Professional Documents
Culture Documents
Question
The charge nurse asks the nursing assistive personnel (NAP) to give a bag bath to a
patient with end-stage chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. How should the NAP
proceed?
A towel bath is a modification of the bed bath in which the NAP places a large
towel and a bath blanket into a plastic bag, saturates them with a commercially
prepared mixture of moisturizer, non rinse cleaning agent, and water; warms in them
in a microwave, and then uses them to bathe the patient. A bag bath is a
modification of the towel bath, in which the NAP uses 8 to 10 washcloths instead of
a towel or blanket. Each part of the patient’s body is bathed with a fresh cloth.
Option B: A bag bath is not given in a chair or in the tub. The bag bath is one
alternative to the traditional bed bath used in some nursing homes. The bath is
performed with a series of 10 washcloths and a no-rinse liquid cleanser. Close the
door and windows to prevent cold drafts and wash hands with warm water before
beginning.
Option C: Moisten the washcloths with water and put in a plastic bag with the
cleanser. Warm the bag in the microwave for 60 to 90 seconds. Test the temperature
of the clothes before touching a resident with them and be careful when you open
the bag, as steam can burn.
Option D: Take the bag to the resident’s bedside. When you are not cleaning a body
part, keep it covered. Only expose as much of the resident’s body as necessary to
adequately clean him or her. Be especially sensitive to exposing genitals,
buttocks, and breasts. Bathing can be an extremely stressful experience for
residents, so try to make it as easy as possible.
2. Question
For a morbidly obese patient, which intervention should the nurse choose to
counteract the pressure created by the skin folds?
Separating the skin folds with towels relieves the pressure of skin rubbing on
skin. Skin folds, in particular, may be difficult for the patient to clean
thoroughly; the abdominal folds and groins may be ignored, leading to an increased
risk of skin breakdown in these areas.
Option A: Sheepskins are not recommended for use at all. Skin folds present a
challenge in the management of patients who are morbidly obese. The weight from
excess adipose tissue in skinfold areas can have an increased risk of skin injury
such as friction, maceration, skin tears and pressure ulcer development.
Option B: Skin folds and areas vulnerable to skin injury should be cleaned and
dried several times a day. Alcohol-based lotions and harsh soaps, as well as talcum
powders, should be avoided in these areas. If necessary, dry cloths to absorb
moisture can be left in skin folds in between washing and drying of the skin folds.
Option D: Petrolatum barrier creams are used to minimize moisture caused by
incontinence. Patient hydration should also be considered in the nutrition plan for
the patients and the health of their skin.
3. Question
A client exhibits all of the following during a physical assessment. Which of these
is considered a primary defense against infection?
A. Fever
B. Intact skin
C. Inflammation
D. Lethargy
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Intact skin
Intact skin is considered a primary defense against infection. Usually, the skin
prevents invasion by microorganisms unless it is damaged (for example, by an
injury, insect bite, or burn). Mucous membranes, such as the lining of the mouth,
nose, and eyelids, are also effective barriers. Typically, mucous membranes are
coated with secretions that fight microorganisms. For example, the mucous membranes
of the eyes are bathed in tears, which contain an enzyme called lysozyme that
attacks bacteria and helps protect the eyes from infection. Fever, the inflammatory
response, and phagocytosis (a process of killing pathogens) are considered
secondary defenses against infection.
A. A clean gown and gloves must be worn when in contact with the client.
B. Everyone who enters the room must wear a N-95 respirator mask.
C. All linen and trash must be marked as contaminated and send to biohazard waste.
D. Place the client in a room with a client with an upper respiratory infection.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. A clean gown and gloves must be worn when in contact with the
client.
A clean gown and gloves must be worn when any contact is anticipated with the
client or with contaminated items in the room. Visitors might also be asked to wear
a gown and gloves. Patients are asked to stay in their hospital rooms as much as
possible. They should not go to common areas, such as the gift shop or cafeteria.
They may go to other areas of the hospital for treatments and tests.
Option B: A respirator mask is required only with airborne precautions, not contact
precautions. Healthcare providers will put on gloves and wear a gown over their
clothing while taking care of patients with MRSA.
Option C: All linen must be double-bagged and clearly marked as contaminated. When
leaving the room, healthcare providers and visitors remove their gown and gloves
and clean their hands.
Option D: The client should be placed in a private room or in a room with a client
with an active infection caused by the same organism and no other infections.
Whenever possible, patients with MRSA will have a single room or will share a room
only with someone else who also has MRSA.
5. Question
A client requires protective isolation. Which client can be safely paired with this
client in a client-care assignment? One:
The client with unstable diabetes mellitus can safely be paired in a client-care
assignment because the client is free from infection. Protective Isolation aims to
protect an immunocompromised patient who is at high risk of acquiring micro-
organisms from either the environment or from other patients, staff, or visitors.
Reaching over the sterile field while wearing sterile garb breaks the sterile
technique. While observing sterile technique, healthcare workers should remain 1
foot away from non-sterile areas while wearing sterile garb, place sterile items
needed for the procedure on the sterile drape, and avoid coming in contact with the
1-inch border of the sterile drape. The principles of the Sterile Technique are
applied in various ways. If the principle itself is understood, the applications of
it become obvious. A strict aseptic technique is needed at all times in the
Operating Room.
Option A: Sterile persons avoid leaning over an unsterile area; non-sterile persons
avoid reaching over a sterile field. Unsterile persons do not get closer than 12
inches from a sterile field.
Option B: Persons who are sterile touch only sterile articles; persons who are not
sterile touch only unsterile articles. If in doubt about the sterility of anything
consider it not sterile. If a non-sterile person brushes close consider yourself
contaminated.
Option C: Sterile persons keep contact with sterile areas to a minimum. Do not lean
on the sterile tables or on the draped patient. Do not lean on the nurse’s mayo
tray.
7. Question
Nurse Berta is facilitating a monthly mothers’ class at a small village. As a
knowledgeable nurse, she must know that a mother who breastfeeds her child passes
on which antibody through breast milk?
A. IgA
B. IgE
C. IgG
D. IgM
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. IgA
Antibodies, which are also called immunoglobulins, take five basic forms, indicated
as IgG, IgA, IgM, IgD and IgE. All have been detected in human milk, but by far the
most abundant type is IgA, particularly the form known as secretory IgA, which is
found in great amounts throughout the gut and respiratory system of adults. The
secretory IgA molecules passed to the suckling child are helpful in ways that go
beyond their ability to bind to microorganisms and keep them away from the body’s
tissues.
There are two types of normal flora: transient and resident. Transient flora are
normal flora that a person picks up by coming in contact with objects or another
person (e.g., when you touch a soiled dressing). You can remove these with hand
washing. Hand washing can prevent about 30% of diarrhea-related illnesses and about
20% of respiratory infections (e.g., colds). Antibiotics often are prescribed
unnecessarily for these health issues
Option B: Resident flora live deep in skin layers where they live and multiply
harmlessly. They are permanent inhabitants of the skin and cannot usually be
removed with routine hand washing.
Option C: Removing all microorganisms from the skin (sterilization) is not possible
without damaging the skin tissues. To live and thrive in humans, microbes must be
able to use the body’s precise balance of food, moisture, nutrients, electrolytes,
pH, temperature, and light.
Option D: Food, water, and soil that provide these conditions may serve as
nonliving reservoirs. Hand washing does little to make the skin uninhabitable for
microorganisms, except perhaps briefly when an antiseptic agent is used for
cleansing. Handwashing with soap could protect about 1 out of every 3 young
children who get sick with diarrhea and almost 1 out of 5 young children with
respiratory infections like pneumonia.
9. Question
Which of the following incidents requires the nurse to complete an occurrence
report?
You would need to complete an occurrence report if you suspect your patient’s
personal items to be lost or stolen. An incident report also provides vital
information the facility needs to decide whether restitution should be made—if
personal belongings were lost or damaged, for example. Without proper documentation
of the incident, there’s no way to make these important decisions effectively.
A. NA
B. NDA
C. NKA
D. NPO
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. NKA
The nurse can use the medical abbreviation NKA, which means no known allergies, to
document this finding. NKA is the abbreviation for “no known allergies,” meaning no
known allergies of any sort. By contrast, NKDA stands exclusively for “no known
drug allergies.”
Option A: NA is an abbreviation for not applicable.
Option B: NDA is an abbreviation for no known drug allergies.
Option D: NPO is an abbreviation that means nothing by mouth.
12. Question
The nurse is working on a unit that uses nursing assessment flow sheets. Which
statement best describes this form of charting? Nursing assessment flow sheets:
Nursing assessment flow sheets are organized by body systems. The nurse checks the
box corresponding to the current assessment findings. Nursing actions, such as
wound care, treatments, or IV fluid administration, are also included. A flow sheet
is simply a one- or two-page form that gathers all the important data regarding a
patient’s condition. The flow sheet is housed in the patient’s chart and serves as
a reminder of care and a record of whether care expectations have been met.
Option B: Graphic information, such as vital signs, I&O, and routine care, may be
found on the graphic record. This where records of serial measurements and
observations, nursing interventions, and nursing care plans are recorded.
Option C: Nursing documentation covers a wide variety of issues, topics, and
systems. Researchers, practitioners, and hospital administrators view recordkeeping
as an important element leading to continuity of care, safety, quality care, and
compliance.
Option D: The admission form contains baseline information. In health care
organizations, the EHR, oral reports, handoffs, conferences, and health information
technologies (HIT) are intended to facilitate information flow. In particular, the
JCAHO specifically conceptualizes the care planning process as the structuring
framework for coordinating communication that will result in safe and effective
care.
13. Question
At the end of the shift, the nurse realizes that she forgot to document a dressing
change that she performed for a patient. Which action should the nurse take?
If the nurse fails to make an important entry while charting, she should make a
late entry as an addition to the narrative notes. The nurse can only document care
directly performed or observed. Therefore, the nurse on the incoming shift would
not record the wound change as performed. A primary purpose of documentation and
recordkeeping systems is to facilitate information flow that supports the
continuity, quality, and safety of care.
The EHR has several benefits for users, including improving interdisciplinary
collaboration and making procedures more accurate and efficient. An Electronic
Health Record (EHR) is an electronic version of a patient’s medical history, that
is maintained by the provider over time, and may include all of the key
administrative clinical data relevant to that persons care under a particular
provider, including demographics, progress notes, problems, medications, vital
signs, past medical history, immunizations, laboratory data, and radiology reports
The EHR automates access to information and has the potential to streamline the
clinician’s workflow. The EHR also has the ability to support other care-related
activities directly or indirectly through various interfaces, including evidence-
based decision support, quality management, and outcomes reporting.
A. The military
B. General hospitals
C. Civil service
D. Religious orders
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Religious orders
When the Civil War broke out, the Army used nurses who had already been trained in
religious orders. Nursing started with religious orders. The Hindu faith was the
first to write about nursing. In the United States, all training for nurses was
affiliated with religious orders until after the Civil War.
Option A: Although the Army did provide some training, it occurred later than in
the religious orders. Most people think of the nursing profession as beginning with
the work of Florence Nightingale, an upper class British woman who captured the
public imagination when she led a group of female nurses to the Crimea in October
of 1854 to deliver nursing service to British soldiers.
Option B: Although nurses were trained in hospitals, the training and the hospitals
were affiliated with religious orders. Upon her return to England, Nightingale
successfully established nurse education programs in a number of British hospitals.
These schools were organized around a specific set of ideas about how nurses should
be educated, developed by Nightingale often referred to as the “Nightingale
Principles.”
Option C: Civil service was not mentioned in Chapter 1 and was not a factor in the
early 1800s. While Nightingale’s work was groundbreaking in that she confirmed that
a corps of educated women, informed about health and the ways to promote it, could
improve the care of patients based on a set of particular principles, she was not
the first to put these principles into action.
16. Question
Which of the following is/are an example(s) of a health restoration activity?
Select all that apply.
Health restoration activities help an ill client return to health. This would
include taking an antibiotic every day and assessing a client’s surgical incision.
Hand washing and mammograms both involve healthy people who are trying to prevent
illness.
Option A: The American Nurses Association (ANA) has developed standards of care,
but they are unrelated to defining nursing as a profession or discipline. Nursing
is a discipline and a profession. The goal of the discipline is to expand knowledge
about human experiences through creative conceptualization and research. This
knowledge is the scientific guide to living the art of nursing. The discipline-
specific knowledge is given birth and fostered in academic settings where research
and education move the knowledge to new realms of understanding.
Option B: Having professional organizations is not included in accepted
characteristics of either a profession or a discipline. The goal of the profession
is to provide service to humankind through living the art of science. Members of
the nursing profession are responsible for regulation of standards of practice and
education based on disciplinary knowledge that reflects safe health service to
society in all settings.
Option D: Having a scope of practice is not included in accepted characteristics of
either a profession or a discipline. The discipline of nursing encompasses the
knowledge in the extant frameworks and theories that are embedded in the totality
and simultaneity paradigms (Parse, 1987). These theories and frameworks explicate
the nature of nursing’s major phenomenon of concern, the human-universe-health
process.
18. Question
The charge nurse on the medical-surgical floor assigns vital signs to the nursing
assistive personnel (NAP) and medication administration to the licensed vocational
nurse (LVN). Which nursing model of care is this floor following?
A. Team nursing
B. Case method nursing
C. Functional nursing
D. Primary nursing
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Functional nursing
This medical-surgical floor is following the functional nursing model of care, in
which care is partitioned and assigned to a staff member with the appropriate
skills. For example, the NAP is assigned vital signs, and the LVN is assigned
medication administration. Functional nursing is task-oriented in scope. Instead of
one nurse performing many functions, several nurses are given one or two
assignments. For example, there is a medicine nurse whose sole responsibility is
administering medications.
Option A: With team nursing, an RN or LVN is paired with a NAP. The pair is then
assigned to render care for a group of patients. Team nursing is a system that
distributes the care of a patient amongst a team that is all working together to
provide for this person. This team consists of up to 4 to 6 members that has a team
leader who gives jobs and instructions to the group.
Option B: In case method nursing, one nurse cares for one patient during her entire
shift. Private duty nursing is an example of this care model. The case method is a
participatory, discussion-based way of learning where students gain skills in
critical thinking, communication, and group dynamics. It is a type of problem-based
learning.
Option D: When the primary nursing model is utilized, one nurse manages care for a
group of patients 24 hours a day, even though others provide care during part of
the day. A method of providing nursing services to inpatients whereby one nurse
plans the care of specific patients for a period of 24 hours. The primary nurse
provides direct care to those patients when working and is responsible for
directing and supervising their care in collaboration with other health care team
members.
19. Question
Paul Jake suffered a stroke and has difficulty swallowing. Which healthcare team
member should be consulted to assess the patient’s risk for aspiration?
A. Respiratory therapist
B. Occupational therapist
C. Dentist
D. Speech therapist
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Speech therapist
The capacity of the bladder may decrease with age but the muscle is weaker and can
cause urine to be retained. Muscle changes and changes in the reproductive system
can affect bladder control. As the volume of urine held by the bladder increases,
so too does the pressure therein. Wall pressure of 5 to 15 mm Hg creates a
sensation of bladder fullness while 30 mm Hg and beyond is painful. The sensation
of increasing bladder fullness is conveyed to the spinal cord via the pudendal and
hypogastric nerves on both A-delta and C nerve fibers.
Option A: The bladder wall changes. The elastic tissue becomes tough and the
bladder becomes less stretchy. The bladder cannot hold as much urine as before. The
urethra can become blocked. In women, this can be due to weakened muscles that
cause the bladder or vagina to fall out of position (prolapse). In men, the urethra
can become blocked by an enlarged prostate gland.
Option B: Older adults don’t ignore the urge to void and may have difficulty
getting to the toilet in time. Bladder capacity changes throughout one’s life. In
children, an approximation of bladder volume can be calculated with the formula:
(years of age + 2) x 30 mL. By adulthood, the average volume that a functional
bladder can comfortably hold is between 300 and 400 mL.
Option C: The kidney becomes less able to concentrate urine with age. Urination or
micturition primarily functions in the excretion of metabolic products and toxic
wastes. The urinary tract also serves as a storage vessel of the waste filtered
from the kidneys. Urine stored in the bladder is released from the bladder through
the urethra upon a complex network of neurological function.
22. Question
During the assessment of the client with urinary incontinence, the nurse is most
likely to assess for which of the following? Select all that apply.
Option A: The perineum may become irritated by the frequent contact with urine.
Approximately 13 million Americans experience urinary incontinence. The prevalence
is 50% or greater among residents of nursing facilities. Caregivers report that 53%
of the homebound elderly are incontinent. A random sampling of hospitalized elderly
patients reports that 11% of patients have persistent urinary incontinence at
admission, and 23% at discharge.
Option B: Normal fluid intake is at least 1,500 mL/d and clients often decrease
their intake to try to minimize urine leakage. Functional urinary incontinence is
the involuntary leakage of urine due to environmental or physical barriers to
toileting. This type of incontinence is sometimes referred to as toileting
difficulty.
Option C: Antihistamines can cause urinary retention rather than urinary
incontinence. The urethra is the tube that takes urine from the bladder out of the
body. The problem can also be caused by using drugs such as antihistamines (like
Benadryl®), antispasmodics (like Detrol®), and tricyclic antidepressants (like
Elavil®) that can change the way the bladder muscle works.
Option D: UTIs can contribute to incontinence. Patients should be asked about
medical conditions such as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and asthma (which
can cause cough), heart failure (with related fluid overload and diuresis),
neurologic conditions (which may suggest dysregulated bladder innervation),
musculoskeletal conditions (which may contribute to toileting barriers), etc.
Option E: A fecal impaction can compress the urethra, which results in sm. amts of
urine leakage. Overflow urinary incontinence is the involuntary leakage of urine
from an overdistended bladder due to impaired detrusor contractility and/or bladder
outlet obstruction. Neurologic diseases such as spinal cord injuries, multiple
sclerosis, and diabetes can impair detrusor function. Bladder outlet obstruction
can be caused by external compression by abdominal or pelvic masses and pelvic
organ prolapse, among other causes. A common cause in men is benign prostatic
hyperplasia.
23. Question
Which action represents the appropriate nursing management of a client wearing a
condom catheter?
A. Ensure that the tip of the penis fits snugly against the end of the condom.
B. Check the penis for adequate circulation 30 min after applying.
C. Change the condom every 8 hours.
D. Tape the collecting tube to the lower abdomen.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Check the penis for adequate circulation 30 min after applying
The penis and condom should be checked 1/2 hour after application to ensure that
it’s not too tight. and the tubing is taped to the leg or attached to a leg bag.
Condom catheters are external urinary catheters that are worn like a condom. They
collect urine as it drains out of your bladder and send it to a collection bag
strapped to your leg. They’re typically used by men who have urinary incontinence
(can’t control their bladder).
Option A: A 1 in. space should be left between the penis and the end of the condom.
Place the condom over the tip of the penis and slowly unroll it until it gets to
the base. Leave enough room at the tip (1 to 2 inches) so it won’t rub against the
condom.
Option C: The condom is changed every 24h. Condom catheters should be replaced
every 24 hours. Throw away the old one unless it’s designed to be reusable. The
collection bag should be emptied when it’s about half full or at least every three
to four hours for a small bag and every eight hours for a large one.
Option D: An indwelling catheter is taped to the lower abdomen or upper thigh. Use
a nonadhesive condom catheter to help prevent irritation from adhesive. An
inflatable ring holds it in place. Keep the bag lower than the bladder to avoid
backflow of urine from the bag. Securely attach the tube to the leg (below the
knee, such as the calf), but leave a little slack so it doesn’t pull on the
catheter.
24. Question
The catheter slips into the vagina during a straight catheterization of a female
client. The nurse does which action?
The catheter in the vagina is contaminated and can’t be reused. If left in place,
it may help avoid mistaking the vaginal opening for the urinary meatus. A single
failure to catheterize the meatus doesn’t indicate that another nurse is needed
although sometimes a second nurse can assist in visualization of the meatus.
Urinary bladder catheterization is performed for both therapeutic and diagnostic
purposes. Based on the dwell time, the urinary catheter can be either intermittent
(short-term) or indwelling (long-term).
Option B: After exposing the urethral meatus, a lubricated catheter tip is advanced
in the meatus until there is a spontaneous return of urine. The catheter balloon is
then inflated as per the manufacturer’s recommendations.
Option C: In the event a catheter is inserted in the vagina, it should be left
there until a new sterile catheter is successfully inserted into the meatus.
Analgesia is of no proven clinical use in women. Lubrication jelly should be
applied to the tip of the catheter. The application of lubricant to the urethral
meatus is associated with difficulty in catheter insertion.
Option D: Urinary tract infection (UTI) is the most common complication that occurs
as a result of long-term catheterization. The normal urinary flow prevents the
ascension of microbes from the periurethral skin avoiding the infection. Alteration
of the defensive mechanism from the catheter results in an increased risk of UTIs.
Escherichia coli and Klebsiella pneumonia are the most common organisms implicated
in UTIs. Recurrent UTIs are associated with increased antibiotic resistance.
25. Question
Which statement indicates a need for further teaching of a home care client with a
long term indwelling catheter?
A. "I will keep the collecting bag below the level of the bladder at all times."
B. "Intake of cranberry juice may help decrease the risk of infection."
C. "Soaking in a warm tub bath may ease the irritation associated with the
catheter."
D. "I should use clean tech. when emptying the collecting bag."
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. “Soaking in a warm tub bath may ease the irritation associated
with the catheter”
Soaking in a bathtub can increase the risk of exposure to bacteria. Avoid taking
baths, but shower daily. For the first few days after getting a suprapubic
catheter, use a waterproof bandage when showering. Once the wound heals, the client
can shower as usual, but avoid scented soaps.
Option A: The bag should be below the level of the bladder to promote proper
drainage. Always keep the bag below the waist. Check the tube once in a while for
bends or kinks that keep pee from flowing out. Don’t use any lotions or powders
around where the catheter goes into the body.
Option B: Intake of cranberry juice creates an environment nonconducive to
infection. “Indwelling” means inside the body. This catheter drains urine from the
bladder into a bag outside the body. Common reasons to have an indwelling catheter
are urinary incontinence (leakage), urinary retention (not being able to urinate),
a surgery that made this catheter necessary, or another health problem.
Option D: Clean technique is appropriate for touching the exterior portions of the
system. Wash hands with soap and water. Empty urine from the bag into the toilet.
Pinch the catheter closed between the fingers. Remove the bag. Wipe the end of the
catheter with a fresh alcohol pad. Wipe the tip of the new bag with the second
alcohol pad. Connect the new bag and stop pinching the catheter now. Make sure
there are no bends or kinks in the catheter tube. Wash hands again.
26. Question
During shift report, the nurse learns that an older female client is unable to
maintain continence after she senses the urge to void and becomes incontinent on
the way to the bathroom. Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate?
The key phrase is “the urge to void” option one occurs when the client coughs,
sneezes, or jars the body, resulting in accidental loss of urine. If one feels a
strong urge to urinate even when the bladder isn’t full, the incontinence might be
related to overactive bladder, sometimes called urge incontinence. This condition
occurs in both men and women and involves an overwhelming urge to urinate
immediately, frequently followed by loss of urine before the client can reach a
bathroom. Even if one never has an accident, urgency and urinary frequency can
interfere with work and a social life because of the need to keep running to the
bathroom.
Option A: Stress Urinary Incontinence (SUI) is when urine leaks out with sudden
pressure on the bladder and urethra, causing the sphincter muscles to open briefly.
With mild SUI, pressure may be from sudden forceful activities, like exercise,
sneezing, laughing, or coughing.
Option B: Reflex urinary incontinence occurs with involuntary loss of urine at
somewhat predictable intervals when a specific bladder volume is reached. Reflex
incontinence occurs when the bladder muscle contracts and urine leaks (often in
large amounts) without any warning or urge. This can happen as a result of damage
to the nerves that normally warn the brain that the bladder is filling.
Option C: Functional urinary continence is the involuntary loss of urine related to
impaired function. If the urinary tract is functioning properly but other illnesses
or disabilities are preventing one from staying dry, the client might have what is
known as functional incontinence. For example, if an illness rendered the client
unaware or unconcerned about the need to find a toilet, the client would become
incontinent. Medications, dementia, or mental illness can decrease awareness of the
need to find a toilet.
27. Question
A female client has a urinary tract infection. Which teaching points by the nurse
should be helpful to the client? Select all that apply.
A. Ileal conduit
B. Kock pouch
C. Neobladder
D. Vesicostomy
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Kock pouch
The ileal conduit and vesicostomy are incontinent urinary diversions, and clients
are required to use an external ostomy appliance to contain the urine. In this new
operation, a pouch or reservoir is fashioned out of the terminal ileum with a valve
mechanism at its exit to the skin surface. This allows storage of the liquid bowel
contents in an expandable container with no leakage of stool or gas and therefore
no skin problems. There is no need for appliances or bags, no embarrassment from
the involuntary noise and smell of flatus through the ileostomy. The stoma is
created flush and within the bikini line. The patient catheterizes the pouch on an
average of three times a day.
Option A: An ileal conduit aims to divert urine produced from the upper urinary
tracts to a newly formed reservoir created from the terminal ileum. The ureters are
disconnected from the bladder and implanted into the conduit.
Option C: Clients with a neobladder can control their voiding. During neobladder
surgery, the surgeon takes out the existing bladder and forms an internal pouch
from part of the intestine. The pouch, called a neobladder, stores the urine.
Option D: A vesicostomy is a stoma (opening) created between the bladder and the
abdomen. This allows urine to drain freely, with low pressure, to help protect and
prevent harm to the kidneys. It is a surgical procedure that typically involves an
overnight stay in the hospital.
29. Question
Which focus is the nurse most likely to teach for a client with a flaccid bladder?
Because the bladder muscles will not contract to increase the intra-bladder
pressure to promote urination, the process is initiated manually. The Credé
maneuver is a technique used to void urine from the bladder of an individual who,
due to disease, cannot do so without aid. The Credé maneuver is executed by
exerting manual pressure on the abdomen at the location of the bladder, just below
the navel. Options one, two, and four: to promote continence bladder contractions
are required for habit training, bladder training, and increasing the tone of the
pelvic muscles.
Option A: One type of toilet training is habit training. Habit training is the
process of teaching a child to eliminate on the toilet at routine times. Habit
training involves teaching children to eliminate on the toilet by developing a
toileting routine/habit.
Option B: Bladder training is an important form of behavior therapy that can be
effective in treating urinary incontinence. The goals are to increase the amount of
time between emptying your bladder and the amount of fluids your bladder can hold.
It also can diminish leakage and the sense of urgency associated with the problem.
Option D: Kegel exercises can help make the muscles under the uterus, bladder, and
bowel (large intestine) stronger. They can help both men and women who have
problems with urine leakage or bowel control.
30. Question
Which of the following behaviors indicates that the client on a bladder training
program has met the expected outcomes? Select all that apply.
It is important for the client to inhibit the urge to void sensation when a
premature urge is experienced. Bladder training, a program of urinating on
schedule, enables the client to gradually increase the amount of urine the client
can comfortably hold. Bladder training is a mainstay of treatment for urinary
frequency and overactive bladder in both women and men, alone or in conjunction
with medications or other techniques.
A. Coughing
B. Mobility deficits
C. Prostate enlargement
D. Urinary tract infection
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Prostate enlargement
An enlarged prostate compresses the urethra and interferes with the outflow of
urine, resulting in urinary retention. With urinary retention, the pressure within
the bladder builds until the external urethral sphincter temporarily opens to allow
a small volume (25-60mL) of urine to escape (overflow incontinence). Men who are
unable to completely empty their bladder and experience unexpected urine leakage
may have what is called overflow incontinence.
Option A: Coughing, which raises the intra abdominal pressure, is related to stress
incontinence, not overflow incontinence. An enlarged prostate can interfere with
the passage of urine through the urethra, the tube connected to the bladder.
Option B: Mobility deficits, such as spinal cord injuries, are related to reflex
incontinence, not overflow incontinence. Damage to nerves near the bladder causing
under-activity. This can occur with neurological injury or with diseases such as
diabetes.
Option D: Urinary tract infections are related to urge incontinence, not overflow
incontinence. Men with this type of urinary incontinence often do not feel that
their bladders are full, which then leads to leakage as the bladder has reached its
full capacity. In addition to leakage, urine left in the bladder can lead to
urinary tract infections due to the growth of bacteria as well as bladder stones.
32. Question
A nurse must measure the intake and output (I&O) for a patient who has a urinary
retention catheter. Which equipment is most appropriate to use to accurately
measure urine output from a urinary retention catheter?
A. Urinal
B. Graduate
C. Large syringe
D. Urine collection bag
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Graduate
Option A: Although urinals have volume markings on the side, usually they occur in
100 mL increments that do not promote accurate measurements. Urine output is the
best indicator of the state of the patient’s kidneys. If the kidneys are producing
an adequate amount of urine it means that they are well perfused and oxygenated.
Otherwise, it is a sign that the patient is suffering from some complications.
Option C: Large syringe is impractical. A large syringe is used to obtain a sterile
specimen from a retention catheter (Foley catheter). Urine output is required for
calculating the patient’s water balance, which is essential in the treatment of
burn patients. Finally, it is also used in multiple therapy protocols to check
whether the patient reacts properly to treatment
Option D: A urine collection bag is flexible and balloons outward as urine
collects. In addition, the volume markings are at 100 mL increments that do not
promote accurate measurements. In critical care units of first world countries,
measurements of every patient’s urine output are taken hourly, 24 times a day, 365
days a year. In the case of emerging countries, often only burn patients—for whom
urine output monitoring is of paramount importance—have this parameter recorded
every hour, while the remaining critical patients have it recorded every 2 or 3
hours.
33. Question
A patient’s urine is cloudy, is amber, and has an unpleasant odor. What problem may
this information indicate that requires the nurse to make a focused assessment?
A. Urinary retention
B. Urinary tract infection
C. Ketone bodies in the urine
D. High urinary calcium level
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Urinary tract infection
The use of a commode requires less energy than using a bedpan and is safer than
walking to the bathroom. Sitting on the commode uses gravity to empty the bladder
fully and thus prevent urinary stasis. Nocturia is defined as the need for a
patient to get up at night on a regular basis to urinate. A period of sleep must
precede and follow the urinary episode to count as a nocturnal void. This means the
first-morning void is not considered when determining nocturia episodes. Use of a
bedside commode or urinal can minimize the bother, if not the frequency, of
nocturia and may reduce the risk of falls. Remove any obstacles, loose rugs, or
furniture between the bed and the nearest commode to reduce fall risk further.
Consider using nightlights to help illuminate the passage to the bathroom.
Option B: The urine from the straight catheter flows directly into the specimen
container. Collecting a urine specimen from a catheter port is necessary when the
patient has a urinary retention catheter. A straight catheter has a single lumen
for draining urine from the bladder.
Option C: A straight catheter does not remain in the bladder and therefore does not
have a 2nd lumen for water to be inserted into a balloon. This may result in no
urine left in the bladder for the straight catheter to collect.
Option D: A minimum of 3 mL of urine is necessary for a specimen for urine culture
and sensitivity. Do not urinate for at least 1 hour before the test. If the client
doesn’t have the urge to urinate, he may be instructed to drink a glass of water 15
to 20 minutes before the test. Otherwise, there is no preparation for the test.
36. Question
A nurse in a provider’s office is assessing a client who reports losing control of
urine whenever she coughs, laughs, or sneezes. The client relates a history of
three vaginal births, but no serious accidents or illnesses. Which of the following
interventions are appropriate for helping to control or eliminate the clients
incontinence? Select all that apply.
Caffeine and alcohol are bladder irritants and can worsen stress incontinence.
Alcohol is a bladder irritant and can worsen stress incontinence. Quitting smoking,
losing excess weight, or treating a chronic cough will lessen the risk of stress
incontinence and improve the symptoms. Stress incontinence is different from
urgency incontinence and overactive bladder (OAB). If the client has urgency
incontinence or OAB, the bladder muscle contracts, causing a sudden urge to urinate
before he can get to the bathroom. Stress incontinence is much more common in women
than in men.
Option A: Because stress incontinence results from weak pelvic muscles and other
structures, limiting fluid will not resolve the problem. The doctor may recommend
how much and when one should consume fluids during the day and evening. However,
don’t limit what the client drinks so much that he becomes dehydrated.
Option B: Lifestyle changes should be made such as reducing caffeine intake
(including green tea), stopping smoking, and losing weight.
Option C: Calcium has no effect on stress incontinence. Bladder training involves
learning techniques to increase the length of time between feeling the need to
urinate and passing urine. The course usually lasts for at least six weeks and can
be combined with the Kegel exercises. Some individuals may find that timed
toileting is helpful, particularly for people with a learning disability or
cognitive impairment.
Option D: The doctor may also suggest that the client avoid caffeinated,
carbonated, and alcoholic beverages, which may irritate and affect bladder function
in some people. If he finds that using fluid schedules and avoiding certain
beverages significantly improves leakage, the client will have to decide whether
making these changes in the diet are worth it.
Option E: The Crede maneuver helps manage reflex incontinence, not stress
incontinence. Pelvic floor muscle training is a technique that strengthens the
pelvic floor muscles and is an effective treatment for stress incontinence,
especially if the muscle has been damaged.
37. Question
A client who has an indwelling catheter reports the need to urinate. Which of the
following interventions should the nurse perform?
A clogged or kinked catheter causes the bladder to fill and stimulates the need to
urinate. An indwelling urinary catheter (IUC), generally referred to as a “Foley”
catheter, is a closed sterile system with a catheter and retention balloon that is
inserted either through the urethra or suprapubically to allow for bladder
drainage. External collecting devices (e.g. drainage tubing and bag) are connected
to the catheter for urine collection.
The nurse should discard the first voiding of the 24 hour urine specimen, and note
the time. 24-hour urine protein measures the amount of protein released in urine
over a 24-hour period. The normal value is less than 100 milligrams per day or less
than 10 milligrams per deciliter of urine.
Option B: The nurse should collect all voidings after that and keep them in a
refrigerated container. A 24-hour urine collection is done by collecting the urine
in a special container over a full 24-hour period. The container must be kept cool
until the urine is returned to the lab.
Option C: For a urinalysis, the nurse should ask the client to urinate and pour the
urine into a specimen container. Urine is made up of water and dissolved chemicals,
such as sodium and potassium. It also contains urea. This is made when protein
breaks down. And it contains creatinine, which is formed from muscle breakdown.
Normally, urine contains certain amounts of these waste products. It may be a sign
of a certain disease or condition if these amounts are not within a normal range.
Or if other substances are present.
Option D: For a culture, the nurse should ask the client to urinate first into the
toilet, then stop midstream, and finish urinating in the specimen container. A 24-
hour urine collection helps diagnose kidney problems. It is often done to see how
much creatinine clears through the kidneys. It’s also done to measure protein,
hormones, minerals, and other chemical compounds.
39. Question
A nurse is preparing to initiate a bladder training program for a client who has a
voiding disorder. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? Select all
that apply.
Ask the client to keep track of voiding times is an appropriate nursing action.
Gradually increasing the voiding interval is an appropriate nursing action. The
client should be reminded to hold urine until the next scheduled voiding time.
Bladder training involves voiding at scheduled in frequent intervals and gradually
increasing these intervals to four hours.
Option A: Mealtimes are not regular, and the intervals may be longer than every
four hours. Bladder training requires following a fixed voiding schedule, whether
or not one feels the urge to urinate. If one feels an urge to urinate before the
assigned interval, he should use urge suppression techniques — such as relaxation
and Kegel exercises.
Option B: Keeping a diary of bladder activity is very important. This helps the
health care provider determine the correct place to start the training and to
monitor progress throughout the program.
Option C: Bladder training is an important form of behavior therapy that can be
effective in treating urinary incontinence. The goals are to increase the amount of
time between emptying the bladder and the amount of fluids the bladder can hold. It
also can diminish leakage and the sense of urgency associated with the problem.
Option D: When the client feels the urge to urinate before the next designated
time, he should use “urge suppression” techniques or try relaxation techniques like
deep breathing. Focus on relaxing all other muscles. If possible, he must sit down
until the sensation passes. If the urge is suppressed, adhere to the schedule. If
the client cannot suppress the urge, wait five minutes then slowly make way to the
bathroom. After urinating, re-establish the schedule. Repeat this process every
time an urge is felt.
Option E: A sterile container is not used in a bladder training program. When the
client has accomplished the initial goal, he should gradually increase the time
between emptying the bladder by 15-minute intervals. He should try to increase the
interval each week. However, he will be the best judge of how quickly he can
advance to the next step. Increase the time between each urination until he reaches
a three- to four-hour voiding interval.
40. Question
A nurse educator on a medical unit is reviewing factors that increase the risk of
urinary tract infections with a group of assistive personnel. Which of the
following should be included in the review? Select all that apply.
A. Coughing exercises one hour before meals and deep breathing one hour after
meals.
B. Forceful coughing as many times as tolerated.
C. Huff coughing every two hours or as needed.
D. Diaphragmatic and pursed lip breathing 5 to 10 times, four times a day.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Huff coughing every two hours or as needed.
Huff coughing helps keep the airways open and secretions mobilized. Huff coughing
is an alternative for clients who are unable to perform a normal forceful cough
(such as postoperatively) deep breathing and coughing should be performed at the
same time.
Option B: The twill tape is not changed until after performing tracheostomy care.
Remove any sutures or ties attached to the tracheostomy tube and patient. When
doing this, the assistant must stabilize the flange at all times to prevent
premature removal.
Option C: Cleaning the incision should be done after cleaning the inner cannula.
Inspect the stoma for signs of infection, presence of granulation tissue, bleeding,
wound breakdown, and adequacy of a tract. Clean the area with moist gauze (with
normal saline or hydrogen peroxide) followed by dry gauze while ensuring no foreign
body enters the airway. Stay sutures, if present, may be used gently to pull up the
trachea to provide exposure.
Option D: Checking the tightness of the ties and knot is done after applying new
twill tape. Make sure the trach ties are not too tight and should be able to pass
an index finger in between the trach ties and neck.
43. Question
Which action by the nurse represents proper nasopharyngeal/nasotracheal suctioning
technique?
A. Lubricate the suction catheter with petroleum jelly before and between
insertion.
B. Apply suction intermittently while inserting the suction catheter.
C. Rotate the catheter while applying suction.
D. Hyper oxygenate with 100% oxygen for 30 minutes before and after suctioning.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Rotate the catheter while applying suction.
Rotating the catheter prevents pulling of tissue into the opening on the catheter
tip and the side. Suction is used to clear retained or excessive lower respiratory
tract secretions in patients who are unable to do so effectively for themselves.
This could be due to the presence of an artificial airway, such as an endotracheal
or tracheostomy tube, or in patients who have a poor cough due to an array of
reasons such as excessive sedation or neurological involvement.
A. "I should breathe out as fast and as hard as possible into the device."
B. "I should inhale slowly and steadily to keep the balls up."
C. "I should use the device three times a day, after meals."
D. "The entire device should be washed thoroughly in sudsy water once a week."
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. “I should inhale slowly and steadily to keep the balls up.”
Proper use of an SMI requires the client to take slow, steady inhalations, every
hour or two, 5 to 10 reps each time. Spirometry is one of the most readily
available and useful tests for pulmonary function. It measures the volume of air
exhaled at specific time points during complete exhalation by force, which is
preceded by a maximal inhalation. The most important variables reported include
total exhaled volume, known as the forced vital capacity (FVC), the volume exhaled
in the first second, known as the forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1),
and their ratio (FEV1/FVC).
Option A: The patient must breathe in as much air as they can with a pause lasting
for less than 1s at the total lung capacity. The mouthpiece is placed just inside
the mouth between the teeth, soon after the deep inhalation. The lips should be
sealed tightly around the mouthpiece to prevent air leakage. Exhalation should last
at least 6 seconds, or as long as advised by the instructor. If only the forced
expiratory volume is to be measured, the patient must insert the mouthpiece after
performing step 1 and must not breathe from the tube.
Option C: The procedure is repeated in intervals separated by 1 minute until two
matching, and acceptable results are acquired. Spirometry has proved to be a
crucial tool in diagnosing lung disease, monitoring patients for their pulmonary
function, and assessing their fitness for various procedures.
Option D: Only the mouthpiece can be successfully rinsed or wiped clean. The device
should not be submerged in water. Spirometry is an apparatus used to assess
pulmonary function for diagnostic or monitoring purposes. The procedure must be
explained thoroughly to the subject patient by competent personnel who underwent
training under supervision by a specialist mentor and will undergo periodic
retraining in order to ensure that the results obtained are as accurate as possible
and the complications are kept to a minimum.
45. Question
While a client with chest tubes is ambulating, the connection between the tube and
the water seal dislodges. Which action by Nurse Flora is most appropriate?
The tube should be reconnected to the water seal as quickly as possible. Assisting
the client back to bed and assessing the client’s lung are possible actions after
the system is reconnected. Or place the end of the tube in a bottle of sterile
water, creating a water seal. Instruct a colleague to prepare a new sterile chest-
drainage collection device, or retrieve a new sterile connector while safely
returning the patient to bed. Observe the patient for signs and symptoms of
respiratory decline. Then reconnect the chest tube to the new drain and unclamp it.
Option A: If walking with the patient and the chest tube becomes dislodged where it
connects to the drainage tubing, immediately close off the tubing to air with a
gloved hand by crimping it or using a clamp, if readily available.
Option C: Whether chest-tube removal was planned or unplanned, monitor the patient
closely for signs and symptoms of respiratory compromise, using such techniques as
pulse oximetry (Spo2), end-tidal carbon dioxide (ETco2) monitoring, and breath
sound auscultation.
Option D: Monitor the patient’s respiratory rate and effort. A repeat chest X-ray
(if indicated) may be done to compare to previous films and evaluate for presence
or return of a pneumothorax, an effusion, or other problem.
46. Question
Nurse Peter makes the assessment that which client has the greatest risk for a
problem with the transport of oxygen from the lungs to the tissues? A client who
has:
A. Anemia
B. An infection
C. A fractured rib
D. A tumor of the medulla
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. Anemia
A. Dyspnea
B. Hyperpnea
C. Orthopnea
D. Apnea
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Orthopnea
Option A: Dyspnea is the medical term for shortness of breath, sometimes described
as “air hunger.” It is an uncomfortable feeling. Shortness of breath can range from
mild and temporary to serious and long-lasting. It is sometimes difficult to
diagnose and treat dyspnea because there can be many different causes.
Option B: Hyperpnea is breathing more deeply and sometimes faster than usual. It’s
normal during exercise or exertion. Hyperpnea is breathing deeply, a normal
response to exertion requiring more oxygen. This is when you’re breathing in more
air but not necessarily breathing faster. It can happen during exercise or because
of a medical condition that makes it harder for your body to get oxygen, like heart
failure or sepsis (a serious overreaction by your immune system).
Option D: Apnea is breathing that stops briefly during sleep. Oxygen to the brain
is decreased. It requires treatment. Apnea is the medical term used to describe
slowed or stopped breathing. Apnea can affect people of all ages, and the cause
depends on the type of apnea one has. Apnea usually occurs while sleeping. For this
reason, it’s often called sleep apnea.
48. Question
A client with emphysema is prescribed corticosteroid therapy on a short-term basis
for acute bronchitis. The client asks the nurse how the steroids will help him. The
nurse responded by saying that the corticosteroids will do which of the following?
A. Promote bronchodilation
B. Help the client to cough
C. Prevent respiratory infection
D. Decrease inflammation in the airways
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D. Decrease inflammation in the airways
Option A: Patients who use an incentive spirometer may or may not be receiving
oxygen. All patients must be informed that they must abstain from smoking, physical
exercise in the hours before the procedure. Any bronchodilator therapy must also be
stopped beforehand.
Option C: Although sputum may be expectorated after the use of an incentive
spirometer, this is not the primary reason for its use. Recent evidence also
supports the use of spirometry in non thoracic surgeries. A recent retrospective
observational study found that lower preoperative spirometry FVC may predict
postoperative pulmonary complications in high-risk patients undergoing abdominal
surgery.
Option D: Although the deep breathing associated with the use of an incentive
barometer may stimulate coughing, this is not the primary reason for its use.
Complete spirometry exams will identify FEV1, forced vital capacity (FVC), vital
capacity (VC), residual lung volume (RV), maximum voluntary minute ventilation
(MMV), and total lung capacity (TLC). One parametric that is highly indicative of
postoperative complications is predicted postoperative FEV 1(ppo FEV 1). Predicted
postoperative FEV1 <30% are at a higher risk of postoperative pulmonary
complications after thoracic surgery.
51. Question
Nurse AJ is applying a warm compress. What should the nurse explain to the patient
is the primary reason why heat is used instead of cold?
A. Minimizes muscle spasms
B. Prevents hemorrhage
C. Increases circulation
D. Reduces discomfort
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Increases circulation
Option A: Both heat and cold relax muscles and thus minimize muscle spasms. It
reduces joint stiffness and muscle spasm, which makes it useful when muscles are
tight. There is no advantage to using heat over cold. When muscles work, chemical
byproducts are made that need to be eliminated. When exercise is very intense,
there may not be enough blood flow to eliminate all the chemicals. It is the
buildup of chemicals (for example, lactic acid) that cause muscle ache. Because the
blood supply helps eliminate these chemicals, use heat to help sore muscles after
exercise.
Option B: Heat does not prevent hemorrhage; heat causes vasodilation, which
promotes hemorrhage. Apply an ice compress to the injury as soon as possible. This
will cool down the tissues, lower their metabolic rate and nerve conduction
velocity, resulting in vasoconstriction of the surrounding blood vessels and
reduced inflammation.
Option D: Both heat and cold can reduce discomfort. Cold reduces discomfort by
numbing the area, slowing the transmission of pain impulses, and increasing the
pain threshold. Heat reduces the discomfort by relaxing the muscles. When an injury
or inflammation, such as tendonitis or bursitis occurs, tissues are damaged. Cold
numbs the affected area, which can reduce pain and tenderness. Cold can also reduce
swelling and inflammation.
52. Question
A practitioner orders chest physiotherapy with percussion and vibration for a newly
admitted patient. Which information obtained by the nurse during the health history
should alert the nurse to question the practitioner’s order?
A. Emphysema
B. Osteoporosis
C. Cystic fibrosis
D. Chronic bronchitis
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Osteoporosis
A. Precipitate coughing
B. Help maintain open airways
C. Decrease intrathoracic pressure
D. Facilitate expectoration of mucus
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Help maintain open airways
Option A: Deep breathing and huff coughing, not pursed-lip breathing, stimulate
effective coughing. Deep breathing prevents air from getting trapped in the lungs,
which can cause the client to feel short of breath. As a result, the client can
breathe in a more fresh air.
Option C: Pursed lip breathing increases, not decreased intrathoracic pressure.
Pursed lip breathing is a simple technique for slowing down a person’s breathing
and getting more air into their lungs. With regular practice, it can help
strengthen the lungs and make them work more efficiently. The technique involves
breathing in through the nose and breathing out slowly through the mouth.
Option D: The huff coughing stimulates the natural cough reflex and is effective
for clearing the central airways of sputum. Saying the word huff with short
forceful exhalations keeps the glottis open, mobilizes sputum, and stimulates a
cough. When one has COPD, mucus can build up more easily in the lungs. The huff
cough is a breathing exercise designed to help one cough up mucus effectively
without making one feel too tired. A huff cough should be less tiring than a
traditional cough, and it can keep one from feeling worn out when coughing up
mucus.
54. Question
What should Nurse Mavie do first if a patient is choking on food?
Option A: Thrusts to the xiphoid process may cause a fracture that may result in a
pneumothorax. The foreign body lodged in the larynx or trachea is most dangerous as
this causes complete airway obstruction. Alternatively, foreign bodies such as
small beads or small pieces of food may pass below the vocal cords and become
lodged at the carina or within a mainstem bronchus. In adults, due to differences
in right versus left pulmonary anatomy, foreign bodies are more commonly retrieved
from the right main bronchus. However, children will have equal likelihood in
either bronchus, due to equal growth until the age of 16.
Option C: All adults can and should receive the Heimlich maneuver while they are
conscious. If the Heimlich cannot be performed due to body habitus or pregnancy,
the American Heart Association recommends a supine patient with force again applied
just above the umbilicus in a cephalad posterior vector. If the adult loses
consciousness, it is imperative to check for a pulse and begin cardiopulmonary
resuscitation if a pulse is not detected. Advanced airway techniques are now
indicated, and you may be able to visualize the foreign body under direct
laryngoscopy.
Option D: Never sweep a choking patient’s mouth with a finger. It might further
dislodge the food. The commonly known abdominal thrust maneuver, known as the
Heimlich maneuver, is performed by a bystander on a person who appears to be
choking. The bystander stands behind the subject and wraps his/her arms around the
upper abdominal region, about two inches above the belly button. Making a fist with
one hand and wrapping the other hand tightly over the fist and delivering five
sharp midline thrusts inward and upward.
55. Question
Nurse Stephanie is assessing a client who has an acute respiratory infection that
puts her at risk for hypoxemia. Which of the following findings are early
indications that should alert the nurse that the client is developing hypoxemia?
Select all that apply.
A. Restlessness
B. Tachypnea
C. Bradycardia
D. Confusion
E. Cyanosis
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A, B, & E
Option A: When oxygen delivery is severely compromised, organ function will start
to deteriorate. Neurologic manifestations include restlessness, headache, and
confusion with moderate hypoxia. In severe cases, altered mentation and coma can
occur, and if not corrected quickly may lead to death.
Option B: The chronic presentation is usually less dramatic, with dyspnea on
exertion as the most common complaint. Symptoms of the underlying condition that
induced the hypoxia can help in narrowing the differential diagnosis. The physical
exam may show tachypnea and low oxygen saturation. Fever may point to infection as
the cause of hypoxia.
Option C: Bradycardia is a late manifestation of hypoxemia. Increase in cardiac
output with exercise results in accelerated blood flow through alveoli, reducing
the time available for gas exchange. In case of the abnormal pulmonary
interstitium, gas exchange time becomes insufficient, and hypoxemia ensues.
Option D: Both confusion and somnolence may occur in respiratory failure. Myoclonus
and seizures may occur with severe hypoxemia. Polycythemia is a complication of
long-standing hypoxemia.
Option E: Cyanosis, a bluish color of skin and mucous membranes, indicates
hypoxemia. Visible cyanosis typically is present when the concentration of
deoxygenated hemoglobin in the capillaries of tissues is at least 5 g/dL.
56. Question
Nurse CJ is caring for a client who is having difficulty breathing. The client is
lying in bed and is already receiving oxygen therapy via nasal cannula. Which of
the following interventions is the nurse’s priority?
The priority action the nurse should take when using the airway, breathing,
circulation approach to care delivery is to relieve the clients’ dyspnea. Fowler’s
position facilitates maximal long expansion and thus optimizing breathing. With the
client in this position, the nurse can better assess and determine the cause of the
clients dyspnea.
Option A: The client may need more oxygen, as hypoxemia may be the cause of his
difficulty breathing. However, administering oxygen and adjusting the fraction of
inspired oxygen requires the provider’s prescription after a careful assessment of
the clients’ oxygenation status, there is a higher priority given the nature of the
client’s distress.
Option C: The client may need suction or expectoration, as pulmonary secretions may
be the cause of his difficulty breathing. However, there is a higher priority given
the nature of the client’s distress.
Option D: It is important to check the client’s oxygenation status, and in many
nursing situations, assessment precedes action, but there is a higher priority
given the nature of the clients’ distress.
57. Question
Nurse Aldrin is preparing to perform endotracheal suctioning for a client. Which of
the following are appropriate guidelines for the nurse to follow? Select all that
apply.
Within intensive care units (ICUs), one such common procedure is the suctioning of
respiratory secretions in patients who have been intubated or who have undergone
tracheostomy. The traditional goal of suctioning is to aid in maintaining airway
patency and prevent complications related to the retention of secretions
Option A: The nurse should apply suction pressure only while withdrawing the
catheter, not while inserting it. One interesting thing to note about ETS is that
negative pressure is created inside of the lungs only while air flows out of the
suction catheter. As soon as secretions are aspirated into the catheter, the
intrapulmonary pressure returns to that of the atmospheric level, and lung volume
loss stops.
Option B: The nurse should not suction routinely because suctioning is not without
risk. It can cause mucosal damage, bleeding, and bronchospasm. Although there has
been a very limited number of studies regarding a scheduled frequency of performing
ETS every 1, 3, 4, 6, 8, or even 12 hours, the overall recommendation is to suction
only as indicated (as needed).
Option C: Endotracheal suctioning requires surgical asepsis. The second method of
suctioning is the shallow (premeasured) technique, which is also considered
minimally invasive.1-3 With shallow ETS, the catheter is inserted only to the tip
of the ETT, thereby avoiding injury to the airway.
Option D: The nurse should not reuse the suction catheter unless an in-line
suctioning system is in place. If a suction catheter is too large for the ETT,
and/or there is too much vacuum pressure, massive atelectasis may occur. Therefore,
the general recommendation is to use a suction catheter that has an external
diameter less than 50% of the size of the ETT inner diameter.
Option E: To prevent hypoxemia, the nurse should limit each section in session to 2
to 3 attempts and allow at least one minute between passes for ventilation and
oxygenation. The reason for this is because there is considerable risk with using
“routine” suctioning. It has been suggested by Pedersen et al3 that ETS should be
performed at least every 8 hours to slow the formation of the secretion biofilm
within the lumen of the endotracheal tube (ETT). Clifton-Koeppel1 made a good
general recommendation that ETS should be performed as infrequently as possible—yet
as much as needed.
58. Question
A nurse is caring for a client who has a tracheostomy. Which of the following
actions should the nurse take each time he provides tracheostomy care? Select all
that apply.
A. Apply the oxygen source loosely if the SPO2 increases during the procedure.
B. Use surgical asepsis to remove and clean the inner cannula.
C. Clean the outer surfaces in a circular motion from the stoma site outward.
D. Replace the tracheostomy ties with new ties.
E. Cut a slit in gauze squares to place beneath the tube holder.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A, B, & C
All other options are indicated by fluid volume excess. A client who has not eaten
or drunk anything for several days would be experiencing a fluid volume deficit.
The primary control of water homeostasis is through osmoreceptors in the brain.
Dehydration, as perceived by these osmoreceptors, stimulates the thirst center in
the hypothalamus, which leads to water consumption. These osmoreceptors can also
cause conservation of water by the kidney. When the hypothalamus detects lower
water concentration, it causes the posterior pituitary to release antidiuretic
hormone (ADH), which stimulates the kidneys to reabsorb more water.
A. Start an IV.
B. Review the results of serum electrolytes.
C. Offer the woman foods that are high in sodium and potassium content.
D. Administer an antiemetic.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Review the results of serum electrolytes.
Further assessment is needed to determine appropriate action. While the nurse may
perform some of the interventions in options one, three, and four, assessment is
needed initially. Electrolyte abnormalities may be addressed on an individual
level, although often these are caused by an overall fluid volume depletion which,
when corrected, will also cause electrolytes to normalize. Both saline and lactated
Ringer’s solutions appear to be effective for the treatment of dehydration due to
viral gastroenteritis.
Option A: The most important goal of treatment is to maintain hydration status and
effectively counter fluid and electrolyte losses. Fluid therapy is a fundamental
part of treatment. Intravenous fluids may be administered to those individuals who
appear dehydrated or to those unable to tolerate oral fluids.
Option C: No specific nutritional recommendations are universal for patients with
viral gastroenteritis. A diet of banana, rice, apples, tea, and toast is often
advised, but several studies have failed to show any significant outcome difference
when compared to regular diets.
Option D: Antiemetic medications such as ondansetron or metoclopramide may be used
to assist with controlling nausea and vomiting symptoms. Patients demonstrating
severe dehydration or intractable vomiting may require hospital admission for
continued intravenous fluids and careful monitoring of electrolyte status.
61. Question
Which of the following is the appropriate meaning of CBR?
CBR means complete bed rest. For more abbreviations, please see this post.
Standardization and uniform use of codes, symbols, and abbreviations can improve
communication and understanding between health care practitioners, leading to safer
and more effective care for patients.
Option A: When developing lists, hospitals need to ensure that abbreviations on the
approved list are not also on the do-not-use list, and vice versa. In addition,
abbreviations can have only one meaning within the entire organization—for example,
the abbreviation NKDA could mean “no known drug allergies,” or it could mean
“nonketotic diabetic acidosis,” but it cannot have both meanings in an
organization.
Option B: Appropriate use of abbreviations is particularly important. Numerous
studies have focused on health care practitioners’ understanding and interpretation
of abbreviations in medical documents, such as medical records, discharge
summaries, and medication orders. Findings indicate that it is not uncommon for
practitioners to have difficulty understanding the abbreviations used in their
hospitals.
Option D: To prevent misunderstandings and potential risks to patient safety,
requires hospitals to establish lists for approved and do-not-use abbreviations and
monitor for appropriate abbreviation use. There are resources for identifying
abbreviations for the do-not-use list, such as the Institute for Safe Medication
Practices (ISMP), which publishes a list of dangerous abbreviations not to be used
due to frequent misinterpretation and associated medication errors.
62. Question
One (1) tsp is equal to how many drops?
A. 15
B. 60
C. 10
D. 30
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. 60
One teaspoon (tsp) is equal to 60 drops (gtts). When the nurse has an order for an
IV infusion, it is her responsibility to make sure the fluid will infuse at the
prescribed rate. IV fluids may be infused by gravity using a manual roller clamp or
dial-a-flow, or infused using an infusion pump. Regardless of the method, it is
important to know how to calculate the correct IV flow rate.
Option A: When calculating the flow rate, determine which IV tubing will be used,
microdrip or macrodrip, so the nurse can use the proper drop factor in her
calculations. The drop factor is the number of drops in one mL of solution, and is
printed on the IV tubing package. Macrodrip and microdrip refers to the diameter of
the needle where the drop enters the drip chamber.
Option C: Macrodrip tubing delivers 10 to 20 gtts/mL and is used to infuse large
volumes or to infuse fluids quickly. Microdrip tubing delivers 60 gtts/mL and is
used for small or very precise amounts of fluid, as with neonates or pediatric
patients.
Option D: To calculate the drops per minute, the drop factor is needed. The formula
for calculating the IV flow rate (drip rate) is… total volume (in mL) divided by
time (in min), multiplied by the drop factor (in gtts/mL), which equals the IV flow
rate in gtts/min.
63. Question
20 cc is equal to how many ml?
A. 2
B. 20
C. 2000
D. 20000
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. 20
One cubic centimeter is equal to one milliliter. When clinicians are prepared and
know the key conversion factors, they will be less anxious about the calculation
involved. This is vital to accuracy, regardless of which formula or method
employed.
Option A: Drug calculations require the use of conversion factors, for example,
when converting from pounds to kilograms or liters to milliliters. Simplistic in
design, this method allows clinicians to work with various units of measurement,
converting factors to find the answer. These methods are useful in checking the
accuracy of the other methods of calculation, thus acting as a double or triple
check.
Option C: Units of measurement must match, for example, milliliters and
milliliters, or one needs to convert to like units of measurement. In the example
above, the ordered dose was in milligrams, and the have dose was in milligrams,
both of which cancel out leaving milliliters (answer called for milliliters), so no
further conversion is required.
Option D: All members of the interprofessional team are responsible for dose
calculations. Physicians, nurses, and pharmacists all must be conversant in the
desired overall formula. This technique is invaluable in properly treating
patients.
64. Question
1 cup is equal to how many ounces?
A. 8
B. 80
C. 800
D. 8000
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. 8
One cup is equal to 8 ounces. Weight conversion is also utilized daily in health
care. There are two systems calculating weight used in all healthcare settings for
health management, such as medication dosing per patient body weight. First, the
metric system is in common use in health care in the US. It is also the only system
universally used in many countries on all continents of the globe. It has the
advantage of a decimal system in increments or the power of tenths. Second, the US
weight system customarily uses the ounce or pound. It derives from the British
colonial era. This non-metric system is still being used nowadays among laypersons
in the US for products sold to the public.
Option B: The metric system is essential in all health care settings. Patients are
weighed at each clinical encounter. Scales used in the US have double marking
indicators: metric and non-metric markings. Metric weight values are used in
medication calculation, radiation dosing, and weight compliance in equipment use,
such as the maximum weight of a CAT-SCAN unit or a surgical table that may hold a
person.
Option C: Nowadays, all medications are based on weight for dose calculations for
all populations but very specifically in children and infants. Adults have their
weight recorded mainly by their doctors at each physical patient-clinician
encounter. Commonly, most adults monitor their weight for weight management.
Clinicians record it in the electronic health records in both kilograms and pounds.
Option D: Commonly in healthcare and medical practices, the metric system is used
for weighing mass. In the metric system, there are increments at the power of the
tenth for calculations. This weight conversion is used daily among scientists and
health care providers.
65. Question
The nurse must verify the client’s identity before administration of medication.
Which of the following is the safest way to identify the client?
The identification band is the safest way to know the identity of a patient whether
he is conscious or unconscious. Nurses have a unique role and responsibility in
medication administration, in that they are frequently the final person to check to
see that the medication is correctly prescribed and dispensed before
administration.
Option A: Ask the client his name only after you have checked his ID band. Right
patient’ – ascertaining that a patient being treated is, in fact, the correct
recipient for whom medication was prescribed. This is best practiced by nurses
directly asking a patient to provide his or her full name aloud, checking medical
wristbands if appropriate for matching name and ID number as on a chart.
Option C: It is advisable not to address patients by first name or surname alone,
in the event, there are two or more patients with identical or similar names in a
unit. Depending on the unit that a patient may be in, some patients, such as
psychiatric patients, may not wear wristbands or may have altered mentation to the
point where they are unable to identify themselves correctly. In these instances,
nurses are advised to confirm a patient’s identity through alternative means with
appropriate due diligence.
Option D: The medical literature states that the value of nurses’ critical
thinking, the role of patient advocacy, and clinical judgment are not accounted for
by the five rights framework that is commonly observed in modern practice to
deliver patient-centered care. Research has shown a clear benefit in the value of
nursing experience as it relates to decision-making capability; however, it states
that further studies are necessary to achieve an improved understanding of how
nurses apply intuition, the context of the situation, and interpretation.
66. Question
The nurse prepares to administer buccal medication. The medicine should be placed
in what area?
Buccal administration involves placing a drug between the gums and cheek, where it
also dissolves and is absorbed into the blood. Because the medication absorbs
quickly, these types of administration can be important during emergencies when you
need the drug to work right away, such as during a heart attack.
Option B: Position the patient on the left side, lying with the knees drawn to the
abdomen. This eases the passage and flow of fluid into the rectum. Gravity and the
anatomical structure of the sigmoid colon also suggest that this will aid enema
distribution and retention. Dorsal recumbent is a position in which the patient
lies on the back with the lower extremities moderately flexed and rotated outward.
It is employed in the application of obstetrical forceps, repair of lesions
following parturition, vaginal examination, and bimanual palpation.
Option C: The supine position means lying horizontally with the face and torso
facing up, as opposed to the prone position, which is face down. When used in
surgical procedures, it allows access to the peritoneal, thoracic, and pericardial
regions; as well as the head, neck, and extremities.
Option D: Prone position is a body position in which the person lies flat with the
chest down and the backup. In anatomical terms of location, the dorsal side is up,
and the ventral side is down. The supine position is the 180° contrast.
68. Question
A client complains of difficulty swallowing when the nurse tries to administer
capsule medication. Which of the following measures should the nurse do?
The nurse should check first if the medication is available in liquid form before
doing Choice A. The swallowing of capsules can be particularly difficult. This is
because capsules are lighter than water and float due to air trapped inside the
gelatine shell. In comparison, tablets are heavier than water and do not float.
A. Intramuscular
B. Intradermal
C. Subcutaneous
D. Intravenous
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Subcutaneous
The subcutaneous tissue of the abdomen is preferred because the absorption of the
insulin is more consistent from this location than subcutaneous tissues in other
locations. Insulin may be injected into the subcutaneous tissue of the upper arm
and the anterior and lateral aspects of the thigh, buttocks, and abdomen (with the
exception of a circle with a 2-inch radius around the navel).
TID is the Latin for “ter in die” which means three times a day. P.O. means per
orem or through mouth. The “time” of administration of medication is valuable
information to consider during patient counselling and is a typical query by
patients especially when filling a prescription for the first time.
Option B: The timing of doses isn’t the only question people may have when it comes
to deciphering prescriptions or oral communication from the doctor. Other
abbreviations include the number of refills allowed and whether one is receiving a
brand name or generic drug. Medical errors are a significant cause of death in the
United States. Fortunately, most of these errors are preventable when patients are
active advocates for their health and ask plenty of questions.
Option C: Two times a day by mouth is BID P.O. Seen on a prescription, b.i.d. means
twice (two times) a day. It is an abbreviation for “bis in die” which in Latin
means twice a day. The abbreviation b.i.d. is sometimes written without a period
either in lower-case letters as “bid” or in capital letters as “BID”.
Option D: However it is written, it is one of a number of hallowed abbreviations of
Latin terms that have been traditionally used in prescriptions to specify the
frequency with which medicines should be taken.
71. Question
Back Care is best described as:
Back care or massage is usually given in conjunction with the activities of bathing
the client. It can also be done on other occasions when a client seems to have a
risk of developing skin irritation due to bed rest. The goal when performing this
procedure is to enhance relaxation, reduce muscle tension and stimulate
circulation.
Option B: Help the patient to turn on his abdomen or on his side with his back
toward the nurse and his body near the edge of the bed so that he is as near the
operator as possible. If the supine position is used and the patient is a woman, a
pillow under the abdomen removes pressure from the breasts and favors relaxation.
Apply to back rubbing lotion or talcum powder to reduce friction. In rubbing the
back use firm long strokes and kneading motions. The amount of pressure to exert
depends upon the patient’s condition. Begin from the neck and shoulders then
proceed over the entire back.
Option C: Massage with both hands working with a strong stroke. In upward then in
downward motions. Give particular attention to pressure areas in rubbing (Alcohol
25%) to 50% is generally used for its refreshing effect, but rubbing lotion may be
used. Powder again the area at the completion of the rubbing process which should
consume from 3-5 minutes.
Option D: Effleurage (stroking) is a long sweeping movement with the palm of hand
conforming to the contour of the surface-treated, over a small surface (on the
neck) the thumb and fingers are used. Strokes should be slow, rhythmical, and
gentle with pressure constant and in the direction of the venous stream. Kneading
is performed with the ulnar side palm resting on the surface and the fingers, and
thumb grasping the skin and subcutaneous tissues which move with the hand of the
operator.
72. Question
It refers to the preparation of the bed with a new set of linens
A. Bed bath
B. Bed making
C. Bed shampoo
D. Bed lining
Incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Bed making
Bed making is one of the important nursing techniques to prepare various types of
bed for patients or clients to guarantee comfort and beneficial position for a
specific condition. The bed is particularly important for patients who are sick.
The nurse plays an inevitable role to ensure comfort and cleanliness for ill
patients. It should be adaptable to various positions as per patient’s needs
because they spend a varying amount of the day in bed.
Option A: Bed bathing is not as effective as showering or bathing and should only
be undertaken when there is no alternative (Dougherty and Lister, 2015). If a bed
bath is required, it is important to offer patients the opportunity to participate
in their own care, which helps to maintain their independence, self-esteem and
dignity.
Option C: The condition of their hair and how it is styled is an important part of
patients’ identity and wellbeing, so assisting them with hair care is a fundamental
aspect of nursing care
Option D: The purpose of a well-made hospital bed, as well as an appropriately
chosen mattress, is to provide a safe, comfortable place for the patient, where
repositioning is more easily achieved, and pressure ulcers are prevented.
73. Question
Which of the following is the most important purpose of handwashing?
Hand washing is the single most effective infection control measure. Handwashing
practices in the patient care setting began in the early 19th century. The practice
evolved over the years with evidential proof of its vast importance and coupled
with other hand-hygienic practices, decreased pathogens responsible for nosocomial
or hospital-acquired infections (HAI).
Option A: According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), hand
hygiene is the single most important practice in the reduction of the transmission
of infection in the healthcare setting Transient microorganisms are often acquired
by healthcare workers through direct, close contact with patients or contaminated
inanimate objects or environmental surfaces. Transient flora colonizes the
superficial skin layers. It can be removed by routine hand washing more easily than
resident flora. These organisms vary in number depending upon body location.
Healthcare-associated infections are a result of these transient organisms.
Option C: Contaminated hands of healthcare providers are a primary source of
pathogenic spread. Proper hand hygiene decreases the proliferation of
microorganisms, thus reducing infection risk and overall healthcare costs, length
of stays, and ultimately, reimbursement. According to the CDC, hand hygiene
encompasses the cleansing of your hands with soap and water, antiseptic hand
washes, antiseptic hand rubs such as alcohol-based hand sanitizers, foams or gels,
or surgical hand antisepsis.
Option D: Indications for handwashing include when hands are visibly soiled,
contaminated with blood or other bodily fluids, before eating, and after restroom
use. Hands should be washed if there was potential exposure to Clostridium
difficile, Norovirus, or Bacillus anthracis. Alcohol-based hand sanitizers are the
recommended product for hand hygiene when hands are not visibly soiled. Apply
alcohol-based products per manufacturer guidelines on dispensing of the product.
Typically, 3 mL to 5 mL in the palm, rubbing vigorously, ensuring all surfaces on
both hands get covered, about 20 seconds is required for all surfaces to dry
completely.
74. Question
What should be done in order to prevent contaminating the environment in bed
making?
Fanning soiled linens would scatter the lodged microorganisms and dead skin cells
on the linens. Healthcare linens are known to harbor a number of microorganisms.
Most notably, there is an increased concern that methicillin-resistant
Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)and vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus (VRE) can survive
for days on linens. There is further concern that these contaminated linens then
become a potential source of cross-contamination.
Option B: There is now a common understanding that linens, once in use, are usually
contaminated and could be harboring microorganisms such as MRSA and VRE. Further,
the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) cautions that healthcare
professionals should handle contaminated textiles and fabrics with minimum
agitation to avoid contamination of air, surfaces, and persons. Even one of the
leading nursing textbooks, Fundamentals of Nursing, Soiled linen is never shaken in
the air because shaking can disseminate secretions and excretions and the
microorganisms they contain. This text also states linens that have been soiled
with excretions and secretions harbor microorganisms that can be transmitted to
others.
Option C: Healthcare laundry protocols have long relied on chlorine-based
sanitizers to kill bacteria in bed linens and other fabrics. While chlorine is
known as one of the best antimicrobial agents in the world, its power has been
limited because it evaporates from untreated fabric soon after laundering. But with
this new patented technology in HaloShield ® linens, the chlorine keeps killing
bacteria right up until the next laundering.
Option D: The environment in which linens are used in healthcare is often ideal for
the proliferation and spread of bacteria and viruses. Often the patient, in a
weakened or compromised state, is lying on a sheet. That sheet under the patient’s
body is warm, dark, and sometimes damp. Most would agree that those conditions are
considered ideal for bacteria and viruses to thrive.
75. Question
The most important purpose of cleansing bed bath is:
A. To cleanse, refresh and give comfort to the client who must remain in bed.
B. To expose the necessary parts of the body.
C. To develop skills in bed bath.
D. To check the body temperature of the client in bed.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: A. To cleanse, refresh and give comfort to the client who must
remain in bed.
The nurse provides a bed bath for patients who must remain in bed and depend on
someone else for their care. It is an important part of the patient’s daily care.
Not only does it remove sweat, oil, and micro-organisms from the patient’s skin,
but it also stimulates circulation and promotes a feeling of self-worth by
improving the patient’s appearance. For patients who are on bedrest, bathing can
also be a time for socialization.
Option B: During bed bath, the patient is always given privacy so as not to expose
their intimate parts of the body. Some patients cannot safely leave their beds to
bathe. For these people, daily bed baths can help keep their skin healthy, control
odor, and increase comfort. If moving the patient causes pain, plan to give the
patient a bed bath after the person has received pain medicine and it has taken
effect.
Option C: The nurse may develop her skills in bed bath, but it is not the main
purpose. A bed bath is a good time to inspect a patient’s skin for redness and
sores. Pay special attention to skin folds and bony areas when checking. Encourage
the patient to be involved as possible in bathing themselves.
Option D: A bed bath may give a relaxation effect on the patient. It may also
stimulate blood circulation to the skin, respiration, and elimination; maintain
joint mobility, and improve the patient’s self-image and emotional and mental well-
being. It provides the nurse with an opportunity for health teaching and
assessment; gives the patient psychological support, and the process of building
rapport may begin during the initial bath.