SBI Apprentice

General English

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25 Questions

Que. 1 Directions: In the following question, some part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which
part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from
errors, select option 'No error'.
Millions of parents and educators around the country /(A) has deep-rooted and extremely /(B) outdated mental
models /(C) of what education should be. /(D) No error. /(E)
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. E

Que. 2 Find out which part has an error and mark it as your answer. If there is no error, mark ‘No error’
as your answer.

Ambani, Asia’s richest man, is wedging(A)/ into a business teeming in players ranging(B)/ from rival mobile
carriers to streaming giants(C)/ such as Netflix Inc and Amazon.com Inc. (D)
1. Ambani, Asia’s richest man, is wedging
2. into a business teeming in players ranging
3. from rival mobile carriers to streaming giants
4. such as Netflix Inc and Amazon.com Inc.
5. No error

Que. 3 Find out which part has an error and mark it as your answer. If there is no error, mark ‘No error’
as your answer.
The 70th anniversary of the establishment(A)/ of diplomatic relations was judged to be(B)/ the most ideal
occasion to launch a major renewal(C)/ and strengthen the process of the bilateral relationship(D)
1. The 70th anniversary of the establishment
2. of diplomatic relations was judged to be
3. the most ideal occasion to launch a major renewal
4. and strengthen the process of the bilateral relationship
5. No error

Que. 4 In the following question, some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and
select the correct answer for the given blank out of the five alternatives given in the questions that
follow:
An economy that shows GDP growth of 7% for a decade or more is termed as Miracle economy. India can be
referred to be one of them but the latest data are ___________ (A). Q1 growth in 2018-19 was as high as 8%,
but this was achieved because of a low base effect. That ____________ (B) as the year progressed. Growth in Q2
has been revised to 7%, and the Q3 estimate is just 6.6%. Annual growth is estimated at 7%, implying that Q4
growth will be only 6.3%. It is estimated that India could bounce back. Yet, the world economy is slowing, and
India with it. Core sector growth in January slowed to 1.8%, the slowest for 19 months. If the coming election
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produces a ___________ (C) government, the economy could slow further. This means India will have to run
much faster just to stay at 7%. The small, incremental reforms of PM Narendra Modi’s first term will not
___________ (D). India must do far more to cut red tape, privatize some banks and public sector units, liberalize
labour and land markets, improve lousy education and health systems, and cease micro-interventions that
______________ (E) in recent years.

Which of the following words most appropriately fits the blank labeled (A)?
1. Persistent
2. Overwhelming
3. Perpetual
4. Immense
5. Sobering

Que. 5 Which of the following words most appropriately fits the blank labelled (B)?
1. Persuaded
2. Eroded
3. Malfunction
4. Incubated
5. Gestation

Que. 6 Which of the following words most appropriately fits the blank labelled (C)?
1. Narcissistic
2. Autonomy
3. Communist
4. Aristocratic
5. Populist

Que. 7 Which of the following words most appropriately fits the blank labelled (D)?
1. Refrain
2. Exhortation
3. Desist
4. Suffice
5. Eschew

Que. 8 Which of the following words most appropriately fits the blank labelled (E)?
1. Rescind
2. Enforce
3. Reprobate
4. Swarthy
5. Proliferated

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Que. 9 In the following sentence, four words are given in bold. One of these words may be incorrectly
spelt or inappropriate in the context. Find out that word. If all the words are correct, choose
option 5 as your answer.
Dams are a critical infrastructure, which has multiporpose uses such as irrigation, power generation, flood
moderation and supply of water for drinking and industrial purposes.
1. Critical
2. Multiporpose
3. Moderation
4. Purposes
5. No error

Que. 10 In the following sentence, four words or phrases have been printed in bold. One bold part of the
sentence is not acceptable in Standard English. Pick up that part and mark its number. If there
are no errors in the bold parts, mark (E) i.e. No error as the answer.
The prince(1) was taken(2) aback but he didn't dare(3) to enrage(4) his father.
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. No error

Que. 11 Given below is a sentence with two blanks. Identify the correct order of words which can be used
to fill in the blanks.
The environment and urban planning minister, Murat Kurum said people were ________ under the wreckage and
rescue efforts were ________.
A. Contradict
B. Underway
C. Refute
D. Trapped
E. Hefty
1. EB
2. AD
3. DC
4. BA
5. DB

Que. 12 Given below is a sentence with two blanks. Identify the correct order of words which can be used
to fill in the blanks.
Much back and forth happened in the following days with both sides _______ one notice after the other to
_______ the other side’s orders “null and void”.
A. Grasp
B. Issuing
C. Declare
D. Segment
E. Yield
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 1. DE
2. BC
3. AC
4. DB
5. EA

Que. 13 In the following question, the sentence is given with a blank to be filled in with an appropriate
word. Select the correct alternative out of the five and indicate it by selecting the appropriate
option.
The employer and employee go a long way in ______ confidence and destroying fear by creating a work
environment free of worry and suspicion
1. Instilling
2. removing
3. making
4. Suspecting
5. Discussing

Que. 14 In the following question, the sentence given with a blank to be filled in with an appropriate
word. Select the correct alternative out of the five and indicate it by selecting the appropriate
option.
Soumabrata is well aware that a practical way to show ________ is to work hard even when nobody is watching.
1. Serenity
2. Unusual
3. Compatibility
4. Integrity
5. Sobriety

Que. 15 Given Below is a sentence with two blanks. Identify the correct order of words which can be used
to fill in the blanks.
It is _________ that the move to hike duties will provide a revenue _______ in the range of 0.03 to 0.35 per cent
of states’ GDP.
A. Estimated
B. Discard
C. Appraise
D. Judge
E. Gain
1. BD
2. DE
3. EA
4. AE
5. CB

Que. 16 Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
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Stress, a potential danger to a person’s health and well-being, is a “product of the transaction between an
individual and its environment”. It is commonly experienced negatively if perceived strain outweighs available
coping resources. The workplace is considered as a source of strain that causes stress leading to detrimental
health effects. Evidence shows that workers and executives in middle management positions are more
susceptible to increased stress levels compared to, for example, top managers. Based on the effort–recovery
model (ERM), the workplace is associated with effort expenditures that can develop into severe and chronic load
reactions if recovery is insufficient or incomplete. Thus, recovery as a process of “psychophysiological
unwinding” appears to play a major role in stress reduction and can act as an intervention in the development of
long-term negative health reactions to normal stressors at work.
Stress in the workplace has a detrimental effect on people’s health. Sufficient recovery is necessary to
counteract severe chronic negative load reactions. Previous research has shown that vacationing for at least
seven consecutive days provided an efficient recovery strategy. Yet, thus far, the effects of short vacations and
the mode of vacation (whether at home or in a new environment) have rarely been studied. We investigated the
immediate and long-term effects of a short vacation on well-being and perceived stress and whether the mode of
vacation impacted these results. Data was obtained from 40 middle managers (67.5% men and 32.5% women).
The intervention group spent a short vacation in a hotel outside their usual environment. The control group spent
their vacation at home. Results indicated that one single short-term vacation, independent of the mode, has large,
positive and immediate effects on perceived stress, recovery, strain, and well-being. Strain levels decreased to a
greater extent in the intervention group compared to the control group. The effects can still be detected at 30 days
(recovery) and 45 days (well-being and strain) post-vacation. Encouraging middle management employees to
take short vacations seems to be an efficient health promotion strategy; environmental effects seem to play a
minor role.

Which of the following is true about ERM according to the passage?

1. Employees would feel satisfied when they recover money equivalent to their efforts in the work.
2. Effort recovery plays a major role in reducing the stress levels of employees.
3. Effort expenditures and chronic load reactions have to be balanced and recovered.
4. ERM can lead to the development of long-term negative health reactions to normal stressors at work.
5. None of these.

Que. 17 Which of the following is the most appropriate antonym of the word counteract ?
1. Cancel
2. Compensate
3. Counterbalance
4. Continue
5. Nullify

Que. 18 Which of the following sentences mean the same as "Stress in the workplace has a detrimental effect
on people’s health"?
1. Stress in the workplace is common and can help to achieve the set targets.
2. Stress does not have a big impact on the health of employees.
3. Stress in the workplace has a harmful effect on people’s health.
4. Stress gets the best out of an employee.
5. None of these.

Que. 19 What does the second paragraph summarise?

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 1. Only outdoor vacations have a positive effect on perceived stress.
2. Long vacations are better than the shorter ones.
3. Vacationing is a health promoting strategy for middle managers.
4. Not only the middle managers, but the top management also benefits from vacations.
5. None of these.

Que. 20 Which of the following is the most appropriate synonym of the word coping?
1. Collapsing
2. Failing
3. Falling short
4. Fizzling
5. Faring

Que. 21 Below are given some sentences out of which the sentence numbered 4 has been correctly placed.
The rest of the sentences A, B, C, D, E, F need to be arranged correctly in order to form a logical
order.
A. The terms "popular music" and "pop music" are often used interchangeably, although the former describes all
music that is popular and includes many diverse styles.
B. "Pop" and "rock" were roughly synonymous terms until the late 1960s when they became increasingly
differentiated from each other.
C. Pop music is a genre of popular music that originated in its modern form in the United States and the United
Kingdom during the mid-1950s.
4. Although much of the music that appears on record charts is seen as pop music, the genre is distinct from chart
music.
D. These core elements include generally short to medium-length songs written in a basic format, as well as the
common use of repeated choruses, melodic tunes, and hooks.
E. Pop music is eclectic, and often borrows elements from other styles such as urban, dance, rock, Latin and
country.
F. Nonetheless, there are certain core elements that define pop music.

Which of the following is the FIRST statement?

1. F
2. C
3. D
4. B
5. E

Que. 22 Which of the following is the SECOND statement?

1. F
2. A
3. D
4. B
5. C
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Que. 23 Which of the following is the THIRD statement?
1. F
2. A
3. D
4. B
5. C

Que. 24 Which of the following is the SIXTH statement?

1. F
2. A
3. D
4. B
5. C

Que. 25 Which of the following is the SEVENTH statement?

1. F
2. A
3. D
4. B
5. C

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Answer Key

Que. 1 Correct Option - 2

Que. 2 Correct Option - 2

Que. 3 Correct Option - 3

Que. 4 Correct Option - 5

Que. 5 Correct Option - 2

Que. 6 Correct Option - 5

Que. 7 Correct Option - 4

Que. 8 Correct Option - 5

Que. 9 Correct Option - 2

Que. 10 Correct Option - 5

Que. 11 Correct Option - 5

Que. 12 Correct Option - 2

Que. 13 Correct Option - 1

Que. 14 Correct Option - 4

Que. 15 Correct Option - 4

Que. 16 Correct Option - 2

Que. 17 Correct Option - 4

Que. 18 Correct Option - 3

Que. 19 Correct Option - 3

Que. 20 Correct Option - 5

Que. 21 Correct Option - 2

Que. 22 Correct Option - 2

Que. 23 Correct Option - 4

Que. 24 Correct Option - 1

Que. 25 Correct Option - 3

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