MICROBIOLOGY

FINAL EXAM
NAME ____________________________
SECTION _________________________

Direction: MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the BEST answer that will complement the given question. Shade the letter of your choice on
the provided answer sheet. GOOD LUCK and GOD BLESS! 

1. All of the following are true statements concerning binary fission of microbial cells EXCEPT:
a. the chromosome of the cell is replicated
b. Elongation of the cell occurs and the chromosomes are pushed apart
c. A septum is formed across the midline of the cell
d. Daughter cells produced can be of different sizes
e. Cells can remain attached after division is complete
2. In a gram-negative organism, how do small molecules move into the periplasm from outside the cell?
a. They diffuse freely through the peptidoglycan layer
b. They are transported by lipid A
c. They pass through porins
d. Via binary fission
3. Lipid A is also known as
a. Endotoxin
b. teichoic acid
c. Pilin
d. mycolic acid
e. lipopolysaccharide
4. Which of the following statements is true?
a. Endospores are for reproduction
b. endospores allow a cell to survive adverse environmental changes
c. Endospores are heat sensitive
d. A cell produces one endospore and keeps growing
e. A cell can produce many endospores
5. Translation of gene products in bacteria is faster than in eukaryotes because:
a. mRNA can interact with the ribosome in the cytoplasm as soon as it is transcribed
b. mRNA passes through a thinner nuclear membrane to react with ribosomes in the cytoplasm
c. bacterial genes are shorter and lesser in number
6. the intervening nucleotide sequences made during synthesis of lagging daughter strand, EXCEPT
a. RNA primer
b. RNA transcript
c. Okazaki fragment
7. The point at which replication of DNA starts
a. Replication fork
b. Start codon
c. Promoter region
8. The enzyme that catalyzes the synthesis of DNA is called
a. DNA polymerase
b. DNA gyrase
c. DNA ligase
d. Helicase
9. During which of the following process a new copy of DNA molecule is precisely synthesized?
a. Transformation
b. Translation
c. Transcription
d. Replication
10. Which of the following enzymes unwind short stretches of DNA helix immediately ahead of a replication fork?
a. DNA polymerases
b. Helicases
c. Single-stranded binding proteins
d. Topoisomerases
11. The synthesis of DNA by DNA polymerase occurs in the
a. 3’ to 5’ direction
b. 5’ to 5’ direction
c. 5’ to 3’ direction
d. 3’ to 3’ direction
12. Site in the ribosome from which the tRNA donated amino acids to the growing polypeptide chain is
a. P site
b. O site
c. T site
d. A site
13. What are the Svedberg values for the subunits of the 70S ribosomes of E. coli?
a. 40S and 30S
b. 50S and 20S
c. 50S and 30S
d. 40S and 20S
14. Which of the following statement described plasmids?
a. Another name for a protoplast
b. A complex membrane structure that covers the chromosome of bacteria
c. Small, circular DNA molecules that can exist independently of chromosomes commonly found in bacteria
d. None of the above
15. Type of mutation that allows microorganisms to exhibit new phenotypic traits, EXCEPT:
a. Frameshift mutation
b. Neutral point mutation
c. Missense point mutation
16. Mutation differs from genetic recombination in that:
a. Adaptive phenotypic traits are acquired
b. Phenotypic traits acquired are permanent
c. Phenotypic traits are enhanced
17. Degeneracy of the genetic code allows:
a. Exact transmission of genes from generation to generation
b. Genotypic change without a phenotypic change
c. Phenotypic change without a genotypic change
18. The following does not occur when substrate is present:
a. Structural genes for the enzyme is transcribed and translated
b. Inducer becomes inactive
c. Polymerase binds with promoter region of the gene
18. Promoter region in transcribable DNA strand is the nucleotide sequence:
a. AUG
b. UAC
c. TAC
19. Which of the following structures contains genes for enzymes and antibiotic resistance
a. Plasmid
b. Pilus
c. Capsule
d. Plasma Membrane
20. Which one of the following is TRUE of both DNA and RNA?
a. both contain the base U, uracil
b. both contain the base T, thymine
c. both are polymers of nucleotides
d. both are found double stranded in all living cells
e. both are built up from ribonucleotides
21. Which one of the following is required for TRANSCRIPTION?
a. the enzyme, RNA polymerase
b. all 20 different types of transfer-RNAs (t-RNAs)
c. the start or stop codons
d. ribosomal attachment and activity
e. obviously all of above are required
22. The mutation which will not affect the length of a protein is
a. Nonsense mutation
b. Missense mutation
c. Frameshift mutation
d. All of these
23. A nonsense mutation may result into
a. An abnormal elongation of a polypeptide
b. A large deletion within the reading frame of a gene
c. A premature termination of the synthesis of a polypeptide
d. Modification of mRNA
24. Which of the following mutation affects only a single nucleotide?
a. Aerial mutation
b. Site mutation
c. Point mutation
d. Regional mutation
25. A mutagen is defined as
a. An enzyme that repairs mutations
b. A chemical or physical agent that induces mutations
c. An inhibitor of gene modification
d. A molecule which stabilizes DNA this prevents mutations from occurring.
26. To which of the following adenine always binds?
a. Guanine
b. Cytosine
c. Thymine
d. None of these
27. Which is mismatched?
a. Replication=formation of 2 identical DNA molecules
b. Transcription=mRNA synthesized from a DNA template
c. TRANSLATION=tRNA transfers amino acids to the ribosomes based on mRNA codons
d. Nonsense codons=terminator codons
e. Anticodon=sequence of 3 nitrogenous bases on the genes
28. Concerning Streptococcus mutans:
 a. S. mutans is extremely aciduric, growing well at a pH range of 4.5 to 5
b. S. mutans produces large amounts of lactic acid from aerobic respiration
c. S. mutans produces a cell wall-bound glucosyl transferase that splits fructose to form glucose and sucrose, and it then
transfers the glucose to a growing polysaccharide chain to form a large extracellular glycan.
d. A & B are correct
e. A,B and C are correct
29. In the passive diffusion, solute molecule cross the membrane as a result of:
a. Concentration difference
b. Pressure difference
c. Ionic difference
d. All of these
30. The acquisition energy by glucose fermentation requires
a. Substrate level phosphorylation
b. Electron transport of electrons from NADH
c. Long chain fatty acid oxidation
d. The enzyme formic-hydrogen lyase
31. Entner-Deudoroff pathway is found in
a. Aerobic prokaryotes
b. Anaerobic prokaryotes
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Aerobic eukaryotes
32. The major route for incorporation of ammonia (NH4+) into organic compounds is via:
a. Reduction of pyruvate or alpha-ketoglutarate by enzymes
b. Atmospheric nitrogen fixation
c. Oxidation of pyruvate
d. All of these
33. Competitive inhibition of enzyme action involves:
a. Alteration of the enzyme’s active site
b. Irreversible binding to the enzyme active site
c. Competition with the substrate for binding at the active site
d. Destruction of the enzyme substrate
e. Competition for binding at the enzyme allosteric site
34. Unlike eukaryotes, in prokaryotes chemiosmosis:
a. Moves iron instead of protons across the membrane
b. Does not require ATP synthase
c. Does not require a membrane
d. Occurs at the plasma membrane and not the mitochondria
e. Electrons are eventually passed to organic molecules instead of inorganic acceptors.
35. Streptococcus bacteria lack an ETC. How many molecules of ATP can a streptococcus cell net from one molecule of glucose?
a. 10
b. 2
c. 38
d. 36
36. The energy produced in the electron transport chain during oxidative phosphorylation:
a. Collectively form a phosphate group that can be added to ADP to form ATP
b. It is used to power the mechanism that drives hydrogen ions outside of the cell membrane
c. Is used to power up hydrogen atoms to enter within cell via cell membrane
37. Converging pathways for bacterial anabolism allow synthesis of macromolecule from the intermediate or end-products
a. Of the original nutrient molecule
b. Of other nutrient molecules
c. Of ATP
38. Viruses ______________.
a. Have a protein core and nucleic acid coat
b. Have a protein coat and nucleic acid core
c. Have a cell nucleus inside a bacterial shell
d. Have a nucleic acid very different from their host cell
e. Lack enzymes necessary for nucleic acid replication
39. In order for virus to replicate
a. The capsid must enter the host cell cytoplasm
b. The host cell must be undergoing mitosis
c. The genome must be released in the cytoplasm
40. A virus is called a virion when, EXCEPT:
a. It is infectious
b. It is being replicated
c. It is in extracellular phase
41. The intracellular stage of viral infection is characterized by:
1. The absence of a demonstrable virion
2. An increase in number of viral particles
3. Attainment of eclipse phase
4. Nucleocapsid
a. 1, 2, 3 b. 2, 3, 4 c. 1, 3, 4 d. 2, 1, 4
42. Susceptibility of prokaryotic or eukaryotic cells to virus infection involves
a. Reception for its envelope
b. Random encounters

43. Early protein synthesis occurring during viral replication makes:

a. Protomers & glycoprotein spikes
 b. Enzymes for viral replication
c. Enzymes for capsid and envelope synthesis

44. Match the following types of persistent infections with the definitions below: Chronic infections, latent infections
1. Virus is detectable in tissue samples, multiplying at slow rate; symptoms mild or absent
2. After a lytic cycle, virus enters a dormant phase; generally not detectable, no symptoms, can reactivate and result
in recurrent infections.
a. Chronic infections= 1, latent infections =2
b. Latent infections= 1, chronic infections =2
c. The definitions given do not match the terms given

45. ____________ are viruses that reproduce inside bacteria.

a. Adenoviruses
b. Retroviruses
c. Oncoviruses
d. Bacteriophages
e. HIV
46. Which capsid symmetry is exhibited by most of the phages?
a. Helical
b. Icosahedral
c. Complex
d. None of these
47. In the lytic cycle, _____________ on the capsid combine with a receptor on a bacterial cell wall to fit together as a key fits a
lock.
a. Attachment sites
b. Nucleic acids
c. Reverse transcriptase
d. cDNA
e. RNA
48. The first step in infection of a host bacterial cells by a phage is
a. Adsorption
b. Absorption
c. Penetration
d. Replication
49. The mechanism whereby an enveloped virus leaves a host cell is called?
a. Transduction
b. Budding
c. Teratogenesis
d. Lysogeny
e. Penetration
50. Which is not true of virus capsids?
a. They surround and protect viral nucleic acid
b. Always icosahedral in shape
c. Remain outside of host bacterial cells while the nucleic acid is injected into the bacterial cell
d. Enters host animal cells together with the nucleic acid
e. Made up of protein subunits called capsomeres
51. In transduction, bacteria acquire new genetic information in the form of:
a. Bacterial genes
b. Mutations
c. “naked DNA”
d. R-factors
e. Viral genes
52. In lysogeny,
a. A bacteriophage transfers bacterial DNA
b. Bacteria take up double stranded DNA from the environment
c. DNA degrading enzymes in the extracellular medium would stop the process
d. A bacteriophage genome is integrated into the bacterial chromosome
54. Viral lysogeny is beneficial to virus because:
a. No other virus can infect its host
b. Permanent template of viral genome in host cell is assured
c. Virus can confer toxigenic characteristics
55. Which of the following statements is NOT true of viruses?
a. Viruses have been successfully grown in pure cultures in test tubes
b. All viruses are obligatory intracellular parasites
c. Viruses probably arose from small fragments of cellular chromosomes
56. Information for synthesis of which of the following constituents is not always contained in viral genome?
a. Envelope
b. Polymerase
c. Glycoprotein
57. Which of the following is responsible for the pleomorphism of some viruses
a. capsid b. envelope c. spikes
58. The relationship between HIV and host where no new viral particles are produced and genome is replicated along with host
chromosomes
a. lysogeny b. lysis c. infection
59. Which of the following best describes the difference in the way B cells and cytotoxic T cells respond to invaders?
a. B cells confer active immunity; cytotoxic confer passive immunity
b. B cells kill viruses directly; cytotoxic T cells kills virus infected cells
c. B cells remember pathogens and produce antibodies; cytotoxic T cells directly kill cells that are infected with
pathogens
d. T cell remember pathogens and produce antibodies; cytotoxic B cells directly kill cells that are infected with pathogens.
60. The class of immunoglobulins which can cross the placenta is
a. IgM
b. IgA
c. IgG
d. IgD
61. Antigen binding sites of an immunoglobulin are located in
a. Light chain alone
b. Heavy chain alone
c. Fc region of the antibody
d. Fab regions of the antibody
62. Which of the following mediates Type I hypersensitivity reaction?
a. IgE
b. IgM
c. IgG
d. IgD
63. Which is not a function of IgG?
a. Major antibody in serum
b. First antibody type produced against an antigen during the primary antibody response
c. Activates or fixes complement
d. Involved in opsonisation
64. Which of the following are two hallmarks of the adaptive immune systems?
a. Immediate and Broad
b. Specificity and Memory
c. Innate and Short
c. Nonspecific and fast
d. Immediate and Passive
65. All of the following are properties of acquired but NOT innate immunity except:
a. Pattern recognition receptors (PRR)
b. Neutrophils
c. Defensins
d. Acute inflammation
e. Chronic inflammation
66. Which of the following is NOT a function of antibodies?
a. Agglutination
b. Opsonisation
c. Complement activation
d. DTH
e. Neutralization
67. Blocking attachment of viruses or exotoxins to the receptors by antibodies is called:
a. Opsonization
b. Fixation
c. Neutralization
d. Agglutination
e. Endocytosis
68. In order to be called an antigen-presenting cells (APC), a cell must express _____ on its membrane.
a. Antigen receptors
b. Fc receptors
c. MHC I
d. MHC II
e. All of these
69. Which is not a leukocyte?68
a. Lymphocyte
b. Erythrocyte
c. Monocyte
d. Neutrophil
e. Eosinophil
70. Which type of lymphocyte is involved in nonspecific immune defense?
a. T cells
b. B cells
c. NK cells
d. None of these lymphocytes are nonspecific
71. The presence of toxin in the blood is known as:
a. bacteremia
b. viremia
c. toxemia
d. septicemia
72. Phenomenon in which flora inhibits growth of potential pathogens by competing for nutrients or oxygen, preventing attachment,
production of antimicrobial substances, etc.
a. Microbial antagonism
b. Microbial commensalism
c. Microbial protagonism
d. Microbial mutualism
73. All of the following pertain to exotoxins but not endotoxin except:
a. Produced in G+ bacteria only
b. Protein in nature
c. Are secreted from cell
d. Bind to specific receptors on target cells
e. Can be inactivated to form toxoids.
74. All of the following are the functions of macrophages except:
a. Phagocytosis
b. Antigen presentation
c. Complement activation
d. Cytokine secretion
e. Delayed hypersensitivity
75. __________ are the predominant cell type in an acute inflammatory response.
a. Macrophages
b. Neutrophiles
c. Helper T cells
d. Cytotoxic t cells
d. Dendritic cells
76. Which of the following cells can release histamine in an inflammatory response?
a. Neutrophil
b. Monocyte
c. Macrophage
d. Mast cell
e. Endothelial cell
77. Bacterial flagella can BEST be characterized as:
a. Polysaccharide responsible for cell locomotion
b. Virulence factors
c. Mediators of chronic inflammation
d. Composed of N acetyl muramic acid and N acetyl glucosamine
e. Surface antigens responsible for septic shock
78. Which among of the following is LEAST considered to be a determinant of bacterial pathogenesis?
a. The organism’s route of transmission
b. Effectiveness of the host immune response
c. Enzymes produced by the bacteria
d. Presence of surface pili
e. Thickness of the peptidoglycan layer
79. Capsules are important bacterial components for each of the following reasons EXCEPT:
a. Capsules can be involved in the elicitation of protective antibody
b. Capsules provide escape from innate mechanisms of immunity
c. A component of bacterial capsules is the toxic portion of LPS
d. Capsules may enable a bacteria to adhere to tissue
e. Capsules may aid in the laboratory identification of an organism
80. Pathogenicity is the ability of the microbe:
a. To cause infection in the susceptible host
b. To modify the composition of the normal flora
c. To cause disease in the immune host
d. To spread actively from the host to host
81. What virulence factor is common to all Gram negative bacilli?
a. Capsule
b. Exotoxin
c. Endotoxin
d. Dnase
e. Hemolysin
82. What component of LPS accounts for most of its adverse effects?
a. Endotoxin
b. Lipid A
c. Peptidoglycan
d. Polysaccharide
e. Lipoprotein
83. Which two of the following contribute to the opportunistic and infectious nature of bacteria?
a. Flagella
b. Selectively permeable membrane
c. Ability to persist in unfavorable environments
d. Fast growth
e. Both c and d
84. Capsules, sheaths and slime layers generally aid with:
a. Nutrient transport
b. Cell attachment
c. Chemotaxis
d. Heat resistance
85. Penicillin controls bacterial growth by:
a. Preventing synthesis of the LPS layer
b. Preventing cross-link formation in peptidoglycan
c. Inhibiting protein synthesis
d. Preventing generation of the proton motive force
86. Normal Microbiota in our bodies benefit from a safe habitat, while they in turn frequently help us by protecting the host from
pathogens or secreting useful products, this type of relationship is known as:85
a. Pluralistic symbiosis
b. Mutualistic symbiosis
c. Commensalistic symbiosis
d. Non-symbiotic
87. The co-interdependent factors in the formation of caries are:
a. Teeth, refined carbohydrates, microorganisms and oral hygiene
b. Teeth, refined carbohydrates, microorganisms and time
c. Teeth, refined carbohydrates, microorganisms and quality of saliva
d. Teeth, refined carbohydrates and microorganism
88. Primarily, systemic fluorides protect the teeth by which of the following actions?
a. Lowering their surface energy
b. Creating bacteriostasis
c. Inhibiting enzyme activity
d. Reducing the fluoroapatitesolubility
e. Improving their morphology
89. A quorum sensing system
a. Detects a signal from the external environment
b. Senses a compound produced by the bacterium itself
c. Consists of a sensor component that phosphorylates a regulatory protein
d. Controls the activity of ribosomes directly
90. The bacteria involved in the production of dental caries is/are
a. Streptococcus mutans
b. S. sanguis
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Streptococcus pyogenes
91. Virulence of microorganism:
a. Is the specific degree of pathogenicity of the particular strain
b. Is a species-specific property
c. Is the ability of microbial species to cause disease
d. in the particular strain is stable and cannot be changed
92. Which is incorrect:
a. Biofilms make bacteria more sensitive to antibiotics
b. Biofilms are often polymicrobial
c. Biofilms attach bacteria to surfaces
d. Biofilms protect bacteria
93. Non-ionizing radiation:
a. Causes adjacent DNA thymines of microorganism to bind resulting to incorrect replication of DNA
b. Modifies ribosomes resulting to aborted enzyme or protein synthesis
c. Causes formation of hydroxyl radicals that may react with the organic components of microbial cell
94. What is mismatched?
a. Bacteriostatic=kill vegetative bacterial cells
b.Germicide=kills microbes
c. Viricide=inactivates viruses
d. Sporicide=kills bacterial endospores and fungal spores
e. Fungicide=kills yeasts and molds
95. If you were asked to sterilize a heat sensitive item which of the following would be most suitable?
a. Steam autoclave
b. Pasteurization
c. Ethylene oxide
d. Ethyl alcohol
e. Hot air oven
96. Which of the following is commonly used to prepare incision sites for surgery and as a surgical scrub?
a. Ethyl alcohol
b. Hydrogen peroxide
c. Iodophor
d. Glutaraldehyde
e. Lysol
97. The chemical in bleach responsible for antimicrobial activity:
a. Iodine
b. Phenol
c. Chlorine
d. Zinc
e. Glutaraldehyde
98. Effective hand washing requires the use of:
a. Soap or detergent to promote emulsification
b. Hot water to destroy bacteria
c. A disinfectant to increase surface tension
d. All of the above
99. Aseptic technique:
a. Eliminates all the microorganisms in the surgical site
b. Is an important measure to protect the patient from developing a surgical wound infection
c. Includes dental practices that prevent contamination
d. Is the responsibility of the entire surgical and or clinical team
100. The process in which microorganisms are transmitted from one patient to another is called:
a. Sterile technique
b. Cross contamination
c. Septic technique
d. Partial contamination
101. Which of the following skin preparation products provide a rapid decrease in the level of microorganisms?100
a. Alcohol and iodine
b. Alcohol and chlorhexidine
c. Iodine and chlorhexidine
d. Chlorhexidine and peroxide
102. Utility gloves are utilized in a dental office for which of the following tasks?
A. Setting up the operatory
B. Disposing of sharps
C. Handling instruments while preparing for sterilization
D. Disinfecting the operatory following patient treatment
E. Both (c) and (d)
103. The following are considered to be the most critical personal protection, EXCEPT:
A. Gloves
B. Lab coat
C. Mask
D. Eyewear or face shield
E. Leather shoes
104. Gluteraldehydes are used for:
A. Cold sterilization
B. Immersion disinfection purposes
C. Penetration of blood and saliva
D. Surface disinfection in dental treatment rooms
E. A, b and c are correct
 105. Sterilization involves the use of a physical or chemical procedure to:
a. remove visible soil from surgical instruments
b. destroy non-pathogenic microorganisms
c. destroy all forms of microbial life including highly resistant bacterial spores
d. destroy all forms of microbial life except highly resistant bactecterial spores
106. The essential parameters of steam sterilization are:
a. securely wrapped packages
b. time, temperature, saturated steam and pressure
c. chemical and biological indicators
d. both A and C
107. Infection control is a number of recommended safety measures that dentists put into practice to protect
their patients and staff in the office:106
a. True
B. False
108. Of the following, which generally poses the greatest risk for airborne infection?
a. splatter
b. droplets
c. aerosols
d. unwashed hands
109. Devices connected to the dental water system that enter the patient’s mouth should be flushed for how long
after each patient?108
a. 5-10 secs
b. 20-30 secs
c. 2 mins
d. 20 minutes
110. Which Hepatitis virus should a dental clinician and personnel be immunized against:
a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B
c. Hepatitis C.
d. all of the above