the following statements refers to bretylium:

A. May induce mild hypotension and worsen congestive heart failure in some
patients. However, most CHF patients can tolerate it.
B. Duration of action is usually several days.
 C. Has been show to be more effective than six other agents in preventing arrhythmia
recurrence and death in patients with ventricular tachyarrhythmias.
D. Is effective against erythrocytic forms.
E. Used in emergency setting during attempted resuscitation when lidocaine and
cardioversion have failed. *

Side effect of actinomycin D is:

A. Bronchospasm
B. Hypotension
C. GI toxicity
D. Oral and GI ulcers *
E. Dysphonia

Side effect of furosemide is:

A. Nausea *
B. Mucositis
C. Constipation
D. Hearing impairment
E. Weight gain

Class of pyrimethamine is:

A. Antifolates *
B. Antivirals
C. Aquaretics
D. Autonomic nervous system drugs
E. H2 antagonists

Mechanism of resistance of sufentanil is:

A. Penicillin binding proteins (PBPs)

B. Decreased drug uptake by bacteria
C. Transport protein mutations
D. Tolerance *
E. Mutation of viral DNA polymerase

Mechanism of action of zalcitabine is:

A. Inhibits inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase

B. Inhibits reverse transcriptase *
C. Inhibits DNA gyrase
D. Inhibits viral protease
E. Inhibits dihydropteroate synthetase
Class of metformin is:

A. Lipid lowering drugs

B. Antimycobacterial
C. Thyroid agents
D. Vasodilators
E. Oral hypoglycemics *

Route of administration of methadone is:

A. Subcutaneous
B. Inhalation
C. Intrathecal
D. Oral *
E. Transdermal

Side effect of nedocromil is:

A. Growth retardation in children

B. Thiocyanate poisoning
C. Neuromuscular paralysis
D. Nausea *
E. Dysphonia

Indication of epinephrine is:

A. Post myocardial infarction

B. Asthma *
C. Tremor
D. Trigeminal neuralgia
E. Neurosurgical anesthesia

dication of ciprofloxacin is:

A. In Tuberculosis
B. Migraine prophylaxis
C. Tricyclic antidepressant poisoning
D. Broad spectrum antibacterial agent *
E. Asthma

Mechanism of action of vincristine is:

A. Inhibits organification of iodine by thyroid gland

B. Increases peripheral tissues sensitivity to insulin
C. Reduces peripheral insulin resistance
D. Inhibits Na-K-2Cl transporter
 E. Mitotic spindle poison *

Indication of aspirin is:

A. Insomnia
B. Cyanide poisoning
C. Cardiac arrest
D. Inflammation *
E. Subarachnoid hemorrhage

Class of reserpine is:

A. Anticoagulants
B. Methylxanthines
C. Inotropic agents
D. Antiarrhythmic agents
E. Autonomic nervous system drugs *

Subclass of lomafloxacin is:

A. Fluoroquinolones *
B. IA
C. Calciferols
D. Beta-lactamase resistant penicillins
E. Aldosterone antagonists

Effect of bisacodyl is:

A. Decreases total cholesterol by 8-12%

B. Decreases water absorption *
C. Decreases total cholesterol by 20-50%
D. Enhances mucociliary clearance
E. Decreases triglycerides by 10-20%

Mechanism of action of amiloride is:

A. Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase

B. Modulation of CD3 receptor from the cell surface
C. Inhibits renal epithelial Na channels *
D. Aldosterone antagonist
E. Inhibits DNA-dependent RNA polymerase

Mechanism of action of salbutamol is:

A. opiate agonist
B. Blocks sustained repetitive neuronal firing
 C. beta-2 agonist *
D. Inhibits phospholipase A2
E. Inhibits phospholipase C

Class of ranitidine is:

A. Vasodilators
B. Sulfonamides
C. Tetracyclines
D. H2 antagonists *
E. Antimycobacterial

Indication of norepinephrine is:

A. Life-threatening ventricular tachyarrhythmias

B. Cardiac stimulation
C. Decongestant *
D. Hypertension
E. Asthma

Indication of primaquine is:

A. Broad spectrum antibacterial agent

B. Amebiasis
C. Malaria *
D. Shock
E. Rheumatoid arthritis

Site of metabolism of omeprazole is:

A. None
B. Kidneys
C. Liver *
D. Unknown
E. Reticuloendothelial system

Which of the following statements refers to pyrazinamide:

A. Accumulates inside mycobacteria

B. Effects: vasodilator in CHF patients; vasodilator and inotropic in normal
individuals.
C. Is active in acidic environment, therefore especially useful for killing intracellular
mycobacteria *
D. Nephrotoxicity is almost always reversible.
E. Lupus occurs more commonly in slow acetylators.
Side effect of triamcinolone is:

A. Asthma
B. Nausea
C. Cataracts *
D. Anxiety
E. Hyperglycemia

Which of the following statements refers to atenolol

A. No intrinsic sympathomimetic activity. *

B. Can prevent recurrent infarction and sudden death in patients recovering from
myocardial infarction.
C. Is more likely to cause edema than verapamil
D. Avoid Ca supplements made from dolomite or from bone meal as these may
contain lead or other toxic metals.
E. Should not be used as a sole agent in sustained forms of hyperthyroidism.

Mechanism of action of Prozac is:

A. Induces translation misreadings

B. dopamine antagonist
C. Damages mitochondrial DNA
D. serotonin reuptake inhibitor *
E. monoamine reuptake inhibitor

Indication of thiabendazole is:

A. Cestodes
B. Status epilepticus
C. Strongyloides stercoralis *
D. Ancylostoma duodenale
E. Ventricular fibrillation

Side effect of OKT-3 is:

A. Myalgia
B. Restlessness
C. Cognitive dulling
D. Dyspnea *
E. Cough

Mechanism of action of cocaine is:

A. Inhibits Na-Cl transporter

B. Muscarinic agonist
 C. beta-2 agonist
D. beta-1 antagonist
E. Blocks catecholamine uptake by axonal terminal *

Class of pectin is:

A. Analgesics
B. Glucocorticosteroids
C. Methylxanthines
D. Antidiarrheal agents *
E. Antiarrhythmic agents

Class of bethanecol is:

A. NSAID
B. Autonomic nervous system drugs *
C. Antiarrhythmic agents
D. Inotropic agents
E. Beta blockers

Class of urokinase is:

A. Sedatives
B. Anti-asthmatic agents
C. Antimycobacterial
D. Antidepressants
E. Thrombolytics *

Subclass of norfloxacin is:

A. III
B. Fluoroquinolones *
C. IC
D. Bulk-forming laxatives
E. II

Class of cocaine is:

A. Retinoids
B. Anti-asthmatic agents
C. Autonomic nervous system drugs *
D. Loop diuretics
E. Antiarrhythmic agents

Class of phenobarbital is:

 A. Barbiturates *
B. Antiprotozoan agents
C. Antimycobacterial
D. Benzodiazepines
E. Sedatives

Subclass of tolbutamide is:

A. Sulfonylureas *
B. Organic nitrates
C. Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors
D. Potassium channel agonists
E. Biguanides

Mechanism of action of ganciclovir is:

A. Inhibits viral uncoating

B. Inhibits viral DNA polymerase *
C. Inhibits Na-Cl transporter
D. Inhibits RNA-dependent RNA polymerase
E. Blocks K channels

Which of the following statements refers to carbamazepine:

A. Effects in hypertension: 1. Blood pressure - decrease 2. Systemic vascular

resistance - decrease 3. Heart rate - no change 4. Stroke volume - no change 5.
Ejection fraction - no change 6. Venous capacitance - increase 7. Pulmonary
capillary wedge pressure - no change 8. Renin - increase 9. Plasma aldosterone -
decrease 10. Plasma norepinephrine - no change
B. Cognitive side effects, respiratory depression.
C. Generally very effective as a single drug. *
D. Few cognitive or behavioral side effects.
E. Is found in breast milk.

Indication of diazepam is:

A. Migraine prophylaxis
B. Bipolar disorder
C. Myoclonic seizures *
D. Thyrotoxicosis - preparation for surgery
E. Trigeminal neuralgia

Route of administration of paromomycin is:

A. Inhalation
B. Subcutaneous
 C. IV
D. Oral *
E. Sublingual

Class of doxepin is:

A. Antidepressants *
B. Aquaretics
C. Autonomic nervous system drugs
D. Laxatives
E. Anti-asthmatic agents

Class of cascara is:

A. H2 antagonists
B. Macrolides
C. Cathartics *
D. Analgesics
E. Lipid lowering drugs

Interactions with other drugs of Demerol is:

A. Rifampin: stimulates metabolism

B. Iron: decreases absorption
C. Amiodarone: inhibits activation
D. Phenytoin: stimulates metabolism
E. Desipramine: enhances analgesia *

Mechanism of action of PAS is:

A. Activates antithrombin III

B. Inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis
C. Inhibits dihydropteroate synthetase *
D. Inhibits DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
E. beta-1 antagonist

Class of tocainide is:

A. Thiazides
B. Antiarrhythmic agents *
C. Cephalosporins
D. Autonomic nervous system drugs
E. Beta blockers

Route of administration of erythromycin is:

 A. Inhalation
B. IV
C. Sublingual
D. Intra-auricular
E. Oral *

Half-life of tolbutamide is:

A. 12-24 hours
B. 3 hours
C. 6-12 hours *
D. 10 hours
E. 8 hours

Which of the following statements refers to fansidar:

A. Effect monitored by PT (prothrombin time)

B. Embryopathy is due to production of epoxide metabolites. It is especially
common when several anticonvulsants are used together.
C. Is a mixture of trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole
D. Minimal GI absorption.
E. Allergic reactions (cutaneous) can be fatal in 1/20,000 users. *

Class of timolol is:

A. Antiarrhythmic agents
B. Antithyroid agents
C. Anticonvulsants
D. Beta blockers *
E. Antidepressants

Which of the following statements refers to foscavir:

A. Pyrophosphate analog *
B. Metabolism in liver is by glucuronidization
C. Not shown to reduce sudden death or prolong survival.
D. Inhibition of DNA gyrase results in: 1. Inhibition of bacterial replication 2.
Inhibition of DNA repair 3. Inhibition of expression of certain operons
E. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor

Indication of sodium valproate is:

A. Prophylaxis of certain infections

B. Partial complex seizures *
C. Bipolar disorder
D. Delirium tremor
 E. Primary immunodeficiency

Mechanism of action of carbenicillin is:

A. Inhibits transpeptidase *
B. Blocks Na channels
C. Activates heparin cofactor II which inhibits thrombin (at high concentrations)
D. Blocks sustained repetitive neuronal firing
E. GM-CSF

Which of the following statements refers to flunisolide:

A. Penetrates placenta less readily than MMI

B. Causes fetal complications more frequently than PTU.
C. Is not as effective for acute attacks as beta-2 agonists.
D. Used only for maintenance/prophylaxis. Systemic steroids are used in case of
acute exacerbations. *
E. Cigarette smoking increases metabolism. Liver failure - decreases metabolism.