Extended All SOM MCQs - pdf-1-5000

Strength of Materials
1) A simply supported beam carries uniformly distributed load of 20 kN/m over the
length of 5 m. If flexural rigidity is 30000 kN.m2, what is the maximum deflection in the
beam?
a. 5.4 mm
b. 1.08 mm
c. 6.2 mm
d. 8.6 mm
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: 5.4 mm
Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!
2) The design of a beam is based on strength criteria, if the beam is sufficiently strong
to resist _______
a. shear force
b. deflection
c. both a. and b.
d. none of the above
ANSWER: shear force

Explanation:
3) The vertical distance between the axis of the beam before and after loading at a point
is called as _______
a. deformation
b. deflection
c. slope
ANSWER: deflection
Explanation:
4) Which of the following is a differential equation for deflection?
a. dy / dx = (M/EI)
b. dy / dx = (MI/E)
c. d2y / dx2 = (M/EI)
d. d2y / dx2 = (ME/I)
ANSWER: d2y / dx2 = (M/EI)

Explanation:
5) Macaulay's method is used to determine ______
a. deflection
b. strength
c. toughness
d. all of the above
ANSWER: deflection
Explanation:
6) Load is gradually applied on a steel plate shown below, what is the modulus of
resilience, if 130 N/mm2 is the maximum stress applied? (Assume E = 100 x 103 Mpa)
a. 0.845 N/mm2
b. 0.0845 N/mm2
c. 0.00845 N/mm2
d. Insufficient data
ANSWER: 0.0845 N/mm2

Explanation:
7) Strain energy stored in a uniform bar is given as ______
a. (σ E/ 2A)
b. (σ L/ 2AE)
c. (σ2 AL/ 4E)
d. (σ2 AL/ 2E)
ANSWER: (σ2 AL/ 2E)

Explanation:
8) Modulus of resilience is the ratio of ______
a. minimum strain energy and unit volume

b. maximum stress energy and unit volume
c. proof resilience and unit volume
d. resilience and unit area
ANSWER: proof resilience and unit volume

Explanation:
9) What is the strain energy stored in a cube of 50 mm, when it is subjected to shear
stress of 200 Mpa. (G = 100 Gpa)
a. 25 Nm
b. 75 Nm
c. 125 Nm
d. 150 Nm
ANSWER: 25 Nm
Explanation:
10) Energy stored in a body within an elastic limit is called as _____
a. resilience
b. strain energy
c. both a. and b.
ANSWER: both a. and b.

Explanation:
11) A member subjected to couple produces rotational motion about its longitudinal
axis called as ________
a. torsion
b. twisting moment
c. both a. and b.

Explanation:
12) What is the maximum principle stress induced in a solid shaft of 40 mm diameter
which is subjected to both bending moment and torque of 300 kN.mm and 150 kN.mm
respectively?
a. 21.69 N/mm2
b. 28.1 N/mm2
c. 50.57 N/mm2
d. 52.32 N/mm2
ANSWER: 50.57 N/mm2

Explanation:
13) What is the maximum shear stress induced in a solid shaft of 50 mm diameter which
is subjected to both bending moment and torque of 300 kN.mm and 200 kN.mm
respectively?
a. 9.11 N/mm2
b. 14.69 N/mm2
c. 16.22 N/mm2
d. 20.98 N/mm2
ANSWER: 14.69 N/mm2

Explanation:
14) Torque and bending moment of 100 kN.m and 200 kN.m acts on a shaft which has
external diameter twice of internal diameter. What is the external diameter of the shaft
which is subjected to a maximum shear stress of 90 N/mm2?
a. 116.5 mm
b. 233.025 mm
c. 587.1 mm
d. 900 mm
ANSWER: 587.1 mm
Explanation:
15) Which of the following assumptions are made in torsion theory?
a. Shaft is perfectly straight

b. Material of the shaft is heterogeneous
c. Twist cannot be uniform along the length of the shaft
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Shaft is perfectly straight

Explanation:
16) While determining crippling load, the effective length of solid circular bar is 1/ √2 of
actual length if, _______
a. both ends of solid circular bar are fixed

b. both ends of solid circular bar are hinged
c. one end is fixed and one is free
d. one end is fixed and other end is hinged
ANSWER: one end is fixed and other end is hinged

Explanation:
17) Rankine-Gordon's empirical formula is applicable for _____
a. long column
b. short column
c. both a. and b.

Explanation:
18) What is the safe load acting on a long column of 2 m having diameter of 40 mm. The
column is fixed at both the ends and modulus of elasticity is 2 x 10 5 N/mm2? (F.O.S = 2)
a. 120 kN
b. 124 kN
c. 130 kN
d. 150 kN
ANSWER: 124 kN
Explanation:
19) If the effective length of a column is twice the actual length, then the column is
________
a. fixed at both the ends

b. hinged at both the ends
c. fixed at one end and free at the other end
d. fixed at one end and hinged at the other end
ANSWER: fixed at one end and free at the other

end
Explanation:
20) What is the value of Rankine's constant for cast iron?
a. 1 / 750
b. 1 / 1600
c. 1 / 7500
d. 1 / 9000
ANSWER: 1 / 1600
Explanation:
21) Which of the following formulae is used to calculate tangential stress, when a
member is subjected to stress in mutually perpendicular axis and accompanied by a
shear stress?
a. [(σx – σy)/2 ]sin θ – τ cos 2θ

b. [(σx – σy)/2 ]– τ cos 2θ
c. [(σx – σy)/2 ]sin θ – τ2 cos θ
d. None of the above
ANSWER: [(σx – σy)/2 ]sin θ – τ cos 2θ

Explanation:
22) What is the value of shear stress acting on a plane of circular bar which is subjected
to axial tensile load of 100 kN? (Diameter of bar = 40 mm , θ = 42.3o)
a. 58.73 Mpa
b. 40.23 Mpa
c. 39.60 Mpa
ANSWER: 39.60 Mpa

Explanation:
23) The maximum tangential stress σt = (σx sin 2θ)/2 is maximum if, θ is equal to
________
a. 45o
b. 90o
c. 270o
d. all of the above
ANSWER: 45o
Explanation:
24) The angle between normal stress and tangential stress is known as angle of ______
a. declination
b. orientation
c. obliquity
d. rotation
ANSWER: obliquity
Explanation:
25) Minor principal stress has minimum ________
a. value of shear stress acting on the plane

b. intensity of direct stress
c. both a. and b.
ANSWER: intensity of direct stress

Explanation:
26) According to maximum strain energy theory, failure of material due to complex
stresses occurs when total stored energy per unit volume at a point ___________
a. reaches the value of yield point

b. reaches the value of strain energy stored per unit volume at yield point
c. reaches the value of strain energy stored per unit volume at elastic limit
d. exceeds total strain energy caused by uniaxial stress at elastic point
ANSWER: reaches the value of strain energy

stored per unit volume at elastic limit
Explanation:
27) Principal stress of 30 Mpa and -70 Mpa acts on a material which has elastic limit
stress in simple tension and compression as 60 Mpa and 200 Mpa respectively. Specify
the reason for failure of the material assuming maximum principle stress theory.
a. Compression
b. Tension
c. Unpredictable
ANSWER: Tension
Explanation:
28) A circular bar is subjected to an axial force and shear force, the difference between
two principle stresses is 120 Mpa. Based on maximum shear stress theory what is the
factor of safety, if elastic limit of the bar is 300 Mpa?
a. .5
b. 2
c. 2.5
d. 3
ANSWER: 2.5
Explanation:
29) For designing ductile materials, which of the following theories is/are used?
a. Maximum shear stress theory

b. Shear strain energy theory
c. Both a. and b.
ANSWER: Both a. and b.

Explanation:
30) Shear stress energy theory is called as ______
a. distortion theory
b. Von Mises theory
c. both a. and b.

Explanation:
1) The ratio of effective length and least lateral dimension for short column is _______
a. > 12
b. < 12
c. ≥ 12
ANSWER: < 12
Explanation:
2) In Euler's theory, long columns having the ratio of (Le /LLD) ≥ 12 fail due to _______
a. crushing
b. buckling
c. both a. and b.
ANSWER: buckling
Explanation:
3) Euler's formula is applicable only _________
1. for short columns

2. for long columns
3. if slenderness ratio is greater than √(π2 E / σc)
4. if crushing stress < buckling stress
5. if crushing stress ≥ buckling stress
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2, 3 and 5
c. 3 and 4
d. all of the above
ANSWER: 2, 3 and 5
Explanation:
4) Slenderness ratio is the ratio of effective length of column and ________
a. lateral dimension of a column

b. least radius of gyration of a column
c. maximum radius of gyration of a column
ANSWER: least radius of gyration of a column

Explanation:
5) What is the relation between actual length and effective length while determining
crippling load for a hollow rectangular cast iron column having both ends fixed?
(where L= actual length and Le =effective length)
a. Le = L
b. Le = L/2
c. Le = 2L
d. Le = 4L
ANSWER: Le = L/2
Explanation:
6) Principal stress is the magnitude of ________ stress acting on the principal plane.
a. Normal stress
b. Shear stress
c. Both a. and b.
ANSWER: Normal stress

Explanation:
7) When a component is subjected to axial stress the normal stress σn is maximum, if

cos θ is _______ . (σn=σxCos2θ)
1. maximum
2. minimum
3. always one
4. always zero
a. 1 and 4
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 3
d. 2 and 4
ANSWER: 1 and 3
Explanation:
8) Which of the following stresses can be determined using Mohr's circle method?
a. Torsional stress
b. Bending stress
c. Principal stress
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Principal stress

Explanation:
9) The graphical method of Mohr's circle represents shear stress (τ) on ______
a. X-axis
b. Y-axis
c. Z-axis
ANSWER: Y-axis
Explanation:
10) In Mohr's circle method, compressive direct stress is represented on ____
a. positive x-axis
b. positive y-axis
c. negative x-axis
d. negative y-axis
ANSWER: negative x-axis

Explanation:
11) St. Venant's theory is also known as maximum _________

a. principle stress theory
b. shear stress theory
c. principle strain theory
d. strain energy theory
ANSWER: principle strain theory

Explanation:
12) According to Coulomb's theory, material subjected to complex stresses fails, if

________ shear stress induced in the material exceeds _______ shear stress at the yield
point.
a. minimum, maximum
b. maximum, minimum
c. maximum, maximum
d. minimum, minimum
ANSWER: maximum, maximum

Explanation:
13) In simple tensile test, when maximum principle stress reaches the value of yield
point, the material subjected to complex stresses fail. This theory is called as ________.
a. Coulumb's theory
b. Rankine's theory
c. Venant's theory
d. Von Mises theory
ANSWER: Rankine's theory

Explanation:
14) Which theory gives satisfactory results for brittle materials?

b. Maximum principle stress theory
c. Shear strain energy theory
ANSWER: Maximum principle stress theory

Explanation:
15) In maximum principle strain theory, maximum principal strain for no failure
condition is ________
a. e = (σx - σy )/ E +τ2
b. e = qmax ≥ qyp
c. e = σyp / E
ANSWER: e = σyp / E
Explanation:
16) Modulus of rigidity is the ratio of ______
a. Lateral strain and linear strain

b. Linear stress and lateral strain
c. Shear stress and shear strain
d. Shear strain and shear stress
ANSWER: Shear stress and shear strain

Explanation:
17) The relation between modulus of elasticity (E), modulus of rigidity (G) and bulk
modulus (K) is given as ________
a. K+G / (3K+ G)
b. 3 KG / (3K+ G)
c. 3 KG / (9K+ G)
d. 9 KG / (3K+ G)
ANSWER: 9 KG / (3K+ G)
Explanation:
18) In the diagram shown below, a tensile load of 50 kN is applied axially. What is the
increase in length of the rectangular tapered plate of width 10 mm. (Assume E = 220 Gpa)
a. 0.10 mm
b. 0.161 mm
c. 0.126 mm
d. 0.56 mm
ANSWER: 0.126 mm
Explanation:
19) What is the bulk modulus of a material, if a cube of 100 mm changes its volume to
4000 mm3 when subjected to compressive force of 2.5 x 10 6 N?
a. 62.5 Gpa
b. 65 Gpa
c. 67.5 Gpa
d. 70 Gpa
ANSWER: 62.5 Gpa

Explanation:
20) When a rectangular bar is uniaxially loaded, the volumetric strain (e v) is given as
________
a. σx / E(1- μ)
b. σx / E(1+ μ)
c. σx / E(1- 2μ)
d. σx / E(1+2μ)
ANSWER: σx / E(1- 2μ)

Explanation:
21) In a circuit box, a copper rod at room temperature of 25 o C has a gap of 0.3 mm
between the end of the rod Q and the rigid wall. If temperature of the rod increases to
70o C ,then what is the compressive stress acting on the rod PQ? (Assume Young's
modulus = 100 Gpa & α = 15 x 10 –6 /oC)
a. 6 Mpa
b. 7.5 Mpa
c. 8.2 Mpa
ANSWER: 7.5 Mpa

Explanation:
22) The value of elasticity increases, when temperature _____
a. increases
b. decreases
c. remains constant
ANSWER: decreases
Explanation:
23) If a composite bar of copper and steel is heated at 120o C, the stress induced in
copper bar is _______
a. compressive stress
b. shear stress
c. tensile stress
d. thermal stress
ANSWER: compressive stress

Explanation:
24) Thermal stress is not a function of _____
a. change in temperature
b. coefficient of linear expansion
c. modulus of elasticity
ANSWER: none of the above

Explanation:
25) What is the value of thermal stress, if a rod of 3 m is heated at 50 oC and is fixed at
both the ends?
(Take α = 10 x 10-6 /oC & E= 200 x 103 Mpa)
a. 25 Mpa
b. 50 Mpa
c. 100 Mpa
d. 150 Mpa
ANSWER: 100 Mpa

Explanation:
26) The graphical representation of variation of axial load on y axis and position of
cross section along x axis is called as _____
a. Bending moment diagram

b. Shear force diagram
c. Stress-strain diagram
d. Trust diagram
ANSWER: Trust diagram

Explanation:
27) What is the maximum bending moment acting on simply supported beam shown
below?
a. 2000 Nm
b. 3000 Nm
c. 4000 Nm
d. 6000 Nm
ANSWER: 3000 Nm
Explanation:
28) What is the maximum shear force acting on the beam shown below.
a. 125 N
b. 200 N
c. 4000 N
d. 8000 N
ANSWER: 200 N
Explanation:
29) A 10 m long cantilever beam is fixed at point B. What is the bending moment at point
B, if 5 m span of AC carries uniform distributed load of 10 kN/m?
a. 125 kN/m
b. 200 kN/m
c. 375 kN/m
d. 500 kN/m
ANSWER: 375 kN/m

Explanation:
30) The diagram shown below, depicts bending diagram for ______
a. cantilever beam with uniformly distributed load
b. cantilever beam with uniformly distributed load only on half side of the beam
c. simply supported beam with varying distributed load
d. simply supported beam with uniformly distributed load
ANSWER: simply supported beam with uniformly

distributed load
Explanation:
31) Moment of inertia acting on a semi-circle about symmetrical axes is given as

_______
a. 1.57 r4
b. 0.055 r4
c. 0.392 r4
d. 0.11 r4
ANSWER: 0.392 r4
Explanation:
32) What is the product of sectional modulus and allowable bending stress called as?
a. Moment of inertia
b. Moment of rigidity
c. Moment of resistance
d. Radius of gyration
ANSWER: Moment of resistance

Explanation:
33) A uniformly distributed load of 20 kN/m acts on a simply supported beam of

rectangular cross section of width 20 mm and depth 60 mm. What is the maximum
bending stress acting on the beam of 5m?
a. 5030 Mpa
b. 5208 Mpa
c. 6600 Mpa
ANSWER: 5208 Mpa

Explanation:
34) The bending formula is given as _____
a. (M/E) = (σ/y) = (R/I)

b. (M/y) = (σ/I) = (E/R)
c. (M/I) = (σ/y) = (E/R)
ANSWER: (M/I) = (σ/y) = (E/R)

Explanation:
35) Which of the following laminas have same moment of inertia (I xx = Iyy), when passed
through the centroid along x-x and y-y axes?
a. Circle
b. Semi-circle
c. Right angle triangle
d. Isosceles triangle
ANSWER: Circle
Explanation:
36) A circular pipe is subjected to maximum shear force of 60 kN. What is the diameter
of the pipe if maximum allowable shear stress is 5 Mpa?
a. 27.311 mm
b. 75.56 mm
c. 142.72 mm
d. 692.10 mm
ANSWER: 142.72 mm
Explanation:
37) What is the shear stress acting along the neutral axis of triangular beam section,
with base 60 mm and height 150 mm, when shear force of 30 kN acts?
a. 15.36 N/mm2
b. 10.6 N/mm2
c. 8.88 N/mm2
ANSWER: 8.88 N/mm2

Explanation:
38) The ratio of maximum shear stress to average shear stress is 4/3 in _______
a. circular cross-section
b. rectangular cross-section
c. square cross-section
d. all of the above
ANSWER: circular cross-section

Explanation:
39) What is the average shear stress acting on a rectangular beam, if 50 N/mm2 is
the maximum shear stress acting on it?
a. 31.5 N/mm2
b. 33.33 N/mm2
c. 37.5 N/mm2
d. 42.5 N/mm2
ANSWER: 33.33 N/mm2

Explanation:
40) Why are shear connectors used?
a. Interconnect planks
b. To avoid sliding between planks
c. Both a. and b.

Explanation:
1) The ratio of stress and strain is known as _____
a. Modulus of elasticity
b. Young's modulus
c. Both a. and b.

Explanation:
2) The actual breaking stress in stress-strain diagram is the ratio of ______
a. load at breaking point and original cross-sectional area

b. load at breaking point and reduced cross-sectional area
c. maximum load and original cross-sectional area
d. yield load and original cross-sectional area
ANSWER: load at breaking point and reduced

cross-sectional area
Explanation:
3) A rigid body has Poisson's ratio equal to _____
a. 0
b. 1
c. less than 1
d. greater than one
ANSWER: 0
Explanation:
4) A rectangular bar has volume of 1.5 x 10 6 mm3. What is the change in volume, if
stresses in x, y and z direction are 100 Mpa, 150 Mpa and 160 Mpa respectively. (Assume
K = 2 x 105 N/mm2 & μ = 0.3)
a. 1000 mm3
b. 1230 mm3
c. 1500 mm3
d. 2000 mm3
ANSWER: 1230 mm3

Explanation:
5) Two parallel, equal and opposite forces acting tangentially to the surface of the body
is called as _____
a. Complementary stress
b. Compressive stress
c. Shear stress
d. Tensile stress
ANSWER: Shear stress

Explanation:
6) Which stress is induced in a member, when expansion or contraction due to

temperature variation is prevented?
a. Compressive stress
b. Tensile stress
c. Thermal stress
ANSWER: Thermal stress

Explanation:
7) The thermal stress induced in a steel rod is compressive, if temperature _____
a. decreases
b. increases
c. remains constant
ANSWER: increases
Explanation:
8) The deformation of a material caused due temperature variation develops ______
a. stress
b. strain
c. both a. and b.

Explanation:
9) In the diagram shown below, material A and B expand freely as shown in condition
(2). If expansion is prevented for equilibrium condition(3) to reach, then
a. tensile force exerted by material B on A is equal to tensile force exerted by A on B.
b. tensile force exerted by material B on A is equal to compressive force exerted by A on B.
c. compressive force exerted by material B on A is equal to tensile force exerted by A on B.
d. no force acts on the composite member in equilibrium conditions
ANSWER: tensile force exerted by material B on A

is equal to compressive force exerted by A on B.
Explanation:
10) Force of 100 kN is applied on 900 mm long rod of 20 mm diameter and is

simultaneously heated at 70o C. What is the total elongation of the rod? (Assume
coefficient of thermal expansion = 10 x 10 –6 oC, Young's modulus = 150 Gpa)
a. 2.54 mm
b. 2.00 mm
c. 1.27 mm
d. 0.63 mm
ANSWER: 2.54 mm
Explanation:
11) The beam having one end free and one end fixed is called as _______
a. Cantilever beam
b. Continuous beam
c. Overhang beam
d. Simply supported beam
ANSWER: Cantilever beam

Explanation:
12) The concavity produced on the beam section about the centre line when downward
force acts on it is called as __
a. Hogging or positive bending moment

b. Hogging or negative bending moment
c. Sagging or positive bending moment
d. Sagging or negative bending moment
ANSWER: Hogging or negative bending moment

Explanation:
13) In axial thrust diagram, at which point bending moment is zero?

a. Point of contra-flexure
b. Point of inflection
c. Both a. and b.

Explanation:
14) Uniformly varying load between two sections in shear force diagram is represented
by ____
a. cubic curve
b. inclined line
c. horizontal line
d. parabolic curve
ANSWER: parabolic curve

Explanation:
15) In bending moment diagram, if no load acts between two sections, then it is
represented by _______
a. horizontal line
b. inclined line
c. vertical line
d. all of the above
ANSWER: inclined line

Explanation:
16) What is the S.I. unit of sectional modulus?
a. mm4
b. mm3
c. mm2
d. m
ANSWER: mm3
Explanation:
17) What is the moment of inertia acting on a rectangle of width 15 mm and depth 40
mm about base by using theorem of parallel axes?
a. 320 x 103 mm4

b. 300 x 103 mm4
c. 240 x 103 mm4
d. 80 x 103 mm4
ANSWER: 320 x 103 mm4

Explanation:
18) What is the moment of inertia acting on a circle of diameter 50 mm?
a. 122.71 x 103 mm4

b. 306.79 x 103 mm4
c. 567.23 x 103 mm4
d. 800 x 103 mm4
ANSWER: 306.79 x 103 mm4

Explanation:
19) Which of the following relations is used to represent theorem of perpendicular

axes?
(H = Vertical axis, I = Moment of inertia and K = Radius of gyration)
a. IPQ = Ixx + AH2

b. IPQ = Ixx + Ak2
c. Izz = Ixx + Iyy
d. Izz + Ixx + Iyy = 0
ANSWER: Izz = Ixx + Iyy

Explanation:
20) What is the moment of inertia acting on a semicircle of radius 20 mm about the
asymmetrical axes?
a. 125.663 x 103 mm4

b. 17600 mm4
c. 1500 mm4
d. 8800 mm4
ANSWER: 17600 mm4

Explanation:
21) The shear stress acting on the neutral axis of a beam is _____
a. maximum
b. minimum
c. zero
ANSWER: maximum
Explanation:
22) Maximum shear stress in a triangular section ABC of height H and base B occurs at
_________
a. H
b. H/2
c. H/3
d. neutral axis
ANSWER: H/2
Explanation:
23) What is the shear stress acting along the neutral axis, over a triangular section?
a. 2.66 (S/bh)
b. 1.5 (S/bh)
c. 0.375 (S/bh)
ANSWER: 2.66 (S/bh)

Explanation:
24) The average shear stress in a beam of circular section is _______ times the
maximum shear stress.
a. 0.75
b. 1.5
c. 4/3
d. equal
ANSWER: 0.75
Explanation:
25) A square object of 4 mm is subjected to a force of 3000 N. What is the maximum

allowable shear stress acting on it?
a. 250.14 mm2
b. 281.25 mm2
c. 400.32 mm2
d. 500 mm2
ANSWER: 281.25 mm2

Explanation:
26) According to I.S. code in actual design, maximum permissible deflection is limited
to _______
a. (span / 200)
b. (span / 325)
c. (span / 525)
ANSWER: (span / 325)

Explanation:
27) In cantilever beam, slope and deflection at free end is _____
a. zero
b. maximum
c. minimum
ANSWER: maximum
Explanation:
28) Which of the following is an elastic curve equation for shear force?
(EI = flexural rigidity)
a. S = EI (dy/dx)
b. S = EI (d2y /dx2)
c. S = EI (d3y / dx3)
d. S = EI (d4y/ dx4)
ANSWER: S = EI (d3y / dx3)

Explanation:
29) Deflection of a simply supported beam when subjected to central point load is given
as ________
a. (Wl /16 EI)
b. (Wl2 /16 EI)
c. (Wl3 /48 EI)
d. (5Wl4 / 384EI)
ANSWER: (Wl3 /48 EI)

Explanation:
30) Which of the following statements is/are true for a simply supported beam?
a. Deflection at supports in a simply supported beam is maximum

b. Deflection is maximum at a point where slope is zero
c. Slope is minimum at supports in a simply supported beam
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Deflection is maximum at a point where

slope is zero
Explanation:
31) What is the strain energy caused due to self weight in a cylindrical bar?
a. (W 2 L) / (6 AE)
b. (W L) / (8 AE)
c. (τ2/ 2G)V
d. (τ2/ G)V
ANSWER: (W2 L) / (6 AE)

Explanation:
32) Stress on an object due to sudden load is _________ the stress induced when the
load is applied gradually.
a. equal to
b. half
c. twice
d. thrice
ANSWER: twice
Explanation:
33) What is the strain energy stored in a simply supported beam due to bending
moment?
a. ∫ (M2/EI)
b. ∫ (M2/2EI)
c. ∫ (M/2EI)
d. ∫ (2M/EI)
ANSWER: ∫ (M2/2EI)
Explanation:
34) What is the maximum stress induced in a bar 2500 mm2, when a load of 2000 kN is
applied suddenly?
a. 400 N/mm2
b. 800 N/mm2
c. 1600 N/mm2
ANSWER: 1600 N/mm2

Explanation:
35) What is the proof resilience of a square bar of 2500 mm2 and 200 mm long, when a
load of 150 kN is induced gradually?
(Take E = 150 x 103 Mpa)
a. 45 J
b. 8 J
c. 5.3 J
d. 6 J
ANSWER: 6 J
Explanation:
36) In the relation ( T/J = Gθ/L = τ/ R), the letter G denotes modulus of ______
a. elasticity
b. plasticity
c. rigidity
d. resilience
ANSWER: rigidity
Explanation:
37) Which of the following relation represents torsional flexibility?

a. GJ
b. GL
c. GJ / L
d. L / GJ
ANSWER: L / GJ
Explanation:
38) What is the S.I. unit of torsional rigidity?
a. Nm
b. N.m2
c. Nm/ radian
ANSWER: N.m2
Explanation:
39) What is the shear stress acting on the outer surface of a hollow shaft subjected to a
torque of 100 Nm?
(The inner and outer diameter of the shaft is 15 mm and 30 mm respectively.)
a. 50.26 N/mm2
b. 40.24 N/mm2
c. 20.120 N/mm2
d. 8.74 N/mm2

Explanation:
40) Stress in the cross section of a shaft at the centre ________
a. is zero
b. decreases linearly to the maximum value of at outer surface
c. both a. and b.
ANSWER: is zero
Explanation:
1. The dimension of strain is?
a) LT-2
b) N/m2
c) N
d) Dimensionless
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Strain is the ratio of change in dimension to original dimension. So it is
dimensionless.
2. What is tensile strain?

a) The ratio of change in length to the original length
b) The ratio of original length to the change in length
c) The ratio of tensile force to the change in length
d) The ratio of change in length to the tensile force applied
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The tensile stress is the ratio of tensile force to the change i length. It is the stress
induced in a body when subjected to two equal and opposite pulls. The ratio of change in length
to the original length is the tensile strain.
3. Find the strain of a brass rod of length 250mm which is subjected to a tensile load of 50kN
when the extension of rod is equal to 0.3mm?
a) 0.025
b) 0.0012
c) 0.0046
d) 0.0014
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Strain = dL/L = 0.3/250 = 0.0012.
4. Find the elongation of an steel rod of 100mm length when it is subjected to a tensile strain of
0.005?
a) 0.2mm
b) 0.3mm
c) 0.5mm
d) 0.1mm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: dL = strain x L = 0.005 x 100 = 0.5mm.
5. A tensile test was conducted on a mild steel bar. The diameter and the gauge length of bat was
3cm and 20cm respectively. The extension was 0.21mm. What is the value to strain?
a) 0.0010
b) 0.00105
c) 0.0105
d) 0.005
View Answer
Answer: b
6. i) Strain is a fundamental behaviour of a material.

ii) Strain does not have a unit.
a) Both i and ii are true and ii is the correct explanation of i
b) Both i and ii ate true but ii is not the correct explanation of i
c) i is true but ii is false
d) ii is true but i is false
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Strain is measured in a laboratory that is why it is called a fundamental quantity.
Also since it is the ratio of the dimension of length to the dimension of length, it is
dimensionless.
7. A tensile test was conducted on a steel bar. The gauge length of the bar was 10cm and the
extension was 2mm. What will be the percentage elongation?
a) 0.002
b) 0.02
c) 0.2
d) 2
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The percentage elongation = dL/L x 100 = 2/100 x 100 = 2.
8. The lateral strain is ___________

a) The ratio of axial deformation to the original length
b) The ratio of deformation in area to the original area
c) The strain at right angles to the direction of applied load
d) The ratio of length of body to the tensile force applied on it
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The lateral strain is the strain at right angles to the direction of the applied load. The
lateral strain is accompanied by the longitudinal strain.
9. The unit of force in S.I. units is ?
a) Kilogram
b) Newton
c) Watt
d) Dyne
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Force = mass x acceleration = kg x m/s2 = N.
10. Which of the following is not the unit of distance?

a) Angstrom
b) Light year
c) Micron
d) Milestone
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Milestone means achievement. it is not and unit of distance.
11. A solid cube is subjected to equal normal forces on all its faces. The volumetric strain will be
x-times the linear strain in any of the three axes when?
a) X=1
b) X=2
c) X=3
d) X=4
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The volumetric strain is the change in dimension in three directions and the linear
strain depends on the change in only one direction so the volumetric strain is 1 times the linear
strain in any of the three directions.
12. A rod 200cm long is subjected to an axial pull due to which it elongates about 2mm.
Calculate the amount of strain?
a) 0.001
b) 0.01
c) 0.02
d) 0.002
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The strain is given by = dL / L = 2/2000 = 0.001.
13. Some structural members subjected to a long time sustained loads deform progressively with
time especially at elevated temperatures. What is such a phenomenon called?
a) Fatigue
b) Creep
c) Creep relaxation
d) Fracture
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Creep is the deformation progressively with time. It comes when the body is
subjected to long time load. After the instant deflection due to load, the deformation occurs
slowly with time.
a) 0.01
b) 0.001
c) 0.05
d) 0.005
View Answer
Answer: b
1. The property by which a body returns to its original shape after removal of the force is called
__________
a) Plasticity
b) Elasticity
c) Ductility
d) Malleability
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When an external force acts on a body, the body tends to undergo some
deformation. If the external force is removed and the body comes back to its original shape and
size, the body is known as elastic body and this property is called elasticity.
2. The property of a material by which it can be beaten or rolled into thin plates is called
__________
a) Malleability
b) Plasticity
c) Ductility
d) Elasticity
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A material can be beaten into thin plates by its property of malleability.
3. Which law is also called as the elasticity law?
a) Bernoulli’s law
b) Stress law
c) Hooke’s law
d) Poisson’s law
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The hooke”s law is valid under the elastic limit of a body. It itself states that stress
is proportional to the strain within the elastic limit.
4. The materials which have the same elastic properties in all directions are called __________
a) Isotropic
b) Brittle
c) Homogeneous
d) Hard
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Same elastic properties in all direction is called the homogenity of a material.
5. A member which does not regain its original shape after removal of the load producing
deformation is said __________
a) Plastic
b) Elastic
c) Rigid
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A plastic material does not regain its original shape after removal of load. An
elastic material regain its original shape after removal of load.
6. The body will regain it is previous shape and size only when the deformation caused by the
external forces, is within a certain limit. What is that limit?
a) Plastic limit
b) Elastic limit
c) Deformation limit
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The body only regain its previous shape and size only upto its elastic limit.
a) Isotropic
b) Brittle
c) Homogenous
d) Hard
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Isotropic materials have the same elastic properties in all directions.
8. As the elastic limit reaches, tensile strain __________

a) Increases more rapidly
b) Decreases more rapidly
c) Increases in proportion to the stress
d) Decreases in proportion to the stress
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: On reaching the tensile stress to the elastic limit after the proportionality limit, the
stress is no longer proportional to the strain. Then the value of strain rapidly increases.
9. What kind of elastic materials are derived from a strain energy density function?
a) Cauchy elastic materials
b) Hypo elastic materials
c) Hyper elastic materials
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The hyper elastic materials are derived from a strain energy density function. A
model is hyper elastic if and only if it is possible to express the cauchy stress tensor as a function
of the deformation gradient.
10. What the number that measures an object’s resistance to being deformed elastically when
stress is applied to it?
a) Elastic modulus
b) Plastic modulus
c) Poisson’s ratio
d) Stress modulus
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The elastic modulus is the ratio of stress to strain.
1. The law which states that within elastic limits strain produced is proportional to the stress
producing it is known as _____________
b) Hooke’s law
c) Stress law
d) Poisson’s law
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Hooke’s law states that strain is directly proportional to strain produced by the
stress when a material is loaded within the elastic limit.
2. For an isotropic, homogeneous and elastic material obeying Hooke’s law, the number of
independent elastic constants is ____________
a) 2
b) 3
c) 9
d) 1
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: There are 3 constants Young’s modulus, Shear modulus and Bulk modulus.
3. What is the factor of safety?

a) The ratio of stress to strain
b) The raio of permissible stress to the ultimate stress
c) The ratio of ultimate stress to the permissible stress
d) The ratio of longitudinal strain to stress
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Factor of safety is the ratio of ultimate stress to the permissible stress.
4. What is Hooke’s law for the 1-D system?

a) The relation between normal stress and the corresponding strain
b) The relation between shear stress and the corresponding strain
c) The relation between lateral strain and the corresponding stress
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: For the 1-D system, the stress will be only in one direction. Lateral stress is for an
area while normal stress is of a length.
5. Limit of proportionality depends upon ____________

a) Area of cross-section
b) Type of loading
c) Type of material
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The proportionality limit is proportional to the area of cross-section. The material
type and loading type will have no influence on the proportionality limit.
6. The stress at which extension of a material takes place more quickly as compared to the
increase in load is called ____________
a) Elastic point
b) Plastic point
c) Breaking point
d) Yielding point
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: On the stress strain curve, on the elastic point the stress of a material takes place
more quickly.
7. Which of these is a non-hoookean material?

a) Steel
b) Rubber
c) Aluminium
d) Copper
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Rubber is generally regarded as a “non-hookean” material because its elasticity is
stress dependent and sensitive to temperature and loading rate.
8. Where in the stress-strain curve, the hooke’s law is valid?

a) Strain hardening region
b) Necking region
c) Elastic range
d) Valid everywhere
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The hooke’s law itself states that it is valid only up to the elastic range of the
material I.e. only to that limit where the material is behaving elastic.
9. Highest value of stress for which Hooke’s law is applicable for a given material is called
____________
a) Stress limit
b) Strain limit
c) Proportional limit
d) Significant limit
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The hooke’s law is valid only when the stress is proportional to the strain, that is
only in the proportionality limit
1. The slope of the stress-strain curve in the elastic deformation region is ____________
a) Elastic modulus
b) Plastic modulus
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The elastic modulus is the ratio of stress and strain. So on the stress strain curve, it
is the slope.
2. What is the stress-strain curve?

a) It is the percentage of stress and stain
b) It is the relationship between stress and strain
c) It is the difference between stress and strain
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The relationship between stress and strain on a graph is the stress strain curve. It
represents the change in stress with change in strain.
3. Which point on the stress strain curve occurs after the proportionality limit?
a) Upper yield point
b) Lower yield point
c) Elastic limit
d) Ultimate point
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The curve will be stress strain proportional upto the proportionality limit. After
these, the elastic limit will occur.
4. Which point on the stress strain curve occurs after the lower yield point?
a) Yield plateau
b) Upper yield point
c) Ultimate point
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The points on the curve comes in the given order,
A. proportionality limit
B. elastic limit
C. upper yield point
D. lower yield point
E. yield plateau
F. ultimate point
G. breaking point.
5. Which point on the stress strain curve occurs after yield plateau?
a) lower yield point
c) Ultimate point
d) Breaking point
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: After the yield plateau the curve will go up to its maximum limit of stress which is
its ultimate point.
6. Which point on the stress strain curve occurs after the ultimate point?
a) Last point
b) Breaking point
c) Elastic limit
d) Material limit
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: After the ultimate point the value of stress will reduce on increasing of strain and
ultimately the material will break.
7. Elastic limit is the point ____________

a) up to which stress is proportional to strain
b) At which elongation takes place without application of additional load
c) Up to which if the load is removed, original volume and shapes are regained
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The elastic limit is that limit up to which any material behaves like an elastic
material.
8. What is the point P shown on the stress strain curve?

b) Yield plateau
c) Elastic limit
d) Ultimate point
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: It is the point showing the maximum stress to which the material can be subjected
in a simple tensile stress.
9. What is the point P shown in the stress-strain curve?
a) Lower yield point

b) Elastic limit
c) Proportionality limit
d) Breaking point
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The breaking point is the point where the material breaks. The breaking point will
be the last point on the stress strain curve.
10. What is the point shown in the stress strain curve?
a) Elastic limit
c) Yield plateau
d) Lower strain point
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It is the lower yield point at which the curve levels off and plastic deformation
begins.
11. Where is the necking region?

a) The area between lower yield point and upper yield point
b) The area between the plastic limit and elastic limit
c) The area between the ultimate point and initial point
d) The area between the ultimate point and rupture
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Necking is a tensile strain deformation which is cased in after the ultimate amount
of stress occurs in the material.
1. The property of a material by which it can be drawn into thin wires is?
a) Malleability
b) Plasticity
c) Ductility
d) Elasticity
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The ductile material can be drawn into wires because it can resist large
deformation. Malleability is the property by which it can be made into thin sheets.
2. If the material has identical elastic properties in all directions, it is called ____________
a) Elastic
b) Isotropic
c) Plastic
d) Homogeneous
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: An homogeneous material is that with uniform composition. An elastic and plastic
are different on the criteria.
3. Why is the strain the fundamental property but not the stress?
a) Because it is dimensionless
b) Because it is a ratio
c) Because it’s value is calculated in the laboratory
d) No stress is the fundamental property
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The stress is the fundamental property because it is calculated in the laboratory. It is
a non dependable value.
4. The material in which large deformation is possible before absolute failure by rupture is called
____________
a) Plastic
b) Elastic
c) Brittle
d) Ductile
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The ductile material can be drawn into wires because it can resist large deformation
before it fails.
5. What is a creep?
a) Gradual increase of plastic strain with time at constant load
b) Gradual increase of elastic strain with time at constant load
c) Gradual increase of plastic strain with time at varying load
d) Gradual increase of elastic strain with time at varying load
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Creep is the property by virtue of which a metal specimen undergoes additional
deformation with the passage of time under sustained loading within elastic limit. It is permanent
in nature and cannot be recovered after removal of load, hence is plastic in nature.
6. If the material has different elastic properties in perpendicular directions, it is called

____________
a) Elastic
b) Isotropic
c) Orthotropic
d) Plastic
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Isotropic material has the same elastic properties but ortho tropic material has the
same.
7. Which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?

a) Visco-elastic – small plastic zone
b) Orthotropic material – different properties in three perpendicular directions
c) Strain hardening material – stiffening effect felt at some stage
d) Isotropic material – same physical property in all directions at a point
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Visco-elastic material exhibit a mixture of creep and elastic after effects at room
temperature. Thus their behaviour is time dependent. Materials with different properties in
different directions are called anisotropic. Orthotropic material is a special case of an anisotropic
material in three mutually perpendicular directions. However, these are symmetric about any
axis.
8. The phenomenon of slow extension of materials having a constant load, I.e. increasing with
the time is called
a) Creeping
b) Yielding
c) Breaking
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The creeping is the phenomenon of deformation in materials which have been
under load for several time. When the load is put on the material, initially it deforms but when
the load is not removed, it causes a small amount of deformation which increases with time
1. What will be the elastic modulus of a material if the Poisson’s ratio for that material is 0.5?
a) Equal to its shear modulus
b) Three times its shear modulus
c) Four times its shear modulus
d) Not determinable
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation:
Explanation: Elastic modulus = E
Shear modulus = G
E = 2G ( 1 + μ )
Given, μ= 0.5, E = 2×1.5xG
E = 3G.
2. A rigid beam ABCD is hinged at D and supported by two springs at A and B as shown in the
given figure. The beam carries a vertical load P and C. the stiffness of spring at A is 2K and that
of B is K.
What will be the ratio of forces of spring at A and that of spring at B?

a) 4
b) 3
c) 2
d) 1
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The rigid beam will rotate about point D, due to the load at C.
From similar triangle,

δa/2a = δb/3b
Force in spring A/Force in spring B = Pa/Pb
= 2k/k x 3/2 = 3.
3. A solid metal bat of uniform diameter D and length L is hung vertically from a ceiling. If the
density of the material of the bar is 1 and the modulus of elasticity is E, then the total elongation
of the bar due to its own weight will be ____________
a) L/2E
b) L2/2E
c) E/2L
d) E/2L2
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The elongation of bar due to its own weight is δ= WL/2AE
Now W = ρAL
There fore δ= L2 / 2E.
4. A bar of diameter 30mm is subjected to a tensile load such that the measured extension on a
gauge length of 200mm is 0.09mm and the change in diameter is 0.0045mm. Calculate the
Poissons ratio?
a) 1/3
b) 1/4
c) 1/5
d) 1/6
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Longitudinal strain = 0.09/200
Lateral strain = – 0.0045/30
Poissons ratio = – lateral strain/ longitudinal strain
= 0.0045/30 x 200/0.09
= 1/3.
5. What will be the ratio of Youngs modulus to the modulus of rigidity of a material having
Poissons ratio 0.25?
a) 3.75
b) 3.00
c) 1.5
d) 2.5
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Modulus of rigidity, G = E/2(1 + μ)
Therefore, E/G = 2x(1+0.25) = 2.5.
6. An experiment was done and it was found that the bulk modulus of a material is equal to its
shear modulus. Then what will be its Poissons ratio?
a) 0.125
b) 0.150
c) 0.200
d) 0.375
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: We know that, μ = (3K – 2G) / (6K + 2G)
Here K = G
Therefore, μ = 3-2 / 6+2 = 0.125.
7. A bar of 40mm dia and 40cm length is subjected to an axial load of 100 kN. It elongates by
0.005mm. Calculate the Poissons ratio of the material of bar?
a) 0.25
b) 0.28
c) 0.30
d) 0.33
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Longitudinal strain = 0.150/400 = 0.000375
Lateral strain = – 0.005/40 = -0.000125
Poissons ratio = – lateral strain/longitudinal strain
= 0.33.
8. What will be the approximate value of shear modulus of a material if the modulus of elasticity
is 189.8 GN/m2 and its Poissons ratio is 0.30?
a) 73 GN/m2
b) 80 GN/m2
c) 93.3 GN/m2
d) 103.9 GN/m2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The relationship between E, G, and μ is given by
is given by
E = 2G (1 + μ)
G = 189.8 / 2(1 + 0.30)
G = 73 GN/m2.
9. What will be the modulus of rigidity if the value of modulus of elasticity is 200 and Poissons
ratio is 0.25?
a) 70
b) 80
c) 125
d) 250
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The relationship between E, G and μ is E = 2G (1 + μ)
G = 200 / 2(1 + 0.25)
G = 80.
1. A circular rod of dia 30 mm and length 200mm is extended to 0.09mm length and 0.0045
diameters through a tensile force. What will be its Poissons ratio?
a) 0.30
b) 0.31
c) 0.32
d) 0.33
View Answer
Answer:d
Explanation: Poissons ratio = lateral strain / longitudinal strain
= δD/D x L/δL
= 0.0045/30 x 200/0.09
= 0.33.
2. The Poissons ratio of a material is 0.3. what will be the ratio of Youngs modulus to bulk
modulus?
a) 1.4
b) 1.2
c) 0.8
d) 0.6
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As we know E = 3k(1- 2μ)
So E/K = 3(1-2×0.3) = 1.2.
3. What is the bulk modulus of elasticity?

a) The ratio of shear stress to shear strain
b) The ratio of direct stress to direct strain
c) The ratio of volumetric stress to volumetric strain
d) The ratio of direct stress to volumetric strain
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: When a body is subjected to the mutually perpendicular like and equal direct
stresses, the ratio of direct stress to the corresponding volumetric strain strain is found to be
constant for a given material when the deformation is within a certain limit. This ratio is known
as the bulk modulus.
4. For a material, Youngs modulus is given as 1.2 x 105 and Poissons ratio 1/4. Calculate the
bulk modulus.
a) 0.7 x 105
b) 0.8 x 105
c) 1.2 x 105
d) 1.2 x 105
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The bulk modulus is given as K = E/3(1 – 2μ)
= 1.2 x 105/3(1 – 2/4)
= 0.8 x 105.
5. Determine the Poissons ratio and bulk modulus of a material, for which Youngs modulus is
1.2 and modulus of rigidity is 4.8.
a) 7
b) 8
c) 9
d) 10
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As we know, E = 2C(1 + μ)
μ= 0.25
K = E / 3(1 – 2μ)
= 8.
6. The Youngs modulus of elasticity of a material is 2.5 times its modulus of rigidity. Then what
will be its Poissons ratio?
a) 0.25
b) 0.33
c) 0.50
d) 0.60
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As we know E = 2G(1 + μ) so putting the values of E = 2.5G then we get μ= 0.25.
7. How the elastic constants E and K are related?

a) E = 2K(1 – 2μ)
b) E = 3K(1 – 2μ)
c) E = 2K(1 – μ)
d) E = K(1 – 2μ)
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As E = 2G(1 + μ) = 3K(1 – 2μ).
8. How many elastic constants does an isotropic, homogeneous and linearly elastic material
have?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: E, G, K represents the elastic modulus, shear modulus, bulk modulus and poisson’s
ratio respectively of a linearly elastic, isotropic and homogeneous material. To express the stress-
strain relations completely for this material at least any two of the four must be known, E = 2G(1
+ μ) = 3K(1 – 2μ) = 9KG / (3K + G).
9. The modulus of rigidity and the modulus of elasticity of a material are 80 GPa and 200 GPa.
What will be the Poissons ratio of the material?
a) 0.25
b) 0.30
c) 0.40
d) 0.50
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As E = 2G(1 + μ) putting E = 200 and G = 80 we get μ = 0.25.
10. Which of the following is true if the value of Poisson’s ratio is zero?
a) The material is rigid
b) The material is perfectly plastic
c) The longitudinal strain in the material is infinite
d) There is no longitudinal strain in the material
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: If the Poissons ratio is zero then the material is rigid
1. How many elastic constants of a linear, elastic, isotropic material will be?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 1
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Isotropic materials have the same properties in all directions. The number of
independent elastic constants for such materials is 2. out of E, G, K, and μ, if any two constants
are known for any linear elastic and isotropic material than rest two can be derived. Examples
are steel, aluminium, copper, gold.
Orthotropic materials refer to layered structure such as wood or plywood. The number of
independent elastic constants for such materials is 9.
Non isotropic or anisotropic materials have different properties in different directions. They
show non- homogeneous behaviour. The number of elastic constants is 21.
2. How many elastic constants of a non homogeneous, non isotropic material will be?
a) 9
b) 15
c) 20
d) 21
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Non isotropic or anisotropic materials have different properties in different
directions. They show non- homogeneous behaviour. The number of elastic constants is 21.
3. How can be the Poissons ratio be expressed in terms of bulk modulus(K) and modulus of
rigidity(G)?
a) (3K – 4G) / (6K + 4G)
b) (3K + 4G) /( 6K – 4G)
c) (3K – 2G) / (6K + 2G)
d) (3K + 2G) / (6K – 2G)
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: There are four elastic modulus relationships. the relation between Poissons ration,
bulk modulus and modulus of rigidity is given as
μ = (3K – 2G) / (6K + 2G).
4. Calculate the modulus of resilience for a 2m long bar which extends 2mm under limiting axial
stress of 200 N/mm2?
a) 0.01
b) 0.20
c) 0.10
d) 0.02
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Modulus of resilience = f2/2E
= 200×2/2×2000
= 0.10.
5. In an experiment, the bulk modulus of elasticity of a material is twice its modulus of rigidity.
The Poissons ratio of the material is ___________
a) 1/7
b) 2/7
c) 3/7
d) 4/7
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As we know, μ= (3K – 2G) / (6K + 2G)
Given K = 2G
Then, μ = (6G – 2G) / (12G + 2G) = 4/14 = 2/7.
6. What will be the value of the Poisson’s ratio if the Youngs modulus E is equal to the bulk
modulus K?
a) 1/2
b) 1/4
c) 1/3
d) 3/4
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: K = E / 3(1 – 2μ)
Since K = E
So (1-2μ) = 1/3
Therefore, μ = 1/3.
7. What is the expression for modulus of rigidity in terms of modulus of elasticity and the
Poissons ratio?
a) G = 3E / 2(1 + μ)
b) G = 5E / (1 + μ)
c) G = E / 2(1 + μ)
d) G = E/ (1 + 2μ)
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The relation between the modulus of rigidity, modulus of elasticity and the
Poissons ratio is given as
G = E / 2(1 + μ).
8. What is the relationship between Youngs modulus E, modulus of rigidity C, and bulk modulus
K?
a) E = 9KC / (3K + C)
b) E = 9KC / (9K + C)
c) E = 3KC / (3K + C)
d) E = 3KC / (9K + C)
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The relationship between E, K, C is given by
E = 9KC / (3K + C).
9. What is the limiting values of Poisson’s ratio?

a) -1 and 0.5
b) -1 and -0.5
c) -1 and -0.5
d) 0 and 0.5
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The value of Poissons ratio varies from 0 to 0.5. For rubber, its value ranges
from.45 to 0.50.
10. What is the relationship between modulus of elasticity and modulus of rigidity?
a) C = E / 2(1 + μ)
b) C = E / (1 + μ)
c) C = 2E / (1 + μ)
d) C = 2E / 2(1 + μ)
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The relation is given by calculating the tensile strain of square block is given by
taking tensile strain in a diagonal. On equating that stains we get the relation,
C = E / 2(1 + μ).
1. What is the ratio of Youngs modulus E to shear modulus G in terms of Poissons ratio?
a) 2(1 + μ)
b) 2(1 – μ)
c) 1/2 (1 – μ)
d) 1/2 (1 + μ)
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As we know G = E / 2(1 +μ) so this gives the ratio of E to G = 2(1 + μ).
2. The relationship between Youngs modulus E, bulk modulus K if the value of Poissons ratio is
unity will be __________
a) E = -3K
b) K = -3E
c) E = 0
d) K = 0
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As E = 2G(1 + μ) putting μ=1 we get E = -3K.
3. A rod of length L and diameter D is subjected to a tensile load P. which of the following is
sufficient to calculate the resulting change in diameter?
a) Youngs modulus
b) Poissons ratio
c) Shear modulus
d) Both Youngs modulus and shear modulus
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: For longitudinal strain we need Youngs modulus and for calculating transverse
strain we need Poisson’s ratio. We may calculate Poissons ratio from E = 2G(1 + μ) for that we
need shear modulus.
4. E, G, K and μ elastic modulus, shear modulus, bulk modulus and Poisson’s ratio respectively.
To express the stress strain relations completely for this material, at least __________
a) E, G and μmust be known
b) E, K and μmust be known
c) Any two of the four must be known
d) All the four must be known
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: As E = 2G(1 + μ) = 3K(1 – 2μ) = 9KG / (3K + G), if any two of these four are
known, the other two can be calculated by the relations between them.
5. Youngs modulus of elasticity and Poissons ratio of a material are 1.25 x 10 2 MPa and 0.34
respectively. The modulus of rigidity of the material is __________
a) 0.9469 MPa
b) 0.8375 MPa
c) 0.4664 MPa
d) 0.4025 MPa
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: As E = 2G(1 + μ)
1.25 x 102 = 2G(1 + 0.34)
G = 0.4664 x 102 MPa.
6. If E,G and K have their usual meanings, for an elastic material, then which one of the
following be possibly true?
a) G = 2K
b) G = K
c) K = E
d) G = E = K
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: As E = 2G(1 + μ) = 3K(1 – 2μ) = 9KG / (3K + G)
The value of μ must be between 0 to 0.5, so as E never equal to G but if μ = 1/3, then E=K.
7. If a material had a modulus of elasticity of 2.1 kgf/cm2 and a modulus of rigidity of 0.8
kgf/cm2 then what will be the approximate value of the Poissons ratio?
a) 0.26
b) 0.31
c) 0.47
d) 0.43
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: On using E = 2G(1 + μ) we can put the values of E and G to get the Poissons value.
8. Consider the following statements:

X. Two-dimensional stresses applied to a thin plater in its own plane represent the plane stress
condition.
Y. Normal and shear stresses may occur simultaneously on a plane.
Z. Under plane stress condition, the strain in the direction perpendicular to the plane is zero.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 2 only
b) 1 and 2
c) 2 and 3
d) 1 and 3
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Under plane stress condition, the strain in the direction perpendicular to the plane is
not zero. It has been found experimentally that when a body is stressed within the elastic limit,
the lateral strain bears a constant ratio to the linear strain.
9. What is the relationship between the linear elastic properties Youngs modulus, bulk modulus
and rigidity modulus?
a) 1/E = 9/k + 3/G
b) 9/E = 3/K + 1/G
c) 3/E = 9/K + 1/G
d) 9/E = 1/K + 3/G
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: We can use E = 2G(1 + μ) = 3K(1 – 2μ) = 9KG / (3K + G) to get the relation
between E, K and G.
10. Which of the relationship between E, G and K is true, where E, G and K have their usual
meanings?
a) E = 9KC / (3K + C)
b) E = 9KC / (9K + C)
c) E = 3KC / (9K + C)
d) E = 3KC / (3K + C)
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As we know E = 2G(1 + μ) = 3K(1 – 2μ) = 9KG / (3K + G).
1. In the given figure a stepped column carries loads. What will be the maximum normal stress in
the column at B in the larger diameter column if the ratio of P/A here is unity?
a) 1/1.5
b) 1
c) 2/1.5
d) 2
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Normal stress at B = Total load acting at B / Area of a cross-section at B
= (P + P) / 1.5 A = 2P/ 1.5A = 2/1.5.
2. The stress which acts in a direction perpendicular to the area is called ____________
a) Shear stress
b) Normal stress
c) Thermal stress
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Normal stress acts in a direction perpendicular to the area. Normal stress is of two
types tensile and compressive stress.
3. Which of these are types of normal stresses?

a) Tensile and compressive stresses
b) Tensile and thermal stresses
c) Shear and bending
d) Compressive and plane stresses
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The normal stress is divided into tensile stress and compressive stress.
4. In a body loaded under plane stress conditions, what is the number of independent stress
components?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 6
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In a body loaded under plane stress conditions, the number of independent stress
components is 3 I.e. two normal components and one shear component.
5. If a bar of large length when held vertically and subjected to a load at its lower end, its won-
weight produces additional stress. The maximum stress will be ____________
a) At the lower cross-section
b) At the built-in upper cross-section
c) At the central cross-section
d) At every point of the bar
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The stress is the load per unit area. After the addition of weight in the bar due to its
loading on the lower end the force will increase in the upper cross-section resulting in the
maximum stress at the built-in upper cross-section.
6. Which type of stress does in a reinforcement bar is taken by the concrete?

a) Tensile stress
b) Compressive stress
c) Shear stress
d) Bending stress
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Concrete has the property of taking a good amount of compressive stress. So, In the
reinforcement bar, the compressive stress is taken by the concrete.
7. A material has a Poisson’s ratio of 0.5. If uniform pressure of 300GPa is applied to that
material, What will be the volumetric strain of it?
a) 0.50
b) 0.20
c) 0.25
d) Zero
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: As volumetric strain = (1-2μ)σ/E
Here the value of μ is 0.5 so 1 – 2 * 0.5 becomes zero.
Therefore whatever be the stress the value of volumetric strain will be zero.
8. A diagram which shows the variations of the axial load for all sections of the pan of a beam is
called ____________
a) Bending moment diagram
b) Shear force diagram
c) Thrust diagram
d) Stress diagram
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The stress diagram shows the variation of the axial load for all sections of the pan.
The bending moment diagram shows the variation of moment in a beam. The shear force
diagram shows the variation in the shear force due to loading in the beam.
9. The stress induced in a body, when subjected to two equal and opposite forces which are
acting tangentially across the resisting section resulting the shearing of the body across its
section is called ____________
a) Bending stress
c) Shear strain
d) Shear stress
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Shear stress makes the body to shear off across the section. It is tangential to the
area over which it acts. The corresponding strain is the shear strain.
10. What is the formula for shear stress?

a) Shear resistance/shear area
b) Force/unit area
c) Bending strain/area
d) Shear stress/length
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When force is applied, the twisting divides the body. The resistance is known as
shear resistance and shear resistance per unit area is known as shear stress.
11. Which of the following stresses are associated with the tightening of a nut on a bolt?
P. Crushing and shear stress in threads
Q. Bending stress due to the bending of bolt
R. Torsional shear stress due to frictional resistance between the nut and the bolt
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) P and Q
b) P and R
c) Only P
d) Only R
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Bending stress comes when there is some kind of eccentric load. Torsional stress
will come when the nut is rotating. Shear stress will come in tightening of a nut on bolt.
12. The transverse shear stress acting in a beam of rectangular cross-section, subjected to a
transverse shear load, is ____________
a) variable with maximum at the bottom of the beam
b) Variable with maximum at the top of the beam
c) Uniform
d) Variable with maximum on the neutral axis
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Maximum value of shear stress at neutral axis is τ = 3/2 τ mean
So, transverse shear stress is variable with a maximum in the neutral axis.
13. A block 100mm x 100mm base and 10mm height. What will the direct shear stress in the
element when a tangential force of 10kN is applied to the upper edge to a displacement 1mm
relative to lower face?
a) 1Pa
b) 1MPa
c) 10MPa
d) 100Pa
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Shear stress = 10kN / 100mmx100mm = 1 N/mm2 = 1MPa.
1. A beam is said to be of uniform strength, if ____________

a) B.M. is same throughout the beam
b) Shear stress is the same through the beam
c) Deflection is the same throughout the beam
d) Bending stress is the same at every section along its longitudinal axis
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Beam is said to be uniform strength if at every section along its longitudinal axis,
the bending stress is same.
2. Stress in a beam due to simple bending is ____________

a) Directly proportional
b) Inversely proportional
c) Curvilinearly related
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The stress is directly proportional to the load and here the load is in terms of
bending. So the stress is directly proportional to bending.
3. Which stress comes when there is an eccentric load applied?
a) Shear stress
b) Bending stress
c) Tensile stress
d) Thermal stress
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When there is an eccentric load it means that the load is at some distance from the
axis. This causes compression in one side and tension on the other. This causes bending stress.
4. What is the expression of the bending equation?

a) M/I = σ/y = E/R
b) M/R = σ/y = E/I
c) M/y = σ/R = E/I
d) M/I = σ/R = E/y
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The bending equation is given by M/I = σ/y = E/R
where
M is the bending moment
I is the moment of inertia
y is the distance from neutral axis
E is the modulus of elasticity
R is the radius.
5. On bending of a beam, which is the layer which is neither elongated nor shortened?
a) Axis of load
b) Neutral axis
c) Center of gravity
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When a beam is in bending the layer in the direction of bending will be In
compression and the other will be in tension. One side of the neutral axis will be shortened and
the other will be elongated.
6. The bending stress is ____________

a) Directly proportional to the distance of layer from the neutral layer
b) Inversely proportional to the distance of layer from the neutral layer
c) Directly proportional to the neutral layer
d) Does not depend on the distance of layer from the neutral layer
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: From the bending equation M/I = σ/y = E/R
Here stress is directly proportional to the distance of layer from the neutral layer.
7. Consider a 250mmx15mmx10mm steel bar which is free to expand is heated from 15C to 40C.
what will be developed?
a) Compressive stress
b) Tensile stress
c) Shear stress
d) No stress
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: If we resist to expand then only stress will develop. Here the bar is free to expand
so there will be no stress.
8. The safe stress for a hollow steel column which carries an axial load of 2100 kN is 125
MN/m2. if the external diameter of the column is 30cm, what will be the internal diameter?
a) 25 cm
b) 26.19cm
c) 30.14 cm
d) 27.9 cm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Area of the cross section of column = π/4 (0.302 – d2) m2
Area = load / stress.
So, π/4 ( 0.302 – d2) m2 = 21 / 125
d = 26.19cm.
1. During a tensile test on a ductile material ____________

a) Nominal stress at fracture is higher than the ultimate stress
b) True stress at fracture is higher than the ultimate stress
c) True stress a fracture is the same as the ultimate stress
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In a ductile material, the true stress at fracture will be higher the ultimate stress.
2. When equal and opposite forces applied to a body, tend to elongate it, the stress so produced,
is called ____________
a) Shear stress
c) Tensile stress
d) Transverse stress
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: When subjected to two equal and opposite pulls as a result of which there is an
increase in length. This produces tensile stress.
P. Tensile stress due to the streching of bolt
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) P and Q
b) P and R
c) Only p
d) R and Q
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Bending stress comes when there is some kind of eccentric load. When nut is
tightened, the bolt will pull itself and stretching will be there resulting in the tensile stress.
Torsional stress will come when the nut is rotating.
4. In a tensile test, near the elastic limit zone ____________

a) Tensile stress increases in linear proportion to the stress
b) Tensile stress increases at a faster rate
c) Tensile stress decreases at a faster rate
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The stress first decreases and then decreases before the strain hardening occurs. The
decreases in the stress is due to the attraction between carbon molecules.
5. Match the following and give the correct code given in options:
List 1 List 2
A. Tensile test on CI 1. Plain fracture on a transverse plane
B. Tensile test on MS 2. Granular helecoidal fracture
C. Torsion test on CI 3. Cup and cone
4. Granular fracture in a transverse plane
a) A – 1 B – 2 C – 4
b) A – 1 B – 4 C – 2
c) A – 3 B – 1 C – 2
d) A – 3 B – 4 C – 1
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Tensile test on CI is done on cup and cone. Torsion test on MS is on plain fracture
on a traverse plane.
6. The phenomenon of slow growth of strain under a steady tensile stress is called ____________
a) Yielding
b) Creeping
c) Breaking
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Creeping is the phenomenon of slow growing strain under a stress for a period of
time.
7. A rod 150cm long and of diameter 2cm is subjected to an axial pull of 20kN. What will be the
stress?
a) 60 N/mm2
b) 65 N/mm2
c) 63.6 N/mm2
d) 71.2 N/mm2
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The stress = load / area
Load = 20,000N
Area = π/4 (20)2 = 100π mm2.
8. The stress in a rod is 70 N/mm2 and the modulus of elasticity is 2 x 105 N/mm2. what will be
the strain in the rod?
a) 0.00052
b) 0.00035
c) 0.00030
d) 0.00047
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As E = σ/e
Here, E = 2 * 105 N/mm2
And, σ = 70 N/mm2
e = 70/2*105 = 0.00035.
9. What will be the minimum diameter of a steel wire, which is used to raise a load of 4000N if
the stress in the rod is not to exceed 95 MN/m2?
a) 6mm
b) 6.4mm
c) 7mm
d) 7.3mm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: As stress = load / area
Area = load/stress
Also, area is π/4 D2 so π/4 D2 = 4000 / 95
And D = 7.32.
10. A tensile test was conducted on mild steel bar. The load at elastic limit was 250kN and the
diameter of the steel bar was 3cm. What will be the value of stress?
a) 35368 x 104 N/m2
b) 32463 x 104 N/m2
c) 35625 x 104 N/m2
d) 37562 x 104 N/m2
View Answer
Answer: a
Load = 150 x 1000N
Area = π/4 (0.03)2 m2
1. For keeping the stress wholly compressive the load may be applied on a circular column
anywhere within a concentric circle of diameter _____________
a) D/2
b) D/3
c) D/4
d) D/8
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The load application on a circular column affects stress. If it is under D/4 the stress
will be wholly compressive.
2. Consider two bars A and B of same material tightly secured between two unyielding walls.
Coefficient of thermal expansion of bar A is more than that of B. What are the stresses induced
on increasing the temperature?
a) Tension in both the materials
b) Tension in material A and compression in material B
c) Compression in material A and tension in material B
d) Compression in both the materials
View Answer
Answer:d
Explanation: Since both the supports are fixed and both bars will try to expand, so rise in
temperature will cause compressive stresses in the bars.
3. What will be the unit of compressive stress?

a) N
b) N/mm
c) N/mm2
d) Nmm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: As the stress is the ratio of force to the area, so it will be N/mm 2. Here mm is
normally used in its calculation most of the time.
4. A cast iron T section beam is subjected to pure bending. For maximum compressive stress to
be 3 times the maximum tensile stress, centre of gravity of the section from flange side is
____________
a) h/2
b) H/3
c) H/4
d) 2/3h
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: H/4 when the applied moment is sagging. Otherwise, I.e. if the applied moment is
hogging it is H/4. as in the options both are not given means we have to take hogging.
5. A solid circular shaft of diameter d is subjected to a torque T. the maximum normal stress
induced in the shaft is ____________
a) Zero
b) 16T/πd3
c) 32T/πd3
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The maximum torque transmitted by a circular solid shaft is obtained from the
maximum shear stress induced at the outer surface of the solid shaft and given by T = πD 3/16 x
normal stress,
So, normal stress = 16T/πd3.
6. When a rectangular beam is loaded transversely, the maximum compressive stress develops on
____________
a) Bottom fibre
b) Top fibre
c) Neutral axis
d) Every cross-section
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Loaded means loaded downwards. In that case, upper fibres will be compressed
while lower will be expanded. Hence maximum compressive stress will be developed in top
layer.
7. An axial residual compressive stress due to a manufacturing process is present on the outer
surface of a rotating shaft subjected to bending. Under a given bending load, the fatigue of the
shaft in the presence of the residual compressive stress is ____________
a) Decreased
b) Increases or decreased, depending on the external bending load
c) Neither decreased nor increased
d) Increases
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: From the Gerber’s parabola that is the characteristic curve of the fatigue life of the
shaft in the presence of the residual compressive stress. The fatigue life of the material is
effectively increased by the introduction of compressive mean stress, whether applied or
residual.
8. A steel bar of 40mm x 40mm square cross-section is subjected to an axial compressive load of
200kN. If the length of the bar is 2m and E=200GPa, the elongation of the bar well be
____________
a) 1.25mm
b) 2.70mm
c) 4.05mm
d) 5.40mm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Elongation of the bar = Pl/AE = -200x103x 2000 / ( 1600 x 200 x 103) = -1.25
The minus sign here shows that the stress here is compressive.
1. The length, Young’s modulus and coefficient of thermal expansion of bar P are twice that of
bar Q. what will be the ration of stress developed in bar P to that in bar Q if the temperature of
both bars is increased by the same amount?
a) 2
b) 8
c) 4
d) 16
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Temperature Stress = EαδT
Stress in bar P / Stress in bar Q = (E P / EQ) x (αP / αQ) = 2×2 = 4.
2. A steel bar 600mm long and having 30mm diameter, is turned down to 25mm diameter for
one fourth of its length. It is heated at 30 C above room temperature, clamped at both ends and
then allowed to cool to room temperature. If the distance between the clamps is unchanged, the
maximum stress in the bar ( α = 12.5 x 10-6 per C and E = 200 GN/m2) is
a) 25 MN/m2
b) 40 MN/m2
c) 50 MN/m2
d) 75 MN/m2
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: As temperature stress do not depend upon properties of cross section like length
and area. They only depends upon properties of the material.
Therefore, σ=αEδT
= 12.5 x 10-6 x 200 x 103 x 30
= 75 MN/m2.
3. A cube having each side of length p, is constrained in all directions and is heated unigormly so
that the temperature is raised to T.C. What will be the stress developed in the cube?
a) δET / γ
b) δTE / (1 – 2γ)
c) δTE / 2 γ
d) δTE / (1 + 2γ)
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: δV/V = P / K = a3 (1 + aT)3 – a3) / a3
Or P / (E / 3(1-2γ)) = 3αT.
4. A steel rod 10mm in diameter and 1m long is heated from 20 to 100 degree celcius, E = 200
GPa and coefficient of thermal expansion is 12 x10-6 per degree celcius. Calculate the thermal
stress developed?
a) 192 MPa(tensile)
b) 212 MPa(tensile)
c) 192MPa(compressive)
d) 212 MPa(compressive)
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: αEδT = (12 x 10-6) ( 200 x 103) (100-20) = 192MPa.
5. A cube with a side length of 1m is heated uniformly a degree celcius above the room
temperature and all the sides are free to expand. What will be the increase in the volume of the
cube? Consider the coefficient of thermal expansion as unity.
a) Zero
b) 1 m3
c) 2 m3
d) 3 m3
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Coefficient of thermal expansion = 3 x coefficient of volume expansion.
6. The thermal stress is a function of _____________

P. Coefficient of linear expansion
Q. Modulus of elasticity
R. Temperature rise
a) P and Q
b) Q and R
c) Only P
d) Only R
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Stress in the rod is only due to temperature rise.
7. A steel rod is heated from 25 to 250 degree celcius. Its coefficient of thermal expansion is 10 -5
and E = 100 GN/m2. if the rod is free to expand, the thermal stress developed in it is:
a) 100 kN/m2
b) 240 kN/m2
c) Zero
d) Infinity
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Thermal stress will only develop if the body is restricted.

a) Temperature strain with permitted expansion – ( αTl – δ)
b) Temperature thrust – ( αTE)
c) Temperature stress – (αTEA)
d) Temperature stress with permitted expansion – E(αTl – δ) / l
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Dimension analysis gives Temperature strain with permitted expansion – ( αTl –
δ)is wrong. In other options the dimensions are correctly matched.
9. A steel rod of length L and diameter D, fixed at both ends, is uniformly heated to a
temperature rise of δT. The Youngs modulus is E and the coefficient of linear expansion is unity.
The thermal stress in the rod is ____________
a) Zero
b) T
c) EδT
d) EδTL
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: As α = δl / l δT
So, δl = l x 1 x δT
And temperature strain = δl / l = δT
As E = stress / strain
Stress = E δT.
10. A uniform, slender cylindrical rod is made of a homogeneous and isotropic material. The rod
rests on a frictionless surface. The rod is heated uniformly. If the radial and longitudinal thermal
stress are represented by σx and σz, then ___________
a) σx = 0, σy = 0
b) σx not equal to 0, σy = 0
c) σx = 0, σy not equal to 0
d) σx not equal to 0, σy not equal to 0
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: We know that due to temperature changes, dimensions of the material change. If
these changes in the dimensions are prevented partially or fully, stresses are generated in the
material and if the changes in the dimensions are not prevented, there will be no stress set up.
(Zero stresses).
Hence cylindrical rod Is allowed to expand or contract freely.
So, σx = 0 and σy = 0.
11. which one of the following are true for the thermal expansion coefficient?
a) αaluminium > αbrass> αcopper > αsteel
b) αbrass > αaluminium > αcopper > αsteel
c) αcopper > αsteel > αaluminium > αbrass
d) αsteel > αaluminium > αbrass > αcopper
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Aluminium has the largest value of thermal expansion coefficient, then brass and
then copper. Steel among them has lowest value of thermal expansion coefficient.
12. The length, coefficient of thermal expansion and Youngs modulus of bar A are twice of bar
B. If the temperature of both bars is increased by the same amount while preventing any
expansion, then the ratio of stress developed in bar A to that in bar B will be ___________
a) 2
b) 4
c) 8
d) 16
View Answer
Answer: b
So σ1 / σ2 = E1α1δT1/E2α2δT2
From question, α and E of bar A are double that of bar B.
1. Which test is conducted to measure the ability of a material to resist scratching, abrasion,
deformation and indentation?
a) Creep test
b) Fatigue test
c) Hardness test
d) Compression test
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The ability of a material to resist scratching, abrasion, deformation and indentation
is called hardness. So to measure this hardness test is used. it is generally expressed by Brinell,
Rockwell or Vickers hardness numbers.
2. Which test is conducted to measure the endurance limit of the material?

a) Creep test
b) Fatigue test
c) Compression test
d) Hardness test
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The fatigue test is used to design components subjected to varying load. It
experimentally determines the endurance limit of the material.
3. What is the process in which the metal is cooled rapidly in water after heating the metal above
the lower critical temperature to increase the hardness of the material?
a) Quenching
b) Tampering
c) Hardening
d) Annealing
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Quenching is the process in which the metal is cooled rapidly in water after heating
the metal above the lower critical temperature to increase the hardness of the material. Hardness
is achieved during the quenching process depends on the amount of carbon content and cooling
rate.
4. What is the process of heating the metal in the furnance to a temperature slightly above the
upper critical temperature and cooling slowly In the furnance.
a) Quenching
b) Tampering
c) Annealing
d) Normalizing
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Annealing is the process of heating the metal in the furnance to a temperature
slightly above the upper critical temperature and cooling slowly In the furnance. It produces an
even grain structure, reduces hardness and increases ductility usually at a reduction of strength.
5. Photo stress method is ___________

a) Stress analysis method
b) Creep test
c) Ultra violet test
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Photo stress is a widely used full field technique for accurately measuring surface
strains to determine the stresses in a part or structure during static of dynamic testing.

a) The ratio of total stress to the permissible stress
b) The ratio of ultimate stress to the permissible stress
c) The ratio of ultimate stress to the applied stress
d) The ratio of ultimate stress to the modulus of elasticity
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The ratio of ultimate stress to the permissible or working stress is called the factor
of safety. This factor of safety is kept in mind in designing any structure.
7. Which one of the following has the largest value of thermal coefficient?
a) Brass
b) Copper
c) Steel
d) Aluminium
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Aluminium has the large value of thermal coefficient among them of value 24 x 10 -
-6
6. whereas brass and copper has 19×10 and 17×10<sup-6< sup="">. </sup-6<>
8. Identify which factor may cause a lowered body temperature:

a) Infection
b) Stress
c) Shock
d) Exercise
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Shock can cause the body temperature to drop, and so the cause of shock must be
found. Other factors that can cause a lowered body temperature include: very young/old, serious
haemorrhage, recovery from anesthesis and poisons
1. If a bar of two different length are in a line and P load is acting axially on them then what will
be the change in length of the bar if the radius of both different lengths is same?
a) P/E x (L1 + L2)
b) PA/E x (L1 + L2)
c) P/EA x (L1 + L2)
d) E/PA x (L1 + L2)
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Change in length of section 1 = PL1/EA1
Change in length of section 2 = PL2/EA2
Since diameter is same for both the sections, the respective area will be the same
Total change in length of bar = PL1/EA1 + PL2/EA2 = P/EA x (L1 + L2).
2. If a bar of two sections of different diameters of same length are in a line and P load is acting
axially on them then what will be the change in length of the bar?
a) PL/E x (1/A1 + 1/A2)
b) P/E x (1/A1 + 1/A2)
c) P/EL x (1/A1 + 1/A2)
d) PE/L x (1/A1 + 1/A2)
View Answer
Answer: a
Since length is same for both the sections,
Total change length of bar = PL/E x (1/A1 + 1/A2).
3. An axial pull of 35000 N is acting on a bar consisting of two lengths as shown with their
respective dimensions. What will be the stresses in the two sections respectively in N/mm2 ?
a) 111.408 and 49.5146

b) 111.408 and 17.85
c) 97.465 and 49.5146
d) 97.465 and 34.263
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The stress = P/A
Where P = 35000N and A is the respective cross section area of the sections.
4. An axial pull of 1kN is acting on a bar of consisting two equal lengths as shown but of dia
10cm and 20cm respectively. What will be the stresses in the two sections respectively in
N/mm2?
a) 0.127 and 0.0031

b) 0.034 and 0.0045
c) 0.153 and 0.003
d) 0.124 and 0.124
View Answer
Answer: a
5. An axial pull of 35000 N on a bar consisting of two lengths as shown with their respective
dimensions. What will be the total extension of the bar if the young’s modulus = 2.1 x 105?
a) 0.153mm
b) 0.183mm
c) 0.197mm
d) 0.188mm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The total extension in the bar = P/E x ( L1/A1 + L1/A1 )
Where P = 35000 N, E = 2.1 x 105 N/mm2, L1 and L2 are the 20cm and 25cm respectively and A1
and A2 are the area of both the sections respectively.
6. An axial pull of 20 kN on a bar of two equal lengths of 20cm as shown with their respective
dimensions. What will be the total extension of the bar if the young’s modulus = 2×105?
a) 0.200mm
b) 0.345mm
c) 0.509mm
d) 0.486mm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The total extension in the bar = P/E x (L1/A1 + L1/A1)
Where P = 2 kN, E = 2 x 105 N/mm2, L1 and L2 are same of 20cm and A1and A2 are the area of
both the sections respectively.
7. Does the value of stress in each section of a composite bar is constant or not?
a) It changes in a relationship with the other sections as well
b) It changes with the total average length
c) It is constant for every bar
d) It is different in every bar in relation with the load applied and the cross sectional area
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The value of stress in every section of a composite bar is given by P/A which is it is
dependent on the load applied and the cross sectional area of the section. The value of stress in a
section does not depend on the dimensions of other sections in the bar.
8. A composite bar of two sections of equal length and equal diameter is under an axial pull of
10kN. What will be the stresses in the two sections?
a) 3.18 N/mm2
b) 2.21 N/mm2
c) 3.45 N/mm2
d) 2.14 N/mm2
View Answer
Answer: a
Where P = 1000N and A is the respective cross section area of the sections. Here the stress will
be equal in both the sections as the dimensions are the same.
9. A composite bar of two sections of unequal length and equal diameter is under an axial pull of
a) 2.145 N/mm2
b) 3.18 N/mm2
c) 1.245 N/mm2
d) 2.145 N/mm2
View Answer
Answer: b
be equal in both the sections as the diameter is the same for both the sections. Even if the length
is the variable it will not alter the stress value as the length does not depend on the stress.
10. A composite bar of two sections of equal length and given diameter is under an axial pull of
15kN. What will be the stresses in the two sections in N/mm2 ?
a) 190.9 and 84.88
b) 190.9 and 44.35
c) 153.45 and 84088
d) 153045 and 44.35
View Answer
Answer: a
Where P = 15000N and A is the respective cross section area of the sections
1. Which law states the when a number of loads are acting on a body, the resulting strain,
according to principle of superposition, will be the algebraic sum of strains caused by individual
loads?
a) Hooke’s law
b) Principle of superposition
c) Lami’s theorem
d) Strain law
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The principle of superposition says that when a number of loads are acting on a
body, the resulting strain, according to the principle of superposition, will be the algebraic sum
of strains caused by individual loads.
2. How the total strain in any body subjected to different loads at different sections can be
calculated?
a) The resultant strain is the algebraic sum of the individual strain
b) The resultant strain calculated by the trigonometry
c) The resultant will be through Lame’s theorem
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In a bar of different sections, the resultant strain is the algebraic sum of the
individual stresses.
3. Three sections in a beam are of equal length of 100mm. All three sections are pulled axially
with 50kN and due to it elongated by 0.2mm. What will be the resultant strain in the beam?
a) 0.002
b) 0.004
c) 0.006
d) 0.020
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The strain = dL / L = 0.2/100 = 0.002
This strain will be for one section. By the principle of superposition the resultant strain will be
the algebraic sum of individual strains I.e. = 0.002 + 0.002 + 0.002 = 0.006.
4. Two sections in a bar of length 10cm and 20cm respectively are pulled axially. It causes an
elongation of 0.2mm and 0.4mm respectively in each section. What will be the resultant strain in
the bar?
a) sd0.004
b) 0.002
c) 0.003
d) 0.006
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The strain = dL / L
In column 1, strain = 0.2/100 = 0.002
In column 2, strain = 0.4/200 = 0.002
Resultant strain = 0.002 + 0.002 = 0.004.
5. A composite bar have four sections each of length 100mm, 150mm, 200mm, 250mm. When
force is applied, all the sections causes an elongation of 0.1mm. What will the resultant strain in
the bar?
a) 0.0012
b) 0.00154
c) 0.00256
d) 0.0020
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Strain in section 1 = 0.1/100
Strain in section 2 = 0.1/150
Strain In section 3 = 0.1/200
Resultant strain = 0.001+0.0006+0.0005+0.0004 = 0.00256.
6. A brass bar, having cross sectional area of 100mm2, is subjected to axial force of 50kN. The
length of two sections is 100mm and 200mm respectively. What will be the total elongation of
bar if E = 1.05 x 105 N/mm2 ?
a) 1.21mm
b) 2.034mm
c) 2.31mm
d) 1.428mm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Elongation in section 1 = P/AE x L = 50,000/(100×1.05×100,000) x 100 =
0.476mm
Elongation In section 2 = P/AE x L = 50,000/(100×1.05×100,000) x 200 = 0.952mm
Total elongation = 0.476 + 0.952 = 1.428mm.
7. A composite bar having two sections of cross-sectional area 100mm2 and 200mm2
respectively. The length of both the sections is 100mm. What will be the total elongation of bar
if it is subjected to axial force of 100kN and E = 105 N/mm2 ?
a) 1.0
b) 1.25
c) 1.5
d) 2.0
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Elongation in section 1 = 100,000 x 100 / 100000 x100 = 1
Elongation in section 2 = 100,000 x 100 / 100000x 200 = 0.5
Total elongation = 1 + 0.5 = 1.5mm.
8. A bar having two sections of cross sectional area of 100mm2 and 200mm2 respectively. The
length of both the sections is 200mm. What will be the total strain in the bar if it is subjected to
axial force of 100kN and E = 105 N/mm2 ?
a) 0.010
b) 0.015
c) 0.020
d) 0.030
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Strain in section 1 = P/AE = 100,000 / 100×100000 = 0.010
Strain is section 2 = P / AE = 100,000 / 200×100000 = 0.005
Resultant strain in the bar = 0.010 + 0.005 = 0.015mm.
9. A brass bar, having cross sectional area of 150mm2, is subjected to axial force of 50kN. What
will be the total strain of bar if E= 1.05 x 104 N/mm2 ?
a) 0.062mm
b) 0.025mm
c) 0.068mm
d) 0.054mm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Strain in section 1 = P/AE = 50,000/(100×1.05×100,000) = 0.031mm
Strain In section 2 = P/AE = 50,000/(100×1.05×100,000) = 0.031mm
Resultant strain = 0.031 + 0.031 = 0.062mm.
Here the calculation of strain does not requires the value of lengths of the sections.
10. A composite bar of two sections of each of length 100mm, 150mm. When force is applied,
all the sections causes an elongation of 0.1mm. What will the resultant strain in the bar?
a) 0.0016
b) 0.00154
c) 0.00256
d) 0.0020
View Answer
Answer: a
Strain in section 2= 0.1/150
Resultant strain = 0.001+0.0006 = 0.0016.
11. If the given forces P1, P2, P3, P4,and P5 which are co planar and concurrent are such that the
force polygon does not close, then the system will
a) Be in equilibrium
b) Always reduce to a resultant force
c) Always reduce to a couple
d) Always be in equilibrium and will always reduce to a couple
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: For a system to be in equilibrium force polygon and funicular polygon must close.
If the force polygon does not close then the forces will reduce to a resultant force. If funicular
polygon does not close, then there is resultant moment on the system
1. If a bar of sections of two different length and different diameters are in a line and P load is
acting axially on them then what will be the change in length of the bar?
a) P/E x (L1 + L2)
b) P/E x (A1/L1 + A2/ L2)
c) P/E x (L1/A1 + L2/A2)
d) E/P x (L1/A1 + L2/A2)
View Answer
Answer: c
Total change in length of bar = PL1/EA1 + PL2/EA2.
2. How does the elastic constant varys with the elongation of body?
a) The elastic constant is directly proportional to the elongation
b) The elastic constant is directly proportional to the elongation
c) The elongation does not depends on the elastic constant
d) None of these
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Elongation of a composite bar of two sections = P/E x (L 1/A1 + L2/A2)
E is inversely proportional to bar elongation.
3. A composite rod is 1000mm long, its two ends are 40 mm2 and 30mm2 in area and length are
400mm and 600mm respectively. If the rod is subjected to an axial tensile load of 1000N, what
will be its total elongation(E = 200GPa)?
a) 0.130m
b) 0.197mm
c) 0.160mm
d) 0.150mm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As elongation of a composite bar of two sections = P/E x (L 1/A1 + L2/A2)
Putting L1, L2, A1 and A2 400mm2, 600mm2, 40mm2 and 30mm2 and P = 1000 and E = 200 x
103.
4. A mild steel wire 5mm in diameter and 1m ling. If the wire is subjected to an axial tensile load
10kN what will be its extension?
a) 2.55mm
b) 3.15mm
c) 2.45mm
d) 2.65mm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As change in length = PL/AE
P = 10x 1000N, L = 1m, A = πd2/4 = 1.963 x 10-5 m2, E = 200 x 109 N/m2.
5. A composite rod is 1000mm long, its two ends are 40mm2 and 30mm2 in area and length are
300mm and 200mm respectively. The middle portion of the rod is 20mm2 in area. If the rod is
subjected to an axial tensile load of 1000N, what will be its total elongation (E = 200GPa)?
a) 0.145mm
b) 0.127mm
c) 0.187mm
d) 0.196mm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: P = 1000N, Area A1 = 40mm2, A2 = 20mm2, A30 = 30mm2
Length, L1 = 300mm, L2 = 500mm, L3 = 200mm
E = 200GPa = 200x 1000 N/mm2
Total extension = P/E x (L1/A1 + L2/A2 + L3/A3).
6. A rod of two sections of area 625mm2 and 2500mm2 of length 120cm and 60cm respectively.
If the load applied is 45kN then what will be the elongation (E = 2.1x 105 N/mm2)?
a) 0.462mm
b) 0.521mm
c) 0.365mm
d) 0.514mm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: P = 45,000N, E =2.1x 105 N/mm2,
Area, A1 = 625mm2, A2 = 2500mm2,
Length, L1 = 1200mm, L2 = 600mm
Elongation = P/E x (L1/A1 + L2/A2).
7. What will be the elongation of a bar of 1250mm2 area and 90cm length when applied a force
of 130kN if E = 1.05x 105 N/mm2?
a) 0.947mm
b) 0.891mm
c) 0.845mm
d) 0.745mm
View Answer
Answer: b
P = 130x 1000N, L = 900mm, A = 1250 mm2, E = 1.05 x 105 N/m2.
8. A bar shown in diagram is subjected to load 160kN. If the stress in the middle portion Is
limited to 150N/mm2, what will be the diameter of the middle portion?
a) 3.456 cm
b) 3.685 cm
c) 4.524 cm
d) 4.124 cm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Let L2 and D2 be the dimensions of the middle portion and L1 and D2 be the end
portion dimensions.
For middle portion area = load / stress
This gives area by which diameter can be calculated.
100kN. If the length of the bar is 1m and E=200GPa, then what will be the elongation of the bar?
a) 1.25mm
b) 2.70mm
c) 5.40mm
d) 4.05mm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Elongation in bar = PL/ AE = (100x1000x1) / (0.2×0.2x200x106) = 1.25mm.
10. A solid uniform metal bar is hanging vertically from its upper end. Its elongation will be
_________
a) Proportional to L and inversely proportional to D2
b) Proportional to L2 and inversely proportional to D
c) Proportional of U but independent of D
d) Proportional of L but independent of D
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Elongation = WL / 2AE = 4WL / 2πD2E α L/D2
1. A member ABCD is subjected to points load P1=45kN, P2, P3=450kN and P4=130kN. what
will be the value of P necessary for equilibrium?
a) 350kN
b) 365kN
c) 375kN
d) 400kN
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: On resolving forces P1 + P3 = P2 + P4
So P2 = 45 + 450 – 130 I.e. P2 = 365kN.
2. A member ABCD is subjected to points load P1=45kN, P2, P3=450kN and P4=130kN. What
will be the total elongation of the member, assuming the modulus of elasticity to be
2.1x105N/mm2. The cross sectional area is 625mm, 2500mm, 1250mm respectively.
a) 0.4914mm
b) 0.4235mm
c) 0.4621mm
d) 0.4354mm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: First of all the fores will be calculated
on resolving forces P1 + P3 = P2 + P4
So P2 = 45 + 450 – 130 I.e. P2 = 365kN
So forces on three sections will be 45kN, 320kN and 130kN respectively.
After that increase in length = PL/AE for all three sections will be calculated.
3. A tensile rod of 40kN is acting on a rod of diameter 40mm and of length 4m. a bore of
diameter 20mm is made centrally on the rod. To what length the rod should be bored so that the
total extension will increase 30% under the same tensile load if E = 2×105 N/mm2?
a) 2m
b) 2.7m
c) 3.2m
d) 3.6m
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The extension = PL / AE = 2/π mm
Extension after the bore is made = 1.3x 2/π mm = 2.6/π mm
The extension after the bore is made, is also obtained by finding the extension of the un bored
length and bored length.
Stress = load / area
So total extension after bore is made can have two equations which can be put equal and the
length the rod should be bored up is calculated.
4. A bar is subjected to a tensile load of 150kN. If the stress in the middle portion is limited to
160 N/mm2, what will be the diameter of the middle portion of the total elongation of the bar is
0.25cm (E= 2 x 105)?
a) 3cm
b) 3.45cm
c) 3.85cm
d) 4cm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Total extension = P/E x (L1/A1 + L2/A2 + L3/A3 )
Only variable in the equation is A2. after getting this the diameter of the section can be
calculated.
5. A rod, which tapers uniformly from 5cm diameter to 3cm diameter in a length of 50cm, is
subjected to an axial load of 6000N. if E = 2,00,000 N/mm2, what will be the extension of the
rod?
a) 0.00114cm
b) 0.00124cm
c) 0.00127cm
d) 0.00154cm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The extension in the rod = PL / Et(a-b) x loge (a/b)
Where a = 50mm, b = 30mm.
6. A bar is in two sections having equal lengths. The area of cross section of 1 st is double that of
2nd. if the bar carries an axial load of P, then what will be the ratio of elongation in section 2nd to
section 1st ?
a) 1/2
b) 2
c) 4
d) 1/4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Ratio of elongation in 2nd / ratio of elongation in 1st = L2/L1 x A2/A1
Since L1 = L2 and A1 = 2A2
Therefore, ratio = 1 x 2/1 = 2.
7. A round bar made of same material consists of 4 parts each of 100mm length having diameters
of 40mm, 50mm, 60mm and 70mm, respectively. If the bar is subjected to an axial load of 10kN,
what will be the total elongation of the bar in mm?
a) 0.4/πE ( 1/16 + 1/25 + 1/36 + 1/49)
b) 4/πE ( 1/16 + 1/25 + 1/36 + 1/49)
c) 2/πE ( 1/16 + 1/25 + 1/36 + 1/49)
d) 40/πE ( 1/16 + 1/25 + 1/36 + 1/49)
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Total elongation = 4PL/πE ( 1/d12 + 1/d22 + 1/d32 + 1/d42)
= 4x10x100/πEx100 ( 1/16 + 1/25 + 1/36 + 1/49) mm
= 40/πE ( 1/16 + 1/25 + 1/36 + 1/49).
8. A bar shown in the diagram below is subjected to load 160kN. If the stress in the middle
portion Is limited to 150N/mm2, what will be the length of the middle portion, if the total
elongation of the bar is to be 0.2mm? Take E = 2.1 x 105 N/mm2.
a) 18.45cm
b) 17.24cm
c) 16.45cm
d) 20.71cm
View Answer
Answer: d
portion dimensions.
As Total extension = P/E x (L1/A1 + L2/A2)
This gives the value of L2.
9. A composite bar consists of a bar enclosed inside a tune of another material when compressed
under a load as whole through rigid collars at the end of the bar. What will be the equation of
compatibility?
a) W1 + W2 = W
b) W1 + W2 = constant
c) W1/A1E1 = W2/A2E2
d) W1/A1E2 = W2/A2E1
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Compatibility equation insists that the change in length of the bar must be
compatible with the boundary conditions. Here W1 + W2 = W it is also correct but it is
equilibrium equation.
1. What is the strain energy stored in a body due to gradually applied load?
a) σE/V
b) σE2/V
c) σV2/E
d) σV2/2E
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Strain energy when load is applied gradually = σ 2V/2E.
2. Strain energy stored in a body to uniform stress s of volume V and modulus of elasticity E is
__________
a) s2V/2E
b) sV/E
c) sV2/E
d) sV/2E
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Strain energy = s2V/2E.
3. In a material of pure shear stress τthe strain energy stored per unit volume in the elastic,
homogeneous isotropic material having elastic constants E and v will be:
a) τ2/E x (1+ v)
b) τ2/E x (1+ v)
c) τ2/2E x (1+ v)
d) τ2/E x (2+ v)
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: σ1=τ, σ2= -τσ3=0
U = (τ2+- τ2-2μτ(-τ))V = τ2/E x (1+ v)V.
4. PL3/3EI is the deflection under the load P of a cantilever beam. What will be the strain
energy?
a) P2L3/3EI
b) P2L3/6EI
c) P2L3/4EI
d) P2L3/24EI
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: We may do it taking average
Strain energy = Average force x displacement = (P/2) x PL3/3EI = P2L3/6EI.
5. A rectangular block of size 400mm x 50mm x 50mm is subjected to a shear stress of

500kg/cm2. If the modulus of rigidity of the material is 1×10 6 kg/cm2, the strain energy will be
__________
a) 125 kg-cm
b) 1000 kg-cm
c) 500 kg-cm
d) 100 kg-cm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Strain energy stored = τ2V/2G = 5002/2×106 x 40x5x5 = 125 kg-cm.
6. A material of youngs modulus and Poissons ratio of unity is subjected to two principal stresses
σ1 and σ2 at a point in two dimensional stress system. The strain energy per unit volume of the
material is __________
a) (σ12 + σ22 – 2σ1σ2 ) / 2E
b) (σ12 + σ22 + 2σ1σ2 ) / 2E
c) (σ12 – σ22 – 2σ1σ2 ) / 2E
d) (σ12 – σ22 – 2σ1σ2 ) / 2E
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Strain energy = (σ1ε1+ σ1ε1 ) / 2E
= (σ12 + σ22 – 2σ1σ2 ) / 2E.
7. If forces P, P and P of a system are such that the force polygon does not close, then the system
will __________
b) Reduce to a resultant force
c) Reduce to a couple
d) Not be in equilibrium
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The forces are not concurrent so the resultant force and couple both may be present.
Thus the best choice is that forces are not in equilibrium.
8. The strain energy in a member is proportional to __________

a) Product of stress and the strain
b) Total strain multiplied by the volume of the member
c) The maximum strain multiplied by the length of the member
d) Product of strain and Young’s modulus of the material
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Strain energy per unit volume for solid = q 2 / 4G.
9. A bar of cross-section A and length L is subjected to an axial load W. the strain energy stored
in the bar would be __________
a) WL / AE
b) W2 L / 4AE
c) W2L / 2AE
d) WL / 4AE
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Deformation in the bar = WL / AE
Strain energy = W/2 x WL / AE = W2L / 2AE.
10. A tensile load of 60kN is gradually applied to a circular bar of 4cm diameter and 5m long.
What is the stretch in the rod if E = 2×105 N/mm2 ?
a) 1.1mm
b) 1.24mm
c) 2mm
d) 1.19mm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Stress = Load/ area = 60,000 / (π/4 D2) = 470746 N/mm2
So stretch = stress x length / E = 1.19mm.
What is the strain energy absorbed by the rod (E = 200GPa)?
a) 14 N-m
b) 15.9 N-mm
c) 15.9 N-m
d) 14 N-mm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Stress = 50,000 / 625π = 25.46
Strain energy = σ2V/2E = 25.46×25.46×9817477 / (2×200000) = 15909.5 N-mm = 15.9 N-m.
What is the strain energy in the rod if the load is applied suddenly (E = 2×10 5 N/mm2)?
a) d143.23 N-m
b) 140.51 N-m
c) 135.145 N-m
d) 197.214 N-m
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Maximum instantaneous stress = 2P / A = 95.493
Strain energy = σ2V/2E = 143288N-mm = 143.238 N-m
1. The ability of a material to absorb energy when elastically deformed and to return it when
unloaded is called __________
a) Elasticity
b) Resilience
c) Plasticity
d) Strain resistance
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Resilience is the ability of a material to absorb energy when elastically deformed
and to return it. Elasticity is the property by which any body regain its original shape.
2. The strain energy stored in a specimen when stained within the elastic limit is known as
__________
a) Resilience
b) Plasticity
c) Malleability
d) Stain energy
View Answer
Answer: a
Malleability is the property by which any material can be beaten into thin sheets.
3. The maximum strain energy stored at elastic limit is __________

a) Resilience
b) Proof resilience
c) Elasticity
d) Malleability
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Proof resilience is the maximum stored energy at the elastic limit. Resilience is the
ability of material to absorb energy when elastically deformed and to return it. Elasticity is the
property by which any body regain its original shape. Malleability is the property by which any
material can be beaten into thin sheets.
4. The mathematical expression for resilience ‘U’ is __________

a) U = σ2/E x volume
b) U = σ2/3E x volume
c) U = σ2/2E x volume
d) U = σ/2E x volume
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The resilience is the strain energy stored in a specimen so it will be
U = σ2/2E x volume.
5. What is the modulus of resilience?

a) The ratio of resilience to volume
b) The ratio of proof resilience to the modulus of elasticity
c) The ratio of proof resilience to the strain energy
d) The ratio of proof resilience to volume
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The modulus of resilience is the proof resilience per unit volume. It is denoted by σ.
6. The property by which an amount of energy is absorbed by material without plastic

deformation is called __________
a) Toughness
b) Impact strength
c) Ductility
d) Resilience
View Answer
Answer: d
and to return it when unloaded.
7. Resilience of a material plays important role in which of the following?

a) Thermal stress
b) Shock loading
c) Fatigue
d) Pure static loading
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The total strain energy stored in a body is commonly known as resilience.
Whenever the straining force is removed from the strained body, the body is capable of doing
work. Hence the resilience is also define as the capacity of a strained body for doing work on the
removal of the straining force.
8. A steel has its yield strength of 200N/mm2 and modulus of elasticity of 1x105MPa. Assuming
the material to obey hookes law up to yielding, what will be its proof resilience?
a) 0.8 N/mm2
b) 0.4 N/mm2
c) 0.2 N/mm2
d) 0.6 N/mm2
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Proof resilience = σ2/2E = (200)2 / (2 x 105) = 0.2 N/mm2.
9. A 1m long bar of uniform section extends 1mm under limiting axial stress of 200N/mm2.
What is the modulus of resilience for the bar?
a) 0.1 units
b) 1 units
c) 10units
d) 100units
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Modulus of resilience, u = f2/2E, where E = fL/δL
Therefore, u = 200×1 / 2×1000 = 0.1units.
10. A square steel bar of 10mm side and 5m length is subjected to a load whereupon it absorbs a
strain energy of 100J. what is its modulus of resilience?
a) 1/5 N-mm/mm3
b) 25 N-mm/mm3
c) 1/25 N-mm/mm3
d) 5 N-mm/mm3
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Modulus of resilience is the strain energy stored in the material per unit volume.
u = U/v
= ( 100 x 1000 ) / ( 10 x 10x 5x 1000)
= 1/5 N-mm/mm3
1. What is the relation between maximum stress induced due to sudden loading to maximum
stress the gradual loading?
a) Maximum stress in sudden load is equal to the maximum stress in gradual load
b) Maximum stress in sudden load is half to the maximum stress in gradual load
c) Maximum stress in sudden load is twice to the maximum stress in gradual load
d) Maximum stress in sudden load is four times to the maximum stress in gradual load
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Maximum stress in sudden loading = 2P/A
Maximum stress in gradual loading = P/A.
2. What is the strain energy stored in a body when the load is applied suddenly?
a) σE/V
b) σE2/V
c) σV2/E
d) σV2/2E
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Strain energy in gradual loading = σ2V/2E.
3. A tensile load of 60kN is suddenly applied to a circular bar of 4cm diameter. What will be the
maximum instantaneous stress induced?
a) 95.493 N/mm2
b) 45.25 N/mm2
c) 85.64 N/mm2
d) 102.45 N/mm2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Maximum instantaneous stress induced = 2P/A = 2×60000/400π = 95.49 N/mm2.
4. A tensile load of 60kN is suddenly applied to a circular bar of 4cm and 5m length. What will
be the strain energy absorbed by the rod if E=2×105 N/mm2 ?
a) 140.5 N-m
b) 100 N-m
c) 197.45 N-m
d) 143.2 N-m
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Maximum instantaneous stress induced = 2P/A = 2×60000/400π = 95.49 N/mm2
Strain energy = σ2V/2E = 95.492 x 2×106π / (2x2x105) = 143238 N-mm = 143.23 N-m.
5. A tensile load of 100kN is suddenly applied to a rectangular bar of dimension 2cmx4cm. What
will be the instantaneous stress in bar?
a) 100 N/mm2
b) 120 N/mm2
c) 150 N/mm2
d) 250 N/mm2
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Stress = 2x load / area = 2×100,000/ (20×40) = 250 N/mm2.
6. 2 tensile load of 100kN is suddenly applied to a rectangular bar of dimension 2cmx4cm and
length of 5m. What will be the strain energy absorbed in the bar if E=1×105 N/mm2 ?
a) 312.5 N-m
b) 314500 N-mm
c) 1250 N-m
d) 634 N-m
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Stress = 2xload / area = 2×100,000/ (20×40) = 250 N/mm2
Strain energy = σ2V/2E = 250x250x20x40x5000/ (2×100,000) = 1250000 N-mm = 1250 N-m.
7. A steel rod is 2m long and 50mm in diameter. A axial pull of 100kN is suddenly applied to the
rod. What will be the instantaneous stress induced in the rod?
a) 101.89 N/mm2
b) 94.25 N/mm2
c) 130.45 N/mm2
d) 178.63 N/mm2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Area = π/4 d2 = 625π
Load = 100kN = 100×1000 N
Stress = 2 x load / area = 2x100x1000 / (625π) = 101.86 N/mm2.
8. A steel rod is 2m long and 50mm in diameter. An axial pull of 100kN is suddenly applied to
the rod. What will be the instantaneous elongation produced in the rod if E=22GN/m2?
a) 0.0097 mm
b) 1.0754 mm
c) 1.6354 mm
d) 1.0186 mm
View Answer
Answer: d
Load = 100kN = 100×1000 N
E=22GN/m2 = 200 x 109 / 106 = 200,000 N/mm2
Stress = 2 x load / area = 2x100x1000 / (625 π )
Elongation = stress x length / E = 101.86×2000 / 200000 = 1.0186 mm.
9. What will be the amount of axial pull be applied on a a 4cm diameter bar to get an
instantaneous stress value of 143 N/mm2 ?
a) 50kN
b) 60kN
c) 70kN
d) 80kN
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Instantaneous stress = 2 x load / area
Load = instantaneous stress x area / 2
= 143 x 400×3.14 / 2 = 60kN.
10. What will be the instantaneous stress produced in a bar 10cm2 in area ans 4m long by the
sudden application of tensile load of unknown magnitude, if the extension of the bar due to
suddenly applied load is 1.35mm if E = 2×105 N/mm2 ?
a) 67.5 N/mm2
b) 47 N/mm2
c) 55.4 N/mm2
d) 78.5 N/mm2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The value of stress = load / area where area is 10cm2 and load can be calculated by
stress strain equation
1. What is the strain energy stored in a body when the load is applied gradually?
a) σE/V
b) σE2/V
c) σV2/E
d) σV2/2E
View Answer
Answer: d
2. What is strain energy?

a) The work done by the applied load In stretching the body
b) The strain per unit volume
c) The force applied in stretching the body
d) The stress per unit are
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The strain energy stored in a body is equal to the work done by the applied load in
stretching the body.
3. What is the relation between maximum stress induced due to gradual load to maximum stress
the sudden load?
a) Maximum stress in gradual load is equal to the maximum stress in sudden load
b) Maximum stress in gradual load is half to the maximum stress in sudden load
c) Maximum stress in gradual load is twice to the maximum stress in sudden load
d) Maximum stress in gradual load is four times to the maximum stress in sudden load
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Maximum stress in gradual loading = P/A
Maximum stress in sudden loading = 2P/A.
4. A tensile load of 60kN is gradually applied to a circular bar of 4cm diameter and 5cm long.
What will be the stress in the rod if E=1×105 N/mm2 ?
a) 47.746 N/mm2
b) 34.15 N/mm2
c) 48.456 N/mm2
d) 71.02 N/mm2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Stress = Load/ area = 60,000 / (π/4 D2) = 47.746 N/mm2.
a) 1.19mm
b) 2.14mm
c) 3.45mm
d) 4.77mm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Stress = Load/ area = 60,000 / (π/4 D2) = 47.746 N/mm2
6. A tensile load of 100kN is gradually applied to a rectangular bar of dimension 2cmx4cm.

What will be the stress in bar?
a) 100 N/mm2
b) 120 N/mm2
c) 125 N/mm2
d) 150 N/mm2
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Stress = load / area = 100,000/ (20×40) = 125 N/mm2.
7. A tensile load of 100kN is gradually applied to a rectangular bar of dimension 2cmx4cm and
length of 5m. What will be the strain energy in the bar if E=1×105 N/mm2 ?
a) 312.5 N-m
b) 314500 N-mm
c) 245.5 N-m
d) 634 N-m
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Stress = load / area = 100,000/ (20×40) = 125 N/mm2
Strain energy = σ2V/2E = 125x125x20x40x5000/ (2×100,000) = 312500 N-mm = 312.5N-m.
What will be the strain energy absorbed by the rod if E=1×105 N/mm2 ?
a) 100 N-m
b) 132 N-m
c) 148 N-m
d) 143.2 N-m
View Answer
Answer: d
Strain energy = σ2V/2E = 47.746×47.746×12,566,370 / (2×100000) = 143,236.54 N-mm =
143.2N-m.
9. A uniform bar has a cross sectional area of 700mm and a length of 1.5m. if the stress at the
elastic limit is 160 N/mm, what will be the value of gradually applied load which will produce
the same extension as that produced by the suddenly applied load above?
a) 100kN
b) 110kN
c) 112kN
d) 120kN
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: For gradually applied load, stress = load / area
Load = stress x area = 160 x 700 = 112000 N = 112kN.
10. A tension bar 6m long is made up of two parts, 4m of its length has cross sectional area of
12.5cm while the remaining 2m has 25cm. An axial load 5tonnes is gradually applied. What will
be the total strain energy produced if E = 2 x 106 kgf/cm2 ?
a) 240kgf/cm
b) 242kgf/cm
c) 264kgf/cm
d) 270kgf/cm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: First stress = load /area, then the strain energy will be calculated as
Strain energy = σ2V/2E.
1. What is the strain energy stored in a body when the load is applied with impact?
a) σE/V
b) σE2/V
c) σV2/E
d) σV2/2E
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Strain energy in impact loading = σ2V/2E.
2. What is the value of stress induced in the rod due to impact load?
a) P/A (1 + (1 + 2AEh/PL)1/2)
b) P/A (2 + 2AEh/PL)
c) P/A (1 + (1 + AEh/PL)1/2)
d) P/A ((1 + 2AEh/PL)1/2)
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The value of stress is calculated by equating the strain energy equation and the
work done equation.
3. What will be the stress induced in the rod if the height through which load is dropped is zero?
a) P/A
b) 2P/A
c) P/E
d) 2P/E
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As stress = P/A (1 + (1 + 2AEh/PL) 1/2)
Putting h=0, we get stress = 2P/A.
4. A weight of 10kN falls by 30mm on a collar rigidly attached to a vertical bar 4m long and
1000mm2 in section. What will be the instantaneous stress (E=210GPa)?
a) 149.4 N/mm2
b) 179.24 N/mm2
c) 187.7 N/mm2
d) 156.1 N/mm2
View Answer
Answer: c
Putting P = 10,000, h = 30, L = 4000, A = 1000, E = 210,000 we will get stress = 187.7 N/mm2.
5. A load of 100N falls through a height of 2cm onto a collar rigidly attached to the lower end of
a vertical bar 1.5m long and of 105cm2 cross- sectional area. The upper end of the vertical bar is
fixed. What is the maximum instantaneous stress induced in the vertical bar if E = 200GPa?
a) 50.87 N/mm2
b) 60.23 N/mm2
c) 45.24 N/mm2
d) 63.14 N/mm2
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As stress = P/A ( 1 + ( 1 + 2AEh/PL) 1/2 )
Putting P = 100, h = 20, L = 1500, A = 150, E = 200,000 we will get stress = 60.23 N/mm2.
1000mm2 in section. What will be the strain (E=210GPa)?
a) 0.00089
b) 0.0005
c) 0.00064
d) 0.00098
View Answer
Answer: a
Putting P = 10,000, h = 30, L = 4000, A = 1000, E = 210,000 we will get stress = 187.7 N/mm2
As strain = stress / E, thus, strain = 187.7 / 210,000 = 0.00089.
fixed. What is the maximum instantaneous elongation in the vertical bar if E = 200GPa?
a) 0.245mm
b) 0.324mm
c) 0.452mm
d) 0.623mm
View Answer
Answer: c
Putting P = 100, h = 20, L = 1500, A = 150, E = 200,000 we will get stress = 60.23 N/mm2
Elongation = stress x length / E = 60.23 x 1500 / 200,000 = 0.452mm.
fixed. What is the strain energy stored in the vertical bar if E = 200GPa?
a) 2.045 N-m
b) 3.14 N-m
c) 9.4 N-mm
d) 2.14 N-m
View Answer
Answer: a
Strain energy stored = stress2 x volume / 2E = 60.232 x 2525000 / (2×200,000) = 2.045 N-m.
9. The maximum instantaneous extension, produced by an unknown falling weight in a vertical

bar of length 3m. what will be the instantaneous stress induced in the vertical bar and the value
of unknown weight if E = 200GPa?
a) 100 N/mm2
b) 110 N/mm2
c) 120 N/mm2
d) 140 N/mm2
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Instantaneous stress = E x instantaneous strain = E x δL/L = 200,000x 2.1 / 3000 =
140N/mm2.
10. The maximum instantaneous extension, produced by an unknown falling weight through a
height of 4cm in a vertical bar of length 3m and of cross section area 5cm2. what will be the
instantaneous stress induced in the vertical bar and the value of unknown weight if E = 200GPa?
a) 1700 N
b) 1459.4 N
c) 1745.8 N
d) 1947.5 N
View Answer
Answer: c
140N/mm2.
As, P( h + δL) = σ2/2E x V
So P = 1745.8 N.
11. An unknown weight falls through a height of 10mm on a collar rigidly attached to a lower
end of a vertical bar 500cm long. If E =200GPa what will be the value of stress?
a) 50 N/mm2
b) 60 N/mm2
c) 70 N/mm2
d) 80 N/mm2
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Stress = E x strain = E x δL/L = 200,000 x 2 /5000 = 80 N/mm2
1. The point through which the whole weight of the body acts is called _____________
a) Inertial point
b) Center of gravity
c) Centroid
d) Central point
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The centre of gravity of a body is the point through which the whole weight of the
body acts. A body’s center of gravity is the point around which the resultant torque due to
gravity forces vanishes. Where a gravity field can be considered to be uniform and the centre of
gravity will be the same.
2. The point at which the total area of a plane figure is asssumed to be concentrated is called
____________
a) Centroid
b) Centre of gravity
c) Central point
d) Inertial point
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The centroid is the point at which the total area of a plane figure is assumed to be
concentrated. The centroid and centre of gravity are at the same point.
3. Where will be the centre of gravity of a uniform rod lies?

a) At its end
b) At its middle point
c) At its centre of its cross sectional area
d) Depends upon its material
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The centre of gravity of a uniform rod lies at its middle point. The whole weight of
the rod acts through its middle point.
4. Where the center of gravity of a circle lies?

a) At its centre
b) Anywhere on its radius
c) Anywhere on its circumference
d) Anywhere on its diameter
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The whole weight of a circle can be assumed to act through its center. So the center
of gravity of a circle is at its center.
5. Where will be the center of gravity of the following section will lie In coordinates?
a) (6,3)
b) (6,6)
c) (6,1.5)
d) (1.5,3)
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The centre of gravity of this rectangular area will be half of 3cm from x-axis and
half of 12 from the y-axis. therefore the center of gravity will be at (6,1.5).
6. Where will be the centre of gravity of the T section shown in the figure?
a) At 8.545cm
b) At 6.5cm
c) At 5cm
d) At 9.25cm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The center of gravity is given by, y = (a1y1 + a2 y2) / (a1 + a2) = ( 36×11.5 + 30×5) /
(36+30) = 8.545cm.
7. Where will be the center of gravity of the L-section shown in the figure?
a) (1.28,2.64)
b) (1.45,3.24)
c) (1.64,3.28)
d) (2.24,3.68)
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The center of gravity is given by, y = (a1y1 + a2 y2) / (a1 + a2) = (10×3.5 + 4×0.5) /
(10+4) = 2.64cm.
This will on for the y-axis.
For the x-axis, The center of gravity is given by, x = (a1x1 + a2x2) / (a1 + a2) = (0x1 + 4×2) /
(10+4) = 1.28cm.
So the center of gravity will be at (2.33, 4.33).
8. Where will be the center of gravity of the figure shown ?
a) (3.45,4.52)
b) (3.59,7.42)
c) (3.66,8.84)
d) (3.88,8.88)
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Area of triangle = 50, area of rectangle = 100
The center of gravity is given by, y = (a1y1 + a2 y2) / (a1 + a2) = (50×20/3 + 100×10) / (50+100) =
8.88cm.
For the x-axis, The center of gravity is given by, x = (a1x1 + a2x2) / (a1 + a2) = (50×6.66 +
100×2.5) / (50+100) = 3.88cm.
9. Where will be the center of gravity of an I section will be if the dimension of upper web is
2x10cm, lower web is 2×20 and that of flange is 2x15cm If the y-axis will pass through the
center of the section?
a) 7.611cm
b) 9.51cm
c) 9.31cm
d) 11.5cm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The center of gravity is given by, y = (a1y1 + a2 y2 + a3y3) / (a1 + a2 + a3) = (20×18 +
30×9.5 + 40×1 / (20 +30+40) = 1.611cm
1. The center of gravity of the rod shown in figure will be _____________
a) 5cm
b) 10cm
c) 15cm
d) 20cm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The center of gravity of a rod will be on its center. Here it will be at 10cm.
2. The center of gravity of a circle of radius 10 cm will be _____________

a) At its center of the diameter
b) At the center of the radius
c) Anywhere on the circumference
d) Anywhere in its area
View Answer
Answer: a
of gravity of a circle is at its center. Whatever may be the radius of the circle the center of
gravity will be on its center.
3. A rectangle has dimension of 10cm x 20cm. where will be its center of gravity?
a) (10,10)
b) (20,5)
c) (10,5)
d) (5,10)
View Answer
Answer: c
half of 20cm from y-axis. therefore the center of gravity will be at (10,5).
a) 8
b) 8.5
c) 10.5
d) 11.5
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The center of gravity is given by, y = (a1y1 + a2 y2) / (a1 + a2) = (100×17.5 +
150×7.5) / (100+150) = 11.5cm.
5. Where will be the center of gravity of the L-section shown in figure?
a) (4.33, 2.33)
b) (4, 6)
c) (2.33, 4.33)
d) (1, 5)
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The center of gravity is given by, y = (a1y1 + a2 y2) / (a1 + a2) = (20×7 + 16×1) /
(20+16) = 4.33cm.
For the x-axis, The center of gravity is given by, x = (a1x1 + a2x2) / (a1 + a2) = (20×1 + 16×4) /
(20+16) = 2.33cm.
6. Where will be the center of gravity of the figure shown?
a) (3.45,4.52)
b) (3.59,4.52)
c) (3.66,5.17)
d) (4.01,5.15)
View Answer
Answer: b
4.52cm.
50×2.5) / (20+50) = 3.59cm.
7. Where will be the center of gravity of the shown figure?
a) (4.66,6.332)
b) (4.34,3.24)
c) (4.25,6.45)
d) (4.87,6.41)
View Answer
Answer: a
4.66cm.
100×5) / (25+100) = 6.332cm.
8. Where will be the center of gravity of an I section will be if the dimension of web is 2x20cm
and that of flange is 2x15cm If the y-axis will pass through the center of the section?
a) 8.5cm
b) 9.5cm
c) 10.5cm
d) 11.5cm
View Answer
Answer: b
30×9.5 +40×1 / (40 +30+40) = 9.5cm.
9. Where will be the center of gravity of an T section will be if the dimension of web is 2x20cm
a) 10.5cm
b) 11.45cm
c) 12.35cm
d) 12.85cm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The center of gravity is given by, y = (a1y1 + a2 y2) / (a1 + a2) = (40×16 + 30×7.5)/
(30+40) = 12.35cm.
10. Where will be the center of gravity of the following section?

a) 7.33cm
b) 8.33cm
c) 9.33cm
d) 10.33
View Answer
Answer: b
The center of gravity is given by, y = (a1y1 + a2 y2) / (a1 + a2) = (50×11.66 + 50×5)/(50+50) =
8.33cm.
11. Where will be the centre of gravity of the following L-section?

a) (18.31,30.81)
b) (19.45, 29.87)
c) (20,30)
d) (19.62,29.62)
View Answer
Answer: a
(600+414) = 18.31cm.
For the x-axis, The center of gravity is given by, x = (a1x1 + a2x2) / (a1 + a2) = (600×3 +
414×40.5) / (600+414) = 30.81cm.
2x8cm, lower web is 2×16 and that of flange is 2x12cm If the y-axis will pass through the center
of the section?
a) 7.611cm
b) 7.44cm
c) 6.53cm
d) 6.44cm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Area of upper web a1 = 16cm, area of flange a2 = 24, area of lower web a3 = 32.
The center of gravity is given by, y = (a1y1 + a2 y2 + a3 y3) / (a1 + a2 + a3) = (16×15 + 24×8 +32×1
/ (16 +24+32)) = 6.44cm.
1. The axis about which moment of area is taken is known as ____________

a) Axis of area
b) Axis of moment
c) Axis of reference
d) Axis of rotation
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The axis of reference is the axis about which moment of area is taken. Most of the
times it is either the standard x or y axis or the centeroidal axis.
2. Point, where the total volume of the body is assumed to be concentrated is ____________
a) Center of area
b) Centroid of volume
c) Centroid of mass
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The centroid of the volume is the point where total volume is assumed to be
concentrated. It is the geometric centre of a body. If the density is uniform throughout the body,
then the center of mass and center of gravity correspond to the centroid of volume. The
definition of the centroid of volume is written in terms of ratios of integrals over the volume of
the body.
3. What is MOI?
a) ml2
b) mal
c) ar2
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The formula of the moment of inertia is, MOI = ar 2 where
M = mass, a = area, l = length, r = distance.
4. What is the formula of radius of gyration?
a) k2 = I/A
b) k2 = I2/A
c) k2 = I2/A2
d) k2 = (I/A)1/2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The radius of gyration of a body about an axis is a distance such that its square
multiplied by the area gives moment of inertia of the area about the given axis. The formula of
radius of gyration is given as k2 = I/A.
5. What is the formula of theorem of perpendicular axis?

a) Izz = Ixx – Iyy
b) Izz = Ixx + Ah2
c) Izz – Ixx = Iyy
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Theorem of perpendicular axis stares that if I XX and IYY be the moment of inertia of
a plane section about two mutually perpendicular axis X-X and Y-Y in the plane of the section
then the moment of inertia of the section I ZZ about the axis Z-Z, perpendicular to the plane and
passing through the intersection of X-X and Y-Y is given by the formula
Izz – Ixx = Iyy.
6. What is the formula of theorem of parallel axis?

a) IAD = IG + Ah
b) IAB = Ah2 + IG
c) IAB = IG – Ah2
d) IAB = IG + Ixx
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The theorem of parallel axis states that if the moment of inertia of a plane area
about an axis in the plane of area theough the C.G. of the plane area be represented by IG, then
the moment of the inertia of the given plane area about a parallel axis AB in the plane of area at a
distance h from the C.G. is given by the formula
IAB = Ah2 + IG.
7. What is the unit of radius of gyration?

a) m4
b) m
c) N
d) m2
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The radius of gyration = (length4/length2)1/2 = length
So its unit will be m.
8. What will be the the radius of gyration of a circular plate of diameter 10cm?
a) 1.5cm
b) 2.0cm
c) 2.5cm
d) 3cm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The moment of inertia of a circle, I = πD 4/64 = 491.07 cm4
The area of circle = 78.57 cm,
Radius of gyration = (I/A)1/2 = 2.5 cm.
1. What is the moment of inertia of a circular section?

a) πD4/64
b) πD3/32
c) πD3/64
d) πD4/32
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The moment of inertia of a circular section is πD 4/64.
2. What is the moment of inertia of a rectangular section about an horizontal axis through C.G?
a) bd3/6
b) bd2/12
c) b2d2/12
d) bd3/12
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The moment of inertia of a rectangular section about an horizontal axis through
C.G is bd3/12.
3. What is the moment of inertia of a rectangular section about an horizontal axis passing
through base?
a) bd3/12
b) bd3/6
c) bd3/3
d) bd2/3
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The moment of inertia of a rectangular section about an horizontal axis passing
through base is bd3/3.
4. What is the moment of inertia of a triangular section about the base?

a) bh2/12
b) bh3/12
c) bh3/6
d) bh2/6
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The moment of inertia of a triangular section about the base is bh3/12.
5. What is the moment of inertia of a triangular section about an axis passing through C.G. and
parallel to the base?
a) bh3/12
b) bh3/24
c) bh3/36
d) bh3/6
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The moment of inertia of a triangular section about an axis passing through C.G.
and parallel to the base is bh3/36.
6. What will be the moment of inertia of a circle in cm4 of diameter is 10cm?

a) a340
b) 410
c) 460
d) 490
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The moment of inertia of a circle is = πD 4/64
= 491.07 cm4.
7. What will be the moment of inertia of the given rectangle about an horizontal axis passing
through the base?
a) 1500 mm4
b) 1650 mm4
c) 1666 mm4
d) 1782 mm4
View Answer
Answer: c
through base = bd3/3
= 5x10x10x10/3
= 1666.66 mm4.
8. What will be the moment of inertia of the given rectangular section about an horizontal axis
through C.G.?
a) 350 mm4
b) 379mm4
c) 416mm4
d) 500mm4
View Answer
Answer: c
C.G = bd3/12
= 5x10x10x10/12
= 416.67 mm4.
9. What will be the moment of inertia of the given triangle about the base?
a) 20.33 mm4
b) 21.33 mm4
c) 24.33 mm4
d) 22.33 mm4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The moment of inertia of a triangular section about the base = bh3/12.
= 4x4x4x4/12
= 21.33 mm4.
10. What will be the moment of inertia of the given triangle about an axis passing through C.G
and parallel to base?
a) 6.1 mm4
b) 7.1 mm4
c) 8.1 mm4
d) 7.56 mm4
View Answer
Answer: b
and parallel to the base = bh3/36.
= 4x4x4x4/36
= 7.11 mm4.
11. What will be the difference between MOI of two triangle sections is in 1st, MOI is taken
about its base and in 2nd MOI is taken about its centroid?
a) bh3/12
b) bh3/18
c) bh3/36
d) bh3/24
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The moment of inertia of a triangular section about the base is bh3/12
The moment of inertia of a triangular section about an axis passing through C.G. is bh3/36
So the difference = bh3/12 – bh3/36 = bh3/18.
1. What is the product of the mass and the square of the distance of the center of gravity of the
mass from an axis?
a) Moment of inertia
b) Mass moment of inertia
d) Product of inertia
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The product of the mass and the square of the distance of the center of gravity of
the mass from an axis is known as the mass moment of inertia about that axis.
2. What is the unit of mass moment of inertia?

a) m4
b) m6
c) N
d) m2
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The mass moment of inertia is the product of moment of inertia and area. So L 4 x
L2 = L6. so its unit will be m6.
3. What is mass moment of inertia of circular plate?

a) Md2/3
b) Md2/12
c) Mr2/4
d) Mr2/3
View Answer
4. What is the mass MOI of a rectangular plate about x-axis passing through the C.G of the plate
if the y-axis is parallel to d and perpendicular to b?
a) Mb2/12
b) Md2/12
c) Md2/6
d) Mb2/6
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As the mass MOI is to be find along the x-axis, it would be Md2/12.
5. What is the mass MOI of right circular cone of radius R and height H about its axis?
a) 4MR2/10
b) MR2/10
c) 3MR2/10
d) MR2/12
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The mass MOI of right circular cone of radius R and height H about its axis is
3MR2/10.
6. What is the mass MOI of a hollow circular cylinder if R is the outer diameter and r is the inner
diameter?
a) M(R + r)/4
b) M(R – r )/4
c) M(R+ r)/2
d) M(R – r)/2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The mass MOI of a hollow circular cylinder is M(R + r)/4 where R is the outer
diameter and r is the inner diameter.
7. What is the mass MOI of a rectangular plate about y-axis passing through the C.G of the plate
a) Mb2/12
b) Md2/12
c) Md2/6
d) Mb2/6
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As the mass MOI is to be find along the y-axis, it would be Mb2/12.
8. The product of inertia at the principal axes is _____________

a) Minimum
b) Unit
c) Zero
d) Maximum
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The moment of inertia about x-axis and about y-axis, on the axis they are zero. So
the product of inertia will be zero in the principal axis.
9. What is the unit of product of inertia?

a) mm4
b) mm2
c) mm
d) mm3
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The unit of product of inertia is same as that of moment of inertia I.e. mm4.
10. What is the product of inertia of the given following section?
a) 50mm4
b) 625mm4
c) 125mm4
d) 250mm4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The product of inertia = area x points of C.G
= ( 10×5) x 5 x 2.5 = 625mm4.
11. What is the product of inertia of a circle of diameter 10mm?

a) 1862mm4
b) 1945mm4
c) 1963mm4
d) 2014mm4
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The product of inertia = area x C.G
= πx 10×10 / 4 x 5×5 = 1963mm2.
1. _______ is a horizontal structural member subjected to transverse loads perpendicular to its

axis.
a) Strut
b) Column
c) Beam
d) Truss
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A beam is a horizontal structural member subjected to a transverse load
perpendicular to its own axis. Beams are used to support weights of roof slabs, walls and
staircases. The type of beam usually depends upon the span, type of load elasticity and type of
structure.
2. Example for cantilever beam is ______

a) Portico slabs
b) Roof slab
c) Bridges
d) Railway sleepers
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A beam which is fixed at one end and is free at other end, it is called cantilever
beam. The examples for it are portico slabs and sunshades.
3. The diagram depicts _______ kind of beam.
a) Cantilever
b) Continuous
c) Over hanging
d) Propped cantilever
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A beam which is fixed at one end and free at other end is called cantilever beam. In
this case, some support other than the existing ones may be provided in order to avoid excessive
deflection or to reduce the amount of bending moment, the additional support is known as a
prop. The beam is known as a propped cantilever beam.
4. Fixed beam is also known as __________

a) Encastered beam
b) Built on beam
c) Rigid beam
d) Tye beam
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A beam which is fixed at both supports is called fixed beam or encastered beam.
All framed structures are examples of fixed beams.
5. U.D.L stands for?

a) Uniformly diluted length
b) Uniformly developed loads
c) Uniaxial distributed load
d) Uniformly distributed loads
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: These loads are uniformly spread over a portion or whole area. They are generally
represented as rate of load that is Kilo Newton per meter length (KN/m).
6. Given below diagram is ______ load.
a) Uniformly distributed load

b) Uniformly varying load
c) Uniformly decess load
d) Point load
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A load which varies uniformly on each unit length is known as uniformly varying
load. Sometimes the load is zero at one end and increases uniformly to the other forms of
uniformly varying loads.
7. Moving train is an example of ____ load.

a) Point load
b) Cantered load
c) Rolling load
d) Uniformly varying load
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: As train’s wheels (rolling stock) move in rolling way. The upcoming load will be
considered as rolling load.
8. Continuous beams are _________
a) Statically determinate beams
b) Statically indeterminate beams
c) Statically gravity beams
d) Framed beams
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Fixed beams and continuous beams are statically indeterminate beams which
cannot be analyzed only by using static equations.
9. A beam which extends beyond it supports can be termed as __________

a) Over hang beam
b) Over span beam
c) Isolated beams
d) Tee beams
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A Beam extended beyond its support. And the position of extension is called as
over hung portion.
10. Units of U.D.L?

a) KN/m
b) KN-m
c) KN-m×m
d) KN
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As these loads distribute over span the units for this kind of loads will be load per
meter length i.e KN/m. It is denoted by “w”.
1. Shear force is unbalanced _____ to the left or right of the section.

a) Horizontal force
b) Vertical force
c) Inclined force
d) Conditional force
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The shear force at the cross section of a beam may also be defined as the
unbalanced vertical force to the left or right of the section. It is also the algebraic sum of all the
forces I get to the left to the right of the section.
2. SI units of shear force is _______________

a) kN/m
b) kN-m
c) kN
d) m/N
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: As shear force at any section is equal to the algebraic sum of the forces, the units of
the shear force are also in kilo newtons and it is denoted by kN.
3. Determine the moment at fixed end.
a) 40 kNm
b) 50 kNm
c) 60 kNm
d) 80 kNm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Let the fixed end be “A”
Reaction at A = 10×4 = 40 kN
Moment at A = (10×4)×4/2
= 80 kNm.
4. Shear force is diagram is _______ representation of shear force plotted as ordinate.

a) Scalar
b) Aerial
c) Graphical
d) Statically
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Shear Force diagram is a graphical representation of the shear force plotted as
ordinate on baseline representing the axis of the Beam.
5. Hogging is________
a) Negative bending moment
b) Positive shear force
c) Positive bending moment
d) Negative shear force
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The bending moment at a section is considered to be negative when it causes
convexity upwards or concavity at bottom, such bending moment is called hogging bending
moment or negative bending moment.
6. At the point of contraflexure, the value of bending moment is ____________

a) Zero
b) Maximum
c) Can’t be determined
d) Minimum
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A point at which bending moment changes its sign from positive to negative and
vice versa. Such point is termed as point of contraflexure. At this point, the value of bending
moment is zero (0).
7. _________ positive/negative bending moments occur where shear force changes its sign.
a) Minimum
b) Zero
c) Maximum
d) Remains same
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: If shear force and bending moment values obtained are thus plotted as a diagram,
the SF & BM relationship always behaves vice versa.
8. Shear force of following diagram
a) Rectangle
b) Square
c) Circle
d) Trapezoidal
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: SF @ AB is 10 kN
FA = 10 kN
FB = 10 kN.
9. SI units of Bending moment is ___________

a) kN
b) kN2
c) kNm
d) km
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Moment is a product of force and perpendicular distance and the bending moment
is the algebraic sum of moments taken away from the left or the right of the section hence the SI
units of bending moment is same as the moment i.e kNm.
10. What is the other name for a positive bending moment?
a) Hogging
b) Sagging
c) Inflation
d) Contraflexure
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The bending moment at a section is considered to be positive when it causes
convexity downwards such bending moment is called sagging bending moment positive bending
moment.
1. A simple support offers only _______ reaction normal to the axis of the beam.
a) Horizontal
b) Vertical
c) Inclined
d) Moment
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In a simple support there will not be any resistance to horizontal loads, moment or
rotation. In fact, it only offers a vertical reaction normal to the axis of the beam.
2. To avoid _____ stresses in beams, one end of the beam is placed on the rollers.
a) Compressive
b) Pyro
c) Temperature
d) Tensile
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Roller support reaction is normal to the axis of the beam. In case the beam
subjected to trust or to avoid temperature stresses in the beam, one end of the beam is placed on
roller because it facilitate free horizontal movement of end. It is similar to simple support.
3. ________ support develops support moment.

a) Hinged
b) Simple
c) Fixed
d) Joint
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A fixed support offers resistance against horizontal and vertical movement and
against the rotation of the member and that in turn developers support moment.
4. Hinge support is called as __________
a) Socket joint
b) Swivel joint
c) Ball joint
d) Pin joint
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Hinge support is one, in which the position is fixed but not the direction. In their
words hinged support offers resistance against vertical and horizontal moments.it is fixed in such
a way that it resembles like a pin joint.
5. Name the support from following figure.
a) Hinge support
b) Fixed support
c) Free support
d) Roller support
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In the above figure we can observe that the beam is supported at both the ends so
the beam is fixed at both ends. Hence the support is a fixed support.
6. For a simply supported beam, the moment at the support is always __________
a) Maximum
b) Zero
c) Minimum
d) Cannot be determined
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As the moment is a product of force and perpendicular distance, the flexural
moment at the support is zero because there is no distance at the support.
7. “Hinged support offers resistance against rotation”.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A hinged support offers resistance against horizontal and vertical movement but not
against rotation. It support offers a vertical and horizontal reaction only.
8. Find the reaction at simple support A?
a) 6.5 kN
b) 9 kN
c) 10 kN
d) 7.5 kN
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Total load = 10 kN
Taking moment at A = 0
4 × R @ B – 10 = 0
R @ B = 2.5 kN
Reaction at A = 10 – 2.5 = 7.5kN.
9. Roller support is same as _____

a) Hinged support
b) Fixed support
c) Simply support
d) Roller support
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The support reaction is normal to the axis of the beam. It facilitates the vertical
support. It helps the beam to overcome the temperature stresses effectively. It is similar to simple
support.
10. Hinged supports offers vertical and ________ reaction.

a) Horizontal
b) Moment
c) Rotation
d) Couple
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A hinged support offers a vertical and horizontal reaction. The pin jointed support
offers resistance against horizontal and vertical movements but not against rotation movement
1. Which of these is the correct way of sign convention for shear force?
a) R U P
b) L U P
c) R U N
d) L D P
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: According to the theoretical approach, there are many sign conventions to follow
but the standard one is “right upwards negative” the sign convention is thoroughly followed
unanimously.
2. At hinge, the moments will be _________

a) Maximum
b) Minimum
c) Uniform
d) Zero
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: At the support of a member, there is no distance prevailing to take the upcoming
load. As we know the moment is a product of force and perpendicular distance, but at hinge (end
support) the distance is zero. Hence the moment developed is zero.
3. What is variation in SFD, if the type of loading in the simply supported beam is U.D.L is ____
a) Rectangle
b) Linear
c) Trapezoidal
d) Parabolic
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The shear force is defined as the algebraic sum of all the forces taken from any one
of the section. If you figure out the SFD for a simply supported beam carrying U.D.L throughout
its entire length, in the SFD we can observe that shear force is same at supports. In the centre, the
shear force is zero. Hence the diagram varies linearly.
4. The rate of change of shear force is equal to _____
a) Direction of load
b) Change in BMD
c) Intensity of loading
d) Maximum bending
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Consider a simply supported beam subjected to udl for the entire span considered a
free body diagram of small portion of elemental length dx.
Let the shear force at left of the section is = F

Let the increase in shear force in length of the dx = dF
Let the Indian city of load on this part of the beam = w
Total downward load in this elemental length = wdx
€V = 0
dF = -wdx
dF/dx = -w
This rate of change of shear force at any section is equal to the intensity of loading at that
section.
5. The shear force in a beam subjected to pure positive bending is _____

a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Zero
d) Cannot determine
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In the determination of shear force and bending moment diagrams it is clear that
shear force changes its sign when the bending moment in a beam is maximum and the shear
force in a beam subjected to pure positive bending will be zero as the neutralizing effect comes
under.
6. In SFD, vertical lines are for ______

a) Point loads
b) UDL
c) UVL
d) LDP
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Shear Force diagram started from left side of the m as per the load. For point loads
draw vertical lines and under UDL draw slope lines.
7. A cantilever beam loaded with udl throughout, the maximum shear force occurs at____
a) Free end
b) Fixed end
c) At centre
d) At point of contraflexure
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In a case of a cantilever beam subjected to udl, at the free end there will be zero
shear force because, we need to convert udl to load by multiplying with distance. Hence at the
fixed end the shear force is w×l i.e (maximum).
8. A simply supported beam of span 1 m carries a point load “w” in centre determine the shear
force in the half left of the beam.
a) W/3
b) W/4
c) W/2
d) W
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Let the two ends of the beam be A and B, the given load on a beam is symmetrical
hence RA = RB= W/2. SFD at any section in the left of the beam is equal to the W/2. SFDat any
section in the right half of the beam is equal to -W/2.
9. At the Point of contraflexure, what is the value of bending moment?

a) one
b) zero
c) three
d) infinity
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Point of contraflexure in a beam is a point at which bending moment changes its
sign from positive to negative and vice versa. At the point of contraflexure, the value of bending
moment is zero.
10. When SF is zero, the bending moment is _____

a) Zero
b) Maximum
c) Very difficult to say
d) Minimum
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When is shear force changes its sign, the bending moment in a beam will be either
maximum positive or maximum negative. This is because of the sign convention adopted.
1. A cantilever beam subjected to point load at its free end, the maximum bending moment
develops at the ________ of the beam.
a) Free end
b) Fixed end
c) Centre
d) Point of inflection
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As the moment is the product of perpendicular distance and force. In cantilever
beam, at its free end the moment will be zero as there is no distance, but at the fixed end the
moment is maximum that is W×l.
2. Bending moment in a beam is maximum when the _________

a) Shear force is minimum
b) Shear force is maximum
c) Shear force is zero
d) Shear force is constant
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The maximum bending moment occurs in a beam, when the shear force at that
section is zero or changes the sign because at point of contra flexure the bending moment is zero.
3. Positive bending moment is known as _______

a) Hogging
b) Sagging
c) Ragging
d) Inflection
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The positive bending moment in a section is considered because it causes convexity
downwards. Such bending moment is called a sagging bending moment or positive bending
moment.
4. A simply supported beam of span “x” meters carries a udl of “w” per unit length over the
entire span, the maximum bending moment occurs at _____
a) At point of contra flexure
b) Centre
c) End supports
d) Anywhere on the beam
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As we know that BM occurs at center. Because at supports the moment is obviously
zero.
At the centre, maximum bending moment is wl2/8.
5. The maximum BM is ______

a) 40 kNm
b) 50 kNm
c) 90 kNm
d) 75 kNm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Above diagram depicts cantilever beam subjected to point load at the free end. The
maximum bending moment at A is W × I
= 30 × 3
= 90 kNm.
6. Bending moment can be denoted by ____

a) K
b) M
c) N
d) F
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Bending moment is the product of force and perpendicular distance. Units are kNm
It is denoted by “M”. Whereas SF is denoted by “F”.
7. Number of points of contra flexure for a double over hanging beam.
a) 3
b) 2
c) 4
d) Infinite
View Answer
Answer: b
sign from positive to negative and vice versa. In the case of overhanging beam, there will be two
points of contraflexure.
8. Maximum bending moment in a cantilever beam subjected to udl (w)over the entire span (l).
a) wl
b) wl3
c) wl2
d) w
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In a cantilever beam the maximum bending moment occurs at the fixed end.
Moment at the free end is 0 and maximum at the fixed end. Maximum shear force is w×l.
9. Determine the maximum bending moment for the below figure.
a) wl/2
b) wl/3
c) wl/4
d) wl
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: First of all, let’s assume the length between end supports be ”l” the maximum
bending moment in a simply supported beam with point load at its centre is wl/4. We know that
in simply supported beam the maximum bending moment occurs at the centre only.
10. What is the variation in the BM, if the simply supported beam carries a point load at the
centre.
a) Triangular
b) Rectangular
c) Trapezoidal
d) Other quadrilateral
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: For simply supported beam with point load at the centre, the maximum bending
moment will be at the centre i.e. wl/4. The variation in bending moment is triangular.
1. What is the bending moment at end supports of a simply supported beam?

a) Maximum
b) Minimum
c) Zero
d) Uniform
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: At the end supports, the moment (couple) developed is zero, because there is no
distance to take the perpendicular acting load. As the distance is zero, the moment is obviously
zero.
2. What is the maximum shear force, when a cantilever beam is loaded with udl throughout?
a) w×l
b) w
c) w/l
d) w+l
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In cantilever beams, the maximum shear force occurs at the fixed end. In the free
end, there is zero shear force. As we need to convert the udl in to load, we multiply the length of
the cantilever beam with udl acting upon. For maximum shear force to obtain we ought to
multiply load and distance and it surely occurs at the fixed end (w×l).
3. Sagging, the bending moment occurs at the _____ of the beam.
a) At supports
b) Mid span
c) Point of contraflexure
d) Point of emergence
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The positive bending moment is considered when it causes convexity downward or
concavity at top. This is sagging. In simply supported beams, it occurs at mid span because the
bending moment at the supports obviously will be zero hence the positive bending moment
occurs in the mid span.
4. What will be the variation in BMD for the diagram? [Assume l = 2m].
a) Rectangular
b) Trapezoidal
c) Triangular
d) Square
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: At support B, the BM is zero. The beam undergoes maximum BM at fixed end.
By joining the base line, free end and maximum BM point. We obtain a right angled triangle.
5. What is the maximum bending moment for simply supported beam carrying a point load “W”
kN at its centre?
a) W kNm
b) W/m kNm
c) W×l kNm
d) W×l/4 kNm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: We know that in simply supported beams the maximum BM occurs at the central
span.
Moment at A = Moment at B = 0
Moment at C = W/2 × l/2 = Wl/ 4 kNm (Sagging).
6. How do point loads and udl be represented in SFD?

a) Simple lines and curved lines
b) Curved lines and inclined lines
c) Simple lines and inclined lines
d) Cant represent any more
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: According to BIS, the standard symbols used for sketching SFD are
Point load = ———–
Udl load = \
7. ________ curve is formed due to bending of over hanging beams.

a) Elastic
b) Plastic
c) Flexural
d) Axial
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The line to which the longitudinal axis of a beam bends or deflects or deviates
under given load is known as elastic curve on deflection curve. Elastic curve can also be known
as elastic line or elastic axis.
8. The relation between slope and maximum bending moment is _________

a) Directly proportion
b) Inversely proportion
c) Relative proportion
d) Mutual incidence
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The relationship between slope and maximum bending moment is inversely
proportional because, For example in simply supported beams slope is maximum at supports and
zero at midspan of a symmetrically loaded beam where as bending moment is zero at supports
and maximum at mid span. Hence we conclude that slope and maximum bending moment are
inversely proportional to each other in a case of the simply supported beam.
9. What is the SF at support B?
a) 5 kN
b) 3 kN
c) 2 kN
d) 0 kN
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Total load = 2×2 = 4kN
Shear force at A = 4 kN ( same between A and C )
Shear force at C = 4 kN
Shear force at B = 0 kN
Maximum SF at A = 4 kN.
10. Where do the maximum BM occurs for the below diagram.
a) -54 kNm
b) -92 kNm
c) -105 kNm
d) – 65 kNm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Moment at B = 0
Moment at C = – (10 × 3) × (3/2)
= – 45 kNm
Moment at A = – (10 × 3) × (1.5 + 2 )
Maximum BM at A = – 105 kNm
= 105 Nm (hogging).
1. In simple bending, ______ is constant.

a) Shear force
b) Loading
c) Deformation
d) Bending moment
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: If a beam is undergone with simple bending, the beam deforms under the action of
bending moment. If this bending moment is constant and does not affect by any shear force, then
the beam is in state of simple bending.
2. If a beam is subjected to pure bending, then the deformation of the beam is_____
a) Arc of circle
b) Triangular
c) Trapezoidal
d) Rectangular
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The beam being subjected to pure bending, there will be only bending moment and
no shear force it results in the formation of an arc of circle with some radius known as radius of
curvature.
3. When a beam is subjected to simple bending, ____________ is the same in both tension and
compression for the material.
a) Modulus of rigidity
b) Modulus of elasticity
d) Modulus of section
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It is one of the most important assumptions made in the theory of simple bending
that is the modulus of elasticity that is Young’s modulus [E] is same in both tension and
compression for the material and the stress in a beam do not exceed the elastic limit.
4. E/R = M/I = f/y is a bending equation.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The above-mentioned equation is absolutely correct.
E/R = M/I = f/y is a bending equation. It is also known as flexure equation (or) equation for
theory of simple bending.
Where,
E stands for Young’s modulus or modulus of elasticity.
R stands for radius of curvature.
M stands for bending moment
I stand for moment of inertia
f stands for bending stress
y stands for neutral axis.
5. Maximum Shearing stress in a beam is at _____

a) Neutral axis
b) Extreme fibres
c) Mid span
d) Action of loading
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Shearing stress is defined as the resistance offered by the internal stress to the shear
force. Shearing stress in a beam is maximum at a neutral axis.
6. At the neutral axis, bending stress is _____

a) Minimum
b) Maximum
c) Zero
d) Constant
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Neutral axis is defined as a line of intersection of neutral plane or neutral layer on a
cross section at the neutral axis of that section. At the NA, bending stress or bending strain is
zero. The first moment of area of a beam section about neutral axis is also zero. The layer of
neutral axis neither contracts nor extends.
7. Curvature of the beam is __________ to bending moment.

a) Equal
b) Directly proportion
c) Inversely proportion
d) Coincides
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: From the flexural equation, we have 1/R is called as the “curvature of the beam”.
1 / R = M / EI
Hence the curvature of the beam is directly proportional to bending moment and inversely
proportional to flexural rigidity (EI).
8. What are the units of flexural rigidity?

a) Nm2
b) Nm
c) N/m
d) m/N3
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The product of young’s modulus (E) of the material and moment of inertia (I) of the
beam section about its neutral axis is called flexural rigidity.
Units for E are N/m2
Units for I are m4
Their product is Nm2.
9. What are the units for section modulus?

a) m2
b) m4
c) m3
d) m
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The ratio of moment of inertia to the distance to the extreme fibre is called modulus
of section or section modulus. It is generally denoted by the letter Z. Section modulus is
expressed in m3
Z = I/y
= m4/ m
= m3.
10. What are the units of axial stiffness?

a) m3
b) m2
c) N/ m
d) -m
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Axial rigidity is a product of young’s modulus (E) and the cross-sectional area (A)
of that section. Axial rigidity per unit length is known as axial stiffness the si units of axial
stiffness are Newton per metre (N/m).
11. Calculate the modulus of section of rectangle beam of size 240 mm × 400 mm.
a) 5.4 × 106 mm3
b) 6.2 × 106 mm3
c) 5.5 × 106 mm3
d) 6.4 × 106 mm3
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: b = 240 mm & d = 400 mm
Moment of inertia (I) = bd3/12; y = d/2
Section modulus (Z) = I/y = bd2/ 6
= 1/6 × 240 × 400 ×400
= 6.4 × 106 mm3.
12. What is the product of force and radius?

a) Twisting shear
b) Turning shear
c) Turning moment
d) Tilting moment
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Twisting moment will be equal to the product of the perpendicular force and
existing radius. Denoted by letter T and SI units are Nm.
13. Determine section modulus for beam of 100mm diameter.
a) 785 × 103 mm3

b) 456 × 103 mm3
c) 87 × 103 mm3
d) 98 × 103 mm3
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: d = 300mm
For circular sections; I = π / 64 × d4
y= d/2
Z = π/32 × d3 (d = 100 mm)
Z = 98.17 × 103mm3.
1. In simply supported beams, the _____ stress distribution is not uniform.

a) Bending
b) Shearing
c) Tensile
d) Compressive
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In a simply supported beam, there is compressive stress above the neutral axis and
tensile stress below it. It bends with concavity upwards. Hence the bending stress distribution is
not uniform over the section.
2. The maximum _________ stresses occur at top most fibre of a simply supported beam.
a) Tensile
b) Compressive
c) Shear
d) Bending
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As bending stress distribution is not uniform over the section in simply supported
beams, the maximum compressive stress lies above the neutral axis. Obviously, top most fibre of
beam. The maximum tensile stress occurs at bottom most fibre.
3. The stress is directly proportional to _______

a) E
b) u
c) y
d) R
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: By two equations; we have e = y/R & e = f/E
Equating both equations; we get e = f/E = y/R
Hence stress (f) is directly proportional to the distance from neutral axis(y).
4. At the extreme fibre, bending stress is______

a) Minimum
b) Zero
c) Constant
d) Maximum
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Bending stress is defined as the resistance offered by internal stress to bending. In
beams, stresses occurs above or below the neutral axis i.e at the extreme fibres. Hence bending
stress is maximum at the extreme fibres.
5. The curvature of a beam is equal to _____

a) EI/M
b) M/E
c) M/EI
d) E/MI
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: From the bending equation, E/R = M/I = f/y.
Where R is called “radius of curvature “
1/R is called “curvature of the beam “.
So, 1/R = M/EI.
So curvature of the beam is directly proportional to bending moment.
6. Skin stress is also called as ______

a) Shear stress
b) Bending stress
c) Lateral stress
d) Temperature stress
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The bending moment leads to deform or deflect the beam and internal stress resists
bending. The resistance offered by internal stress to bending is called bending stress or “fibre
stress” or “skin stress” or “longitudinal stress”.
7. _________ is the total Strain energy stored in a body.

a) modulus of resilience
b) impact energy
c) resilience
d) proof resilience
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: When a load acts on a body, there is deformation of the body which causes
movement of the applied load. Thus work is done is stored in the body as energy and the load is
removed this stored energy which is by virtue of strain is called resilience.
8. In cantilever beams, there is _______ stress above neutral axis.

a) Compressive
b) Tensile
c) Temperature
d) Shear
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In a cantilever beam maximum compressive stress occurs at bottom most fibre and
maximum tensile stress occurs at the top most fibre and zero at neutral axis hence the tensile
stresses lies above the neutral axis.
9. The product of modulus of elasticity (E) and polar moment of inertia (J) is called torsional
rigidity.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The product of the modulus of rigidity (C) and polar moment of inertia (J) is called
torsional rigidity and it produces a twist of one radian in a shaft of unit length.
10. Calculate the maximum stress due to Bending in a steel strip of 30 mm thick and 60 mm
wide is bent around a circular drum of 3.6 m diameter [Take Young’s modulus = 200kN/m2].
a) 2341.76 N/mm2
b) 1666.67 N/mm2
c) 5411.76 N/mm2
d) 4666.67 N/mm2
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Thickness of steel strip = 30 mm; b = 60 mm; d = 3.6m
R = 3.6/2 = 1.8 m
E = 200 kN/m2
y = 30/2 = 15 mm
E/R = f/y ; f = 200000×15/1800
= 1666.67 N/mm2.
11. The strength of beams depend merely on________

a) Modulus section
b) Moment of inertia
c) Flexural rigidity
d) Moment of resistance
View Answer
Answer: a
of section. The Beam is stronger when section modulus is more. The strength of beam depends
on section modulus. The beams of same strength mean section modulus is same for the beams.
12. The steel plate is bent into a circular path of radius 10 metres. If the plate section be 120 mm
wide and 20 mm thick, then calculate the maximum bending stress. [Consider Young’s modulus
= 200000 N/mm2].
a) 350 N/mm2
b) 400 N/mm2
c) 200 N/mm2
d) 500 N/mm2
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: R = 10000 mm; y = 20/2 = 10 mm; E = 200000 N/mm2
By bending equation we have E/R = f/y
f = 200000×10 / 10000
= 200 N/mm2.
1. What is the section modulus (Z) for a rectangular section?

a) bd2/6
b) a3/6
c) BD3-bd3
d) D4-d4
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The modulus of section may be defined as the ratio of moment of inertia to the
distance to the extreme fibre. It is denoted by Z.
Z= I/y ; For rectangular section, I = bd3/12 & y = d/2.
Z= bd2/6.
2. Find the modulus of section of square beam of size 300×300 mm.
a) 4.8 × 106 mm3

b) 4.5 × 106 mm3
c) 5.6 × 106 mm3
d) 4.2 × 106 mm3
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Here, a = side of square section = 300 mm.
I = a4/12. y= a/2.
Z = I/y = a3/6
= 3003/6
= 4.5 × 106 mm3.
3. _________ of a beam is a measure of its resistance against deflection.

a) Strength
b) Stiffness
c) Deflection
d) Slope
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A beam is said to be a strength when the maximum induced bending and shear
stresses are within the safe permissible stresses stiffness of a beam is a measure of its resistance
against deflection.
4. To what radius an Aluminium strip 300 mm wide and 40mm thick can be bent, if the
maximum stress in a strip is not to exceed 40 N/mm2. Take young’s modulus for Aluminium is
7×105 N/mm2.
a) 45m
b) 52m
c) 35m
d) 65m
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Here, b = 300mm
d= 40mm. y= 20mm.
From the relation; E/R = f/y
R= E×y/f
=70×103 × 20 / 40
= 35m.
5. The bending stress in a beam is ______ to bending moment.

a) Less than
b) Directly proportionate
c) More than
d) Equal
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As we know, the bending stress is equal to bending moment per area. Hence, as the
bending (flexure) moment increases/decreases the same is noticed in the bending stress too.
6. The Poisson’s ratio for concrete is __________

a) 0.4
b) 0.35
c) 0.12
d) 0.2
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The ratio of lateral strain to the corresponding longitudinal strain is called Poisson’s
ratio. The value of poisons ratio for elastic materials usually lies between 0.25 and 0.33 and in no
case exceeds 0.5. The Poisson’s ratio for concrete is 0.20.
7. The term “Tenacity” means __________

a) Working stress
b) Ultimate stress
c) Bulk modulus
d) Shear modulus
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The ultimate stress of a material is the greatest load required to fracture the material
divided by the area of the original cross section in the point of fracture The ultimate stress is also
known as tenacity.
8. A steel rod of 25 mm diameter and 600 mm long is subjected to an axial pull of 40000. The
intensity of stress is?
a) 34.64 N/mm2
b) 46.22 N/mm2
c) 76.54 N/mm2
d) 81.49 N/mm2
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Cross sectional area of steel rod [Circular]be 490.87 mm2.
The intensity of stress = P/A = 40000/490.87
= 81.49 N/mm2.
9. The bending strain is zero at _______

a) Point of contraflexure
b) Neutral axis
c) Curvature
d) Line of action of loading
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The neutral axis is a line of intersection of neutral plane or neutral layer on a cross
section. The neutral axis of a beam passes through the centroid of the section. At the neutral axis
bending stress and bending strain is zero.
10. Strength of the beam depends only on the cross section.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The strength of two beams of the same material can be compared by the section
modulus values. The strength of beam depends on the material, size and shape of cross section.
The beam is stronger when section modulus is more, strength of the beam depends on Z.
1. The moment which resists the external bending is called ______

a) Moment of shear
b) Tolerating moment
c) Moment of resistance
d) Maximum bending moment
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The tensile and compressive stresses developed in the beam section from a couple
whose moment is equal to the external bending moment. The moment of this couple which
resists the external bending is known as moment of resistance [MR].
2. ______ strength is caused by a moment of resistance offered by a section.

a) Shear
b) Flexural
c) Axial
d) Longitudinal
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The moment of couple with resists action of bending moment is a moment of
resistance and the flexural strength possessed by section is the moment of resistance offered by
it.
3. A Steel rod 200 mm diameter is to be bent into a circular arc section. Find radius of curvature.
Take f = 120N/mm2 & E = 2×105 N/mm2.
a) 134m
b) 166m
c) 162m
d) 174m
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Diameter of Steel rod = 200mm; y = d/2 = 100mm.
f= 120N/mm2.
E= 2×105N/mm2.
By flexural equation we have f/y = E/R
R = 2×105/ 120 ×100
= 166.6m.
4. The hoop stress is also known as ______

a) Parametrical stress
b) Surface stress
c) Circumferential stress
d) Lateral stress
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The stress which is developed in the walls of the cylinder due to internal fluid
pressure and which acts tangential to the circumference is called hoop stress or circumferential
stress.
Total pressure = p × A.
5. The ____ of strongest beam that can be cut out of a circular section of diameter D.
a) Load
b) Size
c) material
d) cross section
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The size of the strongest Beam that can be cut out of a circular section of diameter
D is
Depth; d = Square root of 2/3

b = D / square root of 3.
Among the given sections for the same depth I section gives maximum strength.
6. The moment resisting capacity of the cross section of a beam is termed as ______ of the beam.
a) Stiffness
b) Strength
c) Modulus
d) Inertia
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The moment resisting capacity of the cross section of a beam is termed as the
strength of the beam. The bending stress is maximum at the extreme fibres of the cross section.
The strength of the two beams of same material can be compared by the sectional modulus
values.
7. Find the moment of resistance of rectangular beam off grid to 40 mm depth 400 mm if the
bending stress is 15 N/mm2.
a) 78 kNm
b) 84 kNm
c) 96 kNm
d) 132 kNm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Moment of resistance (MR) = Z × f
= bd2 / 6 × 15
= 96 ×106 Nmm.
8. A rectangular beam 100 mm wide is subjected to a maximum shear force and 50 kN. Find the
depth of the beam.
a) 350 mm
b) 185 mm
c) 200 mm
d) 250 mm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Let the depth of the beam be d
Maximum shear stress = 3/2 (Average Shear stress)
d= 3×5000/ 3×2×100.
9. What is the approximate value of coefficient of linear expansion for steel?

a) 13 × 10-66 /°C
b) 11.5 × 10-6 /°C
c) 12 × 10-6 /°C
d) 16 × 10-6 /°C
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The increase in length of body per unit rise of temperature in original name is
termed as coefficient of linear expansion and it is denoted by Greek letter alpha. Coefficient of
linear expansion for steel is 11.5 × 10-6 /°C. For copper it is 17 × 10-6 /°C.
10. A hollow shaft has outside diameter 120 mm and thickness 20 mm. Find the polar moment of
inertia (J).
a) 16.36 × 106 mm4
b) 14.65 × 106 mm4
c) 10.32 × 106 mm4
d) 23.18 × 106 mm4
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: D = 120mm
t= 20mm & d = D – 2t = 80mm.
Polar moment of inertia (J) is π/32 ×[ D4– d4].
π/32 × [ 1204– 804 ].
16.36 × 106 mm4.
1. Unsymmetrical bending occurs due to ______

a) The Beam cross section is unsymmetrical
b) The shear Centre does not coincide with the neutral axis
c) The Beam is subjected to trust in addition to bending moment
d) The bending moment diagram is unsymmetrical
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: If the bending moment diagram of a beam seems to unsymmetrical, then with
respect to that diagram, the bending is said to be unsymmetrical bending.
2. A body having similar properties throughout its volume is said to be _____________

a) Isotropic
b) Homogeneous
c) Continuous
d) Uniform
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A body having similar properties throughout its volume is said to be
“homogeneous” and the material which exhibits the same elastic properties in all directions is
called “isotropic”.
3. Principal plane has ____________

a) Maximum shear stress
b) Maximum tensile stress
c) Zero shear stress
d) Minimum bending stress
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Principal stress is a magnitude of direct stress, across a principal plane which is a
particular plane having no shear stress at all.
4. Calculate the Strain energy that can be stored in a body to be pulled with 100 N/mm2 stress (f)
and E = 2×105 N/mm2.
a) 0.9 kNm
b) 0.05kNm
c) 0.87kNm
d) 0.54kNm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Strain energy stored in the body be “U” = f2/ 2 E × Volume.
= 1002/ 2×2×105
= 0.05 kNm.
5. Materials exhibiting time bound behaviour are known as _______

a) Isentropic
b) Reactive
c) Fissile
d) Visco elastic
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Materials exhibiting time bound behaviour popularly known as visco elastic and if
a body having similar properties throughout its volume it is known as homogeneous and
according to one assumption, the concrete is considered to be homogeneous material.
6. What are the units of true strain?
a) Kg/m2
b) Kg/ m3
c) No dimensions
d) N/mm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: As we know strain is the ratio of change in dimension to the original dimension. It
is denoted by “e”. Metres/metres hence no dimensions.
7. Revert size is generally expressed in terms of _______

a) Shank width
b) Girder length
c) Lap length
d) Shank diameter
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Rivets are ductile metal pins of often used for joining structure members as in case
of trusses, stanchions plate girders, cylindrical shells etc. The distance between two heads is
known as shank and rivet size is generally expressed in terms of shank diameter.
8. ________ joints are necessary to keep a structure safe against shrinkage.

a) Construction
b) Functional
c) Transverse
d) Longitudinal
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Functional joints are necessary to keep the structures safe against shrinkage,
expansion sliding and warping of concrete. These types of joints are made by forming
continuous breaks in large continuous areas of structures at suitable distance apart. The joints or
breaks may be 6 to 38 mm wide.
9. The specific gravity of sand is __________

a) 2.8
b) 2.25
c) 3.2
d) 2.65
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The specific gravity of sand is 2.65.
Materials Specific gravity
Trap 2.9
Gravel 2.66
Granite 2.8
Sand 2.65
10. To what radius a silver strip 200 mm wide and 40 mm thick can be bent if the maximum
stress in the ship is 80 N/mm2. Young’s modulus for Silver is 80×103 N/mm2.
a) 20m
b) 30m
c) 15m
d) 35m
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Here, b = 200 mm; d = 40mm
y = 40/2 = 20 mm
f = 80N/mm2
R = E×y / f
= 80000×20 / 80
= 20000mm = 20m.
1. In flitched beams ______ remains same for both materials.

a) Stress
b) Strain
c) Section modulus
d) Young’s modulus
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Due to bending, the strain will be same in both the materials.
A timber beam strengthened by steel strips.

Where E of timber / E of steel = m
The equivalent width = b + 2mt.
2. What is the moment due to dead load in case of continuous beams at the middle of interior
spans?
a) w L3 / 12
b) w L2/ 14
c) w 3/ 20
d) w L2 / 24
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The moment due to dead load in case of continuous beams at the middle of interior
spans is w L2 / 24.
Position Moment due to dead load
Near middle of end span W L2/ 12
At the middle of interior span W L2/ 24
At the support next to and support -W L2/ 22
3. A continuous beam is one which is _______

a) Infinitely long
b) Supported at two points
c) Supported it more than two supports
d) Supported by a prop
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A beam which is supported by more than two supports is known as a continuous
beam. In this beam, bending moment is low and hence the deflection in the beam is also
comparatively less. This beam is stiffer when compared to the other traditional beams.
4. The effective length of column depends upon ________

a) the cross section of beam
b) end conditions
c) maximum bending moment
d) extreme fibres
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The effective length of column depends upon end conditions.
End condition Effective length
Both ends hinged L
Both ends fixed L/2
One end is fixed and other end free 2L
5. The phenomenon under which the strain of material varies under constant stress is known as
________
a) Creep
b) Hysteresis
c) Viscoelasticity
d) Strain hardening
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A creep is a plastic deformation underweight the strain of material where is under
constant stress this is one of the mechanical properties of the engineering materials. The best
example is the failure of concrete.
6. Volumetric strain = 3× _____ strain.

a) Lateral
b) Linear
c) Composite
d) Yield
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: eV (volumetric strain) = 3× linear strain = 3×e
The volumetric strain is algebraic sum of all the linear(or) axial strain when a solid to be
subjected to equal normal sources of the same type of all faces we will have €x, €y and €z equal
in value. In this case the volumetric strain will be 3 times the linear strain in any of the three
axes.
7. The stress corresponding to breaking point is known as _____________

a) yield stress
b) ultimate stress
c) breaking stress
d) normal stress
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: After reaching ultimate stress, the stress strain curve suddenly falls with rapid
increase in strain and specimen breaks. The stress corresponding to breaking point is known as
breaking stress and it is denoted by G.
8. Determine the yield stress of a steel rod 20 mm diameter, if the yield load on the steel rod is
88kN.
a) 240.55 N/mm2
b) 280.25 N/mm2
c) 325 N/mm2
d) 290.45 N/mm2
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Initial area of the Steel rod of 20 mm = 314 mm2 [area of circle] Yield stress =
yield load/ Area
= 88 × 103/ 314
= 280.25 N/mm2.
9. What is the elongation percentage of a steel rod of 50 mm diameter if the total extension is is
54 mm and gauge length is 200 mm.
a) 27%
b) 23%
c) 43%
d) 35%
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Percentage elongation = Total extension / Gauge length × 100
= 54/200 × 100
= 27%.
10. __________ joints are provided when there is a break in the concreting operation.
a) transverse joints
b) longitudinal joints
c) construction joints
d) warpage joints
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The construction joints are provided when there is a break in a concreting
operation. Although the effort is always made to complete the concrete work in one day,
sometimes it is not possible and therefore, construction joints are provided. For beams, the joints
should be at the centre of the span or within the middle third.
1. Bond stress for M20 grade concrete in tension is ____________

a) 1.4
b) 1.2
c) 1.5
d) 1.8
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Bond stress is the shear stress acting parallel to the bar on the interface between the
reinforcing bar and the surrounding concrete. Hence it is the stress developed between the
contact surface of Steel and concrete to keep them together. The value of M20 designs Bond
stress is 1.2 in tension.
2. The formation of diagonal cracks at junctions is due to ________

a) Shear stress
b) Bond stress
c) Temperature stress
d) Lateral stress
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Bending is usually accompanied by shear. The combination of shear and bending
stresses produces the principle stresses which causes diagonal tension in the beam section. This
should be resisted by providing shear reinforcement in the form of vertical stirrups (or) bent up
bars along with stirrups.
3. Calculate the factored bending moment of a rectangular reinforced concrete beam of effective
span 4300 mm and load imposed 37.5 kN/m.
a) 100kNm
b) 127kNm
c) 130kNm
d) 145kNm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Factored load (w) = 1.5×37.5 = 56.25 kN/m.
Factored bending moment for simply supported beam (M) = wl2/ 8. = 56.25×(4.3)2/ 8 = 130kNm.
4. Determine the limiting percentage of steel for singly reinforced sections of M20 grade &
Fe415.
a) 0.68
b) 0.79
c) 0.96
d) 1.76
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The limiting percentage of steel for singly reinforced sections of M20 grade &
Fe415 is 0.96.
Grade of concrete Limiting percentage of tensile Steel for a Fe415
M15 0.72
M20 0.96
M25 1.19
5. Calculate the limiting depth of the neutral axis for mild steel of effective depth 400 mm.
a) 318mm
b) 212mm
c) 455mm
d) 656mm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The limiting depth of neutral axis Fe 250 steel is
Xu (max) = 0.53 × d ( for Fe250)
= 0.53 × 400
= 212mm.
6. Lap splices should not be used for bars larger than _____ mm.
a) 45mm
b) 54mm
c) 36mm
d) 72mm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Splices are provided when the length of the bar is less than that required. The
splicing of reinforcement is provided either by lap joint or mechanical joint or welded Joint. Lap
splices should not be used for bars larger than 36 mm for larger diameter, bars may be welded.
7. Anchorage value for “U” hook is ________

a) 16 × diameter of bar
b) 12 × diameter of bar
c) 10 × diameter of bar
d) 8 × diameter of bar
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Anchorage value for “U” hook is 16 × diameter of bar.
Type of Hook / Bend in degrees Anchorage Value
U hook 16 × diameter of bar
45 bend 4 × diameter of bar
8. The standard __________ are provided in deformed bars.

a) Anglets
b) Bends
c) Fillets
d) Lugs
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In situations, where straight anchorage length cannot be provided due to lack of
space. To improve the anchorage of bars, standard bends are provided in deformed bars.
9. Transverse bars are also called as _________
a) Main bars
b) Anchor bars
c) Distribution bars
d) Stirrups
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In addition to main bars, along the shorter direction provided at the bottom,
minimum reinforcement along the longer span and are also provided on top of the main bars and
at right angles to them. These are called distribution bars are transverse bars.
10. A slab supporting only in two edges opposite to each other is ______
a) Two way slab
b) One way slab
c) Continuous slab
d) Cantilever slab
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: If the ratio of the longest span the shorter span is greater than 2 or A slab
supporting only in two edges (opposite to each other) is called one way slab. This slab spans
across shorter span practically.
11. Torsion reinforcement is provided in ___________ slab

a) One way slab
b) Two way slab
c) Simply supported slab
d) Cantilever slab
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A slab supporting on all four edges is known as two way slab. In this slab, the ratio
of longest span to the shorter span is less than 2. It requires torsional reinforcement because
there’s a chance of twisting at corners.
12. Generally in residential buildings, the width of stay is kept as ____________

a) 2m
b) 1m
c) 5m
d) 4m
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The stair consists of series of steps with landings at appropriate intervals. The width
of stair depends upon the type of building in which it is provided. Generally, in residential
buildings, the width of stair is 1 m.
13. As per IS 456:2000; the slope or pitch of stairs should be in between 25 ° to ___________
a) 45°
b) 90°
c) 40°
d) 120°
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Each step has one tread and one rise. As per IRC, the tread is in between 250mm to
300 mm. The slope or pitch of the stairs should be in between 25° to 40°.
14. When space is less, the ___________ staircases is much preferred.

a) Open well
b) Dog legged
c) Spiral stair
d) Circular
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The most common type of Stairs arranged with two adjacent flights running parallel
with mid landing. Where the space is less, dog legged staircase is generally provided resulting in
economical utilisation of available place.
15. The ______________ of a column is the distance between the points of zero bending
moments.
a) Slenderness ratio
b) Eccentricity
c) Radius of gyration
d) Effective length
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Effective length of a column is the distance between the points of zero bending
moments (point of contra flexure) of a buckled column the effective length of the column
depends upon the unsupported length and the end conditions
1. Eccentrically loaded structures have to be designed for _______

a) Uniaxial force
b) Biaxial force
c) Combined axial force
d) Combined biaxial force
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: When the line of action of the resultant compressive force doesn’t coincide with the
centre of gravity of the cross section of the structure, it is called eccentrically loaded structure.
They have to be designed for combined axial force.
2. ______ transfer the loads from beams or slabs to footings or foundations.

a) Pedestal
b) Post
c) Rib
d) Column
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A vertical member whose effective length is greater than 3 times its least lateral
dimension carrying compressive loads is called a column. The main function of column is to
transfer the loads from the beams or slabs to the footings or foundation.
3. In long columns, the lateral deflection causes at the ______

a) Supports
b) Throughout
c) Midspan
d) Along outer periphery
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A long column under the action of axial loads deflects laterally causing maximum
deflection at the centre. A long column fails due to buckling.
4. Short columns causes deflection in the structure.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: If the ratio of the effective length of the column to the least lateral dimension is less
than 12. The column is called a short column. It fails by crushing (pure compression failure) and
there is no chance of causing deflections.
5. The approximate percentage of reinforcement provided in a beam varies from _______

a) 1-2%
b) 1-4%
c) 2-3%
d) 3-4%
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The approximate percentage of reinforcement provided in a beam varies from 1-
2%.
Type of Structure Approx. % of Steel
Beam 1-2%
Slabs 0.7-1%
Columns 1-4%
6. To avoid the failure of a column by buckling ___________ limits are to be recommended.

a) Slenderness
b) Effective length
c) Kernel
d) Radius of gyration
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The column dimensions shall be such that it fails by material failure only (crushing
due to compression) and not by buckling. To avoid the failure of column buckling clause 25.3 of
IS 456 recommends the slenderness limits for the column.
7. According to IS 456- 2000, the minimum eccentricity subjected to a column is __________

a) 30mm
b) 20mm
c) 45mm
d) 50mm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: No column can have a perfectly axial load. There may be some moments acting due
to the imperfection of construction or due to actual conditions of loading when IS 456-2000,
recommends that all columns Shall be designed for minimum eccentricity of 20 mm.
8. Radius of gyration is denoted by _________

a) k
b) n
c) e
d) y
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The radius of gyration about a given axis is defined as the effective distance from
the given axis at which the whole area may be considered or located. It is denoted by “k” or “r”.
The units for the radius of gyration are mm.
9. Find the moment of inertia of a rectangular section of 40 mm width and 80 mm depth about
the base.
a) 632×104mm4
b) 682×104mm4
c) 734×104mm4
d) 568×104mm4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation:
Moment of inertia of the rectangular section passing through the base is bd 3/ 3.

I = bd/3
= 40×(80)3/ 3
= 682.66×104mm4.
10. Mild steel is an example of ______________ mechanical property of the material.

a) Malleability
b) Creep
c) Ductility
d) Elasticity
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Ductility is the property of a material by which material can be drawn into thin
wires after undergoing a considerable deformation without rupture. The mild steel, silver, tor
steel, aluminium etc. are considered as examples for ductility.
11. Which of the following are the relative properties of the material?
a) Creep
b) Fatigue
c) Hardness
d) Stiffness
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The hardness is the ability of a material to resist indentation (impression),
scratching or surface abrasion. It is the relative property of the material. Every material has its
own hardness number.
12. Rotating key of a lock is an example of ____________

a) Varignon’s Theory
b) Walton’s Theory
c) Formation of couple
d) Parallel axis theorem
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A set of two equal and opposite forces whose line of action is different form a
couple. The effect of couple is always to produce moment on which it acts either in clockwise or
anticlockwise directions. The example is rotating key of a lock.
13. The relative change in position is called ______________

a) Matter
b) Body
c) Inertia
d) Motion
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A body said to be in motion when it changes its position with respect to other
bodies. The relative change in position is called motion. The motion involves both space and
time.
14. Which of the following is not base unit?

a) Area
b) Length
c) Time
d) Temperature
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: If the units are expressed in other units which are derived from fundamental units,
such units are known as derived units. The examples are area, velocity, acceleration & pressure
etc.
15. According to IS 456-2000, the minimum number of longitudinal bars to be provided in

rectangular columns is ________
a) 5
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: According to IS 456-2000, the cross sectional area of longitudinal reinforcement
should not be less than 0.8% and not more than 6% of gross cross-sectional area. The minimum
diameter of longitudinal bars is 12 mm and minimum number of longitudinal bars to be provided
is 4 for a rectangular column.
1. As per IS 456-2000, the minimum eccentricity for columns shall be given by ________
a) l/500 + D/30
b) l/450 + D/45
c) l/400 + D/40
d) l/250 + D/25
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As per IS 456-2000, clause 25.4 recommends that all columns show the design for
the minimum of its eccentricity. No column will be perfectly loaded axially. There might be kind
of moment acting due to improper construction.
2. If the columns are effectively held in position and restrained against rotation at both ends.
Recommend the value of effective length.
a) 0.6×l
b) 0.65×l
c) 0.77×l
d) 0.9×l
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The effective length of column for various and conditions may be taken from IS
456 2000, for effectively held in position and restrained against rotation in both ends
recommended value of effective length is 0.65 l

[ l = unsupported length of compression member ].
3. A column in which reinforcement is wound spiral is ___________

a) Tied column
b) Spiral column
c) Composite column
d) Short column
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When the main longitudinal bars of the column are enclosed within closely spaced
and continuously wound spiral reinforcement, then the column is said to be a spiral column.
4. The inclined members carrying compressive loads are ________

a) Pedestal
b) Strut
c) Post
d) Winch
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The inclined member carries compressive loads in case of frames and trusses are
known as Struts. The Pedestal is a vertical compression member whose effective length is less
than 3 times its least lateral dimension.
5. Polygonal links are also known as _____________

a) Bent up bars
b) Crancked bars
c) Lateral ties
d) Anchorage bars
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A reinforced concrete member of compression shall have transverse or helical
reinforcement. It is either in the form of spiral rings capable of taking up tension or polygonal
links (lateral ties) placed closely and confined with main bars.
6. The pitch of the lateral ties shall not be more than the least of the ______________
a) 300mm
b) 450mm
c) 500mm
d) 550mm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As per IS 456 2000; the which of the ties shall not be more than the least of the
▪ least lateral dimension of the column
▪ sixteen times the diameter of the smallest longitudinal bar
▪ 300 mm.
7. The minimum depth of foundation in all types of soils is _________

a) 350mm
b) 680mm
c) 500mm
d) 280mm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: According to IS 1080 – 1962, the minimum depth of foundation should be not less
than 500 mm. However, if good rock is made it smaller depth, only removal of top soil may be
sufficient.
8. In T beams, the most of the compressive force is shared by __________

a) Web
b) Flange
c) Rib
d) Neutral axis
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As the slab being Monolithic with the beam is also compressed and shares the
compressive force with the flange, the depth of beam required is less and hence the maximum
deflections also less.
9. In T beams, maximum ______ is less.

a) Shear force
b) Bending moment
c) Bending stress
d) Shear stress
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In T beams, the maximum bending moment is less because of the sagging moment
is effectively resisted. The maximum deflections are also less in these beams. They are preferred
for larger spans when compared to simply supported beams.
10. In continuous beams ______ moment develops at supports.

a) Hogging
b) Sagging
c) Couple
d) Static
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When the slab beam is continuous over several supports, hogging bending moment
is induced over the support developing tension at the top surface. The continuous beams and
slabs I design for maximum bending moment and shear forces.
11. In continuous beams ______________ moments is always less than support moments.
a) Upward
b) Mid span
c) Downward
d) Sagging
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The mid span moment in continuous beams and slabs is always less than the
support moment and hence weight of the beam doesn’t affect the stresses induced.
12. Lighter materials of construction can be used for a continuous beam.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Lighter materials are preferred in construction of continuous beam because as the
bending moment developed in a continuous beam is less, the bending moment to be resisted is
also less.
13. ________ is a good example for malleability.

a) Glass
b) Concrete
c) Copper
d) Lead
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Malleability is that property of a material by which it can be beaten or rolled into
thin sheets without any rupture. The best example considered for malleability is copper. Other
materials include ornamental gold, wrought iron & ornamental silver.
14. Determine the working stress in the factor of safety is 3 and ultimate load is what 127.32N?
a) 46 N/m2
b) 55 N/m2
c) 48 N/m2
d) 42 N/m2
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: We know that working stress is the ratio of ultimate load to factor of safety
Given F.O.S = 3 & W = 127.32N
Working stress = 127.32/3
= 42.44 N/m2.
15. Volumetric strain = 3× _____________
a) Linear strain
b) Lateral strain
c) Linear stress
d) Lateral stress
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The volumetric strain is the algebraic sum of all the linear or axial strains that are
€v = €xx + €yy + €zz
The volumetric strain will be 3 times the linear strain in any of three axis and €v = 3e
Where (e = linear strain)
1. The approximate percentage of steel taken for lintels in the absence of detailed design is
_______
a) 0.6-1%
b) 0.5-0.7%
c) 0.7-1%
d) 0.8-1.2%
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: RCC work maybe in foundations, columns, lintels, beams, floor& slabs the estimate
is prepared in cubic metres. In absence of detailed design, the percentage of steel reinforcement
is taken for lentils 0.7 to 1% and foundation raft footing it is 0.5 to 0.8%.
2. Mix proportion for M20 grade mix is _________

a) 1:3:6
b) 1:1.5:3
c) 1:4:8
d) 1:5:10
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Mix proportion for M20 grade mix is 1:1.5:3.
Grade of concrete Mix proportionate
M10 1:3:6
M15 1:2:4
M20 1:1.5:3
3. The limit state corresponding to deflection, cracking and vibrations are _______
a) Limit state of collapse
b) Limit state of serviceability
c) Special limit state
d) Limit state of safety
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Limit state of serviceability refers to the ability of the structure at working loads it
is the state of limit at which the structure undergoes heavy deflection which affects the finishes
casting discomfort to the users.
4. In reinforcing of Steel bars, the end and side covers are taken as ____________ to
____________ mm.
a) 40 to 50mm
b) 30 to 45mm
c) 50 to 75mm
d) 35 to 50mm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: For reinforcement of Steel bars, the end and side covers are taken as 40 to 50 mm
and the bottom and top covers 12 to 20 mm for slab and 25 to 50 mm for beams.
5. The field capacity of a soil depends upon _____________ factor.

a) Porosity of soil
b) Soil Tension
c) Saturation capacity
d) Initial regime
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The maximum amount of water content which can be held by soil particles against
the force of gravity is called as field capacity. It is the upper limit of the capillary rise of water. It
firmly depends on the porosity of soil.
6. According to Fannings formula the flood discharge in cumecs is given by Q =

______________
a) CA2/3
b) CA3/4
c) CA5/6
d) CA7/8
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The emperical formula for flood discharge given by various scientists is
i. Dicken’s – CA3/4
ii. Rvye’s – CA2/3
iii. Fannings – CA5/6.
7. The estimate of flood can be made by using ____________
a) Arithmetical increase method
b) Geometrical increase method
c) By unit hydrograph method
d) Comparison with graph method
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The estimation of a flood can be made by
i. Flood discharge formula
ii. By physical indication of past flood
iii. By unit hydrograph.
8. In simply supported slabs, alternate bars are curtailed at ________

a) 1/7 of span
b) 1/5 of span
c) 1/3 of span
d) 1/6 of span
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In simply supported beam at least 50% off bus shall extend into the support for a
length of 1/3 of development length from the face of the support and the remaining alternate bars
are curtailed at one sixth of span.
9. The length of the staircase between two consecutive landings is called _______
a) Tread
b) Flight
c) Rise
d) Effective width
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Stairs provide access for the various floors in a building. The stairs comprises series
of steps with landings at appropriate intervals. The stretch between the two landings may be
termed as a flight.
10. ________ is used in the entrance of cinema theatres and shopping malls.
a) Open well stair case
b) Dog legged stair case
c) Geometrical stair case
d) Single flight stair case
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: It is based on geometrical shape. The staircase is aesthetically superior compared to
other types and generally used in the entrance of cinema theatres and shopping malls. This is
mostly adopted in congested areas for good accessibility and proper ventilation.
11. In the design of lintel, determine the base angle of a triangle for poor masonry.
a) 40°
b) 45°
c) 60°
d) 90°
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: It is assumed that the load of triangle portion of the masonry is considered to act on
the lintel. The base angle of the triangle depends upon the quality of brick masonry used. It may
be taken as 45°for good masonry and 60° for poor masonry.
12. Calculate the height of the equilateral triangle in the design of lintel, if the masonry used is
poor graded. Take effective span as 1.29 m.
a) 1.334m
b) 1.433m
c) 1.117m
d) 1.125m
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Taking 60° [As masonry is of poor quality] Then height of equilateral triangle (h) =
l × sin 60 °
= 1.29 × sin 60 °
= 1.117m.
13. For a simply supported beam, the basic l/d ratio should be ____________
a) 20
b) 22
c) 16
d) 30
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: If the beam is being checked for deflection criteria, the basic values of l/d ratio of
various beams should be
1. For Simply supported beam – 20
2. for cantilever beam – 7
3. for continuous beam – 26.
14. A beam of clear span 6 metres is supported on bearings of 150 mm if the effective depth of a
beam is 400 mm. calculate the effective span.
a) 6.4m
b) 6.15m
c) 6.0m
d) 6.3m
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: For calculation of effective span, the least of below values should be adopted:
1. Clear span + d = 6 + 0.4 = 6.4m
2. Clear span + bearings/2 + bearings/2 = 6+0.15/2+0.15/2 = 6.15m
The least of the above values is 6.15 metres. Hence effective span is 6.15 m.
15. The final deflection of horizontal members will be the level of casting should not exceed
_____________
a) Span/500
b) Span/250
c) Span/300
d) Span/350
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The serviceability requirement for deflection should be such that final deflection of
horizontal members below the level of casting should not exceed span / 250. This is the reason
that the user can’t notice the deflection. The deflection taking place after construction of
partitions should not exceed span / 350 or 20 mm whichever is less.
1. The obstruction or a barrier built across the stream or river is called _____________
a) Barrage
b) Weir
c) Dam
d) Reservoir
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A dam may be defined as an obstruction or a barrier built across the stream or river
these are artificial storage works. It retains water to create an impounding reservoir.
2. FTL Stands for ________

a) Free tank level
b) Full tank level
c) Full top level
d) Fill toe level
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It is also called a full reservoir level (FRL). It is a level up to which the water stored
obviously the crest of the spillway is fixed at this level.
3. _______ is openings extending from upstream to downstream of the dam.
a) Guide banks
b) Divide voids
c) Sluices
d) Spillway
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Sluices are openings or conduits extending from upstream face of the dam to
downstream face of the dam. They are used to clean the silt from the reservoir. They also
decrease the peak flood in the reservoir.
4. Water stored in dam is expressed in _______

a) Mega cumec metres
b) Million cubic metres
c) Metric cumec
d) Million cusec metres
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It is the total quantity of water stored up to FRL. It includes dead storage also. It is
expressed generally in thousand hectare metre or million cubic metres (Mm3).
5. MDDL Stands for ________

a) Minimum draw down level
b) Maximum draw down level
c) Million drop down level
d) Mega drop down level
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It is the lowest level up to which the reservoir is depleted from the considerations of
hydropower generation. So this level is known as minimum draw down level (MDDL).
6. _____ dam which resists are the external forces by virtue of its self weight.
a) Earthen dam
b) Storage dam
c) Detention dam
d) Gravity dam
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A gravity dam is that, which is stable against all the external forces achieved by the
weight of the dam itself. This is the most permanent one and hence it is very commonly used. It
may be constructed in all localities.
7. The factor of safety against overturning should not be less than ______
a) 1.8
b) 2.25
c) 1.5
d) 1.75
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In the dam section, the overturning takes place when a resultant force cuts the base
of the dam downstream of the toe. The factor of safety against overturning is the ratio of the
stabilizing moment to the overturning moments. The safety against overturning should not be
less than 1.5.
8. In sliding failure, the co-efficient of friction varies from ________

a) 0.65 – 0.75
b) 0.8 – 0.9
c) 0.45 – 0.65
d) 0.85 – 1
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: To avoid sliding, the factor of safety against the sliding should be greater than 1.
F.S = M(V-U) / €H > 1
Where M = Co-efficient of friction. It varies from 0.65 to 0.75
V = Total vertical force
U = Upward force.
9. Which of the following forces do not act on the dam?

a) Silt pressure
b) Wave pressure
c) Creep pressure
d) Uplift
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Among the above forces, creep pressure does not act on the dam. Generally on
gravity dam number of forces such as water pressure, wave pressure, wind pressure, ice pressure
etc. will be acting in a horizontal direction. In the same way, uplift, self weight acts in vertical
direction.
10. The elementary profile of a dam is generally a ________

a) Isosceles triangle
b) Right angled triangle
c) Scalene triangle
d) Equilateral triangle
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In the absence of any other forces, the forces due to water and self weight of the
dam form an elementary profile which will be in triangular section having zero top width at
water level, where the pressure is zero and maximum base width is at bottom where the
maximum water pressure acts.
11. _____ acts as an inspection chamber in Dams.

a) Spillway
b) Heel
c) Drainage gallery
d) Toe
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A drainage gallery is an opening in the body of a dam which runs longitudinally. It
runs through the length of the dam. Generally, it is a rectangle shape with flat a semi-circular
head usually 1.5 m wide and 2.5m height.
12. The minimum standard height for a construction joint is about ________
a) 1.2 m
b) 1.5 m
c) 2.1 m
d) 2.3 m
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The joints which facilitate construction of the dam to proceed in small lifts. These
joints are also known as horizontal joints. A lift may be defined as the vertical distance between
two consecutive construction joints. The height is about 1.5 m each.
13. Cracks developed in the body of dam section can be avoided by ________
a) Construction joints
b) Contraction joints
c) Transverse joints
d) Longitudinal joints
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Due to variation in temperature it causes contraction and expansion in masonry or
concrete of the dam. It will develop fine cracks in the body of the dam. By providing contraction
joints, these cracks can be avoided.
14. ______ is the over flow section or portion of the dam.

a) Heel
b) Toe
c) Spillway
d) Gallery
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A spillway is the overflow section or portion of the dam over which surplus
discharge flows from reservoir to downstream face. This structure is provided in the body of the
dam or near the dam or on the periphery of the reservoir.
15. _______ is the common type of spillway used in gravity dams.

a) Ogee spillway
b) Trough spillway
c) Side channel spillway
d) Emergency spillway
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: An ogee spillway is very common type of spillway used in gravity dams. It consists
of two parts namely ¡)ogee crest and ¡¡) a bucket. In this spillway water spills and flows over and
ogee crest in the form of a rolling sheet of water. Due to this, the development of negative
pressures can be avoided.
1. Which of the following is not a failure of a rectangular dam?

a) Overturning
b) Toe erosion
c) Sliding
d) Foundation failure
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Among the above failures, the toe erosion is not related to rectangular dams. Toe
erosion is caused due to in some cases the spillway is constructed very near to the dam section
inside circumstances the discharge water may erode the dam.
2. Structural failures contribute about _______________ in the failure of dam.
a) 45%
b) 60%
c) 30%
d) 20%
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: About 30% of failures are due to:
i. Foundation slide
ii. Upstream slope failure
iii. Downstream slope failure
iv. Failure due to flow slide.
3. The free board is provided in dams to avoid _______________

a) Piping
b) Foundation of upstream
c) Wave erosion
d) Overtopping
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: By providing sufficient free board and by providing an adequate capacity of the
spillway, failure due to overtopping of the damn can be avoided.
4. By providing ______________ gully formation can be avoided.

a) Berms
b) Aqueduct
c) Spillway
d) Free board
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: By providing berms and turning on the downstream face of the dam, the failure due
to the formation of the gullies can be avoided.
5. The maintenance of the reservoirs, above _____________ Ha comes under irrigation

department.
a) 30
b) 40
c) 50
d) 60
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The maintenance of reservoirs is having commendable area below 40Ha comes
under Panchayat Raj department and above 40 Ha come under irrigation department.
6. Which of the following process will you prefer to prevent the leakage of water in the dam
foundation?
a) Guniting
b) Grouting
c) Gam mixing
d) Filling
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Grouting is a process in which a grout in liquid (8:1) slurry form, is injected into
the soil under suitable pressures and applied through the pipes.
7. ______ grouting increases the bearing capacity of soil.

a) Curtain
b) Consolidated
c) Blanket
d) Descending stage grouting
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: According to functions served, the groutings can be classified into
i. Consolidated grouting
ii. Curtain grouting
iii. Area grouting
Consolidation grouting increases the bearing capacity of the soil and creates proper bonding
between separated bodies.
8. According to IS, the specific gravity of a good building stone used in heavy dams should be
______
a) 2.2 – 2.4
b) 2.3 – 2.5
c) 2.4 – 2.8
d) 2.6 – 3
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The stones used for heavy irrigation works such as dams, bridges, check dams,
weirs, docks should have specific gravity between 2.4 to 2.8. Stones used for the roof may have
less specific gravity.
9. Hardness can be measured using _______

a) Mohr’s scale
b) Silica scale
c) Dalton’s scale
d) Abrasion factor
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The property to resist the abrasive forces cause due to wear & tear and friction is
called hardness. It is determined by the Mohr’s scale of hardness in a laboratory. A hard stone
will not show any scratches.
10. Granite has been widely used for dams construction because of _______
a) Crushing strength
b) Cost
c) Workability
d) Porosity
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Granite stone is derived from igneous rocks. It is very hard, durable and strong. Its
crushing strength is 100 to 140 N/mm^2. For this property, it is widely used in all important
works.
11. The range of slenderness ratio in dams varies from ________

a) 13 – 15
b) 12 – 15
c) 15 – 18
d) 15 – 20
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In dams, the slenderness ratio can be calculated through
= Height of buttress / Thickness of buttress
• It varies from 12 to 15.
12. _______ is provided for installation of control equipment of valves in dams.

a) Vertical shafts
b) Hydraulic openings
c) Connecting passages
d) Isolated chambers
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Isolated chambers are provided for installation of control equipment of walls or
pipeline or pumps. The function is to supply water to irrigation canals, fulfilling commitments
and desilting the reservoir.
13. The ratio of the volume of voids to the volume of given soil mass is __________
a) Porosity
b) Void ratio
c) Dry density
d) Specific gravity
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The porosity of a given soil sample is the ratio of the volume of voids to the value
of given soil mass. It is denoted by “n”.
n = Vu / V.
14. Sand layer is an example of ______________

a) Aquiclude
b) Aquifuge
c) Aquitard
d) Aquifer
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: An aquifer is a geologic formation (or) saturated bed which contains water and
yields them significantly. Example: sand bed. They permit the appreciable quantity of water
under ordinary field conditions.
15. ________ keeps the phreatic line within the dam section.
a) Longitudinal filter
b) Cross filter
c) Rock toe
d) Toe drain
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Rock toe keeps the phreatic line within the damn section and also facilitates
drainage. It is nothing but a downstream portion of a dam made of graded material. To achieve
good results, the height of rock toe shall be kept 1/3 to 1/ 4 of dam height.
1. Calculate the self-weight of the masonry of the rectangle dam of 10 m height and 4 m wide.
Consider specific weight of masonry as 20kN/m3.
a) 600 kN
b) 500 kN
c) 800 kN
d) 1000 kN
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Self weight of masonry = W = Area of cross-section × 1× Specific weight of
masonry.
= (10×4)×1×20 = 800 kN.
2. Water-cement ratio varies normally from ______________ to __________

a) 0.42 – 0.45
b) 0.45 – 0.48
c) 0.42 – 0.48
d) 0.45 – 0.5
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The ratio to which the required amount of water is added to weight of cement to
obtain desired consistency and workability of concrete mix is known as water cement ratio. It
varies from 0.42 to 0.48.
3. Calculate the resultant force of dam with given self weight 800kN and water pressure be
500kN.
a) 943.4 kN
b) 956.7 kN
c) 948.6 kN
d) 939.1 KN
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Resultant force (R) = (P2 + W2)1/2 = 5002 + 8002.
= (5002 + 8002)1/2
= 943.39 ~ 943.4 kN.
4. When the reservoir is empty tension occurs at ___________

a) Toe
b) Heel
c) Top width
d) Bottom width
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: For no tension to develop in the damn section in any condition, the eccentricity
should be less than b/6. When the reservoir is empty, tension occurs at toe and compression
occurs at heel.
5. What is the mix proportion for M15 grade concrete?

a) 1:1:2
b) 1:2:4
c) 1:3:6
d) 1:4:8
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Mix proportion for M15 grade concrete is 1:2:4.
M10 1:3:6
M15 1:2:4
M20 1:1.5:3
6. Laterite is an example of ___________ rock.

a) Siliceous
b) Argillaceous
c) Calcareous
d) Metamorphic
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The Rocks having (Gneiss) aluminium or clay as the main component, such rocks
are known as argillaceous rocks. Example: Slate, Laterite.
7. ________ is crystalline and compact in structure.

a) Marbles
b) Granite
c) Kadapa slabs
d) Shahabad stones
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Marble is a metamorphic rock and is made from limestone, this is a very costly
stone. It is less durable. It is crystalline and compact in structure. So it can take a fine polish. It is
not very hard.
8. As per IS, the standard dimensions for a brick is _______ (in cm).
a) 19×8×8
b) 19×9×8
c) 19×9×9
d) 19×8×9
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The shape of a brick should be uniform with rectangular surface and its size should
be standard with 19×9×9 cm. They should have a uniform red colour and it should be well burnt.
9. Formation of white patches on the surface on the bricks is ____________

a) Tempering
b) Porosity
c) Shrinkage
d) Efflorescence
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A good brick should not contain excess alkaline soils when the bricks are exposed
to the atmosphere. It should not absorb moisture. If it attracts moisture then dampness occurs and
results in the formation of white patches. Hence the brick begins decaying.
10. Kiln burning involves 90% of first class bricks.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Kiln burning is a permanent structure. There is complete control on fire. It produces
a large scale of manufactured bricks, it takes only 24 hours in burning the bricks and 12 days for
cooling. It produces 90% of burnt bricks.
11. ______ bricks can withstand up to a temperature of 1800°C.

a) Refractory
b) Fly ash
c) Clay
d) Cement
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The bricks made from refractory clay are called refractory bricks. The weight of
these bricks is 2 kN/m3. The standard size is 230× 65× 113 mm. These bricks can withstand up
to the temperature of 1800°C.
12. According to IS, the minimum expansion joint in construction should be ________
a) 18mm to 30 mm
b) 15mm to 24mm
c) 18mm to 25mm
d) 22mm to 30mm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: According to Indian standards 456- 2000, it is desirable to provide 18 mm to 25
mm thick expansion joints after every 30 to 45 m construction of length.
13. The edges formed by the intersection of plane surfaces of a brick are known as _________
a) Arises
b) Stretcher
c) Header
d) Frog
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In any bond, the edges formed by the intersection of plane surfaces of a brick are
termed as arises. These are straight and sharp in case of good bricks or brick tiles.
14. The depression made in the face of brick during its manufacture is _________
a) Brick tile
b) Bat
c) Frog
d) Quoin closer
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The depression provided on any face of the brick during its manufacture can be
termed as frog. A hand moulded bricks has one frog. A pressed brick has two frogs.
15. Calculate the eccentricity of a rectangular dam of width 4 m. Take the distance between the
water face and point where resultant cuts the base as 5.25 m.
a) 2.25m
b) 3.25m
c) 4.35m
d) 5.35m
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Eccentricity = e = Z – b/ 2
Where Z = 5.25 m & b = 4m ; Now, e = Z- b/2
e = 5.25 – 4/2
= 3.25m.
1. Calculate the horizontal water pressure acting on a dam. The total depth of water be 13m.
Take specific weight of water be 10kN/m3.
a) 765 kN
b) 845 kN
c) 965 kN
d) 1175 kN
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Horizontal water pressure(P) = w×h2/ 2.
Where w = 10 kN/m3. h= 13m.
P = 10×132/ 2 = 845kN.
2. Calculate the self-weight of a rectangular dam of 22m high and 8m wide. It contains water
upto a height of 20m. Consider the specific weight of masonry be 25 kN/m3.
a) 3560 kN
b) 5432 kN
c) 4400 kN
d) 5680 kN
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Consider 1m length of the dam. The total depth of dam is 22 metres.
Self weight of masonry (W)= (22×8)×1×25
= 4400kN.
3. The pressure intensity of water at free surface is ________

a) Zero
b) Maximum
c) Minimum
d) Uniform
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The pressure intensity of water at a free surface is always zero and increase linearly
to a maximum at the base and is equal to “ wh”.
4. Self weight of dam acts in ___________ direction.

a) Vertical
b) Horizontal
c) Inclined
d) Parallel
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Self weight of the Dam at vertically downwards passing through centre of gravity
of the damn section and Total horizontal water pressure acts horizontally at heel of the dam.
5. The maximum compressive stresses developed at the base of the dam should not exceed
permissible ___________ stresses for masonry.
a) Tensile
b) Crippling
c) Compressive
d) Shear
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: To avoid the failure of crushing, the maximum compressive stress developed at the
base of the dam should not exceed the permissible compressive stress for masonry with which
the dam is constructed.
6. For no _______ to develop in the dam section the resultant should always lie within the
middle third.
a) Compression
b) Tension
c) Shear
d) Buckling
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: For no tension to develop in the dam section at any condition, the eccentricity
developed with the resultant should be always less than b/6. The resultant must always lie within
the middle third.
7. Calculate the self weight of trapezoidal dam with top width 5m and bottom width 8m. The
height of dam is 15 m. Consider specific weight of masonry be 25kN/m3.
a) 3456.5 kN
b) 2768.5 kN
c) 2437.5 kN
d) 3450 kN
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Consider 1m of length, area of trapezoidal dam be (a+b)/2 ×H
The self weight of trapezoidal dam (W) = (a+b)/2 × H × 1 × 25
W = 2437.5 kN.
8. The material(earth) retained by the retaining wall is called as __________

a) Surcharge
b) Turf
c) Foliate
d) Back fill
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The material retained by the retaining wall is called back fill. The top surface of the
back fills maybe him the horizontal or inclined.
9. The inclination of surcharge to the horizontal is called ____________

a) Surcharge elevation
b) Surcharge angle
c) Surcharge factor
d) Surcharge depression
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The back fill lying above a horizontal plane at an elevation of the top of wall is
known as a surcharge and its inclination to the horizontal is called surcharge angle.
10. Which of the following is practical pressure?

a) Active earth pressure
b) Passive earth pressure
c) Soil moisture tension
d) Horizontal water pressure
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The pressure exerted by back fill on retaining wall is called an active earth pressure.
This is the minimum earth pressure exerted by the soil. This is also known as practical pressure.
11. The angle of internal friction for water is __________

a) 180°
b) 100°
c) 0°
d) 270°
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Angle of internal friction is defined as the maximum slope at which the particles of
soil will come in rest due to their internal friction. It is also called an angle of repose for water it
is 0°.
12. Which of the following is theoretical pressure?

c) Soil Tension
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The pressure exerted by the retaining wall on the retained earth is called passive
earth pressure. This is a maximum earth pressure due to maximum shear stress on the retaining
wall. This is also known as theoretical pressure.
13. Which of the following is an example for plasticizer?

a) Ca
b) Mg
c) Zn
d) Hg
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The combination of both inorganic and organic materials which will help to reduce
the water content for getting higher workability are known as plasticizers. Examples are calcium,
sodium, salts of hydrocarbons etc.
14. _______ curing is adopted for columns and walls.

a) Moist curing
b) Membrane curing
c) Ponding
d) Descending stage
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In this curing, the exposed surface of the concrete is kept in a damp and moist
condition for a long time, the vertical members like columns and walls can be adopted for this
type of curing.
15. Prestressed concrete is an example of _____________

a) Malleability
b) Ductility
c) Fatigue
d) Plasticity
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Fatigue is the property of a material by which the material with stands to repeating,
reversing or varying upcoming loads. The best example of fatigue is concrete and prestressed
concrete.
1. Calculate the eccentricity of a trapezoidal dam with a distance between the centre of gravity
and point where the resultant cuts the base is 5m. The bottom width of the dam is 3m.
a) 2.5m
b) 3.5m
c) 4.5m
d) 5m
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The eccentricity (e) = Z – b/2.
Z= distance between the centre of gravity and point where the resultant cuts the base is 5m.
= 5-3/2 = 1.5m.
2. Which of the following is not a failure of retaining wall?

a) Structural slide
b) Shear sliding
c) Crushing
d) Slope pitching
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Crushing Failure is related to dams. The retaining walls are the structures
constructed to store earth on one side especially in case of hill or ghat roads.
3. ________ pressure which occurs commonly in dams.

a) Passive earth pressure
b) Active earth pressure
d) Wind pressure
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Active earth pressure is exerted by backfill on retaining walls. It is also called as
practical pressure. It occurs commonly in dams.
4. _________ failures contribute 40% to earthen dams.

a) Seepage
b) Structural
c) Hydraulic
d) Natural
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: On the basis of various investigation reports and case studies, hydraulic failures
contribute about 40% of failures to earthen dams. The rest of the failures is shared by seepage
failures and structural failures.
5. Which of the following filters are also known as chimney drains?

a) Horizontal filter
b) Inclined filter
c) Rock toe
d) Toe drain
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The filters which are laid across the outer slope of the impervious core are called as
inclined filters. They are also known as Chimney drains. They are provided mainly to collect the
seepage emerging out of the core.
6. Zoned earthen dams are also known as ______

a) Heterogeneous dams
b) Core wall dams
c) Homogeneous dams
d) Hydraulic dam
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The dams are constructed on shallow pervious foundations in this dam section
about outer zones are made fairly pervious material and the inner most zoning called “hearting”
is done was fairly impervious material. It is also known as heterogeneous dam.
7. ___________ dams are built with key trenches.

a) Heterogeneous earth dam
b) Homogeneous earth dam
c) Earth Dam with Core wall
d) Rolled fill dam
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The outer zones of this dam are made of pervious material as in zoned dam. In this
case, it is essentially build cut-off wall (cut-off trench) built quite deep preferably upto
impervious rock layer in the foundation.
8. Line of seepage is also known as __________

a) Hydraulic gradient
b) Phreatic line
c) Seepage gradient
d) Hydraulic seepage line
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The line within the dam section below which there are positive hydrostatic
pressures in a dam and above the line the hydrostatic pressures are negative. It gives a divide line
between dry and saturated soils.
9. ____________ represents the top stream line.

a) Phreatic line
b) Hydraulic gradient line
c) Seepage gradient
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Phreatic line is also called a line of seepage or saturation line. The phreatic line
represents the top streamline and hence helps us in drawing the flow net.
10. The hydrostatic pressures on phreatic line are equal to____

a) Zero
b) Maximum
c) Minimum
d) Constant
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The hydrostatic pressure on phreatic line is equal to atmospheric pressure and
hence equal to zero, the flow through the body of the dam below the phreatic line reduces the
effective weight of the soil and thus reduces the shear strength of the soil.
11. Expand MWL?

a) Minimum water level
b) Maximum water level
c) Meagre water level
d) Most wind level
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The water level that is attained during floods is called the maximum water level.
The dams and spillway sections are designed to withstand water pressure at this level.
12. ______ is the difference of Level between full reservoir level and top of the dam.
a) Net free board
b) Gross free board
c) Design free board
d) Over free board
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In dams, in order to prevent the overtopping during peak floods, a sufficient margin
is provided between the full reservoir level and top of the dam. This is known as gross free
board.
13. By keeping the phreatic line within the downstream toe, the ___________ can be avoided.
a) Piping
b) Gullying
c) Sloughing
d) Over topping
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: If the filter at downstream side toe is choked then also the downstream too becomes
saturated. In such circumstances, some erosion occurs in downstream to this causes sloughing.
To avoid this phreatic line must be within the downstream toe.
14. Springs(closely coiled) are examples of _____________

a) stiffness
b) hardness
c) toughness
d) creep
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The property of a material or substance which offers resistance to bending action
and measures the load required to be applied is called stiffness. It is denoted by s or k. Springs
are the best examples of stiffness.
15. Perennial canals are also known as ________

a) Inundation canal
b) Productive canal
c) Feeder canal
d) Permanent canal
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The canal which is fed by a permanent source of supply is said to be a permanent
Canal. It has also regulatory works. This canal is also sometimes known as a perennial canal.
1. To ensure economy in dam sections, the ______ should be minimum.

a) Base width
b) Top width
c) Spillway length
d) Toe of the wall
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In dams, the economy prevails if the cross section of a dam is provided with
minimum base width. Base width “b” can be determined from the equation: b2 +ab+ a2 = H2/ S.
2. Calculate the maximum stress at the base section is the self weight is 4400 kN. The top and
bottom width of them are 3 and 8 m respectively. Take (e) = 2.97.
a) 1658.15 kN/m2
b) 1775.12 kN/m2
c) 1897.45 kN/m2
d) 2336.67 kN/m2
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The maximum stress at the base section = W/b (1+6e/b)
P= 4400/8 (1+6×2.97/8)
= 1775.125 kN/m2.
3. If the maximum stress is positive, then the nature of stress is ____
a) Tensile
b) Shearing
c) Compressive
d) Bending
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: If the stress developed in the dam section at the base is positive there it indicates
the nature of stress to be compressive.
4. Determine the eccentricity of the dam section, if the base width of the dam be 6m. Take Z =
5.5m.
a) 2.5
b) 1.5
c) 3.5
d) 4.5
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: e = Z – b/2. [The value of Z = 5.5m] = 5.5 – 6/2
= 5.5 – 3
= 2.5 m.
5. Calculate the minimum stress developed at the heel of the dam, if the self weight of the dam is
924 kN and the base with is 6 metres [Take e = 0.0945m].
a) 145 kN/m2
b) 139 kN/m2
c) 167 kN/m2
d) 183 kN/m2
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The minimum stress developed at the heel of the dam is W/b ×(1-6e/b).
= 920/6 ×(1-6×0.0945/6).
= 139 kN/m2.
6. The side slopes depend on ____________ conditions of a proposed dam.

a) Toe width
b) Height of foundation
c) Character of material
d) Free board allowance
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The upstream and downstream slopes of the Dam should be stable in all situations
the side slopes depend upon
1.Height of the dam
2.Character of material
3.Nature of foundation.
7. Molitor’s formula can be used for calculation of ___________

a) Freeboard
b) Toe width
c) Wave height
d) Base drop
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The minimum height of the free board for wave action is generally taken to be
equal to 1.5 hw. Where hw = height of wave action.
It can be calculated using 0.032(VF)1/2.
8. The height of the dam = free board + ___________

a) FTL
b) MWL
c) FRL
d) HFL
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The dam’s height mainly depends on HFL of the reservoir. The height of the dam
above surface is given by the HFL plus the free board.
Height of the dam = HFL + free board.
9. _____________ sections allow the surplus discharge to flow in dams.

a) Mulching
b) Over reinforced
c) Breaching
d) Balanced
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Sometimes during construction, the surplus works are avoided in many tanks. In
such circumstances, breaching sections are provided in the dams to allow the surplus flood
discharge. With this the scouring of section can be avoided.
10. If the minimum stress developed is negative, then the nature of stress is ___________
a) Shearing
b) Tensile
c) Bending
d) Compressive
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: If the minimum stress developed at the base of the dam section is negative, then the
respective nature of the stress will be in tensile condition.
11. ____________ creates concentrated seepage in dams section.

a) Longitudinal cracks
b) Transverse cracks
c) Construction cracks
d) Contraction cracks
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Due to differential settlement cracks may be developed in the bund. These are of
two types 1) longitudinal cracks 2) transverse cracks. The transverse cracks are more dangerous
to the dam section because they can create concentrated seepage.
12. The upstream slope recommended for sand and gravel with RCC core wall is __________
a) 1:2
b) 3:1
c) 2.5:1
d) 1.5:1
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: According to Terazghi, the following upstream slopes should be recommended.
For:
1. Homogeneous well graded – 2.5 : 1
2. Homogeneous coarse silt – 3 : 1
3. Sand and gravel with RCC core wall – 2.5 : 1.
13. Major distributaries discharge varies from ____________

a) 0.25 to 5 cumecs
b) 2 to 4 cumecs
c) 1.5 to 5 cumecs
d) 1.2 to 5 cumecs
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The major distributary takes off from a branch canal to distribute the water to
various parts of the field. The supply of the water varies from 0.25 to 5 cumecs.
14. Field channels are also known as ______

a) Branch canals
b) Slope channels
c) Water courses
d) Contour canals
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The water courses are the channel that carries irrigation water to the fields. The
water courses derive their supply from distributaries through outlets. They are also called as field
channels.
15. The structures constructed along are distributaries are called as _______
a) Inlets
b) Outlets
c) Distributaries
d) Channels
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: An outlet is a simple and small irrigation structure which is constructed along the
distributaries. The amount of water that is withdrawn through the outlet is in proportion to the
area that is irrigated below respective point.
1. Slope in the beam at any point is measured in ____________

a) Degrees
b) Minutes
c) Radians
d) Metric tonnes
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The slope is defined as at any point on the bent beam is the angle measured in terms
of radians to which the tangent at that point makes with the x axis.
2. Elastic curve is also known as __________

a) Refraction curve
b) Reflection curve
c) Deflection curve
d) Random curve
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: An elastic curve is defined as the line to which the longitudinal axis of a beam
deviates under given load. It is also called a deflection curve.
3. Which of the following method is not used for determining slope and deflection at a point?
a) Moment area method
b) Double integration method
c) Isoheytal method
d) Macaulay’s method
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The method “Isoheytal” can be used for calculating run-off over an area. The
remaining methods are effectively adopted to calculate the slope and deflection at a point in any
type of beam.
4. The slope is denoted by _______

a) k
b) y
c) i
d) c
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The slope at any section in a deflection beam is defined as the angle measured in
radians to the tangent at the section makes with the original axis of the beam.
•It is denoted by “i”.
5. Calculate the slope at supports, if the area is 180kNm2. Take flexural rigidity as 50000.
a) 0.0054 radians
b) 0.0072 radians
c) 0.0036 radians
d) 0.108 radians
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Maximum slope at supports be i = A/EI
= 180/50000
i = 0.0036 radians.
6. In cantilever beams, the slope is _____________ at fixed end.

a) Maximum
b) Zero
c) Minimum
d) Uniform
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The slope in cantilever beam is zero at the fixed end of the cantilever and the slope
is maximum at it’s free end. The slope is determined in the moment area method through Mohr’s
theorems.
7. Slope is maximum at _______ in simply supported beams.
a) Mid span
b) Through out
c) Supports
d) At point of loading
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In case simply supported beams, the slope is maximum at the end supports of the
beam and relatively zero at midspan of a symmetrically loaded beam.
8. Mohr’s theorem- 1 states ________

a) E/AI
b) I/EA
c) A/EI
d) A=EI
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: According to Mohr’s theorem-1, the change of slope between any of the two points
on and Elastic axis is equal to the net area of bending moment diagram (A) between these two
points divided by flexural rigidity(EI).
9. Using Mohr’s theorem, calculate the maximum slope of a cantilever beam if the bending
moment area diagram is 90kNm2. Take EI = 4000 kNm2.
a) 0.0225 radians
b) 0 0367 radians
c) 0.0455 radians
d) 0.066 radians
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The maximum slope at free support (in cantilever beam) = i = A/EI
= 90/4000
= 0.0225 radians.
10. Contour canals are also called as ______

a) Single bank canal
b) Ridge canal
c) Side slope canal
d) Watershed canal
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In this method, the canal is aligned along the falling contour. A generally higher
side is left without bank. So it is also called a single bank canal. The contour canal cuts across
the natural drainage courses.
11. ______________ provides employment to the cultivators at the time of famine.

a) Productive canal
b) Link canal
c) Protective canal
d) Inundation canal
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The construction of protective canals and their development may be started during
summer in hence they provide employment to the farmers at the time of drought and famine.
Protective canals are not remunerative as productive canals.
12. ______________ bricks are used in the lining of blast furnaces.

a) Magnesia
b) Dolomite
c) Bauxite
d) Fly ash
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Dolomite bricks are made especially from dolomite it contains nearly 30% lime and
22% of magnesium these bricks are inferior to magnesite bricks. They are generally used in the
lining of blast furnaces.
13. _____________ bricks are resistant to corrosion.

a) silica bricks
b) magnesia bricks
c) bauxite bricks
d) fire bricks
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Bauxite bricks contain nearly 75% of aluminium and it is mixed with fire clay 15 to
30% and added some water to mould. High alumina bricks are resistant to corrosion.
14. _____________ bricks are used in the lining of electric furnace.

a) Frosterite
b) Spinel
c) Chrome
d) Basic
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The spinal bricks belong to neutral bricks. The spinel bricks mainly consist of
alumina and magnesia. These bricks are widely used in the lining of electric furnace.
15. The finished product after burning magnesite is named as ___________

a) Perillax
b) Hellyx
c) Pyrolytaex
d) Syrilax
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The heating of magnesia bricks is continued in the same kiln after reaching the
temperature of 1950°C, and then some amount of iron oxide is mixed. The finished product after
burning magnesite is named as perillax.
1. Units of deflection are _________

a) kNm
b) kN/m
c) kN
d) m
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The term “deflection” is defined as the transverse displacement of a point on any
straight axis to the curved axis. It is expressed in metres (m).
2. Which of the following method is used to determine the slope and deflection at a point?
a) Arithmetic increase method
b) Mathematical curve setting
c) Macaulay’s method
d) Lacey’s method
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Macaulay’s method was devised by Mr WH Macaulay.
Advantages:
i. Gives one continuous expression for bending moment
ii. Constants of integration can be found by using end conditions
iii. By using this method, slope and deflection at any section can be determined throughout the
length of the beam.
3. Deflection is denoted by _______

a) i
b) y
c) h
d) e
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The deflection of a point on the axis of the deflected beam is defined as the angle
developed in radians with tangent at the section makes with the original axis of the beam.
4. In cantilever beams, the deflection is zero at ___________

a) Free and
b) Fixed end
c) At supports
d) Through out
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The deflection in cantilever beam is always zero at the fixed end and deflection in
the cantilever beam at the free end is maximum.
5. Mohr’s theorem -¡¡ states?

a) Ax/EI
b) A/Ex
c) A/EI
d) Ae=Ix
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Mohr’s theorem -¡¡ states “the intercept taken on a vertical reference line of the
tangent at any two points on an elastic line is equal to the moment of BMD between these points,
about the reference line divided by flexural rigidity (EI).
6. Calculate the deflection if the slope is 0.0225 radians. Take the distance of centre of gravity of
bending moment to free end as 2 metres.
a) 45mm
b) 35mm
c) 28mm
d) 49mm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The deflection at any point on the elastic curve equal to Ax/EI
But, we know that A/EI is already slope equation.
So, slope × (the distance of centre of gravity of bending moment to free end = 2m).
0.0225 × 2
0.045m ~ 45 mm.
7. In simply supported beams, deflection is zero at _________
a) Mid span
b) Supports
c) Through out
d) Point of action of load
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The deflection is always zero at the supports and the deflection is maximum at the
mid span of a symmetrically loaded simply supported beam.
8. Which of the following is not a cross drainage work?

a) Aqueduct
b) Level crossing
c) Head regulator
d) Super passage
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The head regulator is one of the canal regulation works. It can control the entry of
silt into the canal. It can be used as a metre for measuring the discharge. It can shut out river
floods.
9. Tail escape is also called as ___________

a) Outlet
b) Cross regulator
c) Weir type escape
d) Surplus escape
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The crest of the weir is fixed at canal FSL. When the water level rises above FSL, it
is disposed of into the natural drain. Hence, the tale escape is also known as weir type escape.
10. The land where all the water comes from ___________
a) Ridge dam
b) Watershed
c) Meander
d) Groynes
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A watershed can be defined as an interconnected area of land which receives the
water from surrounding ridge tops and transports it to a common point such as a lake or stream.
All lands and waterways can be found within one watershed or another.
11. ____________ reduces storm water discharge.
a) Rain water harvesting
b) Water harvesting
c) Watershed
d) Watershed management
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The water harvesting is defined as the process of capturing rain where it falls. The
objectives of water harvesting are 1) To provide drinking water 2) To provide irrigation water 3)
To increase groundwater recharge to reduce storm water discharge.
12. Which of the following is not a soil moisture conservation method?

a) Spreading manure
b) Crop rotation
c) Recharge to ground water
d) By mulches
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The methods which are adopted for preserving the water in the soil from being lost
are called as soil moisture conservation methods. The major part of the water is lost through
evapotranspiration. The recharge to groundwater is one of the techniques in rainwater harvesting.
13. Nutrients like ca, mg, si, al, S, K are lost due to ____________
a) Soil erosion
b) Percolation
c) Water logging
d) Watershed
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The percolation is defined as a downward movement of water through the soil due
to the force of gravity. The rapid percolation of water results in loss of plant nutrients and makes
the soil acidic.
14. Warabandi has been practiced in India for more than ____________ years.
a) 130 years
b) 125 years
c) 140 years
d) 145 years
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Warabandi is a rotational method for allocation of the available water equally in an
irrigation system. It provides continuous rotation of water generally lasts 7 days. It has been
effectively practiced in India for more than 125 years.
15. Gold, Copper and lead are the examples of ______

a) Ductility
b) Creep
c) Plasticity
d) Malleability
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Plasticity in the property of Material by which the material can undergo permanent
deformation and fails to regain its original shape on removal of load. Examples are gold, lead,
etc.
1. The ratio of maximum deflection of a beam to its ___________ is called stiffness of the beam.
a) Load
b) Slope
c) Span
d) Reaction at the support
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The stiffness of a beam is a measure of it’s resistance against deflection. The ratio
of the maximum deflection of a beam to its span can be termed as stiffness of the beam.
2. Stiffness of the beam is inversely proportional to the _____ of the beam.

a) Slope
b) Support reaction
c) Deflection
d) Load
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Stiffness of a beam is inversely proportional to the deflection. Smaller the
deflection in a beam due to given external load, greater is its stiffness.
3. The maximum ____ should not exceed the permissible limit to the span of the beam.
a) Slope
b) Deflection
c) Load
dl Bending moment
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The maximum deflection of a loaded beam should not exceed the permissible limit
in relation to the span of a beam. While designing the beam the designer should be keep in mind
that both strength and stiffness criteria.
4. In cantilever beam the deflection occurs at ______

a) Free end
b) Point of loading
c) Through out
d) Fixed end
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Deflection can be defined as the perpendicular displacement of a point on straight
access to the curved axis. In cantilever beams, the maximum deflection occurs at free end.
5. The maximum deflection in cantilever beam of span “l”m and loading at free end is “W” kN.
a) Wl3/2EI
b) Wl3/3EI
c) Wl3/4EI
d) Wl2/2EI
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Maximum deflection occurs at free end distance between centre of gravity of
bending moment diagram and free end is x = 2l/3.
As deflection is equal to the slope × “x”. The slope = Wl2/2EI radians
Maximum deflection (y) = Ax/EI = Wl3/3EI.
6. In an ideal fluid, the ____________ stresses are pretend to be absent.

a) Bending
b) Shearing
c) Tensile
d) Compressive
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: An ideal fluid is a fluid where there is no resistance to the deformation. Ideal Fluids
are those Fluids which have no viscosity surface tension. The shear stress is also absent. This
fluid is also called as perfect fluid.
7. Air and water are the examples of ___________

a) Non Newtonian fluids
b) Vortex fluids
c) Real fluids
d) Ideal fluids
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The ideal Fluids are imaginary fluids in nature, they are incompressible. These
fluids possess low viscosity. Air and water are considered as ideal fluids.
8. _______ fluids are practical fluids

a) Ideal
b) Real
c) Vortex
d) Newtonian
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: These fluids possess properties such as viscosity, surface tension. They are
compressible in nature. The certain amount of resistance is always offered by the fluids, they
also possess shear stress. They are also known as practical fluids.
9. Specific weight of water at 4°C is ____________ N/m3.

a) 9810
b) 9760
c) 9950
d) 9865
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The specific weight (weight density) of a fluid is weight per unit volume. It is
represented by symbol w & it is expressed in Newton per metre cube (N/m3). The specific
weight of water at 4 degree centigrade is 9810 N/m3or 9.81 kN/m3.
10. The inverse of specific weight of a fluid is __________

a) Specific gravity
b) Specific Volume
c) Compressibility
d) Viscosity
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Specific volume is the volume of the fluid by Unit Weight it is the reciprocal of
specific weight is denoted by “v”. SI units are m3/N.
v= 1/specific weight.
11. Calculate the specific gravity of mercury.

a) 12.5
b) 14.7
c) 13.6
d) 11.8
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The specific gravity of any fluid is the ratio of the specific weight of fluid by
specific weight of water. For mercury, the specific weight is 133416 N/m3. For water, w = 9810
N/m3.
S = 133416/9810
S= 13.6.
12. Specific gravity of water is __________

a) 0.8
b) 1
c) 1.2
d) 1.5
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The specific gravity is also called as relative density. It is dimensionless quantity
and it has no units. The specific gravity of water is the ratio of specific weight of fluid to specific
weight of water, as both the numerator and denominator are same. The value is 1.
13. Compute the maximum deflection at free end of a cantilever beam subjected to udl for entire
span of l metres.
a) wl4/8EI
b) wl4/4EI
c) wl3/8EI
d) wl2/6EI
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The slope at free end = A/EI = wl3/6EI
Maximum deflection at free end is Ax/EI; [x= ¾ l] y= wl3/6EI × ¾ l = wl4/8EI.
14. Calculate the maximum deflection of a cantilever beam with udl on entire span of 3m the
intensity of you udl be 25 kN/m. Take EI as 4000 kN/m2.
a) 0.052m
b) 0.063m
c) 0.076m
d) 0.09m
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: For cantilever beams with udl on entire span, the maximum deflection = wl4/8EI
y = wl4/8EI = 25 × 34/ 8 × 4000 = 0.063m.
15. Which of the following is not an example of Malleability?

a) Wrought Iron
b) Ornamental silver
c) Torsteel
d) Ornamental gold
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Torsteel is an example of mechanical property ductility. The ductility is a property
of a material by which material can be fractured into thin wires after undergoing a considerable
deformation without any rupture.
1. __________ of a beam is a measure of its resistance against deflection.

a) Strength
b) Stiffness
c) Slope
d) Maximum bending
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The ratio of maximum deflection of a beam to its corresponding span is termed as
the stiffness of the beam. It is the measure of resistance against the deflection.
2. The maximum induced ___________ stresses should be within the safe permissible stresses to
ensure strength of the beam.
a) Tensile
b) Compressive
c) Bending
d) Lateral
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A beam is said to be strengthy when the maximum induced bending and shear
stresses are within the safe permissible stresses of the beam material.
3. Elastic line is also called as ___________

a) Deflection curve
b) Plastic curve
c) Linear curve
d) Hooke’s curve
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The deflection curve is defined as the line to which the longitudinal axis of a beam
deflects or bends under given load. This curve is also known as elastic line or elastic axis.
4. In simply supported beams, the slope is _____________ at supports.

a) Minimum
b) Zero
c) Maximum
d) Uniform
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The slope at any section in the deflected beam is defined as the angle developed in
radians which the tangent at the section makes with the actual axis of the proposed beam. In
simply supported beams, the slope is maximum at the supports.
5. In simply supported beam deflection is maximum at ____________

a) Midspan
b) Supports
c) Point of loading
d) Through out
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In simply supported beams, deflection is maximum at the mid span of a
symmetrically loaded beam.
6. Calculate the maximum deflection of a simply supported beam if the maximum slope at A is
0.0075 radians and the distance of centre of gravity of bending moment diagram to support A is
1.33 metres.
a) 9.975 mm
b) 9.5 mm
c) 9.25 mm
d) 9.785 mm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The deflection occurs at support A = A/EI = 0.0075 radians
Maximum deflection = Ax/EI = 0.0075 × 1.33
y = 9.975 mm.
7. ____________ is the best example for accelerator (admixture).

a) Sulphonated formaldehyde
b) Calcium chloride
c) Sulphonated naphthalene
d) Polyglycolesters
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Calcium chloride is more widely used as an accelerator. By adding two percent
(2%) of the weight of cacl2 admixture to the Portland cement the Maximum strength is attained
within 1-3 days.
8. _____________ is used to reduce the time for hardening of concrete.

a) Accelerators
b) Super plasticizer
c) Retarder
d) Air entraining admixture
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The admixtures (retarders) are generally used to reduce the time for hardening of
concrete. They are used in situations like:
i. In hot weather condition, a tendency towards false set is corrected
ii. When concrete is to be placed in difficult positions.
9. Full form of LEED ________

a) Leadership in Energy and Efficiency Development
b) Leadership in Environmental and Energy Design
c) Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design
d) Leadership in Efflorescence and Energy Demand
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: LEED stands for Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design. The fly ash is
environmentally friendly solutions that meet or exceed performance specifications fly ash
contributes a lot to LEED.
10. _____ has a lower heat of hydration.
a) Quarry dust
b) Fly ash
c) Ordinary Portland cement
d) Bulk sand
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The process that liberates heat when water is added to cement is known as heat of
hydration. The process of hydration is not instantaneous. The fly ash is possessing lower heat of
hydration.
11. The factors that influence rate of hydration is _________

a) The fineness of cement
b) Temperature of cement
c) Quality of water
d) Temperature of water
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The products of hydration are colloidal and increase the surface area of solid paste
during hydration and the water is the main ingredient which reacts chemically. The rate of
hydration is mainly influenced by temperature of cement.
12. The steel suits best to reinforcement with concrete.

a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The Steel is be used for reinforcing a concrete for following properties:
i. Steel is about 30 times stronger in compression and 300 times stronger intention compared to
concrete.
ii. It develops good bond with concrete
iii. It is highly fire resistant.
13. The average crushing strength of precast concrete blocks as per CAI is __________
a) 4.5 N/mm2
b) 5 N/mm2
c) 3.5 N/mm2
d) 4 N/mm2
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Hollow concrete blocks are used in load bearing walls. In the manufacture of these
blocks, the light height aggregates are used. The recommended size is 39 × 19 × 30 cm.
The average crushing strength of blocks Shall be 5N/mm2.
14. A simply supported beam of span as shown in the figure is subjected to a concentrated load
w at its metre span and also to a uniformly distributed load equality w what is the total
diffraction it its midpoint.
a) 18 Wl3 /384 EI
b) 13 Wl3/ 384 EI
c) 5 Wl3/ 384 EI
d) 18 Wl3/ 384 EI
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The total deflection at midpoint of a simply supported beam is
y = 5Wl3/ 384 EI + Wl3/ 48 EI

y = 13Wl3/ 384 EI.
15. Meander ratio is the ratio of meander belt to __________

a) Meander depth
b) Meander width
c) Meander length
d) Meander cross-section
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: When a river departs from its straight course and follows a sinuous winding path,
the river is said to be meandering. Meander ratio is the ratio of meander belt to the meander
length.
1. A cantilever beam subjected to a point load at free end of span “l” m and possess flexural
rigidity (EI).
a) Wl3 / 6EI
b) Wl4/ 8EI
c) Wl2/ 2EI
d) Wl4/ 5EI
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Area of BMD = A = Wl2/ 2.
According to Mohr’s theorem 1, slope (i) = A/EI = Wl2/ 2EI radians.
2. Cantilever scaffolding is also known as ____________

a) mason’s scaffolding
b) suspended scaffolding
c) needle scaffolding
d) ladder scaffolding
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The cantilever scaffolding consists of platform supported by series of cantilever
beams passing through window openings. They are used when it is not possible to fix the
standards into the ground. It is also known as needle scaffolding.
3. Scaffolding you generally adopted when the height of structure is above ___________
a) 1.3 m
b) 1.5 m
c) 1.7 m
d) 2.2 m
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Scaffolding is a temporary platform provided with necessary supports close to the
work to provide a limited space for the labours and workers for the construction of masonry
work of any structure above 1.5 m.
4. The horizontal platform in between any two flights of a staircase is called ___________
a) Landing
b) Balustrade
c) Nosing
d) Stringer
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Landing in stair may be defined as the horizontal platform provided in between any
two flights landing. Landing which provides 90 degree turn in the layout of a stair is known as
quarter space landing.
5. The ratio of maximum load to the unit area is ________

a) Ultimate bearing capacity
b) Allowable bearing capacity
c) Safe bearing capacity
d) Bearing capacity
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The term bearing capacity of the soil is defined as the maximum load per unit area
which the soil will resist safely without yielding or displacement.
6. ______ is part of a structure which transmits the load to the soil underneath.
a) Basement
b) Plinth
c) Lentils
d) Foundation
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The lowest artificial built part of structure which transmits the load of the structure
to the soil lying underneath. The foundation of a structure is always constructed below ground
level. They distribute the load of structure over large bearing area. It increases the stability of the
structure as a whole.
7. Full form of NBC ___________

a) Nominal Building Centre
b) National Building Code
c) National Building Cluster
d) Nominal Buoyance Centre
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: NBC stands for National Building Code. According to NBC, all the buildings
existing and in construction are classified into number of groups. The respective crystal details
are followed with respective synapses.
8. The ultimate bearing capacity/factor of safety = ____________

a) Bearing capacity
b) Allowance bearing capacity
d) Soil consolidation capacity
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The safe bearing capacity of the soil is equal to ultimate bearing capacity divided
by certain factor of safety. Roughly a factor of safety of 2 is used for most of the building sites
and generally, a factor of safety of 2.5 to 3 is considered for heavy building constructions.
9. _____ is measured on percentage basis.

a) Camber
b) Formation width
c) Super elevation
d) Shoulder
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The rise given to the centre of the carriage way with reference to its edge can be
termed as camber. It is expressed as 1 vertical to n horizontal. It is also measured along
percentage basis.
10. ______ bridge any opening like a window, door, cupboard etc in a building.
a) Sunshade
b) Lintel
c) Footings
d) Stairs
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Lintel is a horizontal structural member spanning any opening to support loads of
the structure coming over it.
i) To facilitate the fixing of doors and windows frames wherever.
ii) They used to receive load from wall constructed over them.
11. The first solar cooker was developed in the year ____________
a) 1947
b) 1953
c) 1945
d) 1960
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The Solar cookers have a very relevant place in the present fuel consumption
pattern. The first solar cooker was developed in the year 1945 by Mr M K Ghosh. The main
reasons for non- acceptance of this device was a cheap availability of cooking fuel.
12. Solar arrays are defined in terms of ____________

a) Circuits
b) Diodes
c) Kernel
d) Panels
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The solar arrays are electrically defined in terms of circuits each of which
contributes a portion of the total current output at some nominally specified array voltage.
13. In a cantilever of span “L” subjected to a concentrated load of “W” at a distance of L/3 from
free end. The deflection is ________
a) WL3/3EI
b) 14WL3/81EI
c) WL3/81EI
d) 8WL3/81EI
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The deflection developed at the
y= W × ( 2L/3)3/ 3EI
y= 8WL3/81 EI.
14. Calculate the slope in a simply supported beam subjected to point load at centre. Take the EI
into consideration.
a) Wl3/4EI
b) Wl2/16EI
c) Wl3/8EI
d) Wl4/6EI
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The slope in a beam can be determined by Mohr’s theorem 1: i = A/EI.
The BMD of beam portion will be Wl2/16.
The slope (i) = Wl2/16EI.
15. Which of the following is a mechanical property of materials?

a) Surface Tension
b) Compressibility
c) Elasticity
d) Specific volume
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The elasticity is the property by which the body returns to its original shape after
the removal of external load. If a body regains completely its original shape is said to be a
perfectly elastic material. Rubber, mild steel and copper may be considered to be perfectly elastic
within certain limits.
1. In cantilever beams, the extra support is known as ____________

a) Hinch
b) Prop
c) Cripple
d) Indeterminate end
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In case of cantilever beam, some support other than existing ones may be provided
to reduce the amount of bending moment developed. The additional support is known as prop.
2. Prop reduces ___________ in the beam.

a) Deflection
b) Slope
c) Shear
d) Moment
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The extra support provided in case of cantilever beam excluding the existing ones is
known as prop. It is provided in order to avoid excessive deflection caused due to unequal
loading.
3. Which of the following is indeterminate structure?

a) Singly rereinforced beam
b) Propped cantilever beam
c) Over hanging beam
d) Simply supported beam
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The statically indeterminate structures are not capable of being analysed by using
equation of statics. We need some more extra conditions for finding unknowns like €i and €y etc.
A propped cantilever beam is an example of indeterminate structures.
4. ____________ is used to produce due to temperature variation in indeterminate structures.

a) Stresses
b) Strains
c) Deflections
d) Moment
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Statically indeterminate structures need some extra conditions for the further
simplification. Normally stresses are produced due to variation in indeterminate beams.
5. In cantilever beams, the maximum deflection occurs at ___________

a) Fixed end
b) Free end
c) Through out
d) Point of loading
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The maximum deflection in cantilever beam occurs at free end. To resist that
excessive deflection, the beam has to be supported by an extra support known as prop.
6. As per IRC, maximum width of lane considered as ____________

a) 2.44 m
b) 2.35 m
c) 3.5 m
d) 3.4 m
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As per IRC, the maximum width be 2.44 m. For a single lane, the width considered
is 3.8 m. The pavement having two or more lanes the weight of 3.5 metre per lane is considered
sufficient.
7. ______ is the area of land acquired and reserved for future development.
a) Right of pier
b) Carriage way
c) Right of way
d) Camber
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: It is desirable to acquire more land because of the cost of adjoining land in variable
increases after laying the road. The right of way is area of land acquired and reserved for future
development.
8. Stability of high rise vehicles will be affected due to ____________

a) Camber
b) Gradient
c) Super elevation
d) Formation Width
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The rise given to the centre portion of the proposed carriageway with reference to
its peripheral edge is called camber. Road users use more in the central portion of road and get
worn out. The stability of high rise vehicles will be affected due to heavy camber.
9. The longitudinal rise or fall off road surface along its length is _________
a) Camber
b) Super elevation
c) Gradient
d) Carriage way
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The gradient is defined as the longitudinal rise or fall off road surface love its
length is expressed as ratio 1 vertical: n horizontal or as a percentage.
10. Which of the following gradient is usually used in the construction of roads?
a) Exceptional gradient
b) Limiting gradient
c) Hydraulic gradient
d) Ruling gradient
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Ruling gradient may be used as isolated over in flat country roads carrying a large
volume of slow moving traffic. Gradient up to the ruling gradient for different terrains. It is to be
adopted in normal course of design.
11. According to IRC, the height of the object is taken to the height of ___________ mm.
a) 200 mm
b) 100 mm
c) 450 mm
d) 600 mm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Sight distance is an important requirement for the safety of travel on highways the
height of the object is taken to be at a depth of 100 mm above road.
12. What is the minimum shoulder width provided for village roads?
a) 1.25 m
b) 1.4 m
c) 0.5 m
d) 1 m
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The minimum shoulder width provided for village roads is 0.5m.
Class of road Minimum shoulder width(Hilly terrain)
NH & SH ways 1.25 m
MD roads 0.5
Village roads 0.5
13. In case of vertical curves, the ____________ are taken above the road.
a) Gradient
b) Super elevation
c) Earth quantities
d) Summit
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The line of sight of a driver above the road is taken as 1.2m. The height of the
object is taken to be height of 100 mm. Sight distance is an important resource requirement for
the safety of travel. The designing layout plays a very vital role.
14. The time required for overtaking ___________ seconds.

a) 9 to 14
b) 8 to 10
c) 11 to 15
d) 14 to 19
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In the case of vertical curves, the sight distance is an important requirement for the
safety of travel. It it is necessary that sight distance of adequate length should be available in
different situations to permit driver enough time and distance to control their vehicles so that
there are no unwarranted accidents.
15. _____ provide gradual introduction of super elevation.

a) Transition curves
b) Summit curves
c) Joint curves
d) Adjoining curves
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The transition curves are necessary for a vehicle to have smooth entry of straight
section into circular curve. They provide aesthetic experience of the road. They provide a
graduate introduction of super elevation.
1. The upward deflection caused by the prop is _____________

a) Pl3/2EI
b) Pl2/3EI
c) Pl3/3EI
d) Pl4/3EI
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The deflection developed by proper reaction at free end “y” = Pl3/3EI. A cantilever
beam which is supported by an extra support when length of beam increases beyond limit is
termed as propped cantilever in order to reduce the excessive deflection.
2. Stiffness of the propped cantilever is _________

a) 4EI/l
b) 6EI/l
c) 8EI/I
d) 5EI/l
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When is a structural member of uniform section is subjected to moment at one end
then the moment develops which is required so as to rotate the end to produce unit slope. This is
known as of the member. For propped cantilever, the stiffness is 4EI /l.
3. The major losses of energy due to friction are calculated by using _________
a) Ingli’s formulae
b) Emperical notations
c) Chezy’s Equation
d) Lacey’s Theory
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The major loss of energy is caused by friction and it is calculated by using either
Darcy – Weisbach equation or chezy’s formula. The chezy’s formula V = C(mi)1/2. Formula for
Darcy’s Weisbach equation is = 4fLV2 / 2gd.
4. The ratio of A/P is ___________

a) Hydraulic radius
b) Arbitrary datum
c) T E L
d) H G L
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The ratio to the cross sectional area and wetted perimeter is called hydraulic radius.
It is also known as hydraulic mean depth. It is denoted by m.
5. Determine the velocity of flow in a pipe if the discharge capacity is 270 litres per second and
cross sectional area is 5 cm2.
a) 4.5 m/s
b) 5.4 m/s
c) 3.4 m/s
d) 2.5 m/s
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Discharge (Q) = 270 lit/sec = 270 × 10-3 = 0.27 m3/ s.
Velocity of flow in narrow pipe = Q / A
= 0.27/ 0.05 = 5.4 m/s.
6. Calculate the reaction at prop of cantilever, if the span of beam is 5m and load is 20 kN.
a) 4.25 kN
b) 5 kN
c) 6.25 kN
d) 8 kN
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: For analysing the prop reaction for a cantilever beam at free end = P = 5W/16
P = 5 × 20 / 16
P = 6.25 kN.
7. The highest point on syphon is known as ____

a) Summit
b) Crown
c) Limb
d) Tread
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A siphon is a long bent pipe used to transfer water from one reservoir to the other
reservoir which is located at different elevations. The highest point of the siphon is known as
Summit.
8. The position between the summit and the lower reservoir is known as ___________
a) Inlet leg
b) Outlet leg
c) Pressure head
d) Datum
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The portion of the syphon which lies above the HGL has negative pressures and the
portion between the summit and the lower reservoir is known as out let leg. At the summit the
pressure is minimum.
9. Full form of TEL is _________

a) Total Emission Line
b) Thermal Electro Light
c) Total Energy Line
d) Total Electro Light
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: TEL (Total Energy Line) is the line which is obtained by joining tops of all vertical
ordinates showing the sum of pressure head and kinetic head from the centre of the pipe.
10. The sheet of water flowing through a notch is called Nappe.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The sheet of water flowing through a notch or weir is called as Nappe or Vein. The
bottom of the notch or the top of weir over which the water flows is known as the sill (or) crest
and its height about the bottom of the tank or channel is known as sill height or crest height.
11. The width of broad gauge is ___________

a) 1.445m
b) 1.676m
c) 1 m
d) 0.61 m
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The width of broad gauge is 1.676m.
Types of Gauge Gauge Width
Broad gauge 1.676 m
Narrow gauge 0.762 m
Light gauge 0.61 m
12. Which of the following gauge is the Indian Standard Gauge?

a) Broad gauge
b) Narrow gauge
c) Light gauge
d) Metre gauge
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The Broad gauge is the Indian Standard gauge. It is widely accepted because of its
complexity. The world standard gauge is 1.483 m. Broad gauge enables the rails to act as girders
and transmit the wheel load to sleepers.
13. _____ is the weakest part in railway track.

a) Rail joint
b) Sleepers
c) Ballast
d) Spikes
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Rail joint is a joint made between two rails jointed together with two fish plates and
for fish bolts, to form an expansion gap of 1.5 to 3 mm. Rain joint is the weakest part in railway
track.
14. About 90% railway tracks laid with ___________ rails in the world.
a) DH rails
b) BH rails
c) FF rails
d) GH rails
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In flat footed rails, foot is made thinner and wider than head. These rails can be
directly fixed to sleepers using slip spikes. This rail invented by Charles Vignoles and hence it is
also known as Vignoles rails.
15. Brass is an example of ____________

a) Creep
b) Fatigue
c) Toughness
d) Hardness
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Toughness is a property of a material, which enables it to absorb energy without
fracture. It exists due to impact loads. Hence this property is very desirable in every component
subject to impact stock loadings.
Brass and Mild steel are examples of toughness
1. A beam which is inbuilt in at its support is called _________
a) Cantilever beam
b) Simply supported beam
c) Fixed beam
d) Continuous beam
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A beam which is built in at its support is known as a fixed beam. In a fixed beam,
fixed end moments are developed at the ends. The slope at the end support is zero or (unaltered).
2. Fixed beam is also known as _______

a) Encaster beam
b) Constressed beam
c) In built beam
d) Constricted beam
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Fixed beam is also called Encaster beam or Constraint beam or Built in beam. In a
fixed beam the fixed end moments develop at the end supports. In these beams, the supports
should be kept at the same level.
3. In fixed beams, the slope at the supports be ___________

a) Minimum
b) Zero
c) Maximum
d) Throughout
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The fixed beam is stronger, stiffer and more stable. The slope at the supports is
zero.
Maximum bending moment at the centre is reduced because of fixing moments developed at
supports.
4. _______ changes induce large stresses in a fixed beam.

a) Lateral
b) Deflection
c) Temperature
d) Slope
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In fixed beam, sinking of any one support sets large stresses. The temperature
changes induce the largest stress. The moving loads make the degree of fixity at support
uncertain.
5. A beam 6 metres long is fixed at it ends. It carries a udl of 5 kN/m. Find the maximum
bending moment in the beam.
a) 15 kNm
b) 20 kNm
c) 35 kNm
d) 40 kNm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A beam carrying udl along its entire span, the maximum bending moment
developed = wl2 / 12.
= 5×62 / 12.
15 kNm.
6. Calculate the maximum deflection of a fixed beam carrying udl of 5 kN/m. The span of beam
is 6 m. Take E = 200kN/m2 and I = 5×107 mm4.
a) 1.865 m
b) 2.235 m
c) 1.6875 m
d) 2.5 m
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The maximum deflection in fixed beam is wl4/384EI
= 5×64 × 109/ 384×200×5×107
= 1.6875 mm.
7. Calculate the load intensity of fixed beam if the maximum deflection shall not exceed 1/ 400
of the span. Take EI as 1010 kN mm2.
a) 40 kN
b) 35 kN
c) 45 kN
d) 60 kN
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: When the maximum deflection equals to 1 / 400 of the span.
Wl4/ 384 EI = 1 /400.
W= 384 EI / 400 l3
W = 45 kN.
8. ____ is known as a serpentine curve.

a) Circular curve
b) Transition curve
c) Reverse curve
d) Leminiscate curve
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Reverse curves are provided in difficult terrain. In these curves, the simple curves
have a common tangent. They consist of two simple curves of same or different radii. These
curves are also known as serpentine curves.
9. The maximum super elevation to be provided is ___

a) 2 in 15
b) 1 in 15
c) 1 in 10
d) 2 in 10
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: According to IRC, the maximum super elevation of 1 in 15 is to be provided.
Minimum super elevation is required for proper drainage. If the super elevation calculated is less
than the camber no superelevation is to be provided.
10. ______ curves are used to solve the problems of land acquisition.
a) Vertical curves
b) Horizontal curves
c) Circular curves
d) Transition curves
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A horizontal curve is the curve in plane to provide change in direction to the centre
line of the alignment. It is used to preserve the certain existing amenities and to solve the
problems of land acquisition.
11. The limiting gradient for mountainous terrain is ________

a) 6.00 %
b) 7.00 %
c) 8.00 %
d) 5.00 %
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The limiting gradient for mountainous terrain is 6.00%.
Type of terrain Ruling Gradient Limiting Gradient Exceptional Gradient
Plain 3.30% 5.00% 6.70%
Mountainous 5.00% 6.00% 7.00%
12. Which of the following do not have units?
a) Specific weight
b) Specific gravity
c) Specific volume
d) Mass density
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Specific gravity is defined as the ratio of the specific weight of solids to the specific
weight of an equal volume of water at the temperature. It is denoted by S. As it is a ratio, it
doesn’t possess units.
13. In engineering properties of soils, the “e” denotes?

a) Compressibility
b) Water content
c) Porosity
d) Voids ratio
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Void ratio is defined as the ratio of the total volume of voids to volume of soil
solids. It is expressed as a decimal.
14. _____ is a glacier deposit of sand, gravel or clay.

a) Till
b) Tull
c) Loess
d) Mart
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The deposits made by glaciers are called drifts. The deposits made by the melting
of glaciers are called till. Till is a stratified soil.
15. The bearing capacity of laminated rocks used in foundation is ___________

a) 1450 kN/m2
b) 1620 kN/m2
c) 1785 kN/m2
d) 2125 kN/m2
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The bearing capacity of laminated rocks used in foundation is 1620 kN/m2.
1. In fixed beams, the maximum deflection at __________ is reduced.

a) Centre
b) Supports
c) At point of loading
d) Through out
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In fixed beams, the maximum bending moment developed at the centre is reduced.
Hence it results in the reduction of deflection of a beam at its centre considerably.
2. Fixing couples means _____

a) End moments
b) Support couples
c) Support moments
d) End supports
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: If the ends are built in, end moments are automatically developed. These moments
are called as fixing couples or fixing moments or support moments.
3. Calculate the maximum bending moment in fixed beam for the following figure.
a) 17 kN-m
b) 12.5 kN-m
c) 15.625 kN-m
d) 18 kN-m
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: For a fixed beam, the maximum bending moment is w×l / 8.
Maximum bending moment (M) = 25 × 5 / 8
= 15.625 kNm.
4. _________ is provided to prevent the debris from entering into the penstock.
a) Tash rack
b) Surge tank
c) Anchor blocks
d) Power house
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Trash rack is a structure which is provided to prevent the debris from entering into
the penstock. The trash racks are usually located ahead of the gates. The debris which is
collected on the trash rack may be removed either manually or with the help of automatic power
driven racks.
5. __________ regulates the speed of turbine.

a) Tail race
b) Anchor blocks
c) Power house
d) Surge tank
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The surge tank controls the pressure variations in a penstock. Thereby the penstock
is protected from effects of water hammer pressure. The surge tank is provided on large penstock
to regulate the speed of the turbine.
6. The sheet of water flowing through a notch is called ________

a) Sill
b) Crest
c) Scour
d) Nappe
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The sheet of water flowing through notch or weir is called as the nappe or vein. The
bottom of the notch or the top of the weir over which the water flows is known as the sill.
7. Which of the following is empirical formula coined by Francis?

a) 2.36 LH3/2
b) 1.84 LH3/2
c) 3.34 LH3/2
d) 1.96 LH3/2
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Francis proposed the following formula for discharge over rectangular weir by
assuming Cd = 0.623
Q = 1.84 LH3/2
Where Q = discharge in m3/ s.
8. Calculate discharge of a weir 2 metre long with a water flow over a head of 250 mm use
Francis formula.
a) 0.34 m3/s
b) 0.46 m3/s
c) 0.25 m3/s
d) 0.65 m3/s
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Given that:
Length of weir = L = 2m.
Head over the weir = 0.25 m
Using Francis formula; Q =1.84 LH3/2 = 1.84 × 2×(0.25)3/2.
Q = 0.46 m3/s.
9. 1 litre = ____________ m3.

a) 104
b) 103
c) 10-3
d) 10-4
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: 1 litre = 10-3m3.
For example, Q = 40 lit/min = 40/60 lit/sec = 0.67 × 10-3 m3/sec.
10. In cipoletti weir, the side slopes are _______________

a) 1 in 3
b) 1 in 2
c) 1 in 5
d) 1 in 4
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A trapezoidal weir, which has side slopes of 1 horizontal to 4 vertical, is called as
cipoletti weir. The discharge over a cipolletti weir is equal to the discharge over a rectangular
Weir without end contractions.
11. The flow of thick oil through a small tube is an example for _________
a) Laminar flow
b) Turbulent flow
c) Rotational flow
d) Steady flow
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A flow is said to be laminar when the paths taken by the individual particles do not
cross one another. It is also called as streamline flow. The flow of thick oil through a small tube
is an example for laminar flow.
12. Flow in rivers is an example of __________ flow.
a) Rotational
b) Laminar
c) Compressible
d) Turbulent
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A flow is said to be turbulent when the liquid particles move in a zig-zag way and
their paths also cross each other. The flow in rivers at the time of floods is a perfect example of
turbulent flow.
13. What is the point of contraflexure in a fixed beam of span 5m?

a) 3m
b) 2.75 m
c) 3.75 m
d) 4 m
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The point of contraflexure from any support be 3×l / 4.
From support A = 3l/4 = 3×5/4 = 3.75 m.
From support B = 3l/4 = 3×5/4 = 3.75 m.
14. Water table should be at least __________ m below subgrade.

a) 1.5m
b) 3 m
c) 1.2 m
d) 2.5 m
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The top level of water table should be below the level of subgrade. Water table
should be at least 1.2 metres below subgrade. If the soil is impermeable, the longitudinal and
transverse drains have to be provided to lower the water table.
15. Torsteel is an example of _______

a) Elasticity
b) Plasticity
c) Malleability
d) Ductility
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Ductility is one of the mechanical properties of materials. It is defined as the
property possessed by the material by which material can be drawn into thin wires after
undergoing deformation without any rupture. Torsteel is an example of ductility property.
1. A beam which is supported on more than two supports is called as______

a) Fixed beam
b) Continuous beam
c) Cantilever beam
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A beam which is supported on more than two supports is known as a continuous
beam. The intermediate supports of a continuous beam are always subjected to some bending
moment.
2. Which of the following them is also known as multi span beam _______
a) Cantilever beam
c) Fixed beam
d) Continuous beam
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A continuous beam is a beam which is supported on more than two supports. It is
also known as multi span beam. The degree of indeterminacy depends upon the number of
supports and nature of supports.
3. In deflection of a continuous beam, when loaded there will be convexity upwards over
_________ supports.
a) End
b) Alternate
c) Intermediate
d) Every
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: When a continuous beam is loaded, the deflection of the beam takes place along the
intermediate supports with convexity upwards.
4. The _________ is more over the supports then at midspan in continuous beams.
a) Slope
b) Bending moment
c) Deflection
d) Shear force
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The bending moment is more over the supports then at midspan in case of
continuous beams and hence the weight of the beam does not materially affect the stresses in the
beam.
5. Moment distribution method is also known as __________

a) Hardy Cross method
b) Macaulay’s method
c) Mohr’s Theorems method
d) Kennedy’s theory
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The moment distribution method is evolved by professor Hardy cross in 1932 and
can be used with advantage to analyse statically indeterminate structures and frames with rigid
joint this method is simple and involves a process of relaxation.
6. Which of the following device is not based on Bernoulli’s equation?

a) Venturimeter
b) Orificemeter
c) Hydraulic lift
d) Pitot tube
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Bernoulli’s equation is applied to incompressible liquid flow where energy
consideration is involved. Some of the hydraulic devices which are based on Bernoulli’s
equation are venturimeter, orificemeter, Pitot tube.
7. Pascal’s law is applied in ____________

a) Pitot tube
b) Hydraulic lift
c) Orificemeter
d) Venturimeter
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Hydraulic lift is an example of Pascal’s law. According to Pascal’s law the “At a
given point, the force is applied in all directions” and the rest are the examples of Bernoulli’s
equation.
8. Which of the following devices measures the velocity of flow?

a) Pitot tube
b) Venturimeter
c) Orificemeter
d) Hydraulic jacks
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A pitot tube is a device which is used for measuring the velocity of flow at any
point in a pipe or channel. It is based on the principle that if the velocity of flow at any point
becomes zero, the pressure there is increased due to the conversion of kinetic energy into
pressure energy.
9. Which of the following is the coefficient of pitot tube?

a) 0.96
b) 0.98
c) 0.97
d) 0.95
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The velocity (V) = Cv (2gh) 1/2.
Where Cv = coefficient of pitot tube = 0.98
h= difference between liquid levels in the pitot tube and piezometer.
10. Bernoulli’s equation is applicable only for ___________ flow.

a) Rotational
b) Steady
c) Compressible
d) Unsteady
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The Bernoulli’s equation has been derived on the assumption that the velocity is
uniform over the section. The Bernoulli’s equation is applicable only for steady, incompressible
and irrotational flows.
11. Flow of water when a tap is just open is an example of __________ flow.
a) Uniform
b) Steady
c) Un steady
d) Turbulent
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The flow is said to be unsteady if at any point in flowing liquid any one or all flow
characteristics change with time liquid that is flowing at a changing rate as in the case. The flow
in the tap is just opened is a perfect example for unsteady flow.
12. A Straight cantilever of uniform area carries a udl over its entire length. If the free end of a
cantilever is now prop at the level of the fixed end, the vertical force required at the prop be
__________
a) 3/4 W
b) 3/8 W
c) 5/8 W
d) W
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Where, total load on beam = W = wl
Wl3/8EI = B×l3 / 3EI

Reaction at B = 3W/8.
13. ____________ is used to empty a tank of water having no outlet.

a) Venacontracta
b) Syphon
c) Summit
d) Dyne
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A syphon is used to connect two different elevations separated by a mountain
They also used to supply water to a town over a ridge and supply type of water having an outlet.
14. Find out the elongation of a tie of 2m long, if the axial rigidity is 5000 × 10 4 mm2. The axial
pull be 20 kN.
a) 0.8 mm
b) 0.6 mm
c) 0.5 mm
d) 1mm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Axial pull 20000N.
Elongation : Pl/ AE
Change in length = PL/ AE
= 20×10/500×11÷103.
15. Glass is an example of _________
a) Elastic
b) Brittle
c) Toughness
d) Hardness
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Brittleness is a property of a material by which It Breaks without much deformation
produce his property generally considered to be highly objectionable in engineering.
1. The maximum negative bending moment in fixed beam carrying udl occurs at ________
a) Mid span
b) 1/3 of the span
c) Supports
d) Half of the span
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In case of fixed beam subjected to gravity loads maximum hogging or negative
bending moment develops at the supports. At centre, the maximum bending moment is reduced.
2. A fixed beam of the uniform section is carrying a point load at the centre, if the moment of
inertia of the middle half portion is reduced to half its previous value, then the fixed end
moments will ______
a) Increase
b) Remains constant
c) Decrease
d) Change their direction
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The flexural rigidity value is reduced in middle half portion of the second case
fixed end moments which have developed in a beam section will be increases.
3. In propped cantilevers, the prop reaction is 3/8 wl.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In propped cantilever beam net deflection at fixed end is zero therefore Rl3/3EI =
wl4/8EI
R= 3wl/8.
4. A propped cantilever beam carrying total load “W” distributed evenly over its entire length
calculate the vertical force required in the prop.
a) 3/4 W
b) W
c) 5/8 W
d) 3/8 W
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Therefore Total load on beam = W = wl
Rl3/3EI = Wl3/ 8EI.

R = 3W/8.
The vertical force required at the prop is 3W/8.
5. _____ is a small opening made in the bottom or sides of a tank.

a) Mouthpiece
b) Orifice
c) Sill
d) Sluice
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: An orifice is defined as a small opening of any cross sections such as circular,
square, triangular& rectangular etc. made in the walls or the bottom of a tank containing liquid in
it through which the liquid flows.
6. A mouthpiece is a short length of a pipe which is not more than __________ times its
diameter.
a) 3-4
b) 5-6
c) 1 -2
d) 2-3
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A mouth piece is defined as a short length of a pipe which is not more than two or
three times its diameter, fitted to an orifice of same diameter provided especially in a tank
containing liquid.
7. The section which has a minimum cross sectional are in a flow is known as _______
a) Vena contracta
b) Thyrocade
c) Submergent
d) Upstream edge
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The section of the jet, at which the flow in a liquid has a minimum cross sectional
area, is known as vena contracta. This is due to the fact that liquid particles do not change their
directions abruptly.
8. Bell mouthed orifices can be categorised in according to ___________

a) Size
b) Shape
c) Shape of upstream
d) Nature of discharge
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The orifices are classified on the basis of their size, shape, shape of upstream edge
and discharge conditions. According to shape of the upstream edge, the orifices are classified as
sharp edged orifice and Bell mouthed orifice.
9. Which of the following is not a hydraulic coefficient?

a) Coefficient of contraction
b) Coefficient of discharge
c) Coefficient of viscosity
d) Coefficient of velocity
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Coefficient of viscosity can be defined as the shear stress required producing unit
rate of angular deformation. It is also called as dynamic viscosity.
10. Theorotical velocity = _______

a) (2gh)1/3
b) (2gh)1/2
c) (2gh)1/4
d) 2gh
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The coefficient of velocity the ratio of actual velocity of the liquid to the theoretical
velocity. Theoretical velocity = (2gh) 1/2.
Where h = liquid head above the centre of orifice.
11. The value of Cv varies _______ to ________
a) 0.95 – 0.99
b) 0.93 – 0.95
c) 0.97 – 1
d) 0.94 – 0.96
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The value of coefficient of velocity (Cv) vary from 0.95 to 0.99 for different
orifices depending on shape, size of the orifices and the head under which floor takes place.
12. The Cv taken for sharp edged orifice generally is _________

a) 0.97
b) 0.98
c) 0.95
d) 0.99
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The Cv taken for sharp edged orifice generally is 0.98.
Value For Sharp edged orifice Hydraulic coefficient
0.98 Cv
0.64 Ca
0.62 Cd
13. Coeffecient of discharge varies from ___________ to __________

a) 0.64 to 0.68
b) 0.61 to 0.65
c) 0.63 to 0.67
d) 0.67 to 0.7
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Coefficient of discharge is defined as the ratio between actual discharge from an
orifice and its theoretical discharge. It varies from 0.61 to 0.65.Generally, the value for Cd = 0.62
Sir sharp edged orifice.
14. The relation between hydraulic coefficients is Cd = Cc × Cv.

a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Cd = Qa / Qth
But Qa = ac V =(Cc a) × Cv × (2gh)1/2.
Qth = a Vth
Cd = Qa Qth = Cc a × Cv (2gh)1/2/a × (2gh)1/2.
Cd = Cc × Cv.
15. Calculate the actual velocity of jet if the coefficient of velocity is 0.97. The head of water on
the orifice of diameter 2 cm is 6 m.
a) 11 m/s
b) 12 m/s
c) 10.5 m/s
d) 13 m/s
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: We know that quotient of velocity the ratio of actual velocity to theoretical
velocity. The actual velocity of jet Va = Cv × (2gh) 1/2.
Va = 0.97 (2× 9.81 ×6 )1/2.
Va = 10.5 m/s.
1. Torque is __________ moment.

a) Twisting
b) Shear
c) Bending
d) Couple
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A cylindrical shaft is subjected to twisting moment or torque when a force is acting
on the member tangentially at some radius in a plane of its cross section.
2. Twisting moment is a product of __________ and the radius.

a) Direction
b) Velocity
c) Force
d) Acceleration
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Twisting moment will be equal to the product of force and radius. When a shaft is
subjected to a twisting moment, every cross section of the shaft will surely experience shear
stress.
3. Torsion is denoted by __________

a) R
b) Q
c) T
d) N
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: If the moment is applied in a plane perpendicular to the longitudinal axis of the
beam (or) shaft it will be subjected to torsion. Torsion is represented or denoted by T.
4. The SI units for torsion is __________

a) N m
b) N
c) N/m
d) m
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As torsion is a product of perpendicular force and radius, the units will be N m.
Torque is also known as torsion or twisting moment or turning moment.
5. _____________ torsion is produced when twisting couple coincides with the axis of the shaft.
a) Exact
b) Pure
c) Nominal
d) Mild
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When a member is subjected to the equal and opposite twisting moment at its ends,
then the member is said to be subjected under pure torsion. Pure Torsion is often produced when
the axis of the twisting couple coincides with the axis of the shaft.
6. Which of the following is known as Re-entrant mouthpiece?

a) External Mouthpiece
b) Convergent Mouthpiece
c) Internal Mouthpiece
d) Cylindrical Mouthpiece
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: According to the position, mouthpieces are classified as an external mouthpiece and
internal mouthpiece. If the tube projects inside the tank, it is called an internal mouthpiece or re-
entrant or borda’s mouthpiece.
7. Micrometre contraction gauge is used to determine ___________

a) Cv
b) Cc
c) Ca
d) Cd
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The coefficient of contraction may be determined experimentally by measuring the
radius of jet as vena contact with the help of micro meter contraction gauge. This method is not
accurate because it is very difficult to measure the correct radius of jet.
8. What is the general value for coefficient of contraction?

a) 0.64
b) 0.67
c) 0.66
d) 0.7
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The ratio of the area of a jet at vena contracta to the area of orifice is known as the
coefficient of contraction. The value of Cc varies from 0.61 to 0.69 for different orifices.
Generally, for sharp edged orifice the value of Cc may be taken as 0. 64.
9. The Cd value for internal mouthpiece running free is __________

a) 0.6
b) 0.5
c) 0.7
d) 0.8
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The Cd value for internal mouthpiece running free is 0.5.
Type Of Mouthpiece Value of Cd
External cylindrical mouthpiece 0.855
Internal mouthpiece running free 0.5
Internal mouthpiece running full 0.707
10. _______ is the velocity with which water reaches the notch or before it flows over it.
a) Velocity of contact
b) Velocity of moment
c) Velocity of approach
d) Velocity of head
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The velocity of approach is defined as the velocity with which water reaches the
notch or weir before it flows over it. This velocity of approach creates an additional head “ha”
equal to Va2 / 2g and effect head over the notch is increased to H+ha.
11. Which of the following formula was proposed by Bazin?
a) m(2g)1/2×LH3/2
b) m(2g) 1/2×H3/2
c) n(2g) 1/2×LH4/3
d) n(2g)1/2×LH3/2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Bazin proposed the following formula for the discharge over rectangular weir:
Q = m(2g) 1/2× L H3/2.
Where m = 0.405 + 0.003/H.
12. For measuring low discharges _____________ notch is preferred.

a) Rectangular
b) Stepped
c) Trapezoidal
d) Triangular
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A triangular notch is preferred to a rectangular notch due to
i. The nappe emerging from a triangular notch has the same shape for all heads. As such the
value for the triangular notch is constant for all heads.
ii. The expression for discharge for right angle triangle law not is very simple.
13. Which of the following is also known as V notch?

a) Trapezoidal
b) Stepped
c) Triangular
d) Sharp edged
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A triangular notch also called a v notch is of triangle shape with apex down. The
expression of the discharge over triangular notch or weir is Q = 8/15 Cd (2g) 1/2 × H 5/2.
14. Calculate the discharge over rectangular Weir of 3 metres length under the head of
400mm.Use Francis formula.
a) 1.268 m3/s
b) 1.396 m3/s
c) 1.475 m3/s
d) 1.528 m3/s
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Francis formula for discharge Q = 1.84 LH3/2.
Given L = 3m & H = 0.4m
Q = 1.84 × 3 × (0.4)3/2.
Q = 1.396 m3/s.
15. _____ converts mechanical energy into hydraulic energy.

a) Dynamo
b) Pump
c) Turbine
d) Generator
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A pump is a mechanical device which converts the mechanical energy into
hydraulic energy. The hydraulic energy is in the form of pressure energy. The pumps are
generally used for lifting liquid from a lower level to a higher level.
1. Torsional sectional modulus is also known as _________

a) Polar modulus
b) Sectional modulus
c) Torsion modulus
d) Torsional rigidity
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The ratio of polar moment of inertia to radius of section is called Polar modulus or
Torsional section modulus. Its units are mm3 or m3 (in SI).
2. ________ is a measure of the strength of shaft in rotation.

a) Torsional modulus
c) Polar modulus
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The polar modulus is a measure of the strength of shaft in rotation. As the value of
Polar modulus increases torsional strength increases.
3. What are the units of torsional rigidity?

a) Nmm2
b) N/mm
c) N-mm
d) N
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The product of modulus of rigidity (C) and polar moment of inertia (J) is called
torsional rigidity. Torsional rigidity is a torque that produces a twist of one radian in a shaft of
unit length.
4. The angle of twist can be written as ________

a) TL/J
b) CJ/TL
c) TL/CJ
d) T/J
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The angle of Twist = TL/CJ
Where T = Torque in Nm
L = Length of shaft
CJ = Torsional rigidity.
5. The power transmitted by shaft SI system is given by __________

a) 2πNT/60
b) 3πNT/60
c) 2πNT/45
d) NT/60 W
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In SI system, Power (P) is measured in watts (W) ; P = 2πNT/60
Where T = Average Torque in N.m
N = rpm
= 2πNT/ 45 1 watt = 1 Joule/sec = 1N.m/s.
6. Area of catchment is measured in ___________

a) mm3
b) Km2
c) Km
d) mm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Catchment area can be defined as the area which contributes the surplus water
present over it to the stream or river. It is an area which is responsible for maintaining flow in
natural water bodies. It is expressed in square kilometres.
7. ______ catchment area is a sum of free catchment area and intercepted catchment area.
a) Total
b) Additional
c) Combined
d) Overall
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Combined catchment area is defined as the total catchment area which contributes
the water in to stream or a tank. Combined Catchment area = Free catchment area + intercepted
catchment area.
8. ___________ has steep slopes and gives more run off.

a) Intercepted Catchment Area
b) Good Catchment Area
c) Combined Catchment Area
d) Average Catchment Area
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Good catchment area consists of hills or rocky lands with steep slopes and little
vegetation. It gives more run off.
9. How many number of rain gauge stations should be installed an area between 250 to 500 km2.
a) 2
b) 4
c) 3
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: 3 number of rain gauge stations should be installed an area between 250 to 500
km2.
Area of Basin(Km2) Number of Rain gauge stations
< 125 1
125 – 250 2
250 – 500 3
10. Trend of rainfall can be studied from _______

a) Rainfall graphs
b) Rainfall records
c) Rainfall curves
d) Rainfall cumulatives
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Rainfall records are useful for calculating run off over a basin. By using rainfall
records estimate of design parameters of irrigation structures can be made. The maximum flow
due to any storm can be calculated and predicted.
11. Estimation of run off “R” is 0.85P-30.48.

The above formula was coined by _____
a) Lacey
b) Darcy
c) Khosla
d) Ingli
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Run off can be estimated by
R= 0.85P-30.48
Where R = annual runoff in mm
P = annual rainfall in mm.
12. Monsoon duration factor is denoted by ________

a) P
b) S
c) F
d) T
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Monsoon duration factor is denoted by F.
Class of Monsoon Monsoon Duration Factor (F)
Very Short 0.5
Standard length 1.0
Very long 1.5
13. Runoff coefficient is denoted by _______

a) P
b) N
c) K
d) H
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The runoff coefficient can be defined as the ratio of runoff to rainfall. Rainfall and
runoff can be interrelated by runoff coefficient.
R = KP
K = R/P [K = is a runoff Coefficient depending on the surface of the catchment area].
14. _________ is a graph showing variations of discharge with time.
a) Rising limb graph
b) Crest graph
c) Hydraulic graph
d) Gauge graph
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Hydrograph is a graph showing variations of discharge with time at a particular
point of the stream. The hydrograph shows the time distribution of total run off at a point of
measurement. Maximum flood discharge can also be calculated by using hydrograph.
15. Calculate the torque which a shaft of 300 mm diameter can safely transmit, if the shear stress
is 48 N / mm2.
a) 356 kNm
b) 254 kNm
c) 332 kNm
d) 564 kNm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Given, the diameter of shaft D = 300 mm
Maximum shear stress fs = 48 N/mm2.
Torque = T = π/16 fs D3
= 254469004.9 Nmm
= 254 kNm.
1
. The intensity of shear stress at a section is ______ to the distance of the section from the axis of
the shaft.
a) Inversely proportional
b) Directly proportional
c) Equal
d) Parallel
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The intensity of shear stress at a section is directly proportional to the distance of
the section from axis of the shaft. The shear stress at a distance from the centre of the shaft is
given by fs/R × r.
2. The shear stress is ____________ at the axis of the shaft.

a) Minimum
b) Maximum
c) Zero
d) Uniform
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The shear stress is zero at the axis of the shaft and the shear stress is linearly
increasing to the maximum value at the surface of the shaft.
3. The shear stress at the outer surface of hollow circular section is _________
a) Zero
b) Maximum
c) Minimum
d) Can’t determined
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The shear stress in a hollow circular section varies from maximum at the outer
surface to a minimum (but not zero) in the inner face. The minimum value should be greater than
zero.
4. The hollow shaft will transmit greater _______ then the solid shaft of the same weight.
a) Bending moment
b) Shear stress
c) Torque
d) Sectional Modulus
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: For the same maximum shear stress, the average shear stress in a hollow shaft is
greater than that in a solid shaft of the same area. Hence the hollow shaft will transmit greater
torque than the solid shaft of the same weight.
5. The process of measurement of discharge and water level of a river is called _________
a) Meandering
b) River coursing
c) River gauging
d) Scouring
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The process of measurement of discharge and water level of a river is known as
river gauge. It helps in determining the characteristics of flow different times during the year.
6. The quantity of losses in the river can be measured with an aid of ________
a) Runoff coefficient
b) Hydrograph
c) River Coursing
d) River gauging
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: By measuring river discharge for number of years, it is possible to know the
available and dependable supply. The river gauging helps in measuring discharge in the river and
the quantity of losses can also be known.
7. The site for the river gauging station should not be liable to ____________
a) Silting
b) Coursing
c) Meandering
d) Runoff
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: River gauging station site should be selected in such a way that the site should be
stable and there should not be any choice of scouring and silting. At the gauge site, the river
section should be at right angles to the flow of the river.
8. Stage discharge relationship method is also known as ________ method.

a) Velocity Volume
b) Velocity Area
c) Distance Area
d) Displacement Momentum
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Stage discharge relationship method is a direct method of computing a discharge in
a stream by measuring velocity and area of flow. The place where such measurements are taken
is known as velocity area station and the method is known as the velocity area method.
9. Velocity in a river flow can be calculated by using _________

a) By current meter
b) By emperical formulae
c) By infiltration method
d) By hydrograph
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The velocity flow at any point in an open channel or in a river can be most
accurately and conveniently determined by a mechanical device called current metre in this
device the velocity of flow can be read from rating table.
10. Which of the following method is not used in measuring the velocity of a stream?
a) By floats
b) By rod float
c) By hydrograph
d) By colour
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Hydrograph is a method of estimation of runoff. While the rest of the methods used
in measuring the velocity of a stream/ river or canal. Hydrograph is a graph which shows the
variations of discharge with respect to time.
11. The maximum flood discharge is also known as ___________

a) Peak flow
b) Maximum flow
c) Peak discharge
d) Peak flood
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The maximum rate of discharge during a period of runoff, which is caused by a
storm, is called a peak flow maximum flood discharge. Estimation of maximum flood discharge
is a first step in planning for flood regulation.
12. Which of the following method is used to estimate maximum flood discharge?
a) By travelling screen
b) By current meter
c) By physical indication of past floods
d) By salt velocity
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The results obtained by the physical indication of past floods methods are
somewhat reliable. By oral enquiry in the villages situated on the banks of the river, the
maximum water level attained in the past 35 years can be obtained. But this method is out-dated.
13. ________formula is used only in southern India for calculating maximum flood discharge.
a) Dickens
b) Ryve’s
c) Lacey’s
d) Francis
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Ryve’s (1884) formula is used only in Southern India.
Q = C(A)2/3.
The coefficient “C” depends on the maximum intensity of rainfall and other factors such as
shape slopes exedra of the catchment.
14. A catchment area of 30.5 km2 is situated in Central India calculate the maximum discharge
coming from the catchment area.
a) 253.08 cumecs
b) 341.06 cumecs
c) 457.88 cumecs
d) 485.66 cumecs
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As the catchment area is situated in central India. Dicken’s formula is suitable and a
maximum value of Dickens Coefficient is taken as 19.5
Q = CA3/4
Q = 19.5 × (30.5)3/4
Q = 253.08 cumecs.
15. If the catchment area is situated in north India, then what is the flood coefficient?
a) 10.45
b) 11.37
c) 12.6
d) 19.4
View Answer
Answer: b
1. The moment of inertia of a plane area with respect to an axis ____________ to the plane is
called a polar moment of inertia.
a) Parallel
b) Perpendicular
c) Equal
d) Opposite
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The moment of inertia of a plane area with respect to an axis perpendicular to the
plane of the figure is called a polar moment of inertia with respect to a point, where the axis
intersects a plane.
2. What are the units of Polar modulus?

a) mm3
b) mm2
c) mm
d) mm4
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The ratio of polar moment of inertia (J) to the radius of section(R) is known as
polar modulus or torsional section modulus. Its units are mm3.
3. What is the polar modulus for solid shaft?

a) π/16 D2
b) π/12 D3
c) π/ 16 D3
d) π/16 D
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: For solid shaft Z = J/R = π/32 × D4/ D/2.
Z = π/16 D3.
4. Calculate the polar moment of inertia for a solid circular shaft of 30 mm diameter.
a) 76m4
b) 79.5m4
c) 81m4
d) 84m4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Diameter of the shaft = 30 mm
Polar moment of inertia = J = π/32 × (30)4 mm4
J = 79.52 m4.
5. A hollow shaft outside diameter 120 mm and thickness 20 mm. Find polar moment of inertia.
a) 16.36 × 106 mm4
b) 18.45 × 106 mm4
c) 21.3 × 106 mm4
d) 22.5 × 106 mm4
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: For hollow circular shaft, outside diameter = 120 mm; d = 120-2×20 = 80 mm
the polar moment of inertia = π/32 × (1204– 804).
J = 16.36 × 106 mm4.
6. Determine the maximum flood discharge from a catchment area of 40.25 km2 and it is situated
in the Western Ghats.
a) 350 cumecs
b) 375 cumecs
c) 400 cumecs
d) 425 cumecs
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Since the catchment area is situated in the Western Ghats, the formula best suited is
Dicken’s formula and the coefficient of Dicken’s may be taken as 25.
Q = CA3/4
Q = 25×(40.25)3/4
Q = 400 cumecs.
7. Which of the following is known as “under sluices”?

a) Scouring Sluices
b) Divide wall
c) Fish ladder
d) Head Regulator
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The openings provided in a body wall of the weir almost at the bed level of the
river are known as scouring sluices. These are also known as under sluices.
8. _______ provides straight approach to the scouring sluices.

a) Head regulator
b) Silt Excluder
c) Divide wall
d) Guide banks
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A divide wall is a long solid wall constructed perpendicular to the axis of weir. It
provides a straight approach to the scouring sluices. By preventing the formation of cross
currents, it protects the body wall of weir.
9. __________ is provided for the easy movement of fish from upstream to downstream.
a) Fish ladder
b) Silt excluder
c) Marginal bunds
d) Marginal embankments
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A passage provided just by the side of a divide wall for the movement of fish from
upstream to downstream or vice versa is known as a fish ladder.
10. __________ is used as measuring device.

a) Head regulator
b) Divide wall
c) Cross regulator
d) Scouring sluices
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A structure constructed at the head of the canal to regulate the supply of water into
the canal is called “Head Regulator”. The functions:
i. It is used as a measuring device.
ii. It controls the entry of silt into the canal.
11. __________ is provided to prevent the river from outflanking the work.
a) Guide banks
b) Marginal bunds
c) Silt excluder
d) Divide wall
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Guide banks are provided on either side of the diversion head works in alluvial
soils for a smooth non -tortuous approach to the diversion head works and prevent the river from
outflanking the work.
12. ____________ are provided to protect the land and property with is likely to be submerged.
a) Weir
b) Divide wall
c) Marginal bunds
d) Fish ladder
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Marginal Bunds or marginal embankments are provided on either bank of the river
upstream side of diversion head works in alluvial soils in order to protect the land and property
which is likely to be submerged during ponding of water during floods.
13. _________ is provided to reduce the kinetic energy of falling water in weir.
a) Body wall
b) Curtain walls
c) Downstream apron
d) Shutter
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The downstream apron is a concrete bed which is provided on the downstream side
of a weir in order to reduce the kinetic energy of falling water. It should have sufficient thickness
to resist uplift pressure.
14. Curtain walls are provided to increase ________
a) Creep depth
b) Creep area
c) Creep length
d) Creep volume
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Curtain walls are provided under the upstream and downstream apron at the ends.
We are provided to increase the length of creep and thereby to reduce exit gradient.
15. Which of the following are also known as upstream and downstream piles?
a) Talus on upstream and downstream
b) Curtain walls on upstream and downstream
c) Solid apron on upstream and downstream
d) Shutters on crest of weir
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Curtain walls are provided especially under the upstream and downstream aprons at
the respective ends. They are also called as upstream and downstream piles. The length of the
curtain wall depends on the nature of subsoil.
1. A circular shaft of diameter 30 mm is tested under torsion the gauge length of test specimen is
300 mm. A torque of 2kNm produces an angle twist of 1°. Calculate CJ.
a) 0.432 × 106 N/mm2
b) 0.324 × 106 N/mm2
c) 0.46 × 106 N/mm2
d) 0.532 × 106 N/mm2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Angle of twist = 1° = π/180 radians.
Polar moment of inertia = π/32 × 304mm4.
To find CJ: T/J =C× twist angle
C = Tl/J×twist angle = 2×106 ×300 / π/32 × 304mm4× π/180.
C = 0.4323 × 106 N/mm2.
2. __________ has perfect control on river flow.

a) Barrage
b) Weir
c) Marginal bunds
d) Guide banks
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Barrages are much more costly than weirs. Gates are raised off the high flood to
pass floods. They have perfect control of the river flow.
3. When the gross length is more than 6 metres between the face of abutment it is called as
________
a) Cause way
b) Bridge
c) Culvert
d) Cassion
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When the gross length is more than 6 m between the faces of abutment measured at
right angles is called a bridge. If a bridge supports a road way over a railway then it is called
Road over a bridge.
4. The minimum straight approach provided on either side of bridge is ___________

a) 12 m
b) 15 m
c) 20 m
d) 22 m
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The bridge site should be far away from the confluence of tributaries as far as
possible the straight approaches are to be provided on either side of the bridge for at least 15m.
5. ________ should be taken below the deepest scour level.

a) Foundation
b) Sub structure
c) Structure
d) Parapet
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Foundations to be provided for approaches abutments, piers etc., by considering the
water in the river, sub soil conditions etc., a foundation should be taken below the deepest scour
level.
6. ___________ formula is used for calculating the depth of the foundation.

a) Gordon’s
b) Rankine’s
c) WH Smith’s
d) Falcon
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Rankine’s formula is used for calculating the depth of the foundation.
h=P/w × (1-sin/1+sin). Minimum depth is restricted to 90 cms.
7. _______ foundation is used when the depth of water is more.

a) Pile
b) Caisson
c) Raft
d) Spread
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The caisson foundation is used when the depth of water is more. The spread
Foundation is used when good hard soil is available at shallow depth.
8. _____________ foundation is used when bed soil is soft.

a) Raft
b) Pile
c) Spread
d) Well
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Pile foundation is adopted when the bed soil is soft and hard soil is available at
great depth and also the well foundation is adopted when river bed having sand and good soil is
available at a reasonable depth.
9. The intermediate support of a bridge superstructure is called as ___________

a) Abutment
b) Pier
c) Wing wall
d) Approach
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The intermediate support of bridge superstructure for a multi span bridge is called
pier.
Functions:
i. To divide the total length of bridge into suitable spans.
ii. To distribute the load from the superstructure of the bridge.
10. ___________ piers are adopted for well foundations.

a) Masonry
b) RCC
c) Dumb bell
d) Pile bent
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Dumb-bell piers are light in weight as compared to solid piers. These piers are
suitable when well foundations are adopted. It consists of two columns connected by web for the
full height.
11. _______ piers are used, when the height of pier is large as in case of viaducts, fly overs.
a) Column Bent
b) Pile bent
c) Trestle bent
d) Abutment pier
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: It consists of vertical, horizontal and diagonal members. Trestle bents may be of
steel or concrete. These piers are suitable when the height of pier is large as in case of viaducts.
12. The projection of the piers on the upstream side is known as ________
a) Cut waters
b) Ease waters
c) Sharp waters
d) Para waters
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The projection of the piers on the upstream side is known as cut waters. The cut
waters are provided for easy passage of water. The shape may be triangular, semi-circular &
parabolic etc.
13. The end support of a bridge is __________

a) Pier
b) Abutment
c) Wing wall
d) Approach
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The end support of a bridge superstructure is known as an abutment. The functions
of abutment are
i. To retain the earth filling of approaches
ii. To finish up the bridge with necessary approaches.
14. The projection of the pier on the downstream side is known as ________
a) Ease water
b) Cut water
c) Bridge pier
d) Dumb pier
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The projection of the pier on the downstream side is known as “ease waters”. They
prevent the formation of eddies and their scouring effect.
15. ____________ piers are suitable when foundations are of steel cylinder caisson type.
a) Masonry
b) Trestle bent
c) Cylindrical
d) Pile
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Cylindrical piers are made of mild steel filled with concrete and connected by
horizontal and diagonal steel bearings. These are suitable when foundations of Steel cylinder
caisson type.
1. A solid shaft of circular in section is subjected to torque which produces maximum shear
stress in a shaft. Calculate the diameter of the shaft.
a) (16T/πf)3/2
b) (16f/πT)1/2
c) (16f/π) 1/2
d) (πT/16f) 1/2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: From torsional equation
T/J = f/R
T = f.Z
T = f×π/16d3.
D= (16T/πf) 3/2.
2. When two dissimilar shafts are connected together, then the shaft is __________
a) Integrated shafts
b) Composite shafts
c) Differential shafts
d) Combined shafts
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When two dissimilar shafts are connected together to form one shaft then the shaft
can be termed as composite shaft.
3. __________ torque occurs along with maximum shear stress due to combined bending and
torsion.
a) Equipment
b) Coaxial
c) Biaxial
d) Lateral
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Equipment torque is the twisting moment which acts along producing maximum
shear stress due to the combined bending as well as torsion.
4. When a shaft is subjected to pure twisting then the type of stress developed is ________
a) Bending
b) Axial
c) Shear
d) Normal
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Shear stress is produced when the shaft is subjected to pure twisting (torsion). The
shear stress due to twisting moment is zero at the axis of the shaft.
5. The torque which produces unit twist per unit length is ________
a) Torsional rugosity
b) Torsional rigidity
c) Torsional viscosity
d) Torsional mean radius
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The product of shear modulus(C) and polar moment of inertia (J) is called torsional
rigidity. Torsional rigidity produces a twist of 1 radian in a shaft of unit length.
6. The level of top of weir can be termed as __________

a) Talus
b) Curtain walls
c) Crest
d) Shutter
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The level of the top of weir is known as a crest. The shutters are provided on the
crest and can be raised or laid flat during the time of floods.
7. ________ possesses less silting and scouring.
a) Weir
b) Barrage
c) Dams
d) Reservoir
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The barrage is a low obstructive barrier constructed across the river. There will be
less silting and better control over the levels due to low set crest.
8. In __________ there will be no means for silt disposal.

a) Weir
b) Barrage
c) Reservoir
d) Dams
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The weir may be defined as a solid obstruction/wall built across the river to raise
the water level. Raised crest causes silting at upstream and there is no means silt disposal.
9. _________ is a pure water pressure.

a) Uplift
b) Percolation
c) Scour
d) Flood bank
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Uplift occurs when pore water pressure under a structure or a low permeability
confining layer becomes larger than the mean overburden pressure.
10. __________ causes of uplift of structure.

a) Percolation
b) Scour
c) Critical Velocity
d) Slope Failure
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The effect of percolation on an irrigation structure like a weir to cause uplift
pressure on the structures and topple the structure at any moment.
11. ________ protects the weir from erosive forces during floods.
a) Talus
b) Curtain walls
c) Shutter
d) Upstream solid apron
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Upstream solid apron is a concrete bed which is provided on the upstream side of
weir to protect the weir from erosive forces during floods. The length of apron depends upon
maximum discharge of the river.
12. Gross storage – Dead storage is _______

a) Live storage
b) Virtual storage
c) Excessive storage
d) Free storage
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It is also called as available or effective storage. It is the difference between gross
storage and dead storage. It is the amount of water available from FRL to the sill of the lowest
sluice.
13. Which of the following is not sound proof?

a) G I sheets
b) A C sheets
c) PVC sheets
d) Fabric sheets
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Galvanised iron sheets are commonly used as a roofing material. These are very
durable and fire proof. The main disadvantage is they are not sound proof.
14. Which of the following is not affected by temperature?

a) Fabric sheets
b) G I sheets
c) AC sheets
d) Flat roofs
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Asbestos cement sheets are cheaper in the initial cost. They are fire resisting. They
are heavy in weight and they are not affected by temperature.
15. Which of the following possess good insulation properties?

a) Battened roofs
b) Wooden roofs
c) Jack arch roofs
d) Flat roofs
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Flat roofs are easier in construction and maintenance. A flat roof is more stable
against high wards. It has a better architectural appearance and it has good insulation properties.
1. Calculate the power transmitted in the shaft at 150 rpm. Take torque as 9000Nm.
a) 140 kW
b) 150 kW
c) 160 kW
d) 175 kW
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: To find power transmitted (P) is P = 2 π N T / 60 watts.
P = 2 π × 150 × 9000 / 60
P = 140 kW.

a) Aqueduct
b) Head regulator
c) Super passage
d) Level crossing
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The head regulator is hydraulic structure constructed at the head of a canal system
where it takes off from a reservoir behind a weir or a dam. It is used as a measuring device.
3. Stucco is a type of _________

a) Varnishing
b) Distempering
c) Plastering
d) Whitewashing
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Stucco is the name given to a decorative type of plaster, which provides an
excellent finish like that with marble’s lining.
4. The thickness of cement plaster should not be more than _______

a) 15 mm
b) 12 mm
c) 16 mm
d) 20 mm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The cement plaster is applied in one or two coats. The surface is polished with the
trowel or iron float. The thickness of the coat should not be more than 12 mm.
5. __________ mm thick plastering is done for stone masonry.

a) 10 mm
b) 15 mm
c) 18 mm
d) 20 mm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Normally 12 mm thick plastering is done for brick masonry and 20 mm thick
plastering is done for the stone masonry. The plastered surface is then cured by sprinkling water
over the surface for one or two weeks.
6. The thickness of lime plaster varies from _______ to ________ mm.

a) 15 – 20 mm
b) 12 – 15 mm
c) 18 – 25 mm
d) 20 – 25 mm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The proportioning of the ingredients of lime plaster is adapted according to a
number of coats to be applied. The thickness of lime plaster varies from 20 to 25 mm.
7. Which of the following plastering is widely adopted in rural areas?

a) Stucco Plastering
b) Mud plastering
c) Lime plastering
d) Asphalt plastering
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Mud plastering is done on the walls of temporary Sheds and widely adopted in rural
areas. The Plaster is evenly dashed against the wall with a wooden float. After 24 hours the
surface is tapped.
8. Which of the following blasters contains pulverized alum?

a) Water proof plaster
b) Plaster on lathe
c) C plaster
d) Marble plaster
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Waterproof plaster is made by mixing 1 part of cement, 2 parts of sand and
pulverized alum at the rate of 120 Newton per metre and in the water to be used.
9. Which of the following is known as” laying trowel”?

a) Float
b) Gauge trowel
c) Floating Rule
d) Skimming float
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The tool which is used to spread the mortar on the surface is known as float. It is
also known as laying trowel. It is made of thin tempered Steel.
10. _________ is used to check the level of plastered surface.

a) Gauging trowel
b) Plumb bob
c) Floating Rule
d) Float
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Floating rule is the tool which is used to check the level of plastered surface
between the successive screeds.
11. Skimming float is ____________

a) Wooden float
b) Metalled float
c) Tempered steel float
d) Asbestos cement sheet
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The wooden floor is known as the skimming float and it is used for final and
finishing coat of plaster. The Plaster is evenly spread against the wall surface with a wooden
float.
12. Which of the following is a defect in plastering?

a) Flaking
b) Scrap
c) Rust
d) Staining
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Flaking is a defect in plastering. It is a formation of a very loose mass of plastered
surface due to poor bond between successive coats. This is obtained due to poor workmanship.
13. ________ is a process of mixing various constituents of plaster.

a) Grazing
b) Blistering
c) Gauging
d) Hacking
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Gauging is defined as a process of mixing various constituents of plaster. It is to be
done after the brick work had carried out to the best workmanship. Efflorescence can be removed
to some extent of dry brushing.
14. The small projections of plaster are known as ________

a) Back
b) Dado
c) Dot
d) Hack
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The small projections of plaster laid on the background are known as dots. These
are laid for fixing of screeds. The size of the dots may be 15×15 cm.
15. ______ openings or indentations of corrugations in plaster.

a) Helms
b) Grains
c) Keys
d) Flake
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Keys are the openings or indentations of corrugations on the background or surface
of undercoat, to which plaster will form mechanical bond.
1. Calculate that torque, if the diameter of the shaft is 50 mm and revolutions @ 130 rpm. The
maximum shear stress is 62.5 N/mm2.
a) 1564 Nm
b) 1478 Nm
c) 1534 Nm
d) 1494 Nm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Diameter of shaft = 50 mm
Revolutions of shaft = 130 rpm.
Maximum shear stress = f= 62.5 N/mm2.
T = f π D3/ 16
T = 62.5 ×503× π / 16.
T = 1534 Nm.
2. What is the example for a centrifugal pump?

a) Reciprocating pump
b) Suction pump
c) Rotodynamic pump
d) Delivery pump
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Rotodynamic pumps have a rotating element through which as the liquid passes its
angular momentum changes, due to which the pressure energy of the liquid is increased. The
centrifugal pump is a rotodynamic pump.
3. Reciprocating pump is an example of ___________

a) Positive displacement pump
b) Delivery pump
c) Suction pump
d) Rotodynamic pump
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Positive displacement pumps are those pumps in which the liquid is sucked and
then it is pushed to the thrust exerted on it by a piston. The most common example of the
positive displacement pump is the reciprocating pump.
4. ____ is the difference between theoretical discharge and the actual discharge of the pump.
a) Crank
b) Hook
c) Slip
d) Centile
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: c
Explanation: Slip of a pump is defined as the difference between the theoretical discharge and
actual discharge after pump.
5. _____ is a phenomenon by which the study and continuous flow of liquid are obstructed.
a) Slip
b) Separation
c) Air vessels
d) Knockage
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Separation of reciprocating pump is that phenomenon by which the steady and
continuous flow of liquid is affected by the presence of air and dissolved gases.
6. Negative slip occurs when the______ is more than theoretical discharge.

a) Virtual discharge
b) Actual discharge
c) Mean discharge
d) Mode discharge
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When the delivery valve opens before the suction stroke is completed, the actual
discharge is more than the theoretical discharge. In such cases, the slip of the pump is known as a
negative slip.
7. _____ slip occurs, when the delivery pipe is short and the suction pipe is long.
a) Positive
b) Critical
c) Negative
d) Zero
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The slip occurs when the delivery pipe is short and the suction pipe is long. The
pump is running at high speeds as the delivery valve open before a suction stroke is completed,
the slip of the pump is known as negative slip.
8. ________ reduces the possibility of separation.

a) Air vessels
b) Casing
c) Impeller
d) Vortex
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: An air vessel may be a closed chamber having the compressed air in a top portion
and the water at the bottom. It reduces the possibility of separation and it ensures the pump to
run at high speed.
9. If the absolute pressure falls below ___________ m, the pump prone to separation.
a) 3 m
b) 2 m
c) 1.5 m
d) 2.5 m
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: If the absolute pressure falls below 2.5 metres of water, the dissolved gases will be
appearing in a liquid and continuous flow will be chocked. This phenomenon can be termed as
separation.
10. The phenomenon of separation can also be known as ___________

a) Cavitation
b) Priming
c) Positive head
d) Pulsate
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Separation is a phenomenon of obstructing the flow by the presence of dissolved
gases when the absolute pressure falls below 2.5 metres of water. This phenomenon of separation
can also be known as knocking (or) cavitation in the reciprocating pump.
11. The work done against friction is reduced due to _____________

a) Impeller
b) Priming
c) Air vessel
d) Vortex
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: An air vessel is fitted to the suction and delivery pipes at a point close to the
cylinder of a single acting reciprocating. The pump increases the length of the suction pipe and
reduces the work done against friction.
12. Volute is a type of _____________

a) Delivery pipe
b) Casing
c) Impeller
d) Suction pipe
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Casing is an airtight chamber covering the impeller. The different types of casing
i.Volute casing
ii.Vortex casing
iii.Casing with guide blades.
13. ______ pumps, the torque is uniform.

b) Suction pump
c) Delivery pump
d) Centrifugal pump
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Centrifugal pump is used for lifting highly viscous liquids such as oils, muddy and
sewage water, paper pulp etc. In centrifugal pump, torque is uniform and no air vessels are
required.
14. What is the practical maximum suction lift in a reciprocating pump?

a) 3.5 m
b) 4.5 m
c) 5 m
d) 6.5 m
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Reciprocating pump can handle only pure water or less viscous liquids free from
impurities. It can be operated at low speeds only. The practical maximum section lift is 6.5
metres.
15. _____ pumps give a larger discharge.

a) Suction
b) Reciprocating
c) Centrifugal
d) Positive displacement
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Centrifugal pump are an example of rotodynamic pump the basic principle of
centrifugal pump is that “when a certain mass of liquid is rotated by an external force, then the
centrifugal head is impressed which enables it to rise to a higher level”. A centrifugal pump
discharges a larger quantity when compared to other pumps.
1. _________ is a structure made up of several members connected to each other.

a) Frame
b) Form work
c) Strut
d) Caisson
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Frame is a structure made up of several members riveted and welded together. The
members of the frame are made in such a way that the form angle iron or channel sections.
2. A frame which is composed of members just sufficient to keep it in equilibrium, such frame is
___________
a) Redundant frame
b) Perfect frame
c) Imperfect frame
d) Deficient frame
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A perfect frame is 1 for which the following equation is satisfied m = 2j-3.
A perfect frame is that which is composed of members just sufficient to keep it in equilibrium
when loaded without any change.
3. In the equation m = 2j-3 ; the letter “j” stands for __________

a) Joists
b) Junctions
c) Joints
d) Jumble
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In the equation m= 2j-3
Where, m = number of members
J = number of joints
“If this equation gets satisfied then the frame for which the equation has setup is perfect frame“.
4. In statically determinate structures _______ is independent.

a) Shear force
b) Bending moment
c) Shear stress
d) Axial load
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: If conditions of equilibrium are sufficient to analyse the structure fully, then it is
statically determinate structure. In this bending moment at a section is independent of the
material of the components of the structure.
5. What is the splay provided in splayed wing walls?

a) 30°
b) 45°
c) 60°
d) 90°
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Splayed wing walls permit smooth entry and exit of water under the bridge. The
splay is usually provided at 45°. The weep holes are also provided.
6. The wing wall resembling the letter “U” in plan, is ___________

a) Return wing wall
b) Approach wing wall
c) Splayed wing wall
d) Straight wing wall
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The return wing walls resemble the letter “U” in plan wing walls are parallel to the
centre line of the bridge. It is used where rivers having steep and rocky banks and not subjected
to the erosion of soil.
7. __________ coat develop resistant texture.

a) Prime coat
b) Seal coat
c) Tack coat
d) Open coat
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Seal code is final coat lay over bituminous pavements which are not impervious.
Seal coat develops skid resistant texture and they provide better riding surface.
8. Which of the following roads (pavements) does not develop any corrugations?
a) Bituminous
b) Concrete
c) Water bound macadam
d) Asphalt
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Concrete road is suitable even under poor sub grades. It is not develop any
corrugations and its maintenance cost is low.
9. Which of the following is the weakest part in the railway track?

a) Rail joint
b) Plates
c) Spikes
d) Lugs
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The joint which is made between two rails together with two fish plates and four
fish bolts to form an expansion gap of 1.5 to 3 mm. Rail joint is the weakest part in the railway
track.
10. Sabotage problem is eliminated in _______

a) Round spike
b) Dog spike
c) Screw spike
d) Polar spike
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Holding capacity of rails to sleepers is more and costly. Hence screw spike is used
in driving and extraction. Though it is costly and time consuming, the sabotage problem is
eliminated due to screw spike.
11. ________ are made of high carbon steel to withstand heavy stresses.
a) Fish plates
b) Fish bolts
c) Spikes
d) Lugs
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: For each rail joint, four fish bolts are required to connect fish plates and rails
together. Fish bolts are made of medium or high carbon steel to which stand heavy stresses.
12. For each sleeper _______ pandrol clips are used.

a) 3
b) 2
c) 4
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Pandrol clip is made of silicon manganese spring steel bar of 20.6 mm diameter and
heat treated. It exerts a toe load of 6.97 kN. For each sleeper, four pandrol clips are used.
13. The Wheels of Rolling stock have slope ________

a) 1 in 10
b) 1 in 15
c) 1 in 20
d) 1 in 30
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The wheels of rolling stock are made in the shape of a frustum of a cone having a
slope of 1 in 20 is known as coning of wheels. The objective of coning of wheels is to prevent
lateral movement of trains in straight track.
14. ________ are transverse ties on which the rails are laid.
a) Lugs
b) Sleepers
c) Spikes
d) Clips
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Sleepers are transverse ties on which the rails are laid and transfer the load from
rails to ballast. The main function of a sleeper is to provide a firm and even support to rails.
15. _______ permits track circuiting.

a) Clips
b) Rails
c) Spikes
d) Sleepers
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The sleepers should be capable of resisting vibrations and shocks due to fast
moving trains. The fastenings used to fix rails to sleepers should be minimum. The sleepers
should permit track circuiting.
1. The Velocity at which flow changes from viscous to turbulent is called __________ velocity.
a) Critical
b) Frictional
c) Relative
d) Nominal
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A fluid motion is always subjected to a certain resistance. In reality, this resistance
is mainly due to sliding. The velocity at which the flow changes from a viscous flow to turbulent
flow is called critical velocity.
2. Flow in circular pipes will be turbulent is Reynolds number is _________

a) < 2800
b) > 2800
c) = 2800
d) ~ 2800
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Reynold’s number (Re) = Vd/v
V = Mean velocity of flow in pipe
d = Diameter of pipe
v = Kinematic viscosity of liquid
Flow in circular pipe will be turbulent if Reynolds number is greater than 2800.
3. _____ number is the ratio between inertia and viscous forces.

a) Lamina’s
b) Parker’s
c) Macadam’s
d) Reynold’s
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Professor Reynold’s deduced from his experiments that at lower velocities the
liquid flow was a laminar and at higher velocities, the flow was turbulent. It is a dimensionless
number as it is the ratio between inertia and viscous forces.
4. The frictional resistance is ______ to the surface area of contact.

c) Equal
d) Not equal
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The frictional resistance is directly proportional to the surface area of contact. The
frictional resistance is independent of the pressure and where is considerably with temperature.
5. ___________ flow the liquid particles move along straight parallel paths.
a) Steady
b) Unsteady
c) Laminar
d) Turbulent
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Flow in circular pipes will be laminar if the Reynolds number is less than 2000.
The laminar flow is a type of flow in which the liquid particles move along straight parallel path
in layers or laminates.
6. The __________ resistance is independent of the nature of surface contact.
a) Frictional
b) Skid
c) Shear
d) Coupling
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When the liquid flows at a velocity that is less than the critical velocity. A thin
stationary film of the liquid is formed on a supporting surface. This is a reason that the frictional
resistance is independent of the nature of surface of contact.
7. Calculate the specific weight of oil. If the specific gravity is 0.95. Take specific weight of
water is 1000 kg/m3.
a) 750 kg/m3
b) 850 kg/m3
c) 950 kg/m3
d) 1250 kg/m3
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The specific gravity (S) = specific weight of oil / specific weight of
Specific weight of oil = S × specific weight of water
Specific weight of oil = 0.95 × 1000
= 950 kg/m3.
8. In _______ liquid flows under atmospheric pressure.

a) Pipe flow
b) Open channel
c) Stream
d) Aqueduct
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Liquid flows under atmospheric pressure in an open channel due to its slope of the
channel. There must be some slope in the bed of the channel to flow to take place.
9. The energy gradient line is _______ to drop in bed, in an open channel.

a) Equal
b) Parallel
c) Perpendicular
d) Unequal
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: For uniform flow in an open channel the drop in the energy gradient line is equal to
drop in bed. Flows in irrigation channels, streams and rivers are some examples of open channel
flow.
10. Aqueduct is an example of __________ channel.

a) Natural
b) Prismatic
c) Non prismatic
d) Artificial
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: An artificial channel is the one which is built artificially for some specific purpose
such as irrigation water supply and water power development etc. The examples include canals,
drainage gutters and aqueducts.
11. Rectangular channel is _________ channel.

a) non Prismatic
b) Prismatic
c) Natural
d) Artificial
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A channel is said to be prismatic if the cross-section is uniform and the bed slope is
constant throughout its length. The rectangular channel comes under Prismatic channel.
12. Expand RVF _________

a) Rapid Vary Fluid
b) Rise in Virtual Flow
c) Rapidly Varied flow
d) Rapidly Viscous flow
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: RVF stands for Rapidly Varied Flow. If the depth floor changes abruptly over a
comparatively shorter distance, the flow is characterised as rapidly varied flow. Typical
examples of rapidly varied flow are hydraulic jump and hydraulic drop.
13. Froude number is the ratio of inertial force to the _________ force.
a) Shear
b) Gravity
c) Uplift
d) Viscous
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The ratio of the inertia force and gravity force is known as the Froude number. It is
denoted by Fr.
Fr = V/(gD)1/2.
14. For super critical flow, Fr _________ 1.

a) >
b) <
c) =
d) ~
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Froude number the ratio of inertial force to the gravity force.
Fr = V/(gD) 1/2
For supercritical flow, Fr > 1.
15. Strut is a tension member.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Strut is the member of a structure any position carrying the compressive load. It
may be horizontal, inclined or even vertical.
1. If the thickness of plate is negligible when compared to the diameter of the cylindrical, then it
is called __________
a) Thick cylinder
b) Thin cylinder
c) Hoop cylinder
d) Circumferential cylinder
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The thickness of plate is negligible when compared to the diameter of the
cylindrical shell, and then it can be termed as a thin cylinder. The radius stress in the cylinder
walls is negligible.
2. In thin cylinders, the thickness should be ____________ times of internal diameter.

a) 1/20
b) 1/15
c) 1/30
d) 1/40
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In thin shells, the stress distribution over the thickness of the material is assumed to
be uniform and the wall thickness is equal to or less than 1/ 20 of the internal diameter.
3. Oil tanks, steam boilers, gas pipes are examples of _____________

a) Thick shells
b) Thin cylinders
c) Hoop cylinders
d) Longitudinal cylinders
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In thin cylindrical shells, the stresses are uniformly distributed throughout the wall.
The type of stresses developed in thin cylinders is hoop stress and longitudinal stress. Ex: water
supply mains, oil tanks, steam boilers and gas pipes.
4. In _________ shells, the stress distribution is not uniform over the thickness of the material.
a) Thick
b) Thin
c) Hoop
d) Circumferential
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A cylinder in which the wall thickness is greater than 1 / 20 of internal diameter it
is called the thick cylinder.
t>d/20. In thick shells, the stress distribution is not uniform over the thickness of the material.
5. Hydraulic radius is denoted by _________

a) T
b) A
c) R
d) N
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Hydraulic radius is the ratio of wetted area to the wetted perimeter. It is also known
as hydraulic mean depth. It is denoted by “R”.
R = A/P.
6. Hydraulic depth is a ratio of wetted area to _____

a) Bottom width
b) Top width
c) Diameter
d) Radius
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Hydraulic depth is the ratio of wetted area to the top with (T). It is denoted by D
D = A/T.
7. What is the hydraulic depth (D) of a rectangular section?

a) y
b) 1/3 y
c) y2
d) y/5
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The hydraulic depth (D) of a rectangular section is y.
Section Hydraulic depth (D)
Rectangle y
Trapezoid (B+Zy)y / B+2zy
1
Triangle ⁄2 y
8. In manning’s formula, V = 1/n×m2/3×i1/2. N stands for ___________

a) Coefficient of viscosity
b) Coefficient of rugosity
c) Coefficient of runoff
d) Coefficient of friction
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In 1889, manning presented a formula according to which the mean velocity of
uniform flow in a channel is V = 1/n × m 2/3 × i1/2.
Where n = coefficient of rugosity.
9. What is the coefficient of rugosity for brick lined surface?

a) 0.011
b) 0.012
c) 0.015
d) 0.013
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The coefficient of rugosity for brick lined surface is 0.015.
Channel Surface Coefficient of rugosity (n)
Asbestos cement 0.011
Brick 0.015
Cast Iron 0.012
Galvanised Iron 0.016
10. Most economical section is also called as __________
a) Most active section
b) Most effective section
c) Most efficient section
d) Superior section
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A channel is said to be the most economical if it gives the maximum discharge
under given cross-sectional area, bottom slope and roughness. The most economical section is
also known as the most efficient section.
11. For most economical section __________ should be minimum.

a) P
b)A
c) R
d)N
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A channel discharges larger if the hydraulic radius is maximum. The hydraulic
radius will be maximum when the wetted perimeter is minimum for a given area. Hence, for
most economical section the wetted perimeter should be minimum.
12. A rectangular channel has cross sectional area of 50 m2. If the channel section is to be most
economical calculate the depth. Take B = 10m.
a) 10 m
b) 5 m
c) 8 m
d) 12 m
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Let y be the depth of flow of the channel. For most economical section y = B/2.
Cross-section area of flow A = By
y= 50/10
y= 5 m.
13. _________ are used to change the water level in a canal.

a) Sluice gates
b) Lock gates
c) Check gates
d) Scour gates
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Gates which are used to change the water level in a canal or a river are known as
lock gates. If a canal or a river has a vertical fall at any section, it is necessary to raise or lower
the water level in order to transfer the boat from upper water level to lower one.
14. The flow of water is controlled in hydraulic structures by ____________

a) Sluice gates
b) Check gates
c) Lock gates
d) Drain gates
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In hydraulic structures, the openings are provided to carry water from its storage
place to place of utilisation. The flow of water through such openings is controlled by means of
sluice gates.
15. The units of discharge are _____________

a) m/s
b) m2/s
c) m3/s
d) m
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The volume of liquid flowing through any section or channel per unit time is called
discharge or rate of flow. It is expressed in m3/s.
It is denoted by “Q”.
1 cumec = 1000 litres/sec.
1. The stress acts tangential to circumference is called ______ stress.

a) Hoop
b) Fluid
c) Longitudinal
d) Yield
View Answer
Answer: a
pressure and which acts tangential to circumference is called hoop stress or circumferential
stress.
2. The hoop stress is _____________ along the x axis.

a) Tensile
b) Parabolic
c) Compressed
d) Transverse
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Hoop stress is also known as circumferential stress and it is tensile along x-axis.
The total pressure along the diameter of the shell P = intensity of stress × Area.
3. The cylinder has a tendency to split up along _____________ due to circumferential stress.
a) Area
b) Radius
c) Diameter
d) Length
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: As a result of circumferential stress a cylinder has a tendency to split up along its
diameter. Because of hoop stress, the failure is a longitudinal failure.
4. ____________ is half the circumferential stress.

a) Hoop stress
b) Longitudinal stress
c) Fluid stress
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Longitudinal stress is developed along the walls of the cylinder in the shell due to
internal fluid pressure on the ends. The longitudinal stress is half the circumferential stress.
5. Which of the following is also known as axial stress?

a) Shear stress
c) Bending stress
d) Hoop stress
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The stress which is developed due to internal fluid pressure on the ends is known as
longitudinal stress. As a result of longitudinal stress, the cylinder has a tendency to be turn away
longitudinally. It is also known as axial stress.
6. The layers of wood wearing thickness from ____________ to __________ is called veneers.
a) 0.4 to 0.6 mm
b) 0.5 to 0.8 mm
c) 0.4 to 0.6 mm
d) 0.5 to 0.7 mm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The layers or slices of wood varying thickness from 0.4 to 0.6 mm or more are
called veneers. They are obtained by rotating a log of wood against a sharp knife.
7. _____________ is used as decorative facings.

a) Plywood
b) Veneers
c) Ply ware
d) Battens
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Veneers are used in construction where light weight, moderate strength, non
shrinkage and non splitting properties are required. Veneers are used for decorative facings.
8. Which of the following is known as block board?

a) Batten board
b) Plywood
c) Fiber board
d) Veneer
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The strips which are glued together between two veneers one on either side are
known as batten boards. The board is made with 25 mm with strips. It is also known as block
board.
9. Which of the following is also known as pressed woods?

a) Ply wood
b) Ply ware
c) Batten board
d) Fiber wood
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The boards which are made by pressing the mixture of saw dust, fibres of wood and
glue are known as fibre boards or pressed woods or reconstructed wood.
10. Which of the following boards are used in making partitions covering?
a) Lamin boards
b) Particle boards
c) Straw boards
d) Eco board
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The laminated boards having a core of strips not exceeding 7 mm thickness are
glued together between two or more veneers are called laminated boards. Laminated boards are
used in making partitions covering, packing cases and for floor coverings.
11. ____________ boards are manufactured from sugarcane waste obtained from bagasse.
a) Eco board
b) Straw board
c) Lamin board
d) Particle board
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Eco board is manufactured from sugarcane waste obtained from sugar factory
known as “Bagasse”. These bagasse balls are broken into required small size particles. These
boards possess the following advantages:
i. These are durable
ii. They possess good strength and workability.
12. Plastic is a ____________ substance.

a) Eco friendly
b) Inorganic
c) Organic
d) Natural
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The plastic is one of the recent engineering materials which are widely used. The
plastic is an organic substance made up of natural or synthetic resins.
13. Plastic possess tensile strength of _______________

a) 4.2 tonnes/cm2
b) 5.6 tonnes/cm2
c) 3.4 tonnes/cm2
d) 4.8 tonnes/cm2
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Plastic can withstand wear and tear due to abrasion. The plastics are highly resistant
to corrosion. They possess tensile strength about 5.6 tonnes per centimetre square (5.6
tonnes/cm2).
14. ________ is an example of thermoplastic.
a) Shellac
b) Bakelite
c) Phenol formaldehyde
d) Urea formaldehyde
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Thermoplastic softens by heating and hardens when cooled. This variety of plastic
can be used by remoulding many numbers of times as required. The commercial forms of
thermoplastic are shellac, vinyl plastics, and acrylic.
15. What is the minimum percentage of reinforcement provided in mild steel?

a) 0.12 % of gross area
b) 0.15 % of gross area
c) 0.18 % of gross area
d) 0.2 % of gross area
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As per IS 456 – 2000,
0.12 % of gross area is required for HYSD bars [Tor steel] 0.15 % of gross area is required for
mild steel
1. Which of the following stress can also be known as hoop stress?

a) Axial stress
c) Fluid stress
d) Circumferential stress
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Circumferential stress in the shell = f = Total pressure / resisting section
f = pdl/2tl
f = pd/2t.
Circumstantial stress can also be known as hoop stress.
2. A water main of 1.5 m diameter and 20 mm thick is subjected to an pressure of 1.5N/mm2.

Calculate the circumferential stress induced in the pipe.
a) 78.65 N/mm2
b) 68.45 N/mm2
c) 56.25 N/mm2
d) 60.85 N/mm2
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Diameter of water main = 1500 mm and internal pressure = 1.5 N/mm2
Thickness = 20 mm
Hoop stress = pd/2t = 1500 × 1.5/ 2× 20.
= 56.25 N/mm2.
3. Which of the following method is also known as overhead irrigation method?

a) Drip Irrigation
b) Sprinkler
c) Contour
d) Check flooding
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Sprinkler irrigation method is used where the soil is erodable type and high
permeable. It is also known as overhead irrigation. The sprinkler method requires a large
investment in installing.
4. The average diameter of particles of silt is __________

a) 0.08mm
b) 0.002 mm
c) 1.2 mm
d) 0.011
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The average diameter of particles of silt is 0.002 mm.
Group Average diameter in mm
Sand 2 to 0.06 mm
Silt 0.06 to 0.002 mm
Clay < 0.002 mm
5. pH is measured in ____
a) gram / litre
b) gram/cm
c) cusecs
d) cumecs
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: pH value in a chemical term which shows acidity or alkalinity of the matter. The
pH value is a logarithm of the reciprocal of the hydrogen in concentration measured in gram per
litre.
6. Soil moisture stress is defined as the sum of soil moisture tension and ______ pressure of soil
solution.
a) Weed
b) Perforated
c) Osmatic
d) Uplift
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The increase in the force caused by salts is called osmatic pressure. The soil
moisture stress is defined as the sum of soil moisture tension and osmotic pressure of soil
solution.
7. In coarse textured sandy soils, the field capacity can be achieved in _________
a) 1 to 3 days
b) 2 to 5 days
c) 3 to 7 days
d) 5 to 8 days
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The moisture content held by soil after gravitational water has drained off from a
saturated soil is called field capacity. In coarse textured soils, the field capacity can be achieved
in 1 to 3 days.
8. Acid in the rain was first detected by ___________

a) Lacy Film
b) Angus smith
c) Graeme Robert
d) Mesh swann
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The amount of acid which falls as towards earth with the rain water and snow is
called acid rain. The acid in the rain water was detected for the first time by Robert Angus Smith
in 1872.
9. _________ causes deterioration of buildings and monuments.

a) Acid rain
b) Green house effect
c) Global warning
d) Ozone layer depletion
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Acid rain causes a number of harmful effects below pH 5.1. The effects are visible
in the aquatic system even at pH less than 5.5. It causes deterioration of buildings especially
made of marble. It damages stone statues, metals and car finishes.
10. Expand CFC _________

a) Chlorofluorochloride
b) Carbonfluorochlorine
c) Chlorofluorocarbon
d) Cadmiumfluorocalcium
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: CFC stands for Chlorofluorocarbon. It is one of the major gases of the greenhouse.
It is released from refrigerators, air conditioners etc.
11. ______ is mainly responsible for ozone depletion in the stratosphere.

a) CFC
b) MNC
c) ESC
d) FSC
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Over last 450 million years, the earth had a natural sunscreen in the stratosphere
called the ozone layer. This layer filters out harmful ultraviolet rays from the sunlight and the
protects various life forms on the earth. CFC is mainly responsible for ozone depletion in the
stratosphere.
12. Fossil fuels are example for ________

a) Exhaustible resources
b) Renewable resources
c) Non renewable resources
d) Inexhaustible resources
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Non renewable resources lack the ability of recycling and replacement. The
substances with a very long recycling time are also regarded to be non renewable resources. Ex:
biological species, minerals &fossil fuels.
13. Nuclear energy is __________

a) Renewable energy resource
b) Non renewable energy resource
c) Exhaustible resource
d) Inexhaustible resource
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Non renewable energy resources mainly include fossil fuels and nuclear energy.
The fossil fuels are found inside earth’s crust. The nuclear energy obtained through fission or
fusion reaction which yields large amount of heat energy.
14. Geothermal Energy is _________

b) Natural resource
c) Sustainable resource
d) Exhaustible resource
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In some places, the heated water comes to the earth surface as hot springs. It can be
used for heating water and buildings and for generating electricity. This is known as geothermal
energy and it is a renewable energy resource.
15. The study of ecosystems is known as _________

a) Echography
b) Bibliograph
c) Ecology
d) Biology
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Ecology deals with the study of organisms in their natural home interacting with
their surroundings. Now ecology is often defined as the study of ecosystems
1. The longitudinal stress is _____ stress across the section.

a) Shear
b) Bending
c) Tensile
d) Compressive
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The tendency of longitudinal stress in a cylinder is to turn away longitudinally. The
longitudinal stress is tensile stress across the section.
2. The longitudinal stress in the shell is _________

a) pd/3t
b) pd/4t
c) pd/2t
d) pd/6t
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As longitudinal stress is half the circumferential stress, then f = total pressure/
resisting section.
f = p × π/4 d2 / π d t
f = pd/4t.
3. The ratio of hoop stress to maximum shear stress is _________

a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 6
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Maximum shear stress (q) = (hoop stress – longitudinal stress) / 2
= pd/8t
= pr/4t
The ratio of hoop stress to maximum shear stress is 4.
4. At any point on the circumference of the cylinder, the longitudinal and hoop stress are
_______
a) Parallel
b) Equal
c) Orthogonal
d) Radial
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: At any point on the circumference of the cylindrical shell, the longitudinal (axial
stress) and hoop stress(circumferential stress) are always orthogonal to each other.
5. Calculate the axial stress induced in the pipe is the water mean of 1.5 metres diameter and 20
mm thick is subjected to an internal pressure of 1.5 N/mm2.
a) 28.125 N/mm2
b) 35.675 N/mm2
c) 46.785 N/mm2
d) 67.845 N/mm2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Longitudinal stress ( axial stress) = pd / 4t.
f= 1.5 × 1500 / 4 × 20
f= 28.125 N/mm2.
6. Saprotrophs are also known as _________

a) Detritus Feeders
b) Decomposers
c) Tertiary consumers
d) Omnivores
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Saprotrophs feed on the parts of dead organisms, wales of living organisms and
partially decomposed matter. They are also known as the detritivores. Termites, crabs etc. are the
examples saprotrophs.
7. Energy flows through the ecosystem in the form of __________ bonds.

a) C-C
b) N-N
c) O-O
d) F-F
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Energy flows through the ecosystem in the form of carbon-carbon bonds when
respiration occurs, the carbon-carbon bonds are broken and the carbon is combined with oxygen
to form carbon dioxide.
8. Energy does not recycle.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Energy is neither created nor destroyed. All energy comes from the sun, and that
the ultimate fate of all energy in ecosystem is to be lost as heat. Energy does not recycle.
9. ____________ is a network of food chain of different types of organisms.

a) Food web
b) Food network
c) Food system
d) Food cache
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Food web is a network of food chains where different types of organisms are
connected at different trophic levels. There are the number of options of eating and being eaten
at each trophic level.
10. Ecological pyramids were first devised by __________

a) Earnest Haeckel
b) Roger Federer
c) Charles Eltan
d) Smith Nell
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: An ecological pyramid is a graphic representation of an ecological parameter like a
number of individuals. The ecological pyramids were first devised by British ecologist Charles
Elton in 1927.
11. Which of the following is correct?

a) Phytoplankton-zooplanktons- fish
b) Zooplanktons -protozoan-fish
c) Grass- fish- zoo plankton
d) Zooplanktons- phytoplankton-fish
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The sequence of eating and being eaten in an ecosystem is known as a food chain.
Some of the common examples of the simple food chain are grass -grasshopper -frog- snake-
hawk (grassland ecosystem).
Phytoplankton-zooplanktons- fish (pond ecosystem).
12. Wholesome water is also known as _________

a) Palatable water
b) Quality water
c) Lethal water
d) Toxic water
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Palatable water is the water that it is free from excessive temperature, colour,
turbidity taste and odour. It is well aerated. The Wholesome water indicates palatable water.
13. Rate of demand is also known as __________

a) Domestic demand
b) Per capita demand
c) Commercial demand
d) Livestock demand
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Rate of demand is the rate of water to be supplied per person per day it is expressed
as litres per capita per day.
Per capita demand (or) rate of demand = Q/P×365 litres per day.
14. Water works are generally design with design period of __________
a) 25 years
b) 30 years
c) 45 years
d) 50 years
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation: Water supply projects are designed to serve our specific period of time after
completion of the project. This time period is called a design period. The water works are
generally designed with a design period of 30 years.
15. What is a design period for storage dam?

a) 45 years
b) 50 years
c) 60 years
d) 90 years
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The design period for storage dam is 50 Years.
1. Calculate the hoop stress at the bottom of penstock, if a steel penstock of 1 m and 10 mm thick
is subjected to 100m head of water. Take w = 9.81 kN/m3.
a) 49 N/mm2
b) 47 N/mm2
c) 45 N/mm2
d) 43 N/mm2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: We know that p = wh ; p = 9.81×100 = 981 kN/m2= 0.981 N/mm2.
Hoop stress = pd/2t = 0.981 ×1000/2×10 = 49 N/mm2.
2. Maximum daily demand = _____ × Average daily demand.

a) 2.5
b) 3.5
c) 1.5
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Peak demand is a maximum consumption of water in an hour or in a day the effects
of monthly variations of flow influences the design of pumps and services reservoirs.
Maximum daily demand = 1.5 × Average daily demand.
3. Which of the following is not a short term estimate in population forecast?
a) Graphical comparison
c) Arithmetical increase method
d) Graphical extension method
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Graphical comparison is a long term estimate. In this estimate, the population time
curve of a given community can be extrapolated on the basis of trends experienced by similar
and larger communities.
4. Pn = P[1+r/100]n is a formula used in ___________

b) Incremental increase method
c) Geometrical increase method
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Geometrical increase method is used for young and rapidly growing cities
The formula used is Pn = P[1+r/100] n; Where Pn = population of “n” decades
r = percentage rate of increase per year
n = number of years or decades.
5. According to Freeman, estimate of fire demand can be made from the formula?
a) Q = 3175 P
b) Q = 2125 P
c) Q = 1136.5 (P/5 +10)
d) Q = 2715 (P/5 + 10)
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Fire fighting demand is provided acquisition draught on distribution system with
normal supply to the consumers according to J R freeman’s formulae :
Q = 1136.5 ( P/5 + 10 )
Q = quantity of water in litres per minute
P = population in thousands.
6. Fire hydrants are located in a main at a distance of ______________

a) 200 to 250 m
b) 150 to 200 m
c) 100 to 150 m
d) 50 to 100 m
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A sufficient amount of water must therefore always be available to satisfy the peak
demand and extinguish any possible fire. For effective fire protection, hydrants are located at
about 150 m intervals.
7. In total consumption, losses account about __________

a) 10
b) 15
c) 30
d) 25
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In total consumption, losses account about 15 %.
Types of consumption Percentage varies
Industrial and commercial demand 25 %
Public demand 15 %
Losses 15 %
8. _______ is integrated or summation hydrograph.

a) Mass curve
b) Mild curve
c) Ryve’s curve
d) Dicken’s curve
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Mass curve diagram is the integrated or summation hydrograph. It shows the
relation between time and cumulative discharges in a river.
9. ___________ is an example of a subsurface source.

a) Streams
b) Impounding reservoir
c) Rivers
d) Springs
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: When ground water appears at the surface for any reason springs are formed. The
springs generally can supply small quantity of water.
10. Infiltration wells are ____________ wells constructed in series.

a) Vertical
b) Horizontal
c) Inclined
d) Radial
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Infiltration wells are the vertical shallow wells constructed in series along the banks
of rivers. The wells are connected by Porous pipes to a sump well called “jack well”.
11. _______ are the horizontal tunnels laid along the banks of river.
a) Infiltration wells
b) infiltration reservoir
c) infiltration galleries
d) infiltration Springs
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Infiltration galleries are used as source of water supply. These are the horizontal
tunnels which are constructed through water bearing strata. They are usually laid along the banks
of rivers, so that water can be drawn across the line of flow.
12. Carbonic acid is high in ______ springs.

a) Gravity
b) Surface
c) Artesian
d) Erotic
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Surface springs are formed when subsoil water is exposed to the ground. The spring
water which is not disturbed by the rainfall is usually attractive in appearance and of good
palatability. However, the content of free carbonic acid is sometimes high and spring water may
possess corrosive and plumb solvent properties.
13. In _________ springs, that trench acts as a storage reservoir.

a) Surface
b) Erotic
c) Artesian
d) Gravity
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Gravity springs are developed due to overflowing of water table. The flow from a
gravity spring is variable with rise or fall of water table. In order to meet with such fluctuations,
a trench may be constructed near such spring. That trench acts as a storage reservoir.
14. Which of the following wells are also known as water table well?
a) Deep wells
b) Open wells
c) Shallow wells
d) Sunk wells
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Shallow well is a well which supply from the uppermost aquifer. The flow into the
wells takes place only by gravity. Due to this depression, the well is also known as gravity well
or water table well.
15. Calculate the strain energy of a member bearing stress of 0.0366 N/mm2. If the length of the
member is 1 m and a cross section area is 60000mm2. Take E = 2 × 105 N/mm2.
a) 0.4 Nmm
b) 0.5 Nmm
c) 0.6 Nmm
d) 0.2 Nmm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Strain energy = f2/ 2E × Volume
= (0.0366)2 / 2 × 2 × 105 × ( 60000) × 1000
= 0.2 Nmm.
1. Torsional modulus is ___________ to torsional strength.

c) Equal
d) Unequal
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As the value of torsional modulus increases, the torsional strength increases. For
example, a hollow circular shaft compared to that of solid shaft of the same area will have more
torsional strength.
2. _______ torque produces the maximum shear stress due to combined bending.
a) Seasonal
b) Equipment
c) Composite
d) Series
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The equipment torque is the twisting moment which acts along to produce the
maximum shear stress due to combined bending and torsion.
3. _______ is the structures installed for the purpose of drawing water.
a) Intakes
b) Conduits
c) Valves
d) Springs
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The devices or structures installed for the purpose of drawing water from the
sources are called intakes. Water is distributed from the source to the treatment through conduits.
4. _______ is an example of a gravity conduit.

a) C I pipes
b) Flumes
c) W I pipes
d) Steel pipes
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Gravity conduits are those in which water flows under more action of gravity.
Flumes are open channels supported on (over the ground surfaces).
5. ________ is the gravity conduits used while crossing a hill or lock.

a) Flumes
b) Aqueducts
c) Canals
d) Tunnels
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Tunnels are portions of aqueduct used while crossing a hill or rock. They may be
grade tunnels or pressure tunnels depending on whether the water flows with a free surface or
under pressure.
6. In aqueduct, the nominal flow of velocity be ________

a) 0.5 m/s
b) 0.9 m/s
c) 0.6 m/s
d) 0.8 m/s
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Aqueduct is covered waterways used to carry water from a remote source to origin
of distribution. Water is not under pressure, so the aqueduct can even be built of brick with a
velocity of 0.9 metre per second.
7. _____________ coincides with the water surface in a canal or open channel.
a) HGL
b) TEL
c) TWL
d) HTL
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The hydraulic gradient line in channels coincides with the water surface in a canal
or open channel. The generally canals are trapezoidal in shape but rectangular sections prove
economical.
8. Pressure conduits are also known as _______

a) Pipe conduits
b) Gravity conduits
c) Artesian conduits
d) Surface conduits
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Pressure conduits are also known as pipe conduits in which large amounts of water
flow under pressure. The location is so chosen that it will be most favourable with regard to the
construction cost and resulting pressures.
9. What is the flow of velocity in the pressure conduit?

a) 0.5 to 0.6 m/s
b) 0.6 to 0.7 m/s
c) 0.6 to 0.8 m/s
d) 0.8 to 1 m/s
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Velocities should be high enough to prevent silt deposition in the pipe and should
be about 0.6 to 0.8 m/s. At low points, in the pipes, blow off branches with valves are placed to
drain the water.
10. Pressure conduits with steel pipes varies diameter _______

a) 2500 mm
b) 3000 mm
c) 3500 mm
d) 4000 mm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Steel pipes are manufactured for various purposes like rising mains, conveying
mains distribution systems and inverted siphons. They are used in size ranging from 900 mm to
3000 mm in diameter.
11. Which of the following conduits possess low resistance to acid nature?
a) RCC pipes
b) PVC pipes
c) Steel pipes
d) PSC pipes
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A partial vacuum is formed while emptying the steel pipeline, it is likely to collapse
easily or get deform permanently. Steel pipes are more liable to resist acidic nature.
12. _______ pipes are not easily biodegradable.

a) RCC
b) PSC
c) PVC
d) G I
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Reinforced concrete pipes maybe precast or cast in situ. The life of pipes is more
than 65 years. They are not easily biodegradable. They can be manufactured with indigenous
equipment.
13. RCC pipes can be used up to a pressure of 3.0 kg/cm2.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: RCC pipes can be used up to a pressure of 3 kg/cm2. Cast Iron pipes and steel pipes
up to 24 kg/cm2.
14. Expand HDPE?

a) High Density Polyvinyl Pipe
b) High Density Polyethylene Pipe
c) High Deformed Polyvinyl Pipe
d) High Deformed Polyethene Pipe
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: HDPE stands for High Density Polyethylene Pipe. HDPE pipes of sizes ranging
from 300 to 3000 mm internal diameter are manufactured by a helical winding process.
15. _______ conduits are 1/10 weight of concrete.
a) PVC
b) GRP
c) RCC
d) CI
View Answer
Answer: b
1. __________ stress does not exceed the permissible tensile stress for the shell material.
a) Axial
b) Longitudinal
c) Hoop
d) Lateral
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Circumferential (hoop) stress does not exceed the permissible tensile stress (Pt) for
the shell material
fh<Pt
t = pd/2fh.
2. To determine hoop stress, efficiency of _________ is to be considered.

a) Construction joint
b) Transverse joint
c) Longitudinal joint
d) Rivet joint
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: To find hoop stress, the efficiency of longitudinal joints to be considered.
fh=pd/2t nl; Where
fh = hoop stress
p = internal pressure
t = thickness of metal
d = diameter
nl = efficiency of longitudinal joint.
3. Cast Iron pipes are being joined a _________

a) Flange joint
b) Expansion joint
c) Socket and spigot joint
d) Simplex joint
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Cast iron pipes are being joined socket and spigot joint. The enlarged end is called
socket while the normal end is called spigot. The spigot is fitted into the socket.
4. Bell joint is also known as ___________

a) Spigot joint
b) Expansion joint
c) Socket joint
d) Simplex joint
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Socket and spigot joint sometimes called bell and spigot joint. It is flexible and
allows the pipes to be laid on flat curves without use of specials.
5. Which of the following joint is a simplex joint?

a) Flanged joint
b) Socket and spigot joint
c) AC pipe joint
d) Expansion joint
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: AC pipes are joined by means of a special type of coupling called simplex joint
which consists of a pipe and two rubber rings.
6. The mortise and tenon are provided in __________ joint.

a) Concrete
b) Spigot
c) A C pipe
d) Flanged
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The concrete pipes are provided with mortise at one end and a suitable tenon each
other and the mortise and tenon are tightly set by placing concrete mortar.
7. ________ head should be higher than working head in a hydraulic test.

a) Pressure
b) Water
c) Working
d) Gauge
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In a hydraulic test, to detect leakage the lower end of pipe is plugged and filled with
water. The hydrostatic head should be higher then working head for 2 hours for ensuring
leakage.
8. Leakage should be nil or minimum by following equation Q = ___________ × ND (P)1/2.

a) 3/3300
b) 2/3300
c) 4/3300
d) 3/2200
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: To ensure nil leakage, the equation to be followed is Q = 2/3300 ND × (P) 1/2.
Q = allowable leakage (l/h)
N = number of joints
D = pipe diameter
P = total pressure applied.
9. _______ is used to magnify the sound for detecting leakage.

a) Aquagaurd
b) Otoscope
c) Sonoscope
d) Horoscope
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Leakages can be detected by the sounding rod method. In this method, sound can
be magnified by Sonoscope. The rod is pulled up and observed whether the point is dry or most
as it indicates leakage.
10. Which of the following is not a leakage detection method?

a) Direct observation
b) By plotting HGL
c) Pipe corrosion
d) Sounding rod
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The term pipe corrosion is used to indicate the loss of pipe material due to the
action of water. The metal chiefly concerned with corrosion of iron and steel, of which mains
and distribution pipes are usually composed.
11. Which of the following is not a cause of corrosion?

a) The cathodic reaction
b) Depolarization
c) Reaction of metal ions
d) Proper pipe material
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: It is one of the steps in the prevention of corrosion, the pipe material if metallic
should be able to resist that dissolve effect of water.
12. A pipe sunk into the ground to draw the underground water is known as ___________
a) An open well
b) A tube well
c) An artesian well
d) An infiltration well
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Tube wells are the wells made by drilling holes in to the ground encased with pipes
and strainers. The diameter varies between 0.15 to 0.6 m.
13. Which of the following well is also known as flowing well?

a) Gravity well
b) Artesian well
c) Drilled wells
d) Driven wells
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Artesian Wells derives water from confined aquifers under pressure. As a result,
ground water flows from the well such a well is known as flowing well.
14. The water bearing strata is known as _________

a) An aquifer
b) An aquiclude
c) An aquifuge
d) An aquitard
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: An aquifer is defined as a saturated bed or geologic formation which yields water in
significant quantities Eg. Sand bed.
15. The difference in levels of water in a well before and after pumping is called ________
a) Cone of depression
b) Yield
c) Draw down
d) Water table
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: When water is pumped from a well, the water around the well under the action of
head caused due to difference in level of the original water table and lowered water table. This
head is known as draw down or depression head.
1. A cylindrical section having no joint is known as _____________

a) Seamless section
b) Efficient section
c) Rivet less section
d) Anchorage section
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A cylindrical section having no joint is known as a seamless section. Built up
section is not that strong as a seamless section of the same thickness.
2. Strength of joint = efficiency × __________

a) Strength of section
b) Depth of plate
c) Length of plate
d) Strength of plate
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The ratio of strength of joint to the strength of our plate is called the efficiency.
Strength of joint = efficiency × strength of plate.
3. The presence of calcium and magnesium chloride in water causes ___________

a) Hardness
b) Bad taste
c) Turbidity
d) Softening
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The characteristic of water that does not give lather easily with soap is called
hardness of water. It is of two types of temporary hardness and permanent hardness.
4. The calcium carbonate in water is _____________

a) Causes bad taste
b) Increases hardness of water
c) Causes turbidity
d) Softens water
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Calcium carbonate in the water indicates temporary hardness, it can be removed
either by boiling or by adding lime to the water.
5. Red colour in water denotes?

a) Mn
b) Fe
c) Nacl
d) Ca
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The presence of iron in the water gives red colour and the brown colour in water
denotes the presence of manganese. According to the standards of water, manganese and iron
should not be more than 0.3 ppm.
6. The water of the river has an important property known as __________

a) Turbidity
b) Permeability
c) Infiltration capacity
d) Self purification
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The flow of water in a river has an important aspect of cleaning. In the river, there
is the number of layers of fine and coarse aggregates that periodically filter the water and hence
the water of a river has an important property of self purification.
7. The type of joint provided to release thermal stresses is called _______

a) Socket and spigot joint
b) Expansion joint
c) Flash joint
d) Simplex joint
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Expansion joints are provided at suitable intervals in the pipelines, so as to resist
the thermal stresses produced due to temperature variations.
8. In __________ pipes, the discharging capacity reduces as the life period increases.
a) Galvanised Iron
b) Cast Iron
c) PVC
d) Steel
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Galvanised Iron pipes are heavy and uneconomical. The discharging capacity
reduces as life period increases. They are likely to break during transportation and placing.
9. Isolated __________ decrease stability in the ecosystem.

a) Food web
b) Food chain
c) Food pyramid
d) Food numbers
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Food chain is a sequence of eating and being eaten in an ecosystem. It involves a
single linear pathway. The isolated food chains decrease the stability of an ecosystem.
10. The presence of hydrogen sulphide in water causes ________

a) Bad taste
b) Acidity
c) Basicity
d) Softening
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The acidity of water is a measure of its capacity to neutralize bases. Acidity is
nothing but a representation of carbon dioxide or carbonic acid. The presence of hydrogen
sulphide indicates acidic nature in the water, it should be in a nominal amount.
11. The turbidity in water is expressed in terms of ________

a) pH value
b) Silica scale
c) Ppm
d) Platinum cobalt scale
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Turbidity is an indication of the apparent colour of Water on account of suspended
inorganic matter such as silt, clay and mud particles. The turbidity is expressed in silica scale.
12. NTU is measurement unit of _______

a) Turbidity
b) Chlorines
c) Hardness
d) Colour
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Water is turbid when it contains visible material in suspension such as clay, silt,
finely divided organic matter and other microscopic matter. NTU stands for nephelometric
turbidity unit.
13. Taste and odour are expressed in terms of ______

a) GTU
b) Threshold numbers
c) Silica scale
d) Ppm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Threshold odour number is the dilution ratio at which the odour is just detectable.
The odour can be estimated by osmoscope whereas colour can be estimated by calibration
method.
14. The water is considered soft when the ppm is between _______
a) 0 – 50
b) 50 – 100
c) 100 – 150
d) Over 250
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The water is considered soft when the ppm is between 0 – 50.
Hardness Scale(ppm) Nature of water
0-50 Soft
50-100 Moderately soft
100-150 Slightly hard
150-200 Moderately hard
15. Expand MPN?

a) Maximum proximity number
b) Most probable number
c) Membrane plate notation
d) Maximum probable notation
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Most probable number is a number which represents the bacterial density which is
most likely to be present. It is one of the methods to estimate the bacterial quantity of water.
1. _______ is as the maximum energy that can be absorbed within the proportionality limit.
a) Proof resilience
b) Modulus of resilience
c) Impact resilience
d) Resilience
View Answer
2. The compressive strength of brittle materials is _________ its tensile strength.

a) Equal to
b) Less than
c) Greater than
d) As same as
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The compressive strength of brittle materials is greater than its tensile strength. The
tensile strength of ductile material is greater than its compressive strength.
3. The tensile test is carried on ________ material.

a) Ductile
b) Brittle
c) Malleable
d) Plastic
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The tensile stress is carried on the tensile materials. In the same way, the
compression test is carried on brittle materials.
4. The breaking stress is ____________ the ultimate stress.

a) Equal to
b) Less than
c) Greater than
d) As same as
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The stress developed in a material without any permanent stress is called elastic
limit and the breaking stress is always less than the ultimate stress.
5. The ductility of a material is __________ to the increase in percentage reduction in an area.

a) inversely proportional
b) directly proportional
c) equal
d) uniform
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The ductility of material increases with the increase in percentage reduction in area
of a specimen under tensile stress.
6. The odour of water can be determined by _________

a) Jackson turbidometer
b) Osmoscope
c) Thermometer
d) Sonoscope
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The main causes of odour in water are algae, sewage and dissolved gases. Taste and
odour can also be expressed in terms of odour density. Odour can be estimated by osmoscope.
7. The colour of water is expressed in terms of ________

a) pH value
b) Silica scale
c) Platinum cobalt scale
d) Ppm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Colour is caused by the presence of colloidal substance is aquatic growth etc. in
water should be distinguished from turbidity which is termed as apparent colour. The colour is
expressed in Platinum Cobalt scale. Colour may be removed by coagulation and adsorption
method.
8. High turbidity of water can be determined by __________

a) Hellipe turbidometer
b) Baylis turbidometer
c) Jackson’s turbidometer
d) Turbidity rod
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The turbidity of potable water should be within 10 PPM or with in 10 units on the
silica scale. High turbidity of water can be determined by Jackson turbidity metre and low
turbidity of water can be determined by baylis turbidity metre.
9. The maximum permissible total solid content in water for domestic purposes should not
exceed.
a) 350 ppm
b) 600 ppm
c) 500 ppm
d) 1000 ppm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Analytically, the total solids content of water is defined as all the matter that
remains as residue upon evaporation. The standards for drinking water is acceptable limit is 500
ppm.
10. Membrane filter technique is used for testing?

a) Copper
b) E -coli
c) Bacteria
d) Boron
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Membrane filter technique is considered as superior method. In this procedure,
unknown volume of water sample is filtered through a membrane with opening less than 0.5
microns.
11. E – coli was formerly known as _________

a) F. Coli
b) B. Coli
c) G. Coli
d) R. Coli
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The pathogenic bacteria are generally inherent in the qualifying group of Bacteria
of which the bacillus coli (B. Coli) now called as Escherichia coli (E.Coli ) is prominent.
12. ______ sample collected at an instant particularly.

a) Composite
b) Grab
c) Integrated
d) Differential
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: To determine the character of the sample, at that particular instant is known as grab
sample. The frequency of grab sampling depends upon the magnitude of fluctuation in the
quality of source.
13. Which of the following samples is also known as catch sample?

a) Integrated
b) Composite
c) Grab
d) Scratch
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In sampling, catch sample collected from the sampling spot at any instant. It is also
known as grabbing sample. It is influenced by the nature of tests are to be conducted.
14. If fluoride concentration in drinking water increases to more than ______ ppm, it causes
fluorosis.
a) 2.5
b) 2
c) 1.5
d) 3
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: When the concentration of fluoride increases to more than 1.5 ppm, a disfigurement
involving staining of teeth known as mottled tooth enamel is caused. This disease is also termed
as fluorosis.
15. What is the desirable limit for sulphates in drinking water?

a) 180 ng/L
b) 230 mg/L
c) 150 mg/L
d) 340 mg/L
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Sulphates ion is one of the major ions occurring in natural waters. In drinking
water, sulphate causes a laxative effect and leads to scale formation in boilers. The desirable
limit in drinking water is 150 mg /L
1. __________ is a framed structure composed of members.

a) Purlin
b) Gussets
c) Ridge tops
d) Truss
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A truss is defined as a framed structure composed of members connected to each
other at their ends and forming triangles which lie in the same plane.
2. Trusses are subjected to ___________ stress.

a) Compressive
b) Tensile
c) Direct
d) Lateral
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Trusses are the members which are subjected to direct stress, as the truss is usually
loaded at the point of intersection of its member only.
3. Trusses are adopted for ___________ span.

a) Medium
b) Short
c) Very large
d) Large
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Trusses are useful at the places of high rainfall to avoid roof drainage problems. For
very large span the use of beams will make the construction most uneconomical.
4. The top line of roof truss is called as ___________

a) Eves
b) Main tie
c) Pitch
d) Ridge line
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The top line of the roof truss is called “ridge line”. The bottom edge of roof surface
is called a ridge line. Corrugated galvanised iron (GI) or asbestos cement (AC) sheets are
commonly used for roof covering.
5. If the members connected don’t lie in the same plane, then structures are called __________
a) Space truss
b) Plane truss
c) Main truss
d) Foot truss
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: If all the members connected at the ends do not lie in the same plane then the
structure (truss) is called as space truss. If the members lie in the same plane, then the structure is
called plane truss.
6. King post trusses are used for spans ______

a) 5 to 8 m
b) 6 to 9 m
c) 4 to 6 m
d) 6 to 8 m
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Generally trusses are used when the span is large and intermediate supports for
purlins and ties are unavailable. A king post truss is used for spans of 6 to 9 m.
7. ________ shape of the frame offers great rigidity.

a) Trapezoidal
b) Triangular
c) Rectangular
d) Square
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The framework of the truss should be built in a way that, it does not change its
shape when loaded. The triangular shape of frame offers great rigidity and hence it is generally
adopted.
8. Which of the following roof are used on small sheds and veranda opening?
a) Couple roof
b) Collar roof
c) Pent roof
d) Purlin roof
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Pent roof is one of the simplest forms of pitched roofs. The sort of sloping roof
consists of common rafters which are generally inclined at 30°. It is suitable for span up to 2.5 m.
It is widely used on small sheds and veranda openings.
9. The joints in king post are of ________

a) Butt
b) Welded
c) Mortice and tenon
d) Lap
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The joint between the principal rafter and the king post is made by making tenon in
the principal rafter and a corresponding mortice into the head of the king post. The joint is
further strengthened by an iron stirrup.
10. About ____________ % volume of concrete is occupied by aggregates.
a) 60%
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 30%
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Around 75% volume of concrete is occupied by aggregates. Hence the structural
behaviour of concrete is significantly influenced by the type of aggregates used. The aggregate
used for the concrete should be durable, strong, hard and well graded.
11. Which of the following cement is used for marine structures?

a) Rapid hardening cement
b) Hydrophobic cement
c) High Alumina cement
d) Super sulphated cement
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: High Alumina cement is used for marine structures.
Type of cement Usage
Rapid hardening cement Road works and repairs
Hydrophobic cement Swimming pools and food processing plants
High Alumina cement Marine structures
12. IS: 455 is associated with ____________

a) Portland slag cement
b) Ordinary Portland cement
c) High alumina cement
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: IS: 455 is associated with Portland slag cement.
Type of cement IS Code
Portland slag cement IS 455
Ordinary Portland cement IS 269
High alumina cement IS 6452
13. Which of the following is used as retarding admixture?

a) Calcium chloride
b) Fluosilicates
c) Treitanlamine
d) Starch
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Retarding admixtures are added to slow down the rate of setting of cement. They
are useful in hot weather concreting. The common types of retarders are cellulose products, sugar
starch etc.
14. Polyhydroxy compounds are ________

a) Accelerating admixtures
b) Retarding admixtures
c) Water reducing admixtures
d) Air entraining admixtures
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Polyhydroxy compounds are Water reducing admixtures.
Type of admixture Materials
Accelerating Calcium chloride, fluosilicates
Water reducing Lignosulphonate,polyhydroxyl
Retarding Sugar, hydroxyl-carboxylic acid
15. Plasticizing admixture means __________

b) Water reducing admixtures
c) Air in training admixtures
d) Superplasticizers
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In water reducing admixtures, the addition of plasticizer allows greater workability
for given water cement ratio or alternatively retains workability while reducing the water
content. They are also called as plasticizing admixtures.
1. The economical spacing of roof trusses works out to be _________ span.

a) 1/2 to 1/5 span
b) 1/3 to 1/5 span
c) 1/2 to 1/3 span
d) 1/4 to 1/6 span
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The economical spacing of roof trusses works out to be 1/3 to 1/5 of the span. A
structure that is composed of a number of line numbers connected at the ends to form a
triangulated framework is called a truss.
2. The top chord members of roof truss is called ___________
a) Common rafters
b) Principal rafters
c) Main tie
d) Pitch
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The top chord members of roof truss are called principal rafters. They support the
roof covering through purlins. They are mainly compression members.
3. The bottom chord member of truss is known as ___________

a) Main tie
c) Common rafters
d) Purlins
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The bottom chord member of the truss is known as the main tie. It is usually in
tension and takes compression if reversal of loads occurs due to wind load intensity.
4. _______ is a roof beam supported by roof truss.

a) Ridge line
b) Eve
c) Principal rafter
d) Purlins
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Purlin is a roof beam supported by roof truss. The purlin is designed as a beam
subjected to bending moment about to axes. The various loads used in design of purlins are:
i. Dead load
ii. Imposed load
iii. Wind load.
5. The ratio of rise to span of truss is called a ___________

a) Slope
b) Splay
c) Pitch
d) Tie
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Pitch of roof truss is defined as the ratio of rise to the span of a truss. It should be
1/6 for G I sheets, 1/12 for AC sheets and ¼ when snow load occurs besides wind load.
6. The angle of repose is zero for ______________
a) Water
b) Masonry
c) Soil
d) Cement
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Angle of repose is defined as the maximum natural slope at which the soil particles
will rest due to internal friction if left unsupported for long time. Angle of repose of soil depends
on its nature and moisture content. For water, the angle of repose is zero.
7. Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) of safe drinking water must be ________

a) 10
b) 15
c) 5
d) 0
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The water should be free from BOD to ensure it as fit for drinking. According to
standards of potable water, free ammonia should not be more than 0.15 ppm and nitrites should
not be more than 20 ppm.
8. The most common coagulant is _____________

a) Magnesium sulphate
b) Alum
c) Chlorine
d) Salt
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The substance which is used for coagulation is known as a coagulant. Alum has
proved to be an effective covalent and it is widely used the coagulant is effective between pH
range of 6.5 to 8.5.
9. The process of forming thick gelatinous precipitates is known as ___________

a) Sedimentation
b) Flocculation
c) Coagulation
d) Filtration
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When coagulants are dissolved in water, they produce thick gelatinous precipitates.
This precipitate is known as floc and the process is known as flocculation. The floc is heavy and
hence it starts to settle down at the bottom of the tank.
10. What is the desirable limit of calcium in drinking water?

a) 45 mg/l
b) 60 mg/l
c) 75 mg/l
d) 90 mg/l
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: According to Indian standards
Parameter Desirable limit (ppm)
Nitrates 45
Calcium 75
Magnesium < 30
11. Oxidation is done in __________ method.

a) Sedimentation
b) Filtration
c) Coagulation
d) Aeration
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Aeration is a method by which water is brought in close contact air so as to absorb
oxygen for the reduction of taste, odour etc. by virtue of oxidation.
12. Which of the following is a method of aeration?

a) Mechanical straining
b) Cascades
c) Biological metabolism
d) Electrolytic changes
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Usage of the cascade is a method of aeration, in which the water is allowed to fall
over a series of concrete steps. During the fall, the water gets thoroughly mixed with the
atmospheric air and gets aerated.
13. Which of the following is not a method of chlorination?

a) As bleaching powder
b) As free chlorine gas
c) As chloramines
d) Use of chloramines
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Use of chloramine is a method of disinfection. It is found that chlorine alone is not
stable in water but when it is mixed in water with ammonia, it forms compounds known as
chloramines. These are very effective in killing bacteria.
14. Bulk modulus is denoted by __________

a) A
b) E
c) K
d) V
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The ratio of direct stress to corresponding volumetric strain is found to be constant
which is called as bulk modulus
Bulk modulus = Direct stress/Volumetric strain.
• It is denoted by “k”.
15. The stress corresponding to 0.2% of strain in the stress-strain curve is _________
a) Proof stress
b) Working stress
c) Direct stress
d) Tenacity
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The stress corresponding to 0.2% of strain in the stress-strain curve of mild steel is
known as proof stress and this also taken as yield stress. The maximum stress is generally taken
as yield stress.
1. Column is a tension member.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Compression members are the structural elements that are pushed together or
carrying a load; more technically they are subjected to axial compressive forces. Example:
Column, strut etc.
2. __________ is a vertical member subjected to direct compressive force.

a) Strut
b) Beam
c) Column
d) Post
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A vertical member subjected to direct compressive forces is called a column or
pillar. The column transfers the load from the beams or slab to the footings and foundations.
3. The inclined member carrying compressive loads is __________

a) Post
b) Stanchion
c) Strut
d) Column
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The inclined member carrying compressive load in case of frames and trusses is
called as a strut. A strut is a member of a structure in any position carrying an axial load. Strut
4. A built up rolled steel section carrying compressive force is called ___________

a) Post
b) Pillar
c) Strut
d) Stanchion
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A built up rolled Steel section carrying compressive force is known as “stanchion”.
A wood member carrying compressive force is called a “post”.
5. The process of removing chlorine from water is known as ____________

a) De chlorination
b) Re chlorination
c) Post chlorination
d) Pre chlorination
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: De chlorination means removing the chlorine from the water this is generally
required when super chlorination has been practiced.
6. The organic impurities in the water from a layer on the top of a filtering media are called
_______
a) Filter layer
b) Permeable layer
c) Impermeable layer
d) Dirty skin
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The water from the sedimentation tank is allowed to enter over a bed of sand
through the inlet chamber. The water percolates through sand bed during the dry skin is formed.
The organic and bacterial impurities are removed by this layer.
7. The rate of filtration in slow sand filter is ___________

a) 100 to 150 lit/hr/m2
b) 150 to 200 lit/hr/m2
c) 250 to 350 lit/hr/m2
d) 100 to 200 lit/hr/m2
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The slow sand filter is effective in bacterial removal and it is preferable for uniform
quality of treated water. It is simple to construct and supervise. The rate of filtration is small and
ranges from 100 to 200 lit/hr/m2.
8. The sand used for filtration should not lose weight more than ________ when placed in Hcl
for 24 hours.
a) 5 %
b) 10 %
c) 15 %
d) 20 %
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: According to the board of Indian Standards [BIS], the sand which is used for
filtration process should not lose weight more than 5% when placed in hydrochloric acid for one
day (24 hours).
9. Cleaning period of slow sand filter is taken as __________

a) 1 to 3 weeks
b) 1 to 3 days
c) 1 to 3 months
d) 1 to 2 hours
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: For the purpose of cleaning the top layer of sand is removed to a depth of 15 mm to
25 mm. The water is admitted to the filter the cleaning interval varies from 1 to 3 months.
10. The efficiency of slow sand filter is about ___________
a) 99 %
b) 95 %
c) 85 %
d) 90 %
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The slow sand filters remove suspended and bacterial impurities to an extent of 98
to 99%. It requires a large area and unsuitable for treating high turbid water.
11. What is the uniformity coefficient of sand used in the rapid sand filter?
a) 1.5
b) 1.35
c) 1.75
d) 1.6
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The effective size of sand used in rapid sand filter is 1.5 mm and the uniformity
Coefficient varies from 1.25 to 1.35.
12. The dosage of ozone is about ________ ppm residual ozone.

a) 2 to 3 ppm
b) 2 to 4 ppm
c) 1 to 5 ppm
d) Zero
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Ozone easily breaks down with oxygen and releases nascent oxygen which is
powerful in killing bacteria. It also reduces organic matter present in the water the dosage of
ozone is about 2 to 3 ppm.
13. Which of the following process is also known as Ion exchange process?
a) Lime soda process
b) Base exchange process
c) Demineralization process
d) Cation exchange process
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Softening of water can be done by the demineralization process which is also
known as deionized water. In, each method minerals are removed my pass in the water through a
bed of cation exchange resin.
14. Aeration is effective in removing of _________ odours.
a) 60 %
b) 75 %
c) 30 %
d) 40
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Aeration is effective in removing 75% of odours. This process also removes carbon
dioxide to a great extent. Aeration is affected by filtering it through perforated trays through
different methods.
15. Which of the following is a control measure of removal of colour, taste and order?
a) Ozone treatment
b) Silver treatment
c) Copper sulphate treatment
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Copper sulphate also helps in the removal of colour taste and odour it prevents the
growth of algae and also acts as disinfectant. It is used for swimming pool water to give play
then colour.
1. _____________ of column mainly depends upon end conditions.

a) Radius of gyration
b) Slenderness ratio
c) Factored load
d) Effective length
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The effective length of a column with given end conditions is a length of an
equivalent column of the same material and cross section with hinged ends. The effective length
of the column mainly depends upon end conditions.
2. The hinged end is also known as ___________

a) Fixed end
b) Pinned end
c) Rigid end
d) Free end
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In hinged end case, the end is fixed in position only (but the direction is free). The
deflection in the case of this end is zero. (y = 0). It is also known as “Pinned end”.
3. Long columns fail due to ____________
a) Direct stress
b) Buckling stress
c) Lateral stress
d) Tensile stress
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In long columns, direct stress is very small compared to the bending stresses. The
long column commonly fails because of bending stress.
4. In short columns, the slenderness ratio is less than __________

a) 32
b) 64
c) 56
d) 28
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The short column fails primarily due to direct stress. In short columns, the buckling
stresses are very small compared to direct stresses. The short column is a column whose
slenderness ratio is less than 32.
5. For ___________ columns, the slenderness ratio is more than 32 and less than 120.
a) Long
b) Short
c) Average
d) Medium
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Medium column is a column which fails either due to direct stress or buckling
stress. For medium columns, the slenderness ratio is more than 32 and less than 120. For medium
columns, the length is more than 8 times but less than 30 times their least lateral dimension.
6. Radius of gyration is denoted by __________

a) k
b) g
c) y
d) s
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The ratio of square root of the moment of inertia (I) to the cross sectional area(A) is
called “radius of gyration”. It is denoted by “k” or “r”.
K = (I/A)1/2.
7. The __________ is the distance between Centres to centre of effective lateral ends.
a) Mean length
b) Stripped length
c) True length
d) Actual length
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The actual length of a column is defined as the distance between the centre to
centre of effective lateral restraints (L).
8. The slenderness ratio is the ratio of effective length to least ______________

a) Ultimate load
b) Actual length
d) Factor of safety
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The ratio of effective length to the least radius of gyration (k) is called the
slenderness ratio. For good design purpose, the slenderness ratio should be as small as possible
to an extent.
9. Which of the following is also known as the working load?

a) Safe load
b) Crippling load
c) Ultimate load
d) Buckling load
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A column and Strut can never be subjected to critical load and the column is
subjected to less than a critical load. This load is phenomenally known as safe load or working
load.
10. Factor of safety is a ratio of crippling load to __________ load.

a) Critical load
b) Buckling load
c) Safe load
d) Ultimate load
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The ratio of crippling load to the safe load of a column is called a factor of safety.
Factor of safety = Crippling load/Safe load
• The safe load is obtained by dividing the critical load by a number (called factor of safety).
11. At ___________ load, the column is said to have developed an elastic instability.
a) Safe
b) Working
c) Factored
d) Crippling
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The load at which the column just buckles is called crippling load. The column is
said to have developed an elastic instability, at this load. The buckling of a column takes place
along least radius of gyration or least moment of inertia.
12. The value of _________ is relatively high for short columns.

a) Safe load
b) Factored load
c) Working load
d) Buckling load
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The load at which the column just bents or buckles is called buckling load or
critical load or crippling load. The value of buckling load is low for long columns and relatively
high for short columns.
13. The slenderness ratio is ________ to critical stress.

c) Equal
d) Transverse
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As the slenderness ratio increases, the permissible stress or critical stress reduces.
Consequently, the load carrying capacity also reduces. In this way, the slenderness ratio behaves
inversely proportional to the critical stress induced.
14. For a given material length, end conditions and equal area the shape of the column which is
most efficient as per Euler’s is _________
a) Square
b) Circular
c) I section
d) Tubular
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: As the radius of gyration will be least along the major axis of cross section. For
example rectangular column along y-axis; for a given area, the tubular section will have a
maximum radius of gyration. It is more efficient than any other section.
15. What is the rankines constant for cast iron?

a) 1/2000
b) 1/2400
c) 1/ 1600
d) 1/ 1800
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Rankines constant for cast iron is 1/ 1600.
1. Long axially loaded columns tends to deflect about ___________

b) Effective length
c) Core
d) Safe loading
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A long axially loaded column tends to deflect about the axis of least moment of
inertia the least radius of gyration and it should be used for determining the slenderness ratio.
2. What is the effective length of a column at both ends fixed?

a) l/3
b) l
c) l/2
d) 2×l
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The effective length of a column at both ends fixed is L =l/2.
Both ends hinged L=l
Both ends fixed L =l/2
3. Which of the following is the method of removing the temporary hardness of water?
a) Lime soda method
c) Boiling
d) Chlorination
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: When the water is boiled up to a temperature of 80 degree, most of the bacteria will
be killed and bicarbonates of calcium and magnesium are also eliminated.
4. The application of chlorine beyond the stage of break point is _________

a) Double chlorination
b) Post pollination
c) Super chlorination
d) Breakpoint chlorination
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Super chlorination is a term which indicates the addition of an excessive amount of
chlorine that is 5 to 15 mg / l to the water that is the application of chlorine beyond the stage of
break point.
5. Which of the following methods of disinfection is usually adopted in swimming pools?

a) Excess lime treatment
b) Iodine – Bromine method
c) Pottasium permanganate method
d) Ultraviolet rays method
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Ultraviolet rays are highly disinfectants and kill the bacteria. The rays penetrate in
water and kill the bacteria. This process is very costly and requires technical skill and costly
equipment. This method is adapted generally in swimming pools.
6. Hardness due to calcium bi carbonate can be removed by ___________

a) Boiling
b) Excessive lime
c) Zeolite
d) Soda treatment
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Lime is generally used as a water purification material the excess lime treatment of
water about 99.9% to 100%. The lime excess line l is the pH value of water making extremely
alkaline.
7. __________ is used for spans ranging from 9 m to 15 m.

a) King post truss
b) Queen post truss
c) Coral truss
d) Roof truss
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Queen post truss is used for spans 9 m to 15 m. It consists of principal rafters,
common rafters, purlins. The queen posts are connected with the help of a straining beam.
8. __________ is provided to prevent the movement of the post due to loads in Queen post truss.
a) Purlin
b) Eaves board
c) Straining beam
d) Ridge beam
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The queen posts are connected with the aid of straining been of the upper ends and
by a straining sill at the lower end to prevent the movement of post due to loads. In this truss, the
straining beam acts as a compression member. Whereas the queen post act as a tension member.
9. ___________ is a combination of king post truss and queen post truss.

a) Steel slope truss
b) Pratt truss
c) Mansard roof truss
d) Fan truss
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Mansard truss is a combination of king post truss and queen post truss. This truss is
used to obtain the maximum space for living purposes. The general height of the roof is
comparatively kept low.
10. In mansard truss, the upper slope is _________

a) 45°
b) 30°
c) 60°
d) 90°
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The mansard has two different slopes, the lower slope should not be steeper than
75° and upper slope not greater than 30 degrees. The construction of the various joints is similar
to the king post and queen post trusses.
11. _______ trusses are generally adopted for greater fans.

a) Timber
b) Cast Iron
c) Steel
d) AC
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The Steel trusses are adopted for greater spans as the timber trusses become heavy
and uneconomical. Steel trusses are much stronger than timber trusses and are more fire resisting
and durable. They cannot be attacked by white ants.
12. Steel trusses are generally constructed with __________

a) Mild steel
b) HYSD steel
c) TMT steel
d) JSW steel
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Generally, most of the Steel trusses are fabricated and constructed with mild steel.
They consist of angles because the angle sections can effectively resist both compressive and
tensile stresses.
13. __________ consists generally of single or double angles.

a) Strut
b) Column
c) Pillar
d) Stanchion
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Angles can be manufactured economically instead of T sections for rafters. Strut
consists of generally single or double angles, one or two angles back to back can be used as a tie
beam.
14. A queen closer is placed after ______ in the heading course.

a) Quoin header
b) Brick bat
c) Header
d) Stretcher
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The length of queen closer is usually kept equal to thickness of the wall. A queen
closer is placed after every quoin header in a heading course, when the thickness of wall is 200
mm or above.
15. The size of frog in bricks is ___________

a) 10×4×4 cm
b) 10×9×4 cm
c) 10×4×1 cm
d) 9×9×4 cm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The depression provided on the size of brick during its manufacture is called the
frog. According to BIS, the size of the frog in brick is 10×4×1 cm. Frog reduces the weight of a
brick, to lay conveniently.
1. Eccentrically loaded columns have to be designed for combined axial and ________
a) Shear force
b) Bending moments
c) Torsion
d) Creep
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When the line of action of the resultant force doesn’t coincide with the axis of
centre of gravity then it is called eccentrically loaded column. An eccentrically loaded column
has to be designed for combined axial force and bending moments.
2. What is the recommended value of effective length if the column is effectively held in position
and fixed against rotation in both ends?
a) 0.8 l
b) 0.5 l
c) 0.65 l
d) 0.9 l
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Effectively held in position and fixed against rotation in both ends is 0.65 l.
Value of effective
End Positions Of a Column
length
Effectively held in position and fixed against rotation in both ends 0.65 × l
Effectively held in position at both ends but not restrained against
1.00 × l
rotation
3. What is the minimum value of eccentricity provided in columns?

a) 50 mm
b) 20 mm
c) 30 mm
d) 45 mm
View Answer
Answer: c
to imperfection of construction or due to actual conditions of loading. Hence IS 456 -2000,
recommend eccentricity of 20 mm.
4. The strength of the column with helical reinforcement shall be ____ times the strength of
similar column with lateral ties.
a) 2.0
b) 1.05
c) 3
d) 1.5
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The strength of column with helical reinforcement Shall be 1.05 times the strength
of similar column with lateral ties, provided the ratio of the volume of helical reinforcement to
the volume of the core shall not be less than 0.36(Ag/Ak – 1) fck/fy.
5. The minimum diameter provided for the longitudinal bars is ________

a) 15 mm
b) 20 mm
c) 12 mm
d) 18 mm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The minimum diameter of the longitudinal bars provided in the column is 12 mm
and the spacing of longitudinal bars measured along the periphery of the column shall not exceed
300 mm.
6. What is the minimum number of longitudinal bars provided in the rectangular column?
a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 8
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: According to IS 456-2000, clause 26.5.3, the minimum number of longitudinal bars
to be provided is 4 for rectangular columns and the minimum number of longitudinal bars to be
provided for circular columns is 6.
7. The ends of ________ shall be properly anchored.

a) Longitudinal reinforcement
b) Transverse reinforcement
c) Torsional reinforcement
d) Shear reinforcement
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The effective lateral support is given by transverse reinforcement either in the form
of circular rings or by lateral ties. The ends of transverse reinforcement shall be properly
anchored.
8. For longitudinal reinforcing bar, the nominal cover should not be less than ___________
a) 30 mm
b) 20 mm
c) 40 mm
d) 50 mm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: According to IS 456-2000, clause 26.4.2.1, the nominal cover for longitudinal
reinforcing bars in any case shall not be less than 40 mm or less than the diameter of such bar.
9. Which of the following reservoirs is also known as ___________

a) Ground service reservoirs
b) Elevated reservoirs
c) Over head reservoirs
d) Storey reservoirs
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Ground service reservoirs are constructed at ground level and mainly used to store
water. They are generally constructed with masonry (or) RCC slab. These are also known as
surface reservoirs or not elevated reservoirs.
10. A system in which water is supplied only for fixed few hours, such system is called ____
a) Closed
b) Intermittent
c) Combined
d) Lift
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In the intermittent system, the water is supplied only for a few hours the system is
adopted when adequate water from the source is not available. The system is widely adopted by
much local water authority it is functioned through phases.
11. In ___________ system, air relief valves are not required.

a) Gravity
b) Intermittent
c) Continuous
d) Grid
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In the continuous system, the supply of water is 24 hours a day. This is the most
ideal system and is adopted when plenty of water is available. As the water doesn’t get
contaminated and circulating at uniform pressure, air relief valves are not required essentially.
12. Which of the following is one of the layouts of distribution systems?

a) Dual system
b) Gravity system
c) Grid Iron system
d) Pressure system
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In grid iron systems, there are no dead ends hence stagnation of water and its
consequences are eliminated. The water is kept in good circulation due to the absence of dead
ends. The system is suitable for well planned towns.
13. Which of the following system is also known as an interlaced system?

a) Tree system
b) Grid iron system
c) Circle system
d) Radial system
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Grid iron system is an improvement over the tree system. In the system, the mains,
sub lines and branches are interconnected with each other. This system is also known as
interlaced or reticulation system.
14. Which of the following is also known as a ring system?

a) Circle
b) Reticulation
c) Radial
d) Interlaced
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In a circle system, the entire locality is divided into either rectangular (or) circular
blocks. The water mains are laid along the peripheral roads with sub mains branching out from
mains. This system is also known as ring system.
15. Varignon’s theorem is called as _________

a) Principle of Forces
b) Principle of moments
c) Principle of points
d) Theory of couple
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Varignon’s theorem states that “the moment of a force about any point is equal to
the sum of moments of the components about the same point”. This principle is also known as
the principle of moments.
R.r = P.p + Q.c
Where P, Q are forces and R is resultant.
“c” is the perpendicular distance of Q
1. ___________ formula can be used only for long columns.

a) Euler’s
b) Rankine’s
c) Swift’s
d) Johnson’s
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Euler’s formula is used only for long columns and l/k > 80 for mild steel columns.
Where l = effective length of column
k = radius of gyration.
2. In Euler’s formula, the column fails due to __________ alone.

a) Shear
b) Torsion
c) Tension
d) Bending
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In Euler’s formula, the column material is perfectly elastic, homogeneous, isotropic
and obeys Hooke’s law. The self weight of column is ignorable and column fails due to buckling
alone.
3. The __________ joints are friction less.

a) Free
b) Pin
c) Roller
d) Fixed
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A pinned joint offers resistance against horizontal and vertical movements but not
against rotation. The deflection developed is zero (y = 0) and fixed ends are rigid.
4. __________ formula is used for determining short as well as long columns.
a) Gilbert’s
b) Rankine’s
c) Johnson’s
d) Euler’s
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The Rankine’s formula for crushing load = Pcr = fA/1+€(l/k) 2
Where; f = allowable crushing stress
A = area of cross section
K = least radius of gyration
€ = Rankine’s constant
• Rankine formula can be used for short columns as well as long columns.
5. ________ attached to a Framework suspended from the main structure.

a) Cantering
b) Shuttering
c) Bracing
d) Ceiling
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A suspended ceiling attached to a framework suspended from the main structure. It
provides a void between the underside of the main structure and ceiling. General it is provided to
conceal the unevenness of roof.
6. _________ type of ceiling is adopted in modern hotels and auditorium.

a) Plaster board
b) Fibre board
c) Decorative
d) Joint less
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Plaster board ceiling is adopted because of its ease of fixing and elimination of
plaster mixer for the over head work. Plasterboard consists of gypsum plaster form in sheets 2.5
m × 0.75 m and compressed give strength.
7. Upper floor is also known as ________

a) Basement floor
b) Suspended floor
c) Supported floor
d) Rigid floor
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Any floor above the level of ground floor is termed as upper or suspended floor.
Floors are named as ascending order. The name of the building in respect of the storeys is
governed by the number of floors it possess.
8. Paving is also known as ___________

a) Floor covering
b) Sub floor
c) Sub grade
d) Wearing course
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The upper position of a floor structure consisting of base and topping is called floor
covering or paving. The purpose of floor covering is to have a clean, smooth, non absorbent and
durable surface.
9. _________ floors are used in modern residential and religious buildings?

a) Cement concrete
b) Terrazzo
c) Mosaic
d) Timber
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Terrazzo floors consist of the terrazzo finish at top. Generally it consists of wearing
layer of the terrazzo mixture about 6 mm thick laid on and under layer. It furnishes attractive and
durable floor.
10. Scaffolding has to be done, if the height of structure is above _________

a) 1.2
b) 1.4
c) 1.5
d) 1.8
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A temporary platform provided with necessary supports close to the work, provides
limited space for the workers, building materials, tools etc. is termed as scaffolding. It is
generally adopted for construction of masonry work above ground level 1.5 m.
11. ________ scaffolding is used where it is not possible to fix the standards into the ground.
a) Suspended
b) Cantilever
c) Steel
d) Brick layers
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Cantilever scaffolding consists of platform supported by a series of cantilever or
needle beams, passing through window openings or through holes left in the walls. They used it,
when it is not possible to fix the standards into the ground.
12. __________ scaffolding is used for light construction and finishing works.
a) Ladder
b) Brick layers
c) Mason’s
d) Suspended
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Suspended scaffolding is cheap type and does not cause any obstruction on the
ground. it is considered most effective as optimum level for working. It is used for finishing
works like painting, distempering and whitewashing etc.
13. The step with one or both ends rounded is known as _________
a) Point faced step
b) Soffit
c) Newel step
d) Bull nose step
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The step with one or both ends rounded is known as Bull nose step. This type of
step is generally provided at the bottom of a flight and remains always projecting beyond the
face of the new post.
14. A step of uniform width is called filier.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A step of uniform width is called filier. This type of step is usually rectangular in
plan. These steps are always preferred even at turning points of stair as they are safe for quick
movement of the users.
15. The step of non uniform width is called ________

a) Post
b) Winder
c) Filier
d) Landing
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The step of non uniform width is called as winder. These types of steps are usually
triangle in plan. Such steps are only provided for changing the direction of a stair.
1. Calculate the Euler’s crippling load, if the effective length of column is 10 m take flexural
rigidity as 6.14 × 1010 Nmm2.
a) 6 kN
b) 8 kN
c) 10 kN
d) 12 kN
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: To find P:
P = π2 × EI/L2
P = π2 × 6.14 ×1010 / 100002
P = 6.055 kN ~ 6 kN.
2. A fine grained material is mostly ________

a) Homogeneous
b) Isotropic
c) Isomeric
d) Elastic
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A material is said to be isotropic if at any point it has identical elastic properties in
all directions. A fine grained material is mostly isotropic in nature.
3. The tangential force per unit area is _________

a) Shear strain
b) Shear stress
c) Modulus of rigidity
d) Torsion
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The tangential force acting along the section of the body is termed as shear force
and the stress in the section due to shear force is called shear stress and it is denoted by fs.
4. Which of the following is also known as pushing force?

a) Tensile stress
c) Shear stress
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When an external force cause shortening of the body in the direction of the force it
is termed as compressive force. The stress developed in the body due to the compressive force is
called compressive stress.
5. Which of the following is also known as pulling force?

a) Tensile stress
b) Shear stress
c) Lateral stress
d) Axial stress
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When an external force produces elongation of the body in its direction, it is termed
as a tensile force. The stress developed in a cross section of the body due to a tensile force is
called tensile stress.
6. Longitudinal strain is also known as ___________

a) Direct strain
b) Axial strain
c) Indirect strain
d) Shear strain
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Direct strain is a measure of deformation produced by the application of the
external forces. It is the ratio of change in dimension to the original dimension. It is also known
as longitudinal strain.
7. Which of the following is also known as transverse strain?

a) Tensile strain
b) Compressive strain
c) Shear strain
d) Volumetric strain
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Shear Strain is a measure of the angle through which a body is this distorted with
applied forces. Shear Strain is also known as the transverse strain.
Shear strain = ds/L.
8. The hooks law is valid only for _________
a) Uni axial forces
b) Bi axial forces
c) Tri axial forces
d) Lateral forces
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Hooke’s law: (Given by Sir Robert Hooke in 1678): stress is directly proportional
to strain within limit of proportionality. It is valid for uniaxial force only.
9. Which of the following is also known as endurance limit?

a) Proportionality limit
b) Rupture limit
c) Elastic limit
d) Fatigue limit
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The greatest stress applied an infinite number of times that a material can take
without causing Failure is known as endurance or fatigue limit.
10. The ultimate strength in flexure is known as modulus of ________

a) Toughness
b) Rupture
c) Resilience
d) Hardening
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The ultimate strength in flexure or torsion is known as modulus of rupture and the
modulus of resilience is defined as the energy stored per unit volume at the elastic limit.
11. A material which ruptures with little or no plastic deformation is said to be ____________
a) Ductile material
b) Elastic material
c) Plastic material
d) Brittle material
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A material is said to be brittle, if it ruptures with little or no plastic deformation and
a material said to be ductile if it undergoes deformation without rupture.
12. The stress which is just sufficient to cause a permanent set is known as ___________
a) tenacity
b) ultimate stress
c) proof stress
d) working stress
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Proof stress is a stress which is just sufficient to cause a permanent set equal to a
specified percentage of the original gauge length. The stress corresponding to 0.2% of strain in
the stress strain curve of mild steel is also known as proof stress.
13. For engineering materials, the poison’s ratio lies in the range of ___________
a) 0 and 1
b) -1 and 1
c) -2 and 2
d) 0 and 1/2
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The ratio of lateral strain to the corresponding longitudinal or linear strain is called
poison’s ratio and it is denoted by 1 / m. The value of poison’s ratio for elastic materials usually
lies between 0.25 and 0.33 in no case the value doesn’t exceed 0.5.
14. For ductile materials, the factor of safety is the ratio of yield stress to ___________
a) tenacity
b) ultimate stress
c) working stress
d) shear stress
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Factor of safety,; for ductile materials, F.O.S = yield stress/Working stress
For brittle materials; F.O.S = ultimate stress / working stress.
15. A material having three mutually perpendicular planes of elastic symmetry is said to be
_________
a) Isotropic
b) Autotrophic
c) Orthotropic
d) Anisotropic
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: If the material has three mutually perpendicular planes of elastic symmetry, then
the material is said to be orthotropic material. The number of an independent constant is 9 in this
case.
1. Calculate the elongation of the cable due to load, if a steel cable of 2 cm diameter is used to
lift a load of 500 π kg. Given that and the length of cable is 10 m and E = 2×10 6 kg/cm2.
a) 0.5 cm
b) 0.3 cm
c) 0.25 cm
d) 0.4 cm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Change in length = Pl/AE = (500π)×(1000) / π × 2 × 106
Change in length = 0.25 cm.
2. A HYSD steel bar is 400 mm long. The lengths of the parts AB and BC of the bar is 200 mm
each. It is loaded as P1 = 2000 kg and P2 = 1000 kg. Take diameter of AB as 2 cm and BC as 1
cm. The ratio of stresses in part AB to stresses in part BC is __________
a) 0.2
b) 0.75
c) 0.5
d) 1.5
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The stress in AB = Pa/Aa = 2000/π/4 ×4 = the stress in BC = Pb/Ab = 1000/π/4 × 1
Pa/Pb = 2000/4 × 1000
= 0.5.
3. A retaining wall is related to _______

a) Plane stress
b) Plane strain
c) Normal stress
d) Normal strain
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In a plane strain problem, the normal strain in the Z-direction. The shear strains
must be zero. The normal strains may have non zero values. A retaining wall is the best example
for plane strain problem.
4. _________ is a fix direction on the surface.

a) Bearing
b) Meridian
c) Graduated ring
d) Lift lever
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Meridian is defined as a fix direction on the surface of the earth. The bearings of
the survey lines are measured with reference to the meridians.
5. Which of the following is also known as geographical meridian?

a) True meridian
b) Arbitrary meridian
c) Magnetic meridian
d) Post meridian
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: True meridian is a line or plane passing through the true North Pole and South Pole,
any point on the surface of the earth. It is also known as a geographical meridian. The direction
of it through a point can be set by astronomical observations.
6. _________ changes with place and time.

a) Bearing
b) Magnetic bearing
c) True bearing
d) Arbitrary bearing
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The magnetic bearing is a horizontal angle made by a survey line with reference to
the magnetic meridian. The magnetic bearing changes with respect to place and time.
7. ___________ is provided to avoid undue wear and tear of pivot points.

a) Magnetic needle
b) Lifting pin and lever
c) Object vane
d) Break pin
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A lifting pin is provided just below the object vane. When the object vane folded
over to the glass cover, the lifting pin automatically presses the lifting lever as it avoids wear and
tear of a pivot point.
8. ________ stops the oscillations of the graduated ring.

a) Brake pin
b) Eye vane
c) Object vane
d) Graduated ring
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A brake pin is provided just at the base of the object vane. If pressed gently, it
moves the spring brake inside the compass box, which stops the oscillation of the graduated ring.
9. The series of connected lines is known as ____________

a) Reinforcing
b) Traversing
c) Guniting
d) Bracing
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The branch of surveying which involves a series of connected lines is known as
traversing. The sides of the traverse are known as traverse legs. Traversing may be of two types,
closed and open.
10. The time for which water is written in a settling tank is known as ________
a) Virtual time
b) Actual time
c) Detention time
d) Active time
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Detention time is a time for which water is detained in the settling tank.
D.T = capacity of the task/rates of flow of a wave
= volume / discharge.
11. What is a detention time for mechanically cleaned tanks?

a) 2 to 3 hours
b) 2.5 to 4 hours
c) 1.5 to 3 hours
d) 4 to 6 hours
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The velocity of flow can be reduced by increasing the area of flow and the
detention time taken by a mechanically cleaned tank is 1.5 to 3 hours.
12. The rate of filtration for rapid sand filter is ___________

a) 3000 to 4500 lit/hr/m2
b) 4500 to 6500 lit/hr/m2
c) 3000 to 6000 lit/hr/m2
d) 4500 to 7000 lit/hr/m2
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The efficiency of rapid sand filter is 95% the rate of filtration is large and ranges
from 3000 to 6000 lit/hr/m2 of filter area and size of unit is small.
13. Which of the following processes is known as zeolite?

a) Demineralization process
b) Deionized water
c) Lime soda process
d) Base exchange process
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Base Exchange process is also known as the zeolite or cation exchange process. In
this process, the hard water is allowed to pass through a bed of zeolite sand (complex silicates of
aluminium and sodium). This process is widely adopted.
14. The ratio of the yield of water from a rapid sand filter is __________
a) 10
b) 5
c) 15
d) 30
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The efficiency of removal of bacteria by the rapid sand filter is 95% and the ratio of
the yield of water from rapid sand filter is 30. The backwash arrangement is made only in case of
a rapid sand filter.
15. _________ is a property of the free surface of a liquid.

a) Permeability
b) Surface tension
c) Capillarity
d) Specific gravity
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The property by which the free surface of a liquid acts as a stretched membrane
with a minimum surface area can be termed as surface tension.
1. Beams which are reinforced in both compression and tension sides are called as _______
a) Dual reinforced beam
b) Doubly reinforced beam
c) Composite beam
d) Additional beam
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The beams which are reinforced in both compression as well as tension sides are
known as doubly reinforced beams. These beams are generally provided when the dimensions of
the beam are restricted.
2. Doubly reinforced beams are provided when Mu _____ M.

a) =
b) <
c) >
d) ~
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The reinforced beams are generally provided when it is required to resist moment
higher than the limiting moment of resistance of a singly reinforced section. The additional
moment of resistance required can be obtained by providing compression reinforcement and
additional tension reinforcement.
3. The doubly reinforced beams improve the ______ of the beam in earthquake regions.
a) Brittleness
b) Elasticity
c) Ductility
d) Toughness
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Generally when the depth of beam is restricted due to architectural or any
construction problems, the doubly reinforced beams are used. It reduces long term deflection and
it also improves the ductility of the beam.
4. What is the stress in compression, if d’/d value is 0.1 for Fe415 steel?
a) 355 N/mm2
b) 353 N/mm2
c) 342 N/mm2
d) 329 N/mm2
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The stress in compression, if d’/d value is 0.1 for Fe415 steel is 353 N/mm2.
Grade of steel d’/d value fsc ( in N/mm2)
415 0.10 353
500 0.10 412
5. The cracks seen on walls are due to _____ failure.

a) Flexural
b) Compression
c) Shear
d) Torsional
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The diagonal tension stress caused by shear and the combination of shear and
bending is likely to cause the failure of the section by producing cracks in the walls.
6. Bending is accompanied by _______

a) Axial
b) Eccentricity
c) Shear
d) Torsion
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Usually, the bending is accompanied by shear. The combination of shear and
bending stresses produces the principal stress which causes diagonal tension in the beam section.
7. The variation of shear stress is ____________

a) Elliptical
b) Hyperbolic
c) Parabolic
d) Circular
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In homogeneous beams, the variation of shear stress is parabolic.
• It is zero at top and bottom.
• It is maximum at a neutral axis.
8. What is the maximum shear stress for M20 grade concrete?

a) 2.5 N/mm2
b) 2.8 N/mm2
c) 3 N/mm2
d) 3.5 N/mm2
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The maximum shear stress for M20 grade concrete is 2.8 N/mm2.
Concrete Grade M15 M20 M25 M30 M35
2
Max. Shear stress (N/mm ) 2.5 2.8 3.1 3.5 3.7
9. ________ has to be provided against diagonal tensile stresses.

b) Shear reinforcement
d) Transverse reinforcement
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Shear reinforcement has to be provided against diagonal tension stress caused by
shear force. The inclined shear crack starts at the bottom and extends towards the compression
zone.
10. Vertical stirrups are a form of _______ reinforcement.

a) Tension
b) Shear
c) Compression
d) Torsion
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Generally the vertical stirrups are provided as two legged or four legged stirrups
around the tension reinforcement. Hanger bars are provided to keep vertical steps in position
otherwise they may get displaced while concreting.
11. The shear to be resisted by shear reinforcement is given by ___________

a) Vus = Vuc + Vu
b) Vus = Vu + Vuc
c) Vu = Vus – Vuc
d) Vus = Vu – Vuc
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The shear to be resisted by shear reinforcement is given by
Vus = Vu – Vuc
Where: Vuc = shear resistance of concrete
Vu = ultimate shear force
▪ The number of stirrups cut by 45° crack line is n = d/Sv.
12. The shear resistance of bent up bars shall not exceed __________ the total shear to be
resisted.
a) 30 %
b) 50%
c) 40%
d) 25%
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: If the bent up bars or inclined stirrups are provided at spacing, the shear resistance
of bent up Bar should not exceed 50% of the total shear to be resisted by the shear reinforcement.
Because bent up bars alone (without stirrups) are not effective in preventing shear failure.
13. What is the horsepower of the engine if the power is 219324 W.

a) 312
b) 268
c) 294
d) 304
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The rate of doing work is known as power.
Horse power = P/746
= 219324/746
= 294 W.
14. A lift carry 10 persons each weighing 60 kg to the top storey of the building 100 m height.
Calculate the potential energy acquired by the person.
a) 5.88 × 105 J
b) 4.32 × 105 J
c) 2.34 × 105J
d) 1.16 × 105J
View Answer
15. Calculate the maximum shear stress of a circular beam of 100 mm diameter, if the average
shear stress is 0.63 N/mm2.
a) 0.85 N/mm2
b) 1.2 N/mm2
c) 1.5 N/mm2
d) 2.1 N/mm2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: For the circular section,
The maximum shear stress = 4/3 × average shear stress
= 4/3 × 0.6366
= 0.85 N/mm2.
1. Calculate the nominal shear stress, if a singly reinforced rectangular beam 230×450 mm
effective depth is subjected to a factored load of 60 kN.
a) 0.6 N/mm2
b) 0.55 N/mm2
c) 0.4 N/mm2
d) 0.25 N/mm2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: B = 230 mm; d = 450 mm
Shear force = Vu = 60 kN
Nominal shear stress = Vu/bd = 60 × 103/ 230 ×450
= 0.6 N/mm2.
2. The minimum shear reinforcement is given by Asv/bSv = _______

a) 0.4 /0.87 fy
b) 0.5 /0.85 fy
c) 0.6 /0.9 fy
d) 0.35/ 0.6 fsc
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The minimum quantity of shear reinforcement that should be provided for all
beams except those of minor importance like lintels is given by IS 456:2000, clause 26.5.1.6 by
the equation
Asv/bSv = 0.4/0.87 fy.
3. Bent up bars do not resist diagonal tension.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Some of the longitudinal bars can be bent up near supports as a bending moment to
be resisted near the supports is very little. Such bent up bars resists diagonal tension effectively.
4. The ultimate shear force at a section of an RCC beam is 300 kN. The shear resisted by
concrete is 77.5 kN. What is the shear for which shear reinforcement is required?
a) 213.5 kN
b) 220 kN
c) 222.5 kN
d) 122.5 kN
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Shear to be resisted by shear reinforcement is Vus = Vu – Vuc
Vus = Vu – Vuc; Where Vu = ultimate shear force and Vuc = shear resistance of concrete
= 300 – 77.5
= 222.5 kN.
5. Bond stress is a stress acting ___________ to the bar on the interface between reinforcement
and concrete.
a) Perpendicular
b) Parallel
c) Normal
d) Transverse
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Bond stress is the stress acting parallel to the bar on the interface between the
reinforcing bar and the surrounding concrete hands it is stress developed between the contact
surface of Steel and concrete.
6. ________ is developed due to adhesion between concrete and steel.

a) Shear
b) Flexure
c) Bond
d) Creep
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Bond is developed due to the combined influential effect of adhesion between
concrete and steel provided by concrete during setting.
7. Bond is developed due to _________

a) Viscosity
b) Gravity
c) Friction
d) Acoustics
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The bond is developed due to the combined effect of friction which is provided by
gripping of the bar due to shrinkage of concrete. It resists any force that tries to pull out the rods
for the concrete.
8. ___________ depends on grade of concrete and diameter of bar etc.

a) Shear stress
b) Bond stress
c) Bending
d) Rupture
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Bond stress depends on grade of concrete, diameter of the bar, bar profile condition
nature of force in the bar, bends and hooks in a bar and grouping of bars.
9. Which of the following bond is also known as a local bond?

a) Anchorage bond
b) Fletched bond
c) Flexural bond
d) Composite bond
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: For transferring the change in bar force along its length due to the variation in
bending moment free Irfan comes into account it is also known as a local bond.
10. _____________ bond arises when bar carrying certain force is terminated.
a) Anchorage
b) Flexural
c) Indemnity
d) Equivalent
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: An Anchorage Bond arises when a bar carrying certain force is terminated. In such
cases, it is obligatory to transfer this force in the bar to the surrounding concrete over a certain
length.
11. The development length can be determined easily by _______ test.

a) Push out test
b) Pull out test
c) Grading test
d) Slump cone test
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The length of the bar required to transfer the force in the bar to the surrounding
concrete through bond is known as development length. The development length can be easily
determined by pull out test.
12. To improve the anchorage of bars ______ are provided in plain bars.
a) Standard hooks
b) Stirrups
c) Lateral ties
d) Standard bends
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In situations where straight anchorage length cannot be provided due to lack of
space, to improve the anchorage bars many times standard hooks are provided in plane bars.
13. In case of HYSD bars ___________ are provided to increase anchorage length.
a) Lateral ties
b) Helical reinforcement
c) Standard hooks
d) Standard bends
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Where straight anchorage length cannot be provided due to lack of space (at
supports) In this situation, to improve the anchorage of bars many times the standard bends are
provided in deformed bars.
14. Polar moment of inertia is denoted by ___________

a) G
b) J
c) K
d) M
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The polar moment of inertia is the inertia of an area about an axis perpendicular to
its plane. It is denoted by “J”.
J = 2 I.
15. Calculate the moment of inertia of a hollow circular section whose external diameter is 60
mm and thickness is 5 mm about centroidal axis.
a) 315 m2
b) 320 m4
c) 330 m4
d) 345 m4
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: External diameter (D) = 60 mm
Internal diameter (d) = 50 mm
Ixx = Iyy = π/64 × (604 -504).
= 330 m4.
1. The effect of ___________ holes is to reduce the strength of connected plates.

a) Lap
b) Weld
c) Rivet
d) Butt
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The effect of rivet holes is to reduce the strength of the connected plates. The
strength of the plate or strength of rivet whichever is less is called the strength of the joint.
2. A cylinder section having no __________ is known as seamless section.
a) Moment
b) Force
c) Strength
d) Joint
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A seamless section is a section of the cylinder having no joint. No other section in a
cylinder is as strong as seamless section of the same thickness and dimensions.
3. A water main of 1 m in diameter and 25 mm thick is subjected to an internal pressure of 2.5

N/mm2. Calculate the longitudinal stress induced.
a) 20 N/mm2
b) 25 N/mm2
c) 30 N/mm2
d) 35 N/mm2
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Longitudinal stress = fl = pd/4t
fl= 2.5 × 1000 / 4 × 25
fl = 25 N/mm2.
4. What is the design Bond stress in plane bars intention for m25 grade concrete?
a) 1.2 N/mm2
b) 1.4 N/mm2
c) 2 N/mm2
d) 3 N/mm2
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The design Bond stress in plane bars intention for m25 grade concrete is 1.4
N/mm2.
Grade of concrete M20 M25 M30
2
Design in (N/mm ) bond stress 1.2 1.4 1.5
5. The value of design Bond stress in plain bars will increase in compression by __________
a) 30%
b) 25%
c) 50%
d) 60%
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The value of design bond stress will be increased by 25% in compression and for
the deformed (HYSD bars) these values may be increased by 60%.
6. What is the anchorage value of standard “U” type hook?

a) 16 times the diameter of bar
b) 12 times the diameter of bar
c) 8 times the diameter of bar
d) 4 times the diameter of bar
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The anchorage value of standard “U” type hook is 16 times the diameter of bar.
Type of hook / bend U hook 45° Bend 90° Bend
Anchorage value 16 × diameter of bar 4 × diameter of bar 8 × diameter of bar
7. The flexural bond is _________ at the section.

a) Zero
b) Maximum
c) Minimum
d) Uniform
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The flexural (local) bond is maximum at the section where the shear force is large.
Therefore the check for flexural bond is necessary at the sections where shear force is maximum
and bending moment is zero.
8. _________ reinforcement is designed for sections where the bending moment is maximum.
a) Torsional
b) Tension
c) Shear
d) Longitudinal
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Tension reinforcement is designed for section where the bending moment is
maximum. The bending moment varies along the span of a beam depending on the loading and
support conditions.
9. In case of __________ beams, the 50% of bars are curtailed at a distance of 0.5 ×l.
a) Simply supported
b) Cantilever
c) Continuous
d) Overhanging
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: According to the simplified rules for curtailment of bars, In case of cantilever
beams, 50% of bars may be curtailed at 0.5 l or Ld which is more from the face of the support.
10. Splices are provided when the ________ bar available is less than that required.
a) Diameter
b) Length
c) Effective depth
d) Number of
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Splices are generally provided when the length of the bar available is less than that
of required. The splicing of reinforcement is provided by lap joint or mechanical joint on the
welded joint.
11. Lap splices should not be used for bars larger than __________ mm.
a) 24 mm
b) 42 mm
c) 54 mm
d) 36 mm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Lap splices should be used if and only if, the size of bars is less than 36 mm. For
larger diameter, bars may be welded.
12. Cantilever slab is categorised based on support conditions.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Based on support conditions, the slabs are classified as
i. Simply supported slab
ii. Cantilever slab
iii. Fixed slab
iv. Continuous slab
v. Flat slab.
13. According to IS 456: 2000; the span to depth ratio of a simply supported beam is
___________
a) 7
b) 20
c) 26
d) 32
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As per clause 23.2 of IS 456 for spans not exceeding 10 m, this span to depth ratio
should not exceed the limits given below
Cantilevers – 7
Simply supported – 20
Continuous – 26.
14. The __________ of the slab is governed by span to depth ratio.

a) Strength
b) Stiffness
c) Reinforcement
d) Stability
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The term stiffness is defined as the ability to resist deformation. The stiffness of
slabs is governed by span to depth ratio. It depends on the type of steel and the percentage of
steel.
15. The material does not possessing any kind of elastic symmetry, then the material is said to be
_______
a) Isotropic
b) Exo tropic
c) Anisotropic
d) Orthotropic
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The material do not possessing any kind of elastic symmetry in them than the
material is said to be anisotropic material or allotropic material. It has 21 elastic constants.
1. What is the ratio of maximum deflection to maximum bending stress if a simply supported
rectangular beam of span “L” and it carries a central load W.
a) L2/12 Ed
b) L2/10 Ed
c) L2/ 4 Ed
d) L2/ 6 Ed
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Maximum deflection in simply supported beam is y = Wl2/48EI
y= Wl3/48E (bd3/12)
y/f = l2/ 6Ed.
2. In a cantilever of span subjected to a point load of w acting at a distance of (1/3) L from free
end. The deflection under load will be
a) WL3/81 EI
b) 14WL3/ 81EI
c) 8WL3/81EI
d) WL3/64 EI
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Deflection under load at B = W × (2L/3) 3/ 3EI
= 8WL3/81EI.
3. The slabs whose corners are prevented from lifting are known as _________
a) simply supported
b) cantilever
c) restrained
d) suspended
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The slabs whose corners are prevented from lifting are called as restrained slabs.
They may be supported on continuous or discontinuous edges.
4. As the corners are held down ___________ reinforcement has to be provided at the corners.
a) Tension
b) Shear
c) Torsional
d) Longitudinal
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Against lifting, the corners are held down then torsional reinforcement has to be
provided at the corners (at the discontinuous edge) to prevent cracking of corners.
5. Which of the following layout is used for “Direct- Indirect system”.

a) Radial system
b) Grid system
c) Reticulated system
d) Interlaced system
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The radial system is a reverse of the ring system, in this the water flows radially
from one point to the outer periphery. The system is suitable where the roads are laid radially in
the city.
6. ________ layout is best suited for well planned towns.
a) Tree system
b) Ring system
d) Radial system
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In the ring system, the entire locality is divided into either rectangular or circular
blocks. The water mains are laid along the peripheral roads with submains branching out from
the main mains. Thus, every point can receive the supply from two directions. This is obviously
the most Ideal system.
7. A ___ is used to prevent water from flowing back in the opposite direction.
a) Sluice valve
b) Check valve
c) Air valve
d) Drain valve
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Check valve is a valve which allows water to go in one direction only. The wall
prevents the passage of water in the reverse direction. This valve is also known as Reflux valve.
8. Scour valve in water distribution system is provided at ________

a) High points
b) Junction points
c) Low points
d) Key points
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Scour valves are the ordinary valves which can be operated manually. These are
similar to drain valves. These are located at the depressions and low ends to remove the
accumulated silt.
9. _______ valves are known as “Washout ” valves.

a) Drain valves
b) Scour valves
c) Check valves
d) Sluice valves
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: These are called as drain valves. They are provided at all dead ends and depressions
of pipelines to drain out the wastewater. These are ordinary walls operated by hand.
10. Check valve is provided on the delivery side of a pipe.
a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Check valve and pressure relief valves are provided on the delivery side because
the reflux valve prevents the passage of water in a reverse direction. It allows the water to flow
only one direction.
11. _____ reduces the pipe size from larger to smaller bore.
a) Aqua phone
b) Tee
c) Elbow
d) Reducer
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The component in the pipeline which reduces the pipe size from larger to smaller
bore is known as reducer. Usually, there are two types of reducers: 1. concentric reducers 2.
eccentric reducers.
12. The maximum pressure in (kg/cm2) to which cast iron pipes may be subjected is _________
a) 3
b) 7
c) 11
d) 14
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Cast iron pipes are widely used in water supply and sewage systems. They possess
high durability, strength & resistant to corrosion etc. They are available in 1000 – 1200 mm in
diameter. They can withstand upto a temperature of 7 kg/cm2.
13. The pipe extending from a stop cock to the storage tank is called ________
a) Supply pipe
b) Service pipe
c) Street main
d) Distribution pipe
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The pipe which is subjected to water pressure from the water main is called the
supply pipe. The pipe extends from the stop cock up to the bib cock or entrance of the storage
tank.
14. Calculate the elongation of the rod if you still out of 490 mm square area and 600 M long are
subjected to an axial pull of 40 kN. Take E = 2×105N/mm2.
a) 0.56 mm
b) 0.78 mm
c) 0.24 mm
d) 0.16 mm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Given that l = 600 mm, P = 40 kN.
The Elongation = Pl / AE
= 40000 × 600 / 490 × 2×102
= 0.24 mm.
15. The ratio of change in thickness to original thickness is known as ___________

a) Lateral strain
b) Linear strain
c) Longitudinal strain
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The lateral deformation per unit original lateral dimension is called a lateral strain.
When a material is subjected to uniaxial stress within elastic limit it not only deforms
longitudinally but also laterally.
1. Resilience can also be termed as ___________

a) Stress energy
b) Strain energy
c) Modulus
d) Tenacity
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The capability of a material to absorb energy when it is deformed elastically and
release that energy upon unloading is known resilience. This resilience is also termed as Strain
energy.
2. Mathematically, strain energy = _________

a) Power
b) Work done
c) Young’s Modulus
d) Energy
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: By the principle of work, the amount of strain energy in a body is found. When a
load acts on a body there will be deformation, which causes movement of the applied load. This
work is done by the applied load.
3. Calculate the Strain energy stored in a body of stress 0.0366 N/mm2. The cross sectional area
is 60 m2and length of body is 1 m. Take E = 2×105 N/mm2.
a) 0.2009 N.mm
b) 0.0416 N.mm
c) 0.0987 N.mm
d) 0.1316 N.mm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Given that : l = 1000 mm ; A = 60000 mm2 ; f = 0.0366 N/mm2.
Strain energy stored = f2/2EI × Volume
= (0.0366)2/ 2×2×105× (200×300) × (1000)
= 0 2009 N.mm.
4. What are the units of measurement for wooden and steel trusses?
a) 1 RM
b) 1 N.o
c) m2
d) m
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The units of measurement for wooden and steel trusses is 1 N.o
Description of work Units of measurement
Earth work excavation 1 m3
Steel reinforcement 1 kN
Wooden and steel trusses 1 No
5. Which of the following methods is also known as individual wall method?

a) Centre line method
b) Alignment method
c) Long wall and short wall method
d) Voluminous method
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Long wall short wall method is tedious and long lasting. In this method, the length
of wall running in one direction are measured first out to out and that of running in the
perpendicular direction are measured in to in.
6. Centre line method is accurate method.
a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The estimates can be prepared quickly by using center line method. This is not only
an accurate method but also a very quick method.
7. _______ gives the nature and class of work.

a) Estimate
b) Specifications
c) Tenders
d) Survey
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Drawings cannot give every information about materials and quality. The
specifications give the nature and class of work, quantity of materials and workmanship. They
are very useful during the execution of work.
8. In foundation concrete, coarse aggregate size should be __________

a) 20 mm
b) 30 mm
c) 40 mm
d) 50 mm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Generally foundation concrete is laid about thickness of 30 cm with proportion
1:4:8 (or) 1:5:10 and are measured in m3.
Before laying the concrete bed level, sand filling and sinking must be done and checked
properly.
9. What is the painting coefficient for flush doors?

a) 2.3
b) 2.4
c) 3.4
d) 3.6
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The painting coefficient for flush doors is 2.4.
Description Multiplying factor of Paint coefficient
Fully glazed doors 1.6
Fully ventilated doors 3.6
Flush doors 2.4
10. Which of the following rules is known as “Prismoidal Rule”?

a) Mean sectional rule
b) Trapezoidal rule
c) Simpson’s rule
d) Mid sectional rule
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Prismoidal rule is used when the shape of the solid between two parallel cross
sections is in the shape of a prismoid. This is also known as Simpsons rule volume is calculated
by
V = L/6 (A1 + 4A + A2).
11. Which of the following estimates is also known as a preliminary estimate?

a) Detailed estimate
b) Scientific estimate
c) Approximate estimate
d) Abstract estimate
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: An approximate estimate is prepared to decide whether the funds available for the
proposal is sufficient or not. The estimate is accompanied by a detailed report explaining the
necessity and utility of the proposal.
12. Service unit method is related to ___________ estimate.

a) Abstract
b) Approximate
c) Detailed
d) Cubic content
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: There are over a number of methods available for preparing approximate estimate
but the following methods are important
i. Plinth area method
ii. Cubic content method
iii. Service unit method.
13. By ___________ estimate, a technical sanction is obtained.

a) Approximate
b) Detailed
c) Abstract
d) Preliminary
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Detailed estimate is required for arranging the contract and entering into the
agreement. In this estimate, the quantities are worked out in the order in which construction
proceeds. For getting technical sanction, the detailed estimate is prepared.
14. Which of the following is an exact estimate?

a) Abstract
b) Detailed
c) Rough
d) Preliminary
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In a detailed estimate, the quantities of each item of work such as earth excavation,
bed concrete and brick masonry are calculated. Detailed drawings are required for this estimate.
15. Calculate the instantaneous elongation if a steel rod of 40 mm and 4 m long subjected to an
axial pull of 80 kN. Take E = 2×105 N/mm2.
a) 1.23 mm
b) 1.27 mm
c) 1.31 mm
d) 1.43 mm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: An instantaneous elongation = f/A × L ; and f = P/A = 80000/1256.63 = 63.66
N/mm2.
= 63.66/1256.63 × 4000
= 1.27 mm
Savitribai Phule Pune University
Online Examination System,
Question bank for Strength Of Material
Subject code-202045
Unit-1
Question Strain is defined as the ratios of
A Change in volume to original volume
B Change in length to original length
C Change in cross-sectional area to original cross- sectional area
D Any one of above
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question Young's modulus is defined as the ratio of
A Volumetric stress and volumetric strain
B Lateral stress ans lateral strain
C Longitudinal stress and longitudinal strain
D Shear stress to shear strain
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question The unit of Young's modulus is
A mm/mm
B N/cm
C N
D N/cm2
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question Deformation per unit length in the direction of force is known as
A Strain
B Lateral strain
C Linear strain
D Linear stress
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question In equal and opposite forces applied to a body tends to elongate it the stress so produced
is called
A Internal resistance
B Tensile stress
C Transverse stress
D Working stress
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question The materials having same elastic properties in all the direction is called
A Ideal material
B Uniform material
C Isotropic Material
D Practical material
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question Modulus of rigidity is defined as the ratio of
A Longitudinal stress and longitudinal strain
B Volumetric stress and volumetric strain
C Lateral stress and lateral strain
D Shear stress and shear strain
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question The ultimate tensile stress of mild steel compared to ultimate compressive stress is
A Same
B More
C Less
D Unpredictable
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question Tensile strength of a material is obtained by dividing the maximum load during the test by
the
A Area at the time of fracture
B Original cross-sectional area
C Minimum area after fracture
D None of above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question The intensity of stress which causes unit strain is called
A Unit stress
B Bulk modulus
C Modulus of rigidity
D Modulus of elasticity
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question Which of the following has no unit
A Surface tension
B Bulk modulus
C strain
D elasticity
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question The property of material by virtue of which a body returns to its original shape after
removal of the load is called
A Plasticity
B elasticity
C ductility
D malleability
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question The material which exhibit the same elastic properties in all direction are called
A Homogeneous
B Inelastic
C Isotropic
D Isentropic
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question The property of a material which allows it to be drawn into a smaller section is called
A Plasticity
B Ductility
C elasticity
D malleability
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question If a material is loaded beyond yield point stress
A It becomes elastic
B It becomes ductile
C Its resistance to fatigue to fatigue increases
D It loses its tendency to return its original shape
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question A body is subjected to three mutually perpendicular stresses of equal intensity. The ratio
of direct stress to corresponding volumetric strain is called
A Poisson’s ratio
B Bulk modulus
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question A live load is one which
A Remains constant
B Varies with time
C Varies continuously
D None of these
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question Modulus of rigidity of metal is defined as
A Volumetric stress / Volumetric strain
B Direct stress / Longitudinal strain
C Strain energy / Volume
D Shear stress / Shear strain
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
Question Hook's law holds good only within
A Elastic limit
B Limit of proportionality
C Limit of yield point
D None of these
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
Question Elasticity of M S specimen is defined by
A Hooks law
B Yield point
C Proof stress
D Permanent set
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit A
Id
Question Poisson's ratio is defined as the ratio of
A Longitudinal stress and Longitudinal strain
B Lateral stress and Longitudinal stress
C Lateral stress and Lateral strain
D None of the above
Answer D
Marks 2
U
Id
Question When it is indicated that a member is elastic, it means that when force is applied, it will
A Not deform
B Be safest
C Stretch
D Not stretch
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question The ratio of lateral strain to the linear strain within elastic limit is known as
A Young's modulus
B Bulk modulus
C Modulus of elasticity
D Poisson's ratio
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit A
Id
Question Limiting value of Poisson's ratio are
A 1 to -0.5
B 1 to +0.5
C 0 to +0.5
D 0 to -0.5
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question The modulus of elasticity for mild steel is approximately equal to
A 10 kN/mm2
B 80 kN/mm2
C 100 kN/mm2
D 210 kN/mm2
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question The unit of stress in S.I. units is
A Pa
B Kgf/mm2
C Tonne/m2
D any one of these
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question The tensile strength of ductile materials is __________ its compressive strength.
A equal to
B less than
C greater than
D Nearly equal to
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question The compression test is carried on __________ materials.
A ductile
B brittle
C malleable
D plastic
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question Poisson’s ratio lies in the range for most metals,
A 0.1 to 0.9
B 0.05 to 0.1
C 1 to 10
D 0.25 to 0.35
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question Isotropic material behavior can be expressed using ____ properties are
A 1
B 2
C 3
D 4
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question Within elastic limit stress is
A Inversely proportional to strain
B Directly proportional to strain
C Square root of strain
D Equal to strain
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Unit stress
B Modulus of rigidity
C Bulk modulus
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question A material obeys Hook’s law up to
A Plastic limit
B Elastic limit
C Yield point
D Limit of proportionality
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question In a stress strain curve of mild steel there is a point at which there is increase in strain
with no increase in stress. This point is called
A point of failure
B point of rupture
C yield point
D none of these
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question The region in the stress-strain curve extending from origin to proportional limit is called
A plastic range
B elastic range
C semi plastic range
D semi elastic range
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question Deformationofabarunderitsownweightascomparedtothatwhen subjected to a direct axial
load equal to its own weight will be
A The same
B One fourth
C Half
D Double
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question For bolts of uniform strength, the shank diameter is made equal to
A Major diameter of threads
B Pitch diameter of threads
C Minor diameter of threads

D Nominal diameter of threads
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question A test specimen is stressed slightly beyond the yield point and then unloaded.
Its yield strength will
A Decrease
B Increase
C Remains same
D Becomes equal to ultimate tensile strength
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question A rod of length L and diameter D is subjected to a tensile load P. Which of the
following is sufficient to calculate the resulting change in diameter?
A Young's modulus
B Shear modulus
C Poisson’s ratio
D Both Young's modulus and shear modulus
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question Duringtensile-testingofaspecimenusingaUniversalTestingMachine,the parameters
actually measured include
A True stress and true strain
B Poisson’s ratio and Young's modulus
C Engineering stress and engineering strain
D Load and elongation
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question Which of the following materials generally exhibits a yield point?
A Cast iron
B Mild steel
C Soft brass
D Aluminum
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question Whichoneofthefollowingpropertiesismoresensitivetoincreaseinstrain rate?
A Yield strength
B Proportional limit
C Elastic limit
D Tensile strength
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question For a linearly elastic, isotropic and homogeneous material, the number of elastic
constants required to relate stress and strain is:
A Two
B Three
C Four
D Six
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question The unit of elastic modulus is the same as those of
A Stress, shear modulus and pressure
B Strain, shear modulus and force
C Shear modulus, stress and force
D Stress, strain and pressure
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question In a simple tension test, Hook’s law is valid up to the
A Elastic limit
C Ultimate stress
D Breaking point
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question Thepercentageelongationofamaterialasobtainedfrom statictensiontest depends
upon the
A Diameter of the test specimen
B Gauge length of the specimen
C Nature of end-grips of the testing machine
D Geometry of the test specimen
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question In a bolted joint two members are connected with an axial tightening force of 2200
N. If the boltused hasmetric threads of 4 mm pitch, then torque required for
achieving the tightening force is:
A 0.7 Nm
B 1.0 Nm
C 1.4 Nm
D 2.8 Nm
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question A tensile force P is acting on a body of length L and area of cross-section A. The change
in length would be
A P/LAE
B PE/AL
C PL/AE
D AL/PE
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question The ratio of modulus of rigidity to modulus of elasticity for a Poisson's ratio of 0.25
would be
A 0.5
B 0.4
C 0.3
D 1
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question The ratio of bulk modulus to modulus of elasticity for a Poisson's ratio of 0.25 would be
A 0.66
B 0.33
C 1.33
D 1
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question If D is the diameter of the sphere, then volumetric strain is equal to
A Two times the strain of diameter
B 1.5 times the strain of diameter
C three times the strain of diameter
D the strain of diameter
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question A rectangular bar when subjected to an axial pull P
A Decrease in length and width and increase in thickness

B Decrease in length and increase in width and thickness
C Increase in length and decrease in Width and thickness
D Increase in length, width and thickness
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question Thermal Stress of unrestrained body will ______when the temperature of the body is
incresead
A Increased
B Decreased
C Remains constant
D Either A or B
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question Modulus of Elasticity E is a ratio of
A Stress to strain
B Stress to original length
C Deformation to original length
D All of these
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question Elongation for a taper bar with circular cross section is given by...
A 4PL/πEd2 d1
B 4πEd2 d1 /PL
C 4PE/πLd2 d1
D None of above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question The maximum stress produced in a bar of tapering section is at...
A Larger end
B Smaller end
C Middle
D anywhere
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question A composite section contains three different materials.The stress in all the different
material will be
A Same
B Zero
C Different
D None of above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question A steel bar of 5 mm is heated from 15° C to 40° C and it is not free to expand. The bar
will induce
A no stress
B shear stress
C tensile stress
D compressive stress
Answer D
Marks 1
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Question When a bar fixed at both ends is cooled to - 5°C, it will develop
A no stress
B shear stress
C tensile stress
Answer C
Marks 1
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Question The stress at which the extension of the material takes place more quickly as compared to
the increase in load, is called
A elastic limit
B yield point
C ultimate point
D breaking point
Answer B
Marks 1
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Question The work done on a unit volume of material, as simple tensile force is gradually increased
from zero to a value causing rupture, is called
A modulus of elasticity
B modulus of toughness
C modulus of resilience
D none of these
Answer B
Marks 1
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Question The necking in case of ductile material begins at the
A Elastic limit point
B Upper yield point
C Lower yield point
D Ultimate point
Answer D
Marks 1
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Question The temperature stress is a function of
A Coefficient of linear expansion and and temperature rise
B Temperature rise and modulus of elasticity of the material
C Coefficient of linear expansion and modulus of elasticity
D Coefficient of linear expansion, temperature rise and modulus of elasticity of the material
Answer D
Marks 1
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Question If the radius of wire stretched by a load is doubled, then its Young's modulus will be
A doubled
B remain unaffected
C become one-fourth
D become four times
Answer B
Marks 1
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the
A area at the time of fracture
B original cross-sectional area
C average of (A) and (B)
D more or less depending on other factors
Answer B
Marks 1
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Question Percentage reduction of area in performing tensile test on cast iron may be of the order of
A 50.00%
B 0.00%
C 10.00%
D 20.00%
Answer B
Marks 1
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Question True stress-strain curve for materials is plotted between
A load/original cross-sectional area and change in length/original length
B load/instantaneous cross-sectional area original area and log.
C load/instantaneous area and instantaneous area/original area
D none of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
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Question During a tensile test on a specimen of 1 cm2 cross-section, maximum load observed was 8
kN and area of cross-section at neck was 0.5 cm2. Ultimate tensile strength of specimen is
A 4 kN/cm2
B 8 kN/cm2
C 16 kN/cm2
D None of above
Answer C
Marks 1
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Question For steel, the ultimate strength in shear as compared to in tension is nearly
A half
B same
C One third
D One
Answer A
Marks 1
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Question The property of a material by virtue of which a body returns to its original, shape after
A plasticity
B elasticity
C malleability
D ductility
Answer B
Marks 1
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Question For which material the Poisson's ratio is more than unity
A Steel
B Copper
C Brass
D none of the above
Answer D
Marks 1
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Question The property of a material by virtue of which it can be beaten or rolled into plates is
called
A reliability
B plasticity
C ductility
D malleability
Answer D
Marks 1
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Question Rupture stress is
A breaking stress
B load at breaking point/A
C load at breaking point/neck area
D maximum stress
Answer C
Marks 1
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Question Linear strain of 0.004 was observed in a steel wire when subjected to tensile pull. What
will be the lateral strain if Poisson's ratio is 0.25?
A -0.01
B +0.01
C +0.001
D -0.001
Answer D
Marks 1
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Question A steel bar of square cross-section (50 mm x 50 mm) and length 2 m elongates by 1 mm
due to axial pull of 10 kN. If the lateral strain is 0.0002 then the change in side of the bar
cross-section will be …
A +0.001 mm
B +0.01mm
C - 0.01 mm
D - 0.001 mm
Answer C
Marks 1
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Question The change in length of a steel rod due to change in temperature depends on …
A original length
B change in temperature
C coefficient of expansion
D All of these
Answer D
Marks 1
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Question A steel bar of diameter 50 mm is subjected to a tensile pull 10 kN which results in the
diameter shrinking by 20 microns. The lateral strain in this case is …
A 4 x 10-4
B 2 x 10-4
C 8 x 10-4
D 4 x 10-4
Answer A
Marks 1
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Question An axial pull of 10 kN is applied to a mild steel bar of section area 200 sq mm. The
normal stress induced will be …
A 50 Pa
B 500 Pa
C 50 MPa
D 500 MPa
Answer C
Marks 1
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Question A thin mild steel wire is loaded by adding loads in equal increments till it breaks. The
extensions noted with increasing loads will behave as under
A Uniform throughout
B Increase uniformly
C First increase and then decrease
D Increase uniformly first and then increase rapidly
Answer D
Marks 2
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Question If the radius of wire is stretched by a load of doubled then its Young's modulus will be
A Doubled
B Half
C Become four time
D Remain unaffected
Answer D
Marks 2
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Question The total elongation produced in a bar of uniform section hanging vertically downwards
due to its own weight is equal to that produced by a weight
A Of same magnitude as that of bar and applied at the lower end
B Half of the weight of bar applied at the lower end
C Half of the square of weight of bar applied at lower end
D None of above
Answer B
Marks 2
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Question The elongation produced in a tapered shaft with end diameter d1 and d2 due to tensile or
compressive axial load is proportional to
A D1+ d2
B 1/( d1+d2 )
C d1d2
D 1/( d1d2)
Answer D
Marks 2
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Question A cylindrical bar of length L meter, after application of load it deforms by l cm. The
strains in bar is
A 100* l/L
B 0.1*l/L
C 0.01*l /L
D l/L
Answer C
Marks 2
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Question A composite bar made of steel and copper is heated up. The stresses developed in steel
and copper will be...
A Compressive and tensile
B Compressive and bending
C Bending and tensile
D Tensile and compressive
Answer D
Marks 2
--Unit --
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Question The extension of a circular bar tapering uniformly from diameter d1 to d2 is same as of
uniform circular bar of diameter
A (d1+d2)/2
B (d1-d2)/2
C √( d1d2)
D √(d12-d22)
Answer C
Marks 2
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Question The temperature stress is function of
1.Co-efficient of linear expansion
2.Temperature rise
3.Modulus of elasticity.
A 1 and 2 only
B 1 and 3 only
C 2 and 3 only
D 1, 2 and 3 only
Answer D
Marks 2
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Question A steel bar of 40 mm × 40 mm square cross-section is subjected to an axial
compressive load of 200 kN. If the length of the bar is 2 m and E = 200 GPa, the
elongation of the bar will be
A 1.25 mm
B 2.70 mm
C 4.05 mm
D 5.40 mm
Answer A
Marks 2
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A Young's modulus
B Shear modulus
C Poisson's ratio
Answer D
Marks 2
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Question A solid uniform metal bar of diameter D and length L is hanging vertically
from its upper end. The elongation of the bar due to self weight is
A Proportional to L and inversely proportional to square of D
B Proportional to L2 and inversely proportional to square of D
C Proportional of L but independent of D
D Proportional of U but independent of D
Answer A
Marks 2
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Question In terms of Poisson's ratio (μ) the ratio of Young's Modulus (E) to Shear
Modulus (G) of elastic materials is
A 2G(1+ μ )
B 2G(1 − μ )
C 0.5G(1+ μ )
D 0.5G(1 − μ )
Answer A
Marks 2
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Question The relationship between Young's modulus (E), Bulk modulus (K) and Poisson's
ratio (μ) is given by
A E = 3 K (1 − 2μ )
B K = 3 E (1 − 2μ )
C E = 3 K (1 − μ )
D K = 3 E (1 − μ )
Answer A
Marks 2
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Question When a beam is said to be of uniform strength, then which one of the following
statements is correct?
A The bending moment is the same throughout the beam
B The shear stress is the same throughout the beam
C The deflection is the same throughout the beam
D The bending stress is the same at every section along its longitudinal axis
Answer D
Marks 2
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Question If the value of Poisson's ratio is zero, then it means that
A The material is rigid
B The material is perfectly plastic
C There is no longitudinal strain in the material
D The longitudinal strain in the material is infinite
Answer A
Marks 2
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Question Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
1. Resilience ........................ Resistance to deformation.
2. Malleability …………..Shape change.
3. Creep ........................ Progressive deformation.
4. Plasticity .... ………… .Permanent deformation.
A 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 3
C 1, 2 and 4
D 1, 3 and 4
Answer A
Marks 2
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Question E, G, K and μ represent the elastic modulus, shear modulus, bulk modulus and
Poisson's ratio respectively of a linearly elastic, isotropic and homogeneous
material. To express the stress-strain relations completely for this material, at
least
A E, G and μ must be known
B E, K and μ must be known
C Any two of the four must be known
D All the four must be known
Answer C
Marks 1
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Question A taper bar of length l with diameter D at base and having specific weight w is suspended
freely under its own weight. The elongation of bar will be
A wl3 /6E
B wl3 /E
C wl3 /4E
D wl3 /3E
Answer A
Marks 2
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Question The change in the unit volume of a material under tension with increase in its Poisson's
ratio will
A Increase
B Decrease
C Remain same
D Increase initially and then Decrease
Answer B
Marks 2
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Question The value of Young's modulus E in terms of Shear modulus G and Bulk modulus K is
A 9KG/(K+G)
B 9KG/(G+3K)
C 9KG/(K+3G)
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 2
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Question A conical bar of diameter D, axial length L, weight density w is placed vertically. If
Young's modulus of the material is E , then change in its axial length will be
A wL2/2E
B WL2/6E
C wL2/8E
D wL/8E
Answer B
Marks 2
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Question The ultimate tensile stress for mild steel is ------ the ultimate compressive stress.
A equal to
B less than
C more than
D Nearly equal to
Answer C
Marks 2
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Question The shear modulus of most materials with respect to the modulus of elasticity is
A equal to half
B less than half
C more than half
D none of these
Answer B
Marks 2
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Question A bar of length L and constant cross section(A) is hanging vertically. What would be total
increase in length due to self weight(W)?
A WL/AE
B 2WL/AE
C WL/2AE
D None of these
Answer C
Marks 2
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Question A bar of circular cross section varies uniformly from a cross section 2D to D. If extension
of the bar is calculated treating it as a bar of average diameter, then the percentage error
will be
A 10
B 25
C 33
D 50
Answer A
Marks 2
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Question A mild steel bar is in two parts having equal lengths. The area of cross section of Part I is
double that of Part II. If the bar carries an axial load P, then the ratio of elongation in Part
I to that in Part II will be
A 2
B 4
C 0.5
D 0.25
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit D1
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Question The bulk modulus of elasticity of a material is twice its modulus of rigidity. The Poisson’s
ratio of the material is
A 1/7
B 2/7
C 3/7
D 4/7
Answer B
Marks 2
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Question In an experiment it is found that the bulk modulus of a material is equal to its shear
modulus. The Poisson’s ratio is
A 0.12
B 0.25
C 0.38
D 0.5
Answer A
Marks 2
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Question If equal and opposite forces applied to a body tend to elongate it, the stress so produced is
called
B Tensile stress
C Compressive stress
D Working stress.
Answer B
Marks 2
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Question When a bar subjected to an axial pull P, it
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
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Question A cube is subjected to three mutually perpendicular stresses σ each. If E=Young's
modulus & ν =Poisson's ratio of the material, the volumetric strain in the cube is
A (3σ/E)*(1+ν)
B (3σ/E)*(1-ν)
C (3σ/E)*(1+2ν)
D (3σ/E)*(1-2ν)
Answer D
Marks 2
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Question The percentage reduction in the area of cross section of a cast iron member during tensile
test would be
A More than 50 %
B 25-50 %
C 10-25 %
D Negligible
Answer D
Marks 2
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Question For steel, the yield strength in shear as compared to that in tension is nearly
A Same
B Half
C One third
D Double
Answer B
Marks 2
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Question The Young's modulus of a wire is defined as the stress which will increase the length of
the wire compared to its original length by...
A Half
B Double
C Same
D One third
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
3
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Question The value of Poisson's ratio for cast iron is...
A 0.01 to 0.1
B 0.25 to 0.33
C 0.4 to 0.6
D 0.23 to 0.27
Answer D
Marks 2
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Question Stress increasing with time at a constsnt load is ...
A Creeping
B Yielding
C Breaking
D None of above
Answer A
Marks 2
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Question Assertion (A): Hook’s law is the constitutive law for a linear elastic material. Reason
(R) : Formulation of the theory of elasticity requires the hypothesis that there exists a
unique unstressed state of the body, to which the body returns whenever all the forces are
removed.
A Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
B Both A and R are individually true but R is notthe correct explanation of A
C A is true but R is false
D A is false but R is true
Answer A
Marks 2
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Question Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given
below the Lists:
A. Ultimate strength 1. Internal structure
B. Natural strain 2. Change of length per unit instantaneous length
C. Conventional strain 3. Change of length per unit gauge length
D. Stress 4. Load per unit area
A A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
B A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
C A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
D A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
Answer A
Marks 2
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Question Assertion (A): Stress-strain curves for brittle material do not exhibit yield point.
Reason (R): Brittle materials fail without yielding.
B Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
Answer A
Marks 2
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Question When a composite unit consisting of a steel rod surrounded by a cast iron tube is
subjected to an axial load.
Assertion(A):Theratioofnormalstressesinducedinboththematerialsis equal to the
ratio of Young's moduli of respective materials.
Reason (R): The composite unit of these two materials is firmly fastened together at
the ends to ensure equal deformation in both the materials.
B Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
Answer A
Marks 2
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Question A mild steel specimen is tested in tension up to fracture in a Universal Testing Machine.
Which of the following mechanical properties of the material can be evaluated from such
a test?
1. Modulus of elasticity
2. Yield stress
3. Ductility
4. Tensile strength
5. Modulus of rigidity
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A 1, 3, 5 and 6
B 2, 3, 4 and 6
C 1, 2, 5 and 6
D 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer D
Marks 2
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Question Which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?
A Uniformly distributed stress --Force passed through the centroid of the cross-section
B Elastic deformation -- Work done by external forces during deformation is dissipated fully
as heat
C Potential energy of strain -- Body is in a state of elastic deformation
D Hooke's law -- Relation between stress and strain
Answer B
Marks 2
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Question Two bars of same material having diameters in ratio 1:2 are subjected to tensile pull of
same magnitude. The tensile stress induced will be in the ratio …
A 1:4
B 4:1
C 1:2
D 2:1
Answer B
Marks 2
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Question
Above figure indicates.....condition
A Linear Elastic
B Linear plastic
C Linear elastic – perfectly plastic
D Perfect elastic – linearly plastic
Answer A
Marks 1
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Question
A Linear Elastic
B Linear plastic
Answer C
Marks 1
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Question
Above figure indicates stress strain curve for...
A Cast iron
B Mild Steel
C Aluminum
D Pure copper
Answer B
Marks 1
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Question
A Cast iron
B Mild Steel
C Aluminum
D Pure copper
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
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Question
A Cast iron
B Mild Steel
C Aluminum
D Pure copper
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
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Question In the below figure, corresponding to point c is
A Elastic limit
B Upper yield point
C Lower yield point
D Proportional limit point
Answer C
Marks 1
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Question A bar of square cross section is subjected to an axial tensile force such that the
longitudinal strain in the bar is e. If the Poisson’s ratio of the bar is 0.3 the volumetric
strain in the bar will be
A 0.4e
B 0.6e
C 3e
D 1.6 e
Answer A
Marks 2
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Question If all the dimensions of a prismatic bar of square cross section suspended freely from the
ceiling of a roof are doubled then the total elongation produced by its own weight will
increase
A eight times
B four times
C three times
D two times
Answer B
Marks 2
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Question A given material has Young’s modulus E, modulus of rigidity G and Poisson’s ratio 0.25.
The ratio of Young’s modulus to modulus of rigidity of the material is
A 3.75
B 3
C 2.5
D 1.5
Answer C
Marks 2
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Question A cylindrical bar of 20 mm diameter and 1 m length is subjected to a tensile test. Its
longitudinal strain is 4 times that of its lateral strain. If the modulus of elasticity is 2 x
105N/mm2, then its modulus of rigidity is
A 8 x 106 N/mm2
B 8 x 105 N/mm2
C 0.8 x 104 N/mm2
D 0.8 x 105 N/mm2

Answer D
Marks 2
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A 8 x 106 N/mm2
B 8 x 105 N/mm2
C 0.8 x 104 N/mm2
D 0.8 x 105 N/mm2

Answer D
Marks 2
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Question A bar of uniform cross section is subject to uni-axial tension and develops a strain in the
direction of the force of 1/800. Assuming m = 1/3, the change of volume per unit volume
will be
A 1/1000
B 1/1200
C 1/2400
D 1/4800
Answer C
Marks 2
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Question A bar 4 cm in diameter is subjected to an axial load of 4 t. The extension of the bar over a
gauge length of 20 cm is 0.03 cm. The decreases in diameter is 0.0018 cm. The Poisson’s
ratio is
A 0.25
B 0.30
C 0.33
D 0.35
Answer B
Marks 2
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Question A bar 30 mm in diameter was subjected to tensile load of 54 kN and the measured
extension on 300 mm gauge length was 0.112 mm and change in diameter was 0.00366
mm. Poisson’s ration will be
A 0.25
B 0.326
C 0.356
D 0.28
Answer B
Marks 2
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A 2
B 4
C 1/2
D 1/4
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
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Question A composite bar is made of strips of materials 1 and 2, each having area of cross section
50 mm2. Under an applied load of 3 kN, stress in material 1 is 20 N/mm2. If E for
material 1 is 100 kN/mm2, what is the value of E for material 2.
A 50 kN/mm2
B 100 kN/mm2
C 150 kN/mm2
D 200 kN/mm2
Answer D
Marks 2
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Question A round steel rod a of diameter D and length L is subjected to an axial load P. another
steel bar B tapered with diameter D at one end uniformly tapering to diameter 0.4D at the
other end, length L is also subjected to same axial load P. the ratio of change in length in
bar A to the change in length in bar B is
A 2.5
B 1.6
C 0.8
D 0.4
Answer D
Marks 2
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Question A cube of of mild steel is subjected to principal stress p,p,p in 3 directions. The Poisson’s
ratio of mild steel is 0.3. The ratio of volumetric strain to longitudinal strain in any
direction is
A 1.2
B 1.8
C 2.4
D 3.0
Answer D
Marks 2
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Question A steel bar of square section tapering from 25mm X 25mm at one end to 20 mm X 20 mm
at the other end is subjected to an axial force of 10 kN. The length of the bar is 1 meter
and its young’s modulus is 100 kN/mm2 what is the change in the length of the bar
A 2 mm
B 0.2 mm
C 0.02 mm
D 0.01 mm
Answer B
Marks 2
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Question A bar 50 mm long is subjected to a tensile stress. If the change in its length is 0.025 mm
and young’s modulus is 100 kN/mm2, the stress in bar is
A 250 N/mm2
B 100 N/mm2
C 50 N/mm2
D 25 N/mm2
Answer C
Marks 2
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Question A steel bolt passes centrally through a brass tube. At the the ends washers and nuts are
provided. Nuts are tightened so as to produce a compressive stress of 50 N/mm2 in brass
tube. The area of cross section of brass tube and steel bolt is 500 mm2 each. Esteel= 2Ebrass .
What is the stress developed in steel rod.
A 200 N/mm2 (tensile)
B 200 N/mm2 (compressive)
C 50 N/mm2 (tensile)
D 100 N/mm2(compressive)
Answer C
Marks 2
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Question The extension of a circular bar tapering uniformly from diameter d1 at one end to
diameter d2 at the other end, and subjected to an axial pull of P is __________ the
extension of a circular bar of diameter d1 d2 subjected to the same load P.
A equal to
B less than
C greater than
D Sometimes less, Sometime more
Answer A
Marks 2
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Question A specimen of 1.2 cm2 cross sectional area and a length 10 cm is tested under tension .
The max load recorded by universal testing machine is 60Kn, the area at the neck 0.8cm2
the ultimate strength of the material is
A 750 N/mm2
B 600 N/mm2
C 500 N/mm2
D None of these
Answer C
Marks 2
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Question During a tensile test on a specimen of 1cm2 cross-section, maximum load observed was 8
tonnes and area of cross-section at neck was 0.5 cm2.Ultimate tensile strength of
specimen is
A 4 tonnes/cm2
B 8 tonnes/cm2
C 16 tonnes/cm2
D 22 tonnes/cm2
Answer B
Marks 2
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Question A spherical ball of volume 1000 cm3 is subjected to a hydrostatic pressure of 18 N/mm2.
If bulk modulus of ball is 180 N/mm2. The change in the volume the ball will be
A 1000 mm3
B 100 mm3
C 10 mm3
D 5 mm3
Answer B
Marks 2
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Question A composite bar is made of aluminum and steel strips each of 200 mm2 area of cross
section. If E steel = 3 E aluminum and stress in steel is 15 N/mm2, due to an axial load P,
what is the value of P ?
A 12 kN
B 6 kN
C 4 kN
D 2 kN
Answer C
Marks 2
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Question A copper bar 2 cm diameter is completely encased in steel tube or inner diameter 2 cm
and outer diameter 4 cm. Under an axial load, stress in a steel tube is 100 N/mm2 , If E
steel = 2*E copper, what will be stress in copper bar
A 300 N/mm2
B 100 N/mm2
C 50 N/mm2
D 33.33 N/mm2
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
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Question A composite bar of copper and steel is heated. The ratio of tensile force in steel and
compressive stress in copper will be
A 1
B 0.5
C 2
D 25
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
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Question
For the circular bar as shown above,if the elastic modulus and coefficient of thermal
expansion for steel are 200 GPa and 11.7 × 10-6 per °C respectively and for copper 70
GPa and 21.6 × 10-6 per °C respectively and if the temperature of the rod is raised by
50°C, then the free expansion of the rod will be
A 1.1025 mm (Tensile)
B 1.1025 cm (Compressive)
C 1.1025 mm (Compressive)
D 0.1025 mm (Tensile)
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Question
Refering the above figure if the free expansion of the stepped shaft is 1.1025 mm
(Compressive) then the deflection responsible for the temperature stress induced will
be....
A 0.0725 mm
B 0.7025 mm
C 0.7025 cm
D 1.7025 mm
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
If a rigid beam of negligible weightis supported in a horizontal position by two rods of

steel and aluminum, 2 m and 1 m long having values of cross – sectional areas 1 cm2 and
2 cm2 and E of 200 GPa and 100 GPa respectively and if a load P is applied as shown in
the figure then for the rigid beam to remain horizontal....
A The forces on both sides should be equal
B The force on aluminum rod should be twice the force on steel
C The force on the steel rod should be twice the force on aluminum
D The force P must be applied at the centre of the beam
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
For the stepped shaft as shown in the figure if Es = 210 GN/m2 and Eb = 105 GN/m2 ,
then the maximum normal stress in section CD will be .....
A 12.73 N/m2
B 12.73 MN/m
C 12.73 MN/m2
D 12.73 KN/m2
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
then the maximum normal stress in section AB will be .....
A 88.42 N/m2
B 88.42 GN/m2
C 88.42 KN/m2
D 88.42 MN/m2
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
For the stepped shaft as shown above, if the deflections in AB, BC, CD sections are
6.3157x10-5m,1.3466x10-5m, and 1.5154x10-5m respectively, then the net elongation of
the stepped shaft will be....
A 9.1777 x10-5 cm
B 9.1777 x10-5m
C 9.1777 x10-5mm
D 9.1777 x10-3mm
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --

Subject code-202045
Unit-2
Id
Question A beam is called statically determinate when ..... ( n= number of reactions; m = number of useful
equilibrium equations)
A n=m
B n>m
C n<m
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 1
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Question A beam is called statically in-determinate when ..... ( n= number of reactions; m = number of
useful equilibrium equations)
A n=m
B n>m
C n<m
D None of the above
Answer B
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Question If the load is a point load on beam then the variation of SFD is _ _ _ _ _
A Linear
B Parabolic
C Cubic
D Constant
Answer D
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Question If the load is a point load on beam then the variation of BMD is _ _ _ _ _
A Linear
B Parabolic
C Cubic
D constant
Answer A
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Question If the load on a beam is UDL then the variation of BMD is _ _ _ _ _
A Linear
B Parabolic
C Cubic
D constant
Answer B
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Question If the load is UDL on a beam then the variation of SFD is _ _ _ _ _
A Linear
B Parabolic
C Cubic
D constant
Answer A
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Question If the load is UVL on beam then the variation of SFD is _ _ _ _ _
A Linear
B Parabolic
C Cubic
D constant
Answer B
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Question If the load is UVL on beam then the variation of BMD is _ _ _ _ _
A Linear
B Parabolic
C Cubic
D constant
Answer C
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Question At point of contra-flexure_ _ _ _ _ _ _
A SF is zero
B SF is maximum
C BM is zero
D BM is maximum
Answer C
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Question A simply supported beam of length L is subjected to point load P at distance 'a' from right end.
The maximum bending moment will take place at __ _ _ _
A Middle
B At distance 'a' from right end
C At distance 'a' from left end
D None of the above
Answer B
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Question If shear force for a part of beam varies linearly then the loading on same part must be
A UDL
B UVL
C Point load
D moment
Answer A
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Question The point of contra flexure occurs only in
A Cantilever beam
B Overhanging beam
C Simply supported beam
D Uniform beam
Answer B
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Question At the point of contra flexure shearing force
A is maximum
B is minimum
C is equal
D is zero
Answer A
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Question The rate of change of bending moment is equal to
A Shear force at that section
B Deflection at that section
C Loading at that section
D Slope at that section
Answer A
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Question A beam extending beyond the supports is called
A simply supported beam
B fixed beam
C overhanging beam
D cantilever beam
Answer C
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Question A beam supported on more than two supports is called
B fixed beam
C overhanging beam
D continuous beam
Answer D
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Question Bending moment in the center of a beam of length L simply supported at both ends &
having a central load of W is
A WL
B WL/2
C WL/4
D WL/8
Answer C
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Question An overhanging beam is
A Same as cantilever
B Not Same as cantilever
C One which extends beyond its support at either or both ends
D One which extends beyond its support at both ends
Answer C
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Question A cantilever beam of span ‘L’ meters supports a UDL of ‘w’ kN/m over its entire span.
The maximum bending moment will be …
A wL/2 kNm
B wL2/2 kNm
C wL3/2 kNm
D wL2/4 kNm
Answer B
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Question A cantilever beam of span ‘L’ meters supports a point load of ‘W’ kN at the free end. The
bending moment at the middle of the span will be …
A wL/2 kNm
B wL2/2 kNm
C wL3/2 kNm
D wL2/4 kNm
Answer A
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Question A cantilever beam of span 2 m supports a point load of 40 kN at the free end. The bending
moment at distance of 0.5 m from free end will be …
A 40 kNm
B 80 kNm
C 20 kNm
D 60 kNm
Answer C
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Question If a simply supported beam carries a point load at the middle of the span then the shear
force diagram will be …
A Two equal and opp. triangles
B One rectangle
C Two equal and opp. rectangles
D A triangle
Answer C
Marks 1
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Question A simply supported beam carries a couple at a point on its span, the shear force
A varies by cubic law
B varies by parabolic law
C varies linearly
D is uniform throughout
Answer D
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Question Variation of bending moment in a cantilever carrying a load the intensity of which varies
uniformly from zero at the free end to w per unit run at the fixed end is by
A cubic law
B parabolic law
C linear law
D none of these
Answer A
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Question Variation of shear force in a cantilever carrying a load the intensity of which varies
A cubic law
B parabolic law
C linear law
D none of these
Answer B
Marks 1
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Question Maximum bending moment in a simply supported beam carrying a uniformly distributed
load is
A wl2/4
B wl2/8
C wl2/12
D wl/4
Answer B
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Question At the point of application of a point load on a beam there is
A maximum bending moment
B sudden change in shape of shear force diagram
C maximum deflection
D point of contraflexure
Answer B
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Question Maximum bending moment in a cantilever carrying a point load at the free end occurs at
the
A free end
B mid span
C fixed end
D at the position of load
Answer C
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Question The variation of bending moment due to uniformly distributed load is by
A cubic law
B parabolic law
C linear law
D uniform law
Answer B
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Question The variation of bending moment due to a point load is by
A cubic law
B parabolic law
C linear law
D uniform law
Answer C
Marks 1
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Question The variation of shear force due to a uniformly distributed load is by
A cubic law
B parabolic law
C linear law
D uniform law
Answer C
Marks 1
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Question The bending moment diagram for a cantilever subjected to bending moment at the free
end is
A triangle
B rectangle
C parabola
D elliptical
Answer B
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Question Wherever the bending moment is maximum the shear force is
A zero
B also maximum
C minimum
D of any value
Answer A
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Question The bending moment diagram shows the variation of bending moment along the _______
of the beam.
A cross-sectional area
B length
C width
D depth
Answer B
Marks 1
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Question A structural element which is subjected to loads transverse to its axis is known as a
_____.
A disc
B strut
C column
D beam
Answer D
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Question A roller support can sustain a force only ________ to its surface.
A inclined
B parallel
C normal
D none of the above
Answer C
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Question A hinged support can sustain reactions in _______________________.
A only vertical direction.
B vertical and horizontal directions
C only horizontal direction.
D All of above
Answer B
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Question A beam is said to be a cantilever whose_______.
A both ends are fixed
B both ends are free
C one end is free and one end is fixed
D Both ends supported on rollers
Answer C
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Question A shear force diagram shows the variation of shear force along _______ of a beam.
A width
B length
C depth
D cross-section
Answer B
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Question The rate of change of shear force at any section is equal to
A Bending moment
B Loading
C Deflection
D Intensity of loading
Answer D
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Question Shear force diagram for a cantilever beam carrying a uniformly distributed load over its
length is a
A Triangle
B Rectangle
C Hyperbola
D Parabola
Answer A
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Question The shear force diagram of a simply supported beam carrying a central point load
A changes sign at its midpoint
B remains same
C increases to maximum
D decreases to minimum
Answer A
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Question When the shear force diagram is a parabolic curve between two points, it indicates that
there is a
A point load at the two points

B no loading between the two points
C uniformly distributed load between the two points
D uniformly varying load between the two points
Answer D
Marks 1
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Question The bending moment diagram for a simply supported beam carrying a uniformly
distributed load of w per unit length, will be
A a horizontal line
B a vertical line
C an inclined line
D a parabolic curve
Answer D
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Question The shear force in the centre of a simply supported beam carrying a uniformly distributed
load of w per unit length, is
A zero
B wl2/2
C wl2/4
D wl2/8
Answer A
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Question The point of contraflexure is a point where
A bending moment changes sign

B shear force changes sign
C shear force is maximum
D bending moment is maximum
Answer A
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there is a

Answer D
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there is a

Answer D
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The maximum bending moment will be __ _ _ _
A P*(L-a) * a/L
B P*(L-a) * b/L
C P*(L-a) /L
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 2
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Question A simply supported beam of length 5m is subjected to a point load P at distance 2 m from right
end. The maximum SF will be __ _ _ _
A P
B P/2
C 3P/5
D 2P/5
Answer C
Marks 2
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Question A cantilever beam of length L is subjected to UDL of intensity 'w' N/m throughout its length. what
is maximum SF ?
A w*L
B w*L/2
C 2*w*L
D None of the above
Answer A
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is minimum SF ?
A w*L
B w*L/2
C Zero
D None of the above
Answer C
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Question A cantilever beam of length L is subjected to UDL of intensity 'w' N/m throughout its length.
where will minimum SF act ?
A fixed end
B free end
C middle
D All along the length
Answer B
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where will maximum SF act ?
A fixed end
B free end
C middle
Answer A
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is maximum BM?
A w*L*L
B w*L*L/2
C Zero
D None of the above
Answer B
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where will maximum BM act ?
A fixed end
B free end
C middle
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
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Question LOAD SFD
1 POINT LOAD A ZERO
2 UDL B PARABOLIC
3 UVL C LINEAR
4 MOMENT D CONSTANT
Match the pairs
A 1-A; 2-C;3-B;4-D
B 1-D; 2-C;3-B;4-A
C 1-A; 2-B;3-C;4-D
D 1-D; 2-B;3-C;4-A
Answer B
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Question LOAD BMD
1 POINT LOAD A CONSTANT
2 UDL B CUBIC
3 UVL C PARABOLIC
4 MOMENT D LINEAR
Match the pairs
A 1-A; 2-C;3-B;4-D
B 1-D; 2-C;3-B;4-A
C 1-A; 2-B;3-C;4-D
D 1-D; 2-B;3-C;4-A
Answer B
Marks 2
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Question Which one of the following beam is statically determinate?
A fixed beam
B propped cantilever beam
C continuous beam
D overhanging beam
Answer D
Marks 2
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Question The bending moment diagram for a cantilever subjected to a couple M at free end will be
A Triangle
B Rectangle
C Parabolic
D hyperbolic
Answer B
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Question In the case of cantilever irrespective of the type of loading, the maximum bending
moment and maximum shear force occurs at
A Free end
B Under the load
C Fixed end
D middle
Answer C
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Question For a simply supported beam with span of 4 m carrying a triangular load with zero
intensity at one end and 2 kN/m ( rate of loading ) at other end , the maximum bending
moment in kN-m will be
A 4
B -4.33
C -5.33
D 6.33
Answer C
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Question In a simply supported beam of span 9 m carrying load 10 kN/m uniformly distributed load
for a distance of 6 m from the left end, the maximum bending moment in kN-m is
A 270
B 80
C 45
D 607.5
Answer B
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Question A simply supported beam of span 6 m carries a point load of 3 kN at distance of 2 m
from the left support. The maximum bending moment in kN-m will be …
A 8
B 1
C 4
D 2
Answer C
Marks 2
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Question A simply supported beam of span 6 m carries a point load of 3 kN and 6 kN at distance of
2 m and 4 m respectively from the left support. The maximum bending moment in kN-m
will be …
A 10
B 52
C 6
D 24
Answer A
Marks 2
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Question
For following beam, the Maximum bending moment is
A 72 kN-m
B 8 kN-m
C 60 kN-m
D 104 kN-m
Answer D
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Question
A 126 kN-m
B 12 kN-m
C 18 kN-m
D 180 kN-m
Answer A
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Question
For following beam, the maximum bending moment is located ______.
A at point C
B between points C & D
C at point D
D at point B
Answer C
Marks 2
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Question
For following beam, the shear force is zero ______.
A between points C & D

B at point C
C at point B
D at point D
Answer D
Marks 2
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Question For a following beam shown, shear force diagram shows the change in sign (from +ve to -
ve) at points A and B. The maximum bending moment occurs _______.
A at point A
B between points A & C
C at point E
D at point B
Answer D
Marks 2
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Question
For a following beam shown, the vertical reaction at point B is
A 90 kN
B 6 kN
C 27 kN
D 30 kN
Answer C
Marks 2
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Question
For a following beam shown, the vertical reaction at point A is
A 90 kN
B 6 kN
C 27 kN
D 30 kN
Answer B
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Question For a following beam shown, the shear force is zero at a distance of 6 m from end 'A'.
Hence the bending moment at that location is _________.
A 90 kN-m
B 540 kN-m
C 180 kN-m
D 18 kN-m
Answer D
Marks 2
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Question A concentrated load of P acts on a simply supported beam of span L at a distance L/3 from the
left support. The bending moment at the point of application of the load is given by
A PL/3
B 2PL/3
C PL/9
D 2PL/9
Answer D
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Question
What is the maximum shear force in above loading?
A M/L
B M/L/2
C Zero
D M
Answer C
Marks 1
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Question
What is maximum BM and its location in above loading?
A M at fixed end
B M at free end
C M at middle
D M at everywhere along beam
Answer D
Marks 1
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Question
For above loading how much is maximum BM?
A PL
B PL/2
C PL/4
D 2PL
Answer C
Marks 1
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Question
The reaction at left end will be_ _ _ _
A 3 kN
B 1.5 kN
C 1 kN
D 2.25 kN
Answer B
Marks 1
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Question
what is the maximum shear force in above loading?
A W*L
B W*L/2
C 2W*L
D W/L
Answer A
Marks 1
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Question
what is the maximum bending moment in above loading?
A W*L^2
B W*L^2/2
C 2W*L^2
D W*L/2
Answer B
Marks 1
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Question
A W*L
B W*L/2
C 2W*L
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
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Question
What is the maximum bending moment in above loading?
A W*L*L
B W*L*L/2
C W*L*L/8
D None of the above
Answer C
Marks 1
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Question
The shear force diagram for a cantilever beam subjected to a point load 'W' at free end
Answer A
Marks 1
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Question
The shear force diagram for a cantilever beam subjected to a point load at the midspan is
Answer B
Marks 1
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Question The Bending moment diagram for a cantilever beam subjected to a UDL of intensity 'w'
over its entire span is
Answer A
Marks 1
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Question
The shear force diagram for following beam is
Answer C
Marks 1
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Question
The shear force diagram for a simply supported beam subjected to a point load 'W' is
Answer D
Marks 1
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Question The bending moment diagram for a simply supported beam subjected to a point load 'W'
is
Answer A
Marks 1
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d
Question
For above loading how much is maximum shear force?
A M/L
B M/L/2
C 2M/L
D Zero
Answer A
Marks 2
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Question
A M
B M/2
C 2M
D Zero
Answer B
Marks 2
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Question
Maximum BM will occur at what point?
A 2.6 m from left end

B 2.6 m from right end
C Middle section
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
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Question
The BM for part AB is
A PL
B 2PL
C zero
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 2
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Question
Which part of beam is under pure bending?
A DA
B AB
C BC
D DC
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
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Question
For above loading how much is maximum SF?
A P
B P/2
C P/4
D 2P
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
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Question
which part of the beam is under pure bending?
A AB
B BC
C AC
D CAN'T SAY
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
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Question
which part of the beam is under bending as well shearing ?
A AB
B BC
C AC
D CAN'T SAY
Answer B
Marks 2
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Question
In above loading, what is the maximum shear force?
A 100 N
B 60 N
C 40N
D 50 N
Answer B
Marks 2
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Question
In above loading, what is the maximum bending moment?
A 100 Nm
B 300 Nm
C 200 Nm
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 2
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Question A beam 10 m long carries a point load. When SF diagram is drawn, there are two
rectangular of the size 10 kN X 3 m, one is starting from one end and above the reference
line and other starting from the other end but below the reference line. The bending
moment at the center line of the beam is ... (kNm)
A 50
B 40
C 30
D 20
Answer C
Marks 2
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Question The bending moment diagram will be a cubic parabola in the case of a cantilever loaded
as follows
A Bending moment applied at free end
B Concentrated load at the end
C Uniformly distributed load
D Varying load, zero at free end and maximum at fixed end
Answer D
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Question If a beam of constant section is subjected throughout its length to a uniform bending
moment ,it will bend to
A A circular arc
B A parabolic arc
C Elliptical shape
D None of the above
Answer A
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Question A cantilever 10 m long carries uniformly distributed load of 10 kN/meter run starting
from fixed end up to the middle of its length. The bending moment at the middle of the
cantilever is
A 0 kN-m
B 50 kN-m
C 25 kN-m
D 100 kN-m
Answer A
Marks 2
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Question A cantilever 8 m long carries uniformly distributed load of intensity w kN/m run, starting
from free end up to the middle of its length. If the maximum bending moment in the
cantilever is 240 kN-m, what is magnitude of w
A 30 kN-m
B 20 kN-m
C 10 kN-m
D 5 kN-m
Answer C
Marks 2
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Question A cantilever 6 m long carries uniformly distributed load of intensity 20 kN/m run through
out its length, if it is propped by a force F at its free end so that the center of the cantilever
becomes the point of contraflexure, what is the magnitude of force F
A 120 kN
B 60 kN
C 30 kN
D 15 kN
Answer C
Marks 2
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Question A beam of 8 m long, simply supported at its end carries a point load W at a distance of 3
m from one end, such that maximum bending moment in the beam is 1500 kN-m, what is
the magnitude of W
A 700 kN
B 750 kN
C 800 kN
D 1000 kN
Answer C
Marks 1
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Question A beam of 10 m long, simply supported over 8 m long span, having equal overhang on
both the sides carries load of 80 kN at each end and load of 20 kN at it's center, the points
of contraflexure lie at
A The support
B Only at the center
C At 3 m from the ends
D There is no point of contraflexure
Answer D
Marks 2
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Question A beam of 8 m long, simply supported over 6 m with an overhang of 2 m on one side
carries a load of 60 kN at it's center. The maximum moment in the beam is
A 120 kN-m
B 100 kN-m
C 80 kN-m
D 60 kN-m
Answer C
Marks 1
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Question A beam 10 m long, simply supported at its ends carries uniformly distributed load of w
N/m run from one end up to a distance of 3 m and also from the other end up-to a distance
of 3 m.The SF at the center of the beam is
A 5wN
B 3wN
C wN
D 0
Answer D
Marks 2
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Question A beam of 10 m long hinged at both the ends is subjected to clockwise turning moment of
50 kN-m at a distance of 3 m from one end. The SF at the center of the beam is
A 125 kN
B 105 kN
C 50 kN
D 5 kN
Answer D
Marks 2
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Question The shear force of a cantilever beam of length l carrying a uniformly distributed load of w
per unit length is __________ at the free end.
A zero
B wl/4
C wl/2
D wl
Answer A
Marks 2
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Question A simply supported beam of span 9 m supports a UDL of 18 kN/m over a span of 4 m
from right support. What will be the shear force at the distance of 4 m from the right
support?
A 24 kN
B 20 kN
C 16 kN
D 12 kN
Answer C
Marks 2
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Question An overhanging beam of span 14 m has supports located such that there is an overhang of
2 m on both the sides. It supports a UDL of 5 kN/m over the entire span. The maximum
bending moment will be …
A 72.5 kNm
B 52.5 kNm
C 37.5 kNm
D 47.5 kNm
Answer B
Marks 2
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from right support. What will be the bending moment at a distance of 4 m from the right
support?
A 90 kN-m
B 80 kN-m
C 70 kN-m
D 60 kN-m
Answer B
Marks 2
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Question A simply supported beam of span 4.5 m supports a UDL of 15 kN/m over a span of 3 m
from the right end. The maximum bending moment will occur at what distance from the
left support?
A 3.0 m
B 2.25 m
C 2.5 m
D 1.5 m
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
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Question For following beam shown in fig, the shear force is zero at the mid span of AB. The
bending moment is ________.
A 0 kN-m
B 10 kN-m
C 12.5 kN-m
D 25 kN-m
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
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Question A cantilever beam 2 m long carries a point load of 1.8 kN at its free end. The maximum
bending moment is _______.
A 3.6 kN-m
B 1.8 kN-m
C 1 kN-m
D 0 kN-m
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
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Question
For following beam shown in fig, the maximum bending moment is ________.
A 4 kN-m
B 2.8 kN-m
C 3.2 kN-m
D 3 kN-m
Answer C
Marks 2
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Question For a beam shown in fig. the shear force is zero between CB. And it occurs at a distance
of ___________.
A 1 m from C
B 0.75 m from C
C 2 m from B
D 3 m from A
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
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Question For a following beam shown in fig, the shear force is zero between CD. And it occurs at a
distance of ___________.
A 1.2 m from D
B 3.2 m from C
C 1.2 m from C
D 3 m from B
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
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Question For a following beam shown in fig, the maximum bending moment which occurs between
AB is _______.
A 4 kN-m
B 18 kN-m
C 36 kN-m
D 2.25 kN-m
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
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Question For a following beam shown in fig, the point of contraflexture which occurs between AB
is at a distance of _______.
A 2.67 m from C
B 1 m from B
C 3 m from A
D 2.67 m from A
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
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Question For a following beam shown in fig, the point of contrafleture which occurs between AC is
at a distance of _______.
A 1.5 m from A
B 0.33 m from A
C 1.33 m from A
D 1 m from A
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --

Subject code-202045
Unit-3
Id
Question Which of the following is not the assumption of theory of simple bending?
A Transverse plane remain plane and perpendicular to the neutral surface after bending
B The cross section of beam is symmetric
C The stress is purely longitudinal
D Stress concentration effect is included
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question The bending stress along neutral axis is __________________
A Maximum
B Minimum
C Zero
D None of them
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question In case of T section, bending stress is maximum at
A Upper fiber
B Lower fiber
C Neutral axis
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
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Question The bending is called unsymmetrical
A When the cross section is symmetric about vertical axis
B Load is along vertical symmetrical axis of cross section
C Both A and B
D None of A and B
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question The variation of bending stress and distance from neutral axis is
A Linear
B Parabolic
C Cubic
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question The bending stress and radius of curvature at a distance from neutral fiber are
A Directly proportional
B Inversely proportional
C Not related
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question If the section modulus is increased then bending stress
A Increases
B Decreases
C Remain constant
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question For the rectangular beam of width ‘b’ and depth ‘d’, the sectional modulus is
A bd^3/6
B bd^2/6
C bd^3/12
D bd^2/12
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
Question For the circular beam of diameter ‘d’, the sectional modulus is
A πd^3/64
B πd^3/32
C πd^2/64
D πd^2/32
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
Question Beams with uniform bending strength will have
A Same bending moment all along the length
B Same depth all along the length
C Same bending stress all along the length
D None of the above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question The variation of depth of simply supported beam with point load at middle to have
uniform bending strength is
A Constant
B Parabolic
C Cubic
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question If the width of the section is increased then shear stress
A Increases
B Decreases
C Remain constant
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
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Question The variation of shear stress along cross section of beam is
A Constant
B Parabolic
C Cubic
D Linear
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
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Question The bending stress is maximum at __________________
A Outer fibers
B Neutral axis
C Everywhere
D None of above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question The shear stress is maximum at __________________
A Outer fibers
B Neutral axis
C Everywhere
D None of above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question For hogging bending moment the compression zone is …
A along neutral axis
B above neutral axis
C below neutral axis
D None of these
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
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Question The moment of inertia of a circular cross-section of diameter ‘d’ about an axis passing
through its centroid can be expressed as …
A πd4 /64
B πd2 /32
C πd2 /64
D πd4 /32
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question If a beam having rectangular cross-section is subjected to shear force, the maximum shear
stress occurs at …
A Neutral axis
B Extreme fibre
C Depends on the dimensions
D None of these
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
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Question The variation of shear stress is linear across the depth for which cross-section?
A Rectangular
B Circular
C I – section
D None of these
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
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Question Shear stress in a beam subjected to shear force is inversely proportional to …
A M.I. and depth of section
B Polar M.I. and depth
C M.I. and width of section
D Polar M.I. and area of section
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
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Question A beam is subjected to shear force F. If shear force increases by 50% then the shear stress
will …
A Increase by 50%
B Decrease by 50%
C Increase by 25%
D Decrease by 25%
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question The ratio of M.I. of a section to the distance of extreme fiber is known as …
A Shear modulus
B Bulk modulus
C elastic modulus
D section modulus
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question When a cantillever beam is loaded at its free end, maximum compressive stress shall
develop at ....
A Bottom fiber
B Top fiber
C Neutral axis
D Center of gravity
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
Question The flexural formula for beam is...
A M/Y = E/R
B Y/M=E/R
C M/I = E/R
D M/R=E/I
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
Question Section modulus (Z) for member under bending load is...
A σb(max)/E
B M/σb(max)
C σb(max)/M
D M/I
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
A I/σbmax
B ymax/I
C σbmax/I
D I/ymax
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
Question The beam material is stressed...
A Within plastic limit

B Within elastic limit
C Beyond plastic limit
D Between elastic and plastic limit
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
Question The value of E during pure bending is assumed to be...
A More in tension and less in compression

B Same in tension and compression
C Less in tension and more in compression
D None of above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
Question Flitched beams means...
A Continuous beam
B Fixed beam
C Composite beam consisting of wooden and mild steel plates
D None of above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
Question During bending of beams which of the following statement is true...
A Alternate layer is free to expand and contract independently.

B No layer is free to expand and contract independently.
C Each layer is free to expand and contract independently.
D Only extreme layer is free to expand and contract independently.
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question For a simply supported beam with central point load acting downwards, the fibre
experincing highest tension in bending will be....
A None of the below options

B Extreme above the NA
C At the NA
D Extreme below the NA
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
experincing highest compression in bending will be....

C At the NA
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
Question E1/E2 is called ...
A Poisson's ratio
B Ratio of elasticity
C Modular ratio
D Nodular ratio
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
Question Factors influencing bending stress in beams are...
A Bending moment alone

B Bending moment and M.I.
C Bending moment , M.I. , E and R
D Bending moment, M.I., E, R and y
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
Question Max. BM for Simply supported beam with udl is ....
A wL/8
B wL2/8
C wL3/8
D wL2/12
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
Question A rectangular section (b x d) is subjected to shear force F. The maximum shear stress will
be …
A 5 F/(2bd)
B 3 F/(2bd)
C 3 F/(4bd)
D 2 F/(3bd)
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
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Question Rectangular sections A and B have width ’b’ mm and ‘2b’ mm respectively but have same
depth. If these are subjected to same B.M. then what will be the ratio of maximum
bending stress in section A to section B?
A 1:8
B 8:1
C 1:2
D 2:1
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question Rectangular sections A and B have depth ’d’ mm and ‘2d’ mm respectively but have same
width. If these are subjected to same B.M. then what will be the ratio of maximum
A 1:8
B 8:1
C 1:2
D 2:1
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question Circular sections A and B have diameter ’d’ mm and ‘2d’ mm respectively. If these are
subjected to same B.M. then what will be the ratio of maximum bending stress in section
A to section B?
A 1:8
B 8:1
C 1:4
D 4:1
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
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will …
A Increase by 50%
B Decrease by 50%
C Increase by 25%
D Decrease by 25%
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question Section modulus of solid circular rod of diameter D is equal to
A D²/10
B D³/10
C D4/10
D D4/20
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question Section modulus of hollow circle with average diameter 'd' and wall thickness 't' is equal
to
A (4/5) t d2
B (4/5) t2 d2
C (4/5) d t2
D (5/4) t d2
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
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Question Moment of beam is defined as its section modulus multiplied by
A moment of inertia
B stress
C strain
D Coefficient of elasticity
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
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Question If freely supported beam at its ends is loaded by a central concentrated load, then
maximum moment is M. If the same weight be equally distributed over the beam, then
maximum moment will be
A M
B M/2
C M/3
D M/4
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
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Question The ratio of maximum shear stress to the average shear stress in a rectangular beam
subjected to torsion is
A 3/2
B 4/3
C 7/4
D 2
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question The section modulus of a circular section about an axis through its c.g is
A Π/16
B Π/32
C Π64
D Πd2/32
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question If the section modulus of a beam decreases, then bending stress will
A Decrease
B Increase
C Remain same
D There is no such correlation
Answer increase
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question In an Isection of a beam subjected to transverse shear force Q, The maximum shear stress
is developed at.
A The top edge of the top flange
B The bottom edge of the top flange
C The upper edge of the bottom flange
D The center of the Web
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
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Question A cantilever length l is fixed at one end and a couple M is applied at the other end . If EI
is the flexural rigidity of the cantilever, then slope at the free end of the cantilever is
A 2Ml/ EI
B Ml/ EI
C Ml/ 2EI
D 4Ml/EI
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question The ratio of maximum shear stress to average shear stress in the case of circular shaft
transmitting power is
A 2
B 1.33
C 1
D 0.75
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question The ratio of average shear stress to maximum shear stress for a beam of circular section
subjected to transverse shear force is
A 0.8
B 0.75
C 0.67
D 0.5
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question The maximum shear stress developed in a beam of circular section is __________ the
average shear stress
A equal to
B 4/3 times
C 1.5 times
D twice
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question Which of the following statements regarding assumptions in analysis of stressed beam is
false
A The material is homogeneous and isotropic, so that it has the same elastic properties in all
directions
B Modulus of elasticity in tension and compression are equal
C The radius of curvature of the beam before bending is equal to that of its transverse
dimensions
D Normal sections of the beam, which were plane before bending, remain plane after
bending
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question In T-section
A Both flange and web resists in the ratio of the
their areas of cross-section
B Only flanges resists shear
C Most of the shear is resisted by web only
D None of these
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question Shear stress in a rectangular beam exhibits a
A Parabolic variation
B Linear variation
C Cubic variation
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question In I-section, the bending moment is resisted mainly by
A Flanges only
B Web only
C Both by flanges and web
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
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Question A beam of uniform strength is one in which
A B.M. is same throughout the beam
B Deflection is same throughout the length
C The bending stress is same in every section along the longitudinal axis
D Shear stress is uniform throughout the beam
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
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Question The beam section shown in figure is subjected to a maximum bending stress of 9 N/mm2.
Find (a). the force on the area shaded and (b). the moment of this force about the neutral
axis.
A 2100N, 3660Nm
B 5400N, 486Nm
C 54000N, 4860Nm
D 54005N, 4865Nm
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question For the beam section shown in figure , find the ratio of the moments of resistance about
the XX and YY axes, for a given safe stress
A 1.814
B 1.184
C 4.481
D 8.142
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
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Question
The section modulus for hollow rectangular section shown below is:
A BD-bd/6D
B BD2-bd2/6D
C B-b/6D
D None of these
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question The moment of resistance for the hollow circular section shown is:
A f.[π(D4-d4)/32D]
B f.[π(D4-d4)/34D]
C f.[π(D2-d2)/32D]
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question The T-shaped cross-section of a beam is subjected to vertical shear force of 100kN.
Calculate the shear stress at the neutral axis and at the junction of the web and flange.
Moment of inertia about the horizontal neutral axis is 1.134x108mm4.
A 11.20N/mm2; 2.750N/mm2
B 11.02N/mm2; 2.755N/mm2
C 2.755N/mm2; 11.02N/mm2
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A beam of rectangular section (width 100 mm and depth 200 mm) is subjected to a shear
force of 360 kN. Determine the maximum shear stress induced.
A 36.0 MPa
B 27.0 MPa
C 24.0 MPa
D 21.0 MPa
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question Determine the maximum B.M. that can be applied to a beam of a hollow circular section
(OD 34 mm and thickness 5 mm) if the bending stress is not to exceed 110 MPa?
A 319 Nm
B 281 Nm
C 267 Nm
D 249 Nm
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question What will be the maximum bending stress induced in a hollow circular section having OD
40 mm and ID 30 mm if bending moment 500 Nm acts upon it?
A 116.4 MPa
B 96.4 MPa
C 106.4 MPa
D 126.4 Mpa
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A steel bar of rectangular section having width b = 20 mm and depth d = 60 mm is
subjected to a certain bending moment resulting in bending stress of 250 MPa. How much
is the bending moment?
A 2.1 kNm
B 2.4 kNm
C 2.7 kNm
D 3.0 kNm
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
subjected to bending moment of 1.5 kNm. What will be the bending stress induced?
A 145 MPa
B 135 MPa
C 125 MPa
D 175 MPa
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 7.8 MPa
B 9.8 MPa
C 6.8 MPa
D 8.5 MPa
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A cantilever of length 1.2 m carries a concentrated load of 1.2 kn at the free end. The
Beam is of rectangular cross section with breadth equal to half the depth. The maximum
stress due to bendign is not to exeed 100 N/mm2. The minimum depth of the beam should
be.
A 240 mm
B 120 mm
C 75 mm
D 60 mm
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
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Question A Beam of rectangular section of breath 10 cm and depth 20 cm is subjected to a bending
moment of 2.00 kNm. The stress developed at a distance of 5 cm from the top face is.
A 3 N/mm2
B 1.5 N/mm2
C 0.75 N/mm2
D 0.0 N/mm2
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A thin circular tube is used as a beam . At a particular section it is subjected to shear
force . If the maximum shear stress developed in the section is 'q', the mean shear stress
is.
A 0.5q
B 0.75q
C 0.80q
D None of these
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A steel shaft A of diameter 'd ', length 'l' is subjected to a twisting moment T. another shaft
B of brass of same diameter 'd' but length '0.5l' is also subjected to same twisting moment
'T'. If the shear modulus of steel is twice the shear modulus of brass and the max shear
stress developed in steel shaft is 100 N/mm2, then the max stress developed in brass shaft
is.
A 200 N/mm2
B 100N/mm2
C 50N/mm2
D 25N/mm2
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A beam of T section is subjected to a bending moment. The depth of the section is 12cm.
The moment of the inertia of the section about the neutral axis is 600 cm4. The flange of
the section is in compression. If the maximum tensile stress in the section is double the
max compressive stress, then the value of the section modulus in tension for the section is
A 100 cm3
B 150 cm3
C 75 cm3
D 50 cm3
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A beam of of circular cross section , area 100mm2 is subjected to a transverse shear force
of 6 KN at a particular section. The magnitude of the maximum shear stress developed in
the section is
A 90 N/mm2
B 80 N/mm2
C 60 N/mm2
D 45 N/mm2
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
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Question Two tie rods are connected through a pin of a cross sectional area 80mm2. If the tie bars
are subjected to a tensile load of 20 Kn , then shear stress in the pin will be
A 500 N/mm2
B 250 N/mm2
C 125 N/mm2
D 50 N/mm2
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A beam of I section of depth 20cm is subjected to a bending moment. The flange
thickness is 1.5cm and web thickness is 0.5cm. If the maximum stress developed in the I
section is 20 N/mm2 , the stress developed at the inner edge of the flange is
A 20 N/mm2
B 17 N/mm2
C 14 N/mm2
D 6.667 N/mm2
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A beam with a square cross section 100 X 100mm is simply supported at its ends and
carries a center load W. If the maximum shear stress developed in the section is not
exceed than 6 N/mm2,the maximum value of W is
A 20 KN
B 40 KN
C 80 KN
D 100KN
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A beam 3 m in length is simply supported at each end and bears a uniformly distributed
load of 10 kN per metre of length. The cross section of the bar is rectangular, 75 mm x
150 mm. Maximum bending stress in the beam will be
A 20 MPa
B 40 MPa
C 60 MPa
D 80 MPa
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A beam is loaded by a couple of 1 kNm at each of its ends. The beam is steel and of
rectangular cross section 25 mm wide by 50 mm deep. The maximum bending stress will
be
A 96 MPa
B 48 MPa
C 72 MPa
D 24 MPa
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A beam of circular cross section is 200 mm in diameter. It is simply supported at each end
and loaded by two concentrated loads of 100 kN, applied 250 mm from the ends of the
beam. The maximum stress in the beam will be
A 63.6 MPa
B 31.8 MPa
C 17.6 MPa
D 0
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A steel cantilever beam 5 m in length is subjected to a concentrated load of 1 kN acting at
the free end of the bar. The beam is of rectangular cross section, 50 mm wide by 75 mm
deep. The stress induced in the beam will be
A 0
B 107 MPa
C 110 MPa
D 117 MPa
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question An steel wire of 20 mm diameter is bent into a circular shape of 10 m radius. If E, the
modulus of elasticity is 2 x 106 kg/cm2, then the maximum stress induced in the wire is
A 103 kg/cm2
B 2 x 103 kg/cm2
C 4 x 103 kg/cm2
D 6 x 103
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A strip of steel 1 mm thick is bent into an arc of a circle of 1 m radius. The maximum
bending stress will be(E = 200 Gnm-2)
A 25 MPa
B 50 MPa
C 64 MPa
D 100 MPa
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
be.
A 240 mm
B 120 mm
C 75 mm
D 60 mm
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A steel plate is bent into a circular arc of radius 10 meters. If the plate section be 120mm
wide and 20mm thick, find the maximum stress induced and the bending moment which
can produce this stress. Take E= 2 x 105 N/mm2?
A Fmax= 205 N/mm2 ; M= 1605Nm
B Fmax= 120 N/mm2 ; M= 160Nm
C Fmax= 200 N/mm2 ; M= 1600Nm
D Fmax= 1200 N/mm2 ; M= 1600Nm
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit

Subject code-202045
Unit-4
Id
Question The bending moment M = _______________.
A EIy
B E I (dy / dx)
C E I (d2y / dx2)
D E I (d3y / dx3)
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question Shear force SF = _____________
A EIy
B E I (dy / dx)
C E I (d2y / dx2)
D E I (d3y / dx3)
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question Rate of loading w(x) = ___________.
A [E I (y/dx4)]
B E I (dy/dx)
C E I (d2y/dx2)
D E I (d3y/dx3)
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question E I (d2y/dx2) = _______________.
A SF
B M
C [- w (x)]
D none of the above.
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question E I (dy/dx) = _______________.
A M
B Int[M dx]+ C1
C Int[Int(M dx)]dx + C1 x + C2
D none of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question E I y = _______________.
A M
B Int[M dx]+ C1
D none of the above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question The slope is always zero at ________ support.
A roller
B hinge
C fixed
D all the above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question The deflection is always zero at ________ support.
A roller
B hinge
C fixed
D all the above
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question At a roller support, the slope is always _____.
A zero
B maximum
C minimum
D none of the above
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question At a fixed support, the slope is always _____.
A zero
B maximum
C minimum
D none of the above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question For a beam simply supported at its ends and carrying a point load, the slope at the point of
maximum deflection is ________.
A zero
B maximum
C minimum
D none of the above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question For a cantilever beam carrying a point load at its free end, the magnitude of slope at the
point of maximum deflection is ________.
A zero
B maximum
C minimum
D none of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question For a cantilever beam carrying a point load at its centre, the magnitude of slope at the
A zero
B maximum
C minimum
D none of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question A cantilever beam of length L carries a point load at its centre. If x is the distance from
the fixed end, the slope is constant for _____.
A 0<x<L
B 0 < x < L/2
C L/2 < x < L
D none of the above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
the fixed end, the deflection is maximum at x = _____.
A 0
B L/2
C 3L/4
D L
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question A simply supported beam of length L carries a point load at the centre. If x is the distance
from the left support, the deflection is maximum at x = _______.
A 0
B L/2
C 3L/4
D L/4
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
from the left support, the slope is zero at x = _______.
A 0
B L/2
C 3L/4
D L/4
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question A simply supported beam of length L carries a point load at a distance of 3L/4 from the
left support. The deflection is maximum at a distance ______ from the left support.
A 0
B 3L/4
C more than 3L/4
D less than 3L/4
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question A simply supported beam of length L carries a clockwise couple moment at its centre. If x
is the distance from the left support, the deflection is zero at x = __________.
A L/3
B L/2
C 3L/4
D L/4
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question A simply supported beam of length L carries a UDL throughout its length. If x is the
distance from the left support, the deflection is maximum at x = __________.
A 0
B L/2
C 3L/4
D L/4
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
distance from the left support, the deflection is zero at x = __________.
A 0
B L/2
C 3L/4
D L/4
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question For a cantilever beam carrying a point load W at its free end, the magnitude of slope at the
free end is ________.
A W L2 / 2EI
B W L2 / 3EI
C W L3 / 3EI
D W L3 / 6EI
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question For a cantilever beam carrying a point load W at its free end, the magnitude of deflection
at the free end is ________.
A W L2 / 2EI
B W L2 / 3EI
C W L3 / 3EI
D W L3 / 6EI
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question For a cantilever beam carrying a UDL of w per unit length throughout its length, the
magnitude of slope at the free end is ________.
A w L2 / 2EI
B w L2 / 3EI
C w L3 / 3EI
D w L3 / 6EI
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
magnitude of deflection at the free end is ________.
A w L3 / 3EI
B w L3 / 6EI
C w L3 / 8EI
D w L4 / 8EI
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question For a simply supported beam of length L carrying a point load W at its centre, the slope at
the end points is _________.
A W L2 / 16 EI
B W L2 / 30 EI
C W L2 / 24 EI
D W L2 / 48 EI
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question Deflection profile of a beam is known as its ____________
A Elastic curve
B Parabolic curve
C Plastic curve
D None of above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question For a cantilever beam AB of length L carrying a UDL of intensity w per unit length over a
distance a (a < L) from the fixed end A to C, the slope at C is _________.
A w L3 / 3 EI
B w L3 / 6 EI
C w a3 / 3 EI
D w a3 / 6 EI
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
distance a (a < L) from the fixed end A to C, the slope at free end B is _________.
A w L3 / 3 EI
B w L3 / 6 EI
C w a3 / 3 EI
D w a3 / 6 EI
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question The energy absorbed in a body, when it is strained within the elastic limits, is known as
A Strain energy
B resilience
C Proof resilience
D toughness
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
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Question Resilience is the
A energy stored in a body when strained within elastic limits
B energy stored in a body when strained upto the breaking of the specimen
C maximum strain energy which can be stored in a body
D Strain Energy per unit volume in simple tension or compression
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
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Question Which of the following statement is correct?
A The energy stored in a body, when strained within elastic limit is known as strain energy.
B The maximum strain energy which can be stored in a body is termed as proof resilience.
C The proof resilience per unit volume of a material is known as modulus of resilience.
D all of the above
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question The strain energy stored in a spring, when subjected to maximum load, without suffering
permanent distortion, is known as
A impact energy
B proof resilience
C proof stress
D modulus of resilience
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question The unit of modulus of elasticity is same as those of
A stress, strain and pressure
B stress, force and modulus of rigidity
C strain, force and pressure
D stress, pressure and modulus of rigidity
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
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Question When a beam is subjected to a bending moment, the strain in a layer is __________ the
distance from the neutral axis.
A equal to
B directly proportional to
C inversely proportional to
D independent of
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question For a simply supported beam of span L which supports a UDL of ‘w’ per unit length, the
maximum deflection is …
A 5WL3/348EI
B 5WL2/384EI
C 5WL3/384EI
D 5WL2/348EI
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question When a moving body hits a bar, ------- energy is stored in the bar in the form of ------
energy
A Kinetic, strain
B Strain, Kinetic
C Potential, Strain
D Not of these types
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
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Question For a rigid beam deflection and slope is always
A Zero
B Infinite
C One
D Less than one
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
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Question Flexural rigidity of the beam is:
A E
B GI
C EI
D E/I
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question Differential equation of bending of beam is of ----- order.
A Zeroth
B Fourth
C First
D Second
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question For a simply supported beam of length L subjected to a concentrated load W at the center,
EI d2y/dx2 = ___________.
A (W/2)x | -W(x - (L/2))|
B Wx | -W(x - (L/2))|
C (W/2)x | -W(x - L)|
D (W/2)x | + W(x - (L/2))|
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question For a simply supported beam of length L carrying a UDL of intensity w per unit length
over its entire length, EI d2y/dx2 = ____________________.
A (wx)/2 - (wx2 /2 )
B w/2 - (wx2 /2 )
C (wLx)/2 - (wL2 /2 )
D (wLx)/2 - (wx2 /2 )
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question In Macaulay's method a single equation is written for the __________ for all portions of
the beam.
A slope
B Bending moment
C deflection
D None of above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question The designing of a beam from deflection aspect is known as ________.
A Strength criterion
B Stiffness criterion
C Flexibility criterion
D All of above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question The governing differential equation of the beam takes into account the effect of
________.
A Bending moment only
B Shear force only
C Both bending moment and shear force
D None of above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question For a simply supported beam of length L carrying a point load W at its centre, the
deflection at the centre is _________.
A 11 W L4 / 120 EI
B W L3 / 30 EI
C W L3 / 24 EI
D W L4 / 48 EI
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
throughout its length, the slope at its ends is _________.
A w L3 / 8EI
B w L3 / 6EI
C w L3 / 24EI
D w L4 / 6EI
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
throughout its length, the deflection at its centre is _________.
A w L3 / 8EI
B w L4 / 8EI
C w L3 / 24EI
D 5 w L4 / 384EI
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question For a simply supported beam AB of length L if origin is taken at left end, deflection at the
center is _________.
A positive
B negative
C Depends on magnitude of load
D None of above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question For a simply supported beam AB of length L if origin is taken at right end, deflection at
the center is _________.
A positive
B negative
D None of above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question For a cantilever beam AB of length L if origin is taken at left end, deflection at the free
end is _________.
A negative
B positive
D None of above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question For a cantilever beam AB of length L, if origin is taken at right end, deflection at the free
end is _________.
A Negative
B Positive
D None of above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question For a cantilever beam AB of length L carrying a UDL of intensity w per unit length for
full span, if origin is taken at left end, the slope at center of the beam is _________
A positive
B negative
C zero
D Can't say
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question In a watch, the spring is used to store strain energy. This energy is released
A to stop the watch
B to run the watch
C to change the time
D all of these
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question Two closely coiled helical springs 'A' and 'B' are equal in all respects but the number of
turns of spring 'A' is half that of spring 'B' The ratio of deflections in spring 'A' to spring
'B' is
A 1/8
B 1/4
C 1/2
D 2
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question If the depth is kept constant for a beam of uniform strength, then its width will vary in
proportional to (where M = Bending moment)
A M
B √M
C M²
D M³
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
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Question The rectangular beam 'A' has length l, width b and depth d. Another beam 'B' has the same
length and depth but width is double that of 'A'. The elastic strength of beam 'B' will be
__________ as compared to beam A.
A same
B double
C four times
D six times
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question A simply supported beam 'A' of length l, breadth b and depth d carries a central load W.
Another beam 'B' of the same dimensions carries a central load equal to 2W. The
deflection of beam 'B' will be __________ as that of beam 'A'.
A one-fourth
B one-half
C double
D four times
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question For a simply supported beam of length L carrying a couple moment M0 at the centre, EI
d2y/dx2 = ____________________.
A M0
B (-M0)
C (-M0 / L) x | + M0(x - (L/2))2 |
D (M0 / L) x | - M0(x - (L/2))2 |
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A cantilever beam of steel (E = 200 GPa ) having a point load at its free end and a
rectangular cross section of b x d shows a deflection of 4 mm at the free end. If the same
load is applied on the free end of another cantilever of the same material and length but
rectangular cross-section of 2b x d, the deflection at its free end will be __________mm.
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
rectangular cross-section of b x 2d, the deflection at its free end will be __________mm.
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
rectangular cross-section of 2b x 2d, the deflection at its free end will be __________mm.
A 0.25
B 2
C 4
D 48
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
load is applied on the free end of another cantilever of the same material but twice the
length and rectangular cross-section of b x 2d, the deflection at its free end will be
__________mm.
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A cantilever beam of length 1 m having a point load at its free end shows a slope of 4˚ at
the free end. If the same load is applied on the free end of another cantilever of the same
cross-sectional dimensions but of length 2 m, the slope at it's free end will be ________˚.
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 16
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
cross-sectional dimensions but of length 0.5 m, the slope at it's free end will be
________˚.
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 32
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A cantilever beam of steel (E = 200 GPa) having a point load at its free end shows a slope
of 4˚ at the free end. If the same load is applied on the free end of another cantilever of
the same cross-sectional dimensions and length but of copper (E = 100 GPa), the slope at
the free end will be _______˚.
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A cantilever beam of copper (E = 100 GPa) having a point load at its free end shows a
slope of 4˚ at the free end. If the same load is applied on the free end of another cantilever
of the same cross-sectional dimensions and length but of steel (E = 200 GPa), the slope at
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A cantilever beam of copper (E = 100 GPa) having a point load of 10 kN at its free end
shows a slope of 4˚ at the free end. If the load of 20 kN is applied on the free end of
another cantilever of the same cross-sectional dimensions and length but of steel (E = 200
GPa), the slope at the free end will be _______˚.
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
another cantilever of the same cross-sectional dimensions but double the length and of
steel (E = 200 GPa), the slope at the free end will be _______˚.
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A cantilever beam of steel (E = 200 GPa) having a point load at its free end and a
rectangular cross-section of b x d shows a slope of 4˚ at the free end. If the same load is
applied on the free end of another cantilever of the same material and length but
rectangular cross-section of 2b x d, the slope at the free end will be _______˚.
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
rectangular cross-section of b x 2d, the slope at the free end will be _______˚.
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
rectangular cross-section of 2b x 2d, the slope at the free end will be _______˚.
A 0.25
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
applied on the free end of another cantilever of the same material but twice the length and
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A cantilever beam of steel (E = 200 GPa), 600 mm in length has a rectangular cross
section of width 60 mm x 100 mm depth is subjected to a point load of 10 kN at its free
end. The deflection at its free end will be _______________ mm.
A 0.52
B 0.72
C 0
D 5.2
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
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end. The slope at its free end will be __________˚.
A 0.0018˚
B 0.0018 radian
C 0.72˚
D 0.72 radian
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A rod of length 2 m and square cross section 100 mm x 100 mm elongates by 0.01 mm
when subjected to an axial load W. If the same rod is used as a cantilever and subjected to
the same load at its free end, the deflection at the free end will be ________mm.
A 0.01
B 10
C 4
D 16
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A cantilever beam of copper (E = 100 GPa) having a UDL of 10 kN / m acting throughout
its length shows a deflection of 1 mm at the free end. If the UDL of 20 kN / m is applied
throughout the length on another cantilver of the same cross sectional dimensions but
double the length and of steel (E = 200 GPa), the deflection at the free end will
be________mm.
A 2
B 4
C 8
D 16
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A cantilever beam of steel (E = 200 GPa) having a UDL acting throughout its length and
UDL is applied throughout the length on another cantilever of the same material and
length but rectangular cross section of 2b x d, the deflection at the free end will
be________mm.
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
length but rectangular cross section of b x 2d, the deflection at the free end will
be________mm.
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
length but rectangular cross section of 2b x 2d, the deflection at the free end will
be________mm.
A 0.25
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
UDL is applied throughout the length on another cantilever of the same material but twice
the length and rectangular cross section of b x 2d, the deflection at the free end will
be________mm.
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A cantilever beam of steel (E = 200 GPa) having a UDL acting throughout its length and a
rectangular cross section of b x d shows a slope of 4˚ at the free end. If the same UDL is
applied throughout the length on another cantilever of the same material and length but
rectangular cross section of 2b x d, the slope at its free end will be _______˚.
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
rectangular cross section of b x 2d, the slope at its free end will be _______˚.
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
rectangular cross section of 2b x 2d, the slope at its free end will be _______˚.
A 0.25
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
applied throughout the length on another cantilever of the same material but twice the
length and the rectangular cross section of b x 2d, the slope at its free end will be
_______˚.
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A cantilever beam of steel (E = 200 GPa), 6 mm in length has a rectangular cross section
of width 60 mm x 100 mm depth is subjected to a point load of 10 kN at its length. The
slope at its free end will be __________ .
A 0.00167˚
B 0.00167 radian
C 0.72˚
D 0.72 radian
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A simply supported beam of copper (E = 100 GPa) having a point load of 10 kN at its
centre shows a deflection of 1 mm at the centre. If the load of 20 kN is applied at the
centre of another simply supported beam of the same cross sectional dimensions, double
the length and of steel (E = 200 GPa), the deflection at the centre will be _________ mm.
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A simply supported beam of steel (E = 200 GPa) having a point load at its centre and a
rectangular cross section of b x d shows a deflection of 4 mm at the centre. If the same
load is applied at the centre of another simply supported beam of the same material and
length but rectangular cross section of 2b x d,the deflection at the centre will be
_________ mm.
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
length but rectangular cross section of b x 2d, the deflection at the centre will be
_________ mm.
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
length but rectangular cross section of 2b x 2d, the deflection at the centre will be
_________ mm.
A 0.25
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
load is applied at the centre of another simply supported beam of the same material but
twice the length and rectangular cross section of b x 2d, the deflection at the centre will be
_________ mm.
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A simply supported beam of steel (E = 200 GPa), 4 m in length has a rectangular cross
section of width 60 mm x 100 mm depth is subjected to a point load of 10 kN at its centre.
The deflection at its centre will be ________ mm.
A 1.33
B 13.33
C 0.13
D 133.33
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
when subjected to an axial load W. If the same rod is used as a simply supported beam
and subjected to the same load at its centre, the deflection at the centre will be
________mm.
A 0.01
B 10
C 1
D 4
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A simply supported beam of steel (E = 200 GPa) having UDL acting throughout its length
shows a deflection of 4 mm at the centre. If the same UDL is applied on another simply
supported beam of the same cross sectional dimensions and length but of copper (E = 100
GPa), the deflection at the centre will be _________ mm.
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A simply supported beam of copper (E = 100 GPa) having UDL acting throughout its
length shows a deflection of 4 mm at the centre. If the same UDL is applied on another
simply supported beam of the same cross sectional dimensions and length but of steel (E
= 200 GPa), the deflection at the centre will be _________ mm.
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A simply supported beam of copper (E = 100 GPa) having UDL of 10 kN / m acting
throughout its length shows a deflection of 4 mm at the centre. If the same UDL of 20 kN
/ m is applied throughout the length on another simply supported beam of the same cross
sectional dimensions and length but of steel (E = 200 GPa), the deflection at the centre
will be _________ mm.
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
will be _________ mm.
A 2
B 4
C 8
D 16
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A simply supported beam of steel (E = 200 GPa) having a UDL acting throughout its
length and a rectangular cross section of b x d shows a deflection of 4 mm at the centre. If
the same UDL is applied throughout the length on another simply supported beam of the
same material and length but rectangular cross section of 2b x d,the deflection at the
centre will be _________ mm.
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
same material and length but rectangular cross section of b x 2d,the deflection at the
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
same material and length but rectangular cross section of 2b x 2d,the deflection at the
A 0.25
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
same material but twice the length and rectangular cross section of b x 2d, the deflection
at the centre will be _________ mm.
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A cantilever of length L carries a load w uniformly distributed throughout its length. The
deflection at the free end is y1.Now the same cantilever carries the load W at its free end
and deflection at the free is y2. The ratio of y2/y1 is
A 3/8
B 3/4
C 4/3
D 8/3
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A cantilever of length , diameter D carries a load W at its middle which produces a
deflection y1 , at the free end. Another cantilever of same material, length L but diameter
2D carries a load W at its middle which produces a deflection y2 at the free end . The
ratio of y2/y1 will be
A 8
B 4
C 1/4
D 1/16
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A beam of length l, simply supported at the ends carries a point load W at its center .if EI
is flexural rigidity of the beam, strain energy due to bending is
A W2l3/48EI
B W2l3/96EI
C W3l2/48EI
D W3l3/96EI
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A W2l3/48EI
B W2l3/96EI
C W3l2/48EI
D W3l3/96EI
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question The simply supported beam 'A' of length l carries a central point load W. Another beam 'B'
is loaded with a uniformly distributed load such that the total load on the beam is W. The
ratio of maximum deflections between beams A and B is
A 5/8
B 8/5
C 5/4
D 4/5
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question Two simply supported beams A and B carry same loads. Beam A carries a point load at
the centre and beam B carries UDL over the entire span. Ratio of maximum slopes of
beam A to beam B will be …
A 2:3
B 3:2
C 1:2
D 2:1
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question For a cantilever beam carrying a couple moment M0 at the free end, the deflection at the
A M0 L2 / EI
B M0 L2 / 2EI
C 2M0 L2 / EI
D 0
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question For a cantilever beam carrying a couple moment M0 at the free end, the slope at the free
end is ________.
A M0 L / EI
B M0 L / 2EI
C 2M0 L / EI
D 0
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question For a simply supported beam AB of length L carrying a couple moment M0 at its centre,
the slope at the end points is ________.
A M0 / EI
B M0 L / 24 EI
C M0 L / EI
D M0 L2 / 24 EI
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question For a beam, as shown in the below figure, when the load W is applied in the centre of the beam, the maximum
deflection is
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question The strain energy stored in a body, when the load is gradually applied, is (where σ = Stress in the material of the body,
V= Volume of the body, and E = Modulus of elasticity of the material)
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question If the length of a cantilever carrying an isolated load at its free end is doubled, the deflection of the free end will
increase by
A 8
B 1/8
C 1/3
D 2
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question If the width b and depth d of a beam simply supported with a central load are interchanged, the deflection at the centre
of the beam will be changed in the ratio of
A b/d
B d/b
C (d/b)2
D (b/d)2
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question
For the loading shown, determine the deflection at the free end.
A -Px(3L-x)/6EI
B Px2(3L-x)/6EI
C -Px(3L-x)/6EI
D -Px2(3L-x)/6EI
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question
For the prismatic beam and loading shown,

determine the slope at end A.
A PL2/6EI
B PL2/32EI
C PL2/16EI
D Not any of the above
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question Magnitude of strain energy increase in following order
A Impact, sudden, gradual
B Sudden, gradual, impact
C Gradual, sudden, impact.
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question The strain energy stored due to bending is given by_______
A U = Int. (M2.dx / 2EI)
B U = Int. (M2/2GI)
C U = Int. (M/2EJL)
D U = Int. (M/EI)
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question
The area under the curve as shown in Figure by arrow is called as:
A Modulus of elasticity
B Modulus of resistance
C Modulus of resilience
D Modulus of stress-strain
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question
The strain energy stored in the loading shown is

A U = T2/2GJL
B U = T2/2EI
C U = T/2GJL
D U = T/EI
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question
Strain energy stored is:

A P12L3/6E
B P12L3/6EI
C PL/AE
D P12L/6EI
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question For a beam, as shown in the below figure, deflection at left support will be
A positeve
B Negative
C Zero
D None of the above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question For a beam, as shown in the below figure, if origin is taken at left end, slpoe at right
support will be
A positeve
B Negative
C Zero
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question For a beam havng point load at midspan of support , as shown in the figure, deflection at
midspan will be
A Positeve and maximum
B Negative and maximum

C Zero
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question For a beam, as shown in the figure, deflection at support will be
A Positive
B Negetive
C Zero
D All of above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question For a beam, as shown in the figure, deflection at free end will be
A Positive
B Negetive
C Zero
D All of above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Positive and maximun
B Negetive and maximum

C Zero
D All of above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question A cantilever of length 4 meter carries a uniformly distributed load w throughout its length.
If the maximum bending moment in the cantilever is 8 N-m and EI is its flexural rigidity,
the slope at free end of the cantilever is ....
A 64/3EI
B 32/3EI
C 8/3EI
D None of these
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A cantilever beam has a point load acting at its free end. The deflection at the free end is
observed to be 1 mm for a load of 10 kN. The deflection at the free end for a load of 20
kN will be __________ mm.
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
observed to be 1 mm for a load of 10 kN. The deflection at the free end for a load of 5 kN
will be __________ mm.
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A cantilever beam of length 1 m having a point load at its free end shows a deflection of 4
mm at the free end. If the same load is applied on the free end of another cantilever of the
same cross-sectional dimensions but of length 2 m, the deflection at its free end will be
__________.
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 32
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
__________.
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 32
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A cantilever beam of steel (E = 200 GPa ) having a point load at its free end shows a
deflection of 4 mm at the free end. If the same load is applied on the free end of another
cantilever of the same cross-sectional dimensions and length but of copper (E = 100 GPa),
the deflection at its free end will be __________mm.
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
cantilever of the same cross-sectional dimensions and length but of steel (E = 200 GPa ),
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
shows a deflection of 4 mm at the free end. If the load of 20 kN is applied on the free end
of another cantilever of the same cross-sectional dimensions and length but of steel (E =
200 GPa ), the deflection at the free end will be __________mm.
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A cantilever beam has a point load acting at its free end. The slope at the free end is
observed to be 1˚ for a load of 10 kN. The slope at the free end for a load of 20 kN will be
_________˚.
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
_________˚.
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A cantilever beam has a UDL acting throughout its length. The deflection at the free end
is observed to be 1 mm for a UDL of 10 kN/m. The deflection at the free end for a UDL
of 20 kN/m will be _______mm.
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A cantilever beam of length 1 m having a UDL throughout its length shows a deflection
of 1 mm at the free end. If the same UDL is applied on another cantilever of the same
cross sectional dimensions but of length 2 m throughout the length, the deflection at its
free end will be________mm.
A 2
B 4
C 16
D 32
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
cross sectional dimensions but of length 0.5 m throughout the length, the deflection at its
A 0.5
B 0.25
C 4
D 32
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A cantilever beam of steel (E = 200 GPa) having a UDL acting throughout its length
shows a deflection of 4 mm at the free end. If the same UDL is applied on another
cantilever of the same cross sectional dimensions and length but of copper (E = 100 GPa),
the deflection at the free end will be________mm.
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A cantilever beam of copper (E = 100 GPa) having a UDL acting throughout its length
cantilever of the same cross sectional dimensions and length but of steel (E = 200 GPa),
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
throughout the length on another cantilever of the same cross sectional dimensions and
length but of steel (E = 200 GPa), the deflection at the free end will be________mm.
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A cantilever beam has a UDL acting throughout its length. The slope at the free end is
observed to be 1˚ for a UDL of 10 kN / m. The slope at the free end for a UDL of 20 kN /
m will be _______˚.
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
m will be _______˚.
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A cantilever beam of length 1 m having a UDL acting throughout its length shows a slope
of 1˚ at the free end. If the same UDL is applied throughout the length on another
cantilever of the same cross sectional dimension but of length 2 m, the slope at its free
end will be _______˚.
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
cantilever of the same cross sectional dimension but of length 0.5 m, the slope at its free
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
shows a slope of 4˚ at the free end. If the same UDL is applied throughout the length on
another cantilever of the same cross section dimensions and length but of copper (E = 100
GPa) , the slope at its free end will be _______˚.
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
another cantilever of the same cross section dimensions and length but of steel (E = 200
GPa) , the slope at the free end will be _______˚.
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
its length shows a slope of 4˚ at the free end. If the UDL of 20 kN / m is applied
throughout the length on another cantilever of the same cross section dimensions and
length but of steel (E = 200 GPa) , the slope at the free end will be _______˚.
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
throughout the length on another cantilever of the same cross sectional dimensions,
double the length and of steel (E = 200 GPa) , the slope at the free end will be _______˚.
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A cantilever beam of steel (E = 200 GPa), 1 m in length has a rectangular cross section of
width 60 mm x 100 mm depth is subjected to a UDL of 10 kN / m throughout its length.
The deflection at its free end will be __________ mm.
A 1.25
B 0.72
C 0
D 5.2
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A simply supported beam has a point load acting at its centre. The deflection at the centre
is observed to be 1 mm for a load of 10 kN. The deflection at the centre for a load of 20
kN will be ______mm.
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
is observed to be 1 mm for a load of 10 kN. The deflection at the centre for a load of 5 kN
will be ______mm.
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A simply supported beam of length 1 m having a point load acting at its centre shows a
deflection of 4 mm at the centre. If the same load is applied at the centre of another
simply supported beam of the same cross sectional dimensions but of length 2 m, the
deflection at its centre will be ______mm.
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 32
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
simply supported beam of the same cross sectional dimensions but of length 0.5 m, the
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 32
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A simply supported beam of steel (E = 200 GPa) having a point load at its centre shows a
simply supported beam of the same cross sectional dimensions and length but of copper
(E = 100 GPa), the deflection at the centre will be _________ mm.
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A simply supported beam of copper (E = 100 GPa) having a point load at its centre shows
a deflection of 4 mm at the centre. If the same load is applied at the centre of another
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
centre of another simply supported beam of the same cross sectional dimensions and
length but of steel (E = 200 GPa), the deflection at the centre will be _________ mm.
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A simply supported beam has a UDL acting throughout its length. The deflection at the
centre is observed to be 1 mm for a UDL of 10 kN / m. The deflection at the centre for a
UDL of 20 kN / m will be ______mm.
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A simply supported beam of length 1 m having UDL acting throughout its length shows a
deflection of 1 mm at the centre. If the same UDL is applied at the centre of another
simply supported beam of the same cross sectional dimensions but of length 2 m
throughout the length, the deflection at its centre will be ______mm.
A 2
B 4
C 16
D 32
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
simply supported beam of the same cross sectional dimensions but of length 0.5 m
A 0.5
B 0.25
C 4
D 32
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A beam simply supported at its ends over a span of 4 meters carries uniformly distributed
load of 1.5 kN/m run through out its length. If EI = 5000 kN-m2, the max. deflection in
the beam is.
A 1 mm
B 2 mm
C 2.5 mm
D None of these
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A round bar A of diameter D and length L is subjected to an axial stress f. Another round
bar B of the same material , diameter 2D and length 0.25L is also subjected to the same
axial stress f. the ratio of strain energy in bar A to the the strain energy in bar B is
A 4
B 2
C 1
D 0.25
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A simply supported beam of length 2 meters carries a concentrated load of 3 kN at its
center. If EI=500 kN-m2 for the beam the maximum deflection in the beam is
A 16 mm
B 5 mm
C 2 mm
D 1 mm
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A simply supported beam of 6 m carries a concentrated load W at its center such that
bending moment M. at the center of beam is 6 kN-m. If EI is the flexural rigidity of the
beam, then deflection at the center is
A 36/EI
B 27/EI
C 18/EI
D 9/EI
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A simply supported beam of rectangular section breadth=b and depth d=2b carries a load
w at one third of its length producing deflection y under the load. Now the beam is turned
with depth=b and breadth=2b, the deflection under the load will be
A 6y
B 4y
C 2y
D 1/4y
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A beam of simply supported over 10 m carries a uniformly distributed load 1 kN/m
throughout its length. If EI is 5000 kN-m2 then the maximum deflection y is
A 26 mm
B 52 mm
C 2.6 mm
D 10 mm
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question The ratio of the maximum deflections of a beam simply supported at its ends with an
isolated central load and that of with a uniformly distributed load over its entire length, is
A 1
B
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A cantilever beam rectangular in cross-section is subjected to an isolated load at its free
end. If the width of the beam is doubled, the deflection of the free end will be changed in
the ratio of
A 8
B 1/8
C 1/2
D 2
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question If the width of a simply supported beam carrying an isolated load at its center is doubled,
the deflection of the beam at the center is changed by
A 2 times
B 4 times
C 8 times
D 1/2 times
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question The ratio of the maximum deflection of a cantilever beam with an isolated load at its free
end and with a uniformly distributed load over its entire length, is
A 1
B
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question The deflection due to couple M at the free end of a cantilever length L is
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A uniform girder simply supported at its ends is subjected to a uniformly distributed load
over its entire length and is propped at the centre so as to neutralize the deflection. The
net B.M. at the centre will be
A WL
B
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question The deflection of any rectangular beam simply supported, is
A directly proportional to its weight
B inversely proportional to its width
C inversely proportional to the cube of its depth
D directly proportional to the cube of its length
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question The energy stored in a beam of length L subjected to a constant B.M. is
A
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A simply supported beam of length 4 m supports a UDL 2 kN/m over the entire span.
What will be the maximum slope assuming E = 200 GPa and I = 4 x 105 mm4
A 0.057 rad
B 0.067 rad
C 0.077 rad
D 0.087 rad
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
What will be the maximum deflection assuming E = 200 GPa and I = 4 x 105 mm4
A 53.3 mm
B 63.3 mm
C 73.3 mm
D 83.3 mm
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A simply supported beam of span 5 m supports a point load of 30 kN at a distance of 3.75
m from the left support A. The deflection under the load will be …
A 1.7 mm
B 1.8 mm
C 1.9 mm
D 2.0 mm
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question Maximum deflection in simply supported beam of length 1m carying a concentrated load
20 kN at midspan is (take EI = 25,000 kN m2 )
A 0.0166mm
B 1.666mm
C 0.00166mm
D 1.666m
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question Maximum deflection in simply supported beam of length 2 m carying a concentrated load
A 0.133 mm
B 1.333 mm
C 0.00133 mm
D 1.333 m
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A beam simply supported at ends over a span of 4 m, carries a udl of 15 kN/m throughout
its length. If EI = 25,000 kN m2, then the maximum deflection in beam is
A 2 mm
B 0.0002 m
C 0.02 mm
D 2m
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.63
B 1.6
C 0.8
D 1.25
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question Which of the follwing is true
A Deflection of beam at any section at a distance x is change in arc length of ealstic curve
for that section
B Deflection of beam at any section at a distance x is strain developed in beam fiber at a

distance x from N.A.
C Deflection of beam at any section at a distance x is angle between tangent to the elastic
curve at a distance x and original position of beam.
D Deflection of beam at any section at a distance x is vertial dispacement of elastic curve
from original positionat a distance x .
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Subject code-202045
Unit-1
D Any one of above
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A mm/mm
B N/cm
C N
D N/cm2
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Strain
B Lateral strain
C Linear strain
D Linear stress
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
is called
B Tensile stress
C Transverse stress
D Working stress
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Ideal material
B Uniform material
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Same
B More
C Less
D Unpredictable
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
the
D None of above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Unit stress
B Bulk modulus
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Surface tension
B Bulk modulus
C strain
D elasticity
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Plasticity
B elasticity
C ductility
D malleability
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Homogeneous
B Inelastic
C Isotropic
D Isentropic
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Plasticity
B Ductility
C elasticity
D malleability
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Poisson’s ratio
B Bulk modulus
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A Remains constant
B Varies with time
D None of these
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
A Elastic limit
D None of these
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
A Hooks law
B Yield point
C Proof stress
D Permanent set
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit A
Id
D None of the above
Answer D
Marks 2
U
Id
A Not deform
B Be safest
C Stretch
D Not stretch
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Young's modulus
B Bulk modulus
D Poisson's ratio
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit A
Id
A 1 to -0.5
B 1 to +0.5
C 0 to +0.5
D 0 to -0.5
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 10 kN/mm2
B 80 kN/mm2
C 100 kN/mm2
D 210 kN/mm2
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Pa
B Kgf/mm2
C Tonne/m2
D any one of these
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A equal to
B less than
C greater than
D Nearly equal to
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A ductile
B brittle
C malleable
D plastic
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 0.1 to 0.9
B 0.05 to 0.1
C 1 to 10
D 0.25 to 0.35
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 1
B 2
C 3
D 4
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
D Equal to strain
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Unit stress
C Bulk modulus
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Plastic limit
B Elastic limit
C Yield point
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A point of failure
B point of rupture
C yield point
D none of these
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A plastic range
B elastic range
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A The same
B One fourth
C Half
D Double
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id

Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Decrease
B Increase
C Remains same
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Young's modulus
B Shear modulus
C Poisson’s ratio
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Cast iron
B Mild steel
C Soft brass
D Aluminum
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Yield strength
C Elastic limit
D Tensile strength
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Two
B Three
C Four
D Six
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Elastic limit
C Ultimate stress
D Breaking point
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
upon the
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 0.7 Nm
B 1.0 Nm
C 1.4 Nm
D 2.8 Nm
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
in length would be
A P/LAE
B PE/AL
C PL/AE
D AL/PE
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
would be
A 0.5
B 0.4
C 0.3
D 1
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 0.66
B 0.33
C 1.33
D 1
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id

Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
incresead
A Increased
B Decreased
C Remains constant
D Either A or B
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Stress to strain
D All of these
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 4PL/πEd2 d1
B 4πEd2 d1 /PL
C 4PE/πLd2 d1
D None of above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Larger end
B Smaller end
C Middle
D anywhere
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
material will be
A Same
B Zero
C Different
D None of above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
will induce
A no stress
B shear stress
C tensile stress
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A no stress
B shear stress
C tensile stress
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A elastic limit
B yield point
C ultimate point
D breaking point
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
D none of these
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
B Upper yield point
C Lower yield point
D Ultimate point
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A doubled
B remain unaffected
C become one-fourth
D become four times
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
the
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 50.00%
B 0.00%
C 10.00%
D 20.00%
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
D none of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 4 kN/cm2
B 8 kN/cm2
C 16 kN/cm2
D None of above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A half
B same
C One third
D One
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A plasticity
B elasticity
C malleability
D ductility
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Steel
B Copper
C Brass
D none of the above
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
called
A reliability
B plasticity
C ductility
D malleability
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A breaking stress
D maximum stress
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A -0.01
B +0.01
C +0.001
D -0.001
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A +0.001 mm
B +0.01mm
C - 0.01 mm
D - 0.001 mm
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A original length
D All of these
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 4 x 10-4
B 2 x 10-4
C 8 x 10-4
D 4 x 10-4
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 50 Pa
B 500 Pa
C 50 MPa
D 500 MPa
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A Doubled
B Half
C Become four time
D Remain unaffected
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
D None of above
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A D1+ d2
B 1/( d1+d2 )
C d1d2
D 1/( d1d2)
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
strains in bar is
A 100* l/L
B 0.1*l/L
C 0.01*l /L
D l/L
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Answer D
Marks 2
--Unit --
Id
A (d1+d2)/2
B (d1-d2)/2
C √( d1d2)
D √(d12-d22)
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
2.Temperature rise
A 1 and 2 only
B 1 and 3 only
C 2 and 3 only
D 1, 2 and 3 only
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 1.25 mm
B 2.70 mm
C 4.05 mm
D 5.40 mm
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A Young's modulus
B Shear modulus
C Poisson's ratio
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 2G(1+ μ )
B 2G(1 − μ )
C 0.5G(1+ μ )
D 0.5G(1 − μ )
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A E = 3 K (1 − 2μ )
B K = 3 E (1 − 2μ )
C E = 3 K (1 − μ )
D K = 3 E (1 − μ )
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 3
C 1, 2 and 4
D 1, 3 and 4
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
least
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A wl3 /6E
B wl3 /E
C wl3 /4E
D wl3 /3E
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
ratio will
A Increase
B Decrease
C Remain same
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 9KG/(K+G)
B 9KG/(G+3K)
C 9KG/(K+3G)
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A wL2/2E
B WL2/6E
C wL2/8E
D wL/8E
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A equal to
B less than
C more than
D Nearly equal to
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A equal to half
B less than half
C more than half
D none of these
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A WL/AE
B 2WL/AE
C WL/2AE
D None of these
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
will be
A 10
B 25
C 33
D 50
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 2
B 4
C 0.5
D 0.25
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit D1
Id
A 1/7
B 2/7
C 3/7
D 4/7
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 0.12
B 0.25
C 0.38
D 0.5
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
called
B Tensile stress
D Working stress.
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A (3σ/E)*(1+ν)
B (3σ/E)*(1-ν)
C (3σ/E)*(1+2ν)
D (3σ/E)*(1-2ν)
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
test would be
A More than 50 %
B 25-50 %
C 10-25 %
D Negligible
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A Same
B Half
C One third
D Double
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A Half
B Double
C Same
D One third
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
3
Id
A 0.01 to 0.1
B 0.25 to 0.33
C 0.4 to 0.6
D 0.23 to 0.27
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A Creeping
B Yielding
C Breaking
D None of above
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
removed.
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
below the Lists:
A A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
B A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
C A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
D A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
a test?
2. Yield stress
3. Ductility
4. Tensile strength
A 1, 3, 5 and 6
B 2, 3, 4 and 6
C 1, 2, 5 and 6
D 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
as heat
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 1:4
B 4:1
C 1:2
D 2:1
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A Linear Elastic
B Linear plastic
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A Linear Elastic
B Linear plastic
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A Cast iron
B Mild Steel
C Aluminum
D Pure copper
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A Cast iron
B Mild Steel
C Aluminum
D Pure copper
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A Cast iron
B Mild Steel
C Aluminum
D Pure copper
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Elastic limit
B Upper yield point
C Lower yield point
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 0.4e
B 0.6e
C 3e
D 1.6 e
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
increase
A eight times
B four times
C three times
D two times
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 3.75
B 3
C 2.5
D 1.5
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 8 x 106 N/mm2
B 8 x 105 N/mm2
C 0.8 x 104 N/mm2
D 0.8 x 105 N/mm2

Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 8 x 106 N/mm2
B 8 x 105 N/mm2
C 0.8 x 104 N/mm2
D 0.8 x 105 N/mm2

Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
will be
A 1/1000
B 1/1200
C 1/2400
D 1/4800
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
ratio is
A 0.25
B 0.30
C 0.33
D 0.35
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 0.25
B 0.326
C 0.356
D 0.28
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 2
B 4
C 1/2
D 1/4
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 50 kN/mm2
B 100 kN/mm2
C 150 kN/mm2
D 200 kN/mm2
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 2.5
B 1.6
C 0.8
D 0.4
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
direction is
A 1.2
B 1.8
C 2.4
D 3.0
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 2 mm
B 0.2 mm
C 0.02 mm
D 0.01 mm
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 250 N/mm2
B 100 N/mm2
C 50 N/mm2
D 25 N/mm2
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A equal to
B less than
C greater than
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 750 N/mm2
B 600 N/mm2
C 500 N/mm2
D None of these
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
specimen is
A 4 tonnes/cm2
B 8 tonnes/cm2
C 16 tonnes/cm2
D 22 tonnes/cm2
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 1000 mm3
B 100 mm3
C 10 mm3
D 5 mm3
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 12 kN
B 6 kN
C 4 kN
D 2 kN
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 300 N/mm2
B 100 N/mm2
C 50 N/mm2
D 33.33 N/mm2
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 1
B 0.5
C 2
D 25
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Question
be....
A 0.0725 mm
B 0.7025 mm
C 0.7025 cm
D 1.7025 mm
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question

Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A 12.73 N/m2
B 12.73 MN/m
C 12.73 MN/m2
D 12.73 KN/m2
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A 88.42 N/m2
B 88.42 GN/m2
C 88.42 KN/m2
D 88.42 MN/m2
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A 9.1777 x10-5 cm
B 9.1777 x10-5m
C 9.1777 x10-5mm
D 9.1777 x10-3mm
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --

Subject code-202045
Unit-2
Id
A n=m
B n>m
C n<m
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A n=m
B n>m
C n<m
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Linear
B Parabolic
C Cubic
D Constant
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Linear
B Parabolic
C Cubic
D constant
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Linear
B Parabolic
C Cubic
D constant
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Linear
B Parabolic
C Cubic
D constant
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Linear
B Parabolic
C Cubic
D constant
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Linear
B Parabolic
C Cubic
D constant
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A SF is zero
B SF is maximum
C BM is zero
D BM is maximum
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Middle
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A UDL
B UVL
C Point load
D moment
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Cantilever beam
B Overhanging beam
D Uniform beam
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A is maximum
B is minimum
C is equal
D is zero
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
B fixed beam
C overhanging beam
D cantilever beam
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
B fixed beam
C overhanging beam
D continuous beam
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A WL
B WL/2
C WL/4
D WL/8
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A wL/2 kNm
B wL2/2 kNm
C wL3/2 kNm
D wL2/4 kNm
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A wL/2 kNm
B wL2/2 kNm
C wL3/2 kNm
D wL2/4 kNm
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 40 kNm
B 80 kNm
C 20 kNm
D 60 kNm
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
B One rectangle
D A triangle
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
C varies linearly
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A cubic law
B parabolic law
C linear law
D none of these
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A cubic law
B parabolic law
C linear law
D none of these
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
load is
A wl2/4
B wl2/8
C wl2/12
D wl/4
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
the
A free end
B mid span
C fixed end
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A cubic law
B parabolic law
C linear law
D uniform law
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A cubic law
B parabolic law
C linear law
D uniform law
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A cubic law
B parabolic law
C linear law
D uniform law
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
end is
A triangle
B rectangle
C parabola
D elliptical
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A zero
B also maximum
C minimum
D of any value
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
of the beam.
B length
C width
D depth
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
_____.
A disc
B strut
C column
D beam
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A inclined
B parallel
C normal
D none of the above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
D All of above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A width
B length
C depth
D cross-section
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Bending moment
B Loading
C Deflection
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
length is a
A Triangle
B Rectangle
C Hyperbola
D Parabola
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
B remains same
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
there is a

Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A a horizontal line
B a vertical line
C an inclined line
D a parabolic curve
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A zero
B wl2/2
C wl2/4
D wl2/8
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id

Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
there is a

Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
there is a

Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A P*(L-a) * a/L
B P*(L-a) * b/L
C P*(L-a) /L
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A P
B P/2
C 3P/5
D 2P/5
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
is maximum SF ?
A w*L
B w*L/2
C 2*w*L
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
is minimum SF ?
A w*L
B w*L/2
C Zero
D None of the above
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A fixed end
B free end
C middle
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A fixed end
B free end
C middle
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
is maximum BM?
A w*L*L
B w*L*L/2
C Zero
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A fixed end
B free end
C middle
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question LOAD SFD
1 POINT LOAD A ZERO
2 UDL B PARABOLIC
3 UVL C LINEAR
4 MOMENT D CONSTANT
Match the pairs
A 1-A; 2-C;3-B;4-D
B 1-D; 2-C;3-B;4-A
C 1-A; 2-B;3-C;4-D
D 1-D; 2-B;3-C;4-A
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question LOAD BMD
2 UDL B CUBIC
3 UVL C PARABOLIC
4 MOMENT D LINEAR
Match the pairs
A 1-A; 2-C;3-B;4-D
B 1-D; 2-C;3-B;4-A
C 1-A; 2-B;3-C;4-D
D 1-D; 2-B;3-C;4-A
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A fixed beam
C continuous beam
D overhanging beam
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A Triangle
B Rectangle
C Parabolic
D hyperbolic
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A Free end
B Under the load
C Fixed end
D middle
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
ID
A 4
B -4.33
C -5.33
D 6.33
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 270
B 80
C 45
D 607.5
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 8
B 1
C 4
D 2
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
will be …
A 10
B 52
C 6
D 24
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A 72 kN-m
B 8 kN-m
C 60 kN-m
D 104 kN-m
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A 126 kN-m
B 12 kN-m
C 18 kN-m
D 180 kN-m
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A at point C
C at point D
D at point B
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question

B at point C
C at point B
D at point D
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A at point A
C at point E
D at point B
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A 90 kN
B 6 kN
C 27 kN
D 30 kN
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A 90 kN
B 6 kN
C 27 kN
D 30 kN
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 90 kN-m
B 540 kN-m
C 180 kN-m
D 18 kN-m
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
d
A PL/3
B 2PL/3
C PL/9
D 2PL/9
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A M/L
B M/L/2
C Zero
D M
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A M at fixed end
B M at free end
C M at middle
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A PL
B PL/2
C PL/4
D 2PL
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A 3 kN
B 1.5 kN
C 1 kN
D 2.25 kN
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A W*L
B W*L/2
C 2W*L
D W/L
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A W*L^2
B W*L^2/2
C 2W*L^2
D W*L/2
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A W*L
B W*L/2
C 2W*L
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A W*L*L
B W*L*L/2
C W*L*L/8
D None of the above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
is
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
d
Question
A M/L
B M/L/2
C 2M/L
D Zero
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A M
B M/2
C 2M
D Zero
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question

C Middle section
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A PL
B 2PL
C zero
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A DA
B AB
C BC
D DC
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A P
B P/2
C P/4
D 2P
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A AB
B BC
C AC
D CAN'T SAY
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A AB
B BC
C AC
D CAN'T SAY
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A 100 N
B 60 N
C 40N
D 50 N
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A 100 Nm
B 300 Nm
C 200 Nm
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 50
B 40
C 30
D 20
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
as follows
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A A circular arc
B A parabolic arc
C Elliptical shape
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
cantilever is
A 0 kN-m
B 50 kN-m
C 25 kN-m
D 100 kN-m
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 30 kN-m
B 20 kN-m
C 10 kN-m
D 5 kN-m
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 120 kN
B 60 kN
C 30 kN
D 15 kN
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
the magnitude of W
A 700 kN
B 750 kN
C 800 kN
D 1000 kN
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A The support
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 120 kN-m
B 100 kN-m
C 80 kN-m
D 60 kN-m
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 5wN
B 3wN
C wN
D 0
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 125 kN
B 105 kN
C 50 kN
D 5 kN
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A zero
B wl/4
C wl/2
D wl
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
support?
A 24 kN
B 20 kN
C 16 kN
D 12 kN
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 72.5 kNm
B 52.5 kNm
C 37.5 kNm
D 47.5 kNm
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
support?
A 90 kN-m
B 80 kN-m
C 70 kN-m
D 60 kN-m
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
left support?
A 3.0 m
B 2.25 m
C 2.5 m
D 1.5 m
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 0 kN-m
B 10 kN-m
C 12.5 kN-m
D 25 kN-m
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 3.6 kN-m
B 1.8 kN-m
C 1 kN-m
D 0 kN-m
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A 4 kN-m
B 2.8 kN-m
C 3.2 kN-m
D 3 kN-m
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
of ___________.
A 1 m from C
B 0.75 m from C
C 2 m from B
D 3 m from A
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 1.2 m from D
B 3.2 m from C
C 1.2 m from C
D 3 m from B
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
AB is _______.
A 4 kN-m
B 18 kN-m
C 36 kN-m
D 2.25 kN-m
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 2.67 m from C
B 1 m from B
C 3 m from A
D 2.67 m from A
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 1.5 m from A
B 0.33 m from A
C 1.33 m from A
D 1 m from A
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --

Subject code-202045
Unit-3
Id
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Maximum
B Minimum
C Zero
D None of them
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Upper fiber
B Lower fiber
C Neutral axis
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
C Both A and B
D None of A and B
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A Linear
B Parabolic
C Cubic
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
C Not related
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Increases
B Decreases
C Remain constant
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A bd^3/6
B bd^2/6
C bd^3/12
D bd^2/12
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
A πd^3/64
B πd^3/32
C πd^2/64
D πd^2/32
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
D None of the above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Constant
B Parabolic
C Cubic
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A Increases
B Decreases
C Remain constant
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Constant
B Parabolic
C Cubic
D Linear
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Outer fibers
B Neutral axis
C Everywhere
D None of above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Outer fibers
B Neutral axis
C Everywhere
D None of above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
D None of these
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A πd4 /64
B πd2 /32
C πd2 /64
D πd4 /32
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Neutral axis
B Extreme fibre
D None of these
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Rectangular
B Circular
C I – section
D None of these
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
will …
A Increase by 50%
B Decrease by 50%
C Increase by 25%
D Decrease by 25%
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Shear modulus
B Bulk modulus
C elastic modulus
D section modulus
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
develop at ....
A Bottom fiber
B Top fiber
C Neutral axis
D Center of gravity
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
A M/Y = E/R
B Y/M=E/R
C M/I = E/R
D M/R=E/I
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
A σb(max)/E
B M/σb(max)
C σb(max)/M
D M/I
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
A I/σbmax
B ymax/I
C σbmax/I
D I/ymax
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id

Answer B
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id

D None of above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
A Continuous beam
B Fixed beam
D None of above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id

Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id

C At the NA
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id

C At the NA
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
A Poisson's ratio
C Modular ratio
D Nodular ratio
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id

Answer D
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
A wL/8
B wL2/8
C wL3/8
D wL2/12
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
be …
A 5 F/(2bd)
B 3 F/(2bd)
C 3 F/(4bd)
D 2 F/(3bd)
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1:8
B 8:1
C 1:2
D 2:1
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1:8
B 8:1
C 1:2
D 2:1
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A to section B?
A 1:8
B 8:1
C 1:4
D 4:1
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
will …
A Increase by 50%
B Decrease by 50%
C Increase by 25%
D Decrease by 25%
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A D²/10
B D³/10
C D4/10
D D4/20
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
to
A (4/5) t d2
B (4/5) t2 d2
C (4/5) d t2
D (5/4) t d2
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A moment of inertia
B stress
C strain
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A M
B M/2
C M/3
D M/4
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 3/2
B 4/3
C 7/4
D 2
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A Π/16
B Π/32
C Π64
D Πd2/32
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A Decrease
B Increase
C Remain same
Answer increase
Marks 2
Unit
Id
is developed at.
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 2Ml/ EI
B Ml/ EI
C Ml/ 2EI
D 4Ml/EI
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 2
B 1.33
C 1
D 0.75
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 0.8
B 0.75
C 0.67
D 0.5
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A equal to
B 4/3 times
C 1.5 times
D twice
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
false
directions
dimensions
bending
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
D None of these
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
B Linear variation
C Cubic variation
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A Flanges only
B Web only
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
axis.
A 2100N, 3660Nm
B 5400N, 486Nm
C 54000N, 4860Nm
D 54005N, 4865Nm
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 1.814
B 1.184
C 4.481
D 8.142
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question
A BD-bd/6D
B BD2-bd2/6D
C B-b/6D
D None of these
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A f.[π(D4-d4)/32D]
B f.[π(D4-d4)/34D]
C f.[π(D2-d2)/32D]
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 11.20N/mm2; 2.750N/mm2
B 11.02N/mm2; 2.755N/mm2
C 2.755N/mm2; 11.02N/mm2
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 36.0 MPa
B 27.0 MPa
C 24.0 MPa
D 21.0 MPa
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 319 Nm
B 281 Nm
C 267 Nm
D 249 Nm
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 116.4 MPa
B 96.4 MPa
C 106.4 MPa
D 126.4 Mpa
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 2.1 kNm
B 2.4 kNm
C 2.7 kNm
D 3.0 kNm
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 145 MPa
B 135 MPa
C 125 MPa
D 175 MPa
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 7.8 MPa
B 9.8 MPa
C 6.8 MPa
D 8.5 MPa
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
be.
A 240 mm
B 120 mm
C 75 mm
D 60 mm
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 3 N/mm2
B 1.5 N/mm2
C 0.75 N/mm2
D 0.0 N/mm2
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
is.
A 0.5q
B 0.75q
C 0.80q
D None of these
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
is.
A 200 N/mm2
B 100N/mm2
C 50N/mm2
D 25N/mm2
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 100 cm3
B 150 cm3
C 75 cm3
D 50 cm3
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
the section is
A 90 N/mm2
B 80 N/mm2
C 60 N/mm2
D 45 N/mm2
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 500 N/mm2
B 250 N/mm2
C 125 N/mm2
D 50 N/mm2
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 20 N/mm2
B 17 N/mm2
C 14 N/mm2
D 6.667 N/mm2
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 20 KN
B 40 KN
C 80 KN
D 100KN
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 20 MPa
B 40 MPa
C 60 MPa
D 80 MPa
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
be
A 96 MPa
B 48 MPa
C 72 MPa
D 24 MPa
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 63.6 MPa
B 31.8 MPa
C 17.6 MPa
D 0
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0
B 107 MPa
C 110 MPa
D 117 MPa
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 103 kg/cm2
B 2 x 103 kg/cm2
C 4 x 103 kg/cm2
D 6 x 103
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 25 MPa
B 50 MPa
C 64 MPa
D 100 MPa
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
be.
A 240 mm
B 120 mm
C 75 mm
D 60 mm
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A Fmax= 205 N/mm2 ; M= 1605Nm
B Fmax= 120 N/mm2 ; M= 160Nm
C Fmax= 200 N/mm2 ; M= 1600Nm
D Fmax= 1200 N/mm2 ; M= 1600Nm
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit

Subject code-202045
Unit-4
Id
A EIy
B E I (dy / dx)
C E I (d2y / dx2)
D E I (d3y / dx3)
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A EIy
B E I (dy / dx)
C E I (d2y / dx2)
D E I (d3y / dx3)
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A [E I (y/dx4)]
B E I (dy/dx)
C E I (d2y/dx2)
D E I (d3y/dx3)
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question E I (d2y/dx2) = _______________.
A SF
B M
C [- w (x)]
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question E I (dy/dx) = _______________.
A M
B Int[M dx]+ C1
D none of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question E I y = _______________.
A M
B Int[M dx]+ C1
D none of the above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A roller
B hinge
C fixed
D all the above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A roller
B hinge
C fixed
D all the above
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A zero
B maximum
C minimum
D none of the above
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A zero
B maximum
C minimum
D none of the above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A zero
B maximum
C minimum
D none of the above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A zero
B maximum
C minimum
D none of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A zero
B maximum
C minimum
D none of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 0<x<L
B 0 < x < L/2
C L/2 < x < L
D none of the above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 0
B L/2
C 3L/4
D L
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 0
B L/2
C 3L/4
D L/4
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 0
B L/2
C 3L/4
D L/4
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 0
B 3L/4
C more than 3L/4
D less than 3L/4
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A L/3
B L/2
C 3L/4
D L/4
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 0
B L/2
C 3L/4
D L/4
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 0
B L/2
C 3L/4
D L/4
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A W L2 / 2EI
B W L2 / 3EI
C W L3 / 3EI
D W L3 / 6EI
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A W L2 / 2EI
B W L2 / 3EI
C W L3 / 3EI
D W L3 / 6EI
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A w L2 / 2EI
B w L2 / 3EI
C w L3 / 3EI
D w L3 / 6EI
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A w L3 / 3EI
B w L3 / 6EI
C w L3 / 8EI
D w L4 / 8EI
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A W L2 / 16 EI
B W L2 / 30 EI
C W L2 / 24 EI
D W L2 / 48 EI
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Elastic curve
B Parabolic curve
C Plastic curve
D None of above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A w L3 / 3 EI
B w L3 / 6 EI
C w a3 / 3 EI
D w a3 / 6 EI
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A w L3 / 3 EI
B w L3 / 6 EI
C w a3 / 3 EI
D w a3 / 6 EI
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Strain energy
B resilience
C Proof resilience
D toughness
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
D all of the above
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A impact energy
B proof resilience
C proof stress
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A equal to
D independent of
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 5WL3/348EI
B 5WL2/384EI
C 5WL3/384EI
D 5WL2/348EI
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
energy
A Kinetic, strain
B Strain, Kinetic
C Potential, Strain
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Zero
B Infinite
C One
D Less than one
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A E
B GI
C EI
D E/I
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Zeroth
B Fourth
C First
D Second
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
EI d2y/dx2 = ___________.
A (W/2)x | -W(x - (L/2))|
B Wx | -W(x - (L/2))|
C (W/2)x | -W(x - L)|
D (W/2)x | + W(x - (L/2))|
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A (wx)/2 - (wx2 /2 )
B w/2 - (wx2 /2 )
C (wLx)/2 - (wL2 /2 )
D (wLx)/2 - (wx2 /2 )
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
the beam.
A slope
B Bending moment
C deflection
D None of above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
D All of above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
________.
B Shear force only
D None of above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 11 W L4 / 120 EI
B W L3 / 30 EI
C W L3 / 24 EI
D W L4 / 48 EI
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A w L3 / 8EI
B w L3 / 6EI
C w L3 / 24EI
D w L4 / 6EI
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A w L3 / 8EI
B w L4 / 8EI
C w L3 / 24EI
D 5 w L4 / 384EI
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A positive
B negative
D None of above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A positive
B negative
D None of above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
end is _________.
A negative
B positive
D None of above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
end is _________.
A Negative
B Positive
D None of above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A positive
B negative
C zero
D Can't say
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A to stop the watch
B to run the watch
D all of these
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
'B' is
A 1/8
B 1/4
C 1/2
D 2
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A M
B √M
C M²
D M³
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A same
B double
C four times
D six times
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A one-fourth
B one-half
C double
D four times
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
d2y/dx2 = ____________________.
A M0
B (-M0)
C (-M0 / L) x | + M0(x - (L/2))2 |
D (M0 / L) x | - M0(x - (L/2))2 |
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.25
B 2
C 4
D 48
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
__________mm.
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 16
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
________˚.
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 32
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.25
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.52
B 0.72
C 0
D 5.2
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.0018˚
B 0.0018 radian
C 0.72˚
D 0.72 radian
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.01
B 10
C 4
D 16
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
be________mm.
A 2
B 4
C 8
D 16
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
be________mm.
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
be________mm.
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
be________mm.
A 0.25
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
be________mm.
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.25
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
_______˚.
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.00167˚
B 0.00167 radian
C 0.72˚
D 0.72 radian
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
_________ mm.
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
_________ mm.
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
_________ mm.
A 0.25
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
_________ mm.
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1.33
B 13.33
C 0.13
D 133.33
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
________mm.
A 0.01
B 10
C 1
D 4
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
will be _________ mm.
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
will be _________ mm.
A 2
B 4
C 8
D 16
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.25
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 3/8
B 3/4
C 4/3
D 8/3
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 8
B 4
C 1/4
D 1/16
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A W2l3/48EI
B W2l3/96EI
C W3l2/48EI
D W3l3/96EI
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A W2l3/48EI
B W2l3/96EI
C W3l2/48EI
D W3l3/96EI
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 5/8
B 8/5
C 5/4
D 4/5
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 2:3
B 3:2
C 1:2
D 2:1
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A M0 L2 / EI
B M0 L2 / 2EI
C 2M0 L2 / EI
D 0
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
end is ________.
A M0 L / EI
B M0 L / 2EI
C 2M0 L / EI
D 0
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A M0 / EI
B M0 L / 24 EI
C M0 L / EI
D M0 L2 / 24 EI
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
deflection is
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
increase by
A 8
B 1/8
C 1/3
D 2
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A b/d
B d/b
C (d/b)2
D (b/d)2
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question
A -Px(3L-x)/6EI
B Px2(3L-x)/6EI
C -Px(3L-x)/6EI
D -Px2(3L-x)/6EI
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question

A PL2/6EI
B PL2/32EI
C PL2/16EI
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
B U = Int. (M2/2GI)
C U = Int. (M/2EJL)
D U = Int. (M/EI)
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question

A U = T2/2GJL
B U = T2/2EI
C U = T/2GJL
D U = T/EI
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question

A P12L3/6E
B P12L3/6EI
C PL/AE
D P12L/6EI
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A positeve
B Negative
C Zero
D None of the above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
support will be
A positeve
B Negative
C Zero
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
midspan will be

C Zero
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Positive
B Negetive
C Zero
D All of above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Positive
B Negetive
C Zero
D All of above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id

C Zero
D All of above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 64/3EI
B 32/3EI
C 8/3EI
D None of these
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
will be __________ mm.
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
__________.
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 32
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
__________.
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 32
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
_________˚.
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
_________˚.
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 2
B 4
C 16
D 32
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 0.25
C 4
D 32
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
m will be _______˚.
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
m will be _______˚.
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1.25
B 0.72
C 0
D 5.2
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
will be ______mm.
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 32
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 32
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 2
B 4
C 16
D 32
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 0.25
C 4
D 32
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
the beam is.
A 1 mm
B 2 mm
C 2.5 mm
D None of these
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 4
B 2
C 1
D 0.25
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 16 mm
B 5 mm
C 2 mm
D 1 mm
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 36/EI
B 27/EI
C 18/EI
D 9/EI
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 6y
B 4y
C 2y
D 1/4y
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 26 mm
B 52 mm
C 2.6 mm
D 10 mm
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
the ratio of
A 8
B 1/8
C 1/2
D 2
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 2 times
B 4 times
C 8 times
D 1/2 times
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A WL
B
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.057 rad
B 0.067 rad
C 0.077 rad
D 0.087 rad
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 53.3 mm
B 63.3 mm
C 73.3 mm
D 83.3 mm
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1.7 mm
B 1.8 mm
C 1.9 mm
D 2.0 mm
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.0166mm
B 1.666mm
C 0.00166mm
D 1.666m
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.133 mm
B 1.333 mm
C 0.00133 mm
D 1.333 m
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 2 mm
B 0.0002 m
C 0.02 mm
D 2m
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.63
B 1.6
C 0.8
D 1.25
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
for that section

Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
1) A simply supported beam carries uniformly distributed load of 20 kN/m over the
length of 5 m. If flexural rigidity is 30000 kN.m2, what is the maximum deflection in the
beam?
a. 5.4 mm
b. 1.08 mm
c. 6.2 mm
d. 8.6 mm
ANSWER: 5.4 mm
Explanation:
2) The design of a beam is based on strength criteria, if the beam is sufficiently strong
to resist _______
a. shear force
b. deflection
c. both a. and b.
ANSWER: shear force

Explanation:
3) The vertical distance between the axis of the beam before and after loading at a point
is called as _______
a. deformation
b. deflection
c. slope
ANSWER: deflection
Explanation:
4) Which of the following is a differential equation for deflection?
a. dy / dx = (M/EI)
b. dy / dx = (MI/E)
c. d2y / dx2 = (M/EI)
d. d2y / dx2 = (ME/I)
ANSWER: d2y / dx2 = (M/EI)

Explanation:
5) Macaulay's method is used to determine ______
a. deflection
b. strength
c. toughness
d. all of the above
ANSWER: deflection
Explanation:
6) Load is gradually applied on a steel plate shown below, what is the modulus of
resilience, if 130 N/mm2 is the maximum stress applied? (Assume E = 100 x 103 Mpa)
a. 0.845 N/mm2
b. 0.0845 N/mm2
c. 0.00845 N/mm2

Explanation:
7) Strain energy stored in a uniform bar is given as ______
a. (σ E/ 2A)
b. (σ L/ 2AE)
c. (σ2 AL/ 4E)
d. (σ2 AL/ 2E)
ANSWER: (σ2 AL/ 2E)

Explanation:
8) Modulus of resilience is the ratio of ______
a. minimum strain energy and unit volume

b. maximum stress energy and unit volume
c. proof resilience and unit volume
d. resilience and unit area
ANSWER: proof resilience and unit volume

Explanation:
9) What is the strain energy stored in a cube of 50 mm, when it is subjected to shear
stress of 200 Mpa. (G = 100 Gpa)
a. 25 Nm
b. 75 Nm
c. 125 Nm
d. 150 Nm
ANSWER: 25 Nm
Explanation:
10) Energy stored in a body within an elastic limit is called as _____
a. resilience
b. strain energy
c. both a. and b.

Explanation:
11) A member subjected to couple produces rotational motion about its longitudinal
axis called as ________
a. torsion
b. twisting moment
c. both a. and b.

Explanation:
12) What is the maximum principle stress induced in a solid shaft of 40 mm diameter
which is subjected to both bending moment and torque of 300 kN.mm and 150 kN.mm
respectively?
a. 21.69 N/mm2
b. 28.1 N/mm2
c. 50.57 N/mm2
d. 52.32 N/mm2
ANSWER: 50.57 N/mm2

Explanation:
13) What is the maximum shear stress induced in a solid shaft of 50 mm diameter which
is subjected to both bending moment and torque of 300 kN.mm and 200 kN.mm
respectively?
a. 9.11 N/mm2
b. 14.69 N/mm2
c. 16.22 N/mm2
d. 20.98 N/mm2
ANSWER: 14.69 N/mm2

Explanation:
14) Torque and bending moment of 100 kN.m and 200 kN.m acts on a shaft which has
external diameter twice of internal diameter. What is the external diameter of the shaft
which is subjected to a maximum shear stress of 90 N/mm2?
a. 116.5 mm
b. 233.025 mm
c. 587.1 mm
d. 900 mm
ANSWER: 587.1 mm
Explanation:
15) Which of the following assumptions are made in torsion theory?
a. Shaft is perfectly straight

b. Material of the shaft is heterogeneous
c. Twist cannot be uniform along the length of the shaft
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Shaft is perfectly straight

Explanation:
16) While determining crippling load, the effective length of solid circular bar is 1/ √2 of
actual length if, _______
a. both ends of solid circular bar are fixed

b. both ends of solid circular bar are hinged
c. one end is fixed and one is free
d. one end is fixed and other end is hinged
ANSWER: one end is fixed and other end is hinged

Explanation:
17) Rankine-Gordon's empirical formula is applicable for _____
a. long column
b. short column
c. both a. and b.

Explanation:
18) What is the safe load acting on a long column of 2 m having diameter of 40 mm. The
column is fixed at both the ends and modulus of elasticity is 2 x 10 5 N/mm2? (F.O.S = 2)
a. 120 kN
b. 124 kN
c. 130 kN
d. 150 kN
ANSWER: 124 kN
Explanation:
19) If the effective length of a column is twice the actual length, then the column is
________
a. fixed at both the ends

b. hinged at both the ends
c. fixed at one end and free at the other end
d. fixed at one end and hinged at the other end
ANSWER: fixed at one end and free at the other

end
Explanation:
20) What is the value of Rankine's constant for cast iron?
a. 1 / 750
b. 1 / 1600
c. 1 / 7500
d. 1 / 9000
ANSWER: 1 / 1600
Explanation:
21) Which of the following formulae is used to calculate tangential stress, when a
member is subjected to stress in mutually perpendicular axis and accompanied by a
shear stress?
a. [(σx – σy)/2 ]sin θ – τ cos 2θ

b. [(σx – σy)/2 ]– τ cos 2θ
c. [(σx – σy)/2 ]sin θ – τ2 cos θ
ANSWER: [(σx – σy)/2 ]sin θ – τ cos 2θ

Explanation:
22) What is the value of shear stress acting on a plane of circular bar which is subjected
to axial tensile load of 100 kN? (Diameter of bar = 40 mm , θ = 42.3o)
a. 58.73 Mpa
b. 40.23 Mpa
c. 39.60 Mpa
ANSWER: 39.60 Mpa

Explanation:
23) The maximum tangential stress σt = (σx sin 2θ)/2 is maximum if, θ is equal to
________
a. 45o
b. 90o
c. 270o
d. all of the above
ANSWER: 45o
Explanation:
24) The angle between normal stress and tangential stress is known as angle of ______
a. declination
b. orientation
c. obliquity
d. rotation
ANSWER: obliquity
Explanation:
25) Minor principal stress has minimum ________
a. value of shear stress acting on the plane

b. intensity of direct stress
c. both a. and b.
ANSWER: intensity of direct stress

Explanation:
26) According to maximum strain energy theory, failure of material due to complex
stresses occurs when total stored energy per unit volume at a point ___________
a. reaches the value of yield point

b. reaches the value of strain energy stored per unit volume at yield point
c. reaches the value of strain energy stored per unit volume at elastic limit
d. exceeds total strain energy caused by uniaxial stress at elastic point
ANSWER: reaches the value of strain energy

stored per unit volume at elastic limit
Explanation:
27) Principal stress of 30 Mpa and -70 Mpa acts on a material which has elastic limit
stress in simple tension and compression as 60 Mpa and 200 Mpa respectively. Specify
the reason for failure of the material assuming maximum principle stress theory.
a. Compression
b. Tension
c. Unpredictable
ANSWER: Tension
Explanation:
28) A circular bar is subjected to an axial force and shear force, the difference between
two principle stresses is 120 Mpa. Based on maximum shear stress theory what is the
factor of safety, if elastic limit of the bar is 300 Mpa?
a. .5
b. 2
c. 2.5
d. 3
ANSWER: 2.5
Explanation:
29) For designing ductile materials, which of the following theories is/are used?

b. Shear strain energy theory
c. Both a. and b.

Explanation:
30) Shear stress energy theory is called as ______
a. distortion theory
b. Von Mises theory
c. both a. and b.

Explanation:
1) The ratio of effective length and least lateral dimension for short column is _______
a. > 12
b. < 12
c. ≥ 12
ANSWER: < 12
Explanation:
2) In Euler's theory, long columns having the ratio of (Le /LLD) ≥ 12 fail due to _______
a. crushing
b. buckling
c. both a. and b.
ANSWER: buckling
Explanation:
3) Euler's formula is applicable only _________
1. for short columns

2. for long columns
3. if slenderness ratio is greater than √(π2 E / σc)
4. if crushing stress < buckling stress
5. if crushing stress ≥ buckling stress
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2, 3 and 5
c. 3 and 4
d. all of the above
ANSWER: 2, 3 and 5
Explanation:
4) Slenderness ratio is the ratio of effective length of column and ________
a. lateral dimension of a column

b. least radius of gyration of a column
c. maximum radius of gyration of a column
ANSWER: least radius of gyration of a column

Explanation:
5) What is the relation between actual length and effective length while determining
crippling load for a hollow rectangular cast iron column having both ends fixed?
(where L= actual length and Le =effective length)
a. Le = L
b. Le = L/2
c. Le = 2L
d. Le = 4L
ANSWER: Le = L/2
Explanation:
6) Principal stress is the magnitude of ________ stress acting on the principal plane.
a. Normal stress
b. Shear stress
c. Both a. and b.
ANSWER: Normal stress

Explanation:
7) When a component is subjected to axial stress the normal stress σn is maximum, if

cos θ is _______ . (σn=σxCos2θ)
1. maximum
2. minimum
3. always one
4. always zero
a. 1 and 4
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 3
d. 2 and 4
ANSWER: 1 and 3
Explanation:
8) Which of the following stresses can be determined using Mohr's circle method?
a. Torsional stress
b. Bending stress
c. Principal stress
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Principal stress

Explanation:
9) The graphical method of Mohr's circle represents shear stress (τ) on ______
a. X-axis
b. Y-axis
c. Z-axis
ANSWER: Y-axis
Explanation:
10) In Mohr's circle method, compressive direct stress is represented on ____
a. positive x-axis
b. positive y-axis
c. negative x-axis
d. negative y-axis
ANSWER: negative x-axis

Explanation:
11) St. Venant's theory is also known as maximum _________

a. principle stress theory
b. shear stress theory
c. principle strain theory
d. strain energy theory
ANSWER: principle strain theory

Explanation:
12) According to Coulomb's theory, material subjected to complex stresses fails, if

________ shear stress induced in the material exceeds _______ shear stress at the yield
point.
a. minimum, maximum
b. maximum, minimum
c. maximum, maximum
d. minimum, minimum
ANSWER: maximum, maximum

Explanation:
13) In simple tensile test, when maximum principle stress reaches the value of yield
point, the material subjected to complex stresses fail. This theory is called as ________.
a. Coulumb's theory
b. Rankine's theory
c. Venant's theory
d. Von Mises theory
ANSWER: Rankine's theory

Explanation:
14) Which theory gives satisfactory results for brittle materials?

b. Maximum principle stress theory
c. Shear strain energy theory
ANSWER: Maximum principle stress theory

Explanation:
15) In maximum principle strain theory, maximum principal strain for no failure
condition is ________
a. e = (σx - σy )/ E +τ2
b. e = qmax ≥ qyp
c. e = σyp / E
ANSWER: e = σyp / E
Explanation:
16) Modulus of rigidity is the ratio of ______
a. Lateral strain and linear strain

b. Linear stress and lateral strain
c. Shear stress and shear strain
d. Shear strain and shear stress
ANSWER: Shear stress and shear strain

Explanation:
17) The relation between modulus of elasticity (E), modulus of rigidity (G) and bulk
modulus (K) is given as ________
a. K+G / (3K+ G)
b. 3 KG / (3K+ G)
c. 3 KG / (9K+ G)
d. 9 KG / (3K+ G)
ANSWER: 9 KG / (3K+ G)
Explanation:
18) In the diagram shown below, a tensile load of 50 kN is applied axially. What is the
increase in length of the rectangular tapered plate of width 10 mm. (Assume E = 220 Gpa)
a. 0.10 mm
b. 0.161 mm
c. 0.126 mm
d. 0.56 mm
ANSWER: 0.126 mm
Explanation:
19) What is the bulk modulus of a material, if a cube of 100 mm changes its volume to
4000 mm3 when subjected to compressive force of 2.5 x 10 6 N?
a. 62.5 Gpa
b. 65 Gpa
c. 67.5 Gpa
d. 70 Gpa
ANSWER: 62.5 Gpa

Explanation:
20) When a rectangular bar is uniaxially loaded, the volumetric strain (e v) is given as
________
a. σx / E(1- μ)
b. σx / E(1+ μ)
c. σx / E(1- 2μ)
d. σx / E(1+2μ)
ANSWER: σx / E(1- 2μ)

Explanation:
21) In a circuit box, a copper rod at room temperature of 25 o C has a gap of 0.3 mm
between the end of the rod Q and the rigid wall. If temperature of the rod increases to
70o C ,then what is the compressive stress acting on the rod PQ? (Assume Young's
modulus = 100 Gpa & α = 15 x 10 –6 /oC)
a. 6 Mpa
b. 7.5 Mpa
c. 8.2 Mpa
ANSWER: 7.5 Mpa

Explanation:
22) The value of elasticity increases, when temperature _____
a. increases
b. decreases
c. remains constant
ANSWER: decreases
Explanation:
23) If a composite bar of copper and steel is heated at 120o C, the stress induced in
copper bar is _______
a. compressive stress
b. shear stress
c. tensile stress
d. thermal stress
ANSWER: compressive stress

Explanation:
24) Thermal stress is not a function of _____
a. change in temperature
b. coefficient of linear expansion
c. modulus of elasticity

Explanation:
25) What is the value of thermal stress, if a rod of 3 m is heated at 50 oC and is fixed at
both the ends?
(Take α = 10 x 10-6 /oC & E= 200 x 103 Mpa)
a. 25 Mpa
b. 50 Mpa
c. 100 Mpa
d. 150 Mpa
ANSWER: 100 Mpa

Explanation:
26) The graphical representation of variation of axial load on y axis and position of
cross section along x axis is called as _____
a. Bending moment diagram

b. Shear force diagram
c. Stress-strain diagram
d. Trust diagram
ANSWER: Trust diagram

Explanation:
27) What is the maximum bending moment acting on simply supported beam shown
below?
a. 2000 Nm
b. 3000 Nm
c. 4000 Nm
d. 6000 Nm
ANSWER: 3000 Nm
Explanation:
28) What is the maximum shear force acting on the beam shown below.
a. 125 N
b. 200 N
c. 4000 N
d. 8000 N
ANSWER: 200 N
Explanation:
29) A 10 m long cantilever beam is fixed at point B. What is the bending moment at point
B, if 5 m span of AC carries uniform distributed load of 10 kN/m?
a. 125 kN/m
b. 200 kN/m
c. 375 kN/m
d. 500 kN/m
ANSWER: 375 kN/m

Explanation:
30) The diagram shown below, depicts bending diagram for ______
a. cantilever beam with uniformly distributed load
b. cantilever beam with uniformly distributed load only on half side of the beam
c. simply supported beam with varying distributed load
d. simply supported beam with uniformly distributed load
ANSWER: simply supported beam with uniformly

distributed load
Explanation:
31) Moment of inertia acting on a semi-circle about symmetrical axes is given as

_______
a. 1.57 r4
b. 0.055 r4
c. 0.392 r4
d. 0.11 r4
ANSWER: 0.392 r4
Explanation:
32) What is the product of sectional modulus and allowable bending stress called as?
a. Moment of inertia
b. Moment of rigidity
c. Moment of resistance
d. Radius of gyration
ANSWER: Moment of resistance

Explanation:
33) A uniformly distributed load of 20 kN/m acts on a simply supported beam of

rectangular cross section of width 20 mm and depth 60 mm. What is the maximum
bending stress acting on the beam of 5m?
a. 5030 Mpa
b. 5208 Mpa
c. 6600 Mpa
ANSWER: 5208 Mpa

Explanation:
34) The bending formula is given as _____
a. (M/E) = (σ/y) = (R/I)

b. (M/y) = (σ/I) = (E/R)
c. (M/I) = (σ/y) = (E/R)
ANSWER: (M/I) = (σ/y) = (E/R)

Explanation:
35) Which of the following laminas have same moment of inertia (I xx = Iyy), when passed
through the centroid along x-x and y-y axes?
a. Circle
b. Semi-circle
c. Right angle triangle
d. Isosceles triangle
ANSWER: Circle
Explanation:
36) A circular pipe is subjected to maximum shear force of 60 kN. What is the diameter
of the pipe if maximum allowable shear stress is 5 Mpa?
a. 27.311 mm
b. 75.56 mm
c. 142.72 mm
d. 692.10 mm
ANSWER: 142.72 mm
Explanation:
37) What is the shear stress acting along the neutral axis of triangular beam section,
with base 60 mm and height 150 mm, when shear force of 30 kN acts?
a. 15.36 N/mm2
b. 10.6 N/mm2
c. 8.88 N/mm2
ANSWER: 8.88 N/mm2

Explanation:
38) The ratio of maximum shear stress to average shear stress is 4/3 in _______
a. circular cross-section
b. rectangular cross-section
c. square cross-section
d. all of the above
ANSWER: circular cross-section

Explanation:
39) What is the average shear stress acting on a rectangular beam, if 50 N/mm2 is
the maximum shear stress acting on it?
a. 31.5 N/mm2
b. 33.33 N/mm2
c. 37.5 N/mm2
d. 42.5 N/mm2
ANSWER: 33.33 N/mm2

Explanation:
40) Why are shear connectors used?
a. Interconnect planks
b. To avoid sliding between planks
c. Both a. and b.

Explanation:
1) The ratio of stress and strain is known as _____
a. Modulus of elasticity
b. Young's modulus
c. Both a. and b.

Explanation:
2) The actual breaking stress in stress-strain diagram is the ratio of ______
a. load at breaking point and original cross-sectional area

b. load at breaking point and reduced cross-sectional area
c. maximum load and original cross-sectional area
d. yield load and original cross-sectional area
ANSWER: load at breaking point and reduced

cross-sectional area
Explanation:
3) A rigid body has Poisson's ratio equal to _____
a. 0
b. 1
c. less than 1
d. greater than one
ANSWER: 0
Explanation:
4) A rectangular bar has volume of 1.5 x 10 6 mm3. What is the change in volume, if
stresses in x, y and z direction are 100 Mpa, 150 Mpa and 160 Mpa respectively. (Assume
K = 2 x 105 N/mm2 & μ = 0.3)
a. 1000 mm3
b. 1230 mm3
c. 1500 mm3
d. 2000 mm3
ANSWER: 1230 mm3

Explanation:
5) Two parallel, equal and opposite forces acting tangentially to the surface of the body
is called as _____
a. Complementary stress
b. Compressive stress
c. Shear stress
d. Tensile stress
ANSWER: Shear stress

Explanation:
6) Which stress is induced in a member, when expansion or contraction due to

temperature variation is prevented?
a. Compressive stress
b. Tensile stress
c. Thermal stress
ANSWER: Thermal stress

Explanation:
7) The thermal stress induced in a steel rod is compressive, if temperature _____
a. decreases
b. increases
c. remains constant
ANSWER: increases
Explanation:
8) The deformation of a material caused due temperature variation develops ______
a. stress
b. strain
c. both a. and b.

Explanation:
9) In the diagram shown below, material A and B expand freely as shown in condition
(2). If expansion is prevented for equilibrium condition(3) to reach, then
a. tensile force exerted by material B on A is equal to tensile force exerted by A on B.
b. tensile force exerted by material B on A is equal to compressive force exerted by A on B.
c. compressive force exerted by material B on A is equal to tensile force exerted by A on B.
d. no force acts on the composite member in equilibrium conditions
ANSWER: tensile force exerted by material B on A

is equal to compressive force exerted by A on B.
Explanation:
10) Force of 100 kN is applied on 900 mm long rod of 20 mm diameter and is

simultaneously heated at 70o C. What is the total elongation of the rod? (Assume
coefficient of thermal expansion = 10 x 10 –6 oC, Young's modulus = 150 Gpa)
a. 2.54 mm
b. 2.00 mm
c. 1.27 mm
d. 0.63 mm
ANSWER: 2.54 mm
Explanation:
11) The beam having one end free and one end fixed is called as _______
a. Cantilever beam
b. Continuous beam
c. Overhang beam
d. Simply supported beam
ANSWER: Cantilever beam

Explanation:
12) The concavity produced on the beam section about the centre line when downward
force acts on it is called as __
a. Hogging or positive bending moment

b. Hogging or negative bending moment
c. Sagging or positive bending moment
d. Sagging or negative bending moment
ANSWER: Hogging or negative bending moment

Explanation:
13) In axial thrust diagram, at which point bending moment is zero?

a. Point of contra-flexure
b. Point of inflection
c. Both a. and b.

Explanation:
14) Uniformly varying load between two sections in shear force diagram is represented
by ____
a. cubic curve
b. inclined line
c. horizontal line
d. parabolic curve
ANSWER: parabolic curve

Explanation:
15) In bending moment diagram, if no load acts between two sections, then it is
represented by _______
a. horizontal line
b. inclined line
c. vertical line
d. all of the above
ANSWER: inclined line

Explanation:
16) What is the S.I. unit of sectional modulus?
a. mm4
b. mm3
c. mm2
d. m
ANSWER: mm3
Explanation:
17) What is the moment of inertia acting on a rectangle of width 15 mm and depth 40
mm about base by using theorem of parallel axes?
a. 320 x 103 mm4

b. 300 x 103 mm4
c. 240 x 103 mm4
d. 80 x 103 mm4
ANSWER: 320 x 103 mm4

Explanation:
18) What is the moment of inertia acting on a circle of diameter 50 mm?
a. 122.71 x 103 mm4

b. 306.79 x 103 mm4
c. 567.23 x 103 mm4
d. 800 x 103 mm4
ANSWER: 306.79 x 103 mm4

Explanation:
19) Which of the following relations is used to represent theorem of perpendicular

axes?
(H = Vertical axis, I = Moment of inertia and K = Radius of gyration)
a. IPQ = Ixx + AH2

b. IPQ = Ixx + Ak2
c. Izz = Ixx + Iyy
d. Izz + Ixx + Iyy = 0
ANSWER: Izz = Ixx + Iyy

Explanation:
20) What is the moment of inertia acting on a semicircle of radius 20 mm about the
asymmetrical axes?
a. 125.663 x 103 mm4

b. 17600 mm4
c. 1500 mm4
d. 8800 mm4
ANSWER: 17600 mm4

Explanation:
21) The shear stress acting on the neutral axis of a beam is _____
a. maximum
b. minimum
c. zero
ANSWER: maximum
Explanation:
22) Maximum shear stress in a triangular section ABC of height H and base B occurs at
_________
a. H
b. H/2
c. H/3
d. neutral axis
ANSWER: H/2
Explanation:
23) What is the shear stress acting along the neutral axis, over a triangular section?
a. 2.66 (S/bh)
b. 1.5 (S/bh)
c. 0.375 (S/bh)
ANSWER: 2.66 (S/bh)

Explanation:
24) The average shear stress in a beam of circular section is _______ times the
maximum shear stress.
a. 0.75
b. 1.5
c. 4/3
d. equal
ANSWER: 0.75
Explanation:
25) A square object of 4 mm is subjected to a force of 3000 N. What is the maximum

allowable shear stress acting on it?
a. 250.14 mm2
b. 281.25 mm2
c. 400.32 mm2
d. 500 mm2
ANSWER: 281.25 mm2

Explanation:
26) According to I.S. code in actual design, maximum permissible deflection is limited
to _______
a. (span / 200)
b. (span / 325)
c. (span / 525)
ANSWER: (span / 325)

Explanation:
27) In cantilever beam, slope and deflection at free end is _____
a. zero
b. maximum
c. minimum
ANSWER: maximum
Explanation:
28) Which of the following is an elastic curve equation for shear force?
(EI = flexural rigidity)
a. S = EI (dy/dx)
b. S = EI (d2y /dx2)
c. S = EI (d3y / dx3)
d. S = EI (d4y/ dx4)
ANSWER: S = EI (d3y / dx3)

Explanation:
29) Deflection of a simply supported beam when subjected to central point load is given
as ________
a. (Wl /16 EI)
b. (Wl2 /16 EI)
c. (Wl3 /48 EI)
d. (5Wl4 / 384EI)
ANSWER: (Wl3 /48 EI)

Explanation:
30) Which of the following statements is/are true for a simply supported beam?
a. Deflection at supports in a simply supported beam is maximum

b. Deflection is maximum at a point where slope is zero
c. Slope is minimum at supports in a simply supported beam
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Deflection is maximum at a point where

slope is zero
Explanation:
31) What is the strain energy caused due to self weight in a cylindrical bar?
a. (W 2 L) / (6 AE)
b. (W L) / (8 AE)
c. (τ2/ 2G)V
d. (τ2/ G)V
ANSWER: (W2 L) / (6 AE)

Explanation:
32) Stress on an object due to sudden load is _________ the stress induced when the
load is applied gradually.
a. equal to
b. half
c. twice
d. thrice
ANSWER: twice
Explanation:
33) What is the strain energy stored in a simply supported beam due to bending
moment?
a. ∫ (M2/EI)
b. ∫ (M2/2EI)
c. ∫ (M/2EI)
d. ∫ (2M/EI)
ANSWER: ∫ (M2/2EI)
Explanation:
34) What is the maximum stress induced in a bar 2500 mm2, when a load of 2000 kN is
applied suddenly?
a. 400 N/mm2
b. 800 N/mm2
c. 1600 N/mm2
ANSWER: 1600 N/mm2

Explanation:
35) What is the proof resilience of a square bar of 2500 mm2 and 200 mm long, when a
load of 150 kN is induced gradually?
(Take E = 150 x 103 Mpa)
a. 45 J
b. 8 J
c. 5.3 J
d. 6 J
ANSWER: 6 J
Explanation:
36) In the relation ( T/J = Gθ/L = τ/ R), the letter G denotes modulus of ______
a. elasticity
b. plasticity
c. rigidity
d. resilience
ANSWER: rigidity
Explanation:
37) Which of the following relation represents torsional flexibility?

a. GJ
b. GL
c. GJ / L
d. L / GJ
ANSWER: L / GJ
Explanation:
38) What is the S.I. unit of torsional rigidity?
a. Nm
b. N.m2
c. Nm/ radian
ANSWER: N.m2
Explanation:
39) What is the shear stress acting on the outer surface of a hollow shaft subjected to a
torque of 100 Nm?
(The inner and outer diameter of the shaft is 15 mm and 30 mm respectively.)
a. 50.26 N/mm2
b. 40.24 N/mm2
c. 20.120 N/mm2
d. 8.74 N/mm2

Explanation:
40) Stress in the cross section of a shaft at the centre ________
a. is zero
b. decreases linearly to the maximum value of at outer surface
c. both a. and b.
ANSWER: is zero
Explanation:
1. The dimension of strain is?
a) LT-2
b) N/m2
c) N
d) Dimensionless
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Strain is the ratio of change in dimension to original dimension. So it is
dimensionless.
2. What is tensile strain?

a) The ratio of change in length to the original length
b) The ratio of original length to the change in length
c) The ratio of tensile force to the change in length
d) The ratio of change in length to the tensile force applied
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The tensile stress is the ratio of tensile force to the change i length. It is the stress
induced in a body when subjected to two equal and opposite pulls. The ratio of change in length
to the original length is the tensile strain.
a) 0.025
b) 0.0012
c) 0.0046
d) 0.0014
View Answer
Answer: b
4. Find the elongation of an steel rod of 100mm length when it is subjected to a tensile strain of
0.005?
a) 0.2mm
b) 0.3mm
c) 0.5mm
d) 0.1mm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: dL = strain x L = 0.005 x 100 = 0.5mm.
5. A tensile test was conducted on a mild steel bar. The diameter and the gauge length of bat was
3cm and 20cm respectively. The extension was 0.21mm. What is the value to strain?
a) 0.0010
b) 0.00105
c) 0.0105
d) 0.005
View Answer
Answer: b
6. i) Strain is a fundamental behaviour of a material.

ii) Strain does not have a unit.
a) Both i and ii are true and ii is the correct explanation of i
b) Both i and ii ate true but ii is not the correct explanation of i
c) i is true but ii is false
d) ii is true but i is false
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Strain is measured in a laboratory that is why it is called a fundamental quantity.
Also since it is the ratio of the dimension of length to the dimension of length, it is
dimensionless.
7. A tensile test was conducted on a steel bar. The gauge length of the bar was 10cm and the
extension was 2mm. What will be the percentage elongation?
a) 0.002
b) 0.02
c) 0.2
d) 2
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The percentage elongation = dL/L x 100 = 2/100 x 100 = 2.
8. The lateral strain is ___________

a) The ratio of axial deformation to the original length
b) The ratio of deformation in area to the original area
c) The strain at right angles to the direction of applied load
d) The ratio of length of body to the tensile force applied on it
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The lateral strain is the strain at right angles to the direction of the applied load. The
lateral strain is accompanied by the longitudinal strain.
9. The unit of force in S.I. units is ?
a) Kilogram
b) Newton
c) Watt
d) Dyne
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Force = mass x acceleration = kg x m/s2 = N.
10. Which of the following is not the unit of distance?

a) Angstrom
b) Light year
c) Micron
d) Milestone
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Milestone means achievement. it is not and unit of distance.
11. A solid cube is subjected to equal normal forces on all its faces. The volumetric strain will be
x-times the linear strain in any of the three axes when?
a) X=1
b) X=2
c) X=3
d) X=4
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The volumetric strain is the change in dimension in three directions and the linear
strain depends on the change in only one direction so the volumetric strain is 1 times the linear
strain in any of the three directions.
12. A rod 200cm long is subjected to an axial pull due to which it elongates about 2mm.
Calculate the amount of strain?
a) 0.001
b) 0.01
c) 0.02
d) 0.002
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The strain is given by = dL / L = 2/2000 = 0.001.
13. Some structural members subjected to a long time sustained loads deform progressively with
time especially at elevated temperatures. What is such a phenomenon called?
a) Fatigue
b) Creep
c) Creep relaxation
d) Fracture
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Creep is the deformation progressively with time. It comes when the body is
subjected to long time load. After the instant deflection due to load, the deformation occurs
slowly with time.
a) 0.01
b) 0.001
c) 0.05
d) 0.005
View Answer
Answer: b
1. The property by which a body returns to its original shape after removal of the force is called
__________
a) Plasticity
b) Elasticity
c) Ductility
d) Malleability
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When an external force acts on a body, the body tends to undergo some
deformation. If the external force is removed and the body comes back to its original shape and
size, the body is known as elastic body and this property is called elasticity.
2. The property of a material by which it can be beaten or rolled into thin plates is called
__________
a) Malleability
b) Plasticity
c) Ductility
d) Elasticity
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A material can be beaten into thin plates by its property of malleability.
3. Which law is also called as the elasticity law?
b) Stress law
c) Hooke’s law
d) Poisson’s law
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The hooke”s law is valid under the elastic limit of a body. It itself states that stress
is proportional to the strain within the elastic limit.
a) Isotropic
b) Brittle
c) Homogeneous
d) Hard
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Same elastic properties in all direction is called the homogenity of a material.
5. A member which does not regain its original shape after removal of the load producing
deformation is said __________
a) Plastic
b) Elastic
c) Rigid
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A plastic material does not regain its original shape after removal of load. An
elastic material regain its original shape after removal of load.
6. The body will regain it is previous shape and size only when the deformation caused by the
external forces, is within a certain limit. What is that limit?
a) Plastic limit
b) Elastic limit
c) Deformation limit
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The body only regain its previous shape and size only upto its elastic limit.
a) Isotropic
b) Brittle
c) Homogenous
d) Hard
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Isotropic materials have the same elastic properties in all directions.
8. As the elastic limit reaches, tensile strain __________

a) Increases more rapidly
b) Decreases more rapidly
c) Increases in proportion to the stress
d) Decreases in proportion to the stress
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: On reaching the tensile stress to the elastic limit after the proportionality limit, the
stress is no longer proportional to the strain. Then the value of strain rapidly increases.
9. What kind of elastic materials are derived from a strain energy density function?
a) Cauchy elastic materials
b) Hypo elastic materials
c) Hyper elastic materials
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The hyper elastic materials are derived from a strain energy density function. A
model is hyper elastic if and only if it is possible to express the cauchy stress tensor as a function
of the deformation gradient.
10. What the number that measures an object’s resistance to being deformed elastically when
stress is applied to it?
a) Elastic modulus
b) Plastic modulus
d) Stress modulus
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The elastic modulus is the ratio of stress to strain.
1. The law which states that within elastic limits strain produced is proportional to the stress
producing it is known as _____________
b) Hooke’s law
c) Stress law
d) Poisson’s law
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Hooke’s law states that strain is directly proportional to strain produced by the
stress when a material is loaded within the elastic limit.
2. For an isotropic, homogeneous and elastic material obeying Hooke’s law, the number of
independent elastic constants is ____________
a) 2
b) 3
c) 9
d) 1
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: There are 3 constants Young’s modulus, Shear modulus and Bulk modulus.

a) The ratio of stress to strain
b) The raio of permissible stress to the ultimate stress
c) The ratio of ultimate stress to the permissible stress
d) The ratio of longitudinal strain to stress
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Factor of safety is the ratio of ultimate stress to the permissible stress.
4. What is Hooke’s law for the 1-D system?

a) The relation between normal stress and the corresponding strain
b) The relation between shear stress and the corresponding strain
c) The relation between lateral strain and the corresponding stress
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: For the 1-D system, the stress will be only in one direction. Lateral stress is for an
area while normal stress is of a length.
5. Limit of proportionality depends upon ____________

a) Area of cross-section
b) Type of loading
c) Type of material
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The proportionality limit is proportional to the area of cross-section. The material
type and loading type will have no influence on the proportionality limit.
6. The stress at which extension of a material takes place more quickly as compared to the
increase in load is called ____________
a) Elastic point
b) Plastic point
c) Breaking point
d) Yielding point
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: On the stress strain curve, on the elastic point the stress of a material takes place
more quickly.
7. Which of these is a non-hoookean material?

a) Steel
b) Rubber
c) Aluminium
d) Copper
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Rubber is generally regarded as a “non-hookean” material because its elasticity is
stress dependent and sensitive to temperature and loading rate.
8. Where in the stress-strain curve, the hooke’s law is valid?

a) Strain hardening region
b) Necking region
c) Elastic range
d) Valid everywhere
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The hooke’s law itself states that it is valid only up to the elastic range of the
material I.e. only to that limit where the material is behaving elastic.
9. Highest value of stress for which Hooke’s law is applicable for a given material is called
____________
a) Stress limit
b) Strain limit
c) Proportional limit
d) Significant limit
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The hooke’s law is valid only when the stress is proportional to the strain, that is
only in the proportionality limit
1. The slope of the stress-strain curve in the elastic deformation region is ____________
a) Elastic modulus
b) Plastic modulus
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The elastic modulus is the ratio of stress and strain. So on the stress strain curve, it
is the slope.
2. What is the stress-strain curve?

a) It is the percentage of stress and stain
b) It is the relationship between stress and strain
c) It is the difference between stress and strain
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The relationship between stress and strain on a graph is the stress strain curve. It
represents the change in stress with change in strain.
3. Which point on the stress strain curve occurs after the proportionality limit?
c) Elastic limit
d) Ultimate point
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The curve will be stress strain proportional upto the proportionality limit. After
these, the elastic limit will occur.
4. Which point on the stress strain curve occurs after the lower yield point?
a) Yield plateau
c) Ultimate point
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The points on the curve comes in the given order,
A. proportionality limit
B. elastic limit
C. upper yield point
D. lower yield point
E. yield plateau
F. ultimate point
G. breaking point.
5. Which point on the stress strain curve occurs after yield plateau?
a) lower yield point
c) Ultimate point
d) Breaking point
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: After the yield plateau the curve will go up to its maximum limit of stress which is
its ultimate point.
6. Which point on the stress strain curve occurs after the ultimate point?
a) Last point
b) Breaking point
c) Elastic limit
d) Material limit
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: After the ultimate point the value of stress will reduce on increasing of strain and
ultimately the material will break.
7. Elastic limit is the point ____________

a) up to which stress is proportional to strain
b) At which elongation takes place without application of additional load
c) Up to which if the load is removed, original volume and shapes are regained
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The elastic limit is that limit up to which any material behaves like an elastic
material.
8. What is the point P shown on the stress strain curve?

b) Yield plateau
c) Elastic limit
d) Ultimate point
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: It is the point showing the maximum stress to which the material can be subjected
in a simple tensile stress.
9. What is the point P shown in the stress-strain curve?
a) Lower yield point

b) Elastic limit
c) Proportionality limit
d) Breaking point
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The breaking point is the point where the material breaks. The breaking point will
be the last point on the stress strain curve.
10. What is the point shown in the stress strain curve?
a) Elastic limit
c) Yield plateau
d) Lower strain point
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It is the lower yield point at which the curve levels off and plastic deformation
begins.
11. Where is the necking region?

a) The area between lower yield point and upper yield point
b) The area between the plastic limit and elastic limit
c) The area between the ultimate point and initial point
d) The area between the ultimate point and rupture
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Necking is a tensile strain deformation which is cased in after the ultimate amount
of stress occurs in the material.
1. The property of a material by which it can be drawn into thin wires is?
a) Malleability
b) Plasticity
c) Ductility
d) Elasticity
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The ductile material can be drawn into wires because it can resist large
deformation. Malleability is the property by which it can be made into thin sheets.
2. If the material has identical elastic properties in all directions, it is called ____________
a) Elastic
b) Isotropic
c) Plastic
d) Homogeneous
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: An homogeneous material is that with uniform composition. An elastic and plastic
are different on the criteria.
3. Why is the strain the fundamental property but not the stress?
a) Because it is dimensionless
b) Because it is a ratio
c) Because it’s value is calculated in the laboratory
d) No stress is the fundamental property
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The stress is the fundamental property because it is calculated in the laboratory. It is
a non dependable value.
4. The material in which large deformation is possible before absolute failure by rupture is called
____________
a) Plastic
b) Elastic
c) Brittle
d) Ductile
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The ductile material can be drawn into wires because it can resist large deformation
before it fails.
5. What is a creep?
a) Gradual increase of plastic strain with time at constant load
b) Gradual increase of elastic strain with time at constant load
c) Gradual increase of plastic strain with time at varying load
d) Gradual increase of elastic strain with time at varying load
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Creep is the property by virtue of which a metal specimen undergoes additional
deformation with the passage of time under sustained loading within elastic limit. It is permanent
in nature and cannot be recovered after removal of load, hence is plastic in nature.
6. If the material has different elastic properties in perpendicular directions, it is called

____________
a) Elastic
b) Isotropic
c) Orthotropic
d) Plastic
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Isotropic material has the same elastic properties but ortho tropic material has the
same.

a) Visco-elastic – small plastic zone
b) Orthotropic material – different properties in three perpendicular directions
c) Strain hardening material – stiffening effect felt at some stage
d) Isotropic material – same physical property in all directions at a point
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Visco-elastic material exhibit a mixture of creep and elastic after effects at room
temperature. Thus their behaviour is time dependent. Materials with different properties in
different directions are called anisotropic. Orthotropic material is a special case of an anisotropic
material in three mutually perpendicular directions. However, these are symmetric about any
axis.
8. The phenomenon of slow extension of materials having a constant load, I.e. increasing with
the time is called
a) Creeping
b) Yielding
c) Breaking
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The creeping is the phenomenon of deformation in materials which have been
under load for several time. When the load is put on the material, initially it deforms but when
the load is not removed, it causes a small amount of deformation which increases with time
1. What will be the elastic modulus of a material if the Poisson’s ratio for that material is 0.5?
a) Equal to its shear modulus
b) Three times its shear modulus
c) Four times its shear modulus
d) Not determinable
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation:
Explanation: Elastic modulus = E
Shear modulus = G
E = 2G ( 1 + μ )
Given, μ= 0.5, E = 2×1.5xG
E = 3G.
2. A rigid beam ABCD is hinged at D and supported by two springs at A and B as shown in the
given figure. The beam carries a vertical load P and C. the stiffness of spring at A is 2K and that
of B is K.
What will be the ratio of forces of spring at A and that of spring at B?

a) 4
b) 3
c) 2
d) 1
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The rigid beam will rotate about point D, due to the load at C.
From similar triangle,

δa/2a = δb/3b
Force in spring A/Force in spring B = Pa/Pb
= 2k/k x 3/2 = 3.
3. A solid metal bat of uniform diameter D and length L is hung vertically from a ceiling. If the
density of the material of the bar is 1 and the modulus of elasticity is E, then the total elongation
of the bar due to its own weight will be ____________
a) L/2E
b) L2/2E
c) E/2L
d) E/2L2
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The elongation of bar due to its own weight is δ= WL/2AE
Now W = ρAL
There fore δ= L2 / 2E.
4. A bar of diameter 30mm is subjected to a tensile load such that the measured extension on a
gauge length of 200mm is 0.09mm and the change in diameter is 0.0045mm. Calculate the
Poissons ratio?
a) 1/3
b) 1/4
c) 1/5
d) 1/6
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Longitudinal strain = 0.09/200
Lateral strain = – 0.0045/30
Poissons ratio = – lateral strain/ longitudinal strain
= 0.0045/30 x 200/0.09
= 1/3.
5. What will be the ratio of Youngs modulus to the modulus of rigidity of a material having
Poissons ratio 0.25?
a) 3.75
b) 3.00
c) 1.5
d) 2.5
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Modulus of rigidity, G = E/2(1 + μ)
Therefore, E/G = 2x(1+0.25) = 2.5.
6. An experiment was done and it was found that the bulk modulus of a material is equal to its
shear modulus. Then what will be its Poissons ratio?
a) 0.125
b) 0.150
c) 0.200
d) 0.375
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: We know that, μ = (3K – 2G) / (6K + 2G)
Here K = G
Therefore, μ = 3-2 / 6+2 = 0.125.
7. A bar of 40mm dia and 40cm length is subjected to an axial load of 100 kN. It elongates by
0.005mm. Calculate the Poissons ratio of the material of bar?
a) 0.25
b) 0.28
c) 0.30
d) 0.33
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Longitudinal strain = 0.150/400 = 0.000375
Lateral strain = – 0.005/40 = -0.000125
Poissons ratio = – lateral strain/longitudinal strain
= 0.33.
8. What will be the approximate value of shear modulus of a material if the modulus of elasticity
is 189.8 GN/m2 and its Poissons ratio is 0.30?
a) 73 GN/m2
b) 80 GN/m2
c) 93.3 GN/m2
d) 103.9 GN/m2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The relationship between E, G, and μ is given by
is given by
E = 2G (1 + μ)
G = 189.8 / 2(1 + 0.30)
G = 73 GN/m2.
9. What will be the modulus of rigidity if the value of modulus of elasticity is 200 and Poissons
ratio is 0.25?
a) 70
b) 80
c) 125
d) 250
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The relationship between E, G and μ is E = 2G (1 + μ)
G = 200 / 2(1 + 0.25)
G = 80.
1. A circular rod of dia 30 mm and length 200mm is extended to 0.09mm length and 0.0045
diameters through a tensile force. What will be its Poissons ratio?
a) 0.30
b) 0.31
c) 0.32
d) 0.33
View Answer
Answer:d
Explanation: Poissons ratio = lateral strain / longitudinal strain
= δD/D x L/δL
= 0.0045/30 x 200/0.09
= 0.33.
2. The Poissons ratio of a material is 0.3. what will be the ratio of Youngs modulus to bulk
modulus?
a) 1.4
b) 1.2
c) 0.8
d) 0.6
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As we know E = 3k(1- 2μ)
So E/K = 3(1-2×0.3) = 1.2.
3. What is the bulk modulus of elasticity?

a) The ratio of shear stress to shear strain
b) The ratio of direct stress to direct strain
c) The ratio of volumetric stress to volumetric strain
d) The ratio of direct stress to volumetric strain
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: When a body is subjected to the mutually perpendicular like and equal direct
stresses, the ratio of direct stress to the corresponding volumetric strain strain is found to be
constant for a given material when the deformation is within a certain limit. This ratio is known
as the bulk modulus.
4. For a material, Youngs modulus is given as 1.2 x 105 and Poissons ratio 1/4. Calculate the
bulk modulus.
a) 0.7 x 105
b) 0.8 x 105
c) 1.2 x 105
d) 1.2 x 105
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The bulk modulus is given as K = E/3(1 – 2μ)
= 1.2 x 105/3(1 – 2/4)
= 0.8 x 105.
5. Determine the Poissons ratio and bulk modulus of a material, for which Youngs modulus is
1.2 and modulus of rigidity is 4.8.
a) 7
b) 8
c) 9
d) 10
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As we know, E = 2C(1 + μ)
μ= 0.25
K = E / 3(1 – 2μ)
= 8.
6. The Youngs modulus of elasticity of a material is 2.5 times its modulus of rigidity. Then what
will be its Poissons ratio?
a) 0.25
b) 0.33
c) 0.50
d) 0.60
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As we know E = 2G(1 + μ) so putting the values of E = 2.5G then we get μ= 0.25.
7. How the elastic constants E and K are related?

a) E = 2K(1 – 2μ)
b) E = 3K(1 – 2μ)
c) E = 2K(1 – μ)
d) E = K(1 – 2μ)
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As E = 2G(1 + μ) = 3K(1 – 2μ).
8. How many elastic constants does an isotropic, homogeneous and linearly elastic material
have?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: E, G, K represents the elastic modulus, shear modulus, bulk modulus and poisson’s
ratio respectively of a linearly elastic, isotropic and homogeneous material. To express the stress-
strain relations completely for this material at least any two of the four must be known, E = 2G(1
+ μ) = 3K(1 – 2μ) = 9KG / (3K + G).
9. The modulus of rigidity and the modulus of elasticity of a material are 80 GPa and 200 GPa.
What will be the Poissons ratio of the material?
a) 0.25
b) 0.30
c) 0.40
d) 0.50
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As E = 2G(1 + μ) putting E = 200 and G = 80 we get μ = 0.25.
10. Which of the following is true if the value of Poisson’s ratio is zero?
a) The material is rigid
b) The material is perfectly plastic
c) The longitudinal strain in the material is infinite
d) There is no longitudinal strain in the material
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: If the Poissons ratio is zero then the material is rigid
1. How many elastic constants of a linear, elastic, isotropic material will be?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 1
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Isotropic materials have the same properties in all directions. The number of
independent elastic constants for such materials is 2. out of E, G, K, and μ, if any two constants
are known for any linear elastic and isotropic material than rest two can be derived. Examples
are steel, aluminium, copper, gold.
Orthotropic materials refer to layered structure such as wood or plywood. The number of
independent elastic constants for such materials is 9.
Non isotropic or anisotropic materials have different properties in different directions. They
show non- homogeneous behaviour. The number of elastic constants is 21.
2. How many elastic constants of a non homogeneous, non isotropic material will be?
a) 9
b) 15
c) 20
d) 21
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Non isotropic or anisotropic materials have different properties in different
directions. They show non- homogeneous behaviour. The number of elastic constants is 21.
3. How can be the Poissons ratio be expressed in terms of bulk modulus(K) and modulus of
rigidity(G)?
a) (3K – 4G) / (6K + 4G)
b) (3K + 4G) /( 6K – 4G)
c) (3K – 2G) / (6K + 2G)
d) (3K + 2G) / (6K – 2G)
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: There are four elastic modulus relationships. the relation between Poissons ration,
bulk modulus and modulus of rigidity is given as
μ = (3K – 2G) / (6K + 2G).
4. Calculate the modulus of resilience for a 2m long bar which extends 2mm under limiting axial
stress of 200 N/mm2?
a) 0.01
b) 0.20
c) 0.10
d) 0.02
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Modulus of resilience = f2/2E
= 200×2/2×2000
= 0.10.
5. In an experiment, the bulk modulus of elasticity of a material is twice its modulus of rigidity.
The Poissons ratio of the material is ___________
a) 1/7
b) 2/7
c) 3/7
d) 4/7
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As we know, μ= (3K – 2G) / (6K + 2G)
Given K = 2G
Then, μ = (6G – 2G) / (12G + 2G) = 4/14 = 2/7.
6. What will be the value of the Poisson’s ratio if the Youngs modulus E is equal to the bulk
modulus K?
a) 1/2
b) 1/4
c) 1/3
d) 3/4
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: K = E / 3(1 – 2μ)
Since K = E
So (1-2μ) = 1/3
Therefore, μ = 1/3.
7. What is the expression for modulus of rigidity in terms of modulus of elasticity and the
Poissons ratio?
a) G = 3E / 2(1 + μ)
b) G = 5E / (1 + μ)
c) G = E / 2(1 + μ)
d) G = E/ (1 + 2μ)
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The relation between the modulus of rigidity, modulus of elasticity and the
Poissons ratio is given as
G = E / 2(1 + μ).
8. What is the relationship between Youngs modulus E, modulus of rigidity C, and bulk modulus
K?
a) E = 9KC / (3K + C)
b) E = 9KC / (9K + C)
c) E = 3KC / (3K + C)
d) E = 3KC / (9K + C)
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The relationship between E, K, C is given by
E = 9KC / (3K + C).
9. What is the limiting values of Poisson’s ratio?

a) -1 and 0.5
b) -1 and -0.5
c) -1 and -0.5
d) 0 and 0.5
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The value of Poissons ratio varies from 0 to 0.5. For rubber, its value ranges
from.45 to 0.50.
10. What is the relationship between modulus of elasticity and modulus of rigidity?
a) C = E / 2(1 + μ)
b) C = E / (1 + μ)
c) C = 2E / (1 + μ)
d) C = 2E / 2(1 + μ)
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The relation is given by calculating the tensile strain of square block is given by
taking tensile strain in a diagonal. On equating that stains we get the relation,
C = E / 2(1 + μ).
1. What is the ratio of Youngs modulus E to shear modulus G in terms of Poissons ratio?
a) 2(1 + μ)
b) 2(1 – μ)
c) 1/2 (1 – μ)
d) 1/2 (1 + μ)
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As we know G = E / 2(1 +μ) so this gives the ratio of E to G = 2(1 + μ).
2. The relationship between Youngs modulus E, bulk modulus K if the value of Poissons ratio is
unity will be __________
a) E = -3K
b) K = -3E
c) E = 0
d) K = 0
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As E = 2G(1 + μ) putting μ=1 we get E = -3K.
3. A rod of length L and diameter D is subjected to a tensile load P. which of the following is
sufficient to calculate the resulting change in diameter?
a) Youngs modulus
b) Poissons ratio
c) Shear modulus
d) Both Youngs modulus and shear modulus
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: For longitudinal strain we need Youngs modulus and for calculating transverse
strain we need Poisson’s ratio. We may calculate Poissons ratio from E = 2G(1 + μ) for that we
need shear modulus.
4. E, G, K and μ elastic modulus, shear modulus, bulk modulus and Poisson’s ratio respectively.
To express the stress strain relations completely for this material, at least __________
a) E, G and μmust be known
b) E, K and μmust be known
c) Any two of the four must be known
d) All the four must be known
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: As E = 2G(1 + μ) = 3K(1 – 2μ) = 9KG / (3K + G), if any two of these four are
known, the other two can be calculated by the relations between them.
5. Youngs modulus of elasticity and Poissons ratio of a material are 1.25 x 10 2 MPa and 0.34
respectively. The modulus of rigidity of the material is __________
a) 0.9469 MPa
b) 0.8375 MPa
c) 0.4664 MPa
d) 0.4025 MPa
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: As E = 2G(1 + μ)
1.25 x 102 = 2G(1 + 0.34)
G = 0.4664 x 102 MPa.
6. If E,G and K have their usual meanings, for an elastic material, then which one of the
following be possibly true?
a) G = 2K
b) G = K
c) K = E
d) G = E = K
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: As E = 2G(1 + μ) = 3K(1 – 2μ) = 9KG / (3K + G)
The value of μ must be between 0 to 0.5, so as E never equal to G but if μ = 1/3, then E=K.
7. If a material had a modulus of elasticity of 2.1 kgf/cm2 and a modulus of rigidity of 0.8
kgf/cm2 then what will be the approximate value of the Poissons ratio?
a) 0.26
b) 0.31
c) 0.47
d) 0.43
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: On using E = 2G(1 + μ) we can put the values of E and G to get the Poissons value.
8. Consider the following statements:

X. Two-dimensional stresses applied to a thin plater in its own plane represent the plane stress
condition.
Y. Normal and shear stresses may occur simultaneously on a plane.
Z. Under plane stress condition, the strain in the direction perpendicular to the plane is zero.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 2 only
b) 1 and 2
c) 2 and 3
d) 1 and 3
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Under plane stress condition, the strain in the direction perpendicular to the plane is
not zero. It has been found experimentally that when a body is stressed within the elastic limit,
the lateral strain bears a constant ratio to the linear strain.
9. What is the relationship between the linear elastic properties Youngs modulus, bulk modulus
and rigidity modulus?
a) 1/E = 9/k + 3/G
b) 9/E = 3/K + 1/G
c) 3/E = 9/K + 1/G
d) 9/E = 1/K + 3/G
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: We can use E = 2G(1 + μ) = 3K(1 – 2μ) = 9KG / (3K + G) to get the relation
between E, K and G.
10. Which of the relationship between E, G and K is true, where E, G and K have their usual
meanings?
a) E = 9KC / (3K + C)
b) E = 9KC / (9K + C)
c) E = 3KC / (9K + C)
d) E = 3KC / (3K + C)
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As we know E = 2G(1 + μ) = 3K(1 – 2μ) = 9KG / (3K + G).
1. In the given figure a stepped column carries loads. What will be the maximum normal stress in
the column at B in the larger diameter column if the ratio of P/A here is unity?
a) 1/1.5
b) 1
c) 2/1.5
d) 2
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Normal stress at B = Total load acting at B / Area of a cross-section at B
= (P + P) / 1.5 A = 2P/ 1.5A = 2/1.5.
2. The stress which acts in a direction perpendicular to the area is called ____________
a) Shear stress
b) Normal stress
c) Thermal stress
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Normal stress acts in a direction perpendicular to the area. Normal stress is of two
types tensile and compressive stress.
3. Which of these are types of normal stresses?

a) Tensile and compressive stresses
b) Tensile and thermal stresses
c) Shear and bending
d) Compressive and plane stresses
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The normal stress is divided into tensile stress and compressive stress.
4. In a body loaded under plane stress conditions, what is the number of independent stress
components?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 6
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In a body loaded under plane stress conditions, the number of independent stress
components is 3 I.e. two normal components and one shear component.
5. If a bar of large length when held vertically and subjected to a load at its lower end, its won-
weight produces additional stress. The maximum stress will be ____________
a) At the lower cross-section
b) At the built-in upper cross-section
c) At the central cross-section
d) At every point of the bar
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The stress is the load per unit area. After the addition of weight in the bar due to its
loading on the lower end the force will increase in the upper cross-section resulting in the
maximum stress at the built-in upper cross-section.
6. Which type of stress does in a reinforcement bar is taken by the concrete?

a) Tensile stress
c) Shear stress
d) Bending stress
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Concrete has the property of taking a good amount of compressive stress. So, In the
reinforcement bar, the compressive stress is taken by the concrete.
7. A material has a Poisson’s ratio of 0.5. If uniform pressure of 300GPa is applied to that
material, What will be the volumetric strain of it?
a) 0.50
b) 0.20
c) 0.25
d) Zero
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: As volumetric strain = (1-2μ)σ/E
Here the value of μ is 0.5 so 1 – 2 * 0.5 becomes zero.
Therefore whatever be the stress the value of volumetric strain will be zero.
8. A diagram which shows the variations of the axial load for all sections of the pan of a beam is
called ____________
a) Bending moment diagram
b) Shear force diagram
c) Thrust diagram
d) Stress diagram
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The stress diagram shows the variation of the axial load for all sections of the pan.
The bending moment diagram shows the variation of moment in a beam. The shear force
diagram shows the variation in the shear force due to loading in the beam.
9. The stress induced in a body, when subjected to two equal and opposite forces which are
acting tangentially across the resisting section resulting the shearing of the body across its
section is called ____________
a) Bending stress
c) Shear strain
d) Shear stress
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Shear stress makes the body to shear off across the section. It is tangential to the
area over which it acts. The corresponding strain is the shear strain.
10. What is the formula for shear stress?

a) Shear resistance/shear area
b) Force/unit area
c) Bending strain/area
d) Shear stress/length
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When force is applied, the twisting divides the body. The resistance is known as
shear resistance and shear resistance per unit area is known as shear stress.
P. Crushing and shear stress in threads
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) P and Q
b) P and R
c) Only P
d) Only R
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Bending stress comes when there is some kind of eccentric load. Torsional stress
will come when the nut is rotating. Shear stress will come in tightening of a nut on bolt.
12. The transverse shear stress acting in a beam of rectangular cross-section, subjected to a
transverse shear load, is ____________
a) variable with maximum at the bottom of the beam
b) Variable with maximum at the top of the beam
c) Uniform
d) Variable with maximum on the neutral axis
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Maximum value of shear stress at neutral axis is τ = 3/2 τ mean
So, transverse shear stress is variable with a maximum in the neutral axis.
13. A block 100mm x 100mm base and 10mm height. What will the direct shear stress in the
element when a tangential force of 10kN is applied to the upper edge to a displacement 1mm
relative to lower face?
a) 1Pa
b) 1MPa
c) 10MPa
d) 100Pa
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Shear stress = 10kN / 100mmx100mm = 1 N/mm2 = 1MPa.
1. A beam is said to be of uniform strength, if ____________

a) B.M. is same throughout the beam
b) Shear stress is the same through the beam
c) Deflection is the same throughout the beam
d) Bending stress is the same at every section along its longitudinal axis
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Beam is said to be uniform strength if at every section along its longitudinal axis,
the bending stress is same.
2. Stress in a beam due to simple bending is ____________

c) Curvilinearly related
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The stress is directly proportional to the load and here the load is in terms of
bending. So the stress is directly proportional to bending.
3. Which stress comes when there is an eccentric load applied?
a) Shear stress
b) Bending stress
c) Tensile stress
d) Thermal stress
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When there is an eccentric load it means that the load is at some distance from the
axis. This causes compression in one side and tension on the other. This causes bending stress.
4. What is the expression of the bending equation?

a) M/I = σ/y = E/R
b) M/R = σ/y = E/I
c) M/y = σ/R = E/I
d) M/I = σ/R = E/y
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The bending equation is given by M/I = σ/y = E/R
where
M is the bending moment
I is the moment of inertia
y is the distance from neutral axis
E is the modulus of elasticity
R is the radius.
5. On bending of a beam, which is the layer which is neither elongated nor shortened?
a) Axis of load
b) Neutral axis
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When a beam is in bending the layer in the direction of bending will be In
compression and the other will be in tension. One side of the neutral axis will be shortened and
the other will be elongated.
6. The bending stress is ____________

a) Directly proportional to the distance of layer from the neutral layer
b) Inversely proportional to the distance of layer from the neutral layer
c) Directly proportional to the neutral layer
d) Does not depend on the distance of layer from the neutral layer
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: From the bending equation M/I = σ/y = E/R
Here stress is directly proportional to the distance of layer from the neutral layer.
7. Consider a 250mmx15mmx10mm steel bar which is free to expand is heated from 15C to 40C.
what will be developed?
a) Compressive stress
b) Tensile stress
c) Shear stress
d) No stress
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: If we resist to expand then only stress will develop. Here the bar is free to expand
so there will be no stress.
8. The safe stress for a hollow steel column which carries an axial load of 2100 kN is 125
MN/m2. if the external diameter of the column is 30cm, what will be the internal diameter?
a) 25 cm
b) 26.19cm
c) 30.14 cm
d) 27.9 cm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Area of the cross section of column = π/4 (0.302 – d2) m2
Area = load / stress.
So, π/4 ( 0.302 – d2) m2 = 21 / 125
d = 26.19cm.
1. During a tensile test on a ductile material ____________

a) Nominal stress at fracture is higher than the ultimate stress
b) True stress at fracture is higher than the ultimate stress
c) True stress a fracture is the same as the ultimate stress
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In a ductile material, the true stress at fracture will be higher the ultimate stress.
2. When equal and opposite forces applied to a body, tend to elongate it, the stress so produced,
is called ____________
a) Shear stress
c) Tensile stress
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: When subjected to two equal and opposite pulls as a result of which there is an
increase in length. This produces tensile stress.
P. Tensile stress due to the streching of bolt
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) P and Q
b) P and R
c) Only p
d) R and Q
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Bending stress comes when there is some kind of eccentric load. When nut is
tightened, the bolt will pull itself and stretching will be there resulting in the tensile stress.
Torsional stress will come when the nut is rotating.
4. In a tensile test, near the elastic limit zone ____________

a) Tensile stress increases in linear proportion to the stress
b) Tensile stress increases at a faster rate
c) Tensile stress decreases at a faster rate
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The stress first decreases and then decreases before the strain hardening occurs. The
decreases in the stress is due to the attraction between carbon molecules.
5. Match the following and give the correct code given in options:
List 1 List 2
A. Tensile test on CI 1. Plain fracture on a transverse plane
B. Tensile test on MS 2. Granular helecoidal fracture
C. Torsion test on CI 3. Cup and cone
4. Granular fracture in a transverse plane
a) A – 1 B – 2 C – 4
b) A – 1 B – 4 C – 2
c) A – 3 B – 1 C – 2
d) A – 3 B – 4 C – 1
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Tensile test on CI is done on cup and cone. Torsion test on MS is on plain fracture
on a traverse plane.
6. The phenomenon of slow growth of strain under a steady tensile stress is called ____________
a) Yielding
b) Creeping
c) Breaking
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Creeping is the phenomenon of slow growing strain under a stress for a period of
time.
7. A rod 150cm long and of diameter 2cm is subjected to an axial pull of 20kN. What will be the
stress?
a) 60 N/mm2
b) 65 N/mm2
c) 63.6 N/mm2
d) 71.2 N/mm2
View Answer
Answer: c
Load = 20,000N
Area = π/4 (20)2 = 100π mm2.
8. The stress in a rod is 70 N/mm2 and the modulus of elasticity is 2 x 105 N/mm2. what will be
the strain in the rod?
a) 0.00052
b) 0.00035
c) 0.00030
d) 0.00047
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As E = σ/e
Here, E = 2 * 105 N/mm2
And, σ = 70 N/mm2
e = 70/2*105 = 0.00035.
9. What will be the minimum diameter of a steel wire, which is used to raise a load of 4000N if
the stress in the rod is not to exceed 95 MN/m2?
a) 6mm
b) 6.4mm
c) 7mm
d) 7.3mm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: As stress = load / area
Area = load/stress
Also, area is π/4 D2 so π/4 D2 = 4000 / 95
And D = 7.32.
10. A tensile test was conducted on mild steel bar. The load at elastic limit was 250kN and the
diameter of the steel bar was 3cm. What will be the value of stress?
a) 35368 x 104 N/m2
b) 32463 x 104 N/m2
c) 35625 x 104 N/m2
d) 37562 x 104 N/m2
View Answer
Answer: a
Load = 150 x 1000N
Area = π/4 (0.03)2 m2
1. For keeping the stress wholly compressive the load may be applied on a circular column
anywhere within a concentric circle of diameter _____________
a) D/2
b) D/3
c) D/4
d) D/8
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The load application on a circular column affects stress. If it is under D/4 the stress
will be wholly compressive.
2. Consider two bars A and B of same material tightly secured between two unyielding walls.
Coefficient of thermal expansion of bar A is more than that of B. What are the stresses induced
on increasing the temperature?
a) Tension in both the materials
b) Tension in material A and compression in material B
c) Compression in material A and tension in material B
d) Compression in both the materials
View Answer
Answer:d
Explanation: Since both the supports are fixed and both bars will try to expand, so rise in
temperature will cause compressive stresses in the bars.
3. What will be the unit of compressive stress?

a) N
b) N/mm
c) N/mm2
d) Nmm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: As the stress is the ratio of force to the area, so it will be N/mm 2. Here mm is
normally used in its calculation most of the time.
4. A cast iron T section beam is subjected to pure bending. For maximum compressive stress to
be 3 times the maximum tensile stress, centre of gravity of the section from flange side is
____________
a) h/2
b) H/3
c) H/4
d) 2/3h
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: H/4 when the applied moment is sagging. Otherwise, I.e. if the applied moment is
hogging it is H/4. as in the options both are not given means we have to take hogging.
5. A solid circular shaft of diameter d is subjected to a torque T. the maximum normal stress
induced in the shaft is ____________
a) Zero
b) 16T/πd3
c) 32T/πd3
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The maximum torque transmitted by a circular solid shaft is obtained from the
maximum shear stress induced at the outer surface of the solid shaft and given by T = πD 3/16 x
normal stress,
So, normal stress = 16T/πd3.
6. When a rectangular beam is loaded transversely, the maximum compressive stress develops on
____________
a) Bottom fibre
b) Top fibre
c) Neutral axis
d) Every cross-section
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Loaded means loaded downwards. In that case, upper fibres will be compressed
while lower will be expanded. Hence maximum compressive stress will be developed in top
layer.
7. An axial residual compressive stress due to a manufacturing process is present on the outer
surface of a rotating shaft subjected to bending. Under a given bending load, the fatigue of the
shaft in the presence of the residual compressive stress is ____________
a) Decreased
b) Increases or decreased, depending on the external bending load
c) Neither decreased nor increased
d) Increases
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: From the Gerber’s parabola that is the characteristic curve of the fatigue life of the
shaft in the presence of the residual compressive stress. The fatigue life of the material is
effectively increased by the introduction of compressive mean stress, whether applied or
residual.
200kN. If the length of the bar is 2m and E=200GPa, the elongation of the bar well be
____________
a) 1.25mm
b) 2.70mm
c) 4.05mm
d) 5.40mm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Elongation of the bar = Pl/AE = -200x103x 2000 / ( 1600 x 200 x 103) = -1.25
The minus sign here shows that the stress here is compressive.
1. The length, Young’s modulus and coefficient of thermal expansion of bar P are twice that of
bar Q. what will be the ration of stress developed in bar P to that in bar Q if the temperature of
both bars is increased by the same amount?
a) 2
b) 8
c) 4
d) 16
View Answer
Answer: c
Stress in bar P / Stress in bar Q = (E P / EQ) x (αP / αQ) = 2×2 = 4.
2. A steel bar 600mm long and having 30mm diameter, is turned down to 25mm diameter for
one fourth of its length. It is heated at 30 C above room temperature, clamped at both ends and
then allowed to cool to room temperature. If the distance between the clamps is unchanged, the
maximum stress in the bar ( α = 12.5 x 10-6 per C and E = 200 GN/m2) is
a) 25 MN/m2
b) 40 MN/m2
c) 50 MN/m2
d) 75 MN/m2
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: As temperature stress do not depend upon properties of cross section like length
and area. They only depends upon properties of the material.
Therefore, σ=αEδT
= 12.5 x 10-6 x 200 x 103 x 30
= 75 MN/m2.
3. A cube having each side of length p, is constrained in all directions and is heated unigormly so
that the temperature is raised to T.C. What will be the stress developed in the cube?
a) δET / γ
b) δTE / (1 – 2γ)
c) δTE / 2 γ
d) δTE / (1 + 2γ)
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: δV/V = P / K = a3 (1 + aT)3 – a3) / a3
Or P / (E / 3(1-2γ)) = 3αT.
4. A steel rod 10mm in diameter and 1m long is heated from 20 to 100 degree celcius, E = 200
GPa and coefficient of thermal expansion is 12 x10-6 per degree celcius. Calculate the thermal
stress developed?
a) 192 MPa(tensile)
b) 212 MPa(tensile)
c) 192MPa(compressive)
d) 212 MPa(compressive)
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: αEδT = (12 x 10-6) ( 200 x 103) (100-20) = 192MPa.
5. A cube with a side length of 1m is heated uniformly a degree celcius above the room
temperature and all the sides are free to expand. What will be the increase in the volume of the
cube? Consider the coefficient of thermal expansion as unity.
a) Zero
b) 1 m3
c) 2 m3
d) 3 m3
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Coefficient of thermal expansion = 3 x coefficient of volume expansion.
6. The thermal stress is a function of _____________

P. Coefficient of linear expansion
Q. Modulus of elasticity
R. Temperature rise
a) P and Q
b) Q and R
c) Only P
d) Only R
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Stress in the rod is only due to temperature rise.
7. A steel rod is heated from 25 to 250 degree celcius. Its coefficient of thermal expansion is 10 -5
and E = 100 GN/m2. if the rod is free to expand, the thermal stress developed in it is:
a) 100 kN/m2
b) 240 kN/m2
c) Zero
d) Infinity
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Thermal stress will only develop if the body is restricted.

a) Temperature strain with permitted expansion – ( αTl – δ)
b) Temperature thrust – ( αTE)
c) Temperature stress – (αTEA)
d) Temperature stress with permitted expansion – E(αTl – δ) / l
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Dimension analysis gives Temperature strain with permitted expansion – ( αTl –
δ)is wrong. In other options the dimensions are correctly matched.
9. A steel rod of length L and diameter D, fixed at both ends, is uniformly heated to a
temperature rise of δT. The Youngs modulus is E and the coefficient of linear expansion is unity.
The thermal stress in the rod is ____________
a) Zero
b) T
c) EδT
d) EδTL
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: As α = δl / l δT
So, δl = l x 1 x δT
And temperature strain = δl / l = δT
As E = stress / strain
Stress = E δT.
10. A uniform, slender cylindrical rod is made of a homogeneous and isotropic material. The rod
rests on a frictionless surface. The rod is heated uniformly. If the radial and longitudinal thermal
stress are represented by σx and σz, then ___________
a) σx = 0, σy = 0
b) σx not equal to 0, σy = 0
c) σx = 0, σy not equal to 0
d) σx not equal to 0, σy not equal to 0
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: We know that due to temperature changes, dimensions of the material change. If
these changes in the dimensions are prevented partially or fully, stresses are generated in the
material and if the changes in the dimensions are not prevented, there will be no stress set up.
(Zero stresses).
Hence cylindrical rod Is allowed to expand or contract freely.
So, σx = 0 and σy = 0.
11. which one of the following are true for the thermal expansion coefficient?
a) αaluminium > αbrass> αcopper > αsteel
b) αbrass > αaluminium > αcopper > αsteel
c) αcopper > αsteel > αaluminium > αbrass
d) αsteel > αaluminium > αbrass > αcopper
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Aluminium has the largest value of thermal expansion coefficient, then brass and
then copper. Steel among them has lowest value of thermal expansion coefficient.
12. The length, coefficient of thermal expansion and Youngs modulus of bar A are twice of bar
B. If the temperature of both bars is increased by the same amount while preventing any
expansion, then the ratio of stress developed in bar A to that in bar B will be ___________
a) 2
b) 4
c) 8
d) 16
View Answer
Answer: b
So σ1 / σ2 = E1α1δT1/E2α2δT2
From question, α and E of bar A are double that of bar B.
1. Which test is conducted to measure the ability of a material to resist scratching, abrasion,
deformation and indentation?
a) Creep test
b) Fatigue test
c) Hardness test
d) Compression test
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The ability of a material to resist scratching, abrasion, deformation and indentation
is called hardness. So to measure this hardness test is used. it is generally expressed by Brinell,
Rockwell or Vickers hardness numbers.
2. Which test is conducted to measure the endurance limit of the material?

a) Creep test
b) Fatigue test
c) Compression test
d) Hardness test
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The fatigue test is used to design components subjected to varying load. It
experimentally determines the endurance limit of the material.
3. What is the process in which the metal is cooled rapidly in water after heating the metal above
the lower critical temperature to increase the hardness of the material?
a) Quenching
b) Tampering
c) Hardening
d) Annealing
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Quenching is the process in which the metal is cooled rapidly in water after heating
the metal above the lower critical temperature to increase the hardness of the material. Hardness
is achieved during the quenching process depends on the amount of carbon content and cooling
rate.
4. What is the process of heating the metal in the furnance to a temperature slightly above the
upper critical temperature and cooling slowly In the furnance.
a) Quenching
b) Tampering
c) Annealing
d) Normalizing
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Annealing is the process of heating the metal in the furnance to a temperature
slightly above the upper critical temperature and cooling slowly In the furnance. It produces an
even grain structure, reduces hardness and increases ductility usually at a reduction of strength.
5. Photo stress method is ___________

a) Stress analysis method
b) Creep test
c) Ultra violet test
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Photo stress is a widely used full field technique for accurately measuring surface
strains to determine the stresses in a part or structure during static of dynamic testing.

a) The ratio of total stress to the permissible stress
b) The ratio of ultimate stress to the permissible stress
c) The ratio of ultimate stress to the applied stress
d) The ratio of ultimate stress to the modulus of elasticity
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The ratio of ultimate stress to the permissible or working stress is called the factor
of safety. This factor of safety is kept in mind in designing any structure.
7. Which one of the following has the largest value of thermal coefficient?
a) Brass
b) Copper
c) Steel
d) Aluminium
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Aluminium has the large value of thermal coefficient among them of value 24 x 10 -
-6
6. whereas brass and copper has 19×10 and 17×10<sup-6< sup="">. </sup-6<>
8. Identify which factor may cause a lowered body temperature:

a) Infection
b) Stress
c) Shock
d) Exercise
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Shock can cause the body temperature to drop, and so the cause of shock must be
found. Other factors that can cause a lowered body temperature include: very young/old, serious
haemorrhage, recovery from anesthesis and poisons
1. If a bar of two different length are in a line and P load is acting axially on them then what will
be the change in length of the bar if the radius of both different lengths is same?
a) P/E x (L1 + L2)
b) PA/E x (L1 + L2)
c) P/EA x (L1 + L2)
d) E/PA x (L1 + L2)
View Answer
Answer: c
Since diameter is same for both the sections, the respective area will be the same
Total change in length of bar = PL1/EA1 + PL2/EA2 = P/EA x (L1 + L2).
2. If a bar of two sections of different diameters of same length are in a line and P load is acting
axially on them then what will be the change in length of the bar?
a) PL/E x (1/A1 + 1/A2)
b) P/E x (1/A1 + 1/A2)
c) P/EL x (1/A1 + 1/A2)
d) PE/L x (1/A1 + 1/A2)
View Answer
Answer: a
Since length is same for both the sections,
Total change length of bar = PL/E x (1/A1 + 1/A2).
3. An axial pull of 35000 N is acting on a bar consisting of two lengths as shown with their
respective dimensions. What will be the stresses in the two sections respectively in N/mm2 ?
a) 111.408 and 49.5146

b) 111.408 and 17.85
c) 97.465 and 49.5146
d) 97.465 and 34.263
View Answer
Answer: a
4. An axial pull of 1kN is acting on a bar of consisting two equal lengths as shown but of dia
10cm and 20cm respectively. What will be the stresses in the two sections respectively in
N/mm2?
a) 0.127 and 0.0031

b) 0.034 and 0.0045
c) 0.153 and 0.003
d) 0.124 and 0.124
View Answer
Answer: a
5. An axial pull of 35000 N on a bar consisting of two lengths as shown with their respective
dimensions. What will be the total extension of the bar if the young’s modulus = 2.1 x 105?
a) 0.153mm
b) 0.183mm
c) 0.197mm
d) 0.188mm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The total extension in the bar = P/E x ( L1/A1 + L1/A1 )
Where P = 35000 N, E = 2.1 x 105 N/mm2, L1 and L2 are the 20cm and 25cm respectively and A1
and A2 are the area of both the sections respectively.
6. An axial pull of 20 kN on a bar of two equal lengths of 20cm as shown with their respective
dimensions. What will be the total extension of the bar if the young’s modulus = 2×105?
a) 0.200mm
b) 0.345mm
c) 0.509mm
d) 0.486mm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The total extension in the bar = P/E x (L1/A1 + L1/A1)
Where P = 2 kN, E = 2 x 105 N/mm2, L1 and L2 are same of 20cm and A1and A2 are the area of
both the sections respectively.
7. Does the value of stress in each section of a composite bar is constant or not?
a) It changes in a relationship with the other sections as well
b) It changes with the total average length
c) It is constant for every bar
d) It is different in every bar in relation with the load applied and the cross sectional area
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The value of stress in every section of a composite bar is given by P/A which is it is
dependent on the load applied and the cross sectional area of the section. The value of stress in a
section does not depend on the dimensions of other sections in the bar.
8. A composite bar of two sections of equal length and equal diameter is under an axial pull of
a) 3.18 N/mm2
b) 2.21 N/mm2
c) 3.45 N/mm2
d) 2.14 N/mm2
View Answer
Answer: a
be equal in both the sections as the dimensions are the same.
9. A composite bar of two sections of unequal length and equal diameter is under an axial pull of
a) 2.145 N/mm2
b) 3.18 N/mm2
c) 1.245 N/mm2
d) 2.145 N/mm2
View Answer
Answer: b
be equal in both the sections as the diameter is the same for both the sections. Even if the length
is the variable it will not alter the stress value as the length does not depend on the stress.
10. A composite bar of two sections of equal length and given diameter is under an axial pull of
15kN. What will be the stresses in the two sections in N/mm2 ?
a) 190.9 and 84.88
b) 190.9 and 44.35
c) 153.45 and 84088
d) 153045 and 44.35
View Answer
Answer: a
Where P = 15000N and A is the respective cross section area of the sections
1. Which law states the when a number of loads are acting on a body, the resulting strain,
according to principle of superposition, will be the algebraic sum of strains caused by individual
loads?
a) Hooke’s law
b) Principle of superposition
c) Lami’s theorem
d) Strain law
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The principle of superposition says that when a number of loads are acting on a
body, the resulting strain, according to the principle of superposition, will be the algebraic sum
of strains caused by individual loads.
2. How the total strain in any body subjected to different loads at different sections can be
calculated?
a) The resultant strain is the algebraic sum of the individual strain
b) The resultant strain calculated by the trigonometry
c) The resultant will be through Lame’s theorem
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In a bar of different sections, the resultant strain is the algebraic sum of the
individual stresses.
3. Three sections in a beam are of equal length of 100mm. All three sections are pulled axially
with 50kN and due to it elongated by 0.2mm. What will be the resultant strain in the beam?
a) 0.002
b) 0.004
c) 0.006
d) 0.020
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The strain = dL / L = 0.2/100 = 0.002
This strain will be for one section. By the principle of superposition the resultant strain will be
the algebraic sum of individual strains I.e. = 0.002 + 0.002 + 0.002 = 0.006.
4. Two sections in a bar of length 10cm and 20cm respectively are pulled axially. It causes an
elongation of 0.2mm and 0.4mm respectively in each section. What will be the resultant strain in
the bar?
a) sd0.004
b) 0.002
c) 0.003
d) 0.006
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The strain = dL / L
In column 1, strain = 0.2/100 = 0.002
In column 2, strain = 0.4/200 = 0.002
Resultant strain = 0.002 + 0.002 = 0.004.
5. A composite bar have four sections each of length 100mm, 150mm, 200mm, 250mm. When
force is applied, all the sections causes an elongation of 0.1mm. What will the resultant strain in
the bar?
a) 0.0012
b) 0.00154
c) 0.00256
d) 0.0020
View Answer
Answer: c
Strain In section 3 = 0.1/200
Resultant strain = 0.001+0.0006+0.0005+0.0004 = 0.00256.
6. A brass bar, having cross sectional area of 100mm2, is subjected to axial force of 50kN. The
length of two sections is 100mm and 200mm respectively. What will be the total elongation of
bar if E = 1.05 x 105 N/mm2 ?
a) 1.21mm
b) 2.034mm
c) 2.31mm
d) 1.428mm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Elongation in section 1 = P/AE x L = 50,000/(100×1.05×100,000) x 100 =
0.476mm
Elongation In section 2 = P/AE x L = 50,000/(100×1.05×100,000) x 200 = 0.952mm
Total elongation = 0.476 + 0.952 = 1.428mm.
7. A composite bar having two sections of cross-sectional area 100mm2 and 200mm2
respectively. The length of both the sections is 100mm. What will be the total elongation of bar
if it is subjected to axial force of 100kN and E = 105 N/mm2 ?
a) 1.0
b) 1.25
c) 1.5
d) 2.0
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Elongation in section 1 = 100,000 x 100 / 100000 x100 = 1
Elongation in section 2 = 100,000 x 100 / 100000x 200 = 0.5
Total elongation = 1 + 0.5 = 1.5mm.
8. A bar having two sections of cross sectional area of 100mm2 and 200mm2 respectively. The
length of both the sections is 200mm. What will be the total strain in the bar if it is subjected to
axial force of 100kN and E = 105 N/mm2 ?
a) 0.010
b) 0.015
c) 0.020
d) 0.030
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Strain in section 1 = P/AE = 100,000 / 100×100000 = 0.010
Strain is section 2 = P / AE = 100,000 / 200×100000 = 0.005
Resultant strain in the bar = 0.010 + 0.005 = 0.015mm.
9. A brass bar, having cross sectional area of 150mm2, is subjected to axial force of 50kN. What
will be the total strain of bar if E= 1.05 x 104 N/mm2 ?
a) 0.062mm
b) 0.025mm
c) 0.068mm
d) 0.054mm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Strain in section 1 = P/AE = 50,000/(100×1.05×100,000) = 0.031mm
Strain In section 2 = P/AE = 50,000/(100×1.05×100,000) = 0.031mm
Resultant strain = 0.031 + 0.031 = 0.062mm.
Here the calculation of strain does not requires the value of lengths of the sections.
10. A composite bar of two sections of each of length 100mm, 150mm. When force is applied,
all the sections causes an elongation of 0.1mm. What will the resultant strain in the bar?
a) 0.0016
b) 0.00154
c) 0.00256
d) 0.0020
View Answer
Answer: a
Strain in section 2= 0.1/150
Resultant strain = 0.001+0.0006 = 0.0016.
11. If the given forces P1, P2, P3, P4,and P5 which are co planar and concurrent are such that the
force polygon does not close, then the system will
b) Always reduce to a resultant force
c) Always reduce to a couple
d) Always be in equilibrium and will always reduce to a couple
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: For a system to be in equilibrium force polygon and funicular polygon must close.
If the force polygon does not close then the forces will reduce to a resultant force. If funicular
polygon does not close, then there is resultant moment on the system
1. If a bar of sections of two different length and different diameters are in a line and P load is
acting axially on them then what will be the change in length of the bar?
a) P/E x (L1 + L2)
b) P/E x (A1/L1 + A2/ L2)
c) P/E x (L1/A1 + L2/A2)
d) E/P x (L1/A1 + L2/A2)
View Answer
Answer: c
Total change in length of bar = PL1/EA1 + PL2/EA2.
2. How does the elastic constant varys with the elongation of body?
a) The elastic constant is directly proportional to the elongation
b) The elastic constant is directly proportional to the elongation
c) The elongation does not depends on the elastic constant
d) None of these
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Elongation of a composite bar of two sections = P/E x (L 1/A1 + L2/A2)
E is inversely proportional to bar elongation.
3. A composite rod is 1000mm long, its two ends are 40 mm2 and 30mm2 in area and length are
400mm and 600mm respectively. If the rod is subjected to an axial tensile load of 1000N, what
will be its total elongation(E = 200GPa)?
a) 0.130m
b) 0.197mm
c) 0.160mm
d) 0.150mm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As elongation of a composite bar of two sections = P/E x (L 1/A1 + L2/A2)
Putting L1, L2, A1 and A2 400mm2, 600mm2, 40mm2 and 30mm2 and P = 1000 and E = 200 x
103.
4. A mild steel wire 5mm in diameter and 1m ling. If the wire is subjected to an axial tensile load
10kN what will be its extension?
a) 2.55mm
b) 3.15mm
c) 2.45mm
d) 2.65mm
View Answer
Answer: a
P = 10x 1000N, L = 1m, A = πd2/4 = 1.963 x 10-5 m2, E = 200 x 109 N/m2.
5. A composite rod is 1000mm long, its two ends are 40mm2 and 30mm2 in area and length are
300mm and 200mm respectively. The middle portion of the rod is 20mm2 in area. If the rod is
subjected to an axial tensile load of 1000N, what will be its total elongation (E = 200GPa)?
a) 0.145mm
b) 0.127mm
c) 0.187mm
d) 0.196mm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: P = 1000N, Area A1 = 40mm2, A2 = 20mm2, A30 = 30mm2
Length, L1 = 300mm, L2 = 500mm, L3 = 200mm
E = 200GPa = 200x 1000 N/mm2
Total extension = P/E x (L1/A1 + L2/A2 + L3/A3).
6. A rod of two sections of area 625mm2 and 2500mm2 of length 120cm and 60cm respectively.
If the load applied is 45kN then what will be the elongation (E = 2.1x 105 N/mm2)?
a) 0.462mm
b) 0.521mm
c) 0.365mm
d) 0.514mm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: P = 45,000N, E =2.1x 105 N/mm2,
Area, A1 = 625mm2, A2 = 2500mm2,
Length, L1 = 1200mm, L2 = 600mm
Elongation = P/E x (L1/A1 + L2/A2).
7. What will be the elongation of a bar of 1250mm2 area and 90cm length when applied a force
of 130kN if E = 1.05x 105 N/mm2?
a) 0.947mm
b) 0.891mm
c) 0.845mm
d) 0.745mm
View Answer
Answer: b
P = 130x 1000N, L = 900mm, A = 1250 mm2, E = 1.05 x 105 N/m2.
8. A bar shown in diagram is subjected to load 160kN. If the stress in the middle portion Is
limited to 150N/mm2, what will be the diameter of the middle portion?
a) 3.456 cm
b) 3.685 cm
c) 4.524 cm
d) 4.124 cm
View Answer
Answer: b
portion dimensions.
100kN. If the length of the bar is 1m and E=200GPa, then what will be the elongation of the bar?
a) 1.25mm
b) 2.70mm
c) 5.40mm
d) 4.05mm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Elongation in bar = PL/ AE = (100x1000x1) / (0.2×0.2x200x106) = 1.25mm.
10. A solid uniform metal bar is hanging vertically from its upper end. Its elongation will be
_________
a) Proportional to L and inversely proportional to D2
b) Proportional to L2 and inversely proportional to D
c) Proportional of U but independent of D
d) Proportional of L but independent of D
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Elongation = WL / 2AE = 4WL / 2πD2E α L/D2
1. A member ABCD is subjected to points load P1=45kN, P2, P3=450kN and P4=130kN. what
will be the value of P necessary for equilibrium?
a) 350kN
b) 365kN
c) 375kN
d) 400kN
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: On resolving forces P1 + P3 = P2 + P4
So P2 = 45 + 450 – 130 I.e. P2 = 365kN.
2. A member ABCD is subjected to points load P1=45kN, P2, P3=450kN and P4=130kN. What
will be the total elongation of the member, assuming the modulus of elasticity to be
2.1x105N/mm2. The cross sectional area is 625mm, 2500mm, 1250mm respectively.
a) 0.4914mm
b) 0.4235mm
c) 0.4621mm
d) 0.4354mm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: First of all the fores will be calculated
on resolving forces P1 + P3 = P2 + P4
So P2 = 45 + 450 – 130 I.e. P2 = 365kN
So forces on three sections will be 45kN, 320kN and 130kN respectively.
After that increase in length = PL/AE for all three sections will be calculated.
3. A tensile rod of 40kN is acting on a rod of diameter 40mm and of length 4m. a bore of
diameter 20mm is made centrally on the rod. To what length the rod should be bored so that the
total extension will increase 30% under the same tensile load if E = 2×105 N/mm2?
a) 2m
b) 2.7m
c) 3.2m
d) 3.6m
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The extension = PL / AE = 2/π mm
Extension after the bore is made = 1.3x 2/π mm = 2.6/π mm
The extension after the bore is made, is also obtained by finding the extension of the un bored
length and bored length.
Stress = load / area
So total extension after bore is made can have two equations which can be put equal and the
length the rod should be bored up is calculated.
4. A bar is subjected to a tensile load of 150kN. If the stress in the middle portion is limited to
160 N/mm2, what will be the diameter of the middle portion of the total elongation of the bar is
0.25cm (E= 2 x 105)?
a) 3cm
b) 3.45cm
c) 3.85cm
d) 4cm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Total extension = P/E x (L1/A1 + L2/A2 + L3/A3 )
Only variable in the equation is A2. after getting this the diameter of the section can be
calculated.
5. A rod, which tapers uniformly from 5cm diameter to 3cm diameter in a length of 50cm, is
subjected to an axial load of 6000N. if E = 2,00,000 N/mm2, what will be the extension of the
rod?
a) 0.00114cm
b) 0.00124cm
c) 0.00127cm
d) 0.00154cm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The extension in the rod = PL / Et(a-b) x loge (a/b)
Where a = 50mm, b = 30mm.
6. A bar is in two sections having equal lengths. The area of cross section of 1 st is double that of
2nd. if the bar carries an axial load of P, then what will be the ratio of elongation in section 2nd to
section 1st ?
a) 1/2
b) 2
c) 4
d) 1/4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Ratio of elongation in 2nd / ratio of elongation in 1st = L2/L1 x A2/A1
Since L1 = L2 and A1 = 2A2
Therefore, ratio = 1 x 2/1 = 2.
7. A round bar made of same material consists of 4 parts each of 100mm length having diameters
of 40mm, 50mm, 60mm and 70mm, respectively. If the bar is subjected to an axial load of 10kN,
what will be the total elongation of the bar in mm?
a) 0.4/πE ( 1/16 + 1/25 + 1/36 + 1/49)
b) 4/πE ( 1/16 + 1/25 + 1/36 + 1/49)
c) 2/πE ( 1/16 + 1/25 + 1/36 + 1/49)
d) 40/πE ( 1/16 + 1/25 + 1/36 + 1/49)
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Total elongation = 4PL/πE ( 1/d12 + 1/d22 + 1/d32 + 1/d42)
= 4x10x100/πEx100 ( 1/16 + 1/25 + 1/36 + 1/49) mm
= 40/πE ( 1/16 + 1/25 + 1/36 + 1/49).
8. A bar shown in the diagram below is subjected to load 160kN. If the stress in the middle
portion Is limited to 150N/mm2, what will be the length of the middle portion, if the total
elongation of the bar is to be 0.2mm? Take E = 2.1 x 105 N/mm2.
a) 18.45cm
b) 17.24cm
c) 16.45cm
d) 20.71cm
View Answer
Answer: d
portion dimensions.
As Total extension = P/E x (L1/A1 + L2/A2)
This gives the value of L2.
9. A composite bar consists of a bar enclosed inside a tune of another material when compressed
under a load as whole through rigid collars at the end of the bar. What will be the equation of
compatibility?
a) W1 + W2 = W
b) W1 + W2 = constant
c) W1/A1E1 = W2/A2E2
d) W1/A1E2 = W2/A2E1
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Compatibility equation insists that the change in length of the bar must be
compatible with the boundary conditions. Here W1 + W2 = W it is also correct but it is
equilibrium equation.
1. What is the strain energy stored in a body due to gradually applied load?
a) σE/V
b) σE2/V
c) σV2/E
d) σV2/2E
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Strain energy when load is applied gradually = σ 2V/2E.
2. Strain energy stored in a body to uniform stress s of volume V and modulus of elasticity E is
__________
a) s2V/2E
b) sV/E
c) sV2/E
d) sV/2E
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Strain energy = s2V/2E.
3. In a material of pure shear stress τthe strain energy stored per unit volume in the elastic,
homogeneous isotropic material having elastic constants E and v will be:
a) τ2/E x (1+ v)
b) τ2/E x (1+ v)
c) τ2/2E x (1+ v)
d) τ2/E x (2+ v)
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: σ1=τ, σ2= -τσ3=0
U = (τ2+- τ2-2μτ(-τ))V = τ2/E x (1+ v)V.
4. PL3/3EI is the deflection under the load P of a cantilever beam. What will be the strain
energy?
a) P2L3/3EI
b) P2L3/6EI
c) P2L3/4EI
d) P2L3/24EI
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: We may do it taking average
Strain energy = Average force x displacement = (P/2) x PL3/3EI = P2L3/6EI.
5. A rectangular block of size 400mm x 50mm x 50mm is subjected to a shear stress of

500kg/cm2. If the modulus of rigidity of the material is 1×10 6 kg/cm2, the strain energy will be
__________
a) 125 kg-cm
b) 1000 kg-cm
c) 500 kg-cm
d) 100 kg-cm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Strain energy stored = τ2V/2G = 5002/2×106 x 40x5x5 = 125 kg-cm.
6. A material of youngs modulus and Poissons ratio of unity is subjected to two principal stresses
σ1 and σ2 at a point in two dimensional stress system. The strain energy per unit volume of the
material is __________
a) (σ12 + σ22 – 2σ1σ2 ) / 2E
b) (σ12 + σ22 + 2σ1σ2 ) / 2E
c) (σ12 – σ22 – 2σ1σ2 ) / 2E
d) (σ12 – σ22 – 2σ1σ2 ) / 2E
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Strain energy = (σ1ε1+ σ1ε1 ) / 2E
= (σ12 + σ22 – 2σ1σ2 ) / 2E.
7. If forces P, P and P of a system are such that the force polygon does not close, then the system
will __________
b) Reduce to a resultant force
c) Reduce to a couple
d) Not be in equilibrium
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The forces are not concurrent so the resultant force and couple both may be present.
Thus the best choice is that forces are not in equilibrium.
8. The strain energy in a member is proportional to __________

a) Product of stress and the strain
b) Total strain multiplied by the volume of the member
c) The maximum strain multiplied by the length of the member
d) Product of strain and Young’s modulus of the material
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Strain energy per unit volume for solid = q 2 / 4G.
9. A bar of cross-section A and length L is subjected to an axial load W. the strain energy stored
in the bar would be __________
a) WL / AE
b) W2 L / 4AE
c) W2L / 2AE
d) WL / 4AE
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Deformation in the bar = WL / AE
Strain energy = W/2 x WL / AE = W2L / 2AE.
What is the stretch in the rod if E = 2×105 N/mm2 ?
a) 1.1mm
b) 1.24mm
c) 2mm
d) 1.19mm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Stress = Load/ area = 60,000 / (π/4 D2) = 470746 N/mm2
What is the strain energy absorbed by the rod (E = 200GPa)?
a) 14 N-m
b) 15.9 N-mm
c) 15.9 N-m
d) 14 N-mm
View Answer
Answer: c
Strain energy = σ2V/2E = 25.46×25.46×9817477 / (2×200000) = 15909.5 N-mm = 15.9 N-m.
What is the strain energy in the rod if the load is applied suddenly (E = 2×10 5 N/mm2)?
a) d143.23 N-m
b) 140.51 N-m
c) 135.145 N-m
d) 197.214 N-m
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Maximum instantaneous stress = 2P / A = 95.493
Strain energy = σ2V/2E = 143288N-mm = 143.238 N-m
1. The ability of a material to absorb energy when elastically deformed and to return it when
unloaded is called __________
a) Elasticity
b) Resilience
c) Plasticity
d) Strain resistance
View Answer
Answer: b
2. The strain energy stored in a specimen when stained within the elastic limit is known as
__________
a) Resilience
b) Plasticity
c) Malleability
d) Stain energy
View Answer
Answer: a
Malleability is the property by which any material can be beaten into thin sheets.
3. The maximum strain energy stored at elastic limit is __________

a) Resilience
b) Proof resilience
c) Elasticity
d) Malleability
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Proof resilience is the maximum stored energy at the elastic limit. Resilience is the
ability of material to absorb energy when elastically deformed and to return it. Elasticity is the
property by which any body regain its original shape. Malleability is the property by which any
material can be beaten into thin sheets.
4. The mathematical expression for resilience ‘U’ is __________

a) U = σ2/E x volume
b) U = σ2/3E x volume
c) U = σ2/2E x volume
d) U = σ/2E x volume
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The resilience is the strain energy stored in a specimen so it will be
U = σ2/2E x volume.
5. What is the modulus of resilience?

a) The ratio of resilience to volume
b) The ratio of proof resilience to the modulus of elasticity
c) The ratio of proof resilience to the strain energy
d) The ratio of proof resilience to volume
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The modulus of resilience is the proof resilience per unit volume. It is denoted by σ.
6. The property by which an amount of energy is absorbed by material without plastic

deformation is called __________
a) Toughness
b) Impact strength
c) Ductility
d) Resilience
View Answer
Answer: d
and to return it when unloaded.
7. Resilience of a material plays important role in which of the following?

a) Thermal stress
b) Shock loading
c) Fatigue
d) Pure static loading
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The total strain energy stored in a body is commonly known as resilience.
Whenever the straining force is removed from the strained body, the body is capable of doing
work. Hence the resilience is also define as the capacity of a strained body for doing work on the
removal of the straining force.
8. A steel has its yield strength of 200N/mm2 and modulus of elasticity of 1x105MPa. Assuming
the material to obey hookes law up to yielding, what will be its proof resilience?
a) 0.8 N/mm2
b) 0.4 N/mm2
c) 0.2 N/mm2
d) 0.6 N/mm2
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Proof resilience = σ2/2E = (200)2 / (2 x 105) = 0.2 N/mm2.
9. A 1m long bar of uniform section extends 1mm under limiting axial stress of 200N/mm2.
What is the modulus of resilience for the bar?
a) 0.1 units
b) 1 units
c) 10units
d) 100units
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Modulus of resilience, u = f2/2E, where E = fL/δL
Therefore, u = 200×1 / 2×1000 = 0.1units.
10. A square steel bar of 10mm side and 5m length is subjected to a load whereupon it absorbs a
strain energy of 100J. what is its modulus of resilience?
a) 1/5 N-mm/mm3
b) 25 N-mm/mm3
c) 1/25 N-mm/mm3
d) 5 N-mm/mm3
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Modulus of resilience is the strain energy stored in the material per unit volume.
u = U/v
= ( 100 x 1000 ) / ( 10 x 10x 5x 1000)
= 1/5 N-mm/mm3
1. What is the relation between maximum stress induced due to sudden loading to maximum
stress the gradual loading?
a) Maximum stress in sudden load is equal to the maximum stress in gradual load
b) Maximum stress in sudden load is half to the maximum stress in gradual load
c) Maximum stress in sudden load is twice to the maximum stress in gradual load
d) Maximum stress in sudden load is four times to the maximum stress in gradual load
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Maximum stress in sudden loading = 2P/A
Maximum stress in gradual loading = P/A.
2. What is the strain energy stored in a body when the load is applied suddenly?
a) σE/V
b) σE2/V
c) σV2/E
d) σV2/2E
View Answer
Answer: d
3. A tensile load of 60kN is suddenly applied to a circular bar of 4cm diameter. What will be the
maximum instantaneous stress induced?
a) 95.493 N/mm2
b) 45.25 N/mm2
c) 85.64 N/mm2
d) 102.45 N/mm2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Maximum instantaneous stress induced = 2P/A = 2×60000/400π = 95.49 N/mm2.
4. A tensile load of 60kN is suddenly applied to a circular bar of 4cm and 5m length. What will
be the strain energy absorbed by the rod if E=2×105 N/mm2 ?
a) 140.5 N-m
b) 100 N-m
c) 197.45 N-m
d) 143.2 N-m
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Maximum instantaneous stress induced = 2P/A = 2×60000/400π = 95.49 N/mm2
Strain energy = σ2V/2E = 95.492 x 2×106π / (2x2x105) = 143238 N-mm = 143.23 N-m.
5. A tensile load of 100kN is suddenly applied to a rectangular bar of dimension 2cmx4cm. What
will be the instantaneous stress in bar?
a) 100 N/mm2
b) 120 N/mm2
c) 150 N/mm2
d) 250 N/mm2
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Stress = 2x load / area = 2×100,000/ (20×40) = 250 N/mm2.
6. 2 tensile load of 100kN is suddenly applied to a rectangular bar of dimension 2cmx4cm and
length of 5m. What will be the strain energy absorbed in the bar if E=1×105 N/mm2 ?
a) 312.5 N-m
b) 314500 N-mm
c) 1250 N-m
d) 634 N-m
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Stress = 2xload / area = 2×100,000/ (20×40) = 250 N/mm2
Strain energy = σ2V/2E = 250x250x20x40x5000/ (2×100,000) = 1250000 N-mm = 1250 N-m.
7. A steel rod is 2m long and 50mm in diameter. A axial pull of 100kN is suddenly applied to the
rod. What will be the instantaneous stress induced in the rod?
a) 101.89 N/mm2
b) 94.25 N/mm2
c) 130.45 N/mm2
d) 178.63 N/mm2
View Answer
Answer: a
Load = 100kN = 100×1000 N
Stress = 2 x load / area = 2x100x1000 / (625π) = 101.86 N/mm2.
8. A steel rod is 2m long and 50mm in diameter. An axial pull of 100kN is suddenly applied to
the rod. What will be the instantaneous elongation produced in the rod if E=22GN/m2?
a) 0.0097 mm
b) 1.0754 mm
c) 1.6354 mm
d) 1.0186 mm
View Answer
Answer: d
Load = 100kN = 100×1000 N
E=22GN/m2 = 200 x 109 / 106 = 200,000 N/mm2
Stress = 2 x load / area = 2x100x1000 / (625 π )
Elongation = stress x length / E = 101.86×2000 / 200000 = 1.0186 mm.
9. What will be the amount of axial pull be applied on a a 4cm diameter bar to get an
instantaneous stress value of 143 N/mm2 ?
a) 50kN
b) 60kN
c) 70kN
d) 80kN
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Instantaneous stress = 2 x load / area
Load = instantaneous stress x area / 2
= 143 x 400×3.14 / 2 = 60kN.
10. What will be the instantaneous stress produced in a bar 10cm2 in area ans 4m long by the
sudden application of tensile load of unknown magnitude, if the extension of the bar due to
suddenly applied load is 1.35mm if E = 2×105 N/mm2 ?
a) 67.5 N/mm2
b) 47 N/mm2
c) 55.4 N/mm2
d) 78.5 N/mm2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The value of stress = load / area where area is 10cm2 and load can be calculated by
stress strain equation
1. What is the strain energy stored in a body when the load is applied gradually?
a) σE/V
b) σE2/V
c) σV2/E
d) σV2/2E
View Answer
Answer: d
2. What is strain energy?

a) The work done by the applied load In stretching the body
b) The strain per unit volume
c) The force applied in stretching the body
d) The stress per unit are
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The strain energy stored in a body is equal to the work done by the applied load in
stretching the body.
3. What is the relation between maximum stress induced due to gradual load to maximum stress
the sudden load?
a) Maximum stress in gradual load is equal to the maximum stress in sudden load
b) Maximum stress in gradual load is half to the maximum stress in sudden load
c) Maximum stress in gradual load is twice to the maximum stress in sudden load
d) Maximum stress in gradual load is four times to the maximum stress in sudden load
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Maximum stress in gradual loading = P/A
Maximum stress in sudden loading = 2P/A.
4. A tensile load of 60kN is gradually applied to a circular bar of 4cm diameter and 5cm long.
a) 47.746 N/mm2
b) 34.15 N/mm2
c) 48.456 N/mm2
d) 71.02 N/mm2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Stress = Load/ area = 60,000 / (π/4 D2) = 47.746 N/mm2.
a) 1.19mm
b) 2.14mm
c) 3.45mm
d) 4.77mm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Stress = Load/ area = 60,000 / (π/4 D2) = 47.746 N/mm2
6. A tensile load of 100kN is gradually applied to a rectangular bar of dimension 2cmx4cm.

What will be the stress in bar?
a) 100 N/mm2
b) 120 N/mm2
c) 125 N/mm2
d) 150 N/mm2
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Stress = load / area = 100,000/ (20×40) = 125 N/mm2.
7. A tensile load of 100kN is gradually applied to a rectangular bar of dimension 2cmx4cm and
length of 5m. What will be the strain energy in the bar if E=1×105 N/mm2 ?
a) 312.5 N-m
b) 314500 N-mm
c) 245.5 N-m
d) 634 N-m
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Stress = load / area = 100,000/ (20×40) = 125 N/mm2
Strain energy = σ2V/2E = 125x125x20x40x5000/ (2×100,000) = 312500 N-mm = 312.5N-m.
What will be the strain energy absorbed by the rod if E=1×105 N/mm2 ?
a) 100 N-m
b) 132 N-m
c) 148 N-m
d) 143.2 N-m
View Answer
Answer: d
Strain energy = σ2V/2E = 47.746×47.746×12,566,370 / (2×100000) = 143,236.54 N-mm =
143.2N-m.
9. A uniform bar has a cross sectional area of 700mm and a length of 1.5m. if the stress at the
elastic limit is 160 N/mm, what will be the value of gradually applied load which will produce
the same extension as that produced by the suddenly applied load above?
a) 100kN
b) 110kN
c) 112kN
d) 120kN
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: For gradually applied load, stress = load / area
Load = stress x area = 160 x 700 = 112000 N = 112kN.
10. A tension bar 6m long is made up of two parts, 4m of its length has cross sectional area of
12.5cm while the remaining 2m has 25cm. An axial load 5tonnes is gradually applied. What will
be the total strain energy produced if E = 2 x 106 kgf/cm2 ?
a) 240kgf/cm
b) 242kgf/cm
c) 264kgf/cm
d) 270kgf/cm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: First stress = load /area, then the strain energy will be calculated as
Strain energy = σ2V/2E.
1. What is the strain energy stored in a body when the load is applied with impact?
a) σE/V
b) σE2/V
c) σV2/E
d) σV2/2E
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Strain energy in impact loading = σ2V/2E.
2. What is the value of stress induced in the rod due to impact load?
a) P/A (1 + (1 + 2AEh/PL)1/2)
b) P/A (2 + 2AEh/PL)
c) P/A (1 + (1 + AEh/PL)1/2)
d) P/A ((1 + 2AEh/PL)1/2)
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The value of stress is calculated by equating the strain energy equation and the
work done equation.
3. What will be the stress induced in the rod if the height through which load is dropped is zero?
a) P/A
b) 2P/A
c) P/E
d) 2P/E
View Answer
Answer: b
Putting h=0, we get stress = 2P/A.
1000mm2 in section. What will be the instantaneous stress (E=210GPa)?
a) 149.4 N/mm2
b) 179.24 N/mm2
c) 187.7 N/mm2
d) 156.1 N/mm2
View Answer
Answer: c
Putting P = 10,000, h = 30, L = 4000, A = 1000, E = 210,000 we will get stress = 187.7 N/mm2.
fixed. What is the maximum instantaneous stress induced in the vertical bar if E = 200GPa?
a) 50.87 N/mm2
b) 60.23 N/mm2
c) 45.24 N/mm2
d) 63.14 N/mm2
View Answer
Answer: b
1000mm2 in section. What will be the strain (E=210GPa)?
a) 0.00089
b) 0.0005
c) 0.00064
d) 0.00098
View Answer
Answer: a
Putting P = 10,000, h = 30, L = 4000, A = 1000, E = 210,000 we will get stress = 187.7 N/mm2
As strain = stress / E, thus, strain = 187.7 / 210,000 = 0.00089.
fixed. What is the maximum instantaneous elongation in the vertical bar if E = 200GPa?
a) 0.245mm
b) 0.324mm
c) 0.452mm
d) 0.623mm
View Answer
Answer: c
Putting P = 100, h = 20, L = 1500, A = 150, E = 200,000 we will get stress = 60.23 N/mm2
Elongation = stress x length / E = 60.23 x 1500 / 200,000 = 0.452mm.
fixed. What is the strain energy stored in the vertical bar if E = 200GPa?
a) 2.045 N-m
b) 3.14 N-m
c) 9.4 N-mm
d) 2.14 N-m
View Answer
Answer: a
Strain energy stored = stress2 x volume / 2E = 60.232 x 2525000 / (2×200,000) = 2.045 N-m.
9. The maximum instantaneous extension, produced by an unknown falling weight in a vertical

bar of length 3m. what will be the instantaneous stress induced in the vertical bar and the value
of unknown weight if E = 200GPa?
a) 100 N/mm2
b) 110 N/mm2
c) 120 N/mm2
d) 140 N/mm2
View Answer
Answer: d
140N/mm2.
10. The maximum instantaneous extension, produced by an unknown falling weight through a
height of 4cm in a vertical bar of length 3m and of cross section area 5cm2. what will be the
instantaneous stress induced in the vertical bar and the value of unknown weight if E = 200GPa?
a) 1700 N
b) 1459.4 N
c) 1745.8 N
d) 1947.5 N
View Answer
Answer: c
140N/mm2.
As, P( h + δL) = σ2/2E x V
So P = 1745.8 N.
11. An unknown weight falls through a height of 10mm on a collar rigidly attached to a lower
end of a vertical bar 500cm long. If E =200GPa what will be the value of stress?
a) 50 N/mm2
b) 60 N/mm2
c) 70 N/mm2
d) 80 N/mm2
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Stress = E x strain = E x δL/L = 200,000 x 2 /5000 = 80 N/mm2
1. The point through which the whole weight of the body acts is called _____________
a) Inertial point
b) Center of gravity
c) Centroid
d) Central point
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The centre of gravity of a body is the point through which the whole weight of the
body acts. A body’s center of gravity is the point around which the resultant torque due to
gravity forces vanishes. Where a gravity field can be considered to be uniform and the centre of
gravity will be the same.
2. The point at which the total area of a plane figure is asssumed to be concentrated is called
____________
a) Centroid
b) Centre of gravity
c) Central point
d) Inertial point
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The centroid is the point at which the total area of a plane figure is assumed to be
concentrated. The centroid and centre of gravity are at the same point.
3. Where will be the centre of gravity of a uniform rod lies?

a) At its end
b) At its middle point
c) At its centre of its cross sectional area
d) Depends upon its material
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The centre of gravity of a uniform rod lies at its middle point. The whole weight of
the rod acts through its middle point.
4. Where the center of gravity of a circle lies?

a) At its centre
b) Anywhere on its radius
c) Anywhere on its circumference
d) Anywhere on its diameter
View Answer
Answer: a
of gravity of a circle is at its center.
5. Where will be the center of gravity of the following section will lie In coordinates?
a) (6,3)
b) (6,6)
c) (6,1.5)
d) (1.5,3)
View Answer
Answer: c
half of 12 from the y-axis. therefore the center of gravity will be at (6,1.5).
a) At 8.545cm
b) At 6.5cm
c) At 5cm
d) At 9.25cm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The center of gravity is given by, y = (a1y1 + a2 y2) / (a1 + a2) = ( 36×11.5 + 30×5) /
(36+30) = 8.545cm.
7. Where will be the center of gravity of the L-section shown in the figure?
a) (1.28,2.64)
b) (1.45,3.24)
c) (1.64,3.28)
d) (2.24,3.68)
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The center of gravity is given by, y = (a1y1 + a2 y2) / (a1 + a2) = (10×3.5 + 4×0.5) /
(10+4) = 2.64cm.
For the x-axis, The center of gravity is given by, x = (a1x1 + a2x2) / (a1 + a2) = (0x1 + 4×2) /
(10+4) = 1.28cm.
8. Where will be the center of gravity of the figure shown ?
a) (3.45,4.52)
b) (3.59,7.42)
c) (3.66,8.84)
d) (3.88,8.88)
View Answer
Answer: b
8.88cm.
100×2.5) / (50+100) = 3.88cm.
2x10cm, lower web is 2×20 and that of flange is 2x15cm If the y-axis will pass through the
center of the section?
a) 7.611cm
b) 9.51cm
c) 9.31cm
d) 11.5cm
View Answer
Answer: b
30×9.5 + 40×1 / (20 +30+40) = 1.611cm
1. The center of gravity of the rod shown in figure will be _____________
a) 5cm
b) 10cm
c) 15cm
d) 20cm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The center of gravity of a rod will be on its center. Here it will be at 10cm.
2. The center of gravity of a circle of radius 10 cm will be _____________

a) At its center of the diameter
b) At the center of the radius
c) Anywhere on the circumference
d) Anywhere in its area
View Answer
Answer: a
of gravity of a circle is at its center. Whatever may be the radius of the circle the center of
gravity will be on its center.
3. A rectangle has dimension of 10cm x 20cm. where will be its center of gravity?
a) (10,10)
b) (20,5)
c) (10,5)
d) (5,10)
View Answer
Answer: c
half of 20cm from y-axis. therefore the center of gravity will be at (10,5).
a) 8
b) 8.5
c) 10.5
d) 11.5
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The center of gravity is given by, y = (a1y1 + a2 y2) / (a1 + a2) = (100×17.5 +
150×7.5) / (100+150) = 11.5cm.
5. Where will be the center of gravity of the L-section shown in figure?
a) (4.33, 2.33)
b) (4, 6)
c) (2.33, 4.33)
d) (1, 5)
View Answer
Answer: c
(20+16) = 4.33cm.
For the x-axis, The center of gravity is given by, x = (a1x1 + a2x2) / (a1 + a2) = (20×1 + 16×4) /
(20+16) = 2.33cm.
6. Where will be the center of gravity of the figure shown?
a) (3.45,4.52)
b) (3.59,4.52)
c) (3.66,5.17)
d) (4.01,5.15)
View Answer
Answer: b
4.52cm.
50×2.5) / (20+50) = 3.59cm.
7. Where will be the center of gravity of the shown figure?
a) (4.66,6.332)
b) (4.34,3.24)
c) (4.25,6.45)
d) (4.87,6.41)
View Answer
Answer: a
4.66cm.
100×5) / (25+100) = 6.332cm.
8. Where will be the center of gravity of an I section will be if the dimension of web is 2x20cm
a) 8.5cm
b) 9.5cm
c) 10.5cm
d) 11.5cm
View Answer
Answer: b
30×9.5 +40×1 / (40 +30+40) = 9.5cm.
9. Where will be the center of gravity of an T section will be if the dimension of web is 2x20cm
a) 10.5cm
b) 11.45cm
c) 12.35cm
d) 12.85cm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The center of gravity is given by, y = (a1y1 + a2 y2) / (a1 + a2) = (40×16 + 30×7.5)/
(30+40) = 12.35cm.
10. Where will be the center of gravity of the following section?

a) 7.33cm
b) 8.33cm
c) 9.33cm
d) 10.33
View Answer
Answer: b
The center of gravity is given by, y = (a1y1 + a2 y2) / (a1 + a2) = (50×11.66 + 50×5)/(50+50) =
8.33cm.
11. Where will be the centre of gravity of the following L-section?

a) (18.31,30.81)
b) (19.45, 29.87)
c) (20,30)
d) (19.62,29.62)
View Answer
Answer: a
(600+414) = 18.31cm.
For the x-axis, The center of gravity is given by, x = (a1x1 + a2x2) / (a1 + a2) = (600×3 +
414×40.5) / (600+414) = 30.81cm.
2x8cm, lower web is 2×16 and that of flange is 2x12cm If the y-axis will pass through the center
of the section?
a) 7.611cm
b) 7.44cm
c) 6.53cm
d) 6.44cm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Area of upper web a1 = 16cm, area of flange a2 = 24, area of lower web a3 = 32.
The center of gravity is given by, y = (a1y1 + a2 y2 + a3 y3) / (a1 + a2 + a3) = (16×15 + 24×8 +32×1
/ (16 +24+32)) = 6.44cm.
1. The axis about which moment of area is taken is known as ____________

a) Axis of area
b) Axis of moment
c) Axis of reference
d) Axis of rotation
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The axis of reference is the axis about which moment of area is taken. Most of the
times it is either the standard x or y axis or the centeroidal axis.
2. Point, where the total volume of the body is assumed to be concentrated is ____________
a) Center of area
b) Centroid of volume
c) Centroid of mass
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The centroid of the volume is the point where total volume is assumed to be
concentrated. It is the geometric centre of a body. If the density is uniform throughout the body,
then the center of mass and center of gravity correspond to the centroid of volume. The
definition of the centroid of volume is written in terms of ratios of integrals over the volume of
the body.
3. What is MOI?
a) ml2
b) mal
c) ar2
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The formula of the moment of inertia is, MOI = ar 2 where
M = mass, a = area, l = length, r = distance.
4. What is the formula of radius of gyration?
a) k2 = I/A
b) k2 = I2/A
c) k2 = I2/A2
d) k2 = (I/A)1/2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The radius of gyration of a body about an axis is a distance such that its square
multiplied by the area gives moment of inertia of the area about the given axis. The formula of
radius of gyration is given as k2 = I/A.
5. What is the formula of theorem of perpendicular axis?

a) Izz = Ixx – Iyy
b) Izz = Ixx + Ah2
c) Izz – Ixx = Iyy
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Theorem of perpendicular axis stares that if I XX and IYY be the moment of inertia of
a plane section about two mutually perpendicular axis X-X and Y-Y in the plane of the section
then the moment of inertia of the section I ZZ about the axis Z-Z, perpendicular to the plane and
passing through the intersection of X-X and Y-Y is given by the formula
Izz – Ixx = Iyy.
6. What is the formula of theorem of parallel axis?

a) IAD = IG + Ah
b) IAB = Ah2 + IG
c) IAB = IG – Ah2
d) IAB = IG + Ixx
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The theorem of parallel axis states that if the moment of inertia of a plane area
about an axis in the plane of area theough the C.G. of the plane area be represented by IG, then
the moment of the inertia of the given plane area about a parallel axis AB in the plane of area at a
distance h from the C.G. is given by the formula
IAB = Ah2 + IG.
7. What is the unit of radius of gyration?

a) m4
b) m
c) N
d) m2
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The radius of gyration = (length4/length2)1/2 = length
So its unit will be m.
8. What will be the the radius of gyration of a circular plate of diameter 10cm?
a) 1.5cm
b) 2.0cm
c) 2.5cm
d) 3cm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The moment of inertia of a circle, I = πD 4/64 = 491.07 cm4
The area of circle = 78.57 cm,
Radius of gyration = (I/A)1/2 = 2.5 cm.
1. What is the moment of inertia of a circular section?

a) πD4/64
b) πD3/32
c) πD3/64
d) πD4/32
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The moment of inertia of a circular section is πD 4/64.
2. What is the moment of inertia of a rectangular section about an horizontal axis through C.G?
a) bd3/6
b) bd2/12
c) b2d2/12
d) bd3/12
View Answer
Answer: d
C.G is bd3/12.
3. What is the moment of inertia of a rectangular section about an horizontal axis passing
through base?
a) bd3/12
b) bd3/6
c) bd3/3
d) bd2/3
View Answer
Answer: c
through base is bd3/3.
4. What is the moment of inertia of a triangular section about the base?

a) bh2/12
b) bh3/12
c) bh3/6
d) bh2/6
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The moment of inertia of a triangular section about the base is bh3/12.
5. What is the moment of inertia of a triangular section about an axis passing through C.G. and
parallel to the base?
a) bh3/12
b) bh3/24
c) bh3/36
d) bh3/6
View Answer
Answer: c
and parallel to the base is bh3/36.
6. What will be the moment of inertia of a circle in cm4 of diameter is 10cm?

a) a340
b) 410
c) 460
d) 490
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The moment of inertia of a circle is = πD 4/64
= 491.07 cm4.
7. What will be the moment of inertia of the given rectangle about an horizontal axis passing
through the base?
a) 1500 mm4
b) 1650 mm4
c) 1666 mm4
d) 1782 mm4
View Answer
Answer: c
through base = bd3/3
= 5x10x10x10/3
= 1666.66 mm4.
8. What will be the moment of inertia of the given rectangular section about an horizontal axis
through C.G.?
a) 350 mm4
b) 379mm4
c) 416mm4
d) 500mm4
View Answer
Answer: c
C.G = bd3/12
= 5x10x10x10/12
= 416.67 mm4.
9. What will be the moment of inertia of the given triangle about the base?
a) 20.33 mm4
b) 21.33 mm4
c) 24.33 mm4
d) 22.33 mm4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The moment of inertia of a triangular section about the base = bh3/12.
= 4x4x4x4/12
= 21.33 mm4.
10. What will be the moment of inertia of the given triangle about an axis passing through C.G
and parallel to base?
a) 6.1 mm4
b) 7.1 mm4
c) 8.1 mm4
d) 7.56 mm4
View Answer
Answer: b
and parallel to the base = bh3/36.
= 4x4x4x4/36
= 7.11 mm4.
11. What will be the difference between MOI of two triangle sections is in 1st, MOI is taken
about its base and in 2nd MOI is taken about its centroid?
a) bh3/12
b) bh3/18
c) bh3/36
d) bh3/24
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The moment of inertia of a triangular section about the base is bh3/12
The moment of inertia of a triangular section about an axis passing through C.G. is bh3/36
So the difference = bh3/12 – bh3/36 = bh3/18.
1. What is the product of the mass and the square of the distance of the center of gravity of the
mass from an axis?
b) Mass moment of inertia
d) Product of inertia
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The product of the mass and the square of the distance of the center of gravity of
the mass from an axis is known as the mass moment of inertia about that axis.
2. What is the unit of mass moment of inertia?

a) m4
b) m6
c) N
d) m2
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The mass moment of inertia is the product of moment of inertia and area. So L 4 x
L2 = L6. so its unit will be m6.
3. What is mass moment of inertia of circular plate?

a) Md2/3
b) Md2/12
c) Mr2/4
d) Mr2/3
View Answer
4. What is the mass MOI of a rectangular plate about x-axis passing through the C.G of the plate
a) Mb2/12
b) Md2/12
c) Md2/6
d) Mb2/6
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As the mass MOI is to be find along the x-axis, it would be Md2/12.
5. What is the mass MOI of right circular cone of radius R and height H about its axis?
a) 4MR2/10
b) MR2/10
c) 3MR2/10
d) MR2/12
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The mass MOI of right circular cone of radius R and height H about its axis is
3MR2/10.
6. What is the mass MOI of a hollow circular cylinder if R is the outer diameter and r is the inner
diameter?
a) M(R + r)/4
b) M(R – r )/4
c) M(R+ r)/2
d) M(R – r)/2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The mass MOI of a hollow circular cylinder is M(R + r)/4 where R is the outer
diameter and r is the inner diameter.
7. What is the mass MOI of a rectangular plate about y-axis passing through the C.G of the plate
a) Mb2/12
b) Md2/12
c) Md2/6
d) Mb2/6
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As the mass MOI is to be find along the y-axis, it would be Mb2/12.
8. The product of inertia at the principal axes is _____________

a) Minimum
b) Unit
c) Zero
d) Maximum
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The moment of inertia about x-axis and about y-axis, on the axis they are zero. So
the product of inertia will be zero in the principal axis.
9. What is the unit of product of inertia?

a) mm4
b) mm2
c) mm
d) mm3
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The unit of product of inertia is same as that of moment of inertia I.e. mm4.
10. What is the product of inertia of the given following section?
a) 50mm4
b) 625mm4
c) 125mm4
d) 250mm4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The product of inertia = area x points of C.G
= ( 10×5) x 5 x 2.5 = 625mm4.
11. What is the product of inertia of a circle of diameter 10mm?

a) 1862mm4
b) 1945mm4
c) 1963mm4
d) 2014mm4
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The product of inertia = area x C.G
= πx 10×10 / 4 x 5×5 = 1963mm2.
1. _______ is a horizontal structural member subjected to transverse loads perpendicular to its

axis.
a) Strut
b) Column
c) Beam
d) Truss
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A beam is a horizontal structural member subjected to a transverse load
perpendicular to its own axis. Beams are used to support weights of roof slabs, walls and
staircases. The type of beam usually depends upon the span, type of load elasticity and type of
structure.
2. Example for cantilever beam is ______

a) Portico slabs
b) Roof slab
c) Bridges
d) Railway sleepers
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A beam which is fixed at one end and is free at other end, it is called cantilever
beam. The examples for it are portico slabs and sunshades.
3. The diagram depicts _______ kind of beam.
a) Cantilever
b) Continuous
c) Over hanging
d) Propped cantilever
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A beam which is fixed at one end and free at other end is called cantilever beam. In
this case, some support other than the existing ones may be provided in order to avoid excessive
deflection or to reduce the amount of bending moment, the additional support is known as a
prop. The beam is known as a propped cantilever beam.
4. Fixed beam is also known as __________

a) Encastered beam
b) Built on beam
c) Rigid beam
d) Tye beam
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A beam which is fixed at both supports is called fixed beam or encastered beam.
All framed structures are examples of fixed beams.
5. U.D.L stands for?

a) Uniformly diluted length
b) Uniformly developed loads
c) Uniaxial distributed load
d) Uniformly distributed loads
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: These loads are uniformly spread over a portion or whole area. They are generally
represented as rate of load that is Kilo Newton per meter length (KN/m).
6. Given below diagram is ______ load.
a) Uniformly distributed load

b) Uniformly varying load
c) Uniformly decess load
d) Point load
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A load which varies uniformly on each unit length is known as uniformly varying
load. Sometimes the load is zero at one end and increases uniformly to the other forms of
uniformly varying loads.
7. Moving train is an example of ____ load.

a) Point load
b) Cantered load
c) Rolling load
d) Uniformly varying load
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: As train’s wheels (rolling stock) move in rolling way. The upcoming load will be
considered as rolling load.
8. Continuous beams are _________
a) Statically determinate beams
b) Statically indeterminate beams
c) Statically gravity beams
d) Framed beams
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Fixed beams and continuous beams are statically indeterminate beams which
cannot be analyzed only by using static equations.
9. A beam which extends beyond it supports can be termed as __________

a) Over hang beam
b) Over span beam
c) Isolated beams
d) Tee beams
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A Beam extended beyond its support. And the position of extension is called as
over hung portion.
10. Units of U.D.L?

a) KN/m
b) KN-m
c) KN-m×m
d) KN
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As these loads distribute over span the units for this kind of loads will be load per
meter length i.e KN/m. It is denoted by “w”.
1. Shear force is unbalanced _____ to the left or right of the section.

a) Horizontal force
b) Vertical force
c) Inclined force
d) Conditional force
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The shear force at the cross section of a beam may also be defined as the
unbalanced vertical force to the left or right of the section. It is also the algebraic sum of all the
forces I get to the left to the right of the section.
2. SI units of shear force is _______________

a) kN/m
b) kN-m
c) kN
d) m/N
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: As shear force at any section is equal to the algebraic sum of the forces, the units of
the shear force are also in kilo newtons and it is denoted by kN.
3. Determine the moment at fixed end.
a) 40 kNm
b) 50 kNm
c) 60 kNm
d) 80 kNm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Let the fixed end be “A”
Reaction at A = 10×4 = 40 kN
Moment at A = (10×4)×4/2
= 80 kNm.
4. Shear force is diagram is _______ representation of shear force plotted as ordinate.

a) Scalar
b) Aerial
c) Graphical
d) Statically
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Shear Force diagram is a graphical representation of the shear force plotted as
ordinate on baseline representing the axis of the Beam.
5. Hogging is________
a) Negative bending moment
b) Positive shear force
c) Positive bending moment
d) Negative shear force
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The bending moment at a section is considered to be negative when it causes
convexity upwards or concavity at bottom, such bending moment is called hogging bending
moment or negative bending moment.
6. At the point of contraflexure, the value of bending moment is ____________

a) Zero
b) Maximum
c) Can’t be determined
d) Minimum
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A point at which bending moment changes its sign from positive to negative and
vice versa. Such point is termed as point of contraflexure. At this point, the value of bending
moment is zero (0).
7. _________ positive/negative bending moments occur where shear force changes its sign.
a) Minimum
b) Zero
c) Maximum
d) Remains same
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: If shear force and bending moment values obtained are thus plotted as a diagram,
the SF & BM relationship always behaves vice versa.
8. Shear force of following diagram
a) Rectangle
b) Square
c) Circle
d) Trapezoidal
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: SF @ AB is 10 kN
FA = 10 kN
FB = 10 kN.
9. SI units of Bending moment is ___________

a) kN
b) kN2
c) kNm
d) km
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Moment is a product of force and perpendicular distance and the bending moment
is the algebraic sum of moments taken away from the left or the right of the section hence the SI
units of bending moment is same as the moment i.e kNm.
10. What is the other name for a positive bending moment?
a) Hogging
b) Sagging
c) Inflation
d) Contraflexure
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The bending moment at a section is considered to be positive when it causes
convexity downwards such bending moment is called sagging bending moment positive bending
moment.
1. A simple support offers only _______ reaction normal to the axis of the beam.
a) Horizontal
b) Vertical
c) Inclined
d) Moment
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In a simple support there will not be any resistance to horizontal loads, moment or
rotation. In fact, it only offers a vertical reaction normal to the axis of the beam.
2. To avoid _____ stresses in beams, one end of the beam is placed on the rollers.
a) Compressive
b) Pyro
c) Temperature
d) Tensile
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Roller support reaction is normal to the axis of the beam. In case the beam
subjected to trust or to avoid temperature stresses in the beam, one end of the beam is placed on
roller because it facilitate free horizontal movement of end. It is similar to simple support.
3. ________ support develops support moment.

a) Hinged
b) Simple
c) Fixed
d) Joint
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A fixed support offers resistance against horizontal and vertical movement and
against the rotation of the member and that in turn developers support moment.
4. Hinge support is called as __________
a) Socket joint
b) Swivel joint
c) Ball joint
d) Pin joint
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Hinge support is one, in which the position is fixed but not the direction. In their
words hinged support offers resistance against vertical and horizontal moments.it is fixed in such
a way that it resembles like a pin joint.
5. Name the support from following figure.
a) Hinge support
b) Fixed support
c) Free support
d) Roller support
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In the above figure we can observe that the beam is supported at both the ends so
the beam is fixed at both ends. Hence the support is a fixed support.
6. For a simply supported beam, the moment at the support is always __________
a) Maximum
b) Zero
c) Minimum
d) Cannot be determined
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As the moment is a product of force and perpendicular distance, the flexural
moment at the support is zero because there is no distance at the support.
7. “Hinged support offers resistance against rotation”.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A hinged support offers resistance against horizontal and vertical movement but not
against rotation. It support offers a vertical and horizontal reaction only.
8. Find the reaction at simple support A?
a) 6.5 kN
b) 9 kN
c) 10 kN
d) 7.5 kN
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Total load = 10 kN
Taking moment at A = 0
4 × R @ B – 10 = 0
R @ B = 2.5 kN
Reaction at A = 10 – 2.5 = 7.5kN.
9. Roller support is same as _____

a) Hinged support
b) Fixed support
c) Simply support
d) Roller support
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The support reaction is normal to the axis of the beam. It facilitates the vertical
support. It helps the beam to overcome the temperature stresses effectively. It is similar to simple
support.
10. Hinged supports offers vertical and ________ reaction.

a) Horizontal
b) Moment
c) Rotation
d) Couple
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A hinged support offers a vertical and horizontal reaction. The pin jointed support
offers resistance against horizontal and vertical movements but not against rotation movement
1. Which of these is the correct way of sign convention for shear force?
a) R U P
b) L U P
c) R U N
d) L D P
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: According to the theoretical approach, there are many sign conventions to follow
but the standard one is “right upwards negative” the sign convention is thoroughly followed
unanimously.
2. At hinge, the moments will be _________

a) Maximum
b) Minimum
c) Uniform
d) Zero
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: At the support of a member, there is no distance prevailing to take the upcoming
load. As we know the moment is a product of force and perpendicular distance, but at hinge (end
support) the distance is zero. Hence the moment developed is zero.
3. What is variation in SFD, if the type of loading in the simply supported beam is U.D.L is ____
a) Rectangle
b) Linear
c) Trapezoidal
d) Parabolic
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The shear force is defined as the algebraic sum of all the forces taken from any one
of the section. If you figure out the SFD for a simply supported beam carrying U.D.L throughout
its entire length, in the SFD we can observe that shear force is same at supports. In the centre, the
shear force is zero. Hence the diagram varies linearly.
4. The rate of change of shear force is equal to _____
a) Direction of load
b) Change in BMD
c) Intensity of loading
d) Maximum bending
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Consider a simply supported beam subjected to udl for the entire span considered a
free body diagram of small portion of elemental length dx.
Let the shear force at left of the section is = F

Let the increase in shear force in length of the dx = dF
Let the Indian city of load on this part of the beam = w
Total downward load in this elemental length = wdx
€V = 0
dF = -wdx
dF/dx = -w
This rate of change of shear force at any section is equal to the intensity of loading at that
section.
5. The shear force in a beam subjected to pure positive bending is _____

a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Zero
d) Cannot determine
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In the determination of shear force and bending moment diagrams it is clear that
shear force changes its sign when the bending moment in a beam is maximum and the shear
force in a beam subjected to pure positive bending will be zero as the neutralizing effect comes
under.
6. In SFD, vertical lines are for ______

a) Point loads
b) UDL
c) UVL
d) LDP
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Shear Force diagram started from left side of the m as per the load. For point loads
draw vertical lines and under UDL draw slope lines.
7. A cantilever beam loaded with udl throughout, the maximum shear force occurs at____
a) Free end
b) Fixed end
c) At centre
d) At point of contraflexure
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In a case of a cantilever beam subjected to udl, at the free end there will be zero
shear force because, we need to convert udl to load by multiplying with distance. Hence at the
fixed end the shear force is w×l i.e (maximum).
8. A simply supported beam of span 1 m carries a point load “w” in centre determine the shear
force in the half left of the beam.
a) W/3
b) W/4
c) W/2
d) W
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Let the two ends of the beam be A and B, the given load on a beam is symmetrical
hence RA = RB= W/2. SFD at any section in the left of the beam is equal to the W/2. SFDat any
section in the right half of the beam is equal to -W/2.
9. At the Point of contraflexure, what is the value of bending moment?

a) one
b) zero
c) three
d) infinity
View Answer
Answer: b
sign from positive to negative and vice versa. At the point of contraflexure, the value of bending
moment is zero.
10. When SF is zero, the bending moment is _____

a) Zero
b) Maximum
c) Very difficult to say
d) Minimum
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When is shear force changes its sign, the bending moment in a beam will be either
maximum positive or maximum negative. This is because of the sign convention adopted.
1. A cantilever beam subjected to point load at its free end, the maximum bending moment
develops at the ________ of the beam.
a) Free end
b) Fixed end
c) Centre
d) Point of inflection
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As the moment is the product of perpendicular distance and force. In cantilever
beam, at its free end the moment will be zero as there is no distance, but at the fixed end the
moment is maximum that is W×l.
2. Bending moment in a beam is maximum when the _________

a) Shear force is minimum
b) Shear force is maximum
c) Shear force is zero
d) Shear force is constant
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The maximum bending moment occurs in a beam, when the shear force at that
section is zero or changes the sign because at point of contra flexure the bending moment is zero.
3. Positive bending moment is known as _______

a) Hogging
b) Sagging
c) Ragging
d) Inflection
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The positive bending moment in a section is considered because it causes convexity
downwards. Such bending moment is called a sagging bending moment or positive bending
moment.
4. A simply supported beam of span “x” meters carries a udl of “w” per unit length over the
entire span, the maximum bending moment occurs at _____
a) At point of contra flexure
b) Centre
c) End supports
d) Anywhere on the beam
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As we know that BM occurs at center. Because at supports the moment is obviously
zero.
At the centre, maximum bending moment is wl2/8.
5. The maximum BM is ______

a) 40 kNm
b) 50 kNm
c) 90 kNm
d) 75 kNm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Above diagram depicts cantilever beam subjected to point load at the free end. The
maximum bending moment at A is W × I
= 30 × 3
= 90 kNm.
6. Bending moment can be denoted by ____

a) K
b) M
c) N
d) F
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Bending moment is the product of force and perpendicular distance. Units are kNm
It is denoted by “M”. Whereas SF is denoted by “F”.
7. Number of points of contra flexure for a double over hanging beam.
a) 3
b) 2
c) 4
d) Infinite
View Answer
Answer: b
sign from positive to negative and vice versa. In the case of overhanging beam, there will be two
points of contraflexure.
8. Maximum bending moment in a cantilever beam subjected to udl (w)over the entire span (l).
a) wl
b) wl3
c) wl2
d) w
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In a cantilever beam the maximum bending moment occurs at the fixed end.
Moment at the free end is 0 and maximum at the fixed end. Maximum shear force is w×l.
9. Determine the maximum bending moment for the below figure.
a) wl/2
b) wl/3
c) wl/4
d) wl
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: First of all, let’s assume the length between end supports be ”l” the maximum
bending moment in a simply supported beam with point load at its centre is wl/4. We know that
in simply supported beam the maximum bending moment occurs at the centre only.
10. What is the variation in the BM, if the simply supported beam carries a point load at the
centre.
a) Triangular
b) Rectangular
c) Trapezoidal
d) Other quadrilateral
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: For simply supported beam with point load at the centre, the maximum bending
moment will be at the centre i.e. wl/4. The variation in bending moment is triangular.
1. What is the bending moment at end supports of a simply supported beam?

a) Maximum
b) Minimum
c) Zero
d) Uniform
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: At the end supports, the moment (couple) developed is zero, because there is no
distance to take the perpendicular acting load. As the distance is zero, the moment is obviously
zero.
2. What is the maximum shear force, when a cantilever beam is loaded with udl throughout?
a) w×l
b) w
c) w/l
d) w+l
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In cantilever beams, the maximum shear force occurs at the fixed end. In the free
end, there is zero shear force. As we need to convert the udl in to load, we multiply the length of
the cantilever beam with udl acting upon. For maximum shear force to obtain we ought to
multiply load and distance and it surely occurs at the fixed end (w×l).
3. Sagging, the bending moment occurs at the _____ of the beam.
a) At supports
b) Mid span
c) Point of contraflexure
d) Point of emergence
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The positive bending moment is considered when it causes convexity downward or
concavity at top. This is sagging. In simply supported beams, it occurs at mid span because the
bending moment at the supports obviously will be zero hence the positive bending moment
occurs in the mid span.
4. What will be the variation in BMD for the diagram? [Assume l = 2m].
a) Rectangular
b) Trapezoidal
c) Triangular
d) Square
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: At support B, the BM is zero. The beam undergoes maximum BM at fixed end.
By joining the base line, free end and maximum BM point. We obtain a right angled triangle.
5. What is the maximum bending moment for simply supported beam carrying a point load “W”
kN at its centre?
a) W kNm
b) W/m kNm
c) W×l kNm
d) W×l/4 kNm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: We know that in simply supported beams the maximum BM occurs at the central
span.
Moment at A = Moment at B = 0
Moment at C = W/2 × l/2 = Wl/ 4 kNm (Sagging).
6. How do point loads and udl be represented in SFD?

a) Simple lines and curved lines
b) Curved lines and inclined lines
c) Simple lines and inclined lines
d) Cant represent any more
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: According to BIS, the standard symbols used for sketching SFD are
Point load = ———–
Udl load = \
7. ________ curve is formed due to bending of over hanging beams.

a) Elastic
b) Plastic
c) Flexural
d) Axial
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The line to which the longitudinal axis of a beam bends or deflects or deviates
under given load is known as elastic curve on deflection curve. Elastic curve can also be known
as elastic line or elastic axis.
8. The relation between slope and maximum bending moment is _________

a) Directly proportion
b) Inversely proportion
c) Relative proportion
d) Mutual incidence
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The relationship between slope and maximum bending moment is inversely
proportional because, For example in simply supported beams slope is maximum at supports and
zero at midspan of a symmetrically loaded beam where as bending moment is zero at supports
and maximum at mid span. Hence we conclude that slope and maximum bending moment are
inversely proportional to each other in a case of the simply supported beam.
9. What is the SF at support B?
a) 5 kN
b) 3 kN
c) 2 kN
d) 0 kN
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Total load = 2×2 = 4kN
Shear force at A = 4 kN ( same between A and C )
Shear force at C = 4 kN
Shear force at B = 0 kN
Maximum SF at A = 4 kN.
10. Where do the maximum BM occurs for the below diagram.
a) -54 kNm
b) -92 kNm
c) -105 kNm
d) – 65 kNm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Moment at B = 0
Moment at C = – (10 × 3) × (3/2)
= – 45 kNm
Moment at A = – (10 × 3) × (1.5 + 2 )
Maximum BM at A = – 105 kNm
= 105 Nm (hogging).
1. In simple bending, ______ is constant.

a) Shear force
b) Loading
c) Deformation
d) Bending moment
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: If a beam is undergone with simple bending, the beam deforms under the action of
bending moment. If this bending moment is constant and does not affect by any shear force, then
the beam is in state of simple bending.
2. If a beam is subjected to pure bending, then the deformation of the beam is_____
a) Arc of circle
b) Triangular
c) Trapezoidal
d) Rectangular
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The beam being subjected to pure bending, there will be only bending moment and
no shear force it results in the formation of an arc of circle with some radius known as radius of
curvature.
3. When a beam is subjected to simple bending, ____________ is the same in both tension and
compression for the material.
a) Modulus of rigidity
b) Modulus of elasticity
d) Modulus of section
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It is one of the most important assumptions made in the theory of simple bending
that is the modulus of elasticity that is Young’s modulus [E] is same in both tension and
compression for the material and the stress in a beam do not exceed the elastic limit.
4. E/R = M/I = f/y is a bending equation.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The above-mentioned equation is absolutely correct.
E/R = M/I = f/y is a bending equation. It is also known as flexure equation (or) equation for
theory of simple bending.
Where,
E stands for Young’s modulus or modulus of elasticity.
R stands for radius of curvature.
M stands for bending moment
I stand for moment of inertia
f stands for bending stress
y stands for neutral axis.
5. Maximum Shearing stress in a beam is at _____

a) Neutral axis
b) Extreme fibres
c) Mid span
d) Action of loading
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Shearing stress is defined as the resistance offered by the internal stress to the shear
force. Shearing stress in a beam is maximum at a neutral axis.
6. At the neutral axis, bending stress is _____

a) Minimum
b) Maximum
c) Zero
d) Constant
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Neutral axis is defined as a line of intersection of neutral plane or neutral layer on a
cross section at the neutral axis of that section. At the NA, bending stress or bending strain is
zero. The first moment of area of a beam section about neutral axis is also zero. The layer of
neutral axis neither contracts nor extends.
7. Curvature of the beam is __________ to bending moment.

a) Equal
b) Directly proportion
c) Inversely proportion
d) Coincides
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: From the flexural equation, we have 1/R is called as the “curvature of the beam”.
1 / R = M / EI
Hence the curvature of the beam is directly proportional to bending moment and inversely
proportional to flexural rigidity (EI).
8. What are the units of flexural rigidity?

a) Nm2
b) Nm
c) N/m
d) m/N3
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The product of young’s modulus (E) of the material and moment of inertia (I) of the
beam section about its neutral axis is called flexural rigidity.
Units for E are N/m2
Units for I are m4
Their product is Nm2.
9. What are the units for section modulus?

a) m2
b) m4
c) m3
d) m
View Answer
Answer: c
of section or section modulus. It is generally denoted by the letter Z. Section modulus is
expressed in m3
Z = I/y
= m4/ m
= m3.
10. What are the units of axial stiffness?

a) m3
b) m2
c) N/ m
d) -m
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Axial rigidity is a product of young’s modulus (E) and the cross-sectional area (A)
of that section. Axial rigidity per unit length is known as axial stiffness the si units of axial
stiffness are Newton per metre (N/m).
11. Calculate the modulus of section of rectangle beam of size 240 mm × 400 mm.
a) 5.4 × 106 mm3
b) 6.2 × 106 mm3
c) 5.5 × 106 mm3
d) 6.4 × 106 mm3
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: b = 240 mm & d = 400 mm
Moment of inertia (I) = bd3/12; y = d/2
Section modulus (Z) = I/y = bd2/ 6
= 1/6 × 240 × 400 ×400
= 6.4 × 106 mm3.
12. What is the product of force and radius?

a) Twisting shear
b) Turning shear
c) Turning moment
d) Tilting moment
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Twisting moment will be equal to the product of the perpendicular force and
existing radius. Denoted by letter T and SI units are Nm.
13. Determine section modulus for beam of 100mm diameter.
a) 785 × 103 mm3

b) 456 × 103 mm3
c) 87 × 103 mm3
d) 98 × 103 mm3
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: d = 300mm
For circular sections; I = π / 64 × d4
y= d/2
Z = π/32 × d3 (d = 100 mm)
Z = 98.17 × 103mm3.
1. In simply supported beams, the _____ stress distribution is not uniform.

a) Bending
b) Shearing
c) Tensile
d) Compressive
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In a simply supported beam, there is compressive stress above the neutral axis and
tensile stress below it. It bends with concavity upwards. Hence the bending stress distribution is
not uniform over the section.
2. The maximum _________ stresses occur at top most fibre of a simply supported beam.
a) Tensile
b) Compressive
c) Shear
d) Bending
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As bending stress distribution is not uniform over the section in simply supported
beams, the maximum compressive stress lies above the neutral axis. Obviously, top most fibre of
beam. The maximum tensile stress occurs at bottom most fibre.
3. The stress is directly proportional to _______

a) E
b) u
c) y
d) R
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: By two equations; we have e = y/R & e = f/E
Equating both equations; we get e = f/E = y/R
Hence stress (f) is directly proportional to the distance from neutral axis(y).
4. At the extreme fibre, bending stress is______

a) Minimum
b) Zero
c) Constant
d) Maximum
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Bending stress is defined as the resistance offered by internal stress to bending. In
beams, stresses occurs above or below the neutral axis i.e at the extreme fibres. Hence bending
stress is maximum at the extreme fibres.
5. The curvature of a beam is equal to _____

a) EI/M
b) M/E
c) M/EI
d) E/MI
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: From the bending equation, E/R = M/I = f/y.
Where R is called “radius of curvature “
1/R is called “curvature of the beam “.
So, 1/R = M/EI.
So curvature of the beam is directly proportional to bending moment.
6. Skin stress is also called as ______

a) Shear stress
b) Bending stress
c) Lateral stress
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The bending moment leads to deform or deflect the beam and internal stress resists
bending. The resistance offered by internal stress to bending is called bending stress or “fibre
stress” or “skin stress” or “longitudinal stress”.
7. _________ is the total Strain energy stored in a body.

a) modulus of resilience
b) impact energy
c) resilience
d) proof resilience
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: When a load acts on a body, there is deformation of the body which causes
movement of the applied load. Thus work is done is stored in the body as energy and the load is
removed this stored energy which is by virtue of strain is called resilience.
8. In cantilever beams, there is _______ stress above neutral axis.

a) Compressive
b) Tensile
c) Temperature
d) Shear
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In a cantilever beam maximum compressive stress occurs at bottom most fibre and
maximum tensile stress occurs at the top most fibre and zero at neutral axis hence the tensile
stresses lies above the neutral axis.
9. The product of modulus of elasticity (E) and polar moment of inertia (J) is called torsional
rigidity.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The product of the modulus of rigidity (C) and polar moment of inertia (J) is called
torsional rigidity and it produces a twist of one radian in a shaft of unit length.
10. Calculate the maximum stress due to Bending in a steel strip of 30 mm thick and 60 mm
wide is bent around a circular drum of 3.6 m diameter [Take Young’s modulus = 200kN/m2].
a) 2341.76 N/mm2
b) 1666.67 N/mm2
c) 5411.76 N/mm2
d) 4666.67 N/mm2
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Thickness of steel strip = 30 mm; b = 60 mm; d = 3.6m
R = 3.6/2 = 1.8 m
E = 200 kN/m2
y = 30/2 = 15 mm
E/R = f/y ; f = 200000×15/1800
= 1666.67 N/mm2.
11. The strength of beams depend merely on________

a) Modulus section
b) Moment of inertia
c) Flexural rigidity
d) Moment of resistance
View Answer
Answer: a
of section. The Beam is stronger when section modulus is more. The strength of beam depends
on section modulus. The beams of same strength mean section modulus is same for the beams.
12. The steel plate is bent into a circular path of radius 10 metres. If the plate section be 120 mm
wide and 20 mm thick, then calculate the maximum bending stress. [Consider Young’s modulus
= 200000 N/mm2].
a) 350 N/mm2
b) 400 N/mm2
c) 200 N/mm2
d) 500 N/mm2
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: R = 10000 mm; y = 20/2 = 10 mm; E = 200000 N/mm2
By bending equation we have E/R = f/y
f = 200000×10 / 10000
= 200 N/mm2.
1. What is the section modulus (Z) for a rectangular section?

a) bd2/6
b) a3/6
c) BD3-bd3
d) D4-d4
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The modulus of section may be defined as the ratio of moment of inertia to the
distance to the extreme fibre. It is denoted by Z.
Z= I/y ; For rectangular section, I = bd3/12 & y = d/2.
Z= bd2/6.
2. Find the modulus of section of square beam of size 300×300 mm.
a) 4.8 × 106 mm3

b) 4.5 × 106 mm3
c) 5.6 × 106 mm3
d) 4.2 × 106 mm3
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Here, a = side of square section = 300 mm.
I = a4/12. y= a/2.
Z = I/y = a3/6
= 3003/6
= 4.5 × 106 mm3.
3. _________ of a beam is a measure of its resistance against deflection.

a) Strength
b) Stiffness
c) Deflection
d) Slope
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A beam is said to be a strength when the maximum induced bending and shear
stresses are within the safe permissible stresses stiffness of a beam is a measure of its resistance
against deflection.
4. To what radius an Aluminium strip 300 mm wide and 40mm thick can be bent, if the
maximum stress in a strip is not to exceed 40 N/mm2. Take young’s modulus for Aluminium is
7×105 N/mm2.
a) 45m
b) 52m
c) 35m
d) 65m
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Here, b = 300mm
d= 40mm. y= 20mm.
R= E×y/f
=70×103 × 20 / 40
= 35m.
5. The bending stress in a beam is ______ to bending moment.

a) Less than
b) Directly proportionate
c) More than
d) Equal
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As we know, the bending stress is equal to bending moment per area. Hence, as the
bending (flexure) moment increases/decreases the same is noticed in the bending stress too.
6. The Poisson’s ratio for concrete is __________

a) 0.4
b) 0.35
c) 0.12
d) 0.2
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The ratio of lateral strain to the corresponding longitudinal strain is called Poisson’s
ratio. The value of poisons ratio for elastic materials usually lies between 0.25 and 0.33 and in no
case exceeds 0.5. The Poisson’s ratio for concrete is 0.20.
7. The term “Tenacity” means __________

a) Working stress
b) Ultimate stress
c) Bulk modulus
d) Shear modulus
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The ultimate stress of a material is the greatest load required to fracture the material
divided by the area of the original cross section in the point of fracture The ultimate stress is also
known as tenacity.
8. A steel rod of 25 mm diameter and 600 mm long is subjected to an axial pull of 40000. The
intensity of stress is?
a) 34.64 N/mm2
b) 46.22 N/mm2
c) 76.54 N/mm2
d) 81.49 N/mm2
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Cross sectional area of steel rod [Circular]be 490.87 mm2.
The intensity of stress = P/A = 40000/490.87
= 81.49 N/mm2.
9. The bending strain is zero at _______

a) Point of contraflexure
b) Neutral axis
c) Curvature
d) Line of action of loading
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The neutral axis is a line of intersection of neutral plane or neutral layer on a cross
section. The neutral axis of a beam passes through the centroid of the section. At the neutral axis
bending stress and bending strain is zero.
10. Strength of the beam depends only on the cross section.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The strength of two beams of the same material can be compared by the section
modulus values. The strength of beam depends on the material, size and shape of cross section.
The beam is stronger when section modulus is more, strength of the beam depends on Z.
1. The moment which resists the external bending is called ______

a) Moment of shear
b) Tolerating moment
c) Moment of resistance
d) Maximum bending moment
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The tensile and compressive stresses developed in the beam section from a couple
whose moment is equal to the external bending moment. The moment of this couple which
resists the external bending is known as moment of resistance [MR].
2. ______ strength is caused by a moment of resistance offered by a section.

a) Shear
b) Flexural
c) Axial
d) Longitudinal
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The moment of couple with resists action of bending moment is a moment of
resistance and the flexural strength possessed by section is the moment of resistance offered by
it.
3. A Steel rod 200 mm diameter is to be bent into a circular arc section. Find radius of curvature.
Take f = 120N/mm2 & E = 2×105 N/mm2.
a) 134m
b) 166m
c) 162m
d) 174m
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Diameter of Steel rod = 200mm; y = d/2 = 100mm.
f= 120N/mm2.
E= 2×105N/mm2.
By flexural equation we have f/y = E/R
R = 2×105/ 120 ×100
= 166.6m.
4. The hoop stress is also known as ______

a) Parametrical stress
b) Surface stress
c) Circumferential stress
d) Lateral stress
View Answer
Answer: c
pressure and which acts tangential to the circumference is called hoop stress or circumferential
stress.
Total pressure = p × A.
5. The ____ of strongest beam that can be cut out of a circular section of diameter D.
a) Load
b) Size
c) material
d) cross section
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The size of the strongest Beam that can be cut out of a circular section of diameter
D is
Depth; d = Square root of 2/3

b = D / square root of 3.
Among the given sections for the same depth I section gives maximum strength.
6. The moment resisting capacity of the cross section of a beam is termed as ______ of the beam.
a) Stiffness
b) Strength
c) Modulus
d) Inertia
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The moment resisting capacity of the cross section of a beam is termed as the
strength of the beam. The bending stress is maximum at the extreme fibres of the cross section.
The strength of the two beams of same material can be compared by the sectional modulus
values.
7. Find the moment of resistance of rectangular beam off grid to 40 mm depth 400 mm if the
bending stress is 15 N/mm2.
a) 78 kNm
b) 84 kNm
c) 96 kNm
d) 132 kNm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Moment of resistance (MR) = Z × f
= bd2 / 6 × 15
= 96 ×106 Nmm.
8. A rectangular beam 100 mm wide is subjected to a maximum shear force and 50 kN. Find the
depth of the beam.
a) 350 mm
b) 185 mm
c) 200 mm
d) 250 mm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Let the depth of the beam be d
Maximum shear stress = 3/2 (Average Shear stress)
d= 3×5000/ 3×2×100.
9. What is the approximate value of coefficient of linear expansion for steel?

a) 13 × 10-66 /°C
b) 11.5 × 10-6 /°C
c) 12 × 10-6 /°C
d) 16 × 10-6 /°C
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The increase in length of body per unit rise of temperature in original name is
termed as coefficient of linear expansion and it is denoted by Greek letter alpha. Coefficient of
linear expansion for steel is 11.5 × 10-6 /°C. For copper it is 17 × 10-6 /°C.
10. A hollow shaft has outside diameter 120 mm and thickness 20 mm. Find the polar moment of
inertia (J).
a) 16.36 × 106 mm4
b) 14.65 × 106 mm4
c) 10.32 × 106 mm4
d) 23.18 × 106 mm4
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: D = 120mm
t= 20mm & d = D – 2t = 80mm.
Polar moment of inertia (J) is π/32 ×[ D4– d4].
π/32 × [ 1204– 804 ].
16.36 × 106 mm4.
1. Unsymmetrical bending occurs due to ______

a) The Beam cross section is unsymmetrical
b) The shear Centre does not coincide with the neutral axis
c) The Beam is subjected to trust in addition to bending moment
d) The bending moment diagram is unsymmetrical
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: If the bending moment diagram of a beam seems to unsymmetrical, then with
respect to that diagram, the bending is said to be unsymmetrical bending.
2. A body having similar properties throughout its volume is said to be _____________

a) Isotropic
b) Homogeneous
c) Continuous
d) Uniform
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A body having similar properties throughout its volume is said to be
“homogeneous” and the material which exhibits the same elastic properties in all directions is
called “isotropic”.
3. Principal plane has ____________

a) Maximum shear stress
b) Maximum tensile stress
c) Zero shear stress
d) Minimum bending stress
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Principal stress is a magnitude of direct stress, across a principal plane which is a
particular plane having no shear stress at all.
4. Calculate the Strain energy that can be stored in a body to be pulled with 100 N/mm2 stress (f)
and E = 2×105 N/mm2.
a) 0.9 kNm
b) 0.05kNm
c) 0.87kNm
d) 0.54kNm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Strain energy stored in the body be “U” = f2/ 2 E × Volume.
= 1002/ 2×2×105
= 0.05 kNm.
5. Materials exhibiting time bound behaviour are known as _______

a) Isentropic
b) Reactive
c) Fissile
d) Visco elastic
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Materials exhibiting time bound behaviour popularly known as visco elastic and if
a body having similar properties throughout its volume it is known as homogeneous and
according to one assumption, the concrete is considered to be homogeneous material.
6. What are the units of true strain?
a) Kg/m2
b) Kg/ m3
c) No dimensions
d) N/mm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: As we know strain is the ratio of change in dimension to the original dimension. It
is denoted by “e”. Metres/metres hence no dimensions.
7. Revert size is generally expressed in terms of _______

a) Shank width
b) Girder length
c) Lap length
d) Shank diameter
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Rivets are ductile metal pins of often used for joining structure members as in case
of trusses, stanchions plate girders, cylindrical shells etc. The distance between two heads is
known as shank and rivet size is generally expressed in terms of shank diameter.
8. ________ joints are necessary to keep a structure safe against shrinkage.

a) Construction
b) Functional
c) Transverse
d) Longitudinal
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Functional joints are necessary to keep the structures safe against shrinkage,
expansion sliding and warping of concrete. These types of joints are made by forming
continuous breaks in large continuous areas of structures at suitable distance apart. The joints or
breaks may be 6 to 38 mm wide.
9. The specific gravity of sand is __________

a) 2.8
b) 2.25
c) 3.2
d) 2.65
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The specific gravity of sand is 2.65.
Materials Specific gravity
Trap 2.9
Gravel 2.66
Granite 2.8
Sand 2.65
10. To what radius a silver strip 200 mm wide and 40 mm thick can be bent if the maximum
stress in the ship is 80 N/mm2. Young’s modulus for Silver is 80×103 N/mm2.
a) 20m
b) 30m
c) 15m
d) 35m
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Here, b = 200 mm; d = 40mm
y = 40/2 = 20 mm
f = 80N/mm2
R = E×y / f
= 80000×20 / 80
= 20000mm = 20m.
1. In flitched beams ______ remains same for both materials.

a) Stress
b) Strain
c) Section modulus
d) Young’s modulus
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Due to bending, the strain will be same in both the materials.
A timber beam strengthened by steel strips.

Where E of timber / E of steel = m
The equivalent width = b + 2mt.
2. What is the moment due to dead load in case of continuous beams at the middle of interior
spans?
a) w L3 / 12
b) w L2/ 14
c) w 3/ 20
d) w L2 / 24
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The moment due to dead load in case of continuous beams at the middle of interior
spans is w L2 / 24.
Position Moment due to dead load
Near middle of end span W L2/ 12
At the middle of interior span W L2/ 24
At the support next to and support -W L2/ 22
3. A continuous beam is one which is _______

a) Infinitely long
b) Supported at two points
c) Supported it more than two supports
d) Supported by a prop
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A beam which is supported by more than two supports is known as a continuous
beam. In this beam, bending moment is low and hence the deflection in the beam is also
comparatively less. This beam is stiffer when compared to the other traditional beams.
4. The effective length of column depends upon ________

a) the cross section of beam
b) end conditions
c) maximum bending moment
d) extreme fibres
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The effective length of column depends upon end conditions.
Both ends hinged L
Both ends fixed L/2
One end is fixed and other end free 2L
5. The phenomenon under which the strain of material varies under constant stress is known as
________
a) Creep
b) Hysteresis
c) Viscoelasticity
d) Strain hardening
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A creep is a plastic deformation underweight the strain of material where is under
constant stress this is one of the mechanical properties of the engineering materials. The best
example is the failure of concrete.
6. Volumetric strain = 3× _____ strain.

a) Lateral
b) Linear
c) Composite
d) Yield
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: eV (volumetric strain) = 3× linear strain = 3×e
The volumetric strain is algebraic sum of all the linear(or) axial strain when a solid to be
subjected to equal normal sources of the same type of all faces we will have €x, €y and €z equal
in value. In this case the volumetric strain will be 3 times the linear strain in any of the three
axes.
7. The stress corresponding to breaking point is known as _____________

a) yield stress
b) ultimate stress
c) breaking stress
d) normal stress
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: After reaching ultimate stress, the stress strain curve suddenly falls with rapid
increase in strain and specimen breaks. The stress corresponding to breaking point is known as
breaking stress and it is denoted by G.
8. Determine the yield stress of a steel rod 20 mm diameter, if the yield load on the steel rod is
88kN.
a) 240.55 N/mm2
b) 280.25 N/mm2
c) 325 N/mm2
d) 290.45 N/mm2
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Initial area of the Steel rod of 20 mm = 314 mm2 [area of circle] Yield stress =
yield load/ Area
= 88 × 103/ 314
= 280.25 N/mm2.
9. What is the elongation percentage of a steel rod of 50 mm diameter if the total extension is is
54 mm and gauge length is 200 mm.
a) 27%
b) 23%
c) 43%
d) 35%
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Percentage elongation = Total extension / Gauge length × 100
= 54/200 × 100
= 27%.
10. __________ joints are provided when there is a break in the concreting operation.
a) transverse joints
b) longitudinal joints
c) construction joints
d) warpage joints
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The construction joints are provided when there is a break in a concreting
operation. Although the effort is always made to complete the concrete work in one day,
sometimes it is not possible and therefore, construction joints are provided. For beams, the joints
should be at the centre of the span or within the middle third.
1. Bond stress for M20 grade concrete in tension is ____________

a) 1.4
b) 1.2
c) 1.5
d) 1.8
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Bond stress is the shear stress acting parallel to the bar on the interface between the
reinforcing bar and the surrounding concrete. Hence it is the stress developed between the
contact surface of Steel and concrete to keep them together. The value of M20 designs Bond
stress is 1.2 in tension.
2. The formation of diagonal cracks at junctions is due to ________

a) Shear stress
b) Bond stress
c) Temperature stress
d) Lateral stress
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Bending is usually accompanied by shear. The combination of shear and bending
stresses produces the principle stresses which causes diagonal tension in the beam section. This
should be resisted by providing shear reinforcement in the form of vertical stirrups (or) bent up
bars along with stirrups.
3. Calculate the factored bending moment of a rectangular reinforced concrete beam of effective
span 4300 mm and load imposed 37.5 kN/m.
a) 100kNm
b) 127kNm
c) 130kNm
d) 145kNm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Factored load (w) = 1.5×37.5 = 56.25 kN/m.
Factored bending moment for simply supported beam (M) = wl2/ 8. = 56.25×(4.3)2/ 8 = 130kNm.
4. Determine the limiting percentage of steel for singly reinforced sections of M20 grade &
Fe415.
a) 0.68
b) 0.79
c) 0.96
d) 1.76
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The limiting percentage of steel for singly reinforced sections of M20 grade &
Fe415 is 0.96.
Grade of concrete Limiting percentage of tensile Steel for a Fe415
M15 0.72
M20 0.96
M25 1.19
5. Calculate the limiting depth of the neutral axis for mild steel of effective depth 400 mm.
a) 318mm
b) 212mm
c) 455mm
d) 656mm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The limiting depth of neutral axis Fe 250 steel is
Xu (max) = 0.53 × d ( for Fe250)
= 0.53 × 400
= 212mm.
6. Lap splices should not be used for bars larger than _____ mm.
a) 45mm
b) 54mm
c) 36mm
d) 72mm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Splices are provided when the length of the bar is less than that required. The
splicing of reinforcement is provided either by lap joint or mechanical joint or welded Joint. Lap
splices should not be used for bars larger than 36 mm for larger diameter, bars may be welded.
7. Anchorage value for “U” hook is ________

a) 16 × diameter of bar
b) 12 × diameter of bar
c) 10 × diameter of bar
d) 8 × diameter of bar
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Anchorage value for “U” hook is 16 × diameter of bar.
Type of Hook / Bend in degrees Anchorage Value
U hook 16 × diameter of bar
8. The standard __________ are provided in deformed bars.

a) Anglets
b) Bends
c) Fillets
d) Lugs
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In situations, where straight anchorage length cannot be provided due to lack of
space. To improve the anchorage of bars, standard bends are provided in deformed bars.
9. Transverse bars are also called as _________
a) Main bars
b) Anchor bars
c) Distribution bars
d) Stirrups
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In addition to main bars, along the shorter direction provided at the bottom,
minimum reinforcement along the longer span and are also provided on top of the main bars and
at right angles to them. These are called distribution bars are transverse bars.
10. A slab supporting only in two edges opposite to each other is ______
a) Two way slab
b) One way slab
c) Continuous slab
d) Cantilever slab
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: If the ratio of the longest span the shorter span is greater than 2 or A slab
supporting only in two edges (opposite to each other) is called one way slab. This slab spans
across shorter span practically.
11. Torsion reinforcement is provided in ___________ slab

a) One way slab
b) Two way slab
c) Simply supported slab
d) Cantilever slab
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A slab supporting on all four edges is known as two way slab. In this slab, the ratio
of longest span to the shorter span is less than 2. It requires torsional reinforcement because
there’s a chance of twisting at corners.
12. Generally in residential buildings, the width of stay is kept as ____________

a) 2m
b) 1m
c) 5m
d) 4m
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The stair consists of series of steps with landings at appropriate intervals. The width
of stair depends upon the type of building in which it is provided. Generally, in residential
buildings, the width of stair is 1 m.
13. As per IS 456:2000; the slope or pitch of stairs should be in between 25 ° to ___________
a) 45°
b) 90°
c) 40°
d) 120°
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Each step has one tread and one rise. As per IRC, the tread is in between 250mm to
300 mm. The slope or pitch of the stairs should be in between 25° to 40°.
14. When space is less, the ___________ staircases is much preferred.

a) Open well
b) Dog legged
c) Spiral stair
d) Circular
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The most common type of Stairs arranged with two adjacent flights running parallel
with mid landing. Where the space is less, dog legged staircase is generally provided resulting in
economical utilisation of available place.
15. The ______________ of a column is the distance between the points of zero bending
moments.
a) Slenderness ratio
b) Eccentricity
d) Effective length
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Effective length of a column is the distance between the points of zero bending
moments (point of contra flexure) of a buckled column the effective length of the column
depends upon the unsupported length and the end conditions
1. Eccentrically loaded structures have to be designed for _______

a) Uniaxial force
b) Biaxial force
c) Combined axial force
d) Combined biaxial force
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: When the line of action of the resultant compressive force doesn’t coincide with the
centre of gravity of the cross section of the structure, it is called eccentrically loaded structure.
They have to be designed for combined axial force.
2. ______ transfer the loads from beams or slabs to footings or foundations.

a) Pedestal
b) Post
c) Rib
d) Column
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A vertical member whose effective length is greater than 3 times its least lateral
dimension carrying compressive loads is called a column. The main function of column is to
transfer the loads from the beams or slabs to the footings or foundation.
3. In long columns, the lateral deflection causes at the ______

a) Supports
b) Throughout
c) Midspan
d) Along outer periphery
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A long column under the action of axial loads deflects laterally causing maximum
deflection at the centre. A long column fails due to buckling.
4. Short columns causes deflection in the structure.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: If the ratio of the effective length of the column to the least lateral dimension is less
than 12. The column is called a short column. It fails by crushing (pure compression failure) and
there is no chance of causing deflections.
5. The approximate percentage of reinforcement provided in a beam varies from _______

a) 1-2%
b) 1-4%
c) 2-3%
d) 3-4%
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The approximate percentage of reinforcement provided in a beam varies from 1-
2%.
Type of Structure Approx. % of Steel
Beam 1-2%
Slabs 0.7-1%
Columns 1-4%
6. To avoid the failure of a column by buckling ___________ limits are to be recommended.

a) Slenderness
b) Effective length
c) Kernel
d) Radius of gyration
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The column dimensions shall be such that it fails by material failure only (crushing
due to compression) and not by buckling. To avoid the failure of column buckling clause 25.3 of
IS 456 recommends the slenderness limits for the column.
7. According to IS 456- 2000, the minimum eccentricity subjected to a column is __________

a) 30mm
b) 20mm
c) 45mm
d) 50mm
View Answer
Answer: b
to the imperfection of construction or due to actual conditions of loading when IS 456-2000,
recommends that all columns Shall be designed for minimum eccentricity of 20 mm.
8. Radius of gyration is denoted by _________

a) k
b) n
c) e
d) y
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The radius of gyration about a given axis is defined as the effective distance from
the given axis at which the whole area may be considered or located. It is denoted by “k” or “r”.
The units for the radius of gyration are mm.
9. Find the moment of inertia of a rectangular section of 40 mm width and 80 mm depth about
the base.
a) 632×104mm4
b) 682×104mm4
c) 734×104mm4
d) 568×104mm4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation:
Moment of inertia of the rectangular section passing through the base is bd 3/ 3.

I = bd/3
= 40×(80)3/ 3
= 682.66×104mm4.
10. Mild steel is an example of ______________ mechanical property of the material.

a) Malleability
b) Creep
c) Ductility
d) Elasticity
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Ductility is the property of a material by which material can be drawn into thin
wires after undergoing a considerable deformation without rupture. The mild steel, silver, tor
steel, aluminium etc. are considered as examples for ductility.
11. Which of the following are the relative properties of the material?
a) Creep
b) Fatigue
c) Hardness
d) Stiffness
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The hardness is the ability of a material to resist indentation (impression),
scratching or surface abrasion. It is the relative property of the material. Every material has its
own hardness number.
12. Rotating key of a lock is an example of ____________

a) Varignon’s Theory
b) Walton’s Theory
c) Formation of couple
d) Parallel axis theorem
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A set of two equal and opposite forces whose line of action is different form a
couple. The effect of couple is always to produce moment on which it acts either in clockwise or
anticlockwise directions. The example is rotating key of a lock.
13. The relative change in position is called ______________

a) Matter
b) Body
c) Inertia
d) Motion
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A body said to be in motion when it changes its position with respect to other
bodies. The relative change in position is called motion. The motion involves both space and
time.
14. Which of the following is not base unit?

a) Area
b) Length
c) Time
d) Temperature
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: If the units are expressed in other units which are derived from fundamental units,
such units are known as derived units. The examples are area, velocity, acceleration & pressure
etc.
15. According to IS 456-2000, the minimum number of longitudinal bars to be provided in

rectangular columns is ________
a) 5
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: According to IS 456-2000, the cross sectional area of longitudinal reinforcement
should not be less than 0.8% and not more than 6% of gross cross-sectional area. The minimum
diameter of longitudinal bars is 12 mm and minimum number of longitudinal bars to be provided
is 4 for a rectangular column.
1. As per IS 456-2000, the minimum eccentricity for columns shall be given by ________
a) l/500 + D/30
b) l/450 + D/45
c) l/400 + D/40
d) l/250 + D/25
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As per IS 456-2000, clause 25.4 recommends that all columns show the design for
the minimum of its eccentricity. No column will be perfectly loaded axially. There might be kind
of moment acting due to improper construction.
2. If the columns are effectively held in position and restrained against rotation at both ends.
Recommend the value of effective length.
a) 0.6×l
b) 0.65×l
c) 0.77×l
d) 0.9×l
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The effective length of column for various and conditions may be taken from IS
456 2000, for effectively held in position and restrained against rotation in both ends
recommended value of effective length is 0.65 l

[ l = unsupported length of compression member ].
3. A column in which reinforcement is wound spiral is ___________

a) Tied column
b) Spiral column
c) Composite column
d) Short column
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When the main longitudinal bars of the column are enclosed within closely spaced
and continuously wound spiral reinforcement, then the column is said to be a spiral column.
4. The inclined members carrying compressive loads are ________

a) Pedestal
b) Strut
c) Post
d) Winch
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The inclined member carries compressive loads in case of frames and trusses are
known as Struts. The Pedestal is a vertical compression member whose effective length is less
than 3 times its least lateral dimension.
5. Polygonal links are also known as _____________

a) Bent up bars
b) Crancked bars
c) Lateral ties
d) Anchorage bars
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A reinforced concrete member of compression shall have transverse or helical
reinforcement. It is either in the form of spiral rings capable of taking up tension or polygonal
links (lateral ties) placed closely and confined with main bars.
6. The pitch of the lateral ties shall not be more than the least of the ______________
a) 300mm
b) 450mm
c) 500mm
d) 550mm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As per IS 456 2000; the which of the ties shall not be more than the least of the
▪ least lateral dimension of the column
▪ sixteen times the diameter of the smallest longitudinal bar
▪ 300 mm.
7. The minimum depth of foundation in all types of soils is _________

a) 350mm
b) 680mm
c) 500mm
d) 280mm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: According to IS 1080 – 1962, the minimum depth of foundation should be not less
than 500 mm. However, if good rock is made it smaller depth, only removal of top soil may be
sufficient.
8. In T beams, the most of the compressive force is shared by __________

a) Web
b) Flange
c) Rib
d) Neutral axis
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As the slab being Monolithic with the beam is also compressed and shares the
compressive force with the flange, the depth of beam required is less and hence the maximum
deflections also less.
9. In T beams, maximum ______ is less.

a) Shear force
b) Bending moment
c) Bending stress
d) Shear stress
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In T beams, the maximum bending moment is less because of the sagging moment
is effectively resisted. The maximum deflections are also less in these beams. They are preferred
for larger spans when compared to simply supported beams.
10. In continuous beams ______ moment develops at supports.

a) Hogging
b) Sagging
c) Couple
d) Static
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When the slab beam is continuous over several supports, hogging bending moment
is induced over the support developing tension at the top surface. The continuous beams and
slabs I design for maximum bending moment and shear forces.
11. In continuous beams ______________ moments is always less than support moments.
a) Upward
b) Mid span
c) Downward
d) Sagging
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The mid span moment in continuous beams and slabs is always less than the
support moment and hence weight of the beam doesn’t affect the stresses induced.
12. Lighter materials of construction can be used for a continuous beam.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Lighter materials are preferred in construction of continuous beam because as the
bending moment developed in a continuous beam is less, the bending moment to be resisted is
also less.
13. ________ is a good example for malleability.

a) Glass
b) Concrete
c) Copper
d) Lead
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Malleability is that property of a material by which it can be beaten or rolled into
thin sheets without any rupture. The best example considered for malleability is copper. Other
materials include ornamental gold, wrought iron & ornamental silver.
14. Determine the working stress in the factor of safety is 3 and ultimate load is what 127.32N?
a) 46 N/m2
b) 55 N/m2
c) 48 N/m2
d) 42 N/m2
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: We know that working stress is the ratio of ultimate load to factor of safety
Given F.O.S = 3 & W = 127.32N
Working stress = 127.32/3
= 42.44 N/m2.
15. Volumetric strain = 3× _____________
a) Linear strain
b) Lateral strain
c) Linear stress
d) Lateral stress
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The volumetric strain is the algebraic sum of all the linear or axial strains that are
€v = €xx + €yy + €zz
The volumetric strain will be 3 times the linear strain in any of three axis and €v = 3e
Where (e = linear strain)
1. The approximate percentage of steel taken for lintels in the absence of detailed design is
_______
a) 0.6-1%
b) 0.5-0.7%
c) 0.7-1%
d) 0.8-1.2%
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: RCC work maybe in foundations, columns, lintels, beams, floor& slabs the estimate
is prepared in cubic metres. In absence of detailed design, the percentage of steel reinforcement
is taken for lentils 0.7 to 1% and foundation raft footing it is 0.5 to 0.8%.
2. Mix proportion for M20 grade mix is _________

a) 1:3:6
b) 1:1.5:3
c) 1:4:8
d) 1:5:10
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Mix proportion for M20 grade mix is 1:1.5:3.
M10 1:3:6
M15 1:2:4
M20 1:1.5:3
3. The limit state corresponding to deflection, cracking and vibrations are _______
a) Limit state of collapse
b) Limit state of serviceability
c) Special limit state
d) Limit state of safety
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Limit state of serviceability refers to the ability of the structure at working loads it
is the state of limit at which the structure undergoes heavy deflection which affects the finishes
casting discomfort to the users.
4. In reinforcing of Steel bars, the end and side covers are taken as ____________ to
____________ mm.
a) 40 to 50mm
b) 30 to 45mm
c) 50 to 75mm
d) 35 to 50mm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: For reinforcement of Steel bars, the end and side covers are taken as 40 to 50 mm
and the bottom and top covers 12 to 20 mm for slab and 25 to 50 mm for beams.
5. The field capacity of a soil depends upon _____________ factor.

a) Porosity of soil
b) Soil Tension
c) Saturation capacity
d) Initial regime
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The maximum amount of water content which can be held by soil particles against
the force of gravity is called as field capacity. It is the upper limit of the capillary rise of water. It
firmly depends on the porosity of soil.
6. According to Fannings formula the flood discharge in cumecs is given by Q =

______________
a) CA2/3
b) CA3/4
c) CA5/6
d) CA7/8
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The emperical formula for flood discharge given by various scientists is
i. Dicken’s – CA3/4
ii. Rvye’s – CA2/3
iii. Fannings – CA5/6.
7. The estimate of flood can be made by using ____________
c) By unit hydrograph method
d) Comparison with graph method
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The estimation of a flood can be made by
i. Flood discharge formula
ii. By physical indication of past flood
iii. By unit hydrograph.
8. In simply supported slabs, alternate bars are curtailed at ________

a) 1/7 of span
b) 1/5 of span
c) 1/3 of span
d) 1/6 of span
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In simply supported beam at least 50% off bus shall extend into the support for a
length of 1/3 of development length from the face of the support and the remaining alternate bars
are curtailed at one sixth of span.
9. The length of the staircase between two consecutive landings is called _______
a) Tread
b) Flight
c) Rise
d) Effective width
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Stairs provide access for the various floors in a building. The stairs comprises series
of steps with landings at appropriate intervals. The stretch between the two landings may be
termed as a flight.
10. ________ is used in the entrance of cinema theatres and shopping malls.
a) Open well stair case
b) Dog legged stair case
c) Geometrical stair case
d) Single flight stair case
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: It is based on geometrical shape. The staircase is aesthetically superior compared to
other types and generally used in the entrance of cinema theatres and shopping malls. This is
mostly adopted in congested areas for good accessibility and proper ventilation.
11. In the design of lintel, determine the base angle of a triangle for poor masonry.
a) 40°
b) 45°
c) 60°
d) 90°
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: It is assumed that the load of triangle portion of the masonry is considered to act on
the lintel. The base angle of the triangle depends upon the quality of brick masonry used. It may
be taken as 45°for good masonry and 60° for poor masonry.
12. Calculate the height of the equilateral triangle in the design of lintel, if the masonry used is
poor graded. Take effective span as 1.29 m.
a) 1.334m
b) 1.433m
c) 1.117m
d) 1.125m
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Taking 60° [As masonry is of poor quality] Then height of equilateral triangle (h) =
l × sin 60 °
= 1.29 × sin 60 °
= 1.117m.
13. For a simply supported beam, the basic l/d ratio should be ____________
a) 20
b) 22
c) 16
d) 30
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: If the beam is being checked for deflection criteria, the basic values of l/d ratio of
various beams should be
1. For Simply supported beam – 20
2. for cantilever beam – 7
3. for continuous beam – 26.
14. A beam of clear span 6 metres is supported on bearings of 150 mm if the effective depth of a
beam is 400 mm. calculate the effective span.
a) 6.4m
b) 6.15m
c) 6.0m
d) 6.3m
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: For calculation of effective span, the least of below values should be adopted:
1. Clear span + d = 6 + 0.4 = 6.4m
2. Clear span + bearings/2 + bearings/2 = 6+0.15/2+0.15/2 = 6.15m
The least of the above values is 6.15 metres. Hence effective span is 6.15 m.
15. The final deflection of horizontal members will be the level of casting should not exceed
_____________
a) Span/500
b) Span/250
c) Span/300
d) Span/350
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The serviceability requirement for deflection should be such that final deflection of
horizontal members below the level of casting should not exceed span / 250. This is the reason
that the user can’t notice the deflection. The deflection taking place after construction of
partitions should not exceed span / 350 or 20 mm whichever is less.
1. The obstruction or a barrier built across the stream or river is called _____________
a) Barrage
b) Weir
c) Dam
d) Reservoir
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A dam may be defined as an obstruction or a barrier built across the stream or river
these are artificial storage works. It retains water to create an impounding reservoir.
2. FTL Stands for ________

a) Free tank level
b) Full tank level
c) Full top level
d) Fill toe level
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It is also called a full reservoir level (FRL). It is a level up to which the water stored
obviously the crest of the spillway is fixed at this level.
3. _______ is openings extending from upstream to downstream of the dam.
a) Guide banks
b) Divide voids
c) Sluices
d) Spillway
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Sluices are openings or conduits extending from upstream face of the dam to
downstream face of the dam. They are used to clean the silt from the reservoir. They also
decrease the peak flood in the reservoir.
4. Water stored in dam is expressed in _______

a) Mega cumec metres
b) Million cubic metres
c) Metric cumec
d) Million cusec metres
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It is the total quantity of water stored up to FRL. It includes dead storage also. It is
expressed generally in thousand hectare metre or million cubic metres (Mm3).
5. MDDL Stands for ________

a) Minimum draw down level
b) Maximum draw down level
c) Million drop down level
d) Mega drop down level
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It is the lowest level up to which the reservoir is depleted from the considerations of
hydropower generation. So this level is known as minimum draw down level (MDDL).
6. _____ dam which resists are the external forces by virtue of its self weight.
a) Earthen dam
b) Storage dam
c) Detention dam
d) Gravity dam
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A gravity dam is that, which is stable against all the external forces achieved by the
weight of the dam itself. This is the most permanent one and hence it is very commonly used. It
may be constructed in all localities.
7. The factor of safety against overturning should not be less than ______
a) 1.8
b) 2.25
c) 1.5
d) 1.75
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In the dam section, the overturning takes place when a resultant force cuts the base
of the dam downstream of the toe. The factor of safety against overturning is the ratio of the
stabilizing moment to the overturning moments. The safety against overturning should not be
less than 1.5.
8. In sliding failure, the co-efficient of friction varies from ________

a) 0.65 – 0.75
b) 0.8 – 0.9
c) 0.45 – 0.65
d) 0.85 – 1
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: To avoid sliding, the factor of safety against the sliding should be greater than 1.
F.S = M(V-U) / €H > 1
Where M = Co-efficient of friction. It varies from 0.65 to 0.75
V = Total vertical force
U = Upward force.
9. Which of the following forces do not act on the dam?

a) Silt pressure
b) Wave pressure
c) Creep pressure
d) Uplift
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Among the above forces, creep pressure does not act on the dam. Generally on
gravity dam number of forces such as water pressure, wave pressure, wind pressure, ice pressure
etc. will be acting in a horizontal direction. In the same way, uplift, self weight acts in vertical
direction.
10. The elementary profile of a dam is generally a ________

a) Isosceles triangle
b) Right angled triangle
c) Scalene triangle
d) Equilateral triangle
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In the absence of any other forces, the forces due to water and self weight of the
dam form an elementary profile which will be in triangular section having zero top width at
water level, where the pressure is zero and maximum base width is at bottom where the
maximum water pressure acts.
11. _____ acts as an inspection chamber in Dams.

a) Spillway
b) Heel
c) Drainage gallery
d) Toe
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A drainage gallery is an opening in the body of a dam which runs longitudinally. It
runs through the length of the dam. Generally, it is a rectangle shape with flat a semi-circular
head usually 1.5 m wide and 2.5m height.
12. The minimum standard height for a construction joint is about ________
a) 1.2 m
b) 1.5 m
c) 2.1 m
d) 2.3 m
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The joints which facilitate construction of the dam to proceed in small lifts. These
joints are also known as horizontal joints. A lift may be defined as the vertical distance between
two consecutive construction joints. The height is about 1.5 m each.
13. Cracks developed in the body of dam section can be avoided by ________
a) Construction joints
b) Contraction joints
c) Transverse joints
d) Longitudinal joints
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Due to variation in temperature it causes contraction and expansion in masonry or
concrete of the dam. It will develop fine cracks in the body of the dam. By providing contraction
joints, these cracks can be avoided.
14. ______ is the over flow section or portion of the dam.

a) Heel
b) Toe
c) Spillway
d) Gallery
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A spillway is the overflow section or portion of the dam over which surplus
discharge flows from reservoir to downstream face. This structure is provided in the body of the
dam or near the dam or on the periphery of the reservoir.
15. _______ is the common type of spillway used in gravity dams.

a) Ogee spillway
b) Trough spillway
c) Side channel spillway
d) Emergency spillway
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: An ogee spillway is very common type of spillway used in gravity dams. It consists
of two parts namely ¡)ogee crest and ¡¡) a bucket. In this spillway water spills and flows over and
ogee crest in the form of a rolling sheet of water. Due to this, the development of negative
pressures can be avoided.
1. Which of the following is not a failure of a rectangular dam?

a) Overturning
b) Toe erosion
c) Sliding
d) Foundation failure
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Among the above failures, the toe erosion is not related to rectangular dams. Toe
erosion is caused due to in some cases the spillway is constructed very near to the dam section
inside circumstances the discharge water may erode the dam.
2. Structural failures contribute about _______________ in the failure of dam.
a) 45%
b) 60%
c) 30%
d) 20%
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: About 30% of failures are due to:
i. Foundation slide
ii. Upstream slope failure
iii. Downstream slope failure
iv. Failure due to flow slide.
3. The free board is provided in dams to avoid _______________

a) Piping
b) Foundation of upstream
c) Wave erosion
d) Overtopping
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: By providing sufficient free board and by providing an adequate capacity of the
spillway, failure due to overtopping of the damn can be avoided.
4. By providing ______________ gully formation can be avoided.

a) Berms
b) Aqueduct
c) Spillway
d) Free board
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: By providing berms and turning on the downstream face of the dam, the failure due
to the formation of the gullies can be avoided.
5. The maintenance of the reservoirs, above _____________ Ha comes under irrigation

department.
a) 30
b) 40
c) 50
d) 60
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The maintenance of reservoirs is having commendable area below 40Ha comes
under Panchayat Raj department and above 40 Ha come under irrigation department.
6. Which of the following process will you prefer to prevent the leakage of water in the dam
foundation?
a) Guniting
b) Grouting
c) Gam mixing
d) Filling
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Grouting is a process in which a grout in liquid (8:1) slurry form, is injected into
the soil under suitable pressures and applied through the pipes.
7. ______ grouting increases the bearing capacity of soil.

a) Curtain
b) Consolidated
c) Blanket
d) Descending stage grouting
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: According to functions served, the groutings can be classified into
i. Consolidated grouting
ii. Curtain grouting
iii. Area grouting
Consolidation grouting increases the bearing capacity of the soil and creates proper bonding
between separated bodies.
8. According to IS, the specific gravity of a good building stone used in heavy dams should be
______
a) 2.2 – 2.4
b) 2.3 – 2.5
c) 2.4 – 2.8
d) 2.6 – 3
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The stones used for heavy irrigation works such as dams, bridges, check dams,
weirs, docks should have specific gravity between 2.4 to 2.8. Stones used for the roof may have
less specific gravity.
9. Hardness can be measured using _______

a) Mohr’s scale
b) Silica scale
c) Dalton’s scale
d) Abrasion factor
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The property to resist the abrasive forces cause due to wear & tear and friction is
called hardness. It is determined by the Mohr’s scale of hardness in a laboratory. A hard stone
will not show any scratches.
10. Granite has been widely used for dams construction because of _______
a) Crushing strength
b) Cost
c) Workability
d) Porosity
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Granite stone is derived from igneous rocks. It is very hard, durable and strong. Its
crushing strength is 100 to 140 N/mm^2. For this property, it is widely used in all important
works.
11. The range of slenderness ratio in dams varies from ________

a) 13 – 15
b) 12 – 15
c) 15 – 18
d) 15 – 20
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In dams, the slenderness ratio can be calculated through
= Height of buttress / Thickness of buttress
• It varies from 12 to 15.
12. _______ is provided for installation of control equipment of valves in dams.

a) Vertical shafts
b) Hydraulic openings
c) Connecting passages
d) Isolated chambers
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Isolated chambers are provided for installation of control equipment of walls or
pipeline or pumps. The function is to supply water to irrigation canals, fulfilling commitments
and desilting the reservoir.
13. The ratio of the volume of voids to the volume of given soil mass is __________
a) Porosity
b) Void ratio
c) Dry density
d) Specific gravity
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The porosity of a given soil sample is the ratio of the volume of voids to the value
of given soil mass. It is denoted by “n”.
n = Vu / V.
14. Sand layer is an example of ______________

a) Aquiclude
b) Aquifuge
c) Aquitard
d) Aquifer
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: An aquifer is a geologic formation (or) saturated bed which contains water and
yields them significantly. Example: sand bed. They permit the appreciable quantity of water
under ordinary field conditions.
15. ________ keeps the phreatic line within the dam section.
a) Longitudinal filter
b) Cross filter
c) Rock toe
d) Toe drain
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Rock toe keeps the phreatic line within the damn section and also facilitates
drainage. It is nothing but a downstream portion of a dam made of graded material. To achieve
good results, the height of rock toe shall be kept 1/3 to 1/ 4 of dam height.
1. Calculate the self-weight of the masonry of the rectangle dam of 10 m height and 4 m wide.
Consider specific weight of masonry as 20kN/m3.
a) 600 kN
b) 500 kN
c) 800 kN
d) 1000 kN
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Self weight of masonry = W = Area of cross-section × 1× Specific weight of
masonry.
= (10×4)×1×20 = 800 kN.
2. Water-cement ratio varies normally from ______________ to __________

a) 0.42 – 0.45
b) 0.45 – 0.48
c) 0.42 – 0.48
d) 0.45 – 0.5
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The ratio to which the required amount of water is added to weight of cement to
obtain desired consistency and workability of concrete mix is known as water cement ratio. It
varies from 0.42 to 0.48.
3. Calculate the resultant force of dam with given self weight 800kN and water pressure be
500kN.
a) 943.4 kN
b) 956.7 kN
c) 948.6 kN
d) 939.1 KN
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Resultant force (R) = (P2 + W2)1/2 = 5002 + 8002.
= (5002 + 8002)1/2
= 943.39 ~ 943.4 kN.
4. When the reservoir is empty tension occurs at ___________

a) Toe
b) Heel
c) Top width
d) Bottom width
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: For no tension to develop in the damn section in any condition, the eccentricity
should be less than b/6. When the reservoir is empty, tension occurs at toe and compression
occurs at heel.
5. What is the mix proportion for M15 grade concrete?

a) 1:1:2
b) 1:2:4
c) 1:3:6
d) 1:4:8
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Mix proportion for M15 grade concrete is 1:2:4.
M10 1:3:6
M15 1:2:4
M20 1:1.5:3
6. Laterite is an example of ___________ rock.

a) Siliceous
b) Argillaceous
c) Calcareous
d) Metamorphic
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The Rocks having (Gneiss) aluminium or clay as the main component, such rocks
are known as argillaceous rocks. Example: Slate, Laterite.
7. ________ is crystalline and compact in structure.

a) Marbles
b) Granite
c) Kadapa slabs
d) Shahabad stones
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Marble is a metamorphic rock and is made from limestone, this is a very costly
stone. It is less durable. It is crystalline and compact in structure. So it can take a fine polish. It is
not very hard.
8. As per IS, the standard dimensions for a brick is _______ (in cm).
a) 19×8×8
b) 19×9×8
c) 19×9×9
d) 19×8×9
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The shape of a brick should be uniform with rectangular surface and its size should
be standard with 19×9×9 cm. They should have a uniform red colour and it should be well burnt.
9. Formation of white patches on the surface on the bricks is ____________

a) Tempering
b) Porosity
c) Shrinkage
d) Efflorescence
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A good brick should not contain excess alkaline soils when the bricks are exposed
to the atmosphere. It should not absorb moisture. If it attracts moisture then dampness occurs and
results in the formation of white patches. Hence the brick begins decaying.
10. Kiln burning involves 90% of first class bricks.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Kiln burning is a permanent structure. There is complete control on fire. It produces
a large scale of manufactured bricks, it takes only 24 hours in burning the bricks and 12 days for
cooling. It produces 90% of burnt bricks.
11. ______ bricks can withstand up to a temperature of 1800°C.

a) Refractory
b) Fly ash
c) Clay
d) Cement
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The bricks made from refractory clay are called refractory bricks. The weight of
these bricks is 2 kN/m3. The standard size is 230× 65× 113 mm. These bricks can withstand up
to the temperature of 1800°C.
12. According to IS, the minimum expansion joint in construction should be ________
a) 18mm to 30 mm
b) 15mm to 24mm
c) 18mm to 25mm
d) 22mm to 30mm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: According to Indian standards 456- 2000, it is desirable to provide 18 mm to 25
mm thick expansion joints after every 30 to 45 m construction of length.
13. The edges formed by the intersection of plane surfaces of a brick are known as _________
a) Arises
b) Stretcher
c) Header
d) Frog
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In any bond, the edges formed by the intersection of plane surfaces of a brick are
termed as arises. These are straight and sharp in case of good bricks or brick tiles.
14. The depression made in the face of brick during its manufacture is _________
a) Brick tile
b) Bat
c) Frog
d) Quoin closer
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The depression provided on any face of the brick during its manufacture can be
termed as frog. A hand moulded bricks has one frog. A pressed brick has two frogs.
15. Calculate the eccentricity of a rectangular dam of width 4 m. Take the distance between the
water face and point where resultant cuts the base as 5.25 m.
a) 2.25m
b) 3.25m
c) 4.35m
d) 5.35m
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Eccentricity = e = Z – b/ 2
Where Z = 5.25 m & b = 4m ; Now, e = Z- b/2
e = 5.25 – 4/2
= 3.25m.
1. Calculate the horizontal water pressure acting on a dam. The total depth of water be 13m.
Take specific weight of water be 10kN/m3.
a) 765 kN
b) 845 kN
c) 965 kN
d) 1175 kN
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Horizontal water pressure(P) = w×h2/ 2.
Where w = 10 kN/m3. h= 13m.
P = 10×132/ 2 = 845kN.
2. Calculate the self-weight of a rectangular dam of 22m high and 8m wide. It contains water
upto a height of 20m. Consider the specific weight of masonry be 25 kN/m3.
a) 3560 kN
b) 5432 kN
c) 4400 kN
d) 5680 kN
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Consider 1m length of the dam. The total depth of dam is 22 metres.
Self weight of masonry (W)= (22×8)×1×25
= 4400kN.
3. The pressure intensity of water at free surface is ________

a) Zero
b) Maximum
c) Minimum
d) Uniform
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The pressure intensity of water at a free surface is always zero and increase linearly
to a maximum at the base and is equal to “ wh”.
4. Self weight of dam acts in ___________ direction.

a) Vertical
b) Horizontal
c) Inclined
d) Parallel
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Self weight of the Dam at vertically downwards passing through centre of gravity
of the damn section and Total horizontal water pressure acts horizontally at heel of the dam.
5. The maximum compressive stresses developed at the base of the dam should not exceed
permissible ___________ stresses for masonry.
a) Tensile
b) Crippling
c) Compressive
d) Shear
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: To avoid the failure of crushing, the maximum compressive stress developed at the
base of the dam should not exceed the permissible compressive stress for masonry with which
the dam is constructed.
6. For no _______ to develop in the dam section the resultant should always lie within the
middle third.
a) Compression
b) Tension
c) Shear
d) Buckling
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: For no tension to develop in the dam section at any condition, the eccentricity
developed with the resultant should be always less than b/6. The resultant must always lie within
the middle third.
7. Calculate the self weight of trapezoidal dam with top width 5m and bottom width 8m. The
height of dam is 15 m. Consider specific weight of masonry be 25kN/m3.
a) 3456.5 kN
b) 2768.5 kN
c) 2437.5 kN
d) 3450 kN
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Consider 1m of length, area of trapezoidal dam be (a+b)/2 ×H
The self weight of trapezoidal dam (W) = (a+b)/2 × H × 1 × 25
W = 2437.5 kN.
8. The material(earth) retained by the retaining wall is called as __________

a) Surcharge
b) Turf
c) Foliate
d) Back fill
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The material retained by the retaining wall is called back fill. The top surface of the
back fills maybe him the horizontal or inclined.
9. The inclination of surcharge to the horizontal is called ____________

a) Surcharge elevation
b) Surcharge angle
c) Surcharge factor
d) Surcharge depression
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The back fill lying above a horizontal plane at an elevation of the top of wall is
known as a surcharge and its inclination to the horizontal is called surcharge angle.
10. Which of the following is practical pressure?

View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The pressure exerted by back fill on retaining wall is called an active earth pressure.
This is the minimum earth pressure exerted by the soil. This is also known as practical pressure.
11. The angle of internal friction for water is __________

a) 180°
b) 100°
c) 0°
d) 270°
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Angle of internal friction is defined as the maximum slope at which the particles of
soil will come in rest due to their internal friction. It is also called an angle of repose for water it
is 0°.
12. Which of the following is theoretical pressure?

c) Soil Tension
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The pressure exerted by the retaining wall on the retained earth is called passive
earth pressure. This is a maximum earth pressure due to maximum shear stress on the retaining
wall. This is also known as theoretical pressure.
13. Which of the following is an example for plasticizer?

a) Ca
b) Mg
c) Zn
d) Hg
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The combination of both inorganic and organic materials which will help to reduce
the water content for getting higher workability are known as plasticizers. Examples are calcium,
sodium, salts of hydrocarbons etc.
14. _______ curing is adopted for columns and walls.

a) Moist curing
b) Membrane curing
c) Ponding
d) Descending stage
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In this curing, the exposed surface of the concrete is kept in a damp and moist
condition for a long time, the vertical members like columns and walls can be adopted for this
type of curing.
15. Prestressed concrete is an example of _____________

a) Malleability
b) Ductility
c) Fatigue
d) Plasticity
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Fatigue is the property of a material by which the material with stands to repeating,
reversing or varying upcoming loads. The best example of fatigue is concrete and prestressed
concrete.
1. Calculate the eccentricity of a trapezoidal dam with a distance between the centre of gravity
and point where the resultant cuts the base is 5m. The bottom width of the dam is 3m.
a) 2.5m
b) 3.5m
c) 4.5m
d) 5m
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The eccentricity (e) = Z – b/2.
Z= distance between the centre of gravity and point where the resultant cuts the base is 5m.
= 5-3/2 = 1.5m.
2. Which of the following is not a failure of retaining wall?

a) Structural slide
b) Shear sliding
c) Crushing
d) Slope pitching
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Crushing Failure is related to dams. The retaining walls are the structures
constructed to store earth on one side especially in case of hill or ghat roads.
3. ________ pressure which occurs commonly in dams.

a) Passive earth pressure
b) Active earth pressure
d) Wind pressure
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Active earth pressure is exerted by backfill on retaining walls. It is also called as
practical pressure. It occurs commonly in dams.
4. _________ failures contribute 40% to earthen dams.

a) Seepage
b) Structural
c) Hydraulic
d) Natural
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: On the basis of various investigation reports and case studies, hydraulic failures
contribute about 40% of failures to earthen dams. The rest of the failures is shared by seepage
failures and structural failures.
5. Which of the following filters are also known as chimney drains?

a) Horizontal filter
b) Inclined filter
c) Rock toe
d) Toe drain
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The filters which are laid across the outer slope of the impervious core are called as
inclined filters. They are also known as Chimney drains. They are provided mainly to collect the
seepage emerging out of the core.
6. Zoned earthen dams are also known as ______

a) Heterogeneous dams
b) Core wall dams
c) Homogeneous dams
d) Hydraulic dam
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The dams are constructed on shallow pervious foundations in this dam section
about outer zones are made fairly pervious material and the inner most zoning called “hearting”
is done was fairly impervious material. It is also known as heterogeneous dam.
7. ___________ dams are built with key trenches.

a) Heterogeneous earth dam
b) Homogeneous earth dam
c) Earth Dam with Core wall
d) Rolled fill dam
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The outer zones of this dam are made of pervious material as in zoned dam. In this
case, it is essentially build cut-off wall (cut-off trench) built quite deep preferably upto
impervious rock layer in the foundation.
8. Line of seepage is also known as __________

a) Hydraulic gradient
b) Phreatic line
c) Seepage gradient
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The line within the dam section below which there are positive hydrostatic
pressures in a dam and above the line the hydrostatic pressures are negative. It gives a divide line
between dry and saturated soils.
9. ____________ represents the top stream line.

a) Phreatic line
b) Hydraulic gradient line
c) Seepage gradient
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Phreatic line is also called a line of seepage or saturation line. The phreatic line
represents the top streamline and hence helps us in drawing the flow net.
10. The hydrostatic pressures on phreatic line are equal to____

a) Zero
b) Maximum
c) Minimum
d) Constant
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The hydrostatic pressure on phreatic line is equal to atmospheric pressure and
hence equal to zero, the flow through the body of the dam below the phreatic line reduces the
effective weight of the soil and thus reduces the shear strength of the soil.
11. Expand MWL?

a) Minimum water level
b) Maximum water level
c) Meagre water level
d) Most wind level
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The water level that is attained during floods is called the maximum water level.
The dams and spillway sections are designed to withstand water pressure at this level.
12. ______ is the difference of Level between full reservoir level and top of the dam.
a) Net free board
b) Gross free board
c) Design free board
d) Over free board
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In dams, in order to prevent the overtopping during peak floods, a sufficient margin
is provided between the full reservoir level and top of the dam. This is known as gross free
board.
13. By keeping the phreatic line within the downstream toe, the ___________ can be avoided.
a) Piping
b) Gullying
c) Sloughing
d) Over topping
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: If the filter at downstream side toe is choked then also the downstream too becomes
saturated. In such circumstances, some erosion occurs in downstream to this causes sloughing.
To avoid this phreatic line must be within the downstream toe.
14. Springs(closely coiled) are examples of _____________

a) stiffness
b) hardness
c) toughness
d) creep
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The property of a material or substance which offers resistance to bending action
and measures the load required to be applied is called stiffness. It is denoted by s or k. Springs
are the best examples of stiffness.
15. Perennial canals are also known as ________

a) Inundation canal
b) Productive canal
c) Feeder canal
d) Permanent canal
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The canal which is fed by a permanent source of supply is said to be a permanent
Canal. It has also regulatory works. This canal is also sometimes known as a perennial canal.
1. To ensure economy in dam sections, the ______ should be minimum.

a) Base width
b) Top width
c) Spillway length
d) Toe of the wall
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In dams, the economy prevails if the cross section of a dam is provided with
minimum base width. Base width “b” can be determined from the equation: b2 +ab+ a2 = H2/ S.
2. Calculate the maximum stress at the base section is the self weight is 4400 kN. The top and
bottom width of them are 3 and 8 m respectively. Take (e) = 2.97.
a) 1658.15 kN/m2
b) 1775.12 kN/m2
c) 1897.45 kN/m2
d) 2336.67 kN/m2
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The maximum stress at the base section = W/b (1+6e/b)
P= 4400/8 (1+6×2.97/8)
= 1775.125 kN/m2.
3. If the maximum stress is positive, then the nature of stress is ____
a) Tensile
b) Shearing
c) Compressive
d) Bending
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: If the stress developed in the dam section at the base is positive there it indicates
the nature of stress to be compressive.
4. Determine the eccentricity of the dam section, if the base width of the dam be 6m. Take Z =
5.5m.
a) 2.5
b) 1.5
c) 3.5
d) 4.5
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: e = Z – b/2. [The value of Z = 5.5m] = 5.5 – 6/2
= 5.5 – 3
= 2.5 m.
5. Calculate the minimum stress developed at the heel of the dam, if the self weight of the dam is
924 kN and the base with is 6 metres [Take e = 0.0945m].
a) 145 kN/m2
b) 139 kN/m2
c) 167 kN/m2
d) 183 kN/m2
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The minimum stress developed at the heel of the dam is W/b ×(1-6e/b).
= 920/6 ×(1-6×0.0945/6).
= 139 kN/m2.
6. The side slopes depend on ____________ conditions of a proposed dam.

a) Toe width
b) Height of foundation
c) Character of material
d) Free board allowance
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The upstream and downstream slopes of the Dam should be stable in all situations
the side slopes depend upon
1.Height of the dam
2.Character of material
3.Nature of foundation.
7. Molitor’s formula can be used for calculation of ___________

a) Freeboard
b) Toe width
c) Wave height
d) Base drop
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The minimum height of the free board for wave action is generally taken to be
equal to 1.5 hw. Where hw = height of wave action.
It can be calculated using 0.032(VF)1/2.
8. The height of the dam = free board + ___________

a) FTL
b) MWL
c) FRL
d) HFL
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The dam’s height mainly depends on HFL of the reservoir. The height of the dam
above surface is given by the HFL plus the free board.
Height of the dam = HFL + free board.
9. _____________ sections allow the surplus discharge to flow in dams.

a) Mulching
b) Over reinforced
c) Breaching
d) Balanced
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Sometimes during construction, the surplus works are avoided in many tanks. In
such circumstances, breaching sections are provided in the dams to allow the surplus flood
discharge. With this the scouring of section can be avoided.
10. If the minimum stress developed is negative, then the nature of stress is ___________
a) Shearing
b) Tensile
c) Bending
d) Compressive
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: If the minimum stress developed at the base of the dam section is negative, then the
respective nature of the stress will be in tensile condition.
11. ____________ creates concentrated seepage in dams section.

a) Longitudinal cracks
b) Transverse cracks
c) Construction cracks
d) Contraction cracks
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Due to differential settlement cracks may be developed in the bund. These are of
two types 1) longitudinal cracks 2) transverse cracks. The transverse cracks are more dangerous
to the dam section because they can create concentrated seepage.
12. The upstream slope recommended for sand and gravel with RCC core wall is __________
a) 1:2
b) 3:1
c) 2.5:1
d) 1.5:1
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: According to Terazghi, the following upstream slopes should be recommended.
For:
1. Homogeneous well graded – 2.5 : 1
2. Homogeneous coarse silt – 3 : 1
3. Sand and gravel with RCC core wall – 2.5 : 1.
13. Major distributaries discharge varies from ____________

a) 0.25 to 5 cumecs
b) 2 to 4 cumecs
c) 1.5 to 5 cumecs
d) 1.2 to 5 cumecs
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The major distributary takes off from a branch canal to distribute the water to
various parts of the field. The supply of the water varies from 0.25 to 5 cumecs.
14. Field channels are also known as ______

a) Branch canals
b) Slope channels
c) Water courses
d) Contour canals
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The water courses are the channel that carries irrigation water to the fields. The
water courses derive their supply from distributaries through outlets. They are also called as field
channels.
15. The structures constructed along are distributaries are called as _______
a) Inlets
b) Outlets
c) Distributaries
d) Channels
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: An outlet is a simple and small irrigation structure which is constructed along the
distributaries. The amount of water that is withdrawn through the outlet is in proportion to the
area that is irrigated below respective point.
1. Slope in the beam at any point is measured in ____________

a) Degrees
b) Minutes
c) Radians
d) Metric tonnes
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The slope is defined as at any point on the bent beam is the angle measured in terms
of radians to which the tangent at that point makes with the x axis.
2. Elastic curve is also known as __________

a) Refraction curve
b) Reflection curve
c) Deflection curve
d) Random curve
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: An elastic curve is defined as the line to which the longitudinal axis of a beam
deviates under given load. It is also called a deflection curve.
3. Which of the following method is not used for determining slope and deflection at a point?
a) Moment area method
b) Double integration method
c) Isoheytal method
d) Macaulay’s method
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The method “Isoheytal” can be used for calculating run-off over an area. The
remaining methods are effectively adopted to calculate the slope and deflection at a point in any
type of beam.
4. The slope is denoted by _______

a) k
b) y
c) i
d) c
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The slope at any section in a deflection beam is defined as the angle measured in
radians to the tangent at the section makes with the original axis of the beam.
•It is denoted by “i”.
5. Calculate the slope at supports, if the area is 180kNm2. Take flexural rigidity as 50000.
a) 0.0054 radians
b) 0.0072 radians
c) 0.0036 radians
d) 0.108 radians
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Maximum slope at supports be i = A/EI
= 180/50000
i = 0.0036 radians.
6. In cantilever beams, the slope is _____________ at fixed end.

a) Maximum
b) Zero
c) Minimum
d) Uniform
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The slope in cantilever beam is zero at the fixed end of the cantilever and the slope
is maximum at it’s free end. The slope is determined in the moment area method through Mohr’s
theorems.
7. Slope is maximum at _______ in simply supported beams.
a) Mid span
b) Through out
c) Supports
d) At point of loading
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In case simply supported beams, the slope is maximum at the end supports of the
beam and relatively zero at midspan of a symmetrically loaded beam.
8. Mohr’s theorem- 1 states ________

a) E/AI
b) I/EA
c) A/EI
d) A=EI
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: According to Mohr’s theorem-1, the change of slope between any of the two points
on and Elastic axis is equal to the net area of bending moment diagram (A) between these two
points divided by flexural rigidity(EI).
9. Using Mohr’s theorem, calculate the maximum slope of a cantilever beam if the bending
moment area diagram is 90kNm2. Take EI = 4000 kNm2.
a) 0.0225 radians
b) 0 0367 radians
c) 0.0455 radians
d) 0.066 radians
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The maximum slope at free support (in cantilever beam) = i = A/EI
= 90/4000
= 0.0225 radians.
10. Contour canals are also called as ______

a) Single bank canal
b) Ridge canal
c) Side slope canal
d) Watershed canal
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In this method, the canal is aligned along the falling contour. A generally higher
side is left without bank. So it is also called a single bank canal. The contour canal cuts across
the natural drainage courses.
11. ______________ provides employment to the cultivators at the time of famine.

a) Productive canal
b) Link canal
c) Protective canal
d) Inundation canal
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The construction of protective canals and their development may be started during
summer in hence they provide employment to the farmers at the time of drought and famine.
Protective canals are not remunerative as productive canals.
12. ______________ bricks are used in the lining of blast furnaces.

a) Magnesia
b) Dolomite
c) Bauxite
d) Fly ash
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Dolomite bricks are made especially from dolomite it contains nearly 30% lime and
22% of magnesium these bricks are inferior to magnesite bricks. They are generally used in the
lining of blast furnaces.
13. _____________ bricks are resistant to corrosion.

a) silica bricks
b) magnesia bricks
c) bauxite bricks
d) fire bricks
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Bauxite bricks contain nearly 75% of aluminium and it is mixed with fire clay 15 to
30% and added some water to mould. High alumina bricks are resistant to corrosion.
14. _____________ bricks are used in the lining of electric furnace.

a) Frosterite
b) Spinel
c) Chrome
d) Basic
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The spinal bricks belong to neutral bricks. The spinel bricks mainly consist of
alumina and magnesia. These bricks are widely used in the lining of electric furnace.
15. The finished product after burning magnesite is named as ___________

a) Perillax
b) Hellyx
c) Pyrolytaex
d) Syrilax
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The heating of magnesia bricks is continued in the same kiln after reaching the
temperature of 1950°C, and then some amount of iron oxide is mixed. The finished product after
burning magnesite is named as perillax.
1. Units of deflection are _________

a) kNm
b) kN/m
c) kN
d) m
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The term “deflection” is defined as the transverse displacement of a point on any
straight axis to the curved axis. It is expressed in metres (m).
2. Which of the following method is used to determine the slope and deflection at a point?
a) Arithmetic increase method
b) Mathematical curve setting
c) Macaulay’s method
d) Lacey’s method
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Macaulay’s method was devised by Mr WH Macaulay.
Advantages:
i. Gives one continuous expression for bending moment
ii. Constants of integration can be found by using end conditions
iii. By using this method, slope and deflection at any section can be determined throughout the
length of the beam.
3. Deflection is denoted by _______

a) i
b) y
c) h
d) e
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The deflection of a point on the axis of the deflected beam is defined as the angle
developed in radians with tangent at the section makes with the original axis of the beam.
4. In cantilever beams, the deflection is zero at ___________

a) Free and
b) Fixed end
c) At supports
d) Through out
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The deflection in cantilever beam is always zero at the fixed end and deflection in
the cantilever beam at the free end is maximum.
5. Mohr’s theorem -¡¡ states?

a) Ax/EI
b) A/Ex
c) A/EI
d) Ae=Ix
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Mohr’s theorem -¡¡ states “the intercept taken on a vertical reference line of the
tangent at any two points on an elastic line is equal to the moment of BMD between these points,
about the reference line divided by flexural rigidity (EI).
6. Calculate the deflection if the slope is 0.0225 radians. Take the distance of centre of gravity of
bending moment to free end as 2 metres.
a) 45mm
b) 35mm
c) 28mm
d) 49mm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The deflection at any point on the elastic curve equal to Ax/EI
But, we know that A/EI is already slope equation.
So, slope × (the distance of centre of gravity of bending moment to free end = 2m).
0.0225 × 2
0.045m ~ 45 mm.
7. In simply supported beams, deflection is zero at _________
a) Mid span
b) Supports
c) Through out
d) Point of action of load
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The deflection is always zero at the supports and the deflection is maximum at the
mid span of a symmetrically loaded simply supported beam.

a) Aqueduct
b) Level crossing
c) Head regulator
d) Super passage
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The head regulator is one of the canal regulation works. It can control the entry of
silt into the canal. It can be used as a metre for measuring the discharge. It can shut out river
floods.
9. Tail escape is also called as ___________

a) Outlet
b) Cross regulator
c) Weir type escape
d) Surplus escape
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The crest of the weir is fixed at canal FSL. When the water level rises above FSL, it
is disposed of into the natural drain. Hence, the tale escape is also known as weir type escape.
10. The land where all the water comes from ___________
a) Ridge dam
b) Watershed
c) Meander
d) Groynes
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A watershed can be defined as an interconnected area of land which receives the
water from surrounding ridge tops and transports it to a common point such as a lake or stream.
All lands and waterways can be found within one watershed or another.
11. ____________ reduces storm water discharge.
a) Rain water harvesting
b) Water harvesting
c) Watershed
d) Watershed management
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The water harvesting is defined as the process of capturing rain where it falls. The
objectives of water harvesting are 1) To provide drinking water 2) To provide irrigation water 3)
To increase groundwater recharge to reduce storm water discharge.
12. Which of the following is not a soil moisture conservation method?

a) Spreading manure
b) Crop rotation
c) Recharge to ground water
d) By mulches
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The methods which are adopted for preserving the water in the soil from being lost
are called as soil moisture conservation methods. The major part of the water is lost through
evapotranspiration. The recharge to groundwater is one of the techniques in rainwater harvesting.
13. Nutrients like ca, mg, si, al, S, K are lost due to ____________
a) Soil erosion
b) Percolation
c) Water logging
d) Watershed
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The percolation is defined as a downward movement of water through the soil due
to the force of gravity. The rapid percolation of water results in loss of plant nutrients and makes
the soil acidic.
14. Warabandi has been practiced in India for more than ____________ years.
a) 130 years
b) 125 years
c) 140 years
d) 145 years
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Warabandi is a rotational method for allocation of the available water equally in an
irrigation system. It provides continuous rotation of water generally lasts 7 days. It has been
effectively practiced in India for more than 125 years.
15. Gold, Copper and lead are the examples of ______

a) Ductility
b) Creep
c) Plasticity
d) Malleability
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Plasticity in the property of Material by which the material can undergo permanent
deformation and fails to regain its original shape on removal of load. Examples are gold, lead,
etc.
1. The ratio of maximum deflection of a beam to its ___________ is called stiffness of the beam.
a) Load
b) Slope
c) Span
d) Reaction at the support
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The stiffness of a beam is a measure of it’s resistance against deflection. The ratio
of the maximum deflection of a beam to its span can be termed as stiffness of the beam.
2. Stiffness of the beam is inversely proportional to the _____ of the beam.

a) Slope
b) Support reaction
c) Deflection
d) Load
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Stiffness of a beam is inversely proportional to the deflection. Smaller the
deflection in a beam due to given external load, greater is its stiffness.
3. The maximum ____ should not exceed the permissible limit to the span of the beam.
a) Slope
b) Deflection
c) Load
dl Bending moment
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The maximum deflection of a loaded beam should not exceed the permissible limit
in relation to the span of a beam. While designing the beam the designer should be keep in mind
that both strength and stiffness criteria.
4. In cantilever beam the deflection occurs at ______

a) Free end
b) Point of loading
c) Through out
d) Fixed end
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Deflection can be defined as the perpendicular displacement of a point on straight
access to the curved axis. In cantilever beams, the maximum deflection occurs at free end.
5. The maximum deflection in cantilever beam of span “l”m and loading at free end is “W” kN.
a) Wl3/2EI
b) Wl3/3EI
c) Wl3/4EI
d) Wl2/2EI
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Maximum deflection occurs at free end distance between centre of gravity of
bending moment diagram and free end is x = 2l/3.
As deflection is equal to the slope × “x”. The slope = Wl2/2EI radians
Maximum deflection (y) = Ax/EI = Wl3/3EI.
6. In an ideal fluid, the ____________ stresses are pretend to be absent.

a) Bending
b) Shearing
c) Tensile
d) Compressive
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: An ideal fluid is a fluid where there is no resistance to the deformation. Ideal Fluids
are those Fluids which have no viscosity surface tension. The shear stress is also absent. This
fluid is also called as perfect fluid.
7. Air and water are the examples of ___________

a) Non Newtonian fluids
b) Vortex fluids
c) Real fluids
d) Ideal fluids
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The ideal Fluids are imaginary fluids in nature, they are incompressible. These
fluids possess low viscosity. Air and water are considered as ideal fluids.
8. _______ fluids are practical fluids

a) Ideal
b) Real
c) Vortex
d) Newtonian
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: These fluids possess properties such as viscosity, surface tension. They are
compressible in nature. The certain amount of resistance is always offered by the fluids, they
also possess shear stress. They are also known as practical fluids.
9. Specific weight of water at 4°C is ____________ N/m3.

a) 9810
b) 9760
c) 9950
d) 9865
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The specific weight (weight density) of a fluid is weight per unit volume. It is
represented by symbol w & it is expressed in Newton per metre cube (N/m3). The specific
weight of water at 4 degree centigrade is 9810 N/m3or 9.81 kN/m3.
10. The inverse of specific weight of a fluid is __________

a) Specific gravity
b) Specific Volume
c) Compressibility
d) Viscosity
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Specific volume is the volume of the fluid by Unit Weight it is the reciprocal of
specific weight is denoted by “v”. SI units are m3/N.
v= 1/specific weight.
11. Calculate the specific gravity of mercury.

a) 12.5
b) 14.7
c) 13.6
d) 11.8
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The specific gravity of any fluid is the ratio of the specific weight of fluid by
specific weight of water. For mercury, the specific weight is 133416 N/m3. For water, w = 9810
N/m3.
S = 133416/9810
S= 13.6.
12. Specific gravity of water is __________

a) 0.8
b) 1
c) 1.2
d) 1.5
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The specific gravity is also called as relative density. It is dimensionless quantity
and it has no units. The specific gravity of water is the ratio of specific weight of fluid to specific
weight of water, as both the numerator and denominator are same. The value is 1.
13. Compute the maximum deflection at free end of a cantilever beam subjected to udl for entire
span of l metres.
a) wl4/8EI
b) wl4/4EI
c) wl3/8EI
d) wl2/6EI
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The slope at free end = A/EI = wl3/6EI
Maximum deflection at free end is Ax/EI; [x= ¾ l] y= wl3/6EI × ¾ l = wl4/8EI.
14. Calculate the maximum deflection of a cantilever beam with udl on entire span of 3m the
intensity of you udl be 25 kN/m. Take EI as 4000 kN/m2.
a) 0.052m
b) 0.063m
c) 0.076m
d) 0.09m
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: For cantilever beams with udl on entire span, the maximum deflection = wl4/8EI
y = wl4/8EI = 25 × 34/ 8 × 4000 = 0.063m.
15. Which of the following is not an example of Malleability?

a) Wrought Iron
b) Ornamental silver
c) Torsteel
d) Ornamental gold
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Torsteel is an example of mechanical property ductility. The ductility is a property
of a material by which material can be fractured into thin wires after undergoing a considerable
deformation without any rupture.
1. __________ of a beam is a measure of its resistance against deflection.

a) Strength
b) Stiffness
c) Slope
d) Maximum bending
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The ratio of maximum deflection of a beam to its corresponding span is termed as
the stiffness of the beam. It is the measure of resistance against the deflection.
2. The maximum induced ___________ stresses should be within the safe permissible stresses to
ensure strength of the beam.
a) Tensile
b) Compressive
c) Bending
d) Lateral
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A beam is said to be strengthy when the maximum induced bending and shear
stresses are within the safe permissible stresses of the beam material.
3. Elastic line is also called as ___________

a) Deflection curve
b) Plastic curve
c) Linear curve
d) Hooke’s curve
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The deflection curve is defined as the line to which the longitudinal axis of a beam
deflects or bends under given load. This curve is also known as elastic line or elastic axis.
4. In simply supported beams, the slope is _____________ at supports.

a) Minimum
b) Zero
c) Maximum
d) Uniform
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The slope at any section in the deflected beam is defined as the angle developed in
radians which the tangent at the section makes with the actual axis of the proposed beam. In
simply supported beams, the slope is maximum at the supports.
5. In simply supported beam deflection is maximum at ____________

a) Midspan
b) Supports
c) Point of loading
d) Through out
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In simply supported beams, deflection is maximum at the mid span of a
symmetrically loaded beam.
6. Calculate the maximum deflection of a simply supported beam if the maximum slope at A is
0.0075 radians and the distance of centre of gravity of bending moment diagram to support A is
1.33 metres.
a) 9.975 mm
b) 9.5 mm
c) 9.25 mm
d) 9.785 mm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The deflection occurs at support A = A/EI = 0.0075 radians
Maximum deflection = Ax/EI = 0.0075 × 1.33
y = 9.975 mm.
7. ____________ is the best example for accelerator (admixture).

a) Sulphonated formaldehyde
b) Calcium chloride
c) Sulphonated naphthalene
d) Polyglycolesters
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Calcium chloride is more widely used as an accelerator. By adding two percent
(2%) of the weight of cacl2 admixture to the Portland cement the Maximum strength is attained
within 1-3 days.
8. _____________ is used to reduce the time for hardening of concrete.

a) Accelerators
b) Super plasticizer
c) Retarder
d) Air entraining admixture
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The admixtures (retarders) are generally used to reduce the time for hardening of
concrete. They are used in situations like:
i. In hot weather condition, a tendency towards false set is corrected
ii. When concrete is to be placed in difficult positions.
9. Full form of LEED ________

a) Leadership in Energy and Efficiency Development
b) Leadership in Environmental and Energy Design
c) Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design
d) Leadership in Efflorescence and Energy Demand
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: LEED stands for Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design. The fly ash is
environmentally friendly solutions that meet or exceed performance specifications fly ash
contributes a lot to LEED.
10. _____ has a lower heat of hydration.
a) Quarry dust
b) Fly ash
c) Ordinary Portland cement
d) Bulk sand
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The process that liberates heat when water is added to cement is known as heat of
hydration. The process of hydration is not instantaneous. The fly ash is possessing lower heat of
hydration.
11. The factors that influence rate of hydration is _________

a) The fineness of cement
b) Temperature of cement
c) Quality of water
d) Temperature of water
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The products of hydration are colloidal and increase the surface area of solid paste
during hydration and the water is the main ingredient which reacts chemically. The rate of
hydration is mainly influenced by temperature of cement.
12. The steel suits best to reinforcement with concrete.

a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The Steel is be used for reinforcing a concrete for following properties:
i. Steel is about 30 times stronger in compression and 300 times stronger intention compared to
concrete.
ii. It develops good bond with concrete
iii. It is highly fire resistant.
13. The average crushing strength of precast concrete blocks as per CAI is __________
a) 4.5 N/mm2
b) 5 N/mm2
c) 3.5 N/mm2
d) 4 N/mm2
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Hollow concrete blocks are used in load bearing walls. In the manufacture of these
blocks, the light height aggregates are used. The recommended size is 39 × 19 × 30 cm.
The average crushing strength of blocks Shall be 5N/mm2.
14. A simply supported beam of span as shown in the figure is subjected to a concentrated load
w at its metre span and also to a uniformly distributed load equality w what is the total
diffraction it its midpoint.
a) 18 Wl3 /384 EI
b) 13 Wl3/ 384 EI
c) 5 Wl3/ 384 EI
d) 18 Wl3/ 384 EI
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The total deflection at midpoint of a simply supported beam is
y = 5Wl3/ 384 EI + Wl3/ 48 EI

y = 13Wl3/ 384 EI.
15. Meander ratio is the ratio of meander belt to __________

a) Meander depth
b) Meander width
c) Meander length
d) Meander cross-section
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: When a river departs from its straight course and follows a sinuous winding path,
the river is said to be meandering. Meander ratio is the ratio of meander belt to the meander
length.
1. A cantilever beam subjected to a point load at free end of span “l” m and possess flexural
rigidity (EI).
a) Wl3 / 6EI
b) Wl4/ 8EI
c) Wl2/ 2EI
d) Wl4/ 5EI
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Area of BMD = A = Wl2/ 2.
According to Mohr’s theorem 1, slope (i) = A/EI = Wl2/ 2EI radians.
2. Cantilever scaffolding is also known as ____________

a) mason’s scaffolding
b) suspended scaffolding
c) needle scaffolding
d) ladder scaffolding
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The cantilever scaffolding consists of platform supported by series of cantilever
beams passing through window openings. They are used when it is not possible to fix the
standards into the ground. It is also known as needle scaffolding.
3. Scaffolding you generally adopted when the height of structure is above ___________
a) 1.3 m
b) 1.5 m
c) 1.7 m
d) 2.2 m
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Scaffolding is a temporary platform provided with necessary supports close to the
work to provide a limited space for the labours and workers for the construction of masonry
work of any structure above 1.5 m.
4. The horizontal platform in between any two flights of a staircase is called ___________
a) Landing
b) Balustrade
c) Nosing
d) Stringer
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Landing in stair may be defined as the horizontal platform provided in between any
two flights landing. Landing which provides 90 degree turn in the layout of a stair is known as
quarter space landing.
5. The ratio of maximum load to the unit area is ________

a) Ultimate bearing capacity
b) Allowable bearing capacity
d) Bearing capacity
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The term bearing capacity of the soil is defined as the maximum load per unit area
which the soil will resist safely without yielding or displacement.
6. ______ is part of a structure which transmits the load to the soil underneath.
a) Basement
b) Plinth
c) Lentils
d) Foundation
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The lowest artificial built part of structure which transmits the load of the structure
to the soil lying underneath. The foundation of a structure is always constructed below ground
level. They distribute the load of structure over large bearing area. It increases the stability of the
structure as a whole.
7. Full form of NBC ___________

a) Nominal Building Centre
b) National Building Code
c) National Building Cluster
d) Nominal Buoyance Centre
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: NBC stands for National Building Code. According to NBC, all the buildings
existing and in construction are classified into number of groups. The respective crystal details
are followed with respective synapses.
8. The ultimate bearing capacity/factor of safety = ____________

a) Bearing capacity
b) Allowance bearing capacity
d) Soil consolidation capacity
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The safe bearing capacity of the soil is equal to ultimate bearing capacity divided
by certain factor of safety. Roughly a factor of safety of 2 is used for most of the building sites
and generally, a factor of safety of 2.5 to 3 is considered for heavy building constructions.
9. _____ is measured on percentage basis.

a) Camber
b) Formation width
c) Super elevation
d) Shoulder
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The rise given to the centre of the carriage way with reference to its edge can be
termed as camber. It is expressed as 1 vertical to n horizontal. It is also measured along
percentage basis.
10. ______ bridge any opening like a window, door, cupboard etc in a building.
a) Sunshade
b) Lintel
c) Footings
d) Stairs
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Lintel is a horizontal structural member spanning any opening to support loads of
the structure coming over it.
i) To facilitate the fixing of doors and windows frames wherever.
ii) They used to receive load from wall constructed over them.
11. The first solar cooker was developed in the year ____________
a) 1947
b) 1953
c) 1945
d) 1960
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The Solar cookers have a very relevant place in the present fuel consumption
pattern. The first solar cooker was developed in the year 1945 by Mr M K Ghosh. The main
reasons for non- acceptance of this device was a cheap availability of cooking fuel.
12. Solar arrays are defined in terms of ____________

a) Circuits
b) Diodes
c) Kernel
d) Panels
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The solar arrays are electrically defined in terms of circuits each of which
contributes a portion of the total current output at some nominally specified array voltage.
13. In a cantilever of span “L” subjected to a concentrated load of “W” at a distance of L/3 from
free end. The deflection is ________
a) WL3/3EI
b) 14WL3/81EI
c) WL3/81EI
d) 8WL3/81EI
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The deflection developed at the
y= W × ( 2L/3)3/ 3EI
y= 8WL3/81 EI.
14. Calculate the slope in a simply supported beam subjected to point load at centre. Take the EI
into consideration.
a) Wl3/4EI
b) Wl2/16EI
c) Wl3/8EI
d) Wl4/6EI
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The slope in a beam can be determined by Mohr’s theorem 1: i = A/EI.
The BMD of beam portion will be Wl2/16.
The slope (i) = Wl2/16EI.
15. Which of the following is a mechanical property of materials?

a) Surface Tension
b) Compressibility
c) Elasticity
d) Specific volume
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The elasticity is the property by which the body returns to its original shape after
the removal of external load. If a body regains completely its original shape is said to be a
perfectly elastic material. Rubber, mild steel and copper may be considered to be perfectly elastic
within certain limits.
1. In cantilever beams, the extra support is known as ____________

a) Hinch
b) Prop
c) Cripple
d) Indeterminate end
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In case of cantilever beam, some support other than existing ones may be provided
to reduce the amount of bending moment developed. The additional support is known as prop.
2. Prop reduces ___________ in the beam.

a) Deflection
b) Slope
c) Shear
d) Moment
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The extra support provided in case of cantilever beam excluding the existing ones is
known as prop. It is provided in order to avoid excessive deflection caused due to unequal
loading.
3. Which of the following is indeterminate structure?

a) Singly rereinforced beam
b) Propped cantilever beam
c) Over hanging beam
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The statically indeterminate structures are not capable of being analysed by using
equation of statics. We need some more extra conditions for finding unknowns like €i and €y etc.
A propped cantilever beam is an example of indeterminate structures.
4. ____________ is used to produce due to temperature variation in indeterminate structures.

a) Stresses
b) Strains
c) Deflections
d) Moment
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Statically indeterminate structures need some extra conditions for the further
simplification. Normally stresses are produced due to variation in indeterminate beams.
5. In cantilever beams, the maximum deflection occurs at ___________

a) Fixed end
b) Free end
c) Through out
d) Point of loading
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The maximum deflection in cantilever beam occurs at free end. To resist that
excessive deflection, the beam has to be supported by an extra support known as prop.
6. As per IRC, maximum width of lane considered as ____________

a) 2.44 m
b) 2.35 m
c) 3.5 m
d) 3.4 m
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As per IRC, the maximum width be 2.44 m. For a single lane, the width considered
is 3.8 m. The pavement having two or more lanes the weight of 3.5 metre per lane is considered
sufficient.
7. ______ is the area of land acquired and reserved for future development.
a) Right of pier
b) Carriage way
c) Right of way
d) Camber
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: It is desirable to acquire more land because of the cost of adjoining land in variable
increases after laying the road. The right of way is area of land acquired and reserved for future
development.
8. Stability of high rise vehicles will be affected due to ____________

a) Camber
b) Gradient
c) Super elevation
d) Formation Width
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The rise given to the centre portion of the proposed carriageway with reference to
its peripheral edge is called camber. Road users use more in the central portion of road and get
worn out. The stability of high rise vehicles will be affected due to heavy camber.
9. The longitudinal rise or fall off road surface along its length is _________
a) Camber
b) Super elevation
c) Gradient
d) Carriage way
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The gradient is defined as the longitudinal rise or fall off road surface love its
length is expressed as ratio 1 vertical: n horizontal or as a percentage.
10. Which of the following gradient is usually used in the construction of roads?
a) Exceptional gradient
b) Limiting gradient
c) Hydraulic gradient
d) Ruling gradient
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Ruling gradient may be used as isolated over in flat country roads carrying a large
volume of slow moving traffic. Gradient up to the ruling gradient for different terrains. It is to be
adopted in normal course of design.
11. According to IRC, the height of the object is taken to the height of ___________ mm.
a) 200 mm
b) 100 mm
c) 450 mm
d) 600 mm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Sight distance is an important requirement for the safety of travel on highways the
height of the object is taken to be at a depth of 100 mm above road.
12. What is the minimum shoulder width provided for village roads?
a) 1.25 m
b) 1.4 m
c) 0.5 m
d) 1 m
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The minimum shoulder width provided for village roads is 0.5m.
Class of road Minimum shoulder width(Hilly terrain)
NH & SH ways 1.25 m
MD roads 0.5
Village roads 0.5
13. In case of vertical curves, the ____________ are taken above the road.
a) Gradient
b) Super elevation
c) Earth quantities
d) Summit
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The line of sight of a driver above the road is taken as 1.2m. The height of the
object is taken to be height of 100 mm. Sight distance is an important resource requirement for
the safety of travel. The designing layout plays a very vital role.
14. The time required for overtaking ___________ seconds.

a) 9 to 14
b) 8 to 10
c) 11 to 15
d) 14 to 19
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In the case of vertical curves, the sight distance is an important requirement for the
safety of travel. It it is necessary that sight distance of adequate length should be available in
different situations to permit driver enough time and distance to control their vehicles so that
there are no unwarranted accidents.
15. _____ provide gradual introduction of super elevation.

a) Transition curves
b) Summit curves
c) Joint curves
d) Adjoining curves
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The transition curves are necessary for a vehicle to have smooth entry of straight
section into circular curve. They provide aesthetic experience of the road. They provide a
graduate introduction of super elevation.
1. The upward deflection caused by the prop is _____________

a) Pl3/2EI
b) Pl2/3EI
c) Pl3/3EI
d) Pl4/3EI
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The deflection developed by proper reaction at free end “y” = Pl3/3EI. A cantilever
beam which is supported by an extra support when length of beam increases beyond limit is
termed as propped cantilever in order to reduce the excessive deflection.
2. Stiffness of the propped cantilever is _________

a) 4EI/l
b) 6EI/l
c) 8EI/I
d) 5EI/l
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When is a structural member of uniform section is subjected to moment at one end
then the moment develops which is required so as to rotate the end to produce unit slope. This is
known as of the member. For propped cantilever, the stiffness is 4EI /l.
3. The major losses of energy due to friction are calculated by using _________
a) Ingli’s formulae
b) Emperical notations
c) Chezy’s Equation
d) Lacey’s Theory
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The major loss of energy is caused by friction and it is calculated by using either
Darcy – Weisbach equation or chezy’s formula. The chezy’s formula V = C(mi)1/2. Formula for
Darcy’s Weisbach equation is = 4fLV2 / 2gd.
4. The ratio of A/P is ___________

a) Hydraulic radius
b) Arbitrary datum
c) T E L
d) H G L
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The ratio to the cross sectional area and wetted perimeter is called hydraulic radius.
It is also known as hydraulic mean depth. It is denoted by m.
5. Determine the velocity of flow in a pipe if the discharge capacity is 270 litres per second and
cross sectional area is 5 cm2.
a) 4.5 m/s
b) 5.4 m/s
c) 3.4 m/s
d) 2.5 m/s
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Discharge (Q) = 270 lit/sec = 270 × 10-3 = 0.27 m3/ s.
Velocity of flow in narrow pipe = Q / A
= 0.27/ 0.05 = 5.4 m/s.
6. Calculate the reaction at prop of cantilever, if the span of beam is 5m and load is 20 kN.
a) 4.25 kN
b) 5 kN
c) 6.25 kN
d) 8 kN
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: For analysing the prop reaction for a cantilever beam at free end = P = 5W/16
P = 5 × 20 / 16
P = 6.25 kN.
7. The highest point on syphon is known as ____

a) Summit
b) Crown
c) Limb
d) Tread
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A siphon is a long bent pipe used to transfer water from one reservoir to the other
reservoir which is located at different elevations. The highest point of the siphon is known as
Summit.
8. The position between the summit and the lower reservoir is known as ___________
a) Inlet leg
b) Outlet leg
c) Pressure head
d) Datum
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The portion of the syphon which lies above the HGL has negative pressures and the
portion between the summit and the lower reservoir is known as out let leg. At the summit the
pressure is minimum.
9. Full form of TEL is _________

a) Total Emission Line
b) Thermal Electro Light
c) Total Energy Line
d) Total Electro Light
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: TEL (Total Energy Line) is the line which is obtained by joining tops of all vertical
ordinates showing the sum of pressure head and kinetic head from the centre of the pipe.
10. The sheet of water flowing through a notch is called Nappe.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The sheet of water flowing through a notch or weir is called as Nappe or Vein. The
bottom of the notch or the top of weir over which the water flows is known as the sill (or) crest
and its height about the bottom of the tank or channel is known as sill height or crest height.
11. The width of broad gauge is ___________

a) 1.445m
b) 1.676m
c) 1 m
d) 0.61 m
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The width of broad gauge is 1.676m.
Types of Gauge Gauge Width
Broad gauge 1.676 m
Narrow gauge 0.762 m
Light gauge 0.61 m
12. Which of the following gauge is the Indian Standard Gauge?

a) Broad gauge
b) Narrow gauge
c) Light gauge
d) Metre gauge
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The Broad gauge is the Indian Standard gauge. It is widely accepted because of its
complexity. The world standard gauge is 1.483 m. Broad gauge enables the rails to act as girders
and transmit the wheel load to sleepers.
13. _____ is the weakest part in railway track.

a) Rail joint
b) Sleepers
c) Ballast
d) Spikes
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Rail joint is a joint made between two rails jointed together with two fish plates and
for fish bolts, to form an expansion gap of 1.5 to 3 mm. Rain joint is the weakest part in railway
track.
14. About 90% railway tracks laid with ___________ rails in the world.
a) DH rails
b) BH rails
c) FF rails
d) GH rails
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In flat footed rails, foot is made thinner and wider than head. These rails can be
directly fixed to sleepers using slip spikes. This rail invented by Charles Vignoles and hence it is
also known as Vignoles rails.
15. Brass is an example of ____________

a) Creep
b) Fatigue
c) Toughness
d) Hardness
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Toughness is a property of a material, which enables it to absorb energy without
fracture. It exists due to impact loads. Hence this property is very desirable in every component
subject to impact stock loadings.
Brass and Mild steel are examples of toughness
1. A beam which is inbuilt in at its support is called _________
a) Cantilever beam
c) Fixed beam
d) Continuous beam
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A beam which is built in at its support is known as a fixed beam. In a fixed beam,
fixed end moments are developed at the ends. The slope at the end support is zero or (unaltered).
2. Fixed beam is also known as _______

a) Encaster beam
b) Constressed beam
c) In built beam
d) Constricted beam
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Fixed beam is also called Encaster beam or Constraint beam or Built in beam. In a
fixed beam the fixed end moments develop at the end supports. In these beams, the supports
should be kept at the same level.
3. In fixed beams, the slope at the supports be ___________

a) Minimum
b) Zero
c) Maximum
d) Throughout
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The fixed beam is stronger, stiffer and more stable. The slope at the supports is
zero.
Maximum bending moment at the centre is reduced because of fixing moments developed at
supports.
4. _______ changes induce large stresses in a fixed beam.

a) Lateral
b) Deflection
c) Temperature
d) Slope
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In fixed beam, sinking of any one support sets large stresses. The temperature
changes induce the largest stress. The moving loads make the degree of fixity at support
uncertain.
5. A beam 6 metres long is fixed at it ends. It carries a udl of 5 kN/m. Find the maximum
bending moment in the beam.
a) 15 kNm
b) 20 kNm
c) 35 kNm
d) 40 kNm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A beam carrying udl along its entire span, the maximum bending moment
developed = wl2 / 12.
= 5×62 / 12.
15 kNm.
6. Calculate the maximum deflection of a fixed beam carrying udl of 5 kN/m. The span of beam
is 6 m. Take E = 200kN/m2 and I = 5×107 mm4.
a) 1.865 m
b) 2.235 m
c) 1.6875 m
d) 2.5 m
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The maximum deflection in fixed beam is wl4/384EI
= 5×64 × 109/ 384×200×5×107
= 1.6875 mm.
7. Calculate the load intensity of fixed beam if the maximum deflection shall not exceed 1/ 400
of the span. Take EI as 1010 kN mm2.
a) 40 kN
b) 35 kN
c) 45 kN
d) 60 kN
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: When the maximum deflection equals to 1 / 400 of the span.
Wl4/ 384 EI = 1 /400.
W= 384 EI / 400 l3
W = 45 kN.
8. ____ is known as a serpentine curve.

a) Circular curve
b) Transition curve
c) Reverse curve
d) Leminiscate curve
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Reverse curves are provided in difficult terrain. In these curves, the simple curves
have a common tangent. They consist of two simple curves of same or different radii. These
curves are also known as serpentine curves.
9. The maximum super elevation to be provided is ___

a) 2 in 15
b) 1 in 15
c) 1 in 10
d) 2 in 10
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: According to IRC, the maximum super elevation of 1 in 15 is to be provided.
Minimum super elevation is required for proper drainage. If the super elevation calculated is less
than the camber no superelevation is to be provided.
10. ______ curves are used to solve the problems of land acquisition.
a) Vertical curves
b) Horizontal curves
c) Circular curves
d) Transition curves
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A horizontal curve is the curve in plane to provide change in direction to the centre
line of the alignment. It is used to preserve the certain existing amenities and to solve the
problems of land acquisition.
11. The limiting gradient for mountainous terrain is ________

a) 6.00 %
b) 7.00 %
c) 8.00 %
d) 5.00 %
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The limiting gradient for mountainous terrain is 6.00%.
Type of terrain Ruling Gradient Limiting Gradient Exceptional Gradient
Plain 3.30% 5.00% 6.70%
Mountainous 5.00% 6.00% 7.00%
12. Which of the following do not have units?
a) Specific weight
b) Specific gravity
c) Specific volume
d) Mass density
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Specific gravity is defined as the ratio of the specific weight of solids to the specific
weight of an equal volume of water at the temperature. It is denoted by S. As it is a ratio, it
doesn’t possess units.
13. In engineering properties of soils, the “e” denotes?

a) Compressibility
b) Water content
c) Porosity
d) Voids ratio
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Void ratio is defined as the ratio of the total volume of voids to volume of soil
solids. It is expressed as a decimal.
14. _____ is a glacier deposit of sand, gravel or clay.

a) Till
b) Tull
c) Loess
d) Mart
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The deposits made by glaciers are called drifts. The deposits made by the melting
of glaciers are called till. Till is a stratified soil.
15. The bearing capacity of laminated rocks used in foundation is ___________

a) 1450 kN/m2
b) 1620 kN/m2
c) 1785 kN/m2
d) 2125 kN/m2
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The bearing capacity of laminated rocks used in foundation is 1620 kN/m2.
1. In fixed beams, the maximum deflection at __________ is reduced.

a) Centre
b) Supports
c) At point of loading
d) Through out
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In fixed beams, the maximum bending moment developed at the centre is reduced.
Hence it results in the reduction of deflection of a beam at its centre considerably.
2. Fixing couples means _____

a) End moments
b) Support couples
c) Support moments
d) End supports
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: If the ends are built in, end moments are automatically developed. These moments
are called as fixing couples or fixing moments or support moments.
3. Calculate the maximum bending moment in fixed beam for the following figure.
a) 17 kN-m
b) 12.5 kN-m
c) 15.625 kN-m
d) 18 kN-m
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: For a fixed beam, the maximum bending moment is w×l / 8.
Maximum bending moment (M) = 25 × 5 / 8
= 15.625 kNm.
4. _________ is provided to prevent the debris from entering into the penstock.
a) Tash rack
b) Surge tank
c) Anchor blocks
d) Power house
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Trash rack is a structure which is provided to prevent the debris from entering into
the penstock. The trash racks are usually located ahead of the gates. The debris which is
collected on the trash rack may be removed either manually or with the help of automatic power
driven racks.
5. __________ regulates the speed of turbine.

a) Tail race
b) Anchor blocks
c) Power house
d) Surge tank
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The surge tank controls the pressure variations in a penstock. Thereby the penstock
is protected from effects of water hammer pressure. The surge tank is provided on large penstock
to regulate the speed of the turbine.
6. The sheet of water flowing through a notch is called ________

a) Sill
b) Crest
c) Scour
d) Nappe
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The sheet of water flowing through notch or weir is called as the nappe or vein. The
bottom of the notch or the top of the weir over which the water flows is known as the sill.
7. Which of the following is empirical formula coined by Francis?

a) 2.36 LH3/2
b) 1.84 LH3/2
c) 3.34 LH3/2
d) 1.96 LH3/2
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Francis proposed the following formula for discharge over rectangular weir by
assuming Cd = 0.623
Q = 1.84 LH3/2
Where Q = discharge in m3/ s.
8. Calculate discharge of a weir 2 metre long with a water flow over a head of 250 mm use
Francis formula.
a) 0.34 m3/s
b) 0.46 m3/s
c) 0.25 m3/s
d) 0.65 m3/s
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Given that:
Length of weir = L = 2m.
Head over the weir = 0.25 m
Using Francis formula; Q =1.84 LH3/2 = 1.84 × 2×(0.25)3/2.
Q = 0.46 m3/s.
9. 1 litre = ____________ m3.

a) 104
b) 103
c) 10-3
d) 10-4
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: 1 litre = 10-3m3.
For example, Q = 40 lit/min = 40/60 lit/sec = 0.67 × 10-3 m3/sec.
10. In cipoletti weir, the side slopes are _______________

a) 1 in 3
b) 1 in 2
c) 1 in 5
d) 1 in 4
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A trapezoidal weir, which has side slopes of 1 horizontal to 4 vertical, is called as
cipoletti weir. The discharge over a cipolletti weir is equal to the discharge over a rectangular
Weir without end contractions.
11. The flow of thick oil through a small tube is an example for _________
a) Laminar flow
b) Turbulent flow
c) Rotational flow
d) Steady flow
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A flow is said to be laminar when the paths taken by the individual particles do not
cross one another. It is also called as streamline flow. The flow of thick oil through a small tube
is an example for laminar flow.
12. Flow in rivers is an example of __________ flow.
a) Rotational
b) Laminar
c) Compressible
d) Turbulent
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A flow is said to be turbulent when the liquid particles move in a zig-zag way and
their paths also cross each other. The flow in rivers at the time of floods is a perfect example of
turbulent flow.
13. What is the point of contraflexure in a fixed beam of span 5m?

a) 3m
b) 2.75 m
c) 3.75 m
d) 4 m
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The point of contraflexure from any support be 3×l / 4.
From support A = 3l/4 = 3×5/4 = 3.75 m.
From support B = 3l/4 = 3×5/4 = 3.75 m.
14. Water table should be at least __________ m below subgrade.

a) 1.5m
b) 3 m
c) 1.2 m
d) 2.5 m
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The top level of water table should be below the level of subgrade. Water table
should be at least 1.2 metres below subgrade. If the soil is impermeable, the longitudinal and
transverse drains have to be provided to lower the water table.
15. Torsteel is an example of _______

a) Elasticity
b) Plasticity
c) Malleability
d) Ductility
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Ductility is one of the mechanical properties of materials. It is defined as the
property possessed by the material by which material can be drawn into thin wires after
undergoing deformation without any rupture. Torsteel is an example of ductility property.
1. A beam which is supported on more than two supports is called as______

a) Fixed beam
b) Continuous beam
c) Cantilever beam
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A beam which is supported on more than two supports is known as a continuous
beam. The intermediate supports of a continuous beam are always subjected to some bending
moment.
2. Which of the following them is also known as multi span beam _______
a) Cantilever beam
c) Fixed beam
d) Continuous beam
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A continuous beam is a beam which is supported on more than two supports. It is
also known as multi span beam. The degree of indeterminacy depends upon the number of
supports and nature of supports.
3. In deflection of a continuous beam, when loaded there will be convexity upwards over
_________ supports.
a) End
b) Alternate
c) Intermediate
d) Every
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: When a continuous beam is loaded, the deflection of the beam takes place along the
intermediate supports with convexity upwards.
4. The _________ is more over the supports then at midspan in continuous beams.
a) Slope
b) Bending moment
c) Deflection
d) Shear force
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The bending moment is more over the supports then at midspan in case of
continuous beams and hence the weight of the beam does not materially affect the stresses in the
beam.
5. Moment distribution method is also known as __________

a) Hardy Cross method
b) Macaulay’s method
c) Mohr’s Theorems method
d) Kennedy’s theory
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The moment distribution method is evolved by professor Hardy cross in 1932 and
can be used with advantage to analyse statically indeterminate structures and frames with rigid
joint this method is simple and involves a process of relaxation.
6. Which of the following device is not based on Bernoulli’s equation?

a) Venturimeter
b) Orificemeter
c) Hydraulic lift
d) Pitot tube
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Bernoulli’s equation is applied to incompressible liquid flow where energy
consideration is involved. Some of the hydraulic devices which are based on Bernoulli’s
equation are venturimeter, orificemeter, Pitot tube.
7. Pascal’s law is applied in ____________

a) Pitot tube
b) Hydraulic lift
c) Orificemeter
d) Venturimeter
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Hydraulic lift is an example of Pascal’s law. According to Pascal’s law the “At a
given point, the force is applied in all directions” and the rest are the examples of Bernoulli’s
equation.
8. Which of the following devices measures the velocity of flow?

a) Pitot tube
b) Venturimeter
c) Orificemeter
d) Hydraulic jacks
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A pitot tube is a device which is used for measuring the velocity of flow at any
point in a pipe or channel. It is based on the principle that if the velocity of flow at any point
becomes zero, the pressure there is increased due to the conversion of kinetic energy into
pressure energy.
9. Which of the following is the coefficient of pitot tube?

a) 0.96
b) 0.98
c) 0.97
d) 0.95
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The velocity (V) = Cv (2gh) 1/2.
Where Cv = coefficient of pitot tube = 0.98
h= difference between liquid levels in the pitot tube and piezometer.
10. Bernoulli’s equation is applicable only for ___________ flow.

a) Rotational
b) Steady
c) Compressible
d) Unsteady
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The Bernoulli’s equation has been derived on the assumption that the velocity is
uniform over the section. The Bernoulli’s equation is applicable only for steady, incompressible
and irrotational flows.
11. Flow of water when a tap is just open is an example of __________ flow.
a) Uniform
b) Steady
c) Un steady
d) Turbulent
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The flow is said to be unsteady if at any point in flowing liquid any one or all flow
characteristics change with time liquid that is flowing at a changing rate as in the case. The flow
in the tap is just opened is a perfect example for unsteady flow.
12. A Straight cantilever of uniform area carries a udl over its entire length. If the free end of a
cantilever is now prop at the level of the fixed end, the vertical force required at the prop be
__________
a) 3/4 W
b) 3/8 W
c) 5/8 W
d) W
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Where, total load on beam = W = wl
Wl3/8EI = B×l3 / 3EI

Reaction at B = 3W/8.
13. ____________ is used to empty a tank of water having no outlet.

a) Venacontracta
b) Syphon
c) Summit
d) Dyne
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A syphon is used to connect two different elevations separated by a mountain
They also used to supply water to a town over a ridge and supply type of water having an outlet.
14. Find out the elongation of a tie of 2m long, if the axial rigidity is 5000 × 10 4 mm2. The axial
pull be 20 kN.
a) 0.8 mm
b) 0.6 mm
c) 0.5 mm
d) 1mm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Axial pull 20000N.
Elongation : Pl/ AE
Change in length = PL/ AE
= 20×10/500×11÷103.
15. Glass is an example of _________
a) Elastic
b) Brittle
c) Toughness
d) Hardness
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Brittleness is a property of a material by which It Breaks without much deformation
produce his property generally considered to be highly objectionable in engineering.
1. The maximum negative bending moment in fixed beam carrying udl occurs at ________
a) Mid span
b) 1/3 of the span
c) Supports
d) Half of the span
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In case of fixed beam subjected to gravity loads maximum hogging or negative
bending moment develops at the supports. At centre, the maximum bending moment is reduced.
2. A fixed beam of the uniform section is carrying a point load at the centre, if the moment of
inertia of the middle half portion is reduced to half its previous value, then the fixed end
moments will ______
a) Increase
b) Remains constant
c) Decrease
d) Change their direction
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The flexural rigidity value is reduced in middle half portion of the second case
fixed end moments which have developed in a beam section will be increases.
3. In propped cantilevers, the prop reaction is 3/8 wl.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In propped cantilever beam net deflection at fixed end is zero therefore Rl3/3EI =
wl4/8EI
R= 3wl/8.
4. A propped cantilever beam carrying total load “W” distributed evenly over its entire length
calculate the vertical force required in the prop.
a) 3/4 W
b) W
c) 5/8 W
d) 3/8 W
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Therefore Total load on beam = W = wl
Rl3/3EI = Wl3/ 8EI.

R = 3W/8.
The vertical force required at the prop is 3W/8.
5. _____ is a small opening made in the bottom or sides of a tank.

a) Mouthpiece
b) Orifice
c) Sill
d) Sluice
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: An orifice is defined as a small opening of any cross sections such as circular,
square, triangular& rectangular etc. made in the walls or the bottom of a tank containing liquid in
it through which the liquid flows.
6. A mouthpiece is a short length of a pipe which is not more than __________ times its
diameter.
a) 3-4
b) 5-6
c) 1 -2
d) 2-3
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A mouth piece is defined as a short length of a pipe which is not more than two or
three times its diameter, fitted to an orifice of same diameter provided especially in a tank
containing liquid.
7. The section which has a minimum cross sectional are in a flow is known as _______
a) Vena contracta
b) Thyrocade
c) Submergent
d) Upstream edge
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The section of the jet, at which the flow in a liquid has a minimum cross sectional
area, is known as vena contracta. This is due to the fact that liquid particles do not change their
directions abruptly.
8. Bell mouthed orifices can be categorised in according to ___________

a) Size
b) Shape
c) Shape of upstream
d) Nature of discharge
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The orifices are classified on the basis of their size, shape, shape of upstream edge
and discharge conditions. According to shape of the upstream edge, the orifices are classified as
sharp edged orifice and Bell mouthed orifice.
9. Which of the following is not a hydraulic coefficient?

a) Coefficient of contraction
b) Coefficient of discharge
c) Coefficient of viscosity
d) Coefficient of velocity
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Coefficient of viscosity can be defined as the shear stress required producing unit
rate of angular deformation. It is also called as dynamic viscosity.
10. Theorotical velocity = _______

a) (2gh)1/3
b) (2gh)1/2
c) (2gh)1/4
d) 2gh
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The coefficient of velocity the ratio of actual velocity of the liquid to the theoretical
velocity. Theoretical velocity = (2gh) 1/2.
Where h = liquid head above the centre of orifice.
11. The value of Cv varies _______ to ________
a) 0.95 – 0.99
b) 0.93 – 0.95
c) 0.97 – 1
d) 0.94 – 0.96
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The value of coefficient of velocity (Cv) vary from 0.95 to 0.99 for different
orifices depending on shape, size of the orifices and the head under which floor takes place.
12. The Cv taken for sharp edged orifice generally is _________

a) 0.97
b) 0.98
c) 0.95
d) 0.99
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The Cv taken for sharp edged orifice generally is 0.98.
Value For Sharp edged orifice Hydraulic coefficient
0.98 Cv
0.64 Ca
0.62 Cd
13. Coeffecient of discharge varies from ___________ to __________

a) 0.64 to 0.68
b) 0.61 to 0.65
c) 0.63 to 0.67
d) 0.67 to 0.7
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Coefficient of discharge is defined as the ratio between actual discharge from an
orifice and its theoretical discharge. It varies from 0.61 to 0.65.Generally, the value for Cd = 0.62
Sir sharp edged orifice.
14. The relation between hydraulic coefficients is Cd = Cc × Cv.

a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Cd = Qa / Qth
But Qa = ac V =(Cc a) × Cv × (2gh)1/2.
Qth = a Vth
Cd = Qa Qth = Cc a × Cv (2gh)1/2/a × (2gh)1/2.
Cd = Cc × Cv.
15. Calculate the actual velocity of jet if the coefficient of velocity is 0.97. The head of water on
the orifice of diameter 2 cm is 6 m.
a) 11 m/s
b) 12 m/s
c) 10.5 m/s
d) 13 m/s
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: We know that quotient of velocity the ratio of actual velocity to theoretical
velocity. The actual velocity of jet Va = Cv × (2gh) 1/2.
Va = 0.97 (2× 9.81 ×6 )1/2.
Va = 10.5 m/s.
1. Torque is __________ moment.

a) Twisting
b) Shear
c) Bending
d) Couple
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A cylindrical shaft is subjected to twisting moment or torque when a force is acting
on the member tangentially at some radius in a plane of its cross section.
2. Twisting moment is a product of __________ and the radius.

a) Direction
b) Velocity
c) Force
d) Acceleration
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Twisting moment will be equal to the product of force and radius. When a shaft is
subjected to a twisting moment, every cross section of the shaft will surely experience shear
stress.
3. Torsion is denoted by __________

a) R
b) Q
c) T
d) N
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: If the moment is applied in a plane perpendicular to the longitudinal axis of the
beam (or) shaft it will be subjected to torsion. Torsion is represented or denoted by T.
4. The SI units for torsion is __________

a) N m
b) N
c) N/m
d) m
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As torsion is a product of perpendicular force and radius, the units will be N m.
Torque is also known as torsion or twisting moment or turning moment.
5. _____________ torsion is produced when twisting couple coincides with the axis of the shaft.
a) Exact
b) Pure
c) Nominal
d) Mild
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When a member is subjected to the equal and opposite twisting moment at its ends,
then the member is said to be subjected under pure torsion. Pure Torsion is often produced when
the axis of the twisting couple coincides with the axis of the shaft.
6. Which of the following is known as Re-entrant mouthpiece?

a) External Mouthpiece
b) Convergent Mouthpiece
c) Internal Mouthpiece
d) Cylindrical Mouthpiece
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: According to the position, mouthpieces are classified as an external mouthpiece and
internal mouthpiece. If the tube projects inside the tank, it is called an internal mouthpiece or re-
entrant or borda’s mouthpiece.
7. Micrometre contraction gauge is used to determine ___________

a) Cv
b) Cc
c) Ca
d) Cd
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The coefficient of contraction may be determined experimentally by measuring the
radius of jet as vena contact with the help of micro meter contraction gauge. This method is not
accurate because it is very difficult to measure the correct radius of jet.
8. What is the general value for coefficient of contraction?

a) 0.64
b) 0.67
c) 0.66
d) 0.7
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The ratio of the area of a jet at vena contracta to the area of orifice is known as the
coefficient of contraction. The value of Cc varies from 0.61 to 0.69 for different orifices.
Generally, for sharp edged orifice the value of Cc may be taken as 0. 64.
9. The Cd value for internal mouthpiece running free is __________

a) 0.6
b) 0.5
c) 0.7
d) 0.8
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The Cd value for internal mouthpiece running free is 0.5.
Type Of Mouthpiece Value of Cd
External cylindrical mouthpiece 0.855
Internal mouthpiece running free 0.5
Internal mouthpiece running full 0.707
10. _______ is the velocity with which water reaches the notch or before it flows over it.
a) Velocity of contact
b) Velocity of moment
c) Velocity of approach
d) Velocity of head
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The velocity of approach is defined as the velocity with which water reaches the
notch or weir before it flows over it. This velocity of approach creates an additional head “ha”
equal to Va2 / 2g and effect head over the notch is increased to H+ha.
11. Which of the following formula was proposed by Bazin?
a) m(2g)1/2×LH3/2
b) m(2g) 1/2×H3/2
c) n(2g) 1/2×LH4/3
d) n(2g)1/2×LH3/2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Bazin proposed the following formula for the discharge over rectangular weir:
Q = m(2g) 1/2× L H3/2.
Where m = 0.405 + 0.003/H.
12. For measuring low discharges _____________ notch is preferred.

a) Rectangular
b) Stepped
c) Trapezoidal
d) Triangular
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A triangular notch is preferred to a rectangular notch due to
i. The nappe emerging from a triangular notch has the same shape for all heads. As such the
value for the triangular notch is constant for all heads.
ii. The expression for discharge for right angle triangle law not is very simple.
13. Which of the following is also known as V notch?

a) Trapezoidal
b) Stepped
c) Triangular
d) Sharp edged
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A triangular notch also called a v notch is of triangle shape with apex down. The
expression of the discharge over triangular notch or weir is Q = 8/15 Cd (2g) 1/2 × H 5/2.
14. Calculate the discharge over rectangular Weir of 3 metres length under the head of
400mm.Use Francis formula.
a) 1.268 m3/s
b) 1.396 m3/s
c) 1.475 m3/s
d) 1.528 m3/s
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Francis formula for discharge Q = 1.84 LH3/2.
Given L = 3m & H = 0.4m
Q = 1.84 × 3 × (0.4)3/2.
Q = 1.396 m3/s.
15. _____ converts mechanical energy into hydraulic energy.

a) Dynamo
b) Pump
c) Turbine
d) Generator
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A pump is a mechanical device which converts the mechanical energy into
hydraulic energy. The hydraulic energy is in the form of pressure energy. The pumps are
generally used for lifting liquid from a lower level to a higher level.
1. Torsional sectional modulus is also known as _________

a) Polar modulus
c) Torsion modulus
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The ratio of polar moment of inertia to radius of section is called Polar modulus or
Torsional section modulus. Its units are mm3 or m3 (in SI).
2. ________ is a measure of the strength of shaft in rotation.

a) Torsional modulus
c) Polar modulus
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The polar modulus is a measure of the strength of shaft in rotation. As the value of
Polar modulus increases torsional strength increases.
3. What are the units of torsional rigidity?

a) Nmm2
b) N/mm
c) N-mm
d) N
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The product of modulus of rigidity (C) and polar moment of inertia (J) is called
torsional rigidity. Torsional rigidity is a torque that produces a twist of one radian in a shaft of
unit length.
4. The angle of twist can be written as ________

a) TL/J
b) CJ/TL
c) TL/CJ
d) T/J
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The angle of Twist = TL/CJ
Where T = Torque in Nm
L = Length of shaft
CJ = Torsional rigidity.
5. The power transmitted by shaft SI system is given by __________

a) 2πNT/60
b) 3πNT/60
c) 2πNT/45
d) NT/60 W
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In SI system, Power (P) is measured in watts (W) ; P = 2πNT/60
Where T = Average Torque in N.m
N = rpm
= 2πNT/ 45 1 watt = 1 Joule/sec = 1N.m/s.
6. Area of catchment is measured in ___________

a) mm3
b) Km2
c) Km
d) mm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Catchment area can be defined as the area which contributes the surplus water
present over it to the stream or river. It is an area which is responsible for maintaining flow in
natural water bodies. It is expressed in square kilometres.
7. ______ catchment area is a sum of free catchment area and intercepted catchment area.
a) Total
b) Additional
c) Combined
d) Overall
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Combined catchment area is defined as the total catchment area which contributes
the water in to stream or a tank. Combined Catchment area = Free catchment area + intercepted
catchment area.
8. ___________ has steep slopes and gives more run off.

a) Intercepted Catchment Area
b) Good Catchment Area
c) Combined Catchment Area
d) Average Catchment Area
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Good catchment area consists of hills or rocky lands with steep slopes and little
vegetation. It gives more run off.
9. How many number of rain gauge stations should be installed an area between 250 to 500 km2.
a) 2
b) 4
c) 3
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: 3 number of rain gauge stations should be installed an area between 250 to 500
km2.
Area of Basin(Km2) Number of Rain gauge stations
< 125 1
125 – 250 2
250 – 500 3
10. Trend of rainfall can be studied from _______

a) Rainfall graphs
b) Rainfall records
c) Rainfall curves
d) Rainfall cumulatives
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Rainfall records are useful for calculating run off over a basin. By using rainfall
records estimate of design parameters of irrigation structures can be made. The maximum flow
due to any storm can be calculated and predicted.
11. Estimation of run off “R” is 0.85P-30.48.

The above formula was coined by _____
a) Lacey
b) Darcy
c) Khosla
d) Ingli
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Run off can be estimated by
R= 0.85P-30.48
Where R = annual runoff in mm
P = annual rainfall in mm.
12. Monsoon duration factor is denoted by ________

a) P
b) S
c) F
d) T
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Monsoon duration factor is denoted by F.
Class of Monsoon Monsoon Duration Factor (F)
Very Short 0.5
Standard length 1.0
Very long 1.5
13. Runoff coefficient is denoted by _______

a) P
b) N
c) K
d) H
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The runoff coefficient can be defined as the ratio of runoff to rainfall. Rainfall and
runoff can be interrelated by runoff coefficient.
R = KP
K = R/P [K = is a runoff Coefficient depending on the surface of the catchment area].
14. _________ is a graph showing variations of discharge with time.
a) Rising limb graph
b) Crest graph
c) Hydraulic graph
d) Gauge graph
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Hydrograph is a graph showing variations of discharge with time at a particular
point of the stream. The hydrograph shows the time distribution of total run off at a point of
measurement. Maximum flood discharge can also be calculated by using hydrograph.
15. Calculate the torque which a shaft of 300 mm diameter can safely transmit, if the shear stress
is 48 N / mm2.
a) 356 kNm
b) 254 kNm
c) 332 kNm
d) 564 kNm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Given, the diameter of shaft D = 300 mm
Maximum shear stress fs = 48 N/mm2.
Torque = T = π/16 fs D3
= 254469004.9 Nmm
= 254 kNm.
1
. The intensity of shear stress at a section is ______ to the distance of the section from the axis of
the shaft.
c) Equal
d) Parallel
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The intensity of shear stress at a section is directly proportional to the distance of
the section from axis of the shaft. The shear stress at a distance from the centre of the shaft is
given by fs/R × r.
2. The shear stress is ____________ at the axis of the shaft.

a) Minimum
b) Maximum
c) Zero
d) Uniform
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The shear stress is zero at the axis of the shaft and the shear stress is linearly
increasing to the maximum value at the surface of the shaft.
3. The shear stress at the outer surface of hollow circular section is _________
a) Zero
b) Maximum
c) Minimum
d) Can’t determined
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The shear stress in a hollow circular section varies from maximum at the outer
surface to a minimum (but not zero) in the inner face. The minimum value should be greater than
zero.
4. The hollow shaft will transmit greater _______ then the solid shaft of the same weight.
a) Bending moment
b) Shear stress
c) Torque
d) Sectional Modulus
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: For the same maximum shear stress, the average shear stress in a hollow shaft is
greater than that in a solid shaft of the same area. Hence the hollow shaft will transmit greater
torque than the solid shaft of the same weight.
5. The process of measurement of discharge and water level of a river is called _________
a) Meandering
b) River coursing
c) River gauging
d) Scouring
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The process of measurement of discharge and water level of a river is known as
river gauge. It helps in determining the characteristics of flow different times during the year.
6. The quantity of losses in the river can be measured with an aid of ________
a) Runoff coefficient
b) Hydrograph
c) River Coursing
d) River gauging
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: By measuring river discharge for number of years, it is possible to know the
available and dependable supply. The river gauging helps in measuring discharge in the river and
the quantity of losses can also be known.
7. The site for the river gauging station should not be liable to ____________
a) Silting
b) Coursing
c) Meandering
d) Runoff
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: River gauging station site should be selected in such a way that the site should be
stable and there should not be any choice of scouring and silting. At the gauge site, the river
section should be at right angles to the flow of the river.
8. Stage discharge relationship method is also known as ________ method.

a) Velocity Volume
b) Velocity Area
c) Distance Area
d) Displacement Momentum
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Stage discharge relationship method is a direct method of computing a discharge in
a stream by measuring velocity and area of flow. The place where such measurements are taken
is known as velocity area station and the method is known as the velocity area method.
9. Velocity in a river flow can be calculated by using _________

a) By current meter
b) By emperical formulae
c) By infiltration method
d) By hydrograph
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The velocity flow at any point in an open channel or in a river can be most
accurately and conveniently determined by a mechanical device called current metre in this
device the velocity of flow can be read from rating table.
10. Which of the following method is not used in measuring the velocity of a stream?
a) By floats
b) By rod float
c) By hydrograph
d) By colour
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Hydrograph is a method of estimation of runoff. While the rest of the methods used
in measuring the velocity of a stream/ river or canal. Hydrograph is a graph which shows the
variations of discharge with respect to time.
11. The maximum flood discharge is also known as ___________

a) Peak flow
b) Maximum flow
c) Peak discharge
d) Peak flood
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The maximum rate of discharge during a period of runoff, which is caused by a
storm, is called a peak flow maximum flood discharge. Estimation of maximum flood discharge
is a first step in planning for flood regulation.
12. Which of the following method is used to estimate maximum flood discharge?
a) By travelling screen
b) By current meter
c) By physical indication of past floods
d) By salt velocity
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The results obtained by the physical indication of past floods methods are
somewhat reliable. By oral enquiry in the villages situated on the banks of the river, the
maximum water level attained in the past 35 years can be obtained. But this method is out-dated.
13. ________formula is used only in southern India for calculating maximum flood discharge.
a) Dickens
b) Ryve’s
c) Lacey’s
d) Francis
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Ryve’s (1884) formula is used only in Southern India.
Q = C(A)2/3.
The coefficient “C” depends on the maximum intensity of rainfall and other factors such as
shape slopes exedra of the catchment.
14. A catchment area of 30.5 km2 is situated in Central India calculate the maximum discharge
coming from the catchment area.
a) 253.08 cumecs
b) 341.06 cumecs
c) 457.88 cumecs
d) 485.66 cumecs
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As the catchment area is situated in central India. Dicken’s formula is suitable and a
maximum value of Dickens Coefficient is taken as 19.5
Q = CA3/4
Q = 19.5 × (30.5)3/4
Q = 253.08 cumecs.
15. If the catchment area is situated in north India, then what is the flood coefficient?
a) 10.45
b) 11.37
c) 12.6
d) 19.4
View Answer
Answer: b
1. The moment of inertia of a plane area with respect to an axis ____________ to the plane is
called a polar moment of inertia.
a) Parallel
b) Perpendicular
c) Equal
d) Opposite
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The moment of inertia of a plane area with respect to an axis perpendicular to the
plane of the figure is called a polar moment of inertia with respect to a point, where the axis
intersects a plane.
2. What are the units of Polar modulus?

a) mm3
b) mm2
c) mm
d) mm4
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The ratio of polar moment of inertia (J) to the radius of section(R) is known as
polar modulus or torsional section modulus. Its units are mm3.
3. What is the polar modulus for solid shaft?

a) π/16 D2
b) π/12 D3
c) π/ 16 D3
d) π/16 D
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: For solid shaft Z = J/R = π/32 × D4/ D/2.
Z = π/16 D3.
4. Calculate the polar moment of inertia for a solid circular shaft of 30 mm diameter.
a) 76m4
b) 79.5m4
c) 81m4
d) 84m4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Diameter of the shaft = 30 mm
Polar moment of inertia = J = π/32 × (30)4 mm4
J = 79.52 m4.
5. A hollow shaft outside diameter 120 mm and thickness 20 mm. Find polar moment of inertia.
a) 16.36 × 106 mm4
b) 18.45 × 106 mm4
c) 21.3 × 106 mm4
d) 22.5 × 106 mm4
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: For hollow circular shaft, outside diameter = 120 mm; d = 120-2×20 = 80 mm
the polar moment of inertia = π/32 × (1204– 804).
J = 16.36 × 106 mm4.
6. Determine the maximum flood discharge from a catchment area of 40.25 km2 and it is situated
in the Western Ghats.
a) 350 cumecs
b) 375 cumecs
c) 400 cumecs
d) 425 cumecs
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Since the catchment area is situated in the Western Ghats, the formula best suited is
Dicken’s formula and the coefficient of Dicken’s may be taken as 25.
Q = CA3/4
Q = 25×(40.25)3/4
Q = 400 cumecs.
7. Which of the following is known as “under sluices”?

a) Scouring Sluices
b) Divide wall
c) Fish ladder
d) Head Regulator
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The openings provided in a body wall of the weir almost at the bed level of the
river are known as scouring sluices. These are also known as under sluices.
8. _______ provides straight approach to the scouring sluices.

a) Head regulator
b) Silt Excluder
c) Divide wall
d) Guide banks
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A divide wall is a long solid wall constructed perpendicular to the axis of weir. It
provides a straight approach to the scouring sluices. By preventing the formation of cross
currents, it protects the body wall of weir.
9. __________ is provided for the easy movement of fish from upstream to downstream.
a) Fish ladder
b) Silt excluder
c) Marginal bunds
d) Marginal embankments
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A passage provided just by the side of a divide wall for the movement of fish from
upstream to downstream or vice versa is known as a fish ladder.
10. __________ is used as measuring device.

a) Head regulator
b) Divide wall
c) Cross regulator
d) Scouring sluices
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A structure constructed at the head of the canal to regulate the supply of water into
the canal is called “Head Regulator”. The functions:
i. It is used as a measuring device.
ii. It controls the entry of silt into the canal.
11. __________ is provided to prevent the river from outflanking the work.
a) Guide banks
b) Marginal bunds
c) Silt excluder
d) Divide wall
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Guide banks are provided on either side of the diversion head works in alluvial
soils for a smooth non -tortuous approach to the diversion head works and prevent the river from
outflanking the work.
12. ____________ are provided to protect the land and property with is likely to be submerged.
a) Weir
b) Divide wall
c) Marginal bunds
d) Fish ladder
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Marginal Bunds or marginal embankments are provided on either bank of the river
upstream side of diversion head works in alluvial soils in order to protect the land and property
which is likely to be submerged during ponding of water during floods.
13. _________ is provided to reduce the kinetic energy of falling water in weir.
a) Body wall
b) Curtain walls
c) Downstream apron
d) Shutter
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The downstream apron is a concrete bed which is provided on the downstream side
of a weir in order to reduce the kinetic energy of falling water. It should have sufficient thickness
to resist uplift pressure.
14. Curtain walls are provided to increase ________
a) Creep depth
b) Creep area
c) Creep length
d) Creep volume
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Curtain walls are provided under the upstream and downstream apron at the ends.
We are provided to increase the length of creep and thereby to reduce exit gradient.
15. Which of the following are also known as upstream and downstream piles?
a) Talus on upstream and downstream
b) Curtain walls on upstream and downstream
c) Solid apron on upstream and downstream
d) Shutters on crest of weir
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Curtain walls are provided especially under the upstream and downstream aprons at
the respective ends. They are also called as upstream and downstream piles. The length of the
curtain wall depends on the nature of subsoil.
1. A circular shaft of diameter 30 mm is tested under torsion the gauge length of test specimen is
300 mm. A torque of 2kNm produces an angle twist of 1°. Calculate CJ.
a) 0.432 × 106 N/mm2
b) 0.324 × 106 N/mm2
c) 0.46 × 106 N/mm2
d) 0.532 × 106 N/mm2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Angle of twist = 1° = π/180 radians.
Polar moment of inertia = π/32 × 304mm4.
To find CJ: T/J =C× twist angle
C = Tl/J×twist angle = 2×106 ×300 / π/32 × 304mm4× π/180.
C = 0.4323 × 106 N/mm2.
2. __________ has perfect control on river flow.

a) Barrage
b) Weir
c) Marginal bunds
d) Guide banks
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Barrages are much more costly than weirs. Gates are raised off the high flood to
pass floods. They have perfect control of the river flow.
3. When the gross length is more than 6 metres between the face of abutment it is called as
________
a) Cause way
b) Bridge
c) Culvert
d) Cassion
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When the gross length is more than 6 m between the faces of abutment measured at
right angles is called a bridge. If a bridge supports a road way over a railway then it is called
Road over a bridge.
4. The minimum straight approach provided on either side of bridge is ___________

a) 12 m
b) 15 m
c) 20 m
d) 22 m
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The bridge site should be far away from the confluence of tributaries as far as
possible the straight approaches are to be provided on either side of the bridge for at least 15m.
5. ________ should be taken below the deepest scour level.

a) Foundation
b) Sub structure
c) Structure
d) Parapet
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Foundations to be provided for approaches abutments, piers etc., by considering the
water in the river, sub soil conditions etc., a foundation should be taken below the deepest scour
level.
6. ___________ formula is used for calculating the depth of the foundation.

a) Gordon’s
b) Rankine’s
c) WH Smith’s
d) Falcon
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Rankine’s formula is used for calculating the depth of the foundation.
h=P/w × (1-sin/1+sin). Minimum depth is restricted to 90 cms.
7. _______ foundation is used when the depth of water is more.

a) Pile
b) Caisson
c) Raft
d) Spread
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The caisson foundation is used when the depth of water is more. The spread
Foundation is used when good hard soil is available at shallow depth.
8. _____________ foundation is used when bed soil is soft.

a) Raft
b) Pile
c) Spread
d) Well
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Pile foundation is adopted when the bed soil is soft and hard soil is available at
great depth and also the well foundation is adopted when river bed having sand and good soil is
available at a reasonable depth.
9. The intermediate support of a bridge superstructure is called as ___________

a) Abutment
b) Pier
c) Wing wall
d) Approach
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The intermediate support of bridge superstructure for a multi span bridge is called
pier.
Functions:
i. To divide the total length of bridge into suitable spans.
ii. To distribute the load from the superstructure of the bridge.
10. ___________ piers are adopted for well foundations.

a) Masonry
b) RCC
c) Dumb bell
d) Pile bent
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Dumb-bell piers are light in weight as compared to solid piers. These piers are
suitable when well foundations are adopted. It consists of two columns connected by web for the
full height.
11. _______ piers are used, when the height of pier is large as in case of viaducts, fly overs.
a) Column Bent
b) Pile bent
c) Trestle bent
d) Abutment pier
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: It consists of vertical, horizontal and diagonal members. Trestle bents may be of
steel or concrete. These piers are suitable when the height of pier is large as in case of viaducts.
12. The projection of the piers on the upstream side is known as ________
a) Cut waters
b) Ease waters
c) Sharp waters
d) Para waters
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The projection of the piers on the upstream side is known as cut waters. The cut
waters are provided for easy passage of water. The shape may be triangular, semi-circular &
parabolic etc.
13. The end support of a bridge is __________

a) Pier
b) Abutment
c) Wing wall
d) Approach
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The end support of a bridge superstructure is known as an abutment. The functions
of abutment are
i. To retain the earth filling of approaches
ii. To finish up the bridge with necessary approaches.
14. The projection of the pier on the downstream side is known as ________
a) Ease water
b) Cut water
c) Bridge pier
d) Dumb pier
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The projection of the pier on the downstream side is known as “ease waters”. They
prevent the formation of eddies and their scouring effect.
15. ____________ piers are suitable when foundations are of steel cylinder caisson type.
a) Masonry
b) Trestle bent
c) Cylindrical
d) Pile
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Cylindrical piers are made of mild steel filled with concrete and connected by
horizontal and diagonal steel bearings. These are suitable when foundations of Steel cylinder
caisson type.
1. A solid shaft of circular in section is subjected to torque which produces maximum shear
stress in a shaft. Calculate the diameter of the shaft.
a) (16T/πf)3/2
b) (16f/πT)1/2
c) (16f/π) 1/2
d) (πT/16f) 1/2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: From torsional equation
T/J = f/R
T = f.Z
T = f×π/16d3.
D= (16T/πf) 3/2.
2. When two dissimilar shafts are connected together, then the shaft is __________
a) Integrated shafts
b) Composite shafts
c) Differential shafts
d) Combined shafts
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When two dissimilar shafts are connected together to form one shaft then the shaft
can be termed as composite shaft.
3. __________ torque occurs along with maximum shear stress due to combined bending and
torsion.
a) Equipment
b) Coaxial
c) Biaxial
d) Lateral
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Equipment torque is the twisting moment which acts along producing maximum
shear stress due to the combined bending as well as torsion.
4. When a shaft is subjected to pure twisting then the type of stress developed is ________
a) Bending
b) Axial
c) Shear
d) Normal
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Shear stress is produced when the shaft is subjected to pure twisting (torsion). The
shear stress due to twisting moment is zero at the axis of the shaft.
5. The torque which produces unit twist per unit length is ________
a) Torsional rugosity
b) Torsional rigidity
c) Torsional viscosity
d) Torsional mean radius
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The product of shear modulus(C) and polar moment of inertia (J) is called torsional
rigidity. Torsional rigidity produces a twist of 1 radian in a shaft of unit length.
6. The level of top of weir can be termed as __________

a) Talus
b) Curtain walls
c) Crest
d) Shutter
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The level of the top of weir is known as a crest. The shutters are provided on the
crest and can be raised or laid flat during the time of floods.
7. ________ possesses less silting and scouring.
a) Weir
b) Barrage
c) Dams
d) Reservoir
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The barrage is a low obstructive barrier constructed across the river. There will be
less silting and better control over the levels due to low set crest.
8. In __________ there will be no means for silt disposal.

a) Weir
b) Barrage
c) Reservoir
d) Dams
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The weir may be defined as a solid obstruction/wall built across the river to raise
the water level. Raised crest causes silting at upstream and there is no means silt disposal.
9. _________ is a pure water pressure.

a) Uplift
b) Percolation
c) Scour
d) Flood bank
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Uplift occurs when pore water pressure under a structure or a low permeability
confining layer becomes larger than the mean overburden pressure.
10. __________ causes of uplift of structure.

a) Percolation
b) Scour
c) Critical Velocity
d) Slope Failure
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The effect of percolation on an irrigation structure like a weir to cause uplift
pressure on the structures and topple the structure at any moment.
11. ________ protects the weir from erosive forces during floods.
a) Talus
b) Curtain walls
c) Shutter
d) Upstream solid apron
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Upstream solid apron is a concrete bed which is provided on the upstream side of
weir to protect the weir from erosive forces during floods. The length of apron depends upon
maximum discharge of the river.
12. Gross storage – Dead storage is _______

a) Live storage
b) Virtual storage
c) Excessive storage
d) Free storage
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It is also called as available or effective storage. It is the difference between gross
storage and dead storage. It is the amount of water available from FRL to the sill of the lowest
sluice.
13. Which of the following is not sound proof?

a) G I sheets
b) A C sheets
c) PVC sheets
d) Fabric sheets
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Galvanised iron sheets are commonly used as a roofing material. These are very
durable and fire proof. The main disadvantage is they are not sound proof.
14. Which of the following is not affected by temperature?

a) Fabric sheets
b) G I sheets
c) AC sheets
d) Flat roofs
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Asbestos cement sheets are cheaper in the initial cost. They are fire resisting. They
are heavy in weight and they are not affected by temperature.
15. Which of the following possess good insulation properties?

a) Battened roofs
b) Wooden roofs
c) Jack arch roofs
d) Flat roofs
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Flat roofs are easier in construction and maintenance. A flat roof is more stable
against high wards. It has a better architectural appearance and it has good insulation properties.
1. Calculate the power transmitted in the shaft at 150 rpm. Take torque as 9000Nm.
a) 140 kW
b) 150 kW
c) 160 kW
d) 175 kW
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: To find power transmitted (P) is P = 2 π N T / 60 watts.
P = 2 π × 150 × 9000 / 60
P = 140 kW.

a) Aqueduct
b) Head regulator
c) Super passage
d) Level crossing
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The head regulator is hydraulic structure constructed at the head of a canal system
where it takes off from a reservoir behind a weir or a dam. It is used as a measuring device.
3. Stucco is a type of _________

a) Varnishing
b) Distempering
c) Plastering
d) Whitewashing
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Stucco is the name given to a decorative type of plaster, which provides an
excellent finish like that with marble’s lining.
4. The thickness of cement plaster should not be more than _______

a) 15 mm
b) 12 mm
c) 16 mm
d) 20 mm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The cement plaster is applied in one or two coats. The surface is polished with the
trowel or iron float. The thickness of the coat should not be more than 12 mm.
5. __________ mm thick plastering is done for stone masonry.

a) 10 mm
b) 15 mm
c) 18 mm
d) 20 mm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Normally 12 mm thick plastering is done for brick masonry and 20 mm thick
plastering is done for the stone masonry. The plastered surface is then cured by sprinkling water
over the surface for one or two weeks.
6. The thickness of lime plaster varies from _______ to ________ mm.

a) 15 – 20 mm
b) 12 – 15 mm
c) 18 – 25 mm
d) 20 – 25 mm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The proportioning of the ingredients of lime plaster is adapted according to a
number of coats to be applied. The thickness of lime plaster varies from 20 to 25 mm.
7. Which of the following plastering is widely adopted in rural areas?

a) Stucco Plastering
b) Mud plastering
c) Lime plastering
d) Asphalt plastering
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Mud plastering is done on the walls of temporary Sheds and widely adopted in rural
areas. The Plaster is evenly dashed against the wall with a wooden float. After 24 hours the
surface is tapped.
8. Which of the following blasters contains pulverized alum?

a) Water proof plaster
b) Plaster on lathe
c) C plaster
d) Marble plaster
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Waterproof plaster is made by mixing 1 part of cement, 2 parts of sand and
pulverized alum at the rate of 120 Newton per metre and in the water to be used.
9. Which of the following is known as” laying trowel”?

a) Float
b) Gauge trowel
c) Floating Rule
d) Skimming float
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The tool which is used to spread the mortar on the surface is known as float. It is
also known as laying trowel. It is made of thin tempered Steel.
10. _________ is used to check the level of plastered surface.

a) Gauging trowel
b) Plumb bob
c) Floating Rule
d) Float
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Floating rule is the tool which is used to check the level of plastered surface
between the successive screeds.
11. Skimming float is ____________

a) Wooden float
b) Metalled float
c) Tempered steel float
d) Asbestos cement sheet
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The wooden floor is known as the skimming float and it is used for final and
finishing coat of plaster. The Plaster is evenly spread against the wall surface with a wooden
float.
12. Which of the following is a defect in plastering?

a) Flaking
b) Scrap
c) Rust
d) Staining
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Flaking is a defect in plastering. It is a formation of a very loose mass of plastered
surface due to poor bond between successive coats. This is obtained due to poor workmanship.
13. ________ is a process of mixing various constituents of plaster.

a) Grazing
b) Blistering
c) Gauging
d) Hacking
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Gauging is defined as a process of mixing various constituents of plaster. It is to be
done after the brick work had carried out to the best workmanship. Efflorescence can be removed
to some extent of dry brushing.
14. The small projections of plaster are known as ________

a) Back
b) Dado
c) Dot
d) Hack
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The small projections of plaster laid on the background are known as dots. These
are laid for fixing of screeds. The size of the dots may be 15×15 cm.
15. ______ openings or indentations of corrugations in plaster.

a) Helms
b) Grains
c) Keys
d) Flake
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Keys are the openings or indentations of corrugations on the background or surface
of undercoat, to which plaster will form mechanical bond.
1. Calculate that torque, if the diameter of the shaft is 50 mm and revolutions @ 130 rpm. The
maximum shear stress is 62.5 N/mm2.
a) 1564 Nm
b) 1478 Nm
c) 1534 Nm
d) 1494 Nm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Diameter of shaft = 50 mm
Revolutions of shaft = 130 rpm.
Maximum shear stress = f= 62.5 N/mm2.
T = f π D3/ 16
T = 62.5 ×503× π / 16.
T = 1534 Nm.
2. What is the example for a centrifugal pump?

b) Suction pump
c) Rotodynamic pump
d) Delivery pump
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Rotodynamic pumps have a rotating element through which as the liquid passes its
angular momentum changes, due to which the pressure energy of the liquid is increased. The
centrifugal pump is a rotodynamic pump.
3. Reciprocating pump is an example of ___________

a) Positive displacement pump
b) Delivery pump
c) Suction pump
d) Rotodynamic pump
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Positive displacement pumps are those pumps in which the liquid is sucked and
then it is pushed to the thrust exerted on it by a piston. The most common example of the
positive displacement pump is the reciprocating pump.
4. ____ is the difference between theoretical discharge and the actual discharge of the pump.
a) Crank
b) Hook
c) Slip
d) Centile
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: c
Explanation: Slip of a pump is defined as the difference between the theoretical discharge and
actual discharge after pump.
5. _____ is a phenomenon by which the study and continuous flow of liquid are obstructed.
a) Slip
b) Separation
c) Air vessels
d) Knockage
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Separation of reciprocating pump is that phenomenon by which the steady and
continuous flow of liquid is affected by the presence of air and dissolved gases.
6. Negative slip occurs when the______ is more than theoretical discharge.

a) Virtual discharge
b) Actual discharge
c) Mean discharge
d) Mode discharge
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When the delivery valve opens before the suction stroke is completed, the actual
discharge is more than the theoretical discharge. In such cases, the slip of the pump is known as a
negative slip.
7. _____ slip occurs, when the delivery pipe is short and the suction pipe is long.
a) Positive
b) Critical
c) Negative
d) Zero
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The slip occurs when the delivery pipe is short and the suction pipe is long. The
pump is running at high speeds as the delivery valve open before a suction stroke is completed,
the slip of the pump is known as negative slip.
8. ________ reduces the possibility of separation.

a) Air vessels
b) Casing
c) Impeller
d) Vortex
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: An air vessel may be a closed chamber having the compressed air in a top portion
and the water at the bottom. It reduces the possibility of separation and it ensures the pump to
run at high speed.
9. If the absolute pressure falls below ___________ m, the pump prone to separation.
a) 3 m
b) 2 m
c) 1.5 m
d) 2.5 m
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: If the absolute pressure falls below 2.5 metres of water, the dissolved gases will be
appearing in a liquid and continuous flow will be chocked. This phenomenon can be termed as
separation.
10. The phenomenon of separation can also be known as ___________

a) Cavitation
b) Priming
c) Positive head
d) Pulsate
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Separation is a phenomenon of obstructing the flow by the presence of dissolved
gases when the absolute pressure falls below 2.5 metres of water. This phenomenon of separation
can also be known as knocking (or) cavitation in the reciprocating pump.
11. The work done against friction is reduced due to _____________

a) Impeller
b) Priming
c) Air vessel
d) Vortex
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: An air vessel is fitted to the suction and delivery pipes at a point close to the
cylinder of a single acting reciprocating. The pump increases the length of the suction pipe and
reduces the work done against friction.
12. Volute is a type of _____________

a) Delivery pipe
b) Casing
c) Impeller
d) Suction pipe
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Casing is an airtight chamber covering the impeller. The different types of casing
i.Volute casing
ii.Vortex casing
iii.Casing with guide blades.
13. ______ pumps, the torque is uniform.

b) Suction pump
c) Delivery pump
d) Centrifugal pump
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Centrifugal pump is used for lifting highly viscous liquids such as oils, muddy and
sewage water, paper pulp etc. In centrifugal pump, torque is uniform and no air vessels are
required.
14. What is the practical maximum suction lift in a reciprocating pump?

a) 3.5 m
b) 4.5 m
c) 5 m
d) 6.5 m
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Reciprocating pump can handle only pure water or less viscous liquids free from
impurities. It can be operated at low speeds only. The practical maximum section lift is 6.5
metres.
15. _____ pumps give a larger discharge.

a) Suction
b) Reciprocating
c) Centrifugal
d) Positive displacement
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Centrifugal pump are an example of rotodynamic pump the basic principle of
centrifugal pump is that “when a certain mass of liquid is rotated by an external force, then the
centrifugal head is impressed which enables it to rise to a higher level”. A centrifugal pump
discharges a larger quantity when compared to other pumps.
1. _________ is a structure made up of several members connected to each other.

a) Frame
b) Form work
c) Strut
d) Caisson
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Frame is a structure made up of several members riveted and welded together. The
members of the frame are made in such a way that the form angle iron or channel sections.
2. A frame which is composed of members just sufficient to keep it in equilibrium, such frame is
___________
a) Redundant frame
b) Perfect frame
c) Imperfect frame
d) Deficient frame
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A perfect frame is 1 for which the following equation is satisfied m = 2j-3.
A perfect frame is that which is composed of members just sufficient to keep it in equilibrium
when loaded without any change.
3. In the equation m = 2j-3 ; the letter “j” stands for __________

a) Joists
b) Junctions
c) Joints
d) Jumble
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In the equation m= 2j-3
Where, m = number of members
J = number of joints
“If this equation gets satisfied then the frame for which the equation has setup is perfect frame“.
4. In statically determinate structures _______ is independent.

a) Shear force
b) Bending moment
c) Shear stress
d) Axial load
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: If conditions of equilibrium are sufficient to analyse the structure fully, then it is
statically determinate structure. In this bending moment at a section is independent of the
material of the components of the structure.
5. What is the splay provided in splayed wing walls?

a) 30°
b) 45°
c) 60°
d) 90°
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Splayed wing walls permit smooth entry and exit of water under the bridge. The
splay is usually provided at 45°. The weep holes are also provided.
6. The wing wall resembling the letter “U” in plan, is ___________

a) Return wing wall
b) Approach wing wall
c) Splayed wing wall
d) Straight wing wall
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The return wing walls resemble the letter “U” in plan wing walls are parallel to the
centre line of the bridge. It is used where rivers having steep and rocky banks and not subjected
to the erosion of soil.
7. __________ coat develop resistant texture.

a) Prime coat
b) Seal coat
c) Tack coat
d) Open coat
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Seal code is final coat lay over bituminous pavements which are not impervious.
Seal coat develops skid resistant texture and they provide better riding surface.
8. Which of the following roads (pavements) does not develop any corrugations?
a) Bituminous
b) Concrete
c) Water bound macadam
d) Asphalt
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Concrete road is suitable even under poor sub grades. It is not develop any
corrugations and its maintenance cost is low.
9. Which of the following is the weakest part in the railway track?

a) Rail joint
b) Plates
c) Spikes
d) Lugs
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The joint which is made between two rails together with two fish plates and four
fish bolts to form an expansion gap of 1.5 to 3 mm. Rail joint is the weakest part in the railway
track.
10. Sabotage problem is eliminated in _______

a) Round spike
b) Dog spike
c) Screw spike
d) Polar spike
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Holding capacity of rails to sleepers is more and costly. Hence screw spike is used
in driving and extraction. Though it is costly and time consuming, the sabotage problem is
eliminated due to screw spike.
11. ________ are made of high carbon steel to withstand heavy stresses.
a) Fish plates
b) Fish bolts
c) Spikes
d) Lugs
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: For each rail joint, four fish bolts are required to connect fish plates and rails
together. Fish bolts are made of medium or high carbon steel to which stand heavy stresses.
12. For each sleeper _______ pandrol clips are used.

a) 3
b) 2
c) 4
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Pandrol clip is made of silicon manganese spring steel bar of 20.6 mm diameter and
heat treated. It exerts a toe load of 6.97 kN. For each sleeper, four pandrol clips are used.
13. The Wheels of Rolling stock have slope ________

a) 1 in 10
b) 1 in 15
c) 1 in 20
d) 1 in 30
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The wheels of rolling stock are made in the shape of a frustum of a cone having a
slope of 1 in 20 is known as coning of wheels. The objective of coning of wheels is to prevent
lateral movement of trains in straight track.
14. ________ are transverse ties on which the rails are laid.
a) Lugs
b) Sleepers
c) Spikes
d) Clips
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Sleepers are transverse ties on which the rails are laid and transfer the load from
rails to ballast. The main function of a sleeper is to provide a firm and even support to rails.
15. _______ permits track circuiting.

a) Clips
b) Rails
c) Spikes
d) Sleepers
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The sleepers should be capable of resisting vibrations and shocks due to fast
moving trains. The fastenings used to fix rails to sleepers should be minimum. The sleepers
should permit track circuiting.
1. The Velocity at which flow changes from viscous to turbulent is called __________ velocity.
a) Critical
b) Frictional
c) Relative
d) Nominal
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A fluid motion is always subjected to a certain resistance. In reality, this resistance
is mainly due to sliding. The velocity at which the flow changes from a viscous flow to turbulent
flow is called critical velocity.
2. Flow in circular pipes will be turbulent is Reynolds number is _________

a) < 2800
b) > 2800
c) = 2800
d) ~ 2800
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Reynold’s number (Re) = Vd/v
V = Mean velocity of flow in pipe
d = Diameter of pipe
v = Kinematic viscosity of liquid
Flow in circular pipe will be turbulent if Reynolds number is greater than 2800.
3. _____ number is the ratio between inertia and viscous forces.

a) Lamina’s
b) Parker’s
c) Macadam’s
d) Reynold’s
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Professor Reynold’s deduced from his experiments that at lower velocities the
liquid flow was a laminar and at higher velocities, the flow was turbulent. It is a dimensionless
number as it is the ratio between inertia and viscous forces.
4. The frictional resistance is ______ to the surface area of contact.

c) Equal
d) Not equal
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The frictional resistance is directly proportional to the surface area of contact. The
frictional resistance is independent of the pressure and where is considerably with temperature.
5. ___________ flow the liquid particles move along straight parallel paths.
a) Steady
b) Unsteady
c) Laminar
d) Turbulent
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Flow in circular pipes will be laminar if the Reynolds number is less than 2000.
The laminar flow is a type of flow in which the liquid particles move along straight parallel path
in layers or laminates.
6. The __________ resistance is independent of the nature of surface contact.
a) Frictional
b) Skid
c) Shear
d) Coupling
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When the liquid flows at a velocity that is less than the critical velocity. A thin
stationary film of the liquid is formed on a supporting surface. This is a reason that the frictional
resistance is independent of the nature of surface of contact.
7. Calculate the specific weight of oil. If the specific gravity is 0.95. Take specific weight of
water is 1000 kg/m3.
a) 750 kg/m3
b) 850 kg/m3
c) 950 kg/m3
d) 1250 kg/m3
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The specific gravity (S) = specific weight of oil / specific weight of
Specific weight of oil = S × specific weight of water
Specific weight of oil = 0.95 × 1000
= 950 kg/m3.
8. In _______ liquid flows under atmospheric pressure.

a) Pipe flow
b) Open channel
c) Stream
d) Aqueduct
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Liquid flows under atmospheric pressure in an open channel due to its slope of the
channel. There must be some slope in the bed of the channel to flow to take place.
9. The energy gradient line is _______ to drop in bed, in an open channel.

a) Equal
b) Parallel
c) Perpendicular
d) Unequal
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: For uniform flow in an open channel the drop in the energy gradient line is equal to
drop in bed. Flows in irrigation channels, streams and rivers are some examples of open channel
flow.
10. Aqueduct is an example of __________ channel.

a) Natural
b) Prismatic
c) Non prismatic
d) Artificial
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: An artificial channel is the one which is built artificially for some specific purpose
such as irrigation water supply and water power development etc. The examples include canals,
drainage gutters and aqueducts.
11. Rectangular channel is _________ channel.

a) non Prismatic
b) Prismatic
c) Natural
d) Artificial
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A channel is said to be prismatic if the cross-section is uniform and the bed slope is
constant throughout its length. The rectangular channel comes under Prismatic channel.
12. Expand RVF _________

a) Rapid Vary Fluid
b) Rise in Virtual Flow
c) Rapidly Varied flow
d) Rapidly Viscous flow
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: RVF stands for Rapidly Varied Flow. If the depth floor changes abruptly over a
comparatively shorter distance, the flow is characterised as rapidly varied flow. Typical
examples of rapidly varied flow are hydraulic jump and hydraulic drop.
13. Froude number is the ratio of inertial force to the _________ force.
a) Shear
b) Gravity
c) Uplift
d) Viscous
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The ratio of the inertia force and gravity force is known as the Froude number. It is
denoted by Fr.
Fr = V/(gD)1/2.
14. For super critical flow, Fr _________ 1.

a) >
b) <
c) =
d) ~
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Froude number the ratio of inertial force to the gravity force.
Fr = V/(gD) 1/2
For supercritical flow, Fr > 1.
15. Strut is a tension member.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Strut is the member of a structure any position carrying the compressive load. It
1. If the thickness of plate is negligible when compared to the diameter of the cylindrical, then it
is called __________
a) Thick cylinder
b) Thin cylinder
c) Hoop cylinder
d) Circumferential cylinder
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The thickness of plate is negligible when compared to the diameter of the
cylindrical shell, and then it can be termed as a thin cylinder. The radius stress in the cylinder
walls is negligible.
2. In thin cylinders, the thickness should be ____________ times of internal diameter.

a) 1/20
b) 1/15
c) 1/30
d) 1/40
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In thin shells, the stress distribution over the thickness of the material is assumed to
be uniform and the wall thickness is equal to or less than 1/ 20 of the internal diameter.
3. Oil tanks, steam boilers, gas pipes are examples of _____________

a) Thick shells
b) Thin cylinders
c) Hoop cylinders
d) Longitudinal cylinders
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In thin cylindrical shells, the stresses are uniformly distributed throughout the wall.
The type of stresses developed in thin cylinders is hoop stress and longitudinal stress. Ex: water
supply mains, oil tanks, steam boilers and gas pipes.
4. In _________ shells, the stress distribution is not uniform over the thickness of the material.
a) Thick
b) Thin
c) Hoop
d) Circumferential
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A cylinder in which the wall thickness is greater than 1 / 20 of internal diameter it
is called the thick cylinder.
t>d/20. In thick shells, the stress distribution is not uniform over the thickness of the material.
5. Hydraulic radius is denoted by _________

a) T
b) A
c) R
d) N
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Hydraulic radius is the ratio of wetted area to the wetted perimeter. It is also known
as hydraulic mean depth. It is denoted by “R”.
R = A/P.
6. Hydraulic depth is a ratio of wetted area to _____

a) Bottom width
b) Top width
c) Diameter
d) Radius
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Hydraulic depth is the ratio of wetted area to the top with (T). It is denoted by D
D = A/T.
7. What is the hydraulic depth (D) of a rectangular section?

a) y
b) 1/3 y
c) y2
d) y/5
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The hydraulic depth (D) of a rectangular section is y.
Section Hydraulic depth (D)
Rectangle y
Trapezoid (B+Zy)y / B+2zy
1
Triangle ⁄2 y
8. In manning’s formula, V = 1/n×m2/3×i1/2. N stands for ___________

a) Coefficient of viscosity
b) Coefficient of rugosity
c) Coefficient of runoff
d) Coefficient of friction
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In 1889, manning presented a formula according to which the mean velocity of
uniform flow in a channel is V = 1/n × m 2/3 × i1/2.
Where n = coefficient of rugosity.
9. What is the coefficient of rugosity for brick lined surface?

a) 0.011
b) 0.012
c) 0.015
d) 0.013
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The coefficient of rugosity for brick lined surface is 0.015.
Channel Surface Coefficient of rugosity (n)
Asbestos cement 0.011
Brick 0.015
Cast Iron 0.012
Galvanised Iron 0.016
10. Most economical section is also called as __________
a) Most active section
b) Most effective section
c) Most efficient section
d) Superior section
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A channel is said to be the most economical if it gives the maximum discharge
under given cross-sectional area, bottom slope and roughness. The most economical section is
also known as the most efficient section.
11. For most economical section __________ should be minimum.

a) P
b)A
c) R
d)N
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A channel discharges larger if the hydraulic radius is maximum. The hydraulic
radius will be maximum when the wetted perimeter is minimum for a given area. Hence, for
most economical section the wetted perimeter should be minimum.
12. A rectangular channel has cross sectional area of 50 m2. If the channel section is to be most
economical calculate the depth. Take B = 10m.
a) 10 m
b) 5 m
c) 8 m
d) 12 m
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Let y be the depth of flow of the channel. For most economical section y = B/2.
Cross-section area of flow A = By
y= 50/10
y= 5 m.
13. _________ are used to change the water level in a canal.

a) Sluice gates
b) Lock gates
c) Check gates
d) Scour gates
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Gates which are used to change the water level in a canal or a river are known as
lock gates. If a canal or a river has a vertical fall at any section, it is necessary to raise or lower
the water level in order to transfer the boat from upper water level to lower one.
14. The flow of water is controlled in hydraulic structures by ____________

a) Sluice gates
b) Check gates
c) Lock gates
d) Drain gates
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In hydraulic structures, the openings are provided to carry water from its storage
place to place of utilisation. The flow of water through such openings is controlled by means of
sluice gates.
15. The units of discharge are _____________

a) m/s
b) m2/s
c) m3/s
d) m
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The volume of liquid flowing through any section or channel per unit time is called
discharge or rate of flow. It is expressed in m3/s.
It is denoted by “Q”.
1 cumec = 1000 litres/sec.
1. The stress acts tangential to circumference is called ______ stress.

a) Hoop
b) Fluid
c) Longitudinal
d) Yield
View Answer
Answer: a
pressure and which acts tangential to circumference is called hoop stress or circumferential
stress.
2. The hoop stress is _____________ along the x axis.

a) Tensile
b) Parabolic
c) Compressed
d) Transverse
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Hoop stress is also known as circumferential stress and it is tensile along x-axis.
The total pressure along the diameter of the shell P = intensity of stress × Area.
3. The cylinder has a tendency to split up along _____________ due to circumferential stress.
a) Area
b) Radius
c) Diameter
d) Length
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: As a result of circumferential stress a cylinder has a tendency to split up along its
diameter. Because of hoop stress, the failure is a longitudinal failure.
4. ____________ is half the circumferential stress.

a) Hoop stress
c) Fluid stress
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Longitudinal stress is developed along the walls of the cylinder in the shell due to
internal fluid pressure on the ends. The longitudinal stress is half the circumferential stress.
5. Which of the following is also known as axial stress?

a) Shear stress
c) Bending stress
d) Hoop stress
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The stress which is developed due to internal fluid pressure on the ends is known as
longitudinal stress. As a result of longitudinal stress, the cylinder has a tendency to be turn away
longitudinally. It is also known as axial stress.
6. The layers of wood wearing thickness from ____________ to __________ is called veneers.
a) 0.4 to 0.6 mm
b) 0.5 to 0.8 mm
c) 0.4 to 0.6 mm
d) 0.5 to 0.7 mm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The layers or slices of wood varying thickness from 0.4 to 0.6 mm or more are
called veneers. They are obtained by rotating a log of wood against a sharp knife.
7. _____________ is used as decorative facings.

a) Plywood
b) Veneers
c) Ply ware
d) Battens
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Veneers are used in construction where light weight, moderate strength, non
shrinkage and non splitting properties are required. Veneers are used for decorative facings.
8. Which of the following is known as block board?

a) Batten board
b) Plywood
c) Fiber board
d) Veneer
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The strips which are glued together between two veneers one on either side are
known as batten boards. The board is made with 25 mm with strips. It is also known as block
board.
9. Which of the following is also known as pressed woods?

a) Ply wood
b) Ply ware
c) Batten board
d) Fiber wood
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The boards which are made by pressing the mixture of saw dust, fibres of wood and
glue are known as fibre boards or pressed woods or reconstructed wood.
10. Which of the following boards are used in making partitions covering?
a) Lamin boards
b) Particle boards
c) Straw boards
d) Eco board
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The laminated boards having a core of strips not exceeding 7 mm thickness are
glued together between two or more veneers are called laminated boards. Laminated boards are
used in making partitions covering, packing cases and for floor coverings.
11. ____________ boards are manufactured from sugarcane waste obtained from bagasse.
a) Eco board
b) Straw board
c) Lamin board
d) Particle board
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Eco board is manufactured from sugarcane waste obtained from sugar factory
known as “Bagasse”. These bagasse balls are broken into required small size particles. These
boards possess the following advantages:
i. These are durable
ii. They possess good strength and workability.
12. Plastic is a ____________ substance.

a) Eco friendly
b) Inorganic
c) Organic
d) Natural
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The plastic is one of the recent engineering materials which are widely used. The
plastic is an organic substance made up of natural or synthetic resins.
13. Plastic possess tensile strength of _______________

a) 4.2 tonnes/cm2
b) 5.6 tonnes/cm2
c) 3.4 tonnes/cm2
d) 4.8 tonnes/cm2
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Plastic can withstand wear and tear due to abrasion. The plastics are highly resistant
to corrosion. They possess tensile strength about 5.6 tonnes per centimetre square (5.6
tonnes/cm2).
14. ________ is an example of thermoplastic.
a) Shellac
b) Bakelite
c) Phenol formaldehyde
d) Urea formaldehyde
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Thermoplastic softens by heating and hardens when cooled. This variety of plastic
can be used by remoulding many numbers of times as required. The commercial forms of
thermoplastic are shellac, vinyl plastics, and acrylic.
15. What is the minimum percentage of reinforcement provided in mild steel?

a) 0.12 % of gross area
b) 0.15 % of gross area
c) 0.18 % of gross area
d) 0.2 % of gross area
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As per IS 456 – 2000,
0.12 % of gross area is required for HYSD bars [Tor steel] 0.15 % of gross area is required for
mild steel
1. Which of the following stress can also be known as hoop stress?

a) Axial stress
c) Fluid stress
d) Circumferential stress
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Circumferential stress in the shell = f = Total pressure / resisting section
f = pdl/2tl
f = pd/2t.
Circumstantial stress can also be known as hoop stress.
2. A water main of 1.5 m diameter and 20 mm thick is subjected to an pressure of 1.5N/mm2.

Calculate the circumferential stress induced in the pipe.
a) 78.65 N/mm2
b) 68.45 N/mm2
c) 56.25 N/mm2
d) 60.85 N/mm2
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Diameter of water main = 1500 mm and internal pressure = 1.5 N/mm2
Thickness = 20 mm
Hoop stress = pd/2t = 1500 × 1.5/ 2× 20.
= 56.25 N/mm2.
3. Which of the following method is also known as overhead irrigation method?

a) Drip Irrigation
b) Sprinkler
c) Contour
d) Check flooding
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Sprinkler irrigation method is used where the soil is erodable type and high
permeable. It is also known as overhead irrigation. The sprinkler method requires a large
investment in installing.
4. The average diameter of particles of silt is __________

a) 0.08mm
b) 0.002 mm
c) 1.2 mm
d) 0.011
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The average diameter of particles of silt is 0.002 mm.
Group Average diameter in mm
Sand 2 to 0.06 mm
Silt 0.06 to 0.002 mm
Clay < 0.002 mm
5. pH is measured in ____
a) gram / litre
b) gram/cm
c) cusecs
d) cumecs
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: pH value in a chemical term which shows acidity or alkalinity of the matter. The
pH value is a logarithm of the reciprocal of the hydrogen in concentration measured in gram per
litre.
6. Soil moisture stress is defined as the sum of soil moisture tension and ______ pressure of soil
solution.
a) Weed
b) Perforated
c) Osmatic
d) Uplift
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The increase in the force caused by salts is called osmatic pressure. The soil
moisture stress is defined as the sum of soil moisture tension and osmotic pressure of soil
solution.
7. In coarse textured sandy soils, the field capacity can be achieved in _________
a) 1 to 3 days
b) 2 to 5 days
c) 3 to 7 days
d) 5 to 8 days
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The moisture content held by soil after gravitational water has drained off from a
saturated soil is called field capacity. In coarse textured soils, the field capacity can be achieved
in 1 to 3 days.
8. Acid in the rain was first detected by ___________

a) Lacy Film
b) Angus smith
c) Graeme Robert
d) Mesh swann
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The amount of acid which falls as towards earth with the rain water and snow is
called acid rain. The acid in the rain water was detected for the first time by Robert Angus Smith
in 1872.
9. _________ causes deterioration of buildings and monuments.

a) Acid rain
b) Green house effect
c) Global warning
d) Ozone layer depletion
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Acid rain causes a number of harmful effects below pH 5.1. The effects are visible
in the aquatic system even at pH less than 5.5. It causes deterioration of buildings especially
made of marble. It damages stone statues, metals and car finishes.
10. Expand CFC _________

a) Chlorofluorochloride
b) Carbonfluorochlorine
c) Chlorofluorocarbon
d) Cadmiumfluorocalcium
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: CFC stands for Chlorofluorocarbon. It is one of the major gases of the greenhouse.
It is released from refrigerators, air conditioners etc.
11. ______ is mainly responsible for ozone depletion in the stratosphere.

a) CFC
b) MNC
c) ESC
d) FSC
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Over last 450 million years, the earth had a natural sunscreen in the stratosphere
called the ozone layer. This layer filters out harmful ultraviolet rays from the sunlight and the
protects various life forms on the earth. CFC is mainly responsible for ozone depletion in the
stratosphere.
12. Fossil fuels are example for ________

a) Exhaustible resources
b) Renewable resources
c) Non renewable resources
d) Inexhaustible resources
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Non renewable resources lack the ability of recycling and replacement. The
substances with a very long recycling time are also regarded to be non renewable resources. Ex:
biological species, minerals &fossil fuels.
13. Nuclear energy is __________

b) Non renewable energy resource
c) Exhaustible resource
d) Inexhaustible resource
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Non renewable energy resources mainly include fossil fuels and nuclear energy.
The fossil fuels are found inside earth’s crust. The nuclear energy obtained through fission or
fusion reaction which yields large amount of heat energy.
14. Geothermal Energy is _________

b) Natural resource
c) Sustainable resource
d) Exhaustible resource
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In some places, the heated water comes to the earth surface as hot springs. It can be
used for heating water and buildings and for generating electricity. This is known as geothermal
energy and it is a renewable energy resource.
15. The study of ecosystems is known as _________

a) Echography
b) Bibliograph
c) Ecology
d) Biology
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Ecology deals with the study of organisms in their natural home interacting with
their surroundings. Now ecology is often defined as the study of ecosystems
1. The longitudinal stress is _____ stress across the section.

a) Shear
b) Bending
c) Tensile
d) Compressive
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The tendency of longitudinal stress in a cylinder is to turn away longitudinally. The
longitudinal stress is tensile stress across the section.
2. The longitudinal stress in the shell is _________

a) pd/3t
b) pd/4t
c) pd/2t
d) pd/6t
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As longitudinal stress is half the circumferential stress, then f = total pressure/
resisting section.
f = p × π/4 d2 / π d t
f = pd/4t.
3. The ratio of hoop stress to maximum shear stress is _________

a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 6
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Maximum shear stress (q) = (hoop stress – longitudinal stress) / 2
= pd/8t
= pr/4t
The ratio of hoop stress to maximum shear stress is 4.
4. At any point on the circumference of the cylinder, the longitudinal and hoop stress are
_______
a) Parallel
b) Equal
c) Orthogonal
d) Radial
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: At any point on the circumference of the cylindrical shell, the longitudinal (axial
stress) and hoop stress(circumferential stress) are always orthogonal to each other.
5. Calculate the axial stress induced in the pipe is the water mean of 1.5 metres diameter and 20
mm thick is subjected to an internal pressure of 1.5 N/mm2.
a) 28.125 N/mm2
b) 35.675 N/mm2
c) 46.785 N/mm2
d) 67.845 N/mm2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Longitudinal stress ( axial stress) = pd / 4t.
f= 1.5 × 1500 / 4 × 20
f= 28.125 N/mm2.
6. Saprotrophs are also known as _________

a) Detritus Feeders
b) Decomposers
c) Tertiary consumers
d) Omnivores
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Saprotrophs feed on the parts of dead organisms, wales of living organisms and
partially decomposed matter. They are also known as the detritivores. Termites, crabs etc. are the
examples saprotrophs.
7. Energy flows through the ecosystem in the form of __________ bonds.

a) C-C
b) N-N
c) O-O
d) F-F
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Energy flows through the ecosystem in the form of carbon-carbon bonds when
respiration occurs, the carbon-carbon bonds are broken and the carbon is combined with oxygen
to form carbon dioxide.
8. Energy does not recycle.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Energy is neither created nor destroyed. All energy comes from the sun, and that
the ultimate fate of all energy in ecosystem is to be lost as heat. Energy does not recycle.
9. ____________ is a network of food chain of different types of organisms.

a) Food web
b) Food network
c) Food system
d) Food cache
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Food web is a network of food chains where different types of organisms are
connected at different trophic levels. There are the number of options of eating and being eaten
at each trophic level.
10. Ecological pyramids were first devised by __________

a) Earnest Haeckel
b) Roger Federer
c) Charles Eltan
d) Smith Nell
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: An ecological pyramid is a graphic representation of an ecological parameter like a
number of individuals. The ecological pyramids were first devised by British ecologist Charles
Elton in 1927.
11. Which of the following is correct?

a) Phytoplankton-zooplanktons- fish
b) Zooplanktons -protozoan-fish
c) Grass- fish- zoo plankton
d) Zooplanktons- phytoplankton-fish
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The sequence of eating and being eaten in an ecosystem is known as a food chain.
Some of the common examples of the simple food chain are grass -grasshopper -frog- snake-
hawk (grassland ecosystem).
Phytoplankton-zooplanktons- fish (pond ecosystem).
12. Wholesome water is also known as _________

a) Palatable water
b) Quality water
c) Lethal water
d) Toxic water
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Palatable water is the water that it is free from excessive temperature, colour,
turbidity taste and odour. It is well aerated. The Wholesome water indicates palatable water.
13. Rate of demand is also known as __________

a) Domestic demand
b) Per capita demand
c) Commercial demand
d) Livestock demand
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Rate of demand is the rate of water to be supplied per person per day it is expressed
as litres per capita per day.
Per capita demand (or) rate of demand = Q/P×365 litres per day.
14. Water works are generally design with design period of __________
a) 25 years
b) 30 years
c) 45 years
d) 50 years
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation: Water supply projects are designed to serve our specific period of time after
completion of the project. This time period is called a design period. The water works are
generally designed with a design period of 30 years.
15. What is a design period for storage dam?

a) 45 years
b) 50 years
c) 60 years
d) 90 years
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The design period for storage dam is 50 Years.
1. Calculate the hoop stress at the bottom of penstock, if a steel penstock of 1 m and 10 mm thick
is subjected to 100m head of water. Take w = 9.81 kN/m3.
a) 49 N/mm2
b) 47 N/mm2
c) 45 N/mm2
d) 43 N/mm2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: We know that p = wh ; p = 9.81×100 = 981 kN/m2= 0.981 N/mm2.
Hoop stress = pd/2t = 0.981 ×1000/2×10 = 49 N/mm2.
2. Maximum daily demand = _____ × Average daily demand.

a) 2.5
b) 3.5
c) 1.5
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Peak demand is a maximum consumption of water in an hour or in a day the effects
of monthly variations of flow influences the design of pumps and services reservoirs.
Maximum daily demand = 1.5 × Average daily demand.
3. Which of the following is not a short term estimate in population forecast?
a) Graphical comparison
c) Arithmetical increase method
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Graphical comparison is a long term estimate. In this estimate, the population time
curve of a given community can be extrapolated on the basis of trends experienced by similar
and larger communities.
4. Pn = P[1+r/100]n is a formula used in ___________

b) Incremental increase method
c) Geometrical increase method
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Geometrical increase method is used for young and rapidly growing cities
The formula used is Pn = P[1+r/100] n; Where Pn = population of “n” decades
r = percentage rate of increase per year
n = number of years or decades.
5. According to Freeman, estimate of fire demand can be made from the formula?
a) Q = 3175 P
b) Q = 2125 P
c) Q = 1136.5 (P/5 +10)
d) Q = 2715 (P/5 + 10)
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Fire fighting demand is provided acquisition draught on distribution system with
normal supply to the consumers according to J R freeman’s formulae :
Q = 1136.5 ( P/5 + 10 )
Q = quantity of water in litres per minute
P = population in thousands.
6. Fire hydrants are located in a main at a distance of ______________

a) 200 to 250 m
b) 150 to 200 m
c) 100 to 150 m
d) 50 to 100 m
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A sufficient amount of water must therefore always be available to satisfy the peak
demand and extinguish any possible fire. For effective fire protection, hydrants are located at
about 150 m intervals.
7. In total consumption, losses account about __________

a) 10
b) 15
c) 30
d) 25
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In total consumption, losses account about 15 %.
Types of consumption Percentage varies
Industrial and commercial demand 25 %
Public demand 15 %
Losses 15 %
8. _______ is integrated or summation hydrograph.

a) Mass curve
b) Mild curve
c) Ryve’s curve
d) Dicken’s curve
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Mass curve diagram is the integrated or summation hydrograph. It shows the
relation between time and cumulative discharges in a river.
9. ___________ is an example of a subsurface source.

a) Streams
b) Impounding reservoir
c) Rivers
d) Springs
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: When ground water appears at the surface for any reason springs are formed. The
springs generally can supply small quantity of water.
10. Infiltration wells are ____________ wells constructed in series.

a) Vertical
b) Horizontal
c) Inclined
d) Radial
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Infiltration wells are the vertical shallow wells constructed in series along the banks
of rivers. The wells are connected by Porous pipes to a sump well called “jack well”.
11. _______ are the horizontal tunnels laid along the banks of river.
a) Infiltration wells
b) infiltration reservoir
c) infiltration galleries
d) infiltration Springs
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Infiltration galleries are used as source of water supply. These are the horizontal
tunnels which are constructed through water bearing strata. They are usually laid along the banks
of rivers, so that water can be drawn across the line of flow.
12. Carbonic acid is high in ______ springs.

a) Gravity
b) Surface
c) Artesian
d) Erotic
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Surface springs are formed when subsoil water is exposed to the ground. The spring
water which is not disturbed by the rainfall is usually attractive in appearance and of good
palatability. However, the content of free carbonic acid is sometimes high and spring water may
possess corrosive and plumb solvent properties.
13. In _________ springs, that trench acts as a storage reservoir.

a) Surface
b) Erotic
c) Artesian
d) Gravity
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Gravity springs are developed due to overflowing of water table. The flow from a
gravity spring is variable with rise or fall of water table. In order to meet with such fluctuations,
a trench may be constructed near such spring. That trench acts as a storage reservoir.
14. Which of the following wells are also known as water table well?
a) Deep wells
b) Open wells
c) Shallow wells
d) Sunk wells
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Shallow well is a well which supply from the uppermost aquifer. The flow into the
wells takes place only by gravity. Due to this depression, the well is also known as gravity well
or water table well.
15. Calculate the strain energy of a member bearing stress of 0.0366 N/mm2. If the length of the
member is 1 m and a cross section area is 60000mm2. Take E = 2 × 105 N/mm2.
a) 0.4 Nmm
b) 0.5 Nmm
c) 0.6 Nmm
d) 0.2 Nmm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Strain energy = f2/ 2E × Volume
= (0.0366)2 / 2 × 2 × 105 × ( 60000) × 1000
= 0.2 Nmm.
1. Torsional modulus is ___________ to torsional strength.

c) Equal
d) Unequal
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As the value of torsional modulus increases, the torsional strength increases. For
example, a hollow circular shaft compared to that of solid shaft of the same area will have more
torsional strength.
2. _______ torque produces the maximum shear stress due to combined bending.
a) Seasonal
b) Equipment
c) Composite
d) Series
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The equipment torque is the twisting moment which acts along to produce the
maximum shear stress due to combined bending and torsion.
3. _______ is the structures installed for the purpose of drawing water.
a) Intakes
b) Conduits
c) Valves
d) Springs
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The devices or structures installed for the purpose of drawing water from the
sources are called intakes. Water is distributed from the source to the treatment through conduits.
4. _______ is an example of a gravity conduit.

a) C I pipes
b) Flumes
c) W I pipes
d) Steel pipes
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Gravity conduits are those in which water flows under more action of gravity.
Flumes are open channels supported on (over the ground surfaces).
5. ________ is the gravity conduits used while crossing a hill or lock.

a) Flumes
b) Aqueducts
c) Canals
d) Tunnels
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Tunnels are portions of aqueduct used while crossing a hill or rock. They may be
grade tunnels or pressure tunnels depending on whether the water flows with a free surface or
under pressure.
6. In aqueduct, the nominal flow of velocity be ________

a) 0.5 m/s
b) 0.9 m/s
c) 0.6 m/s
d) 0.8 m/s
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Aqueduct is covered waterways used to carry water from a remote source to origin
of distribution. Water is not under pressure, so the aqueduct can even be built of brick with a
velocity of 0.9 metre per second.
7. _____________ coincides with the water surface in a canal or open channel.
a) HGL
b) TEL
c) TWL
d) HTL
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The hydraulic gradient line in channels coincides with the water surface in a canal
or open channel. The generally canals are trapezoidal in shape but rectangular sections prove
economical.
8. Pressure conduits are also known as _______

a) Pipe conduits
b) Gravity conduits
c) Artesian conduits
d) Surface conduits
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Pressure conduits are also known as pipe conduits in which large amounts of water
flow under pressure. The location is so chosen that it will be most favourable with regard to the
construction cost and resulting pressures.
9. What is the flow of velocity in the pressure conduit?

a) 0.5 to 0.6 m/s
b) 0.6 to 0.7 m/s
c) 0.6 to 0.8 m/s
d) 0.8 to 1 m/s
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Velocities should be high enough to prevent silt deposition in the pipe and should
be about 0.6 to 0.8 m/s. At low points, in the pipes, blow off branches with valves are placed to
drain the water.
10. Pressure conduits with steel pipes varies diameter _______

a) 2500 mm
b) 3000 mm
c) 3500 mm
d) 4000 mm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Steel pipes are manufactured for various purposes like rising mains, conveying
mains distribution systems and inverted siphons. They are used in size ranging from 900 mm to
3000 mm in diameter.
11. Which of the following conduits possess low resistance to acid nature?
a) RCC pipes
b) PVC pipes
c) Steel pipes
d) PSC pipes
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A partial vacuum is formed while emptying the steel pipeline, it is likely to collapse
easily or get deform permanently. Steel pipes are more liable to resist acidic nature.
12. _______ pipes are not easily biodegradable.

a) RCC
b) PSC
c) PVC
d) G I
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Reinforced concrete pipes maybe precast or cast in situ. The life of pipes is more
than 65 years. They are not easily biodegradable. They can be manufactured with indigenous
equipment.
13. RCC pipes can be used up to a pressure of 3.0 kg/cm2.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: RCC pipes can be used up to a pressure of 3 kg/cm2. Cast Iron pipes and steel pipes
up to 24 kg/cm2.
14. Expand HDPE?

a) High Density Polyvinyl Pipe
b) High Density Polyethylene Pipe
c) High Deformed Polyvinyl Pipe
d) High Deformed Polyethene Pipe
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: HDPE stands for High Density Polyethylene Pipe. HDPE pipes of sizes ranging
from 300 to 3000 mm internal diameter are manufactured by a helical winding process.
15. _______ conduits are 1/10 weight of concrete.
a) PVC
b) GRP
c) RCC
d) CI
View Answer
Answer: b
1. __________ stress does not exceed the permissible tensile stress for the shell material.
a) Axial
b) Longitudinal
c) Hoop
d) Lateral
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Circumferential (hoop) stress does not exceed the permissible tensile stress (Pt) for
the shell material
fh<Pt
t = pd/2fh.
2. To determine hoop stress, efficiency of _________ is to be considered.

a) Construction joint
b) Transverse joint
c) Longitudinal joint
d) Rivet joint
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: To find hoop stress, the efficiency of longitudinal joints to be considered.
fh=pd/2t nl; Where
fh = hoop stress
p = internal pressure
t = thickness of metal
d = diameter
nl = efficiency of longitudinal joint.
3. Cast Iron pipes are being joined a _________

a) Flange joint
b) Expansion joint
c) Socket and spigot joint
d) Simplex joint
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Cast iron pipes are being joined socket and spigot joint. The enlarged end is called
socket while the normal end is called spigot. The spigot is fitted into the socket.
4. Bell joint is also known as ___________

a) Spigot joint
b) Expansion joint
c) Socket joint
d) Simplex joint
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Socket and spigot joint sometimes called bell and spigot joint. It is flexible and
allows the pipes to be laid on flat curves without use of specials.
5. Which of the following joint is a simplex joint?

a) Flanged joint
b) Socket and spigot joint
c) AC pipe joint
d) Expansion joint
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: AC pipes are joined by means of a special type of coupling called simplex joint
which consists of a pipe and two rubber rings.
6. The mortise and tenon are provided in __________ joint.

a) Concrete
b) Spigot
c) A C pipe
d) Flanged
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The concrete pipes are provided with mortise at one end and a suitable tenon each
other and the mortise and tenon are tightly set by placing concrete mortar.
7. ________ head should be higher than working head in a hydraulic test.

a) Pressure
b) Water
c) Working
d) Gauge
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In a hydraulic test, to detect leakage the lower end of pipe is plugged and filled with
water. The hydrostatic head should be higher then working head for 2 hours for ensuring
leakage.
8. Leakage should be nil or minimum by following equation Q = ___________ × ND (P)1/2.

a) 3/3300
b) 2/3300
c) 4/3300
d) 3/2200
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: To ensure nil leakage, the equation to be followed is Q = 2/3300 ND × (P) 1/2.
Q = allowable leakage (l/h)
N = number of joints
D = pipe diameter
P = total pressure applied.
9. _______ is used to magnify the sound for detecting leakage.

a) Aquagaurd
b) Otoscope
c) Sonoscope
d) Horoscope
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Leakages can be detected by the sounding rod method. In this method, sound can
be magnified by Sonoscope. The rod is pulled up and observed whether the point is dry or most
as it indicates leakage.
10. Which of the following is not a leakage detection method?

a) Direct observation
b) By plotting HGL
c) Pipe corrosion
d) Sounding rod
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The term pipe corrosion is used to indicate the loss of pipe material due to the
action of water. The metal chiefly concerned with corrosion of iron and steel, of which mains
and distribution pipes are usually composed.
11. Which of the following is not a cause of corrosion?

a) The cathodic reaction
b) Depolarization
c) Reaction of metal ions
d) Proper pipe material
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: It is one of the steps in the prevention of corrosion, the pipe material if metallic
should be able to resist that dissolve effect of water.
12. A pipe sunk into the ground to draw the underground water is known as ___________
a) An open well
b) A tube well
c) An artesian well
d) An infiltration well
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Tube wells are the wells made by drilling holes in to the ground encased with pipes
and strainers. The diameter varies between 0.15 to 0.6 m.
13. Which of the following well is also known as flowing well?

a) Gravity well
b) Artesian well
c) Drilled wells
d) Driven wells
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Artesian Wells derives water from confined aquifers under pressure. As a result,
ground water flows from the well such a well is known as flowing well.
14. The water bearing strata is known as _________

a) An aquifer
b) An aquiclude
c) An aquifuge
d) An aquitard
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: An aquifer is defined as a saturated bed or geologic formation which yields water in
significant quantities Eg. Sand bed.
15. The difference in levels of water in a well before and after pumping is called ________
a) Cone of depression
b) Yield
c) Draw down
d) Water table
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: When water is pumped from a well, the water around the well under the action of
head caused due to difference in level of the original water table and lowered water table. This
head is known as draw down or depression head.
1. A cylindrical section having no joint is known as _____________

a) Seamless section
b) Efficient section
c) Rivet less section
d) Anchorage section
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A cylindrical section having no joint is known as a seamless section. Built up
section is not that strong as a seamless section of the same thickness.
2. Strength of joint = efficiency × __________

a) Strength of section
b) Depth of plate
c) Length of plate
d) Strength of plate
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The ratio of strength of joint to the strength of our plate is called the efficiency.
Strength of joint = efficiency × strength of plate.
3. The presence of calcium and magnesium chloride in water causes ___________

a) Hardness
b) Bad taste
c) Turbidity
d) Softening
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The characteristic of water that does not give lather easily with soap is called
hardness of water. It is of two types of temporary hardness and permanent hardness.
4. The calcium carbonate in water is _____________

a) Causes bad taste
b) Increases hardness of water
c) Causes turbidity
d) Softens water
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Calcium carbonate in the water indicates temporary hardness, it can be removed
either by boiling or by adding lime to the water.
5. Red colour in water denotes?

a) Mn
b) Fe
c) Nacl
d) Ca
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The presence of iron in the water gives red colour and the brown colour in water
denotes the presence of manganese. According to the standards of water, manganese and iron
should not be more than 0.3 ppm.
6. The water of the river has an important property known as __________

a) Turbidity
b) Permeability
c) Infiltration capacity
d) Self purification
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The flow of water in a river has an important aspect of cleaning. In the river, there
is the number of layers of fine and coarse aggregates that periodically filter the water and hence
the water of a river has an important property of self purification.
7. The type of joint provided to release thermal stresses is called _______

a) Socket and spigot joint
b) Expansion joint
c) Flash joint
d) Simplex joint
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Expansion joints are provided at suitable intervals in the pipelines, so as to resist
the thermal stresses produced due to temperature variations.
8. In __________ pipes, the discharging capacity reduces as the life period increases.
a) Galvanised Iron
b) Cast Iron
c) PVC
d) Steel
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Galvanised Iron pipes are heavy and uneconomical. The discharging capacity
reduces as life period increases. They are likely to break during transportation and placing.
9. Isolated __________ decrease stability in the ecosystem.

a) Food web
b) Food chain
c) Food pyramid
d) Food numbers
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Food chain is a sequence of eating and being eaten in an ecosystem. It involves a
single linear pathway. The isolated food chains decrease the stability of an ecosystem.
10. The presence of hydrogen sulphide in water causes ________

a) Bad taste
b) Acidity
c) Basicity
d) Softening
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The acidity of water is a measure of its capacity to neutralize bases. Acidity is
nothing but a representation of carbon dioxide or carbonic acid. The presence of hydrogen
sulphide indicates acidic nature in the water, it should be in a nominal amount.
11. The turbidity in water is expressed in terms of ________

a) pH value
b) Silica scale
c) Ppm
d) Platinum cobalt scale
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Turbidity is an indication of the apparent colour of Water on account of suspended
inorganic matter such as silt, clay and mud particles. The turbidity is expressed in silica scale.
12. NTU is measurement unit of _______

a) Turbidity
b) Chlorines
c) Hardness
d) Colour
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Water is turbid when it contains visible material in suspension such as clay, silt,
finely divided organic matter and other microscopic matter. NTU stands for nephelometric
turbidity unit.
13. Taste and odour are expressed in terms of ______

a) GTU
b) Threshold numbers
c) Silica scale
d) Ppm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Threshold odour number is the dilution ratio at which the odour is just detectable.
The odour can be estimated by osmoscope whereas colour can be estimated by calibration
method.
14. The water is considered soft when the ppm is between _______
a) 0 – 50
b) 50 – 100
c) 100 – 150
d) Over 250
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The water is considered soft when the ppm is between 0 – 50.
Hardness Scale(ppm) Nature of water
0-50 Soft
50-100 Moderately soft
100-150 Slightly hard
150-200 Moderately hard
15. Expand MPN?

a) Maximum proximity number
b) Most probable number
c) Membrane plate notation
d) Maximum probable notation
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Most probable number is a number which represents the bacterial density which is
most likely to be present. It is one of the methods to estimate the bacterial quantity of water.
1. _______ is as the maximum energy that can be absorbed within the proportionality limit.
a) Proof resilience
b) Modulus of resilience
c) Impact resilience
d) Resilience
View Answer
2. The compressive strength of brittle materials is _________ its tensile strength.

a) Equal to
b) Less than
c) Greater than
d) As same as
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The compressive strength of brittle materials is greater than its tensile strength. The
tensile strength of ductile material is greater than its compressive strength.
3. The tensile test is carried on ________ material.

a) Ductile
b) Brittle
c) Malleable
d) Plastic
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The tensile stress is carried on the tensile materials. In the same way, the
compression test is carried on brittle materials.
4. The breaking stress is ____________ the ultimate stress.

a) Equal to
b) Less than
c) Greater than
d) As same as
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The stress developed in a material without any permanent stress is called elastic
limit and the breaking stress is always less than the ultimate stress.
5. The ductility of a material is __________ to the increase in percentage reduction in an area.

a) inversely proportional
b) directly proportional
c) equal
d) uniform
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The ductility of material increases with the increase in percentage reduction in area
of a specimen under tensile stress.
6. The odour of water can be determined by _________

a) Jackson turbidometer
b) Osmoscope
c) Thermometer
d) Sonoscope
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The main causes of odour in water are algae, sewage and dissolved gases. Taste and
odour can also be expressed in terms of odour density. Odour can be estimated by osmoscope.
7. The colour of water is expressed in terms of ________

a) pH value
b) Silica scale
c) Platinum cobalt scale
d) Ppm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Colour is caused by the presence of colloidal substance is aquatic growth etc. in
water should be distinguished from turbidity which is termed as apparent colour. The colour is
expressed in Platinum Cobalt scale. Colour may be removed by coagulation and adsorption
method.
8. High turbidity of water can be determined by __________

a) Hellipe turbidometer
b) Baylis turbidometer
c) Jackson’s turbidometer
d) Turbidity rod
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The turbidity of potable water should be within 10 PPM or with in 10 units on the
silica scale. High turbidity of water can be determined by Jackson turbidity metre and low
turbidity of water can be determined by baylis turbidity metre.
9. The maximum permissible total solid content in water for domestic purposes should not
exceed.
a) 350 ppm
b) 600 ppm
c) 500 ppm
d) 1000 ppm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Analytically, the total solids content of water is defined as all the matter that
remains as residue upon evaporation. The standards for drinking water is acceptable limit is 500
ppm.
10. Membrane filter technique is used for testing?

a) Copper
b) E -coli
c) Bacteria
d) Boron
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Membrane filter technique is considered as superior method. In this procedure,
unknown volume of water sample is filtered through a membrane with opening less than 0.5
microns.
11. E – coli was formerly known as _________

a) F. Coli
b) B. Coli
c) G. Coli
d) R. Coli
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The pathogenic bacteria are generally inherent in the qualifying group of Bacteria
of which the bacillus coli (B. Coli) now called as Escherichia coli (E.Coli ) is prominent.
12. ______ sample collected at an instant particularly.

a) Composite
b) Grab
c) Integrated
d) Differential
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: To determine the character of the sample, at that particular instant is known as grab
sample. The frequency of grab sampling depends upon the magnitude of fluctuation in the
quality of source.
13. Which of the following samples is also known as catch sample?

a) Integrated
b) Composite
c) Grab
d) Scratch
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In sampling, catch sample collected from the sampling spot at any instant. It is also
known as grabbing sample. It is influenced by the nature of tests are to be conducted.
14. If fluoride concentration in drinking water increases to more than ______ ppm, it causes
fluorosis.
a) 2.5
b) 2
c) 1.5
d) 3
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: When the concentration of fluoride increases to more than 1.5 ppm, a disfigurement
involving staining of teeth known as mottled tooth enamel is caused. This disease is also termed
as fluorosis.
15. What is the desirable limit for sulphates in drinking water?

a) 180 ng/L
b) 230 mg/L
c) 150 mg/L
d) 340 mg/L
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Sulphates ion is one of the major ions occurring in natural waters. In drinking
water, sulphate causes a laxative effect and leads to scale formation in boilers. The desirable
limit in drinking water is 150 mg /L
1. __________ is a framed structure composed of members.

a) Purlin
b) Gussets
c) Ridge tops
d) Truss
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A truss is defined as a framed structure composed of members connected to each
other at their ends and forming triangles which lie in the same plane.
2. Trusses are subjected to ___________ stress.

a) Compressive
b) Tensile
c) Direct
d) Lateral
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Trusses are the members which are subjected to direct stress, as the truss is usually
loaded at the point of intersection of its member only.
3. Trusses are adopted for ___________ span.

a) Medium
b) Short
c) Very large
d) Large
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Trusses are useful at the places of high rainfall to avoid roof drainage problems. For
very large span the use of beams will make the construction most uneconomical.
4. The top line of roof truss is called as ___________

a) Eves
b) Main tie
c) Pitch
d) Ridge line
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The top line of the roof truss is called “ridge line”. The bottom edge of roof surface
is called a ridge line. Corrugated galvanised iron (GI) or asbestos cement (AC) sheets are
commonly used for roof covering.
5. If the members connected don’t lie in the same plane, then structures are called __________
a) Space truss
b) Plane truss
c) Main truss
d) Foot truss
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: If all the members connected at the ends do not lie in the same plane then the
structure (truss) is called as space truss. If the members lie in the same plane, then the structure is
called plane truss.
6. King post trusses are used for spans ______

a) 5 to 8 m
b) 6 to 9 m
c) 4 to 6 m
d) 6 to 8 m
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Generally trusses are used when the span is large and intermediate supports for
purlins and ties are unavailable. A king post truss is used for spans of 6 to 9 m.
7. ________ shape of the frame offers great rigidity.

a) Trapezoidal
b) Triangular
c) Rectangular
d) Square
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The framework of the truss should be built in a way that, it does not change its
shape when loaded. The triangular shape of frame offers great rigidity and hence it is generally
adopted.
8. Which of the following roof are used on small sheds and veranda opening?
a) Couple roof
b) Collar roof
c) Pent roof
d) Purlin roof
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Pent roof is one of the simplest forms of pitched roofs. The sort of sloping roof
consists of common rafters which are generally inclined at 30°. It is suitable for span up to 2.5 m.
It is widely used on small sheds and veranda openings.
9. The joints in king post are of ________

a) Butt
b) Welded
c) Mortice and tenon
d) Lap
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The joint between the principal rafter and the king post is made by making tenon in
the principal rafter and a corresponding mortice into the head of the king post. The joint is
further strengthened by an iron stirrup.
10. About ____________ % volume of concrete is occupied by aggregates.
a) 60%
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 30%
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Around 75% volume of concrete is occupied by aggregates. Hence the structural
behaviour of concrete is significantly influenced by the type of aggregates used. The aggregate
used for the concrete should be durable, strong, hard and well graded.
11. Which of the following cement is used for marine structures?

a) Rapid hardening cement
b) Hydrophobic cement
c) High Alumina cement
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: High Alumina cement is used for marine structures.
Type of cement Usage
Rapid hardening cement Road works and repairs
Hydrophobic cement Swimming pools and food processing plants
High Alumina cement Marine structures
12. IS: 455 is associated with ____________

a) Portland slag cement
b) Ordinary Portland cement
c) High alumina cement
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: IS: 455 is associated with Portland slag cement.
Type of cement IS Code
Portland slag cement IS 455
Ordinary Portland cement IS 269
High alumina cement IS 6452
13. Which of the following is used as retarding admixture?

a) Calcium chloride
b) Fluosilicates
c) Treitanlamine
d) Starch
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Retarding admixtures are added to slow down the rate of setting of cement. They
are useful in hot weather concreting. The common types of retarders are cellulose products, sugar
starch etc.
14. Polyhydroxy compounds are ________

b) Retarding admixtures
c) Water reducing admixtures
d) Air entraining admixtures
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Polyhydroxy compounds are Water reducing admixtures.
Type of admixture Materials
Accelerating Calcium chloride, fluosilicates
Water reducing Lignosulphonate,polyhydroxyl
Retarding Sugar, hydroxyl-carboxylic acid
15. Plasticizing admixture means __________

b) Water reducing admixtures
c) Air in training admixtures
d) Superplasticizers
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In water reducing admixtures, the addition of plasticizer allows greater workability
for given water cement ratio or alternatively retains workability while reducing the water
content. They are also called as plasticizing admixtures.
1. The economical spacing of roof trusses works out to be _________ span.

a) 1/2 to 1/5 span
b) 1/3 to 1/5 span
c) 1/2 to 1/3 span
d) 1/4 to 1/6 span
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The economical spacing of roof trusses works out to be 1/3 to 1/5 of the span. A
structure that is composed of a number of line numbers connected at the ends to form a
triangulated framework is called a truss.
2. The top chord members of roof truss is called ___________
a) Common rafters
c) Main tie
d) Pitch
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The top chord members of roof truss are called principal rafters. They support the
roof covering through purlins. They are mainly compression members.
3. The bottom chord member of truss is known as ___________

a) Main tie
c) Common rafters
d) Purlins
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The bottom chord member of the truss is known as the main tie. It is usually in
tension and takes compression if reversal of loads occurs due to wind load intensity.
4. _______ is a roof beam supported by roof truss.

a) Ridge line
b) Eve
c) Principal rafter
d) Purlins
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Purlin is a roof beam supported by roof truss. The purlin is designed as a beam
subjected to bending moment about to axes. The various loads used in design of purlins are:
i. Dead load
ii. Imposed load
iii. Wind load.
5. The ratio of rise to span of truss is called a ___________

a) Slope
b) Splay
c) Pitch
d) Tie
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Pitch of roof truss is defined as the ratio of rise to the span of a truss. It should be
1/6 for G I sheets, 1/12 for AC sheets and ¼ when snow load occurs besides wind load.
6. The angle of repose is zero for ______________
a) Water
b) Masonry
c) Soil
d) Cement
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Angle of repose is defined as the maximum natural slope at which the soil particles
will rest due to internal friction if left unsupported for long time. Angle of repose of soil depends
on its nature and moisture content. For water, the angle of repose is zero.
7. Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) of safe drinking water must be ________

a) 10
b) 15
c) 5
d) 0
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The water should be free from BOD to ensure it as fit for drinking. According to
standards of potable water, free ammonia should not be more than 0.15 ppm and nitrites should
not be more than 20 ppm.
8. The most common coagulant is _____________

a) Magnesium sulphate
b) Alum
c) Chlorine
d) Salt
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The substance which is used for coagulation is known as a coagulant. Alum has
proved to be an effective covalent and it is widely used the coagulant is effective between pH
range of 6.5 to 8.5.
9. The process of forming thick gelatinous precipitates is known as ___________

a) Sedimentation
b) Flocculation
c) Coagulation
d) Filtration
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When coagulants are dissolved in water, they produce thick gelatinous precipitates.
This precipitate is known as floc and the process is known as flocculation. The floc is heavy and
hence it starts to settle down at the bottom of the tank.
10. What is the desirable limit of calcium in drinking water?

a) 45 mg/l
b) 60 mg/l
c) 75 mg/l
d) 90 mg/l
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: According to Indian standards
Parameter Desirable limit (ppm)
Nitrates 45
Calcium 75
Magnesium < 30
11. Oxidation is done in __________ method.

a) Sedimentation
b) Filtration
c) Coagulation
d) Aeration
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Aeration is a method by which water is brought in close contact air so as to absorb
oxygen for the reduction of taste, odour etc. by virtue of oxidation.
12. Which of the following is a method of aeration?

a) Mechanical straining
b) Cascades
c) Biological metabolism
d) Electrolytic changes
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Usage of the cascade is a method of aeration, in which the water is allowed to fall
over a series of concrete steps. During the fall, the water gets thoroughly mixed with the
atmospheric air and gets aerated.
13. Which of the following is not a method of chlorination?

a) As bleaching powder
b) As free chlorine gas
c) As chloramines
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Use of chloramine is a method of disinfection. It is found that chlorine alone is not
stable in water but when it is mixed in water with ammonia, it forms compounds known as
chloramines. These are very effective in killing bacteria.
14. Bulk modulus is denoted by __________

a) A
b) E
c) K
d) V
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The ratio of direct stress to corresponding volumetric strain is found to be constant
which is called as bulk modulus
Bulk modulus = Direct stress/Volumetric strain.
• It is denoted by “k”.
15. The stress corresponding to 0.2% of strain in the stress-strain curve is _________
a) Proof stress
b) Working stress
c) Direct stress
d) Tenacity
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The stress corresponding to 0.2% of strain in the stress-strain curve of mild steel is
known as proof stress and this also taken as yield stress. The maximum stress is generally taken
as yield stress.
1. Column is a tension member.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Compression members are the structural elements that are pushed together or
carrying a load; more technically they are subjected to axial compressive forces. Example:
Column, strut etc.
2. __________ is a vertical member subjected to direct compressive force.

a) Strut
b) Beam
c) Column
d) Post
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A vertical member subjected to direct compressive forces is called a column or
pillar. The column transfers the load from the beams or slab to the footings and foundations.
3. The inclined member carrying compressive loads is __________

a) Post
b) Stanchion
c) Strut
d) Column
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The inclined member carrying compressive load in case of frames and trusses is
called as a strut. A strut is a member of a structure in any position carrying an axial load. Strut
4. A built up rolled steel section carrying compressive force is called ___________

a) Post
b) Pillar
c) Strut
d) Stanchion
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A built up rolled Steel section carrying compressive force is known as “stanchion”.
A wood member carrying compressive force is called a “post”.
5. The process of removing chlorine from water is known as ____________

a) De chlorination
b) Re chlorination
c) Post chlorination
d) Pre chlorination
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: De chlorination means removing the chlorine from the water this is generally
required when super chlorination has been practiced.
6. The organic impurities in the water from a layer on the top of a filtering media are called
_______
a) Filter layer
b) Permeable layer
c) Impermeable layer
d) Dirty skin
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The water from the sedimentation tank is allowed to enter over a bed of sand
through the inlet chamber. The water percolates through sand bed during the dry skin is formed.
The organic and bacterial impurities are removed by this layer.
7. The rate of filtration in slow sand filter is ___________

a) 100 to 150 lit/hr/m2
b) 150 to 200 lit/hr/m2
c) 250 to 350 lit/hr/m2
d) 100 to 200 lit/hr/m2
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The slow sand filter is effective in bacterial removal and it is preferable for uniform
quality of treated water. It is simple to construct and supervise. The rate of filtration is small and
ranges from 100 to 200 lit/hr/m2.
8. The sand used for filtration should not lose weight more than ________ when placed in Hcl
for 24 hours.
a) 5 %
b) 10 %
c) 15 %
d) 20 %
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: According to the board of Indian Standards [BIS], the sand which is used for
filtration process should not lose weight more than 5% when placed in hydrochloric acid for one
day (24 hours).
9. Cleaning period of slow sand filter is taken as __________

a) 1 to 3 weeks
b) 1 to 3 days
c) 1 to 3 months
d) 1 to 2 hours
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: For the purpose of cleaning the top layer of sand is removed to a depth of 15 mm to
25 mm. The water is admitted to the filter the cleaning interval varies from 1 to 3 months.
10. The efficiency of slow sand filter is about ___________
a) 99 %
b) 95 %
c) 85 %
d) 90 %
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The slow sand filters remove suspended and bacterial impurities to an extent of 98
to 99%. It requires a large area and unsuitable for treating high turbid water.
11. What is the uniformity coefficient of sand used in the rapid sand filter?
a) 1.5
b) 1.35
c) 1.75
d) 1.6
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The effective size of sand used in rapid sand filter is 1.5 mm and the uniformity
Coefficient varies from 1.25 to 1.35.
12. The dosage of ozone is about ________ ppm residual ozone.

a) 2 to 3 ppm
b) 2 to 4 ppm
c) 1 to 5 ppm
d) Zero
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Ozone easily breaks down with oxygen and releases nascent oxygen which is
powerful in killing bacteria. It also reduces organic matter present in the water the dosage of
ozone is about 2 to 3 ppm.
13. Which of the following process is also known as Ion exchange process?
a) Lime soda process
c) Demineralization process
d) Cation exchange process
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Softening of water can be done by the demineralization process which is also
known as deionized water. In, each method minerals are removed my pass in the water through a
bed of cation exchange resin.
14. Aeration is effective in removing of _________ odours.
a) 60 %
b) 75 %
c) 30 %
d) 40
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Aeration is effective in removing 75% of odours. This process also removes carbon
dioxide to a great extent. Aeration is affected by filtering it through perforated trays through
different methods.
15. Which of the following is a control measure of removal of colour, taste and order?
a) Ozone treatment
b) Silver treatment
c) Copper sulphate treatment
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Copper sulphate also helps in the removal of colour taste and odour it prevents the
growth of algae and also acts as disinfectant. It is used for swimming pool water to give play
then colour.
1. _____________ of column mainly depends upon end conditions.

a) Radius of gyration
b) Slenderness ratio
c) Factored load
d) Effective length
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The effective length of a column with given end conditions is a length of an
equivalent column of the same material and cross section with hinged ends. The effective length
of the column mainly depends upon end conditions.
2. The hinged end is also known as ___________

a) Fixed end
b) Pinned end
c) Rigid end
d) Free end
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In hinged end case, the end is fixed in position only (but the direction is free). The
deflection in the case of this end is zero. (y = 0). It is also known as “Pinned end”.
3. Long columns fail due to ____________
a) Direct stress
b) Buckling stress
c) Lateral stress
d) Tensile stress
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In long columns, direct stress is very small compared to the bending stresses. The
long column commonly fails because of bending stress.
4. In short columns, the slenderness ratio is less than __________

a) 32
b) 64
c) 56
d) 28
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The short column fails primarily due to direct stress. In short columns, the buckling
stresses are very small compared to direct stresses. The short column is a column whose
slenderness ratio is less than 32.
5. For ___________ columns, the slenderness ratio is more than 32 and less than 120.
a) Long
b) Short
c) Average
d) Medium
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Medium column is a column which fails either due to direct stress or buckling
stress. For medium columns, the slenderness ratio is more than 32 and less than 120. For medium
columns, the length is more than 8 times but less than 30 times their least lateral dimension.
6. Radius of gyration is denoted by __________

a) k
b) g
c) y
d) s
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The ratio of square root of the moment of inertia (I) to the cross sectional area(A) is
called “radius of gyration”. It is denoted by “k” or “r”.
K = (I/A)1/2.
7. The __________ is the distance between Centres to centre of effective lateral ends.
a) Mean length
b) Stripped length
c) True length
d) Actual length
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The actual length of a column is defined as the distance between the centre to
centre of effective lateral restraints (L).
8. The slenderness ratio is the ratio of effective length to least ______________

a) Ultimate load
b) Actual length
d) Factor of safety
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The ratio of effective length to the least radius of gyration (k) is called the
slenderness ratio. For good design purpose, the slenderness ratio should be as small as possible
to an extent.
9. Which of the following is also known as the working load?

a) Safe load
b) Crippling load
c) Ultimate load
d) Buckling load
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A column and Strut can never be subjected to critical load and the column is
subjected to less than a critical load. This load is phenomenally known as safe load or working
load.
10. Factor of safety is a ratio of crippling load to __________ load.

a) Critical load
b) Buckling load
c) Safe load
d) Ultimate load
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The ratio of crippling load to the safe load of a column is called a factor of safety.
Factor of safety = Crippling load/Safe load
• The safe load is obtained by dividing the critical load by a number (called factor of safety).
11. At ___________ load, the column is said to have developed an elastic instability.
a) Safe
b) Working
c) Factored
d) Crippling
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The load at which the column just buckles is called crippling load. The column is
said to have developed an elastic instability, at this load. The buckling of a column takes place
along least radius of gyration or least moment of inertia.
12. The value of _________ is relatively high for short columns.

a) Safe load
b) Factored load
c) Working load
d) Buckling load
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The load at which the column just bents or buckles is called buckling load or
critical load or crippling load. The value of buckling load is low for long columns and relatively
high for short columns.
13. The slenderness ratio is ________ to critical stress.

c) Equal
d) Transverse
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As the slenderness ratio increases, the permissible stress or critical stress reduces.
Consequently, the load carrying capacity also reduces. In this way, the slenderness ratio behaves
inversely proportional to the critical stress induced.
14. For a given material length, end conditions and equal area the shape of the column which is
most efficient as per Euler’s is _________
a) Square
b) Circular
c) I section
d) Tubular
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: As the radius of gyration will be least along the major axis of cross section. For
example rectangular column along y-axis; for a given area, the tubular section will have a
maximum radius of gyration. It is more efficient than any other section.
15. What is the rankines constant for cast iron?

a) 1/2000
b) 1/2400
c) 1/ 1600
d) 1/ 1800
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Rankines constant for cast iron is 1/ 1600.
1. Long axially loaded columns tends to deflect about ___________

b) Effective length
c) Core
d) Safe loading
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A long axially loaded column tends to deflect about the axis of least moment of
inertia the least radius of gyration and it should be used for determining the slenderness ratio.
2. What is the effective length of a column at both ends fixed?

a) l/3
b) l
c) l/2
d) 2×l
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The effective length of a column at both ends fixed is L =l/2.
Both ends hinged L=l
Both ends fixed L =l/2
3. Which of the following is the method of removing the temporary hardness of water?
a) Lime soda method
c) Boiling
d) Chlorination
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: When the water is boiled up to a temperature of 80 degree, most of the bacteria will
be killed and bicarbonates of calcium and magnesium are also eliminated.
4. The application of chlorine beyond the stage of break point is _________

a) Double chlorination
b) Post pollination
c) Super chlorination
d) Breakpoint chlorination
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Super chlorination is a term which indicates the addition of an excessive amount of
chlorine that is 5 to 15 mg / l to the water that is the application of chlorine beyond the stage of
break point.
5. Which of the following methods of disinfection is usually adopted in swimming pools?

a) Excess lime treatment
b) Iodine – Bromine method
c) Pottasium permanganate method
d) Ultraviolet rays method
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Ultraviolet rays are highly disinfectants and kill the bacteria. The rays penetrate in
water and kill the bacteria. This process is very costly and requires technical skill and costly
equipment. This method is adapted generally in swimming pools.
6. Hardness due to calcium bi carbonate can be removed by ___________

a) Boiling
b) Excessive lime
c) Zeolite
d) Soda treatment
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Lime is generally used as a water purification material the excess lime treatment of
water about 99.9% to 100%. The lime excess line l is the pH value of water making extremely
alkaline.
7. __________ is used for spans ranging from 9 m to 15 m.

a) King post truss
b) Queen post truss
c) Coral truss
d) Roof truss
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Queen post truss is used for spans 9 m to 15 m. It consists of principal rafters,
common rafters, purlins. The queen posts are connected with the help of a straining beam.
8. __________ is provided to prevent the movement of the post due to loads in Queen post truss.
a) Purlin
b) Eaves board
c) Straining beam
d) Ridge beam
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The queen posts are connected with the aid of straining been of the upper ends and
by a straining sill at the lower end to prevent the movement of post due to loads. In this truss, the
straining beam acts as a compression member. Whereas the queen post act as a tension member.
9. ___________ is a combination of king post truss and queen post truss.

a) Steel slope truss
b) Pratt truss
c) Mansard roof truss
d) Fan truss
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Mansard truss is a combination of king post truss and queen post truss. This truss is
used to obtain the maximum space for living purposes. The general height of the roof is
comparatively kept low.
10. In mansard truss, the upper slope is _________

a) 45°
b) 30°
c) 60°
d) 90°
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The mansard has two different slopes, the lower slope should not be steeper than
75° and upper slope not greater than 30 degrees. The construction of the various joints is similar
to the king post and queen post trusses.
11. _______ trusses are generally adopted for greater fans.

a) Timber
b) Cast Iron
c) Steel
d) AC
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The Steel trusses are adopted for greater spans as the timber trusses become heavy
and uneconomical. Steel trusses are much stronger than timber trusses and are more fire resisting
and durable. They cannot be attacked by white ants.
12. Steel trusses are generally constructed with __________

a) Mild steel
b) HYSD steel
c) TMT steel
d) JSW steel
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Generally, most of the Steel trusses are fabricated and constructed with mild steel.
They consist of angles because the angle sections can effectively resist both compressive and
tensile stresses.
13. __________ consists generally of single or double angles.

a) Strut
b) Column
c) Pillar
d) Stanchion
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Angles can be manufactured economically instead of T sections for rafters. Strut
consists of generally single or double angles, one or two angles back to back can be used as a tie
beam.
14. A queen closer is placed after ______ in the heading course.

a) Quoin header
b) Brick bat
c) Header
d) Stretcher
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The length of queen closer is usually kept equal to thickness of the wall. A queen
closer is placed after every quoin header in a heading course, when the thickness of wall is 200
mm or above.
15. The size of frog in bricks is ___________

a) 10×4×4 cm
b) 10×9×4 cm
c) 10×4×1 cm
d) 9×9×4 cm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The depression provided on the size of brick during its manufacture is called the
frog. According to BIS, the size of the frog in brick is 10×4×1 cm. Frog reduces the weight of a
brick, to lay conveniently.
1. Eccentrically loaded columns have to be designed for combined axial and ________
a) Shear force
b) Bending moments
c) Torsion
d) Creep
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When the line of action of the resultant force doesn’t coincide with the axis of
centre of gravity then it is called eccentrically loaded column. An eccentrically loaded column
has to be designed for combined axial force and bending moments.
2. What is the recommended value of effective length if the column is effectively held in position
and fixed against rotation in both ends?
a) 0.8 l
b) 0.5 l
c) 0.65 l
d) 0.9 l
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Effectively held in position and fixed against rotation in both ends is 0.65 l.
Value of effective
End Positions Of a Column
length
Effectively held in position and fixed against rotation in both ends 0.65 × l
Effectively held in position at both ends but not restrained against
1.00 × l
rotation
3. What is the minimum value of eccentricity provided in columns?

a) 50 mm
b) 20 mm
c) 30 mm
d) 45 mm
View Answer
Answer: c
to imperfection of construction or due to actual conditions of loading. Hence IS 456 -2000,
recommend eccentricity of 20 mm.
4. The strength of the column with helical reinforcement shall be ____ times the strength of
similar column with lateral ties.
a) 2.0
b) 1.05
c) 3
d) 1.5
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The strength of column with helical reinforcement Shall be 1.05 times the strength
of similar column with lateral ties, provided the ratio of the volume of helical reinforcement to
the volume of the core shall not be less than 0.36(Ag/Ak – 1) fck/fy.
5. The minimum diameter provided for the longitudinal bars is ________

a) 15 mm
b) 20 mm
c) 12 mm
d) 18 mm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The minimum diameter of the longitudinal bars provided in the column is 12 mm
and the spacing of longitudinal bars measured along the periphery of the column shall not exceed
300 mm.
6. What is the minimum number of longitudinal bars provided in the rectangular column?
a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 8
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: According to IS 456-2000, clause 26.5.3, the minimum number of longitudinal bars
to be provided is 4 for rectangular columns and the minimum number of longitudinal bars to be
provided for circular columns is 6.
7. The ends of ________ shall be properly anchored.

b) Transverse reinforcement
d) Shear reinforcement
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The effective lateral support is given by transverse reinforcement either in the form
of circular rings or by lateral ties. The ends of transverse reinforcement shall be properly
anchored.
8. For longitudinal reinforcing bar, the nominal cover should not be less than ___________
a) 30 mm
b) 20 mm
c) 40 mm
d) 50 mm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: According to IS 456-2000, clause 26.4.2.1, the nominal cover for longitudinal
reinforcing bars in any case shall not be less than 40 mm or less than the diameter of such bar.
9. Which of the following reservoirs is also known as ___________

a) Ground service reservoirs
b) Elevated reservoirs
c) Over head reservoirs
d) Storey reservoirs
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Ground service reservoirs are constructed at ground level and mainly used to store
water. They are generally constructed with masonry (or) RCC slab. These are also known as
surface reservoirs or not elevated reservoirs.
10. A system in which water is supplied only for fixed few hours, such system is called ____
a) Closed
b) Intermittent
c) Combined
d) Lift
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In the intermittent system, the water is supplied only for a few hours the system is
adopted when adequate water from the source is not available. The system is widely adopted by
much local water authority it is functioned through phases.
11. In ___________ system, air relief valves are not required.

a) Gravity
b) Intermittent
c) Continuous
d) Grid
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In the continuous system, the supply of water is 24 hours a day. This is the most
ideal system and is adopted when plenty of water is available. As the water doesn’t get
contaminated and circulating at uniform pressure, air relief valves are not required essentially.
12. Which of the following is one of the layouts of distribution systems?

a) Dual system
b) Gravity system
c) Grid Iron system
d) Pressure system
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In grid iron systems, there are no dead ends hence stagnation of water and its
consequences are eliminated. The water is kept in good circulation due to the absence of dead
ends. The system is suitable for well planned towns.
13. Which of the following system is also known as an interlaced system?

a) Tree system
b) Grid iron system
c) Circle system
d) Radial system
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Grid iron system is an improvement over the tree system. In the system, the mains,
sub lines and branches are interconnected with each other. This system is also known as
interlaced or reticulation system.
14. Which of the following is also known as a ring system?

a) Circle
b) Reticulation
c) Radial
d) Interlaced
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In a circle system, the entire locality is divided into either rectangular (or) circular
blocks. The water mains are laid along the peripheral roads with sub mains branching out from
mains. This system is also known as ring system.
15. Varignon’s theorem is called as _________

a) Principle of Forces
b) Principle of moments
c) Principle of points
d) Theory of couple
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Varignon’s theorem states that “the moment of a force about any point is equal to
the sum of moments of the components about the same point”. This principle is also known as
the principle of moments.
R.r = P.p + Q.c
Where P, Q are forces and R is resultant.
“c” is the perpendicular distance of Q
1. ___________ formula can be used only for long columns.

a) Euler’s
b) Rankine’s
c) Swift’s
d) Johnson’s
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Euler’s formula is used only for long columns and l/k > 80 for mild steel columns.
Where l = effective length of column
k = radius of gyration.
2. In Euler’s formula, the column fails due to __________ alone.

a) Shear
b) Torsion
c) Tension
d) Bending
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In Euler’s formula, the column material is perfectly elastic, homogeneous, isotropic
and obeys Hooke’s law. The self weight of column is ignorable and column fails due to buckling
alone.
3. The __________ joints are friction less.

a) Free
b) Pin
c) Roller
d) Fixed
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A pinned joint offers resistance against horizontal and vertical movements but not
against rotation. The deflection developed is zero (y = 0) and fixed ends are rigid.
4. __________ formula is used for determining short as well as long columns.
a) Gilbert’s
b) Rankine’s
c) Johnson’s
d) Euler’s
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The Rankine’s formula for crushing load = Pcr = fA/1+€(l/k) 2
Where; f = allowable crushing stress
A = area of cross section
K = least radius of gyration
€ = Rankine’s constant
• Rankine formula can be used for short columns as well as long columns.
5. ________ attached to a Framework suspended from the main structure.

a) Cantering
b) Shuttering
c) Bracing
d) Ceiling
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A suspended ceiling attached to a framework suspended from the main structure. It
provides a void between the underside of the main structure and ceiling. General it is provided to
conceal the unevenness of roof.
6. _________ type of ceiling is adopted in modern hotels and auditorium.

a) Plaster board
b) Fibre board
c) Decorative
d) Joint less
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Plaster board ceiling is adopted because of its ease of fixing and elimination of
plaster mixer for the over head work. Plasterboard consists of gypsum plaster form in sheets 2.5
m × 0.75 m and compressed give strength.
7. Upper floor is also known as ________

a) Basement floor
b) Suspended floor
c) Supported floor
d) Rigid floor
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Any floor above the level of ground floor is termed as upper or suspended floor.
Floors are named as ascending order. The name of the building in respect of the storeys is
governed by the number of floors it possess.
8. Paving is also known as ___________

a) Floor covering
b) Sub floor
c) Sub grade
d) Wearing course
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The upper position of a floor structure consisting of base and topping is called floor
covering or paving. The purpose of floor covering is to have a clean, smooth, non absorbent and
durable surface.
9. _________ floors are used in modern residential and religious buildings?

a) Cement concrete
b) Terrazzo
c) Mosaic
d) Timber
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Terrazzo floors consist of the terrazzo finish at top. Generally it consists of wearing
layer of the terrazzo mixture about 6 mm thick laid on and under layer. It furnishes attractive and
durable floor.
10. Scaffolding has to be done, if the height of structure is above _________

a) 1.2
b) 1.4
c) 1.5
d) 1.8
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A temporary platform provided with necessary supports close to the work, provides
limited space for the workers, building materials, tools etc. is termed as scaffolding. It is
generally adopted for construction of masonry work above ground level 1.5 m.
11. ________ scaffolding is used where it is not possible to fix the standards into the ground.
a) Suspended
b) Cantilever
c) Steel
d) Brick layers
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Cantilever scaffolding consists of platform supported by a series of cantilever or
needle beams, passing through window openings or through holes left in the walls. They used it,
when it is not possible to fix the standards into the ground.
12. __________ scaffolding is used for light construction and finishing works.
a) Ladder
b) Brick layers
c) Mason’s
d) Suspended
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Suspended scaffolding is cheap type and does not cause any obstruction on the
ground. it is considered most effective as optimum level for working. It is used for finishing
works like painting, distempering and whitewashing etc.
13. The step with one or both ends rounded is known as _________
a) Point faced step
b) Soffit
c) Newel step
d) Bull nose step
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The step with one or both ends rounded is known as Bull nose step. This type of
step is generally provided at the bottom of a flight and remains always projecting beyond the
face of the new post.
14. A step of uniform width is called filier.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A step of uniform width is called filier. This type of step is usually rectangular in
plan. These steps are always preferred even at turning points of stair as they are safe for quick
movement of the users.
15. The step of non uniform width is called ________

a) Post
b) Winder
c) Filier
d) Landing
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The step of non uniform width is called as winder. These types of steps are usually
triangle in plan. Such steps are only provided for changing the direction of a stair.
1. Calculate the Euler’s crippling load, if the effective length of column is 10 m take flexural
rigidity as 6.14 × 1010 Nmm2.
a) 6 kN
b) 8 kN
c) 10 kN
d) 12 kN
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: To find P:
P = π2 × EI/L2
P = π2 × 6.14 ×1010 / 100002
P = 6.055 kN ~ 6 kN.
2. A fine grained material is mostly ________

a) Homogeneous
b) Isotropic
c) Isomeric
d) Elastic
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A material is said to be isotropic if at any point it has identical elastic properties in
all directions. A fine grained material is mostly isotropic in nature.
3. The tangential force per unit area is _________

a) Shear strain
b) Shear stress
c) Modulus of rigidity
d) Torsion
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The tangential force acting along the section of the body is termed as shear force
and the stress in the section due to shear force is called shear stress and it is denoted by fs.
4. Which of the following is also known as pushing force?

a) Tensile stress
c) Shear stress
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When an external force cause shortening of the body in the direction of the force it
is termed as compressive force. The stress developed in the body due to the compressive force is
called compressive stress.
5. Which of the following is also known as pulling force?

a) Tensile stress
b) Shear stress
c) Lateral stress
d) Axial stress
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When an external force produces elongation of the body in its direction, it is termed
as a tensile force. The stress developed in a cross section of the body due to a tensile force is
called tensile stress.
6. Longitudinal strain is also known as ___________

a) Direct strain
b) Axial strain
c) Indirect strain
d) Shear strain
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Direct strain is a measure of deformation produced by the application of the
external forces. It is the ratio of change in dimension to the original dimension. It is also known
as longitudinal strain.
7. Which of the following is also known as transverse strain?

a) Tensile strain
b) Compressive strain
c) Shear strain
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Shear Strain is a measure of the angle through which a body is this distorted with
applied forces. Shear Strain is also known as the transverse strain.
Shear strain = ds/L.
8. The hooks law is valid only for _________
a) Uni axial forces
b) Bi axial forces
c) Tri axial forces
d) Lateral forces
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Hooke’s law: (Given by Sir Robert Hooke in 1678): stress is directly proportional
to strain within limit of proportionality. It is valid for uniaxial force only.
9. Which of the following is also known as endurance limit?

a) Proportionality limit
b) Rupture limit
c) Elastic limit
d) Fatigue limit
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The greatest stress applied an infinite number of times that a material can take
without causing Failure is known as endurance or fatigue limit.
10. The ultimate strength in flexure is known as modulus of ________

a) Toughness
b) Rupture
c) Resilience
d) Hardening
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The ultimate strength in flexure or torsion is known as modulus of rupture and the
modulus of resilience is defined as the energy stored per unit volume at the elastic limit.
11. A material which ruptures with little or no plastic deformation is said to be ____________
a) Ductile material
b) Elastic material
c) Plastic material
d) Brittle material
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A material is said to be brittle, if it ruptures with little or no plastic deformation and
a material said to be ductile if it undergoes deformation without rupture.
12. The stress which is just sufficient to cause a permanent set is known as ___________
a) tenacity
b) ultimate stress
c) proof stress
d) working stress
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Proof stress is a stress which is just sufficient to cause a permanent set equal to a
specified percentage of the original gauge length. The stress corresponding to 0.2% of strain in
the stress strain curve of mild steel is also known as proof stress.
13. For engineering materials, the poison’s ratio lies in the range of ___________
a) 0 and 1
b) -1 and 1
c) -2 and 2
d) 0 and 1/2
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The ratio of lateral strain to the corresponding longitudinal or linear strain is called
poison’s ratio and it is denoted by 1 / m. The value of poison’s ratio for elastic materials usually
lies between 0.25 and 0.33 in no case the value doesn’t exceed 0.5.
14. For ductile materials, the factor of safety is the ratio of yield stress to ___________
a) tenacity
b) ultimate stress
c) working stress
d) shear stress
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Factor of safety,; for ductile materials, F.O.S = yield stress/Working stress
For brittle materials; F.O.S = ultimate stress / working stress.
15. A material having three mutually perpendicular planes of elastic symmetry is said to be
_________
a) Isotropic
b) Autotrophic
c) Orthotropic
d) Anisotropic
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: If the material has three mutually perpendicular planes of elastic symmetry, then
the material is said to be orthotropic material. The number of an independent constant is 9 in this
case.
1. Calculate the elongation of the cable due to load, if a steel cable of 2 cm diameter is used to
lift a load of 500 π kg. Given that and the length of cable is 10 m and E = 2×10 6 kg/cm2.
a) 0.5 cm
b) 0.3 cm
c) 0.25 cm
d) 0.4 cm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Change in length = Pl/AE = (500π)×(1000) / π × 2 × 106
Change in length = 0.25 cm.
2. A HYSD steel bar is 400 mm long. The lengths of the parts AB and BC of the bar is 200 mm
each. It is loaded as P1 = 2000 kg and P2 = 1000 kg. Take diameter of AB as 2 cm and BC as 1
cm. The ratio of stresses in part AB to stresses in part BC is __________
a) 0.2
b) 0.75
c) 0.5
d) 1.5
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The stress in AB = Pa/Aa = 2000/π/4 ×4 = the stress in BC = Pb/Ab = 1000/π/4 × 1
Pa/Pb = 2000/4 × 1000
= 0.5.
3. A retaining wall is related to _______

a) Plane stress
b) Plane strain
c) Normal stress
d) Normal strain
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In a plane strain problem, the normal strain in the Z-direction. The shear strains
must be zero. The normal strains may have non zero values. A retaining wall is the best example
for plane strain problem.
4. _________ is a fix direction on the surface.

a) Bearing
b) Meridian
c) Graduated ring
d) Lift lever
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Meridian is defined as a fix direction on the surface of the earth. The bearings of
the survey lines are measured with reference to the meridians.
5. Which of the following is also known as geographical meridian?

a) True meridian
b) Arbitrary meridian
c) Magnetic meridian
d) Post meridian
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: True meridian is a line or plane passing through the true North Pole and South Pole,
any point on the surface of the earth. It is also known as a geographical meridian. The direction
of it through a point can be set by astronomical observations.
6. _________ changes with place and time.

a) Bearing
b) Magnetic bearing
c) True bearing
d) Arbitrary bearing
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The magnetic bearing is a horizontal angle made by a survey line with reference to
the magnetic meridian. The magnetic bearing changes with respect to place and time.
7. ___________ is provided to avoid undue wear and tear of pivot points.

a) Magnetic needle
b) Lifting pin and lever
c) Object vane
d) Break pin
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A lifting pin is provided just below the object vane. When the object vane folded
over to the glass cover, the lifting pin automatically presses the lifting lever as it avoids wear and
tear of a pivot point.
8. ________ stops the oscillations of the graduated ring.

a) Brake pin
b) Eye vane
c) Object vane
d) Graduated ring
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A brake pin is provided just at the base of the object vane. If pressed gently, it
moves the spring brake inside the compass box, which stops the oscillation of the graduated ring.
9. The series of connected lines is known as ____________

a) Reinforcing
b) Traversing
c) Guniting
d) Bracing
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The branch of surveying which involves a series of connected lines is known as
traversing. The sides of the traverse are known as traverse legs. Traversing may be of two types,
closed and open.
10. The time for which water is written in a settling tank is known as ________
a) Virtual time
b) Actual time
c) Detention time
d) Active time
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Detention time is a time for which water is detained in the settling tank.
D.T = capacity of the task/rates of flow of a wave
= volume / discharge.
11. What is a detention time for mechanically cleaned tanks?

a) 2 to 3 hours
b) 2.5 to 4 hours
c) 1.5 to 3 hours
d) 4 to 6 hours
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The velocity of flow can be reduced by increasing the area of flow and the
detention time taken by a mechanically cleaned tank is 1.5 to 3 hours.
12. The rate of filtration for rapid sand filter is ___________

a) 3000 to 4500 lit/hr/m2
b) 4500 to 6500 lit/hr/m2
c) 3000 to 6000 lit/hr/m2
d) 4500 to 7000 lit/hr/m2
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The efficiency of rapid sand filter is 95% the rate of filtration is large and ranges
from 3000 to 6000 lit/hr/m2 of filter area and size of unit is small.
13. Which of the following processes is known as zeolite?

a) Demineralization process
b) Deionized water
c) Lime soda process
d) Base exchange process
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Base Exchange process is also known as the zeolite or cation exchange process. In
this process, the hard water is allowed to pass through a bed of zeolite sand (complex silicates of
aluminium and sodium). This process is widely adopted.
14. The ratio of the yield of water from a rapid sand filter is __________
a) 10
b) 5
c) 15
d) 30
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The efficiency of removal of bacteria by the rapid sand filter is 95% and the ratio of
the yield of water from rapid sand filter is 30. The backwash arrangement is made only in case of
a rapid sand filter.
15. _________ is a property of the free surface of a liquid.

a) Permeability
b) Surface tension
c) Capillarity
d) Specific gravity
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The property by which the free surface of a liquid acts as a stretched membrane
with a minimum surface area can be termed as surface tension.
1. Beams which are reinforced in both compression and tension sides are called as _______
a) Dual reinforced beam
b) Doubly reinforced beam
c) Composite beam
d) Additional beam
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The beams which are reinforced in both compression as well as tension sides are
known as doubly reinforced beams. These beams are generally provided when the dimensions of
the beam are restricted.
2. Doubly reinforced beams are provided when Mu _____ M.

a) =
b) <
c) >
d) ~
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The reinforced beams are generally provided when it is required to resist moment
higher than the limiting moment of resistance of a singly reinforced section. The additional
moment of resistance required can be obtained by providing compression reinforcement and
additional tension reinforcement.
3. The doubly reinforced beams improve the ______ of the beam in earthquake regions.
a) Brittleness
b) Elasticity
c) Ductility
d) Toughness
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Generally when the depth of beam is restricted due to architectural or any
construction problems, the doubly reinforced beams are used. It reduces long term deflection and
it also improves the ductility of the beam.
4. What is the stress in compression, if d’/d value is 0.1 for Fe415 steel?
a) 355 N/mm2
b) 353 N/mm2
c) 342 N/mm2
d) 329 N/mm2
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The stress in compression, if d’/d value is 0.1 for Fe415 steel is 353 N/mm2.
Grade of steel d’/d value fsc ( in N/mm2)
415 0.10 353
500 0.10 412
5. The cracks seen on walls are due to _____ failure.

a) Flexural
b) Compression
c) Shear
d) Torsional
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The diagonal tension stress caused by shear and the combination of shear and
bending is likely to cause the failure of the section by producing cracks in the walls.
6. Bending is accompanied by _______

a) Axial
b) Eccentricity
c) Shear
d) Torsion
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Usually, the bending is accompanied by shear. The combination of shear and
bending stresses produces the principal stress which causes diagonal tension in the beam section.
7. The variation of shear stress is ____________

a) Elliptical
b) Hyperbolic
c) Parabolic
d) Circular
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In homogeneous beams, the variation of shear stress is parabolic.
• It is zero at top and bottom.
• It is maximum at a neutral axis.
8. What is the maximum shear stress for M20 grade concrete?

a) 2.5 N/mm2
b) 2.8 N/mm2
c) 3 N/mm2
d) 3.5 N/mm2
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The maximum shear stress for M20 grade concrete is 2.8 N/mm2.
Concrete Grade M15 M20 M25 M30 M35
2
Max. Shear stress (N/mm ) 2.5 2.8 3.1 3.5 3.7
9. ________ has to be provided against diagonal tensile stresses.

b) Shear reinforcement
d) Transverse reinforcement
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Shear reinforcement has to be provided against diagonal tension stress caused by
shear force. The inclined shear crack starts at the bottom and extends towards the compression
zone.
10. Vertical stirrups are a form of _______ reinforcement.

a) Tension
b) Shear
c) Compression
d) Torsion
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Generally the vertical stirrups are provided as two legged or four legged stirrups
around the tension reinforcement. Hanger bars are provided to keep vertical steps in position
otherwise they may get displaced while concreting.
11. The shear to be resisted by shear reinforcement is given by ___________

a) Vus = Vuc + Vu
b) Vus = Vu + Vuc
c) Vu = Vus – Vuc
d) Vus = Vu – Vuc
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The shear to be resisted by shear reinforcement is given by
Vus = Vu – Vuc
Where: Vuc = shear resistance of concrete
Vu = ultimate shear force
▪ The number of stirrups cut by 45° crack line is n = d/Sv.
12. The shear resistance of bent up bars shall not exceed __________ the total shear to be
resisted.
a) 30 %
b) 50%
c) 40%
d) 25%
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: If the bent up bars or inclined stirrups are provided at spacing, the shear resistance
of bent up Bar should not exceed 50% of the total shear to be resisted by the shear reinforcement.
Because bent up bars alone (without stirrups) are not effective in preventing shear failure.
13. What is the horsepower of the engine if the power is 219324 W.

a) 312
b) 268
c) 294
d) 304
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The rate of doing work is known as power.
Horse power = P/746
= 219324/746
= 294 W.
14. A lift carry 10 persons each weighing 60 kg to the top storey of the building 100 m height.
Calculate the potential energy acquired by the person.
a) 5.88 × 105 J
b) 4.32 × 105 J
c) 2.34 × 105J
d) 1.16 × 105J
View Answer
15. Calculate the maximum shear stress of a circular beam of 100 mm diameter, if the average
shear stress is 0.63 N/mm2.
a) 0.85 N/mm2
b) 1.2 N/mm2
c) 1.5 N/mm2
d) 2.1 N/mm2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: For the circular section,
The maximum shear stress = 4/3 × average shear stress
= 4/3 × 0.6366
= 0.85 N/mm2.
1. Calculate the nominal shear stress, if a singly reinforced rectangular beam 230×450 mm
effective depth is subjected to a factored load of 60 kN.
a) 0.6 N/mm2
b) 0.55 N/mm2
c) 0.4 N/mm2
d) 0.25 N/mm2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: B = 230 mm; d = 450 mm
Shear force = Vu = 60 kN
Nominal shear stress = Vu/bd = 60 × 103/ 230 ×450
= 0.6 N/mm2.
2. The minimum shear reinforcement is given by Asv/bSv = _______

a) 0.4 /0.87 fy
b) 0.5 /0.85 fy
c) 0.6 /0.9 fy
d) 0.35/ 0.6 fsc
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The minimum quantity of shear reinforcement that should be provided for all
beams except those of minor importance like lintels is given by IS 456:2000, clause 26.5.1.6 by
the equation
Asv/bSv = 0.4/0.87 fy.
3. Bent up bars do not resist diagonal tension.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Some of the longitudinal bars can be bent up near supports as a bending moment to
be resisted near the supports is very little. Such bent up bars resists diagonal tension effectively.
4. The ultimate shear force at a section of an RCC beam is 300 kN. The shear resisted by
concrete is 77.5 kN. What is the shear for which shear reinforcement is required?
a) 213.5 kN
b) 220 kN
c) 222.5 kN
d) 122.5 kN
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Shear to be resisted by shear reinforcement is Vus = Vu – Vuc
Vus = Vu – Vuc; Where Vu = ultimate shear force and Vuc = shear resistance of concrete
= 300 – 77.5
= 222.5 kN.
5. Bond stress is a stress acting ___________ to the bar on the interface between reinforcement
and concrete.
a) Perpendicular
b) Parallel
c) Normal
d) Transverse
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Bond stress is the stress acting parallel to the bar on the interface between the
reinforcing bar and the surrounding concrete hands it is stress developed between the contact
surface of Steel and concrete.
6. ________ is developed due to adhesion between concrete and steel.

a) Shear
b) Flexure
c) Bond
d) Creep
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Bond is developed due to the combined influential effect of adhesion between
concrete and steel provided by concrete during setting.
7. Bond is developed due to _________

a) Viscosity
b) Gravity
c) Friction
d) Acoustics
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The bond is developed due to the combined effect of friction which is provided by
gripping of the bar due to shrinkage of concrete. It resists any force that tries to pull out the rods
for the concrete.
8. ___________ depends on grade of concrete and diameter of bar etc.

a) Shear stress
b) Bond stress
c) Bending
d) Rupture
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Bond stress depends on grade of concrete, diameter of the bar, bar profile condition
nature of force in the bar, bends and hooks in a bar and grouping of bars.
9. Which of the following bond is also known as a local bond?

a) Anchorage bond
b) Fletched bond
c) Flexural bond
d) Composite bond
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: For transferring the change in bar force along its length due to the variation in
bending moment free Irfan comes into account it is also known as a local bond.
10. _____________ bond arises when bar carrying certain force is terminated.
a) Anchorage
b) Flexural
c) Indemnity
d) Equivalent
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: An Anchorage Bond arises when a bar carrying certain force is terminated. In such
cases, it is obligatory to transfer this force in the bar to the surrounding concrete over a certain
length.
11. The development length can be determined easily by _______ test.

a) Push out test
b) Pull out test
c) Grading test
d) Slump cone test
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The length of the bar required to transfer the force in the bar to the surrounding
concrete through bond is known as development length. The development length can be easily
determined by pull out test.
12. To improve the anchorage of bars ______ are provided in plain bars.
a) Standard hooks
b) Stirrups
c) Lateral ties
d) Standard bends
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In situations where straight anchorage length cannot be provided due to lack of
space, to improve the anchorage bars many times standard hooks are provided in plane bars.
13. In case of HYSD bars ___________ are provided to increase anchorage length.
a) Lateral ties
b) Helical reinforcement
c) Standard hooks
d) Standard bends
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Where straight anchorage length cannot be provided due to lack of space (at
supports) In this situation, to improve the anchorage of bars many times the standard bends are
provided in deformed bars.
14. Polar moment of inertia is denoted by ___________

a) G
b) J
c) K
d) M
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The polar moment of inertia is the inertia of an area about an axis perpendicular to
its plane. It is denoted by “J”.
J = 2 I.
15. Calculate the moment of inertia of a hollow circular section whose external diameter is 60
mm and thickness is 5 mm about centroidal axis.
a) 315 m2
b) 320 m4
c) 330 m4
d) 345 m4
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: External diameter (D) = 60 mm
Internal diameter (d) = 50 mm
Ixx = Iyy = π/64 × (604 -504).
= 330 m4.
1. The effect of ___________ holes is to reduce the strength of connected plates.

a) Lap
b) Weld
c) Rivet
d) Butt
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The effect of rivet holes is to reduce the strength of the connected plates. The
strength of the plate or strength of rivet whichever is less is called the strength of the joint.
2. A cylinder section having no __________ is known as seamless section.
a) Moment
b) Force
c) Strength
d) Joint
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A seamless section is a section of the cylinder having no joint. No other section in a
cylinder is as strong as seamless section of the same thickness and dimensions.
3. A water main of 1 m in diameter and 25 mm thick is subjected to an internal pressure of 2.5

N/mm2. Calculate the longitudinal stress induced.
a) 20 N/mm2
b) 25 N/mm2
c) 30 N/mm2
d) 35 N/mm2
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Longitudinal stress = fl = pd/4t
fl= 2.5 × 1000 / 4 × 25
fl = 25 N/mm2.
4. What is the design Bond stress in plane bars intention for m25 grade concrete?
a) 1.2 N/mm2
b) 1.4 N/mm2
c) 2 N/mm2
d) 3 N/mm2
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The design Bond stress in plane bars intention for m25 grade concrete is 1.4
N/mm2.
Grade of concrete M20 M25 M30
2
Design in (N/mm ) bond stress 1.2 1.4 1.5
5. The value of design Bond stress in plain bars will increase in compression by __________
a) 30%
b) 25%
c) 50%
d) 60%
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The value of design bond stress will be increased by 25% in compression and for
the deformed (HYSD bars) these values may be increased by 60%.
6. What is the anchorage value of standard “U” type hook?

a) 16 times the diameter of bar
b) 12 times the diameter of bar
c) 8 times the diameter of bar
d) 4 times the diameter of bar
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The anchorage value of standard “U” type hook is 16 times the diameter of bar.
Type of hook / bend U hook 45° Bend 90° Bend
Anchorage value 16 × diameter of bar 4 × diameter of bar 8 × diameter of bar
7. The flexural bond is _________ at the section.

a) Zero
b) Maximum
c) Minimum
d) Uniform
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The flexural (local) bond is maximum at the section where the shear force is large.
Therefore the check for flexural bond is necessary at the sections where shear force is maximum
and bending moment is zero.
8. _________ reinforcement is designed for sections where the bending moment is maximum.
a) Torsional
b) Tension
c) Shear
d) Longitudinal
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Tension reinforcement is designed for section where the bending moment is
maximum. The bending moment varies along the span of a beam depending on the loading and
support conditions.
9. In case of __________ beams, the 50% of bars are curtailed at a distance of 0.5 ×l.
a) Simply supported
b) Cantilever
c) Continuous
d) Overhanging
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: According to the simplified rules for curtailment of bars, In case of cantilever
beams, 50% of bars may be curtailed at 0.5 l or Ld which is more from the face of the support.
10. Splices are provided when the ________ bar available is less than that required.
a) Diameter
b) Length
c) Effective depth
d) Number of
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Splices are generally provided when the length of the bar available is less than that
of required. The splicing of reinforcement is provided by lap joint or mechanical joint on the
welded joint.
11. Lap splices should not be used for bars larger than __________ mm.
a) 24 mm
b) 42 mm
c) 54 mm
d) 36 mm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Lap splices should be used if and only if, the size of bars is less than 36 mm. For
larger diameter, bars may be welded.
12. Cantilever slab is categorised based on support conditions.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Based on support conditions, the slabs are classified as
i. Simply supported slab
ii. Cantilever slab
iii. Fixed slab
iv. Continuous slab
v. Flat slab.
13. According to IS 456: 2000; the span to depth ratio of a simply supported beam is
___________
a) 7
b) 20
c) 26
d) 32
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As per clause 23.2 of IS 456 for spans not exceeding 10 m, this span to depth ratio
should not exceed the limits given below
Cantilevers – 7
Simply supported – 20
Continuous – 26.
14. The __________ of the slab is governed by span to depth ratio.

a) Strength
b) Stiffness
c) Reinforcement
d) Stability
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The term stiffness is defined as the ability to resist deformation. The stiffness of
slabs is governed by span to depth ratio. It depends on the type of steel and the percentage of
steel.
15. The material does not possessing any kind of elastic symmetry, then the material is said to be
_______
a) Isotropic
b) Exo tropic
c) Anisotropic
d) Orthotropic
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The material do not possessing any kind of elastic symmetry in them than the
material is said to be anisotropic material or allotropic material. It has 21 elastic constants.
1. What is the ratio of maximum deflection to maximum bending stress if a simply supported
rectangular beam of span “L” and it carries a central load W.
a) L2/12 Ed
b) L2/10 Ed
c) L2/ 4 Ed
d) L2/ 6 Ed
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Maximum deflection in simply supported beam is y = Wl2/48EI
y= Wl3/48E (bd3/12)
y/f = l2/ 6Ed.
2. In a cantilever of span subjected to a point load of w acting at a distance of (1/3) L from free
end. The deflection under load will be
a) WL3/81 EI
b) 14WL3/ 81EI
c) 8WL3/81EI
d) WL3/64 EI
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Deflection under load at B = W × (2L/3) 3/ 3EI
= 8WL3/81EI.
3. The slabs whose corners are prevented from lifting are known as _________
a) simply supported
b) cantilever
c) restrained
d) suspended
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The slabs whose corners are prevented from lifting are called as restrained slabs.
They may be supported on continuous or discontinuous edges.
4. As the corners are held down ___________ reinforcement has to be provided at the corners.
a) Tension
b) Shear
c) Torsional
d) Longitudinal
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Against lifting, the corners are held down then torsional reinforcement has to be
provided at the corners (at the discontinuous edge) to prevent cracking of corners.
5. Which of the following layout is used for “Direct- Indirect system”.

a) Radial system
b) Grid system
d) Interlaced system
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The radial system is a reverse of the ring system, in this the water flows radially
from one point to the outer periphery. The system is suitable where the roads are laid radially in
the city.
6. ________ layout is best suited for well planned towns.
a) Tree system
b) Ring system
d) Radial system
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In the ring system, the entire locality is divided into either rectangular or circular
blocks. The water mains are laid along the peripheral roads with submains branching out from
the main mains. Thus, every point can receive the supply from two directions. This is obviously
the most Ideal system.
7. A ___ is used to prevent water from flowing back in the opposite direction.
a) Sluice valve
b) Check valve
c) Air valve
d) Drain valve
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Check valve is a valve which allows water to go in one direction only. The wall
prevents the passage of water in the reverse direction. This valve is also known as Reflux valve.
8. Scour valve in water distribution system is provided at ________

a) High points
b) Junction points
c) Low points
d) Key points
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Scour valves are the ordinary valves which can be operated manually. These are
similar to drain valves. These are located at the depressions and low ends to remove the
accumulated silt.
9. _______ valves are known as “Washout ” valves.

a) Drain valves
b) Scour valves
c) Check valves
d) Sluice valves
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: These are called as drain valves. They are provided at all dead ends and depressions
of pipelines to drain out the wastewater. These are ordinary walls operated by hand.
10. Check valve is provided on the delivery side of a pipe.
a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Check valve and pressure relief valves are provided on the delivery side because
the reflux valve prevents the passage of water in a reverse direction. It allows the water to flow
only one direction.
11. _____ reduces the pipe size from larger to smaller bore.
a) Aqua phone
b) Tee
c) Elbow
d) Reducer
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The component in the pipeline which reduces the pipe size from larger to smaller
bore is known as reducer. Usually, there are two types of reducers: 1. concentric reducers 2.
eccentric reducers.
12. The maximum pressure in (kg/cm2) to which cast iron pipes may be subjected is _________
a) 3
b) 7
c) 11
d) 14
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Cast iron pipes are widely used in water supply and sewage systems. They possess
high durability, strength & resistant to corrosion etc. They are available in 1000 – 1200 mm in
diameter. They can withstand upto a temperature of 7 kg/cm2.
13. The pipe extending from a stop cock to the storage tank is called ________
a) Supply pipe
b) Service pipe
c) Street main
d) Distribution pipe
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The pipe which is subjected to water pressure from the water main is called the
supply pipe. The pipe extends from the stop cock up to the bib cock or entrance of the storage
tank.
14. Calculate the elongation of the rod if you still out of 490 mm square area and 600 M long are
subjected to an axial pull of 40 kN. Take E = 2×105N/mm2.
a) 0.56 mm
b) 0.78 mm
c) 0.24 mm
d) 0.16 mm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Given that l = 600 mm, P = 40 kN.
The Elongation = Pl / AE
= 40000 × 600 / 490 × 2×102
= 0.24 mm.
15. The ratio of change in thickness to original thickness is known as ___________

a) Lateral strain
b) Linear strain
c) Longitudinal strain
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The lateral deformation per unit original lateral dimension is called a lateral strain.
When a material is subjected to uniaxial stress within elastic limit it not only deforms
longitudinally but also laterally.
1. Resilience can also be termed as ___________

a) Stress energy
b) Strain energy
c) Modulus
d) Tenacity
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The capability of a material to absorb energy when it is deformed elastically and
release that energy upon unloading is known resilience. This resilience is also termed as Strain
energy.
2. Mathematically, strain energy = _________

a) Power
b) Work done
c) Young’s Modulus
d) Energy
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: By the principle of work, the amount of strain energy in a body is found. When a
load acts on a body there will be deformation, which causes movement of the applied load. This
work is done by the applied load.
3. Calculate the Strain energy stored in a body of stress 0.0366 N/mm2. The cross sectional area
is 60 m2and length of body is 1 m. Take E = 2×105 N/mm2.
a) 0.2009 N.mm
b) 0.0416 N.mm
c) 0.0987 N.mm
d) 0.1316 N.mm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Given that : l = 1000 mm ; A = 60000 mm2 ; f = 0.0366 N/mm2.
Strain energy stored = f2/2EI × Volume
= (0.0366)2/ 2×2×105× (200×300) × (1000)
= 0 2009 N.mm.
4. What are the units of measurement for wooden and steel trusses?
a) 1 RM
b) 1 N.o
c) m2
d) m
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The units of measurement for wooden and steel trusses is 1 N.o
Description of work Units of measurement
Earth work excavation 1 m3
Steel reinforcement 1 kN
Wooden and steel trusses 1 No
5. Which of the following methods is also known as individual wall method?

a) Centre line method
b) Alignment method
c) Long wall and short wall method
d) Voluminous method
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Long wall short wall method is tedious and long lasting. In this method, the length
of wall running in one direction are measured first out to out and that of running in the
perpendicular direction are measured in to in.
6. Centre line method is accurate method.
a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The estimates can be prepared quickly by using center line method. This is not only
an accurate method but also a very quick method.
7. _______ gives the nature and class of work.

a) Estimate
b) Specifications
c) Tenders
d) Survey
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Drawings cannot give every information about materials and quality. The
specifications give the nature and class of work, quantity of materials and workmanship. They
are very useful during the execution of work.
8. In foundation concrete, coarse aggregate size should be __________

a) 20 mm
b) 30 mm
c) 40 mm
d) 50 mm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Generally foundation concrete is laid about thickness of 30 cm with proportion
1:4:8 (or) 1:5:10 and are measured in m3.
Before laying the concrete bed level, sand filling and sinking must be done and checked
properly.
9. What is the painting coefficient for flush doors?

a) 2.3
b) 2.4
c) 3.4
d) 3.6
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The painting coefficient for flush doors is 2.4.
Description Multiplying factor of Paint coefficient
Fully glazed doors 1.6
Fully ventilated doors 3.6
Flush doors 2.4
10. Which of the following rules is known as “Prismoidal Rule”?

a) Mean sectional rule
b) Trapezoidal rule
c) Simpson’s rule
d) Mid sectional rule
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Prismoidal rule is used when the shape of the solid between two parallel cross
sections is in the shape of a prismoid. This is also known as Simpsons rule volume is calculated
by
V = L/6 (A1 + 4A + A2).
11. Which of the following estimates is also known as a preliminary estimate?

a) Detailed estimate
b) Scientific estimate
c) Approximate estimate
d) Abstract estimate
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: An approximate estimate is prepared to decide whether the funds available for the
proposal is sufficient or not. The estimate is accompanied by a detailed report explaining the
necessity and utility of the proposal.
12. Service unit method is related to ___________ estimate.

a) Abstract
b) Approximate
c) Detailed
d) Cubic content
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: There are over a number of methods available for preparing approximate estimate
but the following methods are important
i. Plinth area method
ii. Cubic content method
iii. Service unit method.
13. By ___________ estimate, a technical sanction is obtained.

a) Approximate
b) Detailed
c) Abstract
d) Preliminary
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Detailed estimate is required for arranging the contract and entering into the
agreement. In this estimate, the quantities are worked out in the order in which construction
proceeds. For getting technical sanction, the detailed estimate is prepared.
14. Which of the following is an exact estimate?

a) Abstract
b) Detailed
c) Rough
d) Preliminary
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In a detailed estimate, the quantities of each item of work such as earth excavation,
bed concrete and brick masonry are calculated. Detailed drawings are required for this estimate.
15. Calculate the instantaneous elongation if a steel rod of 40 mm and 4 m long subjected to an
axial pull of 80 kN. Take E = 2×105 N/mm2.
a) 1.23 mm
b) 1.27 mm
c) 1.31 mm
d) 1.43 mm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: An instantaneous elongation = f/A × L ; and f = P/A = 80000/1256.63 = 63.66
N/mm2.
= 63.66/1256.63 × 4000
= 1.27 mm
Subject code-202045
Unit-1
D Any one of above
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A mm/mm
B N/cm
C N
D N/cm2
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Strain
B Lateral strain
C Linear strain
D Linear stress
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
is called
B Tensile stress
C Transverse stress
D Working stress
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Ideal material
B Uniform material
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Same
B More
C Less
D Unpredictable
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
the
D None of above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Unit stress
B Bulk modulus
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Surface tension
B Bulk modulus
C strain
D elasticity
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Plasticity
B elasticity
C ductility
D malleability
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Homogeneous
B Inelastic
C Isotropic
D Isentropic
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Plasticity
B Ductility
C elasticity
D malleability
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Poisson’s ratio
B Bulk modulus
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A Remains constant
B Varies with time
D None of these
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
A Elastic limit
D None of these
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
A Hooks law
B Yield point
C Proof stress
D Permanent set
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit A
Id
D None of the above
Answer D
Marks 2
U
Id
A Not deform
B Be safest
C Stretch
D Not stretch
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Young's modulus
B Bulk modulus
D Poisson's ratio
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit A
Id
A 1 to -0.5
B 1 to +0.5
C 0 to +0.5
D 0 to -0.5
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 10 kN/mm2
B 80 kN/mm2
C 100 kN/mm2
D 210 kN/mm2
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Pa
B Kgf/mm2
C Tonne/m2
D any one of these
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A equal to
B less than
C greater than
D Nearly equal to
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A ductile
B brittle
C malleable
D plastic
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 0.1 to 0.9
B 0.05 to 0.1
C 1 to 10
D 0.25 to 0.35
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 1
B 2
C 3
D 4
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
D Equal to strain
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Unit stress
C Bulk modulus
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Plastic limit
B Elastic limit
C Yield point
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A point of failure
B point of rupture
C yield point
D none of these
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A plastic range
B elastic range
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A The same
B One fourth
C Half
D Double
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id

Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Decrease
B Increase
C Remains same
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Young's modulus
B Shear modulus
C Poisson’s ratio
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Cast iron
B Mild steel
C Soft brass
D Aluminum
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Yield strength
C Elastic limit
D Tensile strength
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Two
B Three
C Four
D Six
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Elastic limit
C Ultimate stress
D Breaking point
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
upon the
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 0.7 Nm
B 1.0 Nm
C 1.4 Nm
D 2.8 Nm
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
in length would be
A P/LAE
B PE/AL
C PL/AE
D AL/PE
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
would be
A 0.5
B 0.4
C 0.3
D 1
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 0.66
B 0.33
C 1.33
D 1
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id

Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
incresead
A Increased
B Decreased
C Remains constant
D Either A or B
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Stress to strain
D All of these
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 4PL/πEd2 d1
B 4πEd2 d1 /PL
C 4PE/πLd2 d1
D None of above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Larger end
B Smaller end
C Middle
D anywhere
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
material will be
A Same
B Zero
C Different
D None of above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
will induce
A no stress
B shear stress
C tensile stress
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A no stress
B shear stress
C tensile stress
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A elastic limit
B yield point
C ultimate point
D breaking point
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
D none of these
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
B Upper yield point
C Lower yield point
D Ultimate point
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A doubled
B remain unaffected
C become one-fourth
D become four times
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
the
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 50.00%
B 0.00%
C 10.00%
D 20.00%
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
D none of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 4 kN/cm2
B 8 kN/cm2
C 16 kN/cm2
D None of above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A half
B same
C One third
D One
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A plasticity
B elasticity
C malleability
D ductility
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Steel
B Copper
C Brass
D none of the above
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
called
A reliability
B plasticity
C ductility
D malleability
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A breaking stress
D maximum stress
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A -0.01
B +0.01
C +0.001
D -0.001
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A +0.001 mm
B +0.01mm
C - 0.01 mm
D - 0.001 mm
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A original length
D All of these
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 4 x 10-4
B 2 x 10-4
C 8 x 10-4
D 4 x 10-4
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 50 Pa
B 500 Pa
C 50 MPa
D 500 MPa
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A Doubled
B Half
C Become four time
D Remain unaffected
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
D None of above
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A D1+ d2
B 1/( d1+d2 )
C d1d2
D 1/( d1d2)
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
strains in bar is
A 100* l/L
B 0.1*l/L
C 0.01*l /L
D l/L
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Answer D
Marks 2
--Unit --
Id
A (d1+d2)/2
B (d1-d2)/2
C √( d1d2)
D √(d12-d22)
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
2.Temperature rise
A 1 and 2 only
B 1 and 3 only
C 2 and 3 only
D 1, 2 and 3 only
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 1.25 mm
B 2.70 mm
C 4.05 mm
D 5.40 mm
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A Young's modulus
B Shear modulus
C Poisson's ratio
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 2G(1+ μ )
B 2G(1 − μ )
C 0.5G(1+ μ )
D 0.5G(1 − μ )
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A E = 3 K (1 − 2μ )
B K = 3 E (1 − 2μ )
C E = 3 K (1 − μ )
D K = 3 E (1 − μ )
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 3
C 1, 2 and 4
D 1, 3 and 4
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
least
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A wl3 /6E
B wl3 /E
C wl3 /4E
D wl3 /3E
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
ratio will
A Increase
B Decrease
C Remain same
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 9KG/(K+G)
B 9KG/(G+3K)
C 9KG/(K+3G)
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A wL2/2E
B WL2/6E
C wL2/8E
D wL/8E
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A equal to
B less than
C more than
D Nearly equal to
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A equal to half
B less than half
C more than half
D none of these
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A WL/AE
B 2WL/AE
C WL/2AE
D None of these
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
will be
A 10
B 25
C 33
D 50
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 2
B 4
C 0.5
D 0.25
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit D1
Id
A 1/7
B 2/7
C 3/7
D 4/7
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 0.12
B 0.25
C 0.38
D 0.5
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
called
B Tensile stress
D Working stress.
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A (3σ/E)*(1+ν)
B (3σ/E)*(1-ν)
C (3σ/E)*(1+2ν)
D (3σ/E)*(1-2ν)
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
test would be
A More than 50 %
B 25-50 %
C 10-25 %
D Negligible
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A Same
B Half
C One third
D Double
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A Half
B Double
C Same
D One third
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
3
Id
A 0.01 to 0.1
B 0.25 to 0.33
C 0.4 to 0.6
D 0.23 to 0.27
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A Creeping
B Yielding
C Breaking
D None of above
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
removed.
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
below the Lists:
A A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
B A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
C A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
D A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
a test?
2. Yield stress
3. Ductility
4. Tensile strength
A 1, 3, 5 and 6
B 2, 3, 4 and 6
C 1, 2, 5 and 6
D 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
as heat
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 1:4
B 4:1
C 1:2
D 2:1
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A Linear Elastic
B Linear plastic
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A Linear Elastic
B Linear plastic
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A Cast iron
B Mild Steel
C Aluminum
D Pure copper
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A Cast iron
B Mild Steel
C Aluminum
D Pure copper
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A Cast iron
B Mild Steel
C Aluminum
D Pure copper
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Elastic limit
B Upper yield point
C Lower yield point
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 0.4e
B 0.6e
C 3e
D 1.6 e
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
increase
A eight times
B four times
C three times
D two times
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 3.75
B 3
C 2.5
D 1.5
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 8 x 106 N/mm2
B 8 x 105 N/mm2
C 0.8 x 104 N/mm2
D 0.8 x 105 N/mm2

Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 8 x 106 N/mm2
B 8 x 105 N/mm2
C 0.8 x 104 N/mm2
D 0.8 x 105 N/mm2

Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
will be
A 1/1000
B 1/1200
C 1/2400
D 1/4800
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
ratio is
A 0.25
B 0.30
C 0.33
D 0.35
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 0.25
B 0.326
C 0.356
D 0.28
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 2
B 4
C 1/2
D 1/4
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 50 kN/mm2
B 100 kN/mm2
C 150 kN/mm2
D 200 kN/mm2
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 2.5
B 1.6
C 0.8
D 0.4
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
direction is
A 1.2
B 1.8
C 2.4
D 3.0
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 2 mm
B 0.2 mm
C 0.02 mm
D 0.01 mm
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 250 N/mm2
B 100 N/mm2
C 50 N/mm2
D 25 N/mm2
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A equal to
B less than
C greater than
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 750 N/mm2
B 600 N/mm2
C 500 N/mm2
D None of these
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
specimen is
A 4 tonnes/cm2
B 8 tonnes/cm2
C 16 tonnes/cm2
D 22 tonnes/cm2
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 1000 mm3
B 100 mm3
C 10 mm3
D 5 mm3
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 12 kN
B 6 kN
C 4 kN
D 2 kN
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 300 N/mm2
B 100 N/mm2
C 50 N/mm2
D 33.33 N/mm2
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 1
B 0.5
C 2
D 25
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Question
be....
A 0.0725 mm
B 0.7025 mm
C 0.7025 cm
D 1.7025 mm
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question

Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A 12.73 N/m2
B 12.73 MN/m
C 12.73 MN/m2
D 12.73 KN/m2
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A 88.42 N/m2
B 88.42 GN/m2
C 88.42 KN/m2
D 88.42 MN/m2
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A 9.1777 x10-5 cm
B 9.1777 x10-5m
C 9.1777 x10-5mm
D 9.1777 x10-3mm
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --

Subject code-202045
Unit-2
Id
A n=m
B n>m
C n<m
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A n=m
B n>m
C n<m
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Linear
B Parabolic
C Cubic
D Constant
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Linear
B Parabolic
C Cubic
D constant
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Linear
B Parabolic
C Cubic
D constant
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Linear
B Parabolic
C Cubic
D constant
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Linear
B Parabolic
C Cubic
D constant
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Linear
B Parabolic
C Cubic
D constant
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A SF is zero
B SF is maximum
C BM is zero
D BM is maximum
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Middle
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A UDL
B UVL
C Point load
D moment
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Cantilever beam
B Overhanging beam
D Uniform beam
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A is maximum
B is minimum
C is equal
D is zero
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
B fixed beam
C overhanging beam
D cantilever beam
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
B fixed beam
C overhanging beam
D continuous beam
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A WL
B WL/2
C WL/4
D WL/8
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A wL/2 kNm
B wL2/2 kNm
C wL3/2 kNm
D wL2/4 kNm
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A wL/2 kNm
B wL2/2 kNm
C wL3/2 kNm
D wL2/4 kNm
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 40 kNm
B 80 kNm
C 20 kNm
D 60 kNm
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
B One rectangle
D A triangle
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
C varies linearly
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A cubic law
B parabolic law
C linear law
D none of these
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A cubic law
B parabolic law
C linear law
D none of these
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
load is
A wl2/4
B wl2/8
C wl2/12
D wl/4
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
the
A free end
B mid span
C fixed end
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A cubic law
B parabolic law
C linear law
D uniform law
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A cubic law
B parabolic law
C linear law
D uniform law
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A cubic law
B parabolic law
C linear law
D uniform law
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
end is
A triangle
B rectangle
C parabola
D elliptical
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A zero
B also maximum
C minimum
D of any value
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
of the beam.
B length
C width
D depth
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
_____.
A disc
B strut
C column
D beam
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A inclined
B parallel
C normal
D none of the above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
D All of above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A width
B length
C depth
D cross-section
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Bending moment
B Loading
C Deflection
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
length is a
A Triangle
B Rectangle
C Hyperbola
D Parabola
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
B remains same
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
there is a

Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A a horizontal line
B a vertical line
C an inclined line
D a parabolic curve
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A zero
B wl2/2
C wl2/4
D wl2/8
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id

Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
there is a

Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
there is a

Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A P*(L-a) * a/L
B P*(L-a) * b/L
C P*(L-a) /L
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A P
B P/2
C 3P/5
D 2P/5
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
is maximum SF ?
A w*L
B w*L/2
C 2*w*L
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
is minimum SF ?
A w*L
B w*L/2
C Zero
D None of the above
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A fixed end
B free end
C middle
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A fixed end
B free end
C middle
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
is maximum BM?
A w*L*L
B w*L*L/2
C Zero
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A fixed end
B free end
C middle
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question LOAD SFD
1 POINT LOAD A ZERO
2 UDL B PARABOLIC
3 UVL C LINEAR
4 MOMENT D CONSTANT
Match the pairs
A 1-A; 2-C;3-B;4-D
B 1-D; 2-C;3-B;4-A
C 1-A; 2-B;3-C;4-D
D 1-D; 2-B;3-C;4-A
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question LOAD BMD
2 UDL B CUBIC
3 UVL C PARABOLIC
4 MOMENT D LINEAR
Match the pairs
A 1-A; 2-C;3-B;4-D
B 1-D; 2-C;3-B;4-A
C 1-A; 2-B;3-C;4-D
D 1-D; 2-B;3-C;4-A
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A fixed beam
C continuous beam
D overhanging beam
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A Triangle
B Rectangle
C Parabolic
D hyperbolic
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A Free end
B Under the load
C Fixed end
D middle
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
ID
A 4
B -4.33
C -5.33
D 6.33
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 270
B 80
C 45
D 607.5
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 8
B 1
C 4
D 2
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
will be …
A 10
B 52
C 6
D 24
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A 72 kN-m
B 8 kN-m
C 60 kN-m
D 104 kN-m
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A 126 kN-m
B 12 kN-m
C 18 kN-m
D 180 kN-m
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A at point C
C at point D
D at point B
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question

B at point C
C at point B
D at point D
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A at point A
C at point E
D at point B
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A 90 kN
B 6 kN
C 27 kN
D 30 kN
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A 90 kN
B 6 kN
C 27 kN
D 30 kN
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 90 kN-m
B 540 kN-m
C 180 kN-m
D 18 kN-m
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
d
A PL/3
B 2PL/3
C PL/9
D 2PL/9
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A M/L
B M/L/2
C Zero
D M
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A M at fixed end
B M at free end
C M at middle
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A PL
B PL/2
C PL/4
D 2PL
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A 3 kN
B 1.5 kN
C 1 kN
D 2.25 kN
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A W*L
B W*L/2
C 2W*L
D W/L
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A W*L^2
B W*L^2/2
C 2W*L^2
D W*L/2
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A W*L
B W*L/2
C 2W*L
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A W*L*L
B W*L*L/2
C W*L*L/8
D None of the above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
is
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
d
Question
A M/L
B M/L/2
C 2M/L
D Zero
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A M
B M/2
C 2M
D Zero
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question

C Middle section
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A PL
B 2PL
C zero
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A DA
B AB
C BC
D DC
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A P
B P/2
C P/4
D 2P
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A AB
B BC
C AC
D CAN'T SAY
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A AB
B BC
C AC
D CAN'T SAY
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A 100 N
B 60 N
C 40N
D 50 N
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A 100 Nm
B 300 Nm
C 200 Nm
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 50
B 40
C 30
D 20
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
as follows
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A A circular arc
B A parabolic arc
C Elliptical shape
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
cantilever is
A 0 kN-m
B 50 kN-m
C 25 kN-m
D 100 kN-m
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 30 kN-m
B 20 kN-m
C 10 kN-m
D 5 kN-m
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 120 kN
B 60 kN
C 30 kN
D 15 kN
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
the magnitude of W
A 700 kN
B 750 kN
C 800 kN
D 1000 kN
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A The support
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 120 kN-m
B 100 kN-m
C 80 kN-m
D 60 kN-m
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 5wN
B 3wN
C wN
D 0
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 125 kN
B 105 kN
C 50 kN
D 5 kN
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A zero
B wl/4
C wl/2
D wl
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
support?
A 24 kN
B 20 kN
C 16 kN
D 12 kN
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 72.5 kNm
B 52.5 kNm
C 37.5 kNm
D 47.5 kNm
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
support?
A 90 kN-m
B 80 kN-m
C 70 kN-m
D 60 kN-m
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
left support?
A 3.0 m
B 2.25 m
C 2.5 m
D 1.5 m
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 0 kN-m
B 10 kN-m
C 12.5 kN-m
D 25 kN-m
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 3.6 kN-m
B 1.8 kN-m
C 1 kN-m
D 0 kN-m
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A 4 kN-m
B 2.8 kN-m
C 3.2 kN-m
D 3 kN-m
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
of ___________.
A 1 m from C
B 0.75 m from C
C 2 m from B
D 3 m from A
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 1.2 m from D
B 3.2 m from C
C 1.2 m from C
D 3 m from B
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
AB is _______.
A 4 kN-m
B 18 kN-m
C 36 kN-m
D 2.25 kN-m
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 2.67 m from C
B 1 m from B
C 3 m from A
D 2.67 m from A
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 1.5 m from A
B 0.33 m from A
C 1.33 m from A
D 1 m from A
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --

Subject code-202045
Unit-3
Id
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Maximum
B Minimum
C Zero
D None of them
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Upper fiber
B Lower fiber
C Neutral axis
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
C Both A and B
D None of A and B
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A Linear
B Parabolic
C Cubic
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
C Not related
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Increases
B Decreases
C Remain constant
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A bd^3/6
B bd^2/6
C bd^3/12
D bd^2/12
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
A πd^3/64
B πd^3/32
C πd^2/64
D πd^2/32
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
D None of the above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Constant
B Parabolic
C Cubic
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A Increases
B Decreases
C Remain constant
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Constant
B Parabolic
C Cubic
D Linear
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Outer fibers
B Neutral axis
C Everywhere
D None of above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Outer fibers
B Neutral axis
C Everywhere
D None of above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
D None of these
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A πd4 /64
B πd2 /32
C πd2 /64
D πd4 /32
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Neutral axis
B Extreme fibre
D None of these
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Rectangular
B Circular
C I – section
D None of these
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
will …
A Increase by 50%
B Decrease by 50%
C Increase by 25%
D Decrease by 25%
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Shear modulus
B Bulk modulus
C elastic modulus
D section modulus
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
develop at ....
A Bottom fiber
B Top fiber
C Neutral axis
D Center of gravity
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
A M/Y = E/R
B Y/M=E/R
C M/I = E/R
D M/R=E/I
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
A σb(max)/E
B M/σb(max)
C σb(max)/M
D M/I
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
A I/σbmax
B ymax/I
C σbmax/I
D I/ymax
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id

Answer B
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id

D None of above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
A Continuous beam
B Fixed beam
D None of above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id

Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id

C At the NA
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id

C At the NA
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
A Poisson's ratio
C Modular ratio
D Nodular ratio
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id

Answer D
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
A wL/8
B wL2/8
C wL3/8
D wL2/12
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
be …
A 5 F/(2bd)
B 3 F/(2bd)
C 3 F/(4bd)
D 2 F/(3bd)
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1:8
B 8:1
C 1:2
D 2:1
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1:8
B 8:1
C 1:2
D 2:1
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A to section B?
A 1:8
B 8:1
C 1:4
D 4:1
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
will …
A Increase by 50%
B Decrease by 50%
C Increase by 25%
D Decrease by 25%
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A D²/10
B D³/10
C D4/10
D D4/20
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
to
A (4/5) t d2
B (4/5) t2 d2
C (4/5) d t2
D (5/4) t d2
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A moment of inertia
B stress
C strain
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A M
B M/2
C M/3
D M/4
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 3/2
B 4/3
C 7/4
D 2
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A Π/16
B Π/32
C Π64
D Πd2/32
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A Decrease
B Increase
C Remain same
Answer increase
Marks 2
Unit
Id
is developed at.
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 2Ml/ EI
B Ml/ EI
C Ml/ 2EI
D 4Ml/EI
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 2
B 1.33
C 1
D 0.75
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 0.8
B 0.75
C 0.67
D 0.5
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A equal to
B 4/3 times
C 1.5 times
D twice
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
false
directions
dimensions
bending
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
D None of these
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
B Linear variation
C Cubic variation
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A Flanges only
B Web only
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
axis.
A 2100N, 3660Nm
B 5400N, 486Nm
C 54000N, 4860Nm
D 54005N, 4865Nm
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 1.814
B 1.184
C 4.481
D 8.142
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question
A BD-bd/6D
B BD2-bd2/6D
C B-b/6D
D None of these
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A f.[π(D4-d4)/32D]
B f.[π(D4-d4)/34D]
C f.[π(D2-d2)/32D]
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 11.20N/mm2; 2.750N/mm2
B 11.02N/mm2; 2.755N/mm2
C 2.755N/mm2; 11.02N/mm2
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 36.0 MPa
B 27.0 MPa
C 24.0 MPa
D 21.0 MPa
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 319 Nm
B 281 Nm
C 267 Nm
D 249 Nm
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 116.4 MPa
B 96.4 MPa
C 106.4 MPa
D 126.4 Mpa
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 2.1 kNm
B 2.4 kNm
C 2.7 kNm
D 3.0 kNm
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 145 MPa
B 135 MPa
C 125 MPa
D 175 MPa
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 7.8 MPa
B 9.8 MPa
C 6.8 MPa
D 8.5 MPa
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
be.
A 240 mm
B 120 mm
C 75 mm
D 60 mm
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 3 N/mm2
B 1.5 N/mm2
C 0.75 N/mm2
D 0.0 N/mm2
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
is.
A 0.5q
B 0.75q
C 0.80q
D None of these
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
is.
A 200 N/mm2
B 100N/mm2
C 50N/mm2
D 25N/mm2
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 100 cm3
B 150 cm3
C 75 cm3
D 50 cm3
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
the section is
A 90 N/mm2
B 80 N/mm2
C 60 N/mm2
D 45 N/mm2
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 500 N/mm2
B 250 N/mm2
C 125 N/mm2
D 50 N/mm2
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 20 N/mm2
B 17 N/mm2
C 14 N/mm2
D 6.667 N/mm2
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 20 KN
B 40 KN
C 80 KN
D 100KN
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 20 MPa
B 40 MPa
C 60 MPa
D 80 MPa
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
be
A 96 MPa
B 48 MPa
C 72 MPa
D 24 MPa
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 63.6 MPa
B 31.8 MPa
C 17.6 MPa
D 0
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0
B 107 MPa
C 110 MPa
D 117 MPa
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 103 kg/cm2
B 2 x 103 kg/cm2
C 4 x 103 kg/cm2
D 6 x 103
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 25 MPa
B 50 MPa
C 64 MPa
D 100 MPa
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
be.
A 240 mm
B 120 mm
C 75 mm
D 60 mm
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A Fmax= 205 N/mm2 ; M= 1605Nm
B Fmax= 120 N/mm2 ; M= 160Nm
C Fmax= 200 N/mm2 ; M= 1600Nm
D Fmax= 1200 N/mm2 ; M= 1600Nm
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit

Subject code-202045
Unit-4
Id
A EIy
B E I (dy / dx)
C E I (d2y / dx2)
D E I (d3y / dx3)
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A EIy
B E I (dy / dx)
C E I (d2y / dx2)
D E I (d3y / dx3)
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A [E I (y/dx4)]
B E I (dy/dx)
C E I (d2y/dx2)
D E I (d3y/dx3)
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question E I (d2y/dx2) = _______________.
A SF
B M
C [- w (x)]
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question E I (dy/dx) = _______________.
A M
B Int[M dx]+ C1
D none of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question E I y = _______________.
A M
B Int[M dx]+ C1
D none of the above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A roller
B hinge
C fixed
D all the above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A roller
B hinge
C fixed
D all the above
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A zero
B maximum
C minimum
D none of the above
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A zero
B maximum
C minimum
D none of the above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A zero
B maximum
C minimum
D none of the above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A zero
B maximum
C minimum
D none of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A zero
B maximum
C minimum
D none of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 0<x<L
B 0 < x < L/2
C L/2 < x < L
D none of the above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 0
B L/2
C 3L/4
D L
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 0
B L/2
C 3L/4
D L/4
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 0
B L/2
C 3L/4
D L/4
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 0
B 3L/4
C more than 3L/4
D less than 3L/4
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A L/3
B L/2
C 3L/4
D L/4
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 0
B L/2
C 3L/4
D L/4
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 0
B L/2
C 3L/4
D L/4
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A W L2 / 2EI
B W L2 / 3EI
C W L3 / 3EI
D W L3 / 6EI
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A W L2 / 2EI
B W L2 / 3EI
C W L3 / 3EI
D W L3 / 6EI
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A w L2 / 2EI
B w L2 / 3EI
C w L3 / 3EI
D w L3 / 6EI
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A w L3 / 3EI
B w L3 / 6EI
C w L3 / 8EI
D w L4 / 8EI
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A W L2 / 16 EI
B W L2 / 30 EI
C W L2 / 24 EI
D W L2 / 48 EI
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Elastic curve
B Parabolic curve
C Plastic curve
D None of above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A w L3 / 3 EI
B w L3 / 6 EI
C w a3 / 3 EI
D w a3 / 6 EI
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A w L3 / 3 EI
B w L3 / 6 EI
C w a3 / 3 EI
D w a3 / 6 EI
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Strain energy
B resilience
C Proof resilience
D toughness
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
D all of the above
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A impact energy
B proof resilience
C proof stress
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A equal to
D independent of
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 5WL3/348EI
B 5WL2/384EI
C 5WL3/384EI
D 5WL2/348EI
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
energy
A Kinetic, strain
B Strain, Kinetic
C Potential, Strain
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Zero
B Infinite
C One
D Less than one
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A E
B GI
C EI
D E/I
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Zeroth
B Fourth
C First
D Second
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
EI d2y/dx2 = ___________.
A (W/2)x | -W(x - (L/2))|
B Wx | -W(x - (L/2))|
C (W/2)x | -W(x - L)|
D (W/2)x | + W(x - (L/2))|
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A (wx)/2 - (wx2 /2 )
B w/2 - (wx2 /2 )
C (wLx)/2 - (wL2 /2 )
D (wLx)/2 - (wx2 /2 )
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
the beam.
A slope
B Bending moment
C deflection
D None of above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
D All of above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
________.
B Shear force only
D None of above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 11 W L4 / 120 EI
B W L3 / 30 EI
C W L3 / 24 EI
D W L4 / 48 EI
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A w L3 / 8EI
B w L3 / 6EI
C w L3 / 24EI
D w L4 / 6EI
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A w L3 / 8EI
B w L4 / 8EI
C w L3 / 24EI
D 5 w L4 / 384EI
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A positive
B negative
D None of above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A positive
B negative
D None of above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
end is _________.
A negative
B positive
D None of above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
end is _________.
A Negative
B Positive
D None of above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A positive
B negative
C zero
D Can't say
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A to stop the watch
B to run the watch
D all of these
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
'B' is
A 1/8
B 1/4
C 1/2
D 2
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A M
B √M
C M²
D M³
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A same
B double
C four times
D six times
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A one-fourth
B one-half
C double
D four times
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
d2y/dx2 = ____________________.
A M0
B (-M0)
C (-M0 / L) x | + M0(x - (L/2))2 |
D (M0 / L) x | - M0(x - (L/2))2 |
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.25
B 2
C 4
D 48
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
__________mm.
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 16
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
________˚.
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 32
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.25
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.52
B 0.72
C 0
D 5.2
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.0018˚
B 0.0018 radian
C 0.72˚
D 0.72 radian
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.01
B 10
C 4
D 16
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
be________mm.
A 2
B 4
C 8
D 16
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
be________mm.
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
be________mm.
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
be________mm.
A 0.25
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
be________mm.
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.25
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
_______˚.
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.00167˚
B 0.00167 radian
C 0.72˚
D 0.72 radian
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
_________ mm.
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
_________ mm.
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
_________ mm.
A 0.25
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
_________ mm.
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1.33
B 13.33
C 0.13
D 133.33
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
________mm.
A 0.01
B 10
C 1
D 4
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
will be _________ mm.
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
will be _________ mm.
A 2
B 4
C 8
D 16
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.25
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 3/8
B 3/4
C 4/3
D 8/3
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 8
B 4
C 1/4
D 1/16
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A W2l3/48EI
B W2l3/96EI
C W3l2/48EI
D W3l3/96EI
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A W2l3/48EI
B W2l3/96EI
C W3l2/48EI
D W3l3/96EI
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 5/8
B 8/5
C 5/4
D 4/5
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 2:3
B 3:2
C 1:2
D 2:1
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A M0 L2 / EI
B M0 L2 / 2EI
C 2M0 L2 / EI
D 0
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
end is ________.
A M0 L / EI
B M0 L / 2EI
C 2M0 L / EI
D 0
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A M0 / EI
B M0 L / 24 EI
C M0 L / EI
D M0 L2 / 24 EI
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
deflection is
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
increase by
A 8
B 1/8
C 1/3
D 2
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A b/d
B d/b
C (d/b)2
D (b/d)2
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question
A -Px(3L-x)/6EI
B Px2(3L-x)/6EI
C -Px(3L-x)/6EI
D -Px2(3L-x)/6EI
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question

A PL2/6EI
B PL2/32EI
C PL2/16EI
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
B U = Int. (M2/2GI)
C U = Int. (M/2EJL)
D U = Int. (M/EI)
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question

A U = T2/2GJL
B U = T2/2EI
C U = T/2GJL
D U = T/EI
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question

A P12L3/6E
B P12L3/6EI
C PL/AE
D P12L/6EI
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A positeve
B Negative
C Zero
D None of the above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
support will be
A positeve
B Negative
C Zero
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
midspan will be

C Zero
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Positive
B Negetive
C Zero
D All of above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Positive
B Negetive
C Zero
D All of above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id

C Zero
D All of above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 64/3EI
B 32/3EI
C 8/3EI
D None of these
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
will be __________ mm.
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
__________.
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 32
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
__________.
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 32
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
_________˚.
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
_________˚.
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 2
B 4
C 16
D 32
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 0.25
C 4
D 32
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
m will be _______˚.
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
m will be _______˚.
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1.25
B 0.72
C 0
D 5.2
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
will be ______mm.
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 32
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 32
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 2
B 4
C 16
D 32
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 0.25
C 4
D 32
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
the beam is.
A 1 mm
B 2 mm
C 2.5 mm
D None of these
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 4
B 2
C 1
D 0.25
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 16 mm
B 5 mm
C 2 mm
D 1 mm
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 36/EI
B 27/EI
C 18/EI
D 9/EI
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 6y
B 4y
C 2y
D 1/4y
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 26 mm
B 52 mm
C 2.6 mm
D 10 mm
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
the ratio of
A 8
B 1/8
C 1/2
D 2
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 2 times
B 4 times
C 8 times
D 1/2 times
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A WL
B
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.057 rad
B 0.067 rad
C 0.077 rad
D 0.087 rad
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 53.3 mm
B 63.3 mm
C 73.3 mm
D 83.3 mm
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1.7 mm
B 1.8 mm
C 1.9 mm
D 2.0 mm
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.0166mm
B 1.666mm
C 0.00166mm
D 1.666m
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.133 mm
B 1.333 mm
C 0.00133 mm
D 1.333 m
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 2 mm
B 0.0002 m
C 0.02 mm
D 2m
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.63
B 1.6
C 0.8
D 1.25
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
for that section

Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Subject code-202045
Unit-1
D Any one of above
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A mm/mm
B N/cm
C N
D N/cm2
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Strain
B Lateral strain
C Linear strain
D Linear stress
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
is called
B Tensile stress
C Transverse stress
D Working stress
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Ideal material
B Uniform material
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Same
B More
C Less
D Unpredictable
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
the
D None of above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Unit stress
B Bulk modulus
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Surface tension
B Bulk modulus
C strain
D elasticity
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Plasticity
B elasticity
C ductility
D malleability
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Homogeneous
B Inelastic
C Isotropic
D Isentropic
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Plasticity
B Ductility
C elasticity
D malleability
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Poisson’s ratio
B Bulk modulus
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A Remains constant
B Varies with time
D None of these
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
A Elastic limit
D None of these
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
A Hooks law
B Yield point
C Proof stress
D Permanent set
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit A
Id
D None of the above
Answer D
Marks 2
U
Id
A Not deform
B Be safest
C Stretch
D Not stretch
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Young's modulus
B Bulk modulus
D Poisson's ratio
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit A
Id
A 1 to -0.5
B 1 to +0.5
C 0 to +0.5
D 0 to -0.5
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 10 kN/mm2
B 80 kN/mm2
C 100 kN/mm2
D 210 kN/mm2
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Pa
B Kgf/mm2
C Tonne/m2
D any one of these
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A equal to
B less than
C greater than
D Nearly equal to
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A ductile
B brittle
C malleable
D plastic
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 0.1 to 0.9
B 0.05 to 0.1
C 1 to 10
D 0.25 to 0.35
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 1
B 2
C 3
D 4
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
D Equal to strain
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Unit stress
C Bulk modulus
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Plastic limit
B Elastic limit
C Yield point
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A point of failure
B point of rupture
C yield point
D none of these
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A plastic range
B elastic range
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A The same
B One fourth
C Half
D Double
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id

Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Decrease
B Increase
C Remains same
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Young's modulus
B Shear modulus
C Poisson’s ratio
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Cast iron
B Mild steel
C Soft brass
D Aluminum
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Yield strength
C Elastic limit
D Tensile strength
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Two
B Three
C Four
D Six
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Elastic limit
C Ultimate stress
D Breaking point
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
upon the
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 0.7 Nm
B 1.0 Nm
C 1.4 Nm
D 2.8 Nm
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
in length would be
A P/LAE
B PE/AL
C PL/AE
D AL/PE
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
would be
A 0.5
B 0.4
C 0.3
D 1
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 0.66
B 0.33
C 1.33
D 1
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id

Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
incresead
A Increased
B Decreased
C Remains constant
D Either A or B
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Stress to strain
D All of these
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 4PL/πEd2 d1
B 4πEd2 d1 /PL
C 4PE/πLd2 d1
D None of above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Larger end
B Smaller end
C Middle
D anywhere
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
material will be
A Same
B Zero
C Different
D None of above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
will induce
A no stress
B shear stress
C tensile stress
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A no stress
B shear stress
C tensile stress
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A elastic limit
B yield point
C ultimate point
D breaking point
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
D none of these
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
B Upper yield point
C Lower yield point
D Ultimate point
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A doubled
B remain unaffected
C become one-fourth
D become four times
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
the
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 50.00%
B 0.00%
C 10.00%
D 20.00%
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
D none of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 4 kN/cm2
B 8 kN/cm2
C 16 kN/cm2
D None of above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A half
B same
C One third
D One
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A plasticity
B elasticity
C malleability
D ductility
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Steel
B Copper
C Brass
D none of the above
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
called
A reliability
B plasticity
C ductility
D malleability
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A breaking stress
D maximum stress
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A -0.01
B +0.01
C +0.001
D -0.001
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A +0.001 mm
B +0.01mm
C - 0.01 mm
D - 0.001 mm
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A original length
D All of these
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 4 x 10-4
B 2 x 10-4
C 8 x 10-4
D 4 x 10-4
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 50 Pa
B 500 Pa
C 50 MPa
D 500 MPa
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A Doubled
B Half
C Become four time
D Remain unaffected
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
D None of above
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A D1+ d2
B 1/( d1+d2 )
C d1d2
D 1/( d1d2)
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
strains in bar is
A 100* l/L
B 0.1*l/L
C 0.01*l /L
D l/L
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Answer D
Marks 2
--Unit --
Id
A (d1+d2)/2
B (d1-d2)/2
C √( d1d2)
D √(d12-d22)
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
2.Temperature rise
A 1 and 2 only
B 1 and 3 only
C 2 and 3 only
D 1, 2 and 3 only
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 1.25 mm
B 2.70 mm
C 4.05 mm
D 5.40 mm
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A Young's modulus
B Shear modulus
C Poisson's ratio
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 2G(1+ μ )
B 2G(1 − μ )
C 0.5G(1+ μ )
D 0.5G(1 − μ )
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A E = 3 K (1 − 2μ )
B K = 3 E (1 − 2μ )
C E = 3 K (1 − μ )
D K = 3 E (1 − μ )
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 3
C 1, 2 and 4
D 1, 3 and 4
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
least
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A wl3 /6E
B wl3 /E
C wl3 /4E
D wl3 /3E
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
ratio will
A Increase
B Decrease
C Remain same
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 9KG/(K+G)
B 9KG/(G+3K)
C 9KG/(K+3G)
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A wL2/2E
B WL2/6E
C wL2/8E
D wL/8E
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A equal to
B less than
C more than
D Nearly equal to
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A equal to half
B less than half
C more than half
D none of these
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A WL/AE
B 2WL/AE
C WL/2AE
D None of these
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
will be
A 10
B 25
C 33
D 50
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 2
B 4
C 0.5
D 0.25
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit D1
Id
A 1/7
B 2/7
C 3/7
D 4/7
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 0.12
B 0.25
C 0.38
D 0.5
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
called
B Tensile stress
D Working stress.
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A (3σ/E)*(1+ν)
B (3σ/E)*(1-ν)
C (3σ/E)*(1+2ν)
D (3σ/E)*(1-2ν)
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
test would be
A More than 50 %
B 25-50 %
C 10-25 %
D Negligible
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A Same
B Half
C One third
D Double
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A Half
B Double
C Same
D One third
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
3
Id
A 0.01 to 0.1
B 0.25 to 0.33
C 0.4 to 0.6
D 0.23 to 0.27
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A Creeping
B Yielding
C Breaking
D None of above
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
removed.
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
below the Lists:
A A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
B A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
C A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
D A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
a test?
2. Yield stress
3. Ductility
4. Tensile strength
A 1, 3, 5 and 6
B 2, 3, 4 and 6
C 1, 2, 5 and 6
D 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
as heat
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 1:4
B 4:1
C 1:2
D 2:1
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A Linear Elastic
B Linear plastic
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A Linear Elastic
B Linear plastic
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A Cast iron
B Mild Steel
C Aluminum
D Pure copper
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A Cast iron
B Mild Steel
C Aluminum
D Pure copper
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A Cast iron
B Mild Steel
C Aluminum
D Pure copper
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Elastic limit
B Upper yield point
C Lower yield point
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 0.4e
B 0.6e
C 3e
D 1.6 e
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
increase
A eight times
B four times
C three times
D two times
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 3.75
B 3
C 2.5
D 1.5
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 8 x 106 N/mm2
B 8 x 105 N/mm2
C 0.8 x 104 N/mm2
D 0.8 x 105 N/mm2

Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 8 x 106 N/mm2
B 8 x 105 N/mm2
C 0.8 x 104 N/mm2
D 0.8 x 105 N/mm2

Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
will be
A 1/1000
B 1/1200
C 1/2400
D 1/4800
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
ratio is
A 0.25
B 0.30
C 0.33
D 0.35
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 0.25
B 0.326
C 0.356
D 0.28
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 2
B 4
C 1/2
D 1/4
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 50 kN/mm2
B 100 kN/mm2
C 150 kN/mm2
D 200 kN/mm2
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 2.5
B 1.6
C 0.8
D 0.4
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
direction is
A 1.2
B 1.8
C 2.4
D 3.0
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 2 mm
B 0.2 mm
C 0.02 mm
D 0.01 mm
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 250 N/mm2
B 100 N/mm2
C 50 N/mm2
D 25 N/mm2
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A equal to
B less than
C greater than
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 750 N/mm2
B 600 N/mm2
C 500 N/mm2
D None of these
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
specimen is
A 4 tonnes/cm2
B 8 tonnes/cm2
C 16 tonnes/cm2
D 22 tonnes/cm2
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 1000 mm3
B 100 mm3
C 10 mm3
D 5 mm3
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 12 kN
B 6 kN
C 4 kN
D 2 kN
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 300 N/mm2
B 100 N/mm2
C 50 N/mm2
D 33.33 N/mm2
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 1
B 0.5
C 2
D 25
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Question
be....
A 0.0725 mm
B 0.7025 mm
C 0.7025 cm
D 1.7025 mm
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question

Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A 12.73 N/m2
B 12.73 MN/m
C 12.73 MN/m2
D 12.73 KN/m2
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A 88.42 N/m2
B 88.42 GN/m2
C 88.42 KN/m2
D 88.42 MN/m2
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A 9.1777 x10-5 cm
B 9.1777 x10-5m
C 9.1777 x10-5mm
D 9.1777 x10-3mm
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --

Subject code-202045
Unit-2
Id
A n=m
B n>m
C n<m
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A n=m
B n>m
C n<m
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Linear
B Parabolic
C Cubic
D Constant
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Linear
B Parabolic
C Cubic
D constant
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Linear
B Parabolic
C Cubic
D constant
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Linear
B Parabolic
C Cubic
D constant
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Linear
B Parabolic
C Cubic
D constant
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Linear
B Parabolic
C Cubic
D constant
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A SF is zero
B SF is maximum
C BM is zero
D BM is maximum
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Middle
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A UDL
B UVL
C Point load
D moment
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Cantilever beam
B Overhanging beam
D Uniform beam
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A is maximum
B is minimum
C is equal
D is zero
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
B fixed beam
C overhanging beam
D cantilever beam
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
B fixed beam
C overhanging beam
D continuous beam
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A WL
B WL/2
C WL/4
D WL/8
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A wL/2 kNm
B wL2/2 kNm
C wL3/2 kNm
D wL2/4 kNm
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A wL/2 kNm
B wL2/2 kNm
C wL3/2 kNm
D wL2/4 kNm
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 40 kNm
B 80 kNm
C 20 kNm
D 60 kNm
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
B One rectangle
D A triangle
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
C varies linearly
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A cubic law
B parabolic law
C linear law
D none of these
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A cubic law
B parabolic law
C linear law
D none of these
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
load is
A wl2/4
B wl2/8
C wl2/12
D wl/4
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
the
A free end
B mid span
C fixed end
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A cubic law
B parabolic law
C linear law
D uniform law
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A cubic law
B parabolic law
C linear law
D uniform law
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A cubic law
B parabolic law
C linear law
D uniform law
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
end is
A triangle
B rectangle
C parabola
D elliptical
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A zero
B also maximum
C minimum
D of any value
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
of the beam.
B length
C width
D depth
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
_____.
A disc
B strut
C column
D beam
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A inclined
B parallel
C normal
D none of the above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
D All of above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A width
B length
C depth
D cross-section
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Bending moment
B Loading
C Deflection
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
length is a
A Triangle
B Rectangle
C Hyperbola
D Parabola
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
B remains same
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
there is a

Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A a horizontal line
B a vertical line
C an inclined line
D a parabolic curve
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A zero
B wl2/2
C wl2/4
D wl2/8
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id

Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
there is a

Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
there is a

Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A P*(L-a) * a/L
B P*(L-a) * b/L
C P*(L-a) /L
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A P
B P/2
C 3P/5
D 2P/5
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
is maximum SF ?
A w*L
B w*L/2
C 2*w*L
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
is minimum SF ?
A w*L
B w*L/2
C Zero
D None of the above
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A fixed end
B free end
C middle
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A fixed end
B free end
C middle
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
is maximum BM?
A w*L*L
B w*L*L/2
C Zero
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A fixed end
B free end
C middle
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question LOAD SFD
1 POINT LOAD A ZERO
2 UDL B PARABOLIC
3 UVL C LINEAR
4 MOMENT D CONSTANT
Match the pairs
A 1-A; 2-C;3-B;4-D
B 1-D; 2-C;3-B;4-A
C 1-A; 2-B;3-C;4-D
D 1-D; 2-B;3-C;4-A
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question LOAD BMD
2 UDL B CUBIC
3 UVL C PARABOLIC
4 MOMENT D LINEAR
Match the pairs
A 1-A; 2-C;3-B;4-D
B 1-D; 2-C;3-B;4-A
C 1-A; 2-B;3-C;4-D
D 1-D; 2-B;3-C;4-A
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A fixed beam
C continuous beam
D overhanging beam
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A Triangle
B Rectangle
C Parabolic
D hyperbolic
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A Free end
B Under the load
C Fixed end
D middle
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
ID
A 4
B -4.33
C -5.33
D 6.33
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 270
B 80
C 45
D 607.5
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 8
B 1
C 4
D 2
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
will be …
A 10
B 52
C 6
D 24
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A 72 kN-m
B 8 kN-m
C 60 kN-m
D 104 kN-m
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A 126 kN-m
B 12 kN-m
C 18 kN-m
D 180 kN-m
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A at point C
C at point D
D at point B
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question

B at point C
C at point B
D at point D
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A at point A
C at point E
D at point B
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A 90 kN
B 6 kN
C 27 kN
D 30 kN
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A 90 kN
B 6 kN
C 27 kN
D 30 kN
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 90 kN-m
B 540 kN-m
C 180 kN-m
D 18 kN-m
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
d
A PL/3
B 2PL/3
C PL/9
D 2PL/9
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A M/L
B M/L/2
C Zero
D M
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A M at fixed end
B M at free end
C M at middle
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A PL
B PL/2
C PL/4
D 2PL
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A 3 kN
B 1.5 kN
C 1 kN
D 2.25 kN
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A W*L
B W*L/2
C 2W*L
D W/L
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A W*L^2
B W*L^2/2
C 2W*L^2
D W*L/2
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A W*L
B W*L/2
C 2W*L
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A W*L*L
B W*L*L/2
C W*L*L/8
D None of the above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
is
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
d
Question
A M/L
B M/L/2
C 2M/L
D Zero
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A M
B M/2
C 2M
D Zero
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question

C Middle section
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A PL
B 2PL
C zero
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A DA
B AB
C BC
D DC
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A P
B P/2
C P/4
D 2P
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A AB
B BC
C AC
D CAN'T SAY
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A AB
B BC
C AC
D CAN'T SAY
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A 100 N
B 60 N
C 40N
D 50 N
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A 100 Nm
B 300 Nm
C 200 Nm
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 50
B 40
C 30
D 20
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
as follows
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A A circular arc
B A parabolic arc
C Elliptical shape
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
cantilever is
A 0 kN-m
B 50 kN-m
C 25 kN-m
D 100 kN-m
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 30 kN-m
B 20 kN-m
C 10 kN-m
D 5 kN-m
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 120 kN
B 60 kN
C 30 kN
D 15 kN
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
the magnitude of W
A 700 kN
B 750 kN
C 800 kN
D 1000 kN
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A The support
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 120 kN-m
B 100 kN-m
C 80 kN-m
D 60 kN-m
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 5wN
B 3wN
C wN
D 0
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 125 kN
B 105 kN
C 50 kN
D 5 kN
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A zero
B wl/4
C wl/2
D wl
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
support?
A 24 kN
B 20 kN
C 16 kN
D 12 kN
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 72.5 kNm
B 52.5 kNm
C 37.5 kNm
D 47.5 kNm
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
support?
A 90 kN-m
B 80 kN-m
C 70 kN-m
D 60 kN-m
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
left support?
A 3.0 m
B 2.25 m
C 2.5 m
D 1.5 m
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 0 kN-m
B 10 kN-m
C 12.5 kN-m
D 25 kN-m
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 3.6 kN-m
B 1.8 kN-m
C 1 kN-m
D 0 kN-m
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A 4 kN-m
B 2.8 kN-m
C 3.2 kN-m
D 3 kN-m
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
of ___________.
A 1 m from C
B 0.75 m from C
C 2 m from B
D 3 m from A
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 1.2 m from D
B 3.2 m from C
C 1.2 m from C
D 3 m from B
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
AB is _______.
A 4 kN-m
B 18 kN-m
C 36 kN-m
D 2.25 kN-m
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 2.67 m from C
B 1 m from B
C 3 m from A
D 2.67 m from A
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 1.5 m from A
B 0.33 m from A
C 1.33 m from A
D 1 m from A
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --

Subject code-202045
Unit-3
Id
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Maximum
B Minimum
C Zero
D None of them
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Upper fiber
B Lower fiber
C Neutral axis
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
C Both A and B
D None of A and B
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A Linear
B Parabolic
C Cubic
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
C Not related
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Increases
B Decreases
C Remain constant
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A bd^3/6
B bd^2/6
C bd^3/12
D bd^2/12
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
A πd^3/64
B πd^3/32
C πd^2/64
D πd^2/32
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
D None of the above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Constant
B Parabolic
C Cubic
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A Increases
B Decreases
C Remain constant
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Constant
B Parabolic
C Cubic
D Linear
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Outer fibers
B Neutral axis
C Everywhere
D None of above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Outer fibers
B Neutral axis
C Everywhere
D None of above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
D None of these
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A πd4 /64
B πd2 /32
C πd2 /64
D πd4 /32
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Neutral axis
B Extreme fibre
D None of these
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Rectangular
B Circular
C I – section
D None of these
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
will …
A Increase by 50%
B Decrease by 50%
C Increase by 25%
D Decrease by 25%
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Shear modulus
B Bulk modulus
C elastic modulus
D section modulus
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
develop at ....
A Bottom fiber
B Top fiber
C Neutral axis
D Center of gravity
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
A M/Y = E/R
B Y/M=E/R
C M/I = E/R
D M/R=E/I
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
A σb(max)/E
B M/σb(max)
C σb(max)/M
D M/I
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
A I/σbmax
B ymax/I
C σbmax/I
D I/ymax
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id

Answer B
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id

D None of above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
A Continuous beam
B Fixed beam
D None of above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id

Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id

C At the NA
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id

C At the NA
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
A Poisson's ratio
C Modular ratio
D Nodular ratio
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id

Answer D
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
A wL/8
B wL2/8
C wL3/8
D wL2/12
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
be …
A 5 F/(2bd)
B 3 F/(2bd)
C 3 F/(4bd)
D 2 F/(3bd)
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1:8
B 8:1
C 1:2
D 2:1
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1:8
B 8:1
C 1:2
D 2:1
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A to section B?
A 1:8
B 8:1
C 1:4
D 4:1
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
will …
A Increase by 50%
B Decrease by 50%
C Increase by 25%
D Decrease by 25%
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A D²/10
B D³/10
C D4/10
D D4/20
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
to
A (4/5) t d2
B (4/5) t2 d2
C (4/5) d t2
D (5/4) t d2
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A moment of inertia
B stress
C strain
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A M
B M/2
C M/3
D M/4
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 3/2
B 4/3
C 7/4
D 2
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A Π/16
B Π/32
C Π64
D Πd2/32
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A Decrease
B Increase
C Remain same
Answer increase
Marks 2
Unit
Id
is developed at.
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 2Ml/ EI
B Ml/ EI
C Ml/ 2EI
D 4Ml/EI
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 2
B 1.33
C 1
D 0.75
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 0.8
B 0.75
C 0.67
D 0.5
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A equal to
B 4/3 times
C 1.5 times
D twice
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
false
directions
dimensions
bending
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
D None of these
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
B Linear variation
C Cubic variation
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A Flanges only
B Web only
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
axis.
A 2100N, 3660Nm
B 5400N, 486Nm
C 54000N, 4860Nm
D 54005N, 4865Nm
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 1.814
B 1.184
C 4.481
D 8.142
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question
A BD-bd/6D
B BD2-bd2/6D
C B-b/6D
D None of these
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A f.[π(D4-d4)/32D]
B f.[π(D4-d4)/34D]
C f.[π(D2-d2)/32D]
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 11.20N/mm2; 2.750N/mm2
B 11.02N/mm2; 2.755N/mm2
C 2.755N/mm2; 11.02N/mm2
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 36.0 MPa
B 27.0 MPa
C 24.0 MPa
D 21.0 MPa
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 319 Nm
B 281 Nm
C 267 Nm
D 249 Nm
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 116.4 MPa
B 96.4 MPa
C 106.4 MPa
D 126.4 Mpa
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 2.1 kNm
B 2.4 kNm
C 2.7 kNm
D 3.0 kNm
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 145 MPa
B 135 MPa
C 125 MPa
D 175 MPa
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 7.8 MPa
B 9.8 MPa
C 6.8 MPa
D 8.5 MPa
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
be.
A 240 mm
B 120 mm
C 75 mm
D 60 mm
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 3 N/mm2
B 1.5 N/mm2
C 0.75 N/mm2
D 0.0 N/mm2
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
is.
A 0.5q
B 0.75q
C 0.80q
D None of these
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
is.
A 200 N/mm2
B 100N/mm2
C 50N/mm2
D 25N/mm2
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 100 cm3
B 150 cm3
C 75 cm3
D 50 cm3
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
the section is
A 90 N/mm2
B 80 N/mm2
C 60 N/mm2
D 45 N/mm2
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 500 N/mm2
B 250 N/mm2
C 125 N/mm2
D 50 N/mm2
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 20 N/mm2
B 17 N/mm2
C 14 N/mm2
D 6.667 N/mm2
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 20 KN
B 40 KN
C 80 KN
D 100KN
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 20 MPa
B 40 MPa
C 60 MPa
D 80 MPa
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
be
A 96 MPa
B 48 MPa
C 72 MPa
D 24 MPa
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 63.6 MPa
B 31.8 MPa
C 17.6 MPa
D 0
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0
B 107 MPa
C 110 MPa
D 117 MPa
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 103 kg/cm2
B 2 x 103 kg/cm2
C 4 x 103 kg/cm2
D 6 x 103
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 25 MPa
B 50 MPa
C 64 MPa
D 100 MPa
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
be.
A 240 mm
B 120 mm
C 75 mm
D 60 mm
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A Fmax= 205 N/mm2 ; M= 1605Nm
B Fmax= 120 N/mm2 ; M= 160Nm
C Fmax= 200 N/mm2 ; M= 1600Nm
D Fmax= 1200 N/mm2 ; M= 1600Nm
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit

Subject code-202045
Unit-4
Id
A EIy
B E I (dy / dx)
C E I (d2y / dx2)
D E I (d3y / dx3)
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A EIy
B E I (dy / dx)
C E I (d2y / dx2)
D E I (d3y / dx3)
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A [E I (y/dx4)]
B E I (dy/dx)
C E I (d2y/dx2)
D E I (d3y/dx3)
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question E I (d2y/dx2) = _______________.
A SF
B M
C [- w (x)]
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question E I (dy/dx) = _______________.
A M
B Int[M dx]+ C1
D none of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question E I y = _______________.
A M
B Int[M dx]+ C1
D none of the above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A roller
B hinge
C fixed
D all the above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A roller
B hinge
C fixed
D all the above
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A zero
B maximum
C minimum
D none of the above
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A zero
B maximum
C minimum
D none of the above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A zero
B maximum
C minimum
D none of the above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A zero
B maximum
C minimum
D none of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A zero
B maximum
C minimum
D none of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 0<x<L
B 0 < x < L/2
C L/2 < x < L
D none of the above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 0
B L/2
C 3L/4
D L
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 0
B L/2
C 3L/4
D L/4
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 0
B L/2
C 3L/4
D L/4
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 0
B 3L/4
C more than 3L/4
D less than 3L/4
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A L/3
B L/2
C 3L/4
D L/4
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 0
B L/2
C 3L/4
D L/4
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 0
B L/2
C 3L/4
D L/4
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A W L2 / 2EI
B W L2 / 3EI
C W L3 / 3EI
D W L3 / 6EI
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A W L2 / 2EI
B W L2 / 3EI
C W L3 / 3EI
D W L3 / 6EI
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A w L2 / 2EI
B w L2 / 3EI
C w L3 / 3EI
D w L3 / 6EI
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A w L3 / 3EI
B w L3 / 6EI
C w L3 / 8EI
D w L4 / 8EI
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A W L2 / 16 EI
B W L2 / 30 EI
C W L2 / 24 EI
D W L2 / 48 EI
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Elastic curve
B Parabolic curve
C Plastic curve
D None of above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A w L3 / 3 EI
B w L3 / 6 EI
C w a3 / 3 EI
D w a3 / 6 EI
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A w L3 / 3 EI
B w L3 / 6 EI
C w a3 / 3 EI
D w a3 / 6 EI
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Strain energy
B resilience
C Proof resilience
D toughness
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
D all of the above
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A impact energy
B proof resilience
C proof stress
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A equal to
D independent of
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 5WL3/348EI
B 5WL2/384EI
C 5WL3/384EI
D 5WL2/348EI
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
energy
A Kinetic, strain
B Strain, Kinetic
C Potential, Strain
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Zero
B Infinite
C One
D Less than one
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A E
B GI
C EI
D E/I
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Zeroth
B Fourth
C First
D Second
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
EI d2y/dx2 = ___________.
A (W/2)x | -W(x - (L/2))|
B Wx | -W(x - (L/2))|
C (W/2)x | -W(x - L)|
D (W/2)x | + W(x - (L/2))|
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A (wx)/2 - (wx2 /2 )
B w/2 - (wx2 /2 )
C (wLx)/2 - (wL2 /2 )
D (wLx)/2 - (wx2 /2 )
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
the beam.
A slope
B Bending moment
C deflection
D None of above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
D All of above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
________.
B Shear force only
D None of above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 11 W L4 / 120 EI
B W L3 / 30 EI
C W L3 / 24 EI
D W L4 / 48 EI
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A w L3 / 8EI
B w L3 / 6EI
C w L3 / 24EI
D w L4 / 6EI
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A w L3 / 8EI
B w L4 / 8EI
C w L3 / 24EI
D 5 w L4 / 384EI
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A positive
B negative
D None of above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A positive
B negative
D None of above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
end is _________.
A negative
B positive
D None of above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
end is _________.
A Negative
B Positive
D None of above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A positive
B negative
C zero
D Can't say
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A to stop the watch
B to run the watch
D all of these
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
'B' is
A 1/8
B 1/4
C 1/2
D 2
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A M
B √M
C M²
D M³
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A same
B double
C four times
D six times
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A one-fourth
B one-half
C double
D four times
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
d2y/dx2 = ____________________.
A M0
B (-M0)
C (-M0 / L) x | + M0(x - (L/2))2 |
D (M0 / L) x | - M0(x - (L/2))2 |
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.25
B 2
C 4
D 48
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
__________mm.
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 16
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
________˚.
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 32
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.25
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.52
B 0.72
C 0
D 5.2
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.0018˚
B 0.0018 radian
C 0.72˚
D 0.72 radian
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.01
B 10
C 4
D 16
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
be________mm.
A 2
B 4
C 8
D 16
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
be________mm.
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
be________mm.
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
be________mm.
A 0.25
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
be________mm.
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.25
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
_______˚.
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.00167˚
B 0.00167 radian
C 0.72˚
D 0.72 radian
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
_________ mm.
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
_________ mm.
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
_________ mm.
A 0.25
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
_________ mm.
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1.33
B 13.33
C 0.13
D 133.33
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
________mm.
A 0.01
B 10
C 1
D 4
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
will be _________ mm.
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
will be _________ mm.
A 2
B 4
C 8
D 16
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.25
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 3/8
B 3/4
C 4/3
D 8/3
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 8
B 4
C 1/4
D 1/16
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A W2l3/48EI
B W2l3/96EI
C W3l2/48EI
D W3l3/96EI
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A W2l3/48EI
B W2l3/96EI
C W3l2/48EI
D W3l3/96EI
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 5/8
B 8/5
C 5/4
D 4/5
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 2:3
B 3:2
C 1:2
D 2:1
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A M0 L2 / EI
B M0 L2 / 2EI
C 2M0 L2 / EI
D 0
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
end is ________.
A M0 L / EI
B M0 L / 2EI
C 2M0 L / EI
D 0
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A M0 / EI
B M0 L / 24 EI
C M0 L / EI
D M0 L2 / 24 EI
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
deflection is
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
increase by
A 8
B 1/8
C 1/3
D 2
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A b/d
B d/b
C (d/b)2
D (b/d)2
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question
A -Px(3L-x)/6EI
B Px2(3L-x)/6EI
C -Px(3L-x)/6EI
D -Px2(3L-x)/6EI
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question

A PL2/6EI
B PL2/32EI
C PL2/16EI
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
B U = Int. (M2/2GI)
C U = Int. (M/2EJL)
D U = Int. (M/EI)
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question

A U = T2/2GJL
B U = T2/2EI
C U = T/2GJL
D U = T/EI
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question

A P12L3/6E
B P12L3/6EI
C PL/AE
D P12L/6EI
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A positeve
B Negative
C Zero
D None of the above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
support will be
A positeve
B Negative
C Zero
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
midspan will be

C Zero
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Positive
B Negetive
C Zero
D All of above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Positive
B Negetive
C Zero
D All of above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id

C Zero
D All of above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 64/3EI
B 32/3EI
C 8/3EI
D None of these
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
will be __________ mm.
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
__________.
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 32
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
__________.
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 32
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
_________˚.
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
_________˚.
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 2
B 4
C 16
D 32
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 0.25
C 4
D 32
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
m will be _______˚.
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
m will be _______˚.
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1.25
B 0.72
C 0
D 5.2
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
will be ______mm.
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 32
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 32
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 2
B 4
C 16
D 32
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 0.25
C 4
D 32
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
the beam is.
A 1 mm
B 2 mm
C 2.5 mm
D None of these
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 4
B 2
C 1
D 0.25
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 16 mm
B 5 mm
C 2 mm
D 1 mm
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 36/EI
B 27/EI
C 18/EI
D 9/EI
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 6y
B 4y
C 2y
D 1/4y
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 26 mm
B 52 mm
C 2.6 mm
D 10 mm
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
the ratio of
A 8
B 1/8
C 1/2
D 2
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 2 times
B 4 times
C 8 times
D 1/2 times
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A WL
B
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.057 rad
B 0.067 rad
C 0.077 rad
D 0.087 rad
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 53.3 mm
B 63.3 mm
C 73.3 mm
D 83.3 mm
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1.7 mm
B 1.8 mm
C 1.9 mm
D 2.0 mm
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.0166mm
B 1.666mm
C 0.00166mm
D 1.666m
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.133 mm
B 1.333 mm
C 0.00133 mm
D 1.333 m
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 2 mm
B 0.0002 m
C 0.02 mm
D 2m
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.63
B 1.6
C 0.8
D 1.25
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
for that section

Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Subject code-202045
Unit-1
D Any one of above
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A mm/mm
B N/cm
C N
D N/cm2
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Strain
B Lateral strain
C Linear strain
D Linear stress
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
is called
B Tensile stress
C Transverse stress
D Working stress
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Ideal material
B Uniform material
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Same
B More
C Less
D Unpredictable
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
the
D None of above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Unit stress
B Bulk modulus
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Surface tension
B Bulk modulus
C strain
D elasticity
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Plasticity
B elasticity
C ductility
D malleability
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Homogeneous
B Inelastic
C Isotropic
D Isentropic
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Plasticity
B Ductility
C elasticity
D malleability
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Poisson’s ratio
B Bulk modulus
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A Remains constant
B Varies with time
D None of these
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
A Elastic limit
D None of these
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
A Hooks law
B Yield point
C Proof stress
D Permanent set
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit A
Id
D None of the above
Answer D
Marks 2
U
Id
A Not deform
B Be safest
C Stretch
D Not stretch
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Young's modulus
B Bulk modulus
D Poisson's ratio
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit A
Id
A 1 to -0.5
B 1 to +0.5
C 0 to +0.5
D 0 to -0.5
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 10 kN/mm2
B 80 kN/mm2
C 100 kN/mm2
D 210 kN/mm2
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Pa
B Kgf/mm2
C Tonne/m2
D any one of these
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A equal to
B less than
C greater than
D Nearly equal to
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A ductile
B brittle
C malleable
D plastic
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 0.1 to 0.9
B 0.05 to 0.1
C 1 to 10
D 0.25 to 0.35
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 1
B 2
C 3
D 4
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
D Equal to strain
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Unit stress
C Bulk modulus
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Plastic limit
B Elastic limit
C Yield point
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A point of failure
B point of rupture
C yield point
D none of these
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A plastic range
B elastic range
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A The same
B One fourth
C Half
D Double
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id

Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Decrease
B Increase
C Remains same
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Young's modulus
B Shear modulus
C Poisson’s ratio
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Cast iron
B Mild steel
C Soft brass
D Aluminum
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Yield strength
C Elastic limit
D Tensile strength
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Two
B Three
C Four
D Six
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Elastic limit
C Ultimate stress
D Breaking point
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
upon the
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 0.7 Nm
B 1.0 Nm
C 1.4 Nm
D 2.8 Nm
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
in length would be
A P/LAE
B PE/AL
C PL/AE
D AL/PE
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
would be
A 0.5
B 0.4
C 0.3
D 1
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 0.66
B 0.33
C 1.33
D 1
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id

Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
incresead
A Increased
B Decreased
C Remains constant
D Either A or B
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Stress to strain
D All of these
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 4PL/πEd2 d1
B 4πEd2 d1 /PL
C 4PE/πLd2 d1
D None of above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Larger end
B Smaller end
C Middle
D anywhere
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
material will be
A Same
B Zero
C Different
D None of above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
will induce
A no stress
B shear stress
C tensile stress
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A no stress
B shear stress
C tensile stress
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A elastic limit
B yield point
C ultimate point
D breaking point
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
D none of these
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
B Upper yield point
C Lower yield point
D Ultimate point
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A doubled
B remain unaffected
C become one-fourth
D become four times
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
the
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 50.00%
B 0.00%
C 10.00%
D 20.00%
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
D none of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 4 kN/cm2
B 8 kN/cm2
C 16 kN/cm2
D None of above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A half
B same
C One third
D One
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A plasticity
B elasticity
C malleability
D ductility
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Steel
B Copper
C Brass
D none of the above
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
called
A reliability
B plasticity
C ductility
D malleability
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A breaking stress
D maximum stress
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A -0.01
B +0.01
C +0.001
D -0.001
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A +0.001 mm
B +0.01mm
C - 0.01 mm
D - 0.001 mm
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A original length
D All of these
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 4 x 10-4
B 2 x 10-4
C 8 x 10-4
D 4 x 10-4
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 50 Pa
B 500 Pa
C 50 MPa
D 500 MPa
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A Doubled
B Half
C Become four time
D Remain unaffected
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
D None of above
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A D1+ d2
B 1/( d1+d2 )
C d1d2
D 1/( d1d2)
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
strains in bar is
A 100* l/L
B 0.1*l/L
C 0.01*l /L
D l/L
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Answer D
Marks 2
--Unit --
Id
A (d1+d2)/2
B (d1-d2)/2
C √( d1d2)
D √(d12-d22)
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
2.Temperature rise
A 1 and 2 only
B 1 and 3 only
C 2 and 3 only
D 1, 2 and 3 only
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 1.25 mm
B 2.70 mm
C 4.05 mm
D 5.40 mm
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A Young's modulus
B Shear modulus
C Poisson's ratio
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 2G(1+ μ )
B 2G(1 − μ )
C 0.5G(1+ μ )
D 0.5G(1 − μ )
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A E = 3 K (1 − 2μ )
B K = 3 E (1 − 2μ )
C E = 3 K (1 − μ )
D K = 3 E (1 − μ )
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 3
C 1, 2 and 4
D 1, 3 and 4
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
least
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A wl3 /6E
B wl3 /E
C wl3 /4E
D wl3 /3E
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
ratio will
A Increase
B Decrease
C Remain same
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 9KG/(K+G)
B 9KG/(G+3K)
C 9KG/(K+3G)
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A wL2/2E
B WL2/6E
C wL2/8E
D wL/8E
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A equal to
B less than
C more than
D Nearly equal to
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A equal to half
B less than half
C more than half
D none of these
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A WL/AE
B 2WL/AE
C WL/2AE
D None of these
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
will be
A 10
B 25
C 33
D 50
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 2
B 4
C 0.5
D 0.25
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit D1
Id
A 1/7
B 2/7
C 3/7
D 4/7
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 0.12
B 0.25
C 0.38
D 0.5
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
called
B Tensile stress
D Working stress.
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A (3σ/E)*(1+ν)
B (3σ/E)*(1-ν)
C (3σ/E)*(1+2ν)
D (3σ/E)*(1-2ν)
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
test would be
A More than 50 %
B 25-50 %
C 10-25 %
D Negligible
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A Same
B Half
C One third
D Double
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A Half
B Double
C Same
D One third
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
3
Id
A 0.01 to 0.1
B 0.25 to 0.33
C 0.4 to 0.6
D 0.23 to 0.27
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A Creeping
B Yielding
C Breaking
D None of above
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
removed.
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
below the Lists:
A A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
B A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
C A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
D A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
a test?
2. Yield stress
3. Ductility
4. Tensile strength
A 1, 3, 5 and 6
B 2, 3, 4 and 6
C 1, 2, 5 and 6
D 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
as heat
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 1:4
B 4:1
C 1:2
D 2:1
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A Linear Elastic
B Linear plastic
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A Linear Elastic
B Linear plastic
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A Cast iron
B Mild Steel
C Aluminum
D Pure copper
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A Cast iron
B Mild Steel
C Aluminum
D Pure copper
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A Cast iron
B Mild Steel
C Aluminum
D Pure copper
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Elastic limit
B Upper yield point
C Lower yield point
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 0.4e
B 0.6e
C 3e
D 1.6 e
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
increase
A eight times
B four times
C three times
D two times
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 3.75
B 3
C 2.5
D 1.5
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 8 x 106 N/mm2
B 8 x 105 N/mm2
C 0.8 x 104 N/mm2
D 0.8 x 105 N/mm2

Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 8 x 106 N/mm2
B 8 x 105 N/mm2
C 0.8 x 104 N/mm2
D 0.8 x 105 N/mm2

Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
will be
A 1/1000
B 1/1200
C 1/2400
D 1/4800
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
ratio is
A 0.25
B 0.30
C 0.33
D 0.35
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 0.25
B 0.326
C 0.356
D 0.28
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 2
B 4
C 1/2
D 1/4
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 50 kN/mm2
B 100 kN/mm2
C 150 kN/mm2
D 200 kN/mm2
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 2.5
B 1.6
C 0.8
D 0.4
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
direction is
A 1.2
B 1.8
C 2.4
D 3.0
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 2 mm
B 0.2 mm
C 0.02 mm
D 0.01 mm
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 250 N/mm2
B 100 N/mm2
C 50 N/mm2
D 25 N/mm2
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A equal to
B less than
C greater than
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 750 N/mm2
B 600 N/mm2
C 500 N/mm2
D None of these
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
specimen is
A 4 tonnes/cm2
B 8 tonnes/cm2
C 16 tonnes/cm2
D 22 tonnes/cm2
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 1000 mm3
B 100 mm3
C 10 mm3
D 5 mm3
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 12 kN
B 6 kN
C 4 kN
D 2 kN
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 300 N/mm2
B 100 N/mm2
C 50 N/mm2
D 33.33 N/mm2
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 1
B 0.5
C 2
D 25
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Question
be....
A 0.0725 mm
B 0.7025 mm
C 0.7025 cm
D 1.7025 mm
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question

Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A 12.73 N/m2
B 12.73 MN/m
C 12.73 MN/m2
D 12.73 KN/m2
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A 88.42 N/m2
B 88.42 GN/m2
C 88.42 KN/m2
D 88.42 MN/m2
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A 9.1777 x10-5 cm
B 9.1777 x10-5m
C 9.1777 x10-5mm
D 9.1777 x10-3mm
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --

Subject code-202045
Unit-2
Id
A n=m
B n>m
C n<m
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A n=m
B n>m
C n<m
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Linear
B Parabolic
C Cubic
D Constant
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Linear
B Parabolic
C Cubic
D constant
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Linear
B Parabolic
C Cubic
D constant
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Linear
B Parabolic
C Cubic
D constant
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Linear
B Parabolic
C Cubic
D constant
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Linear
B Parabolic
C Cubic
D constant
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A SF is zero
B SF is maximum
C BM is zero
D BM is maximum
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Middle
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A UDL
B UVL
C Point load
D moment
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Cantilever beam
B Overhanging beam
D Uniform beam
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A is maximum
B is minimum
C is equal
D is zero
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
B fixed beam
C overhanging beam
D cantilever beam
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
B fixed beam
C overhanging beam
D continuous beam
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A WL
B WL/2
C WL/4
D WL/8
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A wL/2 kNm
B wL2/2 kNm
C wL3/2 kNm
D wL2/4 kNm
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A wL/2 kNm
B wL2/2 kNm
C wL3/2 kNm
D wL2/4 kNm
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 40 kNm
B 80 kNm
C 20 kNm
D 60 kNm
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
B One rectangle
D A triangle
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
C varies linearly
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A cubic law
B parabolic law
C linear law
D none of these
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A cubic law
B parabolic law
C linear law
D none of these
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
load is
A wl2/4
B wl2/8
C wl2/12
D wl/4
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
the
A free end
B mid span
C fixed end
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A cubic law
B parabolic law
C linear law
D uniform law
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A cubic law
B parabolic law
C linear law
D uniform law
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A cubic law
B parabolic law
C linear law
D uniform law
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
end is
A triangle
B rectangle
C parabola
D elliptical
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A zero
B also maximum
C minimum
D of any value
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
of the beam.
B length
C width
D depth
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
_____.
A disc
B strut
C column
D beam
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A inclined
B parallel
C normal
D none of the above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
D All of above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A width
B length
C depth
D cross-section
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Bending moment
B Loading
C Deflection
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
length is a
A Triangle
B Rectangle
C Hyperbola
D Parabola
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
B remains same
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
there is a

Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A a horizontal line
B a vertical line
C an inclined line
D a parabolic curve
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A zero
B wl2/2
C wl2/4
D wl2/8
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id

Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
there is a

Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
there is a

Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A P*(L-a) * a/L
B P*(L-a) * b/L
C P*(L-a) /L
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A P
B P/2
C 3P/5
D 2P/5
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
is maximum SF ?
A w*L
B w*L/2
C 2*w*L
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
is minimum SF ?
A w*L
B w*L/2
C Zero
D None of the above
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A fixed end
B free end
C middle
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A fixed end
B free end
C middle
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
is maximum BM?
A w*L*L
B w*L*L/2
C Zero
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A fixed end
B free end
C middle
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question LOAD SFD
1 POINT LOAD A ZERO
2 UDL B PARABOLIC
3 UVL C LINEAR
4 MOMENT D CONSTANT
Match the pairs
A 1-A; 2-C;3-B;4-D
B 1-D; 2-C;3-B;4-A
C 1-A; 2-B;3-C;4-D
D 1-D; 2-B;3-C;4-A
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question LOAD BMD
2 UDL B CUBIC
3 UVL C PARABOLIC
4 MOMENT D LINEAR
Match the pairs
A 1-A; 2-C;3-B;4-D
B 1-D; 2-C;3-B;4-A
C 1-A; 2-B;3-C;4-D
D 1-D; 2-B;3-C;4-A
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A fixed beam
C continuous beam
D overhanging beam
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A Triangle
B Rectangle
C Parabolic
D hyperbolic
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A Free end
B Under the load
C Fixed end
D middle
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
ID
A 4
B -4.33
C -5.33
D 6.33
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 270
B 80
C 45
D 607.5
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 8
B 1
C 4
D 2
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
will be …
A 10
B 52
C 6
D 24
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A 72 kN-m
B 8 kN-m
C 60 kN-m
D 104 kN-m
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A 126 kN-m
B 12 kN-m
C 18 kN-m
D 180 kN-m
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A at point C
C at point D
D at point B
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question

B at point C
C at point B
D at point D
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A at point A
C at point E
D at point B
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A 90 kN
B 6 kN
C 27 kN
D 30 kN
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A 90 kN
B 6 kN
C 27 kN
D 30 kN
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 90 kN-m
B 540 kN-m
C 180 kN-m
D 18 kN-m
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
d
A PL/3
B 2PL/3
C PL/9
D 2PL/9
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A M/L
B M/L/2
C Zero
D M
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A M at fixed end
B M at free end
C M at middle
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A PL
B PL/2
C PL/4
D 2PL
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A 3 kN
B 1.5 kN
C 1 kN
D 2.25 kN
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A W*L
B W*L/2
C 2W*L
D W/L
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A W*L^2
B W*L^2/2
C 2W*L^2
D W*L/2
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A W*L
B W*L/2
C 2W*L
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A W*L*L
B W*L*L/2
C W*L*L/8
D None of the above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
is
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
d
Question
A M/L
B M/L/2
C 2M/L
D Zero
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A M
B M/2
C 2M
D Zero
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question

C Middle section
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A PL
B 2PL
C zero
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A DA
B AB
C BC
D DC
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A P
B P/2
C P/4
D 2P
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A AB
B BC
C AC
D CAN'T SAY
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A AB
B BC
C AC
D CAN'T SAY
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A 100 N
B 60 N
C 40N
D 50 N
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A 100 Nm
B 300 Nm
C 200 Nm
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 50
B 40
C 30
D 20
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
as follows
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A A circular arc
B A parabolic arc
C Elliptical shape
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
cantilever is
A 0 kN-m
B 50 kN-m
C 25 kN-m
D 100 kN-m
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 30 kN-m
B 20 kN-m
C 10 kN-m
D 5 kN-m
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 120 kN
B 60 kN
C 30 kN
D 15 kN
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
the magnitude of W
A 700 kN
B 750 kN
C 800 kN
D 1000 kN
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A The support
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 120 kN-m
B 100 kN-m
C 80 kN-m
D 60 kN-m
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 5wN
B 3wN
C wN
D 0
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 125 kN
B 105 kN
C 50 kN
D 5 kN
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A zero
B wl/4
C wl/2
D wl
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
support?
A 24 kN
B 20 kN
C 16 kN
D 12 kN
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 72.5 kNm
B 52.5 kNm
C 37.5 kNm
D 47.5 kNm
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
support?
A 90 kN-m
B 80 kN-m
C 70 kN-m
D 60 kN-m
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
left support?
A 3.0 m
B 2.25 m
C 2.5 m
D 1.5 m
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 0 kN-m
B 10 kN-m
C 12.5 kN-m
D 25 kN-m
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 3.6 kN-m
B 1.8 kN-m
C 1 kN-m
D 0 kN-m
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A 4 kN-m
B 2.8 kN-m
C 3.2 kN-m
D 3 kN-m
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
of ___________.
A 1 m from C
B 0.75 m from C
C 2 m from B
D 3 m from A
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 1.2 m from D
B 3.2 m from C
C 1.2 m from C
D 3 m from B
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
AB is _______.
A 4 kN-m
B 18 kN-m
C 36 kN-m
D 2.25 kN-m
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 2.67 m from C
B 1 m from B
C 3 m from A
D 2.67 m from A
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 1.5 m from A
B 0.33 m from A
C 1.33 m from A
D 1 m from A
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --

Subject code-202045
Unit-3
Id
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Maximum
B Minimum
C Zero
D None of them
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Upper fiber
B Lower fiber
C Neutral axis
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
C Both A and B
D None of A and B
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A Linear
B Parabolic
C Cubic
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
C Not related
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Increases
B Decreases
C Remain constant
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A bd^3/6
B bd^2/6
C bd^3/12
D bd^2/12
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
A πd^3/64
B πd^3/32
C πd^2/64
D πd^2/32
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
D None of the above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Constant
B Parabolic
C Cubic
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A Increases
B Decreases
C Remain constant
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Constant
B Parabolic
C Cubic
D Linear
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Outer fibers
B Neutral axis
C Everywhere
D None of above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Outer fibers
B Neutral axis
C Everywhere
D None of above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
D None of these
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A πd4 /64
B πd2 /32
C πd2 /64
D πd4 /32
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Neutral axis
B Extreme fibre
D None of these
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Rectangular
B Circular
C I – section
D None of these
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
will …
A Increase by 50%
B Decrease by 50%
C Increase by 25%
D Decrease by 25%
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Shear modulus
B Bulk modulus
C elastic modulus
D section modulus
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
develop at ....
A Bottom fiber
B Top fiber
C Neutral axis
D Center of gravity
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
A M/Y = E/R
B Y/M=E/R
C M/I = E/R
D M/R=E/I
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
A σb(max)/E
B M/σb(max)
C σb(max)/M
D M/I
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
A I/σbmax
B ymax/I
C σbmax/I
D I/ymax
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id

Answer B
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id

D None of above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
A Continuous beam
B Fixed beam
D None of above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id

Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id

C At the NA
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id

C At the NA
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
A Poisson's ratio
C Modular ratio
D Nodular ratio
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id

Answer D
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
A wL/8
B wL2/8
C wL3/8
D wL2/12
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
be …
A 5 F/(2bd)
B 3 F/(2bd)
C 3 F/(4bd)
D 2 F/(3bd)
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1:8
B 8:1
C 1:2
D 2:1
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1:8
B 8:1
C 1:2
D 2:1
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A to section B?
A 1:8
B 8:1
C 1:4
D 4:1
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
will …
A Increase by 50%
B Decrease by 50%
C Increase by 25%
D Decrease by 25%
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A D²/10
B D³/10
C D4/10
D D4/20
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
to
A (4/5) t d2
B (4/5) t2 d2
C (4/5) d t2
D (5/4) t d2
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A moment of inertia
B stress
C strain
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A M
B M/2
C M/3
D M/4
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 3/2
B 4/3
C 7/4
D 2
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A Π/16
B Π/32
C Π64
D Πd2/32
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A Decrease
B Increase
C Remain same
Answer increase
Marks 2
Unit
Id
is developed at.
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 2Ml/ EI
B Ml/ EI
C Ml/ 2EI
D 4Ml/EI
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 2
B 1.33
C 1
D 0.75
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 0.8
B 0.75
C 0.67
D 0.5
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A equal to
B 4/3 times
C 1.5 times
D twice
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
false
directions
dimensions
bending
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
D None of these
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
B Linear variation
C Cubic variation
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A Flanges only
B Web only
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
axis.
A 2100N, 3660Nm
B 5400N, 486Nm
C 54000N, 4860Nm
D 54005N, 4865Nm
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 1.814
B 1.184
C 4.481
D 8.142
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question
A BD-bd/6D
B BD2-bd2/6D
C B-b/6D
D None of these
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A f.[π(D4-d4)/32D]
B f.[π(D4-d4)/34D]
C f.[π(D2-d2)/32D]
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 11.20N/mm2; 2.750N/mm2
B 11.02N/mm2; 2.755N/mm2
C 2.755N/mm2; 11.02N/mm2
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 36.0 MPa
B 27.0 MPa
C 24.0 MPa
D 21.0 MPa
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 319 Nm
B 281 Nm
C 267 Nm
D 249 Nm
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 116.4 MPa
B 96.4 MPa
C 106.4 MPa
D 126.4 Mpa
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 2.1 kNm
B 2.4 kNm
C 2.7 kNm
D 3.0 kNm
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 145 MPa
B 135 MPa
C 125 MPa
D 175 MPa
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 7.8 MPa
B 9.8 MPa
C 6.8 MPa
D 8.5 MPa
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
be.
A 240 mm
B 120 mm
C 75 mm
D 60 mm
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 3 N/mm2
B 1.5 N/mm2
C 0.75 N/mm2
D 0.0 N/mm2
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
is.
A 0.5q
B 0.75q
C 0.80q
D None of these
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
is.
A 200 N/mm2
B 100N/mm2
C 50N/mm2
D 25N/mm2
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 100 cm3
B 150 cm3
C 75 cm3
D 50 cm3
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
the section is
A 90 N/mm2
B 80 N/mm2
C 60 N/mm2
D 45 N/mm2
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 500 N/mm2
B 250 N/mm2
C 125 N/mm2
D 50 N/mm2
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 20 N/mm2
B 17 N/mm2
C 14 N/mm2
D 6.667 N/mm2
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 20 KN
B 40 KN
C 80 KN
D 100KN
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 20 MPa
B 40 MPa
C 60 MPa
D 80 MPa
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
be
A 96 MPa
B 48 MPa
C 72 MPa
D 24 MPa
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 63.6 MPa
B 31.8 MPa
C 17.6 MPa
D 0
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0
B 107 MPa
C 110 MPa
D 117 MPa
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 103 kg/cm2
B 2 x 103 kg/cm2
C 4 x 103 kg/cm2
D 6 x 103
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 25 MPa
B 50 MPa
C 64 MPa
D 100 MPa
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
be.
A 240 mm
B 120 mm
C 75 mm
D 60 mm
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A Fmax= 205 N/mm2 ; M= 1605Nm
B Fmax= 120 N/mm2 ; M= 160Nm
C Fmax= 200 N/mm2 ; M= 1600Nm
D Fmax= 1200 N/mm2 ; M= 1600Nm
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit

Subject code-202045
Unit-4
Id
A EIy
B E I (dy / dx)
C E I (d2y / dx2)
D E I (d3y / dx3)
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A EIy
B E I (dy / dx)
C E I (d2y / dx2)
D E I (d3y / dx3)
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A [E I (y/dx4)]
B E I (dy/dx)
C E I (d2y/dx2)
D E I (d3y/dx3)
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question E I (d2y/dx2) = _______________.
A SF
B M
C [- w (x)]
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question E I (dy/dx) = _______________.
A M
B Int[M dx]+ C1
D none of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question E I y = _______________.
A M
B Int[M dx]+ C1
D none of the above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A roller
B hinge
C fixed
D all the above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A roller
B hinge
C fixed
D all the above
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A zero
B maximum
C minimum
D none of the above
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A zero
B maximum
C minimum
D none of the above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A zero
B maximum
C minimum
D none of the above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A zero
B maximum
C minimum
D none of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A zero
B maximum
C minimum
D none of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 0<x<L
B 0 < x < L/2
C L/2 < x < L
D none of the above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 0
B L/2
C 3L/4
D L
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 0
B L/2
C 3L/4
D L/4
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 0
B L/2
C 3L/4
D L/4
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 0
B 3L/4
C more than 3L/4
D less than 3L/4
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A L/3
B L/2
C 3L/4
D L/4
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 0
B L/2
C 3L/4
D L/4
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 0
B L/2
C 3L/4
D L/4
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A W L2 / 2EI
B W L2 / 3EI
C W L3 / 3EI
D W L3 / 6EI
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A W L2 / 2EI
B W L2 / 3EI
C W L3 / 3EI
D W L3 / 6EI
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A w L2 / 2EI
B w L2 / 3EI
C w L3 / 3EI
D w L3 / 6EI
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A w L3 / 3EI
B w L3 / 6EI
C w L3 / 8EI
D w L4 / 8EI
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A W L2 / 16 EI
B W L2 / 30 EI
C W L2 / 24 EI
D W L2 / 48 EI
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Elastic curve
B Parabolic curve
C Plastic curve
D None of above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A w L3 / 3 EI
B w L3 / 6 EI
C w a3 / 3 EI
D w a3 / 6 EI
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A w L3 / 3 EI
B w L3 / 6 EI
C w a3 / 3 EI
D w a3 / 6 EI
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Strain energy
B resilience
C Proof resilience
D toughness
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
D all of the above
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A impact energy
B proof resilience
C proof stress
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A equal to
D independent of
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 5WL3/348EI
B 5WL2/384EI
C 5WL3/384EI
D 5WL2/348EI
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
energy
A Kinetic, strain
B Strain, Kinetic
C Potential, Strain
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Zero
B Infinite
C One
D Less than one
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A E
B GI
C EI
D E/I
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Zeroth
B Fourth
C First
D Second
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
EI d2y/dx2 = ___________.
A (W/2)x | -W(x - (L/2))|
B Wx | -W(x - (L/2))|
C (W/2)x | -W(x - L)|
D (W/2)x | + W(x - (L/2))|
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A (wx)/2 - (wx2 /2 )
B w/2 - (wx2 /2 )
C (wLx)/2 - (wL2 /2 )
D (wLx)/2 - (wx2 /2 )
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
the beam.
A slope
B Bending moment
C deflection
D None of above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
D All of above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
________.
B Shear force only
D None of above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 11 W L4 / 120 EI
B W L3 / 30 EI
C W L3 / 24 EI
D W L4 / 48 EI
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A w L3 / 8EI
B w L3 / 6EI
C w L3 / 24EI
D w L4 / 6EI
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A w L3 / 8EI
B w L4 / 8EI
C w L3 / 24EI
D 5 w L4 / 384EI
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A positive
B negative
D None of above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A positive
B negative
D None of above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
end is _________.
A negative
B positive
D None of above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
end is _________.
A Negative
B Positive
D None of above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A positive
B negative
C zero
D Can't say
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A to stop the watch
B to run the watch
D all of these
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
'B' is
A 1/8
B 1/4
C 1/2
D 2
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A M
B √M
C M²
D M³
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A same
B double
C four times
D six times
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A one-fourth
B one-half
C double
D four times
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
d2y/dx2 = ____________________.
A M0
B (-M0)
C (-M0 / L) x | + M0(x - (L/2))2 |
D (M0 / L) x | - M0(x - (L/2))2 |
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.25
B 2
C 4
D 48
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
__________mm.
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 16
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
________˚.
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 32
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.25
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.52
B 0.72
C 0
D 5.2
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.0018˚
B 0.0018 radian
C 0.72˚
D 0.72 radian
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.01
B 10
C 4
D 16
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
be________mm.
A 2
B 4
C 8
D 16
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
be________mm.
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
be________mm.
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
be________mm.
A 0.25
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
be________mm.
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.25
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
_______˚.
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.00167˚
B 0.00167 radian
C 0.72˚
D 0.72 radian
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
_________ mm.
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
_________ mm.
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
_________ mm.
A 0.25
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
_________ mm.
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1.33
B 13.33
C 0.13
D 133.33
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
________mm.
A 0.01
B 10
C 1
D 4
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
will be _________ mm.
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
will be _________ mm.
A 2
B 4
C 8
D 16
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.25
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 3/8
B 3/4
C 4/3
D 8/3
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 8
B 4
C 1/4
D 1/16
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A W2l3/48EI
B W2l3/96EI
C W3l2/48EI
D W3l3/96EI
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A W2l3/48EI
B W2l3/96EI
C W3l2/48EI
D W3l3/96EI
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 5/8
B 8/5
C 5/4
D 4/5
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 2:3
B 3:2
C 1:2
D 2:1
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A M0 L2 / EI
B M0 L2 / 2EI
C 2M0 L2 / EI
D 0
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
end is ________.
A M0 L / EI
B M0 L / 2EI
C 2M0 L / EI
D 0
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A M0 / EI
B M0 L / 24 EI
C M0 L / EI
D M0 L2 / 24 EI
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
deflection is
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
increase by
A 8
B 1/8
C 1/3
D 2
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A b/d
B d/b
C (d/b)2
D (b/d)2
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question
A -Px(3L-x)/6EI
B Px2(3L-x)/6EI
C -Px(3L-x)/6EI
D -Px2(3L-x)/6EI
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question

A PL2/6EI
B PL2/32EI
C PL2/16EI
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
B U = Int. (M2/2GI)
C U = Int. (M/2EJL)
D U = Int. (M/EI)
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question

A U = T2/2GJL
B U = T2/2EI
C U = T/2GJL
D U = T/EI
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question

A P12L3/6E
B P12L3/6EI
C PL/AE
D P12L/6EI
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A positeve
B Negative
C Zero
D None of the above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
support will be
A positeve
B Negative
C Zero
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
midspan will be

C Zero
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Positive
B Negetive
C Zero
D All of above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Positive
B Negetive
C Zero
D All of above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id

C Zero
D All of above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 64/3EI
B 32/3EI
C 8/3EI
D None of these
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
will be __________ mm.
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
__________.
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 32
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
__________.
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 32
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
_________˚.
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
_________˚.
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 2
B 4
C 16
D 32
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 0.25
C 4
D 32
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
m will be _______˚.
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
m will be _______˚.
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1.25
B 0.72
C 0
D 5.2
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
will be ______mm.
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 32
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 32
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 2
B 4
C 16
D 32
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 0.25
C 4
D 32
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
the beam is.
A 1 mm
B 2 mm
C 2.5 mm
D None of these
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 4
B 2
C 1
D 0.25
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 16 mm
B 5 mm
C 2 mm
D 1 mm
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 36/EI
B 27/EI
C 18/EI
D 9/EI
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 6y
B 4y
C 2y
D 1/4y
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 26 mm
B 52 mm
C 2.6 mm
D 10 mm
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
the ratio of
A 8
B 1/8
C 1/2
D 2
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 2 times
B 4 times
C 8 times
D 1/2 times
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A WL
B
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.057 rad
B 0.067 rad
C 0.077 rad
D 0.087 rad
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 53.3 mm
B 63.3 mm
C 73.3 mm
D 83.3 mm
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1.7 mm
B 1.8 mm
C 1.9 mm
D 2.0 mm
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.0166mm
B 1.666mm
C 0.00166mm
D 1.666m
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.133 mm
B 1.333 mm
C 0.00133 mm
D 1.333 m
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 2 mm
B 0.0002 m
C 0.02 mm
D 2m
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.63
B 1.6
C 0.8
D 1.25
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
for that section

Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Subject code-202045
Unit-1
D Any one of above
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A mm/mm
B N/cm
C N
D N/cm2
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Strain
B Lateral strain
C Linear strain
D Linear stress
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
is called
B Tensile stress
C Transverse stress
D Working stress
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Ideal material
B Uniform material
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Same
B More
C Less
D Unpredictable
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
the
D None of above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Unit stress
B Bulk modulus
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Surface tension
B Bulk modulus
C strain
D elasticity
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Plasticity
B elasticity
C ductility
D malleability
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Homogeneous
B Inelastic
C Isotropic
D Isentropic
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Plasticity
B Ductility
C elasticity
D malleability
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Poisson’s ratio
B Bulk modulus
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A Remains constant
B Varies with time
D None of these
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
A Elastic limit
D None of these
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
A Hooks law
B Yield point
C Proof stress
D Permanent set
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit A
Id
D None of the above
Answer D
Marks 2
U
Id
A Not deform
B Be safest
C Stretch
D Not stretch
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Young's modulus
B Bulk modulus
D Poisson's ratio
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit A
Id
A 1 to -0.5
B 1 to +0.5
C 0 to +0.5
D 0 to -0.5
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 10 kN/mm2
B 80 kN/mm2
C 100 kN/mm2
D 210 kN/mm2
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Pa
B Kgf/mm2
C Tonne/m2
D any one of these
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A equal to
B less than
C greater than
D Nearly equal to
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A ductile
B brittle
C malleable
D plastic
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 0.1 to 0.9
B 0.05 to 0.1
C 1 to 10
D 0.25 to 0.35
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 1
B 2
C 3
D 4
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
D Equal to strain
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Unit stress
C Bulk modulus
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Plastic limit
B Elastic limit
C Yield point
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A point of failure
B point of rupture
C yield point
D none of these
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A plastic range
B elastic range
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A The same
B One fourth
C Half
D Double
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id

Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Decrease
B Increase
C Remains same
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Young's modulus
B Shear modulus
C Poisson’s ratio
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Cast iron
B Mild steel
C Soft brass
D Aluminum
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Yield strength
C Elastic limit
D Tensile strength
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Two
B Three
C Four
D Six
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Elastic limit
C Ultimate stress
D Breaking point
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
upon the
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 0.7 Nm
B 1.0 Nm
C 1.4 Nm
D 2.8 Nm
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
in length would be
A P/LAE
B PE/AL
C PL/AE
D AL/PE
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
would be
A 0.5
B 0.4
C 0.3
D 1
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 0.66
B 0.33
C 1.33
D 1
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id

Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
incresead
A Increased
B Decreased
C Remains constant
D Either A or B
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Stress to strain
D All of these
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 4PL/πEd2 d1
B 4πEd2 d1 /PL
C 4PE/πLd2 d1
D None of above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Larger end
B Smaller end
C Middle
D anywhere
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
material will be
A Same
B Zero
C Different
D None of above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
will induce
A no stress
B shear stress
C tensile stress
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A no stress
B shear stress
C tensile stress
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A elastic limit
B yield point
C ultimate point
D breaking point
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
D none of these
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
B Upper yield point
C Lower yield point
D Ultimate point
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A doubled
B remain unaffected
C become one-fourth
D become four times
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
the
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 50.00%
B 0.00%
C 10.00%
D 20.00%
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
D none of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 4 kN/cm2
B 8 kN/cm2
C 16 kN/cm2
D None of above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A half
B same
C One third
D One
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A plasticity
B elasticity
C malleability
D ductility
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Steel
B Copper
C Brass
D none of the above
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
called
A reliability
B plasticity
C ductility
D malleability
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A breaking stress
D maximum stress
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A -0.01
B +0.01
C +0.001
D -0.001
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A +0.001 mm
B +0.01mm
C - 0.01 mm
D - 0.001 mm
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A original length
D All of these
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 4 x 10-4
B 2 x 10-4
C 8 x 10-4
D 4 x 10-4
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 50 Pa
B 500 Pa
C 50 MPa
D 500 MPa
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A Doubled
B Half
C Become four time
D Remain unaffected
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
D None of above
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A D1+ d2
B 1/( d1+d2 )
C d1d2
D 1/( d1d2)
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
strains in bar is
A 100* l/L
B 0.1*l/L
C 0.01*l /L
D l/L
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Answer D
Marks 2
--Unit --
Id
A (d1+d2)/2
B (d1-d2)/2
C √( d1d2)
D √(d12-d22)
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
2.Temperature rise
A 1 and 2 only
B 1 and 3 only
C 2 and 3 only
D 1, 2 and 3 only
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 1.25 mm
B 2.70 mm
C 4.05 mm
D 5.40 mm
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A Young's modulus
B Shear modulus
C Poisson's ratio
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 2G(1+ μ )
B 2G(1 − μ )
C 0.5G(1+ μ )
D 0.5G(1 − μ )
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A E = 3 K (1 − 2μ )
B K = 3 E (1 − 2μ )
C E = 3 K (1 − μ )
D K = 3 E (1 − μ )
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 3
C 1, 2 and 4
D 1, 3 and 4
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
least
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A wl3 /6E
B wl3 /E
C wl3 /4E
D wl3 /3E
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
ratio will
A Increase
B Decrease
C Remain same
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 9KG/(K+G)
B 9KG/(G+3K)
C 9KG/(K+3G)
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A wL2/2E
B WL2/6E
C wL2/8E
D wL/8E
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A equal to
B less than
C more than
D Nearly equal to
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A equal to half
B less than half
C more than half
D none of these
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A WL/AE
B 2WL/AE
C WL/2AE
D None of these
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
will be
A 10
B 25
C 33
D 50
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 2
B 4
C 0.5
D 0.25
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit D1
Id
A 1/7
B 2/7
C 3/7
D 4/7
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 0.12
B 0.25
C 0.38
D 0.5
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
called
B Tensile stress
D Working stress.
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A (3σ/E)*(1+ν)
B (3σ/E)*(1-ν)
C (3σ/E)*(1+2ν)
D (3σ/E)*(1-2ν)
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
test would be
A More than 50 %
B 25-50 %
C 10-25 %
D Negligible
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A Same
B Half
C One third
D Double
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A Half
B Double
C Same
D One third
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
3
Id
A 0.01 to 0.1
B 0.25 to 0.33
C 0.4 to 0.6
D 0.23 to 0.27
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A Creeping
B Yielding
C Breaking
D None of above
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
removed.
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
below the Lists:
A A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
B A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
C A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
D A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
a test?
2. Yield stress
3. Ductility
4. Tensile strength
A 1, 3, 5 and 6
B 2, 3, 4 and 6
C 1, 2, 5 and 6
D 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
as heat
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 1:4
B 4:1
C 1:2
D 2:1
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A Linear Elastic
B Linear plastic
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A Linear Elastic
B Linear plastic
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A Cast iron
B Mild Steel
C Aluminum
D Pure copper
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A Cast iron
B Mild Steel
C Aluminum
D Pure copper
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A Cast iron
B Mild Steel
C Aluminum
D Pure copper
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Elastic limit
B Upper yield point
C Lower yield point
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 0.4e
B 0.6e
C 3e
D 1.6 e
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
increase
A eight times
B four times
C three times
D two times
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 3.75
B 3
C 2.5
D 1.5
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 8 x 106 N/mm2
B 8 x 105 N/mm2
C 0.8 x 104 N/mm2
D 0.8 x 105 N/mm2

Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 8 x 106 N/mm2
B 8 x 105 N/mm2
C 0.8 x 104 N/mm2
D 0.8 x 105 N/mm2

Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
will be
A 1/1000
B 1/1200
C 1/2400
D 1/4800
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
ratio is
A 0.25
B 0.30
C 0.33
D 0.35
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 0.25
B 0.326
C 0.356
D 0.28
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 2
B 4
C 1/2
D 1/4
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 50 kN/mm2
B 100 kN/mm2
C 150 kN/mm2
D 200 kN/mm2
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 2.5
B 1.6
C 0.8
D 0.4
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
direction is
A 1.2
B 1.8
C 2.4
D 3.0
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 2 mm
B 0.2 mm
C 0.02 mm
D 0.01 mm
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 250 N/mm2
B 100 N/mm2
C 50 N/mm2
D 25 N/mm2
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A equal to
B less than
C greater than
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 750 N/mm2
B 600 N/mm2
C 500 N/mm2
D None of these
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
specimen is
A 4 tonnes/cm2
B 8 tonnes/cm2
C 16 tonnes/cm2
D 22 tonnes/cm2
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 1000 mm3
B 100 mm3
C 10 mm3
D 5 mm3
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 12 kN
B 6 kN
C 4 kN
D 2 kN
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 300 N/mm2
B 100 N/mm2
C 50 N/mm2
D 33.33 N/mm2
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 1
B 0.5
C 2
D 25
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Question
be....
A 0.0725 mm
B 0.7025 mm
C 0.7025 cm
D 1.7025 mm
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question

Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A 12.73 N/m2
B 12.73 MN/m
C 12.73 MN/m2
D 12.73 KN/m2
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A 88.42 N/m2
B 88.42 GN/m2
C 88.42 KN/m2
D 88.42 MN/m2
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A 9.1777 x10-5 cm
B 9.1777 x10-5m
C 9.1777 x10-5mm
D 9.1777 x10-3mm
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --

Subject code-202045
Unit-2
Id
A n=m
B n>m
C n<m
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A n=m
B n>m
C n<m
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Linear
B Parabolic
C Cubic
D Constant
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Linear
B Parabolic
C Cubic
D constant
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Linear
B Parabolic
C Cubic
D constant
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Linear
B Parabolic
C Cubic
D constant
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Linear
B Parabolic
C Cubic
D constant
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Linear
B Parabolic
C Cubic
D constant
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A SF is zero
B SF is maximum
C BM is zero
D BM is maximum
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Middle
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A UDL
B UVL
C Point load
D moment
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Cantilever beam
B Overhanging beam
D Uniform beam
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A is maximum
B is minimum
C is equal
D is zero
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
B fixed beam
C overhanging beam
D cantilever beam
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
B fixed beam
C overhanging beam
D continuous beam
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A WL
B WL/2
C WL/4
D WL/8
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A wL/2 kNm
B wL2/2 kNm
C wL3/2 kNm
D wL2/4 kNm
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A wL/2 kNm
B wL2/2 kNm
C wL3/2 kNm
D wL2/4 kNm
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 40 kNm
B 80 kNm
C 20 kNm
D 60 kNm
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
B One rectangle
D A triangle
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
C varies linearly
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A cubic law
B parabolic law
C linear law
D none of these
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A cubic law
B parabolic law
C linear law
D none of these
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
load is
A wl2/4
B wl2/8
C wl2/12
D wl/4
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
the
A free end
B mid span
C fixed end
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A cubic law
B parabolic law
C linear law
D uniform law
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A cubic law
B parabolic law
C linear law
D uniform law
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A cubic law
B parabolic law
C linear law
D uniform law
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
end is
A triangle
B rectangle
C parabola
D elliptical
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A zero
B also maximum
C minimum
D of any value
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
of the beam.
B length
C width
D depth
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
_____.
A disc
B strut
C column
D beam
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A inclined
B parallel
C normal
D none of the above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
D All of above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A width
B length
C depth
D cross-section
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Bending moment
B Loading
C Deflection
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
length is a
A Triangle
B Rectangle
C Hyperbola
D Parabola
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
B remains same
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
there is a

Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A a horizontal line
B a vertical line
C an inclined line
D a parabolic curve
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A zero
B wl2/2
C wl2/4
D wl2/8
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id

Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
there is a

Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
there is a

Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A P*(L-a) * a/L
B P*(L-a) * b/L
C P*(L-a) /L
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A P
B P/2
C 3P/5
D 2P/5
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
is maximum SF ?
A w*L
B w*L/2
C 2*w*L
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
is minimum SF ?
A w*L
B w*L/2
C Zero
D None of the above
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A fixed end
B free end
C middle
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A fixed end
B free end
C middle
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
is maximum BM?
A w*L*L
B w*L*L/2
C Zero
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A fixed end
B free end
C middle
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question LOAD SFD
1 POINT LOAD A ZERO
2 UDL B PARABOLIC
3 UVL C LINEAR
4 MOMENT D CONSTANT
Match the pairs
A 1-A; 2-C;3-B;4-D
B 1-D; 2-C;3-B;4-A
C 1-A; 2-B;3-C;4-D
D 1-D; 2-B;3-C;4-A
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question LOAD BMD
2 UDL B CUBIC
3 UVL C PARABOLIC
4 MOMENT D LINEAR
Match the pairs
A 1-A; 2-C;3-B;4-D
B 1-D; 2-C;3-B;4-A
C 1-A; 2-B;3-C;4-D
D 1-D; 2-B;3-C;4-A
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A fixed beam
C continuous beam
D overhanging beam
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A Triangle
B Rectangle
C Parabolic
D hyperbolic
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A Free end
B Under the load
C Fixed end
D middle
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
ID
A 4
B -4.33
C -5.33
D 6.33
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 270
B 80
C 45
D 607.5
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 8
B 1
C 4
D 2
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
will be …
A 10
B 52
C 6
D 24
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A 72 kN-m
B 8 kN-m
C 60 kN-m
D 104 kN-m
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A 126 kN-m
B 12 kN-m
C 18 kN-m
D 180 kN-m
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A at point C
C at point D
D at point B
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question

B at point C
C at point B
D at point D
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A at point A
C at point E
D at point B
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A 90 kN
B 6 kN
C 27 kN
D 30 kN
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A 90 kN
B 6 kN
C 27 kN
D 30 kN
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 90 kN-m
B 540 kN-m
C 180 kN-m
D 18 kN-m
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
d
A PL/3
B 2PL/3
C PL/9
D 2PL/9
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A M/L
B M/L/2
C Zero
D M
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A M at fixed end
B M at free end
C M at middle
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A PL
B PL/2
C PL/4
D 2PL
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A 3 kN
B 1.5 kN
C 1 kN
D 2.25 kN
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A W*L
B W*L/2
C 2W*L
D W/L
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A W*L^2
B W*L^2/2
C 2W*L^2
D W*L/2
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A W*L
B W*L/2
C 2W*L
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A W*L*L
B W*L*L/2
C W*L*L/8
D None of the above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
is
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
d
Question
A M/L
B M/L/2
C 2M/L
D Zero
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A M
B M/2
C 2M
D Zero
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question

C Middle section
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A PL
B 2PL
C zero
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A DA
B AB
C BC
D DC
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A P
B P/2
C P/4
D 2P
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A AB
B BC
C AC
D CAN'T SAY
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A AB
B BC
C AC
D CAN'T SAY
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A 100 N
B 60 N
C 40N
D 50 N
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A 100 Nm
B 300 Nm
C 200 Nm
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 50
B 40
C 30
D 20
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
as follows
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A A circular arc
B A parabolic arc
C Elliptical shape
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
cantilever is
A 0 kN-m
B 50 kN-m
C 25 kN-m
D 100 kN-m
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 30 kN-m
B 20 kN-m
C 10 kN-m
D 5 kN-m
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 120 kN
B 60 kN
C 30 kN
D 15 kN
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
the magnitude of W
A 700 kN
B 750 kN
C 800 kN
D 1000 kN
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A The support
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 120 kN-m
B 100 kN-m
C 80 kN-m
D 60 kN-m
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 5wN
B 3wN
C wN
D 0
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 125 kN
B 105 kN
C 50 kN
D 5 kN
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A zero
B wl/4
C wl/2
D wl
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
support?
A 24 kN
B 20 kN
C 16 kN
D 12 kN
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 72.5 kNm
B 52.5 kNm
C 37.5 kNm
D 47.5 kNm
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
support?
A 90 kN-m
B 80 kN-m
C 70 kN-m
D 60 kN-m
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
left support?
A 3.0 m
B 2.25 m
C 2.5 m
D 1.5 m
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 0 kN-m
B 10 kN-m
C 12.5 kN-m
D 25 kN-m
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 3.6 kN-m
B 1.8 kN-m
C 1 kN-m
D 0 kN-m
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A 4 kN-m
B 2.8 kN-m
C 3.2 kN-m
D 3 kN-m
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
of ___________.
A 1 m from C
B 0.75 m from C
C 2 m from B
D 3 m from A
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 1.2 m from D
B 3.2 m from C
C 1.2 m from C
D 3 m from B
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
AB is _______.
A 4 kN-m
B 18 kN-m
C 36 kN-m
D 2.25 kN-m
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 2.67 m from C
B 1 m from B
C 3 m from A
D 2.67 m from A
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 1.5 m from A
B 0.33 m from A
C 1.33 m from A
D 1 m from A
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --

Subject code-202045
Unit-3
Id
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Maximum
B Minimum
C Zero
D None of them
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Upper fiber
B Lower fiber
C Neutral axis
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
C Both A and B
D None of A and B
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A Linear
B Parabolic
C Cubic
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
C Not related
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Increases
B Decreases
C Remain constant
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A bd^3/6
B bd^2/6
C bd^3/12
D bd^2/12
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
A πd^3/64
B πd^3/32
C πd^2/64
D πd^2/32
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
D None of the above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Constant
B Parabolic
C Cubic
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A Increases
B Decreases
C Remain constant
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Constant
B Parabolic
C Cubic
D Linear
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Outer fibers
B Neutral axis
C Everywhere
D None of above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Outer fibers
B Neutral axis
C Everywhere
D None of above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
D None of these
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A πd4 /64
B πd2 /32
C πd2 /64
D πd4 /32
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Neutral axis
B Extreme fibre
D None of these
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Rectangular
B Circular
C I – section
D None of these
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
will …
A Increase by 50%
B Decrease by 50%
C Increase by 25%
D Decrease by 25%
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Shear modulus
B Bulk modulus
C elastic modulus
D section modulus
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
develop at ....
A Bottom fiber
B Top fiber
C Neutral axis
D Center of gravity
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
A M/Y = E/R
B Y/M=E/R
C M/I = E/R
D M/R=E/I
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
A σb(max)/E
B M/σb(max)
C σb(max)/M
D M/I
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
A I/σbmax
B ymax/I
C σbmax/I
D I/ymax
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id

Answer B
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id

D None of above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
A Continuous beam
B Fixed beam
D None of above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id

Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id

C At the NA
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id

C At the NA
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
A Poisson's ratio
C Modular ratio
D Nodular ratio
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id

Answer D
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
A wL/8
B wL2/8
C wL3/8
D wL2/12
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
be …
A 5 F/(2bd)
B 3 F/(2bd)
C 3 F/(4bd)
D 2 F/(3bd)
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1:8
B 8:1
C 1:2
D 2:1
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1:8
B 8:1
C 1:2
D 2:1
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A to section B?
A 1:8
B 8:1
C 1:4
D 4:1
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
will …
A Increase by 50%
B Decrease by 50%
C Increase by 25%
D Decrease by 25%
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A D²/10
B D³/10
C D4/10
D D4/20
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
to
A (4/5) t d2
B (4/5) t2 d2
C (4/5) d t2
D (5/4) t d2
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A moment of inertia
B stress
C strain
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A M
B M/2
C M/3
D M/4
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 3/2
B 4/3
C 7/4
D 2
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A Π/16
B Π/32
C Π64
D Πd2/32
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A Decrease
B Increase
C Remain same
Answer increase
Marks 2
Unit
Id
is developed at.
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 2Ml/ EI
B Ml/ EI
C Ml/ 2EI
D 4Ml/EI
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 2
B 1.33
C 1
D 0.75
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 0.8
B 0.75
C 0.67
D 0.5
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A equal to
B 4/3 times
C 1.5 times
D twice
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
false
directions
dimensions
bending
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
D None of these
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
B Linear variation
C Cubic variation
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A Flanges only
B Web only
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
axis.
A 2100N, 3660Nm
B 5400N, 486Nm
C 54000N, 4860Nm
D 54005N, 4865Nm
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 1.814
B 1.184
C 4.481
D 8.142
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question
A BD-bd/6D
B BD2-bd2/6D
C B-b/6D
D None of these
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A f.[π(D4-d4)/32D]
B f.[π(D4-d4)/34D]
C f.[π(D2-d2)/32D]
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 11.20N/mm2; 2.750N/mm2
B 11.02N/mm2; 2.755N/mm2
C 2.755N/mm2; 11.02N/mm2
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 36.0 MPa
B 27.0 MPa
C 24.0 MPa
D 21.0 MPa
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 319 Nm
B 281 Nm
C 267 Nm
D 249 Nm
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 116.4 MPa
B 96.4 MPa
C 106.4 MPa
D 126.4 Mpa
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 2.1 kNm
B 2.4 kNm
C 2.7 kNm
D 3.0 kNm
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 145 MPa
B 135 MPa
C 125 MPa
D 175 MPa
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 7.8 MPa
B 9.8 MPa
C 6.8 MPa
D 8.5 MPa
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
be.
A 240 mm
B 120 mm
C 75 mm
D 60 mm
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 3 N/mm2
B 1.5 N/mm2
C 0.75 N/mm2
D 0.0 N/mm2
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
is.
A 0.5q
B 0.75q
C 0.80q
D None of these
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
is.
A 200 N/mm2
B 100N/mm2
C 50N/mm2
D 25N/mm2
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 100 cm3
B 150 cm3
C 75 cm3
D 50 cm3
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
the section is
A 90 N/mm2
B 80 N/mm2
C 60 N/mm2
D 45 N/mm2
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 500 N/mm2
B 250 N/mm2
C 125 N/mm2
D 50 N/mm2
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 20 N/mm2
B 17 N/mm2
C 14 N/mm2
D 6.667 N/mm2
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 20 KN
B 40 KN
C 80 KN
D 100KN
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 20 MPa
B 40 MPa
C 60 MPa
D 80 MPa
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
be
A 96 MPa
B 48 MPa
C 72 MPa
D 24 MPa
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 63.6 MPa
B 31.8 MPa
C 17.6 MPa
D 0
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0
B 107 MPa
C 110 MPa
D 117 MPa
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 103 kg/cm2
B 2 x 103 kg/cm2
C 4 x 103 kg/cm2
D 6 x 103
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 25 MPa
B 50 MPa
C 64 MPa
D 100 MPa
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
be.
A 240 mm
B 120 mm
C 75 mm
D 60 mm
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A Fmax= 205 N/mm2 ; M= 1605Nm
B Fmax= 120 N/mm2 ; M= 160Nm
C Fmax= 200 N/mm2 ; M= 1600Nm
D Fmax= 1200 N/mm2 ; M= 1600Nm
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit

Subject code-202045
Unit-4
Id
A EIy
B E I (dy / dx)
C E I (d2y / dx2)
D E I (d3y / dx3)
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A EIy
B E I (dy / dx)
C E I (d2y / dx2)
D E I (d3y / dx3)
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A [E I (y/dx4)]
B E I (dy/dx)
C E I (d2y/dx2)
D E I (d3y/dx3)
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question E I (d2y/dx2) = _______________.
A SF
B M
C [- w (x)]
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question E I (dy/dx) = _______________.
A M
B Int[M dx]+ C1
D none of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question E I y = _______________.
A M
B Int[M dx]+ C1
D none of the above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A roller
B hinge
C fixed
D all the above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A roller
B hinge
C fixed
D all the above
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A zero
B maximum
C minimum
D none of the above
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A zero
B maximum
C minimum
D none of the above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A zero
B maximum
C minimum
D none of the above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A zero
B maximum
C minimum
D none of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A zero
B maximum
C minimum
D none of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 0<x<L
B 0 < x < L/2
C L/2 < x < L
D none of the above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 0
B L/2
C 3L/4
D L
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 0
B L/2
C 3L/4
D L/4
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 0
B L/2
C 3L/4
D L/4
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 0
B 3L/4
C more than 3L/4
D less than 3L/4
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A L/3
B L/2
C 3L/4
D L/4
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 0
B L/2
C 3L/4
D L/4
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 0
B L/2
C 3L/4
D L/4
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A W L2 / 2EI
B W L2 / 3EI
C W L3 / 3EI
D W L3 / 6EI
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A W L2 / 2EI
B W L2 / 3EI
C W L3 / 3EI
D W L3 / 6EI
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A w L2 / 2EI
B w L2 / 3EI
C w L3 / 3EI
D w L3 / 6EI
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A w L3 / 3EI
B w L3 / 6EI
C w L3 / 8EI
D w L4 / 8EI
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A W L2 / 16 EI
B W L2 / 30 EI
C W L2 / 24 EI
D W L2 / 48 EI
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Elastic curve
B Parabolic curve
C Plastic curve
D None of above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A w L3 / 3 EI
B w L3 / 6 EI
C w a3 / 3 EI
D w a3 / 6 EI
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A w L3 / 3 EI
B w L3 / 6 EI
C w a3 / 3 EI
D w a3 / 6 EI
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Strain energy
B resilience
C Proof resilience
D toughness
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
D all of the above
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A impact energy
B proof resilience
C proof stress
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A equal to
D independent of
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 5WL3/348EI
B 5WL2/384EI
C 5WL3/384EI
D 5WL2/348EI
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
energy
A Kinetic, strain
B Strain, Kinetic
C Potential, Strain
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Zero
B Infinite
C One
D Less than one
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A E
B GI
C EI
D E/I
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Zeroth
B Fourth
C First
D Second
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
EI d2y/dx2 = ___________.
A (W/2)x | -W(x - (L/2))|
B Wx | -W(x - (L/2))|
C (W/2)x | -W(x - L)|
D (W/2)x | + W(x - (L/2))|
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A (wx)/2 - (wx2 /2 )
B w/2 - (wx2 /2 )
C (wLx)/2 - (wL2 /2 )
D (wLx)/2 - (wx2 /2 )
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
the beam.
A slope
B Bending moment
C deflection
D None of above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
D All of above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
________.
B Shear force only
D None of above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 11 W L4 / 120 EI
B W L3 / 30 EI
C W L3 / 24 EI
D W L4 / 48 EI
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A w L3 / 8EI
B w L3 / 6EI
C w L3 / 24EI
D w L4 / 6EI
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A w L3 / 8EI
B w L4 / 8EI
C w L3 / 24EI
D 5 w L4 / 384EI
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A positive
B negative
D None of above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A positive
B negative
D None of above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
end is _________.
A negative
B positive
D None of above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
end is _________.
A Negative
B Positive
D None of above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A positive
B negative
C zero
D Can't say
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A to stop the watch
B to run the watch
D all of these
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
'B' is
A 1/8
B 1/4
C 1/2
D 2
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A M
B √M
C M²
D M³
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A same
B double
C four times
D six times
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A one-fourth
B one-half
C double
D four times
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
d2y/dx2 = ____________________.
A M0
B (-M0)
C (-M0 / L) x | + M0(x - (L/2))2 |
D (M0 / L) x | - M0(x - (L/2))2 |
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.25
B 2
C 4
D 48
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
__________mm.
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 16
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
________˚.
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 32
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.25
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.52
B 0.72
C 0
D 5.2
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.0018˚
B 0.0018 radian
C 0.72˚
D 0.72 radian
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.01
B 10
C 4
D 16
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
be________mm.
A 2
B 4
C 8
D 16
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
be________mm.
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
be________mm.
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
be________mm.
A 0.25
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
be________mm.
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.25
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
_______˚.
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.00167˚
B 0.00167 radian
C 0.72˚
D 0.72 radian
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
_________ mm.
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
_________ mm.
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
_________ mm.
A 0.25
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
_________ mm.
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1.33
B 13.33
C 0.13
D 133.33
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
________mm.
A 0.01
B 10
C 1
D 4
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
will be _________ mm.
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
will be _________ mm.
A 2
B 4
C 8
D 16
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.25
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 3/8
B 3/4
C 4/3
D 8/3
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 8
B 4
C 1/4
D 1/16
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A W2l3/48EI
B W2l3/96EI
C W3l2/48EI
D W3l3/96EI
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A W2l3/48EI
B W2l3/96EI
C W3l2/48EI
D W3l3/96EI
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 5/8
B 8/5
C 5/4
D 4/5
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 2:3
B 3:2
C 1:2
D 2:1
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A M0 L2 / EI
B M0 L2 / 2EI
C 2M0 L2 / EI
D 0
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
end is ________.
A M0 L / EI
B M0 L / 2EI
C 2M0 L / EI
D 0
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A M0 / EI
B M0 L / 24 EI
C M0 L / EI
D M0 L2 / 24 EI
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
deflection is
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
increase by
A 8
B 1/8
C 1/3
D 2
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A b/d
B d/b
C (d/b)2
D (b/d)2
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question
A -Px(3L-x)/6EI
B Px2(3L-x)/6EI
C -Px(3L-x)/6EI
D -Px2(3L-x)/6EI
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question

A PL2/6EI
B PL2/32EI
C PL2/16EI
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
B U = Int. (M2/2GI)
C U = Int. (M/2EJL)
D U = Int. (M/EI)
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question

A U = T2/2GJL
B U = T2/2EI
C U = T/2GJL
D U = T/EI
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question

A P12L3/6E
B P12L3/6EI
C PL/AE
D P12L/6EI
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A positeve
B Negative
C Zero
D None of the above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
support will be
A positeve
B Negative
C Zero
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
midspan will be

C Zero
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Positive
B Negetive
C Zero
D All of above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Positive
B Negetive
C Zero
D All of above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id

C Zero
D All of above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 64/3EI
B 32/3EI
C 8/3EI
D None of these
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
will be __________ mm.
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
__________.
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 32
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
__________.
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 32
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
_________˚.
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
_________˚.
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 2
B 4
C 16
D 32
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 0.25
C 4
D 32
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
m will be _______˚.
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
m will be _______˚.
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1.25
B 0.72
C 0
D 5.2
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
will be ______mm.
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 32
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 32
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 2
B 4
C 16
D 32
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 0.25
C 4
D 32
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
the beam is.
A 1 mm
B 2 mm
C 2.5 mm
D None of these
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 4
B 2
C 1
D 0.25
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 16 mm
B 5 mm
C 2 mm
D 1 mm
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 36/EI
B 27/EI
C 18/EI
D 9/EI
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 6y
B 4y
C 2y
D 1/4y
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 26 mm
B 52 mm
C 2.6 mm
D 10 mm
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
the ratio of
A 8
B 1/8
C 1/2
D 2
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 2 times
B 4 times
C 8 times
D 1/2 times
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A WL
B
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.057 rad
B 0.067 rad
C 0.077 rad
D 0.087 rad
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 53.3 mm
B 63.3 mm
C 73.3 mm
D 83.3 mm
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1.7 mm
B 1.8 mm
C 1.9 mm
D 2.0 mm
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.0166mm
B 1.666mm
C 0.00166mm
D 1.666m
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.133 mm
B 1.333 mm
C 0.00133 mm
D 1.333 m
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 2 mm
B 0.0002 m
C 0.02 mm
D 2m
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.63
B 1.6
C 0.8
D 1.25
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
for that section

Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Question No. 01
According to Lami's theorem
(A) Three forces acting at a point will be in equilibrium
(B) Three forces acting at a point can be represented by a triangle, each side being proportional
to force
(C) If three forces acting upon a particle are represented in magnitude and direction by the
sides of a triangle, taken in order, they will be in equilibrium
(D) If three forces acting at a point are in equilibrium, each force is proportional to the sine of
the angle between the other two
Answer: Option D
Question No. 02
A number of forces acting at a point will be in equilibrium if
(A) Their total sum is zero
(B) Two resolved parts in two directions at right angles are equal
(C) Sum of resolved parts in any two perpendicular directions are both zero
(D) All of them are inclined equally
Answer: Option C
Question No. 03
The center of gravity of a triangle lies at the point of
(A) Concurrence of the medians
(B) Intersection of its altitudes
(C) Intersection of bisector of angles
(D) Intersection of diagonals
Answer: Option A
Question No. 04
Angle of friction is the
(A) Angle between normal reaction and the resultant of normal reaction and the limiting friction
(B) Ratio of limiting friction and normal reaction
(C) The ratio of minimum friction force to the friction force acting when the body is just about
to move
(D) The ratio of minimum friction force to friction force acting when the body is in motion
Answer: Option A
Question No. 05
Limiting force of friction is the
(A) Tangent of angle between normal reaction and the resultant of normal reaction and limiting
friction
(C) The friction force acting when the body is just about to move
(D) The friction force acting when the body is in motion
Answer: Option C
Question No. 06
The necessary condition for forces to be in equilibrium is that these should be
(A) Coplanar
(B) Meet at one point
(C) Both (A) and (B) above
(D) All be equal
Answer: Option C
Question No. 07
Which of the following is the example of lever of first order?
(A) Arm of man
(B) Pair of scissors
(C) Pair of clinical tongs
(D) All of the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 08
A cable with a uniformly distributed load per horizontal metre run will take the following shape
(A) Straight line
(B) Parabola
(C) Hyperbola
(D) Elliptical
Answer: Option B
Question No. 09
In determining stresses in frames by methods of sections, the frame is divided into two parts by an
imaginary section drawn in such a way as not to cut more than
(A) Two members with unknown forces of the frame
(B) Three members with unknown forces of the frame
(C) Four members with unknown forces of the frame
(D) Three members with known forces of the frame
Answer: Option B
Question No. 10
According to principle of transmissibility of forces, the effect of a force upon a body is
(A) Maximum when it acts at the center of gravity of a body
(B) Different at different points in its line of action
(C) The same at every point in its line of action
(D) Minimum when it acts at the C.G. of the body
Answer: Option C
Question No. 11
Which of the following do not have identical dimensions?
(A) Momentum and impulse
(B) Torque and energy
(C) Torque and work
(D) Moment of a force and angular momentum
Answer: Option D
Question No. 12
If a number of forces act simultaneously on a particle, it is possible
(A) Not a replace them by a single force
(B) To replace them by a single force
(C) To replace them by a single force through C.G.
(D) To replace them by a couple
Answer: Option B
Question No. 13
Two coplanar couples having equal and opposite moments
(A) Balance each other
(B) Produce a couple and an unbalanced force
(C) Are equivalent
(D) Produce a moment of couple
Answer: Option D
Question No. 14
If a suspended body is struck at the centre of percussion, then the pressure on die axis passing
through the point of suspension will be
(A) Maximum
(B) Minimum
(C) Zero
(D) Infinity
Answer: Option C
Question No. 15
Kinetic friction is the
(A) Tangent of angle between normal reaction and the resultant of normal reaction and the
limiting friction
Answer: Option D
Question No. 16
The center of gravity of a uniform lamina lies at
(A) The center of heavy portion
(B) The bottom surface
(C) The midpoint of its axis
Answer: Option C
Question No. 17
The bending moment at E for the structure shown in below figure, is
(A) Zero
(B) 10 Tm
(C) 20 Tm
(D) 40 Tm
Answer: Option A
Question No. 18
The maximum twisting moment a shaft can resist, is the product of the permissible shear stress
and
(A) Moment of inertia
(B) Polar moment of inertia
(C) Polar modulus
(D) Modulus of rigidly
Answer: Option C
Question No. 19
The deflection of any rectangular beam simply supported, is
(A) Directly proportional to its weight
(B) Inversely proportional to its width
(C) Inversely proportional to the cube of its depth
(D) Directly proportional to the cube of its length
Answer: Option C
Question No. 20
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The point through which the resultant of the shear stresses passes is known as shear centre
(B) In the standard rolled channels, the shear centre is on the horizontal line passing through
and away from the C.G. beyond web
(C) In equal angles, the shear centre is on the horizontal plane and away from the C.G., outside
of the leg projection
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 21
A heavy string attached at two ends at same horizontal level and when central dip is very small
approaches the following curve
(A) Catenary
(B) Parabola
(C) Hyperbola
(D) Elliptical
Answer: Option B
Question No. 22
A beam is said to be of uniform strength, if
(A) B.M. is same throughout the beam
(B) Deflection is same throughout the beam
(C) Bending stress is same throughout the beam
(D) Shear stress is same throughout the beam
Answer: Option C
Question No. 23
(A) The distance of the eccentric axial load from the C.G. beyond which tension develops, is
known as kern distance
(B) In visco-elastic material, stress-strain relation is dependent on time
(C) An orthotropic material has different properties in three mutually perpendicular directions
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 24
The ratio of limiting friction and normal reaction is known as
(A) Coefficient of friction
(B) Angle of friction
(C) Angle of repose
(D) Sliding friction
Answer: Option A
Question No. 25
If a three hinged parabolic arch carries a uniformly distributed load on its entire span, every
section of the arch resists.
(A) Compressive force
(B) Tensile force
(C) Shear force
(D) Bending moment
Answer: Option A
Question No. 26
The under mentioned type is simple strain
(A) Tensile strain
(B) Compressive strain
(C) Shear strain
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 27
If rain is falling in the opposite direction of the movement of a pedestrian, he has to hold his
umbrella
(A) More inclined when moving
(B) Less inclined when moving
(C) More inclined when standing
(D) Less inclined when standing
Answer: Option D
Question No. 28
The reaction at support A of the beam shown in below figure, is
(A) Zero
(B) 5 T
(C) 10 T
(D) 1 T
Answer: Option A
Question No. 29
In a solid arch, shear force acts
(A) Vertically upwards
(B) Along the axis of the arch
(C) Perpendicular to the axis of arch
(D) Tangentially to the arch
Answer: Option C
Question No. 30
The maximum frictional force which comes into play when a body just begins to slide over another
surface is called
(A) Limiting friction
(B) Sliding friction
(C) Rolling friction
(D) Kinematic friction
Answer: Option A
Question No. 31
An arch with three hinges, is a structure
(A) Statically determinate
(B) Statically indeterminate
(C) Geometrically unstable
(D) Structurally sound but indeterminate
Answer: Option A
Question No. 32
Beams of uniform strength are preferred to those of uniform section because these are
economical for
(A) Large spans
(B) Heavy weights
(C) Light weights
(D) Short spans
Answer: Option A
Question No. 33
The M.I. of hollow circular section about a central axis perpendicular to section as compared to its
M.I. about horizontal axis is
(A) Same
(B) Double
(C) Half
(D) Four times
Answer: Option B
Question No. 34
The tensile force required to cause an elongation of 0.045 mm in a steel rod of 1000 mm length
and 12 mm diameter, is (where E = 2 × 106 kg/cm2)
(A) 166 kg
(B) 102 kg
(C) 204 kg
(D) 74 kg
Answer: Option B
Question No. 35
A long vertical member, subjected to an axial compressive load, is called
(A) A column
(B) A strut
(C) A tie
(D) A stanchion
Answer: Option A
Question No. 36
In ideal machines
(A) Mechanical advantage is greater than velocity ratio
(B) Mechanical advantage is equal to velocity ratio
(C) Mechanical advantage is less than velocity ratio
(D) Mechanical advantage is unity
Answer: Option B
Question No. 37
The nature of the stress in horizontal members of the truss shown in below figure may be
(A) Compressive
(B) Tensile
(C) Shear
(D) Zero
Answer: Option B
Question No. 38
The property of a material by which it can be drawn to a smaller section, due to tension, is called
(A) Plasticity
(B) Ductility
(C) Elasticity
(D) Malleability
Answer: Option B
Question No. 39
The unit of force in S.I. units is
(A) Kilogram
(B) Newton
(C) Watt
(D) Dyne
Answer: Option B
Question No. 40
A bending moment may be defined as:
(A) Arithmetic sum of the moments of all the forces on either side of the section
(B) Arithmetic sum of the forces on either side of the section
(C) Algebraic sum of the moments of all the forces on either side of the section
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 41
If a circular beam of diameter d experiences a longitudinal strain P/E and a lateral strain 2P/mE,
the volumetric strain is
(A) (P/E) + (2P/mE)
(B) (P/E) - (2P/mE)
(C) (P/E) + (mE/2P)
(D) (P/E) - (mE/2P)
Answer: Option B
Question No. 42
The resolved part of the resultant of two forces inclined at an angle in a given direction is equal
to
(A) The algebraic sum of the resolved parts of the forces in the given direction
(B) The sum of the resolved parts of the forces in the given direction
(C) The difference of the forces multiplied by the cosine of
(D) The sum of the forces multiplied by the sine of
Answer: Option A
Question No. 43
For structural analysis, Maxwell's reciprocal theorem can be applied to:
(A) Plastic structures
(B) Elastic structures
(C) Symmetrical structures
(D) All the above
Answer: Option B
Question No. 44
If all the dimensions of a bar are increased in the proportion n : 1, the proportion with which the
maximum stress produced in the prismatic bar by its own weight, will increase in the ratio
(A) 1 : n
(B) n : 1
(C) 1 : (1/n)
(D) 1 : n
Answer: Option B
Question No. 45
Which of the following is a vector quantity?
(A) Energy
(B) Mass
(C) Momentum
(D) Angle
Answer: Option C
Question No. 46
Pick up the incorrect statement
(A) The cross-sectional area of the welded member is effective
(B) A welded joint develops strength of its parent metal
(C) Welded joints provide rigidity
(D) Welding takes more time than riveting
Answer: Option D
Question No. 47
A 8 metre long simply supported rectangular beam which carries a distributed load 45 kg/m.
experiences a maximum fibre stress 160 kg/cm2. If the moment of inertia of the beam is 640 cm4,
the overall depth of the beam is
(A) 10 cm
(B) 12 cm
(C) 15 cm
(D) 18 cm
Answer: Option A
Question No. 48
A heavy ladder resting on floor and against a vertical wall may not be in equilibrium, if
(A) The floor is smooth, the wall is rough
(B) The floor is rough, the wall is smooth
(C) The floor and wall both are smooth surfaces
(D) The floor and wall both are rough surfaces
Answer: Option C
Question No. 49
A triangular section having base b, height h, is placed with its base horizontal. If the shear stress at
a depth y from top is q, the maximum shear stress is
(A) 3S/bh
(B) 4S/bh
(C) 4b/Sh
(D) 3b/bS
Answer: Option A
Question No. 50
Maximum deflection of a
(A) Cantilever beam carrying a concentrated load W at its free end is WL3/3EI
(B) Simply supported beam carrying a concentrated load W at mid-span is WL3/48EI
(C) Cantilever beam, carrying a uniformly distributed load over span is WL3/8EI
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 51
From a circular plate of diameter 6 cm is cut out a circle whose diameter is a radius of the plate.
Find the e.g. of the remainder from the center of circular plate
(A) 0.5 cm
(B) 1.0 cm
(C) 1.5 cm
(D) 2.5 cm
Answer: Option A
Question No. 52
If a rectangular beam measuring 10 × 18 × 400 cm carries a uniformly distributed load such that
the bending stress developed is 100 kg/cm2. The intensity of the load per metre length, is
(A) 240 kg
(B) 250 kg
(C) 260 kg
(D) 270 kg
Answer: Option B
Question No. 53
If two tensile forces mutually perpendicular act on a rectangular parallelepiped bar are equal, the
resulting elongation of the pipe, is
(A) (P/E) (1 - m)
(B) (E/P) (m -1)
(C) (E/P) (1 - m)
(D) (P/E) (1 + m)
Answer: Option A
Question No. 54
On a ladder resting on smooth ground and leaning against vertical wall, the force of friction will be
(A) Towards the wall at its upper end
(B) Away from the wall at its upper end
(C) Upwards at its upper end
(D) Downwards at its upper end
Answer: Option C
Question No. 55
If the rivets in adjacent rows are staggered and outermost row has only one rivet, the
arrangement of the rivets, is called
(A) Chain riveting
(B) Zig-zag riveting
(C) Diamond riveting
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 56
The bending moment at C of a portal frame shown in below figure is
(A) 8 t-m
(B) 4 t-m
(C) 28 t-m
(D) Zero
Answer: Option D
Question No. 57
If three forces acting in one plane upon a rigid body, keep it in equilibrium, then they must either
(A) Meet in a point
(B) Be all parallel
(C) At least two of them must meet
(D) All the above are correct
Answer: Option D
Question No. 58
In a three hinged arch, the shear force is usually
(A) Maximum at crown
(B) Maximum at springing
(C) Maximum at quarter points
(D) Varies with slope
Answer: Option B
Question No. 59
If Z and I are the section modulus and moment of inertia of the section, the shear force F and
bending moment M at a section are related by
(A) F = My/I
(B) F = M/Z
(C) F = dM/dx
(D) F Mdx
Answer: Option C
Question No. 60
A pair of smith's tongs is an example of the lever of
(A) Zeroth order
(B) First order
(C) Second order
(D) Third order
Answer: Option C
Question No. 61
The direction of the reaction at support B of a truss shown in below figure will be
(A) East of North

(B) West of North
(C) East of South
(D) West of South
Answer: Option A
Question No. 62
A beam of length L supported on two intermediate rollers carries a uniformly distributed load on
its entire length. If sagging B.M. and hogging B.M. of the beam are equal, the length of each
overhang, is
(A) 0.107 L
(B) 0.207 L
(C) 0.307 L
(D) 0.407 L
Answer: Option B
Question No. 63
The unit of work or energy in S.I. units is
(A) Newton
(B) Pascal
(C) Kilogram meter
(D) Joule
Answer: Option D
Question No. 64
The shear force on a simply supported beam is proportional to
(A) Displacement of the neutral axis
(B) Sum of the forces
(C) Sum of the transverse forces
(D) Algebraic sum of the transverse forces of the section
Answer: Option D
Question No. 65
Shear deflection of a cantilever of length L, cross sectional area A and shear modulus G, subjected
to w/m u.d.l., is
(A) (3/4) (L²w/GA)
(B) (3/2) (L²w/GA)
(C) (2/3) (L3w/GA)
(D) (3/2) (Lw/GA²)
Answer: Option A
Question No. 66
Which of the following is not the unit of distance?
(A) Angstrom
(B) Light year
(C) Micron
(D) Milestone
Answer: Option D
Question No. 67
In a bar of large length when held vertically and subjected to a load at its lower end, its own-
weight produces additional stress. The maximum stress will be
(A) At the lower cross-section
(B) At the built-in upper cross-section
(C) At the central cross-section
(D) At every point of the bar
Answer: Option B
Question No. 68
The value of Poisson's ratio always remains
(A) Greater than one
(B) Less than one
(C) Equal to one
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 69
The B.M. diagram of the beam shown in below figure, is
(A) A rectangle
(B) A triangle
(C) A trapezium
(D) A parabola
Answer: Option A
Question No. 70
Which of the following is not a vector quantity?
(A) Weight
(B) Velocity
(C) Acceleration
(D) Force
Answer: Option A
Question No. 71
The greatest eccentricity which a load W can have without producing tension on the cross-section
of a short column of external diameter D and internal diameter d, is
(A) 4W/ (D² - d²)
(B) (D² - d²)/32D
(C) (D² + d²)/8D
(D) (D² - d²)/8D
Answer: Option C
Question No. 72
If is the shear force at a section of an I-joist, having web depth and moment of inertia
about its neutral axis, the difference between the maximum and mean shear stresses in the
web is,
(A) Sd²/8I
(B) Sd²/12I
(C) Sd²/16I
(D) Sd²/24I
Answer: Option D
Question No. 73
Center of gravity of a thin hollow cone lies on the axis at a height of
(A) One-fourth of the total height above base
(B) One-third of the total height above base
(C) One-half of the total height above base
(D) Three-eighth of the total height above the base
Answer: Option B
Question No. 74
A rectangular bar of width b and height h is being used as a cantilever. The loading is in a plane
parallel to the side b. The section modulus is
(A) bh3/12
(B) bh²/6
(C) b²h/6
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 75
(B) Shear stress is same throughout the beam
(C) Deflection is same throughout the beam
(D) Bending stress is same at every section along its longitudinal axis
Answer: Option D
Question No. 76
The coefficient of friction depends on
(A) Area of contact
(B) Shape of surfaces
(C) Strength of surfaces
(D) Nature of surface
Answer: Option D
Question No. 77
A closely coiled helical spring of radius R, contains n turns and is subjected to an axial loadW. If the
radius of the coil wire is r and modulus of rigidity of the coil material is C, the stress developed in
the helical spring is
(A) WR/ 3
(B) 2WR/ 3
(C) 2WR/ 2
(D) 4WR/ 2
Answer: Option B
Question No. 78
The intensity of direct longitudinal stress in the cross-section at any point distant r from the
neutral axis, is proportional to
(A) r
(B) 1/r
(C) r2
(D) 1/r²
Answer: Option A
Question No. 79
The coefficient of friction depends upon
(A) Nature of surfaces
(B) Area of contact
(C) Shape of the surfaces
Answer: Option A
Question No. 80
The force in member U2L2 of the truss shown in below figure, is
(A) 10 T tension
(B) 10 T compression
(C) Zero
(D) 15 T compression
Answer: Option B
Question No. 81
The ratio of the moments of resistance of a solid circular shaft of diameter D and a hollow shaft
(external diameter D and internal diameter d), is
(A) D4/(D4 - d4)
(B) D3/(D3 - d3)
(C) (D4 - d4)/D4
(D) (D3 - d3)/D3
Answer: Option A
Question No. 82
The angle which an inclined plane makes with the horizontal when a body placed on it is about to
move down is known as angle of
(A) Friction
(B) Limiting friction
(C) Repose
Answer: Option C
Question No. 83
When loads are applied proportionately to a frame structure containing its members in one plane,
the structure is called
(A) Grid frame
(B) Plane frame
(C) Space frame
(D) Truss frame
Answer: Option C
Question No. 84
The maximum stress intensity due to a suddenly applied load is x-times the stress intensity
produced by the load of the same magnitude applied gradually. The value of x is
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 1/2
Answer: Option B
Question No. 85
The unit of power in S.I. units is
(A) Newton meter
(B) Watt
(C) Joule
(D) Kilogram meter/sec
Answer: Option B
Question No. 86
The maximum bending moment due to a moving load on a simply supported beam, occurs
(A) At the mid span
(B) At the supports
(C) Under the load
(D) Anywhere on the beam
Answer: Option C
Question No. 87
Which of the following is not the unit of pressure?
(A) kg/cm
(B) atm
(C) kg/cm²
(D) Newton
Answer: Option D
Question No. 88
The force in BD of the truss shown in below figure is:
(A) 500 kg compressive

(B) 500 kg tensile
(C) 1500 kg tensile
(D) 1500 kg compressive
Answer: Option A
Question No. 89
The maximum resistance against rotation, is offered by the weld at a point
(A) Most distant
(B) Least distant
(C) At either end
(D) Centrally located
Answer: Option A
Question No. 90
During a tensile test on a ductile material
(A) Nominal stress at fracture is higher than the ultimate stress
(B) True stress at fracture is higher than the ultimate stress
(C) True stress at fracture is the same as the ultimate stress
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 91
A framed structure is perfect if it contains members equal to
(A) 2n3
(B) nl
(C) 2nl
(D) 3n²
Where n = number of joints in a frame
Answer: Option A
Question No. 92
When equal and opposite forces applied to a body, tend to elongate it, the stress so produced, is
called
(A) Shear stress
(B) Compressive stress
(C) Tensile stress
(D) Transverse stress
Answer: Option C
Question No. 93
A joint of a frame is subjected to three tensile forces P, Q and R equally inclined to each other.
If P is 10 tonnes, the other forces will be
(A) Q = 10 tonnes and R = zero
(B) R + 10 tonnes and Q = zero
(C) Q + R = 10 tonnes
(D) Q and R each is equal to 10 tonnes
Answer: Option D
Question No. 94
In the equation of virtual work, following force is neglected
(A) Reaction of any smooth surface with which the body is in contact
(B) Reaction of a rough surface of a body which rolls on it without slipping
(C) Reaction at a point or an axis, fixed in space, around which a body is constrained to turn
Answer: Option D
Question No. 95
The structure shown in below figure is stable, if
(A) x y/2
(B) x = 2y
(C) =y
(D) x) = y
Answer: Option D
Question No. 96
(A) The rate of change of bending moment is equal to rate of shear force
(B) The rate of change of shear force is equal to rate of loading
(C) Neither (a) nor (b)
(D) Both (a) and (b)
Answer: Option D
Question No. 97
Tangent of angle of friction is equal to
(A) Kinetic friction
(C) Angle of repose
(D) Coefficient of friction
Answer: Option D
Question No. 98
The type of butt joints in common use, is:
(A) Single inverted V-butt joint
(B) Double V-butt joint
(C) Double U-butt joint
(D) Single V-butt joint
Answer: Option A
Question No. 99
For keeping the stress wholly compressive the load may be applied on a circular column anywhere
within a concentric circle of diameter
(A) d/2
(B) d/3
(C) d/4
(D) d/8
Answer: Option C
Question No. 100

The C.G. of a solid hemisphere lies on the central radius 3r
(A) At distance from the plane base 3r
(B) At distance from the plane base 3r
(C) At distance from the plane base 3r
(D) At distance from the plane base or
Answer: Option D
Question No. 101

In a loaded beam, the point of contraflexure occurs at a section where
(A) Bending moment is minimum
(B) Bending moment is zero or changes sign
(C) Bending moment is maximum
(D) Shearing force is maximum
Answer: Option B
Question No. 102
In actual machines
Answer: Option C
Question No. 103

In the given below figure, the rivets with maximum stress, are:
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 2 and 4
Answer: Option D
Question No. 104

If two forces acting at a joint are not along the straight line, then for the equilibrium of the joint
(A) One of the forces must be zero
(B) Each force must be zero
(C) Forces must be equal and of the same sign
(D) Forces must be equal in magnitude but opposite in sign
Answer: Option B
Question No. 105

Shear deflection of a cantilever of length L, cross sectional area A and shear modulus G, under a
concentrated load W at its free end, is
(A) (2/3) (WL/AG)
(B) (1/3) (WL²/EIA)
(C) (3/2) (WL/AG)
(D) (3/2) (WL²/AG)
Answer: Option C
Question No. 106

Forces are called concurrent when their lines of action meet in
(A) One point
(B) Two points
(C) Plane
(D) Perpendicular planes
Answer: Option A
Question No. 107

The ratio of the maximum deflections of a beam simply supported at its ends with an isolated
central load and that of with a uniformly distributed load over its entire length, is
(A) 3/2
(B) 15/24
(C) 24/15
(D) 2/3
Answer: Option C
Question No. 108

At either end of a plane frame, maximum number of possible bending moments, are
(A) Zero
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
Answer: Option A
Question No. 109

Which of the following is not the unit of work, energy and heat?
(A) kcal
(B) kg m
(C) kWhr
(D) hp
Answer: Option D
Question No. 110

If a shaft is rotating N revolutions per minute with an applied torque T kg-m, the horse power
being transmitted by the shaft, is
(A) 2 /550
(B) 2 /750
(C) 2 /4500
(D) 2 /55
Answer: Option C
Question No. 111
In a shaft shear stress intensity at a point is not
(A) Directly proportional to the distance from the axis
(B) Inversely proportional to the distance from the axis
(C) Inversely proportional to the polar moment of inertia
(D) Directly proportional to the applied torque
Answer: Option B
Question No. 112

Center of gravity of a solid cone lies on the axis at the height
Answer: Option A
Question No. 113

The force in DB of the truss shown in below figure is
(A) W compression
(B) W tension
(C) 2 W compression
(D) 5 W tension
Answer: Option B
Question No. 114

A diagram which shows the variations of the axial load for all sections of the span of a beam, is
called
(A) Bending moment diagram
(B) Shear force diagram
(C) Thrust diagram
(D) Stress diagram
Answer: Option C
Question No. 115

The resultant of the following three couples 20 kg force, 0.5 m arm, +ve sense 30 kg force, 1 m
arm, -ve sense 40 kg force, 0.25 m arm, +ve sense having arm of 0.5 m will be
(A) 20 kg, -ve sense
(B) 20 kg, +ve sense
(C) 10 kg, +ve sense
(D) 10 kg, -ve sense
Answer: Option A
Question No. 116

A cantilever beam rectangular in cross-section is subjected to an isolated load at its free end. If the
width of the beam is doubled, the deflection of the free end will be changed in the ratio of
(A) 8
(B) 1/8
(C) 1/2
(D) 3
Answer: Option C
Question No. 117

In rectangular columns (cross-section b × h), the core is a
(A) Rectangle of lengths b/2 and h/2
(B) Square of length b/2
(C) Rhombus of length h/2
(D) Rhombus of diagonals b/3 and h/3
Answer: Option D
Question No. 118

Pick up the correct assumption of the theory of simple bending
(A) The value of the Young's modulus is the same in tension as well as in compression
(B) Transverse section of a beam remains plane before and after bending
(C) The material of the beam is homogeneous and isotropic
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 119

Dynamic friction as compared to static friction is
(A) Same
(B) More
(C) Less
(D) May be less of more depending on nature of surfaces and velocity
Answer: Option C
Question No. 120

The property of a material by which it can be beaten or rolled into thin plates, is called
(A) Malleability
(B) Ductility
(C) Plasticity
(D) Elasticity
Answer: Option A
Question No. 121
A closely coiled helical spring of radius R, contains n turns and is subjected to an axial load W. If
the radius of the coil wire is r and modulus of rigidity of the coil material is C, the deflection of the
coil is
(A) WR3n/Cr4
(B) 2WR3n/Cr4
(C) 3WR3n/Cr4
(D) 4WR3n/Cr4
Answer: Option D
Question No. 122

In the lever of third order, load W, effort P and fulcrum F are oriented as follows
(A) W between P and F
(B) F between W and P
(C) P between W and F
(D) W, P and F all on one side
Answer: Option A
Question No. 123

In the cantilever truss as shown in below figure, the horizontal component of the reaction at A, is
(A) 30 tonnes
(B) 60 tonnes
(C) 90 tonnes
(D) 120 tonnes
Answer: Option A
Question No. 124

The property by which a body returns to its original shape after removal of the force, is called
(A) Plasticity
(B) Elasticity
(C) Ductility
(D) Malleability
Answer: Option B
Question No. 125
Forces are called coplanar when all of them acting on body lie in
(A) One point
(B) One plane
(C) Different planes
Answer: Option B
Question No. 126

The slenderness ratio of a vertical column of a square cross-section of 2.5 cm sides and 300 cm
length, is
(A) 200
(B) 240
(C) 360
(D) 416
Answer: Option D
Question No. 127

The stress necessary to initiate yielding, is considerably
(A) More than that necessary to continue it
(B) Less than that necessary to continue it
(C) More than that necessary to stop it
(D) Less than that necessary to stop it
Answer: Option A
Question No. 128

Which of the following is not a scalar quantity?
(A) Time
(B) Mass
(C) Volume
(D) Acceleration
Answer: Option D
Question No. 129

Influence lines are drawn for structures
(A) Of any type
(B) Statically determinate
(C) Pin-jointed truss
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 130

A cast iron T section beam is subjected to pure bending. For maximum compressive stress to be
three times the maximum tensile stress, centre of gravity of the section from flange side is
(A) h/4
(B) h/3
(C) h/2
(D) 2/3 h
Answer: Option A
Question No. 131

The units of moment of inertia of an area are
(A) kg m²
(B) m4
(C) kg/m²
(D) m3
Answer: Option B
Question No. 132

The radius of gyration of a rectangular section is not proportional to
(A) Square root of the moment of inertia
(B) Square root of the inverse of the area
(C) Square root of the moment of inertia divided by area of the section
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 133

Ties are load carrying members of a frame, which are subjected to
(A) Transverse loads
(B) Axial tension loads
(C) Axial compressive loads
(D) Torsional loads
Answer: Option B
Question No. 134

On the ladder resting on the ground and leaning against a smooth vertical wall, the force of
friction will be
(A) Downwards at its upper end
(B) Upwards at its upper end
(C) Perpendicular to the wall at its upper end
(D) Zero at its upper end
Answer: Option D
Question No. 135

The phenomenon of slow extension of materials having constant load, i.e. increasing with the time
is called
(A) Creeping
(B) Yielding
(C) Breaking
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 136

The maximum deflection of
(A) A simply supported beam carrying a uniformly increasing load from either end and having
the apex at the mid span is WL3/60EI
(B) A fixed ended beam carrying a distributed load over the span is WL3/384EI
(C) A fixed ended beam carrying a concentrated load at the mid span is WL3/192EI
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 137

A flywheel on a motor goes from rest to 1000 rpm in 6 sec. The number of revolutions made is
nearly equal to
(A) 25
(B) 50
(C) 100
(D) 250
Answer: Option B
Question No. 138

The B.M. of a cantilever beam shown in below figure at A, is
(A) Zero
(B) 8 Tm
(C) 12 Tm
(D) 20 Tm
Answer: Option A
Question No. 139

A cantilever carries is uniformly distributed load W over its whole length and a force W acts at its
free end upward. The net deflection of the free end will be
(A) Zero
(B) (5/24) (WL3/EI) upward
(C) (5/24) (WL3/EI) downward
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 140
The C.G. of a plane lamina will not be at its geometrical centre in the case of a
(A) Right angled triangle
(B) Equilateral triangle
(C) Square
(D) Circle
Answer: Option A
Question No. 141

Struts are load carrying members of a frame structure which are subjected to
(A) Axial tension loads
(B) Axial compressive loads
(C) Torsional loads
(D) Transverse loads
Answer: Option B
Question No. 142

Strain energy of a member may be equated to
(A) Average resistance × displacement
(B) ½ stress × strain × area of its cross-section
(C) ½ stress × strain × volume of the member
(D) ½ (stress)2 × volume of the member + Young's modulus E
Answer: Option D
Question No. 143

A force acting on a body may
(A) Introduce internal stresses
(B) Balance the other forces acting on it
(C) Retard its motion
Answer: Option D
Question No. 144

A simply supported beam (l + 2a) with equal overhangs (a) carries a uniformly distributed load
over the whole length, the B.M. changes sign if
(A) l > 2a
(B) l < 2a
(C) l = 2a
(D) l = 4a
Answer: Option A
Question No. 145

The stress in the wall of a cylinder in a direction normal to its longitudinal axis, due to a force
acting along the circumference, is known as
(A) Yield stress
(B) Longitudinal stress
(C) Hoop stress
(D) Circumferential stress
Answer: Option C
Question No. 146

According to principle of moments
(A) If a system of coplanar forces is in equilibrium, then their algebraic sum is zero
(B) If a system of coplanar forces is in equilibrium, then the algebraic sum of their moments
about any point in their plane is zero
(C) The algebraic sum of the moments of any two forces about any point is equal to moment of
their resultant about the same point
(D) Positive and negative couples can be balanced
Answer: Option B
Question No. 147

The ratio of strengths of solid to hollow shafts, both having outside diameter D and hollow having
inside diameter D/2, in torsion, is
(A) 1/4
(B) 1/2
(C) 1/16
(D) 15/15
Answer: Option D
Question No. 148

Along the neutral axis of a simply supported beam
(A) Fibres do not undergo strain
(B) Fibres undergo minimum strain
(C) Fibres undergo maximum strain
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 149

A trolley wire weighs 1.2 kg per meter length. The ends of the wire are attached to two poles 20
meters apart. If the horizontal tension is 1500 kg find the dip in the middle of the span
(A) 2.5 cm
(B) 3.0 cm
(C) 4.0 cm
(D) 5.0 cm
Answer: Option C
Question No. 150

In case of an eccentric loading on a bracket subjected to moment M, the tangential force
developed in any rivet, at right angles to its radius vector r is
(A) Mr/ r²
(B) r²/Mr
(C) Mr²/ r²
(D) Mr/ r²
Answer: Option A
Question No. 151

A composite member shown in below figure was formed at 25°C and was made of two
materials a and b. If the coefficient of thermal expansion of a is more than that of b and the
composite member is heated upto 45°C, then
(A) a will be in tension and b in compression

(B) Both will be in compression
(C) Both will be in tension
(D) a will be in compression and b in tension
Answer: Option D
Question No. 152

Coulomb friction is the friction between
(A) Bodies having relative motion
(B) Two dry surfaces
(C) Two lubricated surfaces
(D) Solids and liquids
Answer: Option A
Question No. 153

The ratio of the moment of inertia of a circular plate and that of a square plate for equal depth, is
(A) Less than one
(B) Equal to one
(C) More than one
(D) Equal
Answer: Option D
Question No. 154

The principal stresses at a point are 100, 100 and -200 kgf/cm2, the octahedral shear stress at the
point is:
(A) 100 kg/cm2
(B) 200 kg/cm2
(C) 300 kg/cm2
(D) 400 kg/cm2
Answer: Option A
Question No. 155

A sample of metal weighs 219 gms in air, 180 gms in water, 120 gms in an unknown fluid. Then
which is correct statement about density of metal
(A) Density of metal can't be determined
(B) Metal is twice as dense as water
(C) Metal will float in water
(D) Metal is twice as dense as unknown fluid
Answer: Option A
Question No. 156

The energy stored in a beam of length subjected to a constant B.M. is
(A) M²L/2EI
(B) ML²/2EI
(C) M²L/EI
(D) ML²/EI
Answer: Option A
Question No. 157

In a simply supported beam L with a triangular load W varying from zero at one end to the
maximum value at the other end, the maximum bending moment is
(A) WL/3
(B) WL
(C) WL/4
(D) WL3
Answer: Option D
Question No. 158

Which is the correct statement about law of polygon of forces?
(A) If any number of forces acting at a point can be represented by the sides of a polygon taken
in order, then the forces are in equilibrium
(B) If any number of forces acting at a point can be represented in direction and magnitude by
the sides of a polygon, then the forces are in equilibrium
(C) If a polygon representing forces acting at a point is closed then forces are in equilibrium
(D) If any number of forces acting at a point can be represented in direction and magnitude by
the sides of a polygon taken in order, then the forces are in equilibrium
Answer: Option D
Question No. 159

If a member carries a tensile force P on its area of cross-section A, the normal stress introduced on
(A) (P/A
(B) (P/A
(C) (P/A
(D) (P/2A
Answer: Option B
Question No. 160

Failure of riveted joints is due to
(A) Tearing of the plates between the rivet hole and the edge of the plate
(B) Tearing of plates between rivets
(C) Shearing of rivets
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 161

Two non-collinear parallel equal forces acting in opposite direction
(B) Constitute a moment
(C) Constitute a couple
(D) Constitute a moment of couple
Answer: Option C
Question No. 162

A simply supported wooden beam 150 cm long and having a cross section 16 cm × 24 cm carries a
concentrated load, at the centre. If the permissible stress ft = 75 kg/cm2 and fs= 10 kg/cm2 the safe
load is
(A) 3025 kg
(B) 3050 kg
(C) 3075 kg
(D) 3100 kg
Answer: Option C
Question No. 163

If a steel rod of 20 mm diameter and 5 metres long elongates by 2.275 mm when subjected to an
axial pull of 3000 kg, the stress developed, is
(A) 9.5541 kg/cm2
(B) 95.541 kg/cm2
(C) 955.41 kg/cm2
(D) 9554.1 kg/cm2
Answer: Option C
Question No. 164

Least force required to draw a body up the inclined plane is W sin (plane inclination + friction
angle) applied in the direction
(A) Along the plane
(B) Horizontally
(C) Vertically
(D) At an angle equal to the angle of friction to the inclined plane
Answer: Option D
Question No. 165

If a constant section beam is subjected to a uniform bending moment throughout, its length bends
to
(A) A circular arc
(B) A parabolic arc
(C) A catenary
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 166

The width b and depth d of a beam cut from a wooden cylindrical log of 100 cm diameter for
maximum strength are:
(A) b = 57.73 cm d = 81.65 cm
(B) b = 81.65 cm d = 57.73 cm
(C) b = 50.00 cm d = 50.00 cm
(D) b = 40.00 cm d = 80.00 cm
Answer: Option A
Question No. 167

Which of the following is the locus of a point that moves in such a manner that its distance from a
fixed point is equal to its distance from a fixed line multiplied by a constant greater than one
(A) Ellipse
(B) Hyperbola
(C) Parabola
(D) Circle
Answer: Option B
Question No. 168

As compared to uniaxial tension or compression, the strain energy stored in bending is only
(A) 1/8
(B) 1/4
(C) 1/3
(D) 1/2
Answer: Option C
Question No. 169

Strain energy of any member may be defined as work done on it
(A) To deform it
(B) To resist elongation
(C) To resist shortening
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 170
Effect of a force on a body depends upon
(A) Magnitude
(B) Direction
(C) Position or line of action
Answer: Option D
Question No. 171

If n is the ratio of internal and external diameters of a hollow shaft, the ratio of the weight of the
hollow shaft and that of solid shaft of same strength, will be
(A) (1 - n²)/(1 - n²)1/2
(B) (1 - n²)/(1 - n4)2/3
(C) (1 + n3)/(1 + n4)1/2
(D) (1 + n1)/(1 + n4)2/3
Answer: Option B
Question No. 172

The effect of arching a beam, is
(A) To reduce the bending moment throughout
(B) To increase the bending moment throughout
(C) Nothing on the bending throughout
(D) All the above
Answer: Option A
Question No. 173

D' Alembert's principle is used for
(A) Reducing the problem of kinetics to equivalent statics problem
(B) Determining stresses in the truss
(C) Stability of floating bodies
(D) Designing safe structures
Answer: Option A
Question No. 174

The range within which a load can be applied on a rectangular column, to avoid any tensile stress,
is
(A) One-half of the base
(B) One-fifth of the base
(C) One-fourth of the base
(D) One-fifth of the base
Answer: Option B
Question No. 175

For the same height, the bottom width for no tension,
(A) For triangular section is more than rectangular section
(B) For rectangular section is more than triangular section
(C) For triangular section is same as that of a rectangular section
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 176

Coefficient of friction is the
Answer: Option B
Question No. 177

An arch may be subjected to
(A) Shear and axial force
(B) Bending moment and shear force
(C) Bending moment and axial force
(D) Thrust, shear force and bending moment
Answer: Option D
Question No. 178

The shape of the bending moment diagram over the length of a beam, carrying a uniformly
increasing load, is always
(A) Linear
(B) Parabolic
(C) Cubical
(D) Circular
Answer: Option C
Question No. 179

The C.G. of a right circular solid cone of height h lies at the following distance from the base
(A) h/2
(B) J/3
(C) h/6
(D) h/4
Answer: Option D
Question No. 180

For a channel section, the shear centre lies at a distance of
(A) dbt/2I
(B) d²bt/3I
(C) d²b²t/4I
(D) db²t/5I
Answer: Option C
Question No. 181
For the beam shown in below figure, the maximum positive bending moment is nearly equal to
negative bending moment when L1 is equal to
(A) 1.0 L
(B) 0.7 L
(C) 0.5 L
(D) 0.35 L
Answer: Option D
Question No. 182

A force is completely defined when we specify
(A) Magnitude
(B) Direction
(C) Point of application
Answer: Option D
Question No. 183

In a three hinged arch, the third hinge is generally kept at
(A) Crown of the arch
(B) Midpoint of the crown and left support hinge
(C) Midpoint of the crown and right support hinge
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 184

The stiffness factor for a prismatic beam of length L and moment of inertia I, is
(A) IE/L
(B) 2EI/L
(C) 3EI/L
(D) 4EI/L
Answer: Option A
Question No. 185

Center of percussion is
(A) The point of C.G.
(B) The point of metacentre
(C) The point of application of the resultant of all the forces tending to cause a body to rotate
about a certain axis
(D) Point of suspension
Answer: Option C
Question No. 186

The weakest section of a diamond riveting, is the section which passes through
(A) First row
(B) Second row
(C) Central row
(D) One rivet hole of end row
Answer: Option A
Question No. 187

If a solid shaft is subjected to a torque at its end such that maximum shear stress does not
exceed fs the diameter of the shaft will be
(A) 16T/ fs
(B) T/ fs)
(C) (16T/ fs)
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 188

Pick up wrong statement about friction force for dry surfaces. Friction force is
(A) Proportional to normal load between the surfaces
(B) Dependent on the materials of contact surface
(C) Proportional to velocity of sliding
(D) Independent of the area of contact surfaces
Answer: Option C
Question No. 189

distributed load is always
(A) Linear
(B) Parabolic
(C) Cubical
(D) Circular
Answer: Option B
Question No. 190

The maximum load to which a fillet joint of length can be subjected to, is
(A) 0.7 × S × fillet size × L
(B) 2 × S × fillet size × L
(C) Permissible shear stress × fillet size × L
(D) (S × fillet size × L)/3
Answer: Option A
Question No. 191

Which of the following is not the unit of energy?
(A) kg m
(B) kcal
(C) watt
(D) watt hours
Answer: Option C
Question No. 192

In a beam, the neutral plane
(A) May be its centre
(B) Passes through the C.G. of the area of cross-section
(C) Does not change during deformation
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 193

The moment diagram for a cantilever whose free end is subjected to a bending moment, will be a
(A) Triangle
(B) Rectangle
(C) Parabola
(D) Cubic parabola
Answer: Option B
Question No. 194

The algebraic sum of the resolved parts of a number of forces in a given direction is equal to the
resolved part of their resultant in the same direction. This is as per the principle of
(A) Forces
(B) Independence of forces
(C) Dependence of forces
(D) Resolution of forces
Answer: Option D
Question No. 195

The law which states, "Within elastic limits strain produced is proportional to the stress producing
it", is known as
(A) Bernoulli's law
(B) Stress law
(C) Hooke's law
(D) Poisson's law
Answer: Option C
Question No. 196
For a beam of uniform strength keeping its depth constant, the width will vary in proportion to
(A) Bending moment (M)
(B)
(C) M2
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 197

The product of either force of couple with the arm of the couple is called
(A) Resultant couple
(B) Moment of the forces
(C) Resulting couple
(D) Moment of the couple
Answer: Option D
Question No. 198

While testing a cast iron beam (2.5 cm × 2.5 cm) in section and a metre long simply supported at
the ends failed when a 100 kg weight is applied at the centre. The maximum stress induced is:
(A) 960 kg/cm2
(B) 980 kg/cm2
(C) 1000 kg/cm2
(D) 1200 kg/cm2
Answer: Option A
Question No. 199

Simple bending equation is
(A) M/I = R/E = F/Y
(B) I/M = E/R = Y/F
(C) M/I = E/R = F/Y
(D) M/I = R/E = Y/F
Answer: Option C
Question No. 200

The algebraic sum of moments of the forces forming couple about any point in their plane is
(A) Equal to the moment of the couple
(B) Constant
(C) Both of above are correct
(D) Both of above are wrong
Answer: Option A
Question No. 201

and are numbers of members and joints in a frame. It contains redundant members if
(A) n = 2j - 3
(B) n = 3j - 2
(C) n < 2j - 3
(D) n > 2j - 3
Answer: Option D
Question No. 202

The equivalent length of a column fixed at both ends, is
(A) 0.5 l
(B) 0.7 l
(C) l
(D) 1.5 l
Answer: Option A
Question No. 203

Which of the following is not the unit of power?
(A) kW (kilowatt)
(B) hp (horse power)
(C) kcal/sec
(D) kcal/kg sec
Answer: Option D
Question No. 204

The ratio of elongations of a conical bar due to its own weight and that of a prismatic bar of the
same length, is
(A) 1/2
(B) 1/3
(C) 1/4
(D) 1/5
Answer: Option B
Question No. 205

The force in the member DE of the truss shown in below figure will be
(A) Zero
(B) 2 W tensile
(C) 2 W compressive
(D) 4 W compressive
Answer: Option C
Question No. 206
The possible loading in various members of framed structures are
(A) Compression or tension
(B) Buckling or shear
(C) Shear or tension
Answer: Option A
Question No. 207

A simply supported beam of span L carries a concentrated load W at its mid-span. The maximum
bending moment M is
(A) WL/2
(B) WL/4
(C) WL/8
(D) WL/12
Answer: Option B
Question No. 208

The following assumption is not true in the theory of pure torsion:
(A) The twist along the shaft is uniform
(B) The shaft is of uniform circular section throughout
(C) Cross-section of the shaft, which is plane before twist remains plane after twist
(D) All radii get twisted due to torsion
Answer: Option D
Question No. 209

If three forces acting in different planes can be represented by a triangle, these will be in
(A) Non-equilibrium
(B) Partial equilibrium
(C) Full equilibrium
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option A
Question No. 210

A simply supported beam carrying a uniformly distributed load over its whole span, is propped at
the centre of the span so that the beam is held to the level of the end supports. The reaction of
the prop will be
(A) Half the distributed load
(B) 3/8th the distributed load
(C) 5/8th the distributed load
(D) Distributed load
Answer: Option C
Question No. 211
Shear force for a cantilever carrying a uniformly distributed load over its length, is
(A) Triangle
(B) Rectangle
(C) Parabola
(D) Cubic parabola
Answer: Option B
Question No. 212

The weight of a body is due to
(A) Centripetal force of earth
(B) Gravitational pull exerted by the earth
(C) Forces experienced by body in atmosphere
(D) Gravitational force of attraction towards the centre of the earth
Answer: Option D
Question No. 213

For structural analysis of forces, the method refers to
(A) Moment-area-theorem
(B) Three-moment equation
(C) Maxwell's reciprocal theorem
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 214

The section modulus of a rectangular section is proportional to
(A) Area of the section
(B) Square of the area of the section
(C) Product of the area and depth
(D) Product of the area and width
Answer: Option A
Question No. 215

Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
(A) The C.G. of a circle is at its center
(B) The C.G. of a triangle is at the intersection of its medians
(C) The C.G. of a rectangle is at the intersection of its diagonals
(D) The C.G. of a semicircle is at a distance of r/2 from the center
Answer: Option D
Question No. 216

According to Unwin's formula, the diameter of a rivet of plate of thickness is :
(A) d = 6.05 t
(B) d = 1.5 t + 4
(C) d = t
(D) d = t + 1.5
Answer: Option A
Question No. 217

For a beam having fixed ends, the unknown element of the reactions, is
(A) Horizontal components at either end
(B) Vertical components at either end
(C) Horizontal component at one end and vertical component at the other
(D) Horizontal and vertical components at both the ends
Answer: Option D
Question No. 218

If a rigid body is in equilibrium under the action of three forces, then
(A) These forces are equal
(B) The lines of action of these forces meet in a point
(C) The lines of action of these forces are parallel
(D) Both (B) and (C) above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 219

The materials which have the same elastic properties in all directions, are called
(A) Isotropic
(B) Brittle
(C) Homogeneous
(D) Hard
Answer: Option A
Question No. 220

A solid circular shaft of diameter d is subjected to a torque T. The maximum normal stress induced
in the shaft, is
(A) Zero
(B) 16T/ 3
(C) 32T/ 3
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 221

Frictional force encountered after commencement of motion is called
(A) Post friction
(C) Kinematic friction
(D) Dynamic friction
Answer: Option D
Question No. 222
A three-hinged arch is said to be:
(A) Statically determinate structure
(B) Statically indeterminate structure
(C) A bent beam
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 223

The areas of cross-section of a square beam and a circular beam subjected to equal bending
moments, are same.
(A) Circular beam is more economical
(B) Square beam is more economical
(C) Both the beams are equally strong
(D) Both the beams are equally economical
Answer: Option B
Question No. 224

A single force and a couple acting in the same plane upon a rigid body
(B) Cannot balance each other
(C) Produce moment of a couple
(D) Are equivalent
Answer: Option B
Question No. 225

If the shear force along a section of a beam is zero, the bending moment at the section is
(A) Zero
(B) Maximum
(C) Minimum
(D) Average of maximum-minimum
Answer: Option B
Question No. 226

The moment diagram for a cantilever carrying a concentrated load at its free end, will be
(A) Triangle
(B) Rectangle
(C) Parabola
(D) Cubic parabola
Answer: Option A
Question No. 227

The forces, which meet at one point, but their lines of action do not lie in a plane, are called
(A) Coplanar non-concurrent forces
(B) Non-coplanar concurrent forces
(C) Non-coplanar non-concurrent forces
(D) Intersecting forces
Answer: Option B
Question No. 228

The shear stress at any section of a shaft is maximum
(A) At the centre of the section
(B) At a distance r/2 from the centre
(C) At the top of the surface
(D) At a distance 3/4 r from the centre
Answer: Option C
Question No. 229

If the width b and depth d of a beam simply supported with a central load are interchanged, the
deflection at the centre of the beam will be changed in the ratio of
(A) b/d
(B) d/b
(C) (d/b)2
(D) (b/d)2
Answer: Option D
Question No. 230

The centre of percussion of a solid cylinder of radius r resting on a horizontal plane will be
(A) r/2
(B) 2r/3
(C) r/A
(D) 3r/2
Answer: Option D
Question No. 231

A three hinged parabolic arch hinged at the crown and springing, has a horizontal span of 4.8 m
and a central rise of 1 m. It carries a uniformly distributed load of 0.75 tonne per metre over half
left hand span. The horizontal thrust at the support will be
(A) 10.8 tonnes
(B) 1.08 tonnes
(C) 1.8 tonnes
(D) 0.8 tonnes
Answer: Option B
Question No. 232

A member which is subjected to reversible tensile or compressive stress may fail at a stress lower
than the ultimate stress of the material. This property of metal, is called
(A) Plasticity of the metal
(B) Elasticity of the metal
(C) Fatigue of the metal
(D) Workability of the metal
Answer: Option C
Question No. 233

A body moves, from rest with a constant acceleration of 5 m per sec. The distance covered in 5 sec
is most nearly
(A) 38 m
(B) 62.5 m
(C) 96 m
(D) 124 m
Answer: Option B
Question No. 234

Stress in a beam due to simple bending, is
(A) Directly proportional
(B) Inversely proportional
(C) Curvilinearly related
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 235

The ratio of the tensile stress developed in the wall of a boiler in the circumferential direction to
the tensile stress in the axial direction, is
(A) 4
(B) 3
(C) 2
(D) 1
Answer: Option C
Question No. 236

According to law of triangle of forces
to force
Answer: Option C
Question No. 237

The deflection due to couple M at the free end of a cantilever length L is
(A) ML/EI
(B) 2ML/EI
(C) ML²/2EI
(D) M²L/2EI
Answer: Option C
Question No. 238

The bending moment is maximum on a section where shearing force
(A) Is maximum
(B) Is minimum
(C) Is equal
(D) Changes sign
Answer: Option D
Question No. 239

Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(A) The tangent of the angle of friction is equal to coefficient of friction
(B) The angle of repose is equal to angle of friction
(C) The tangent of the angle of repose is equal to coefficient of friction
(D) The sine of the angle of repose is equal to coefficient to friction
Answer: Option D
Question No. 240

For a simply supported beam with a central load, the bending moment is
(A) Least at the centre
(B) Least at the supports
(C) Maximum at the supports
(D) Maximum at the centre
Answer: Option D
Question No. 241

A member is balanced at its end by two inclined members carrying equal forces. For equilibrium
the angle between the inclined bars must be
(A) 3°
(B) 45°
(C) 90°
(D) 120°
Answer: Option D
Question No. 242

When trying to turn a key into a lock, following is applied
(A) Coplanar force
(B) Non-coplanar forces
(C) Couple
(D) Moment
Answer: Option C
Question No. 243
A reinforced concrete beam is assumed to be made of
(A) Homogeneous material
(B) Heterogeneous material
(C) Isotropic material
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 244

For a stable frame structure, number of members required, is
(A) Three times the number of joints minus three
(B) Twice the number of joints minus three
(C) Twice the number of joints minus two
(D) Twice the number of joints minus one
Answer: Option B
Question No. 245

The units of moment of inertia of mass are
(A) kg m²
(B) m4
(C) kg/m²
(D) kg/m
Answer: Option A
Question No. 246

The reaction at the supports will be vertical to the plane of the support if the frame structure rests
on
(A) Roller supports
(B) Free supports
(C) Hinged supports
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 247

If the stress produced by a prismatic bar is equal to the working stress, the area of the cross-
section of the prismatic bar, becomes
(A) Zero
(B) Infinite
(C) Maximum
(D) Minimum
Answer: Option B
Question No. 248
(A) L/2
(B) L/3
(C) 3L/4
(D) 2L/3
Answer: Option D
Question No. 249

A beam of length L is pinned at both ends and is subjected to a concentrated bending couple of
moment M at its centre. The maximum bending moment in the beam is
(A) M
(B) M/2
(C) M/3
(D) ML/2
Answer: Option A
Question No. 250

If b is the width of a plate joined by diamond riveting of diameter d, the efficiency of the joint is
given by
(A) (b + d)/b
(B) (b - d)/b
(C) (d - b)/d
(D) (b - d)/d
Answer: Option B
Question No. 251

A projectile is fired at an angle to the vertical. Its horizontal range will be maximum when is
(A) 0°
(B) 30°
(C) 45°
(D) 60°
Answer: Option C
Question No. 252

For a simply supported beam of length , the bending moment is described as M = a (x- x3/L2),
x < L; where is a constant. The shear force will be zero at
(A) The supports
(B) x = L/2
(C) x = L
(D) x = L/3
Answer: Option C
Question No. 253

A column is said to be of medium size if its slenderness ratio is between
(A) 20 and 32
(B) 32 and 120
(C) 120 and 160
(D) 160 and 180
Answer: Option B
Question No. 254

The length of a column, having a uniform circular cross-section of 7.5 cm diameter and whose ends
are hinged, is 5 m. If the value of E for the material is 2100 tonnes/cm2, the permissible maximum
crippling load will be
(A) 1.288 tonnes
(B) 12.88
(C) 128.8 tonnes
(D) 288.0
Answer: Option B
Question No. 255

The moment diagram for a cantilever which is subjected to a uniformly distributed load will be a
(A) Triangle
(B) Rectangle
(C) Parabola
(D) Cubic parabola
Answer: Option C
Question No. 256

If the normal cross-section of a member is subjected to tensile force , the resulting normal
(A) (P/A
(B) (P/A
(C) (P/2A
(D) (P/2A
Answer: Option B
Question No. 257

In a shaft rotated by a couple, the shear force varies
(A) From zero at the centre to a maximum at the circumference
(B) From minimum at the centre of maximum at the circumference
(C) From maximum at the centre to zero at the circumference
(D) Equally throughout the section
Answer: Option A
Question No. 258

The shape of the bending moment diagram over the length of a beam, having no external load, is
always
(A) Linear
(B) Parabolic
(C) Cubical
(D) Circular
Answer: Option A
Question No. 259

The stress at which extension of a material takes place more quickly as compared to the increase
in load, is called
(A) Elastic point
(B) Plastic point
(C) Breaking point
(D) Yielding point
Answer: Option D
Question No. 260

A shaft turning 150 r.p.m. is subjected to a torque of 150 kgm. Horse power transmitted by the
shaft is
(A)
(B) 10
(C) ²
(D) 1/
Answer: Option B
Question No. 261

In a simply supported beam (l + 2a) with equal overhangs (a) and carrying a uniformly distributed
load over its entire length, B.M. at the middle point of the beam will be zero if
(A) l = 2a
(B) l = 4a
(C) l < 2a
(D) l > a
Answer: Option A
Question No. 262

A simply supported beam of span carries a uniformly distributed load . The maximum
bending moment is
(A) WL/2
(B) WL/4
(C) WL/8
(D) WL/12
Answer: Option C
Question No. 263

A member which does not regain its original shape after removed of load producing deformation
is said
(A) Plastic
(B) Elastic
(C) Rigid
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 264

A solid cube is subjected to equal normal forces on all its faces. The volumetric strain will be x-
times the linear strain in any of the three axes when
(A) x = 1
(B) x = 2
(C) x = 3
(D) x = 4
Answer: Option C
Question No. 265

A three hinged arch is loaded with an isolated load 1000 kg at a horizontal distance of 2.5 m from
the crown, 1 m above the level of hinges at the supports 10 metres apart. The horizontal thrust is
(A) 1250 kg
(B) 125 kg
(C) 750 kg
(D) 2500 kg
Answer: Option A
Question No. 266

A uniform girder simply supported at its ends is subjected to a uniformly distributed load over its
entire length and is propped at the centre so as to neutralise the deflection. The net B.M. at the
centre will be
(A) WL
(B) WL/8
(C) WL/24
(D) WL/32
Answer: Option D
Question No. 267

When a rectangular beam is loaded transversely, the maximum compressive stress develops on
(A) Bottom fibre
(B) Top fibre
(C) Neutral axis
(D) Every cross-section
Answer: Option B
Question No. 268

In a tension test, the yield stress is 300 kg/cm2, in the octahedral shear stress at the point is:
(A) 100 kg/cm2
(B) 150 kg/cm2
(C) 200 kg/cm
(D) 250 kg/cm2
Answer: Option A
Question No. 269
Columns of given length, cross-section and material have different values of buckling loads for
different end conditions. The strongest column is one whose
(A) One end is fixed and other end is hinged
(B) Both ends are hinged or pin jointed
(C) One end is fixed and the other end entirely free
(D) Both the ends are fixed
Answer: Option D
Question No. 270

A cantilever carrying a uniformly distributed load W over its full length is propped at its free end
such that it is at the level of the fixed end. The bending moment will be zero at its free end also at
(A) Midpoint of the cantilever
(B) Fixed point of the cantilever
(C) 1/4th length from free end
(D) 3/4th length from free end
Answer: Option D
Question No. 271

If the depth of a simply supported beam carrying an isolated load at its centre, is doubled, the
deflection of the beam at the centre will be changed by a factor of
(A) 2
(B) 1/2
(C) 8
(D) 1/8
Answer: Option D
Question No. 272

The minimum number of rivets for the connection of a gusset plate, is
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Answer: Option B
Question No. 273

The cross sections of the beams of equal length are a circle and a square whose permissible
bending stress is same under same maximum bending. The ratio of their flexural weights is,
(A) 1.118
(B) 1.338
(C) 1.228
(D) 1.108
Answer: Option A
Question No. 274
(A) A ductile material has large plastic zone
(B) A brittle material has no plastic zone
(C) A rigid material has no plastic zone
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 275

The section modulus of a rectangular light beam 25 metres long is 12.500 cm3. The beam is simply
supported at its ends and carries a longitudinal axial tensile load of 10 tonnes in addition to a
point load of 4 tonnes at the centre. The maximum stress in the bottom most fibre at the mid span
section, is
(A) 13.33 kg/cm2 tensile
(B) 13.33 kg/cm2 compressive
(C) 26.67 kg/cm2 tensile
(D) 26.67 kg/cm2 compressive
Answer: Option C
Question No. 276

Stress in members of statically determinate simple frames, can be determined by
(A) Method of joints
(B) Method of sections
(C) Graphical solution
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 277

The point of contraflexure occurs in
(A) Cantilever beams only
(B) Continuous beams only
(C) Over hanging beams only
(D) All types of beams
Answer: Option C
Question No. 278

A rectangular beam 20 cm wide is subjected to a maximum shearing force of 10,000 kg, the
corresponding maximum shearing stress being 30 kg/cm2. The depth of the beam is
(A) 15 cm
(B) 20 cm
(C) 25 cm
(D) 30 cm
Answer: Option C
Question No. 279
If a member is subjected to a tensile force P, having its normal cross-section A, the resulting shear
(A) (P/A
(B) (P/2A
(C) (P/2A
(D) (P/A
Answer: Option B
Question No. 280

If a shaft is simultaneously subjected to a toque T and a bending moment M, the ratio of
maximum bending stress and maximum shearing stress is
(A) M/T
(B) T/M
(C) 2M/T
(D) 2T/M
Answer: Option C
Question No. 281

The ratio of the effective length of a column and minimum radius of gyration of its cross-sectional
area, is known
(A) Buckling factor
(B) Slenderness ratio
(C) Crippling factor
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 282

The region of the cross-section of a column in which compressive load may be applied without
producing any tensile stress, is known as the core of the cross-section. In circular columns the
radius of the core, is
(A) One-half of the radius
(B) One-third of the radius
(C) One-quarter of the radius
(D) One-fifth of the radius
Answer: Option C
Question No. 283

If the width of a simply supported beam carrying an isolated load at its centre is doubled, the
deflection of the beam at the centre is changed by
(A) 2 times
(B) 4 times
(C) 8 times
(D) 1/2 times
Answer: Option C
Question No. 284
A cylinder is said to be thin if the ratio of its thickness and diameter, is less than
(A) 1/25
(B) 1/20
(C) 1/15
(D) 1/10
Answer: Option D
Question No. 285

As the elastic limit reaches, tensile strain
(A) Increases more rapidly
(B) Decreases more rapidly
(C) Increases in proportion to the stress
(D) Decreases in proportion to the stress
Answer: Option A
Question No. 286

For a given material Young's modulus is 200 GN/m2 and modulus of rigidity is 80 GN/m2. The value
of Poisson's ratio is
(A) 0.15
(B) 0.20
(C) 0.25
(D) 0.30
Answer: Option C
Question No. 287

The rise of a parabolic arch at quarter points, is equal to
(A) 1/3 times the rise of the crown
(B) 1/4 times the rise of the crown
(C) 1/2 times the rise of the crown
(D) 3/4 times the rise of the crown
Answer: Option D
Question No. 288

The number of points of contraflexure in a simple supported beam carrying uniformly distributed
load, is
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
Answer: Option A
Question No. 289

When two plates butt together and are riveted with two cover plates with two rows of rivets, the
joint is known as
(A) Lap joint
(B) Butt joint
(C) Single riveted single cover butt joint
(D) Double riveted double cover butt joint
Answer: Option D
Question No. 290

(A) 1/2
(B) 1/8
(C) 2
(D) 8
Answer: Option A
Question No. 291

The moment diagram for a cantilever carrying linearly varying load from zero at its free end and to
maximum at the fixed end will be a
(A) Triangle
(B) Rectangle
(C) Parabola
(D) Cubic parabola
Answer: Option D
Question No. 292

When a rectangular beam is loaded longitudinally, shear develops on
(A) Bottom fibre
(B) Top fibre
(C) Middle fibre
(D) Every-horizontal plane
Answer: Option D
Question No. 293

For a simply supported beam carrying uniformly distributed load W on it entire length L, the
maximum bending moment is
(A) WL/4
(B) WL/8
(C) WL/2
(D) WL/3
Answer: Option B
Question No. 294

Along the principal plan subjected to maximum principal stress
(A) Maximum shear stress acts
(B) Minimum shear stress acts
(C) No shear stress acts
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 295

The width of a beam of uniform strength having a constant depth d length L, simply supported at
the ends with a central load W is
(A) 2WL/3fd²
(B) 3WL/2fd²
(C) 2fL/3Wd4
(D) 3fL²/2Wd
Answer: Option B
Question No. 296

The distance between the centres of adjacent rivets in the same row, is called
(A) Pitch
(B) Lap
(C) Gauge
(D) Staggered pitch
Answer: Option A
Question No. 297

Hooke's law states that stress and strain are
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 298

For a beam, if fundamental equations of statics are not sufficient to determine all the reactive
forces at the supports, the structure is said to be
(A) Determinate
(C) Statically indeterminate
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 299

The tension coefficient of any member is
(A) Force divided by the length
(B) Tension divided by the length
(C) Tension per unit area
(D) Tension in the member
Answer: Option B
Question No. 300
Rankine-Golden formula accounts for direct as well as buckling stress and is applicable to
(A) Very long columns
(B) Long columns
(C) Short columns
(D) Intermediate columns
Answer: Option D
Question No. 301

The neutral axis of a beam cross-section must
(A) Pass through the centroid of the section
(B) Be equidistant from the top of bottom films
(C) Be an axis of symmetry of the section
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 302

In a continuous bending moment curve the point where it changes sign, is called
(A) Point of inflexion
(B) Point of contraflexure
(C) Point of virtual hinge
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 303

The equivalent length of a column fixed at one end and free at the other end, is
(A) 0.5 l
(B) 0.7 l
(C) 2 l
(D) 1.5 l
Answer: Option C
Question No. 304

For a given material, if E, C, K and m are Young's modulus, shearing modulus, bulk modulus and
Poisson ratio, the following relation does not hold good
(A) E = 9KC/3K + C
(B) E = 2K (1 + 2/m)
(C) E = 2C (1 + 1/m)
(D) E = 3C (1 - 1/m)
Answer: Option C
Question No. 305

A short masonry pillar is 60 cm x 60 cm in cross-section, the core of the pillar is a square whose
side is
(A) 17.32 cm
(B) 14.14 cm
(C) 20.00 cm
(D) 22.36 cm
Answer: Option B
Question No. 306

The ratio of the maximum deflection of a cantilever beam with an isolated load at its free end and
with a uniformly distributed load over its entire length, is
(A) 1
(B) 24/15
(C) 3/8
(D) 8/3
Answer: Option D
Question No. 307

The slenderness ratio of a vertical column of square cross- section of 10 cm side and 500 cm long,
is
(A) 117.2
(B) 17.3
(C) 173.2
(D) 137.2
Answer: Option C
Question No. 308

A steel rod of 2 cm diameter and 5 metres long is subjected to an axial pull of 3000 kg. If E = 2.1 ×
106, the elongation of the rod will be
(A) 2.275 mm
(B) 0.2275 mm
(C) 0.02275 mm
(D) 2.02275 mm
Answer: Option B
Question No. 309

A rectangular log of wood is floating in water with a load of 100 N at its centre. The maximum
shear force in the wooden log is
(A) 50 N at each end
(B) 50 N at the centre
(C) 100 N at the centre
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 310

The maximum compressive stress at the top of a beam is 1600 kg/cm2 and the corresponding
tensile stress at its bottom is 400 kg/cm2. If the depth of the beam is 10 cm, the neutral axis from
the top, is
(A) 2 cm
(B) 4 cm
(C) 6 cm
(D) 8 cm
Answer: Option D
Question No. 311

At either end of a plane frame, maximum number of possible transverse shear forces, are
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
Answer: Option A
Question No. 312

In a square beam loaded longitudinally, shear develops
(A) On middle fibre along horizontal plane
(B) On lower fibre along horizontal plane
(C) On top fibre along vertical plane
(D) Equally on each fibre along horizontal plane
Answer: Option D
Question No. 313

Reactions at the supports of a structure can be determined by equating the algebraic sum of
(A) Horizontal forces to zero
(B) Vertical forces to zero
(C) Moment about any point to zero
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 314

The phenomenon of slow growth of strain under a steady tensile stress, is called
(A) Yielding
(B) Creeping
(C) Breaking
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 315

If the stress in each cross-section of a pillar is equal to its working stress, it is called
(A) Body of equal
(B) Body of equal section
(C) Body of equal strength
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 316
Maximum deflection of a cantilever due to pure bending moment M at its free end, is
(A) ML²/3EI
(B) ML²/4EI
(C) ML²/6EI
(D) ML²/2EI
Answer: Option D
Question No. 317

The maximum deflection of a simply supported beam of length L with a central load W, is
(A) WL²/48EI
(B) W²L/24EI
(C) WL3/48EI
(D) WL²/8EI
Answer: Option C
Question No. 318

An open-ended cylinder of radius and thickness is subjected to internal pressure . The
Young's modulus for the material is and Poisson's ratio is . The longitudinal strain is
(A) Zero
(B) pr/TE
(C) pr/2TE
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 319

Euler's formula states that the buckling load for a column of length , both ends hinged and
whose least moment of inertia and modulus of elasticity of the material of the column
are and respectively, is given by the relation
(A) P = ²EI/l²
(B) P = /EI
(C) P = /l²
(D) P = ²EI/l3
Answer: Option A
Question No. 320

In a three hinged arch, the bending moment will be zero
(A) At right hinge only
(B) At left hinge only
(C) At both right and left hinges
(D) At all the three hinges
Answer: Option D
Question No. 321
A simply supported beam carries two equal concentrated loads W at distances L/3 from either
support. The maximum bending moment
(A) WL/3
(B) WL/4
(C) 5WL/4
(D) 3WL/12
Answer: Option A
Question No. 322

If the beam is supported so that there are only three unknown reactive elements at the supports.
These can be determined by using the following fundamental equation of statics
(A) H = 0
(B) V = 0
(C) H H=0
(D) H V M=0
Answer: Option D
Question No. 323

For a cantilever with a uniformly distributed load W over its entire length L, the maximum bending
moment is
(A) WL
(B) ½ WL
(C) WL
(D) ½ WL2
Answer: Option B
Question No. 324

To ascertain the maximum permissible eccentricity of loads on circular columns, the rule generally
followed, is
(A) Middle half rule of columns
(B) Middle third rule of columns
(C) Middle fourth rule of columns
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 325

A shaft 9 m long is subjected to a torque 30 t-m at a point 3 m distant from either end. The
reactive torque at the nearer end will be
(A) 5 tonnes metre
(B) 10 tonnes metre
(C) 15 tonnes metre
(D) 20 tonnes metre
Answer: Option D
Question No. 326
Every material obeys the Hooke's law within its
(A) Elastic limit
(B) Plastic point
(C) Limit of proportionality
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 327

If the length of a cantilever carrying an isolated load at its free end is doubled, the deflection of
the free end will increase by
(A) 8
(B) 1/8
(C) 1/3
(D) 2
Answer: Option B
Question No. 328

If is the internal pressure in a thin cylinder of diameter and thickness , the developed hoop
stress, is
(A) pd/2t
(B) pd/4t
(C) pd/t
(D) 2pd/t
Answer: Option A
Strength of Materials Objective Questions :-
1. The unit of force in S.I. units is
(a) kilogram
(b) newton
(c) watt
(d) dyne
(e) joule.
Ans: b
2. The unit of work or energy in S.I. units is

(a) newton
(b) pascal
(c) kilogram meter
(d) watt
(e) joule.
Ans: e
3. The unit of power in S.I. units is

(a) newton meter
(b) watt
(c) joule
(d) kilogram meter/sec.
(e) pascal per sec.
Ans: b
4. Forces are called concurrent when their lines of action meet in

(a) one point
(b) two points
(c) plane
(d) perpendicular planes
(e) different planes.
Ans: a
5. Forces are called coplanar when all of them acting on body lie in
(a) one point
(b) one plane
(c) different planes
(e) different points.
Ans: b
6. A force acting on a body may

(a) introduce internal stresses
(b) balance the other forces acting on it
(c) retard its motion
(d) change its motion
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e
7. Which is the correct statement about law of polygon of forces ?

(a) if any number of forces acting at a point can be represented by the sides
of a polygon taken in order, then the forces are in equilibrium
(b) if any number of forces acting at a point can be represented in direction and magnitude by
(c) if a polygon representing forces acting at a point is closed then forces are in equilibrium
(d) if any number of forces acting at a point can be represented in direction and magnitude by
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
8. Effect of a force on a body depends upon

(a) magnitude
(b) direction
(c) position or line of action
(d) all of the above
Ans: d
9. If a number of forces act simultaneously on

a particle, it is possible
(a) not a replace them by a single force
(b) to replace them by a single force
(c) to replace them by a single force through C.G.
(d) to replace them by a couple
(e) to replace them by a couple and a force.
10. A force is completely defined when we specify

(a) magnitude
(b) direction
(c) point of application
Ans: d
Part 2
11. If two equal forces of magnitude P act at an angle 9°, their resultant will be
(a) P/2 cos 9/2
(b) IP sin 9/2
(c) 2P tan 9/2
(d) IP cos 9/2
(e) Psin 9/2.
Ans: d
13. The algebraic sum of the resolved parts of a number of forces in a given direction is equal to
the resolved part of their resultant in the same direction. This is as per the principle of
(a) forces
(b) independence of forces
(c) dependence of forces
(d) balance of force
(e) resolution of forces.
Ans: e
14. The resolved part of the resultant of two forces inclined at an angle 9 in a given direction is
equal to
(a) the algebraic sum of the resolved parts of the forces in the given direction
(b) the sum of the resolved parts of the forces in the given direction
(c) the difference of the forces multiplied by the cosine of 9
(d) the sum of the forces multiplied by the sine of 9
(e) the sum of the forces multiplied by the tangent of 9.
Ans: a
15. Which of the following do not have identical dimensions ?

(a) Momentum and impulse
(b) Torque and energy
(c) Torque and work
(d) Kinetic energy and potential energy
(e) Moment of a force and angular momentum.
Ans: e
16. Which of the following is not the unit of distance ?

(a) angstrom
(b) light year
(c) micron
(d) millimeter
(e) milestone.
Ans: e
17. Which of the following is not the unit of power ?

(a) kW (kilowatt)
(b) hp (horse power)
(c) kcal/sec
(d) kg m/sec
(e) kcal/kg sec.
Ans: e
18. Which of the following is not the unit of work, energy and heat ?
(a) kcal
(b) kg m
(c) kWhr
(d) hp
(e) hp hr.
Ans: d
19. Which of the following is not the unit of pressure ?

(a) kg/cm
(b) ata
(c) atmosphere
(d) mm of wcl
(e) newton.
Ans: e
20. The weight of a body is due to

(a) centripetal force of earth
(b) gravitational pull exerted by the earth
(c) forces experienced by body in atmos-phere
(d) force of attraction experienced by par-ticles
(e) gravitational force of attraction towards the centre of the earth.
Ans: e
Part 3
21. The forces, which meet at one point, but their lines of action do not lie in a plane, are called
(a) coplanar non-concurrent forces
(b) non-coplanar concurrent forces
(c) non-coplanar non-concurrent forces
(d) intersecting forces
Ans: b
22. When trying to turn a key into a lock, following is applied

(a) coplanar force
(b) non-coplanar forces
(c) lever
(d) moment
(e) couple.
Ans: e
23. Which of the following is not a scalar quantity

(a) time
(b) mass
(c) volume
(d) density
(e) acceleration.
Ans: e
24. According to principle of transmissibility of forces, the effect of a force upon a body is
(a) maximum when it acts at the center of gravity of a body
(b) different at different points in its line of action
(c) the same at every point in its line of action
(d) minimum when it acts at the C.G. of the body
Ans: c
25. Which of the following is a vector quantity

(a) energy
(b) mass
(c) momentum
(d) angle
(e) speed.
Ans: c
26. The magnitude of two forces, which when acting at right angle produce resultant force of
VlOkg and when acting at 60° produce resultant of Vl3 kg. These forces are
(a) 2 and V6
(b) 3 and 1 kg
(c) V5andV5
(d) 2 and 5
Ans: c
27. A number of forces acting at a point will be in equilibrium if

(a) their total sum is zero
(b) two resolved parts in two directions at right angles are equal
(c) sum of resolved parts in any two per-pendicular directions are both zero
(d) all of them are inclined equally
Ans: c
28. Two non-collinear parallel equal forces acting in opposite direction

(a) balance each other
(b) constitute a moment
(c) constitute a couple
(d) constitute a moment of couple
(e) constitute a resultant couple.
Ans: c
29. According to principle of moments

(a) if a system of coplanar forces is in equilibrium, then their algebraic sum is zero
(b) if a system of coplanar forces is in equilibrium, then the algebraic sum of their moments
(c) the algebraic sum of the moments of any two forces about any point is equal to moment of
theiwesultant about the same point
(d) positive and negative couples can be balanced
Ans: b
30. Which of the following is not a vector quantity

(a) weight
(b) velocity
(c) acceleration
(d) force
(e) moment.
Ans: a
Part4
31. According to law of triangle of forces

(a) three forces acting at a point will be in equilibrium
(b) three forces acting at a point can be represented by a triangle, each side being proportional
to force
(c) if three forces acting upon a patticle are represented in magnitude and direction by the sides
of a triangle, taken in order, they will be in equilibrium
(d) if three forces acting at a point are in equilibrium, each force is proportional to the sine of the
angle between the other two
Ans: c
33. If a rigid body is in equilibrium under the action of three forces, then
(a) these forces are equal
(b) the lines of action of these forces meet in a point
(c) the lines of action of these forces are parallel
(d) (b) and (c) above
Ans: d
36. D’ Alembert’s principle is used for

(a) reducing the problem of kinetics to equivalent statics problem
(b) determining stresses in the truss
(c) stability of floating bodies
(d) designing safe structures
(e) solving kinematic problems.
Ans: a
37. A heavy ladder resting on floor and against a vertical wall may not be in equilibrium, if
(a) the floor is smooth, the wall is rough
(b) the floor is rough, the wall is smooth
(c) the floor and wall both are smooth surfaces
(d) the floor and wall both are rough sur-faces
(e) will be in equilibrium under all condi-tions.
Ans: c
38. According to Lami’s theorem

to force
(c) if three forces acting upon a particle are represented in magnitude and
direction by the sides of a triangle, taken in order, they will be in equilibrium
Ans: d
39. Two coplanar couples having equal and op-posite moments

(b) produce a couple and an unbalanced force
(c) are equivalent
(d) produce a moment of couple
(e) can not balance each other.
Ans: e
40. A framed structure is perfect if it contains members equal to
(a) 2n-3
(b) n-l
(c) ‘2n-l
(d) n – 2
(e) 3n-2.
where n = number of joints in a frame
Ans: a
42. The product of either force of couple with the arm of the couple is called
(a) resultant couple
(b) moment of the forces
(c) resulting couple
(d) moment of the couple
Ans: d
43. In detennining stresses in frames by methods of sections, the frame is divided into two parts
by an imaginary section drawn in such a way as not to cut more than
(a) two members with unknown forces of the frame
(b) three members with unknown forces of the frame
(c) four members with unknown forces of the frame
(d) three members with known forces of the frame
(e) four members with two known forces.
Ans: b
44. The center of gravity of a uniform lamina lies at

(a) the center of heavy portion
(b) the bottom surface
(c) the mid point of its axis
Ans: c
45. Center of gravity of a solid cone lies on the axis at the height
(a) one-fourth of the total height above base
(b) one-third of the total height above base
(c) one-half of the total height above base
(d) three-eighth of the total height above the base
Ans: a
46. Center of percussion is

(a) the point of C.G.
(b) the point of metacentre
(c) the point of application of the resultant of all the forces tending to cause a body to rotate
(d) point of suspension
(e) the point in a body about which it can rotate horizontally and oscillate under the influence of
gravity.
Ans: c
47. Center of gravity of a thin hollow cone lies on the axis at a height of
Ans: b
48.The units of moment of inertia of an area are

(a) kg m2
(b) m4
(c) kg/m2
(d) m3
(e) kg/m4.
Ans: b
49. The center of percussion of the homogeneous rod of length L suspended at the top will be
(a) L/2
(b) L/3
(c) 3L/4
(d) 2L/3
(e) 3L/8.
Ans: d
50. The center of gravity of a triangle lies at the point of

(a) concurrence of the medians
(b) intersection of its altitudes
(c) intersection of bisector of angles
(d) intersection of diagonals
Ans: a
Part 5
51. The units of moment of inertia of mass are
(a) kg m2
(b) m4
(c) kg/m2
(d) kg/m
(e) m2/kg.
Ans: a
52. The possible loading in various members of framed structures are

(a) compression or tension
(b) buckling or shear
(c) shear or tension
(e) bending.
Ans: a
53. A heavy string attached at two ends at same horizontal level and when central dip is very
small approaches the following curve
(a) catenary
(b) parabola
(c) hyperbola
(d) elliptical
(e) circular arc.
Ans: b
54. A trolley wire weighs 1.2 kg per meter length. The ends of the wire are attached to two poles
20 meters apart. If the horizontal tension is 1500 kg find the dip in the middle of the span
(a) 2.5 cm
(b) 3.0 cm
(c) 4.0 cm
(d) 5.0 cm
(e) 2.0 cm.
Ans: c
55. From a circular plate of diameter 6 cm is cut out a circle whose diameter is a radius of the
plate. Find the e.g. of the remainder from the center of circular plate
(a) 0.5 cm
(b) 1.0 cm
(c) 1.5 cm
(d) 2.5 cm
(e) 0.25 cm.
Ans: a
58. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following :
(a) The C.G. of a circle is at its center
(b) The C.G. of a triangle is at the intersection of its medians
(c) The C.G. of a rectangle is at the inter-section of its diagonals
(d) The C.G. of a semicircle is at a distance of r/2 from the center
(e) The C-G. of an ellipse is at its center.
Ans: d
59. The centre of percussion of a solid cylinder of radius r resting on a horizontal plane will be
(a) r/2
(b) 2r/3
(c) r/A
(d) 3r/2
(e) 3r/A.
Ans: d
62. In the equation of virtual work, following force is neglected

(a) reaction of any smooth surface with which the body is in contact
(b) reaction of a rough surface of a body which rolls on it without slipping
(c) reaction at a point or an axis, fixed in space, around which a body is con-strained to turn
Ans: d
63. If a suspended body is struck at the centre of percussion, then the pressure on die axis
passing through the point of suspension will be
(a) maximum
(b) minimum
(c) zero
(d) infinity
(e) same as the force applied.
Ans: c
65. The resultant of the following three couples 20 kg force, 0.5 m arm, $ ve sense 30 kg force,
1 m arm, – ve sense 40 kg force, 0.25 m arm, + ve sense having arm of 0.5 m will be
(a) 20 kg, – ve sense
(b) 20 kg, + ve sense
(c) 10 kg, + ve sense
(d) 10 kg, – ve sense
(e) 45 kg, + ve sense.
Ans: a
68. Angle oT friction is the

(a) angle between normal reaction and the resultant of normal reaction and the limiting friction
(b) ratio of limiting friction and normal reaction
(c) the ratio of minimum friction force to the friction force acting when the body is just about to
move
(d) the ratio of minimum friction force to friction force acting when the body is in motion
(e) ratio of static and dynamic friction.
Ans: a
69. The coefficient of friction depends on

(a) area of contact
(b) shape of surfaces
(c) strength of surfaces
(d) nature of surface
Ans: d
70. Least force required to draw a body up the inclined plane is W sin (plane inclination + friction
(a) along the plane
(b) horizontally
(c) vertically
(d) at an angle equal to the angle of friction to the inclined plane
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: d
Part 6
71. The ratio of limiting friction and normal reaction is known as
(a) coefficient of friction
(b) angle of friction
(c) angle of repose
(d) sliding friction
(e) friction resistance.
Ans: a
72. Which one of the following statements is not correct

(a) the tangent of the angle of friction is equal to coefficient of friction
(b) the angle of repose is equal to angle of friction
(c) the tangent of the angle of repose is equal to coefficient of friction
(d) the sine of the angle of repose is equal to coefficient to friction
Ans: d
73. On a ladder resting on smooth ground and leaning against vertical wall, the force of friction
will be
(a) towards the wall at its upper end
(b) away from the wall at its upper end
(c) upwards at its upper end
(d) downwards at its upper end
Ans: c
74. On the ladder resting on the ground and leaning against a smooth vertical wall, the force of
friction will be
(a) downwards at its upper end
(b) upwards at its upper end
(c) perpendicular to the wall at its upper end
(d) zero at its upper end
Ans: d
76. Frictional force encountered after commencement of motion is called

(a) post friction
(b) limiting friction
(c) kinematic friction
(d) frictional resistance
(e) dynamic friction.
Ans: e
77. Coefficient of friction is the

(c) the friction force acting when the body is just about to move
(d) the friction force acting when the body is in motion
(e) tangent of angle of repose.
Ans: b
78. Pick up wrong statement about friction force for dry surfaces. Friction force is
(a) proportional to normal load between the surfaces
(b) dependent on the materials of contact surface
(c) proportional to velocity of sliding
(d) independent of the area of contact surfaces
(e) none of the above is wrong statement.
Ans: c
79. A body of weight W on inclined plane of a being pulled up by a horizontal force P will be on
the point of motion up the plane when P is equal to
(a) W
(b) W sin (a + $)
(c) Wtan(a + <|))
(d) Wan(a-<t>)
(e) Wtana.
Ans: c
80. A particle moves along a straight line such that distance (x) traversed in t seconds is given
by x = t2 (t – 4), the acceleration of the particle will be given by the equation
(a) 3t2-lt
(b) 3t2+2t
(c) 6f-8
(d) 6f-4
(e) 6t2-8t.
Ans: c
Part 7
81. If rain is falling in the opposite direction of the movement of a pedestrain, he has to hold his
umbrella
(a) more inclined when moving
(b) less inclined when moving
(c) more inclined when standing
(d) less inclined when standing
Ans: d
86. A projectile is fired at an angle 9 to the vertical. Its horizontal range will be maximum when 9
is
(a) 0°
(b) 30°
(c) 45°
(d) 60°
(e) 90°.
Ans: c
88. Limiting force of friction is the

(a) tangent of angle between normal-reaction and the resultant of normal reaction and limiting
friction
(e) minimum force of friction.
Ans: c
89. Coulomb friction is the friction between
(a) bodies having relative motion
(b) two dry surfaces
(c) two lubricated surfaces
(d) solids and liquids
(e) electrically charged particles.
Ans: a
90. Dynamic friction as compared to static friction is

(a) same
(b) more
(c) less
(d) may be less of more depending on nature of surfaces and velocity
(e) has no correlation.
Ans: c
92. Tangent of angle of friction is equal to

(a) kinetic friction
(c) angle of repose
(d) coefficient of friction
(e) friction force.
Ans: d
93. Kinetic friction is the

(a) tangent of angle between normal reac-tion and the resultant of normal reac-tion and the
limiting friction
Ans: d
95. The effort required to lift a load W on a screw jack with helix angle a and angle of friction <j)
is equal to
(a) Wtan(a + <)>)
(b) Wtan(a-<)>)
(c) Wcos(a + <t>)
(d) Wsin(a + <(>)
(e) W (sin a + cos <j>).
Ans: a
96. A semi-circular disc rests on a horizontal surface with its top flat surface horizontal and
circular portion touching down. The coefficient of friction between semi-cricular disc and
horizontal surface is i. This disc is to be pulled by a horizontal force applied at one edge and it
always remains horizontal. When the disc is about to start moving, its top horizontal force will
(a) remain horizontal
(b) slant up towards direction of pull
(c) slant down towards direction of pull
(d) unpredictable
Ans: c
97. A particle inside a hollow sphere of radius r, having coefficient of friction -rr can rest upto
height of
(a) r/2
(b) r/A
(c) r/%
(d) 0.134 r
(e) 3r/8.
Ans: d
98. The algebraic sum of moments of the forces forming couple about any point in their plane is
(a) equal to the moment of the couple
(b) constant
(c) both of above are correct
(d) both of above are wrong
Ans: a
99. A single force and a couple acting in the

same plane upon a rigid body
(b) cannot balance each other
(c) produce moment of a couple
(d) are equivalent
Ans: b
100. If three forces acting in one plane upon a rigid body, keep it in equilibrium, then they must
either
(a) meet in a point
(b) be all parallel
(c) at least two of them must meet
(d) all the above are correct
Ans: d
101. The maximum frictional force which comes into play when a body just begins to slide over
another surface is called
(a) limiting friction
(b) sliding friction
(c) rolling friction
(d) kinematic friction
Ans: a
102. The co-efficient of friction depends upon

(a) nature of surfaces
(b), area of contact
(c) shape of the surfaces
(d) ail of the above.
(e) (a) and (b) above.
Ans: a
104. The necessary condition for forces to be in equilibrium is that these should be
(a) coplanar
(b) meet at one point ;
(c) both (a) and (b) above
(d) all be equal
(e) something else.
Ans: c
105. If three forces acting in different planes can be represented by a triangle, these will be in
(a) non-equilibrium
(b) partial equilibribrium
(d) unpredictable
Ans: a
106. If n = number of members andy = number of joints, then for a perfect frame, n =
(a) j-2
(b)2j-l
(c) 2/-3
(d)3/-2
(e) 2/ -4.
Ans: c
107. A body moves, from rest with a constant acceleration of 5 m per sec. The distance covered
in 5 sec is most nearly
(a) 38 m
(b) 62.5 m
(C) 96 m
(d) 124 m
(e) 240 m.
Ans: b
108. A flywheel on a motor goes from rest to 1000 rpm in 6 sec. The number of revolutions
made is nearly equal to
(a) 25
(b) 50
(c) 100
(d) 250
(e) 500.
Ans: b
109 Which of the following is the locus of a point that moves in such a manner that its distance
from a fixed point is equal to its distance from a fixed line multiplied by a constant greater than
one
(a) ellipse
(b) hyperbola
(c) parabola
(d) circle
Ans: b
111. Which of the following is not the unit of energy

(a) kg m
(b) kcal
(c) wattr
(d) watt hours
(e) kg m x (m/sec)2.
Ans: c
112. A sample of metal weighs 219 gms in air, 180 gms in water, 120 gms in an unknown fluid.
Then which is correct statement about density of metal
(a) density of metal can’t be determined
(b) metal is twice as dense as water
(c) metal will float in water
(d) metal is twice as dense as unknown fluid
Ans: a
113. The C.G. of a solid hemisphere lies on the central radius 3r

(a) at distance — from the plane base 3r
(b) at distance — from the plane base 3r
(c) at distance — from the plane base 3r
(d) at distance — from the plane base or
(e) at distance — from the plane base.
Ans: d
117. The C.G. of a plane lamina will not be at its geometrical centre in the case of a
(a) right angled triangle
(b) equilateral triangle
(c) square
(d) circle
(e) rectangle.
Ans: a
119. The C.G. of a right circular solid cone of height h lies at the following distance from the
base
(a) h/2
(b) J/3
(c) h/6
(d) h/4
(e) 3/i/5.
Ans: d
122. The M.I. of hollow circular section about a central axis perpendicular to section as
compared to its M.I. about horizontal axis is
(a) same
(b) double
(c) half
(d) four times
(e) one fourth.
Ans: b
126. Which of the following is the example of lever of first order

(a) arm of man
(b) pair of scissors
(c) pair of clinical tongs
Ans: d
127. A pair of smith’s tongs is an example of the lever of
(a) zeioth order
(b) first order
(c) second order
(d) third order
(e) fourth order.
Ans: c
128. In the lever of third order, load W, effort P and fulcrum F are oriented as follows
(a) W between P and F
(b) F between W and P
(c) P between W and F
(d) W, P and F all on one side
Ans: a
129. The angle which an inclined plane makes with the horizontal when a body placed on it is
about to move down is known as angle of
(a) friction
(c) repose
(e) static friction.
Ans: c
130. In actual machines

(a) mechanical advantage is greater than velocity ratio
(b) mechanical advantage is equal to velocity ratio
(c) mechanical advantage is less than velocity ratio
(d) mechanical advantage is unity
Ans: c
131. In ideal machines

Ans: b
132. A cable with a uniformly distributed load per horizontal metre run will take the following
shape
(a) straight line
(b) parabola
(c) hyperbola
(d) elliptical
(e) part of a circle.
Ans: b
Thank u
Strength of Materials Objective Questions :-
1. The unit of force in S.I. units is
(a) kilogram
(b) newton
(c) watt
(d) dyne
(e) joule.
Ans: b
2. The unit of work or energy in S.I. units is

(a) newton
(b) pascal
(c) kilogram meter
(d) watt
(e) joule.
Ans: e
3. The unit of power in S.I. units is

(a) newton meter
(b) watt
(c) joule
(d) kilogram meter/sec.
(e) pascal per sec.
Ans: b
4. Forces are called concurrent when their lines of action meet in

(a) one point
(b) two points
(c) plane
(e) different planes.
Ans: a
5. Forces are called coplanar when all of them acting on body lie in
(a) one point
(b) one plane
(c) different planes
(e) different points.
Ans: b
6. A force acting on a body may

(a) introduce internal stresses
(b) balance the other forces acting on it
(c) retard its motion
(d) change its motion
Ans: e
7. Which is the correct statement about law of polygon of forces ?

(a) if any number of forces acting at a point can be represented by the sides
of a polygon taken in order, then the forces are in equilibrium
(b) if any number of forces acting at a point can be represented in direction and magnitude by
(c) if a polygon representing forces acting at a point is closed then forces are in equilibrium
(d) if any number of forces acting at a point can be represented in direction and magnitude by
Ans: d
8. Effect of a force on a body depends upon

(a) magnitude
(b) direction
(c) position or line of action
Ans: d
9. If a number of forces act simultaneously on

a particle, it is possible
(a) not a replace them by a single force
(b) to replace them by a single force
(c) to replace them by a single force through C.G.
(d) to replace them by a couple
(e) to replace them by a couple and a force.
10. A force is completely defined when we specify

(a) magnitude
(b) direction
(c) point of application
Ans: d
Part 2
11. If two equal forces of magnitude P act at an angle 9°, their resultant will be
(a) P/2 cos 9/2
(b) IP sin 9/2
(c) 2P tan 9/2
(d) IP cos 9/2
(e) Psin 9/2.
Ans: d
13. The algebraic sum of the resolved parts of a number of forces in a given direction is equal to
the resolved part of their resultant in the same direction. This is as per the principle of
(a) forces
(b) independence of forces
(c) dependence of forces
(d) balance of force
(e) resolution of forces.
Ans: e
14. The resolved part of the resultant of two forces inclined at an angle 9 in a given direction is
equal to
(a) the algebraic sum of the resolved parts of the forces in the given direction
(b) the sum of the resolved parts of the forces in the given direction
(c) the difference of the forces multiplied by the cosine of 9
(d) the sum of the forces multiplied by the sine of 9
(e) the sum of the forces multiplied by the tangent of 9.
Ans: a
15. Which of the following do not have identical dimensions ?

(a) Momentum and impulse
(b) Torque and energy
(c) Torque and work
(d) Kinetic energy and potential energy
(e) Moment of a force and angular momentum.
Ans: e
16. Which of the following is not the unit of distance ?

(a) angstrom
(b) light year
(c) micron
(d) millimeter
(e) milestone.
Ans: e
17. Which of the following is not the unit of power ?

(a) kW (kilowatt)
(b) hp (horse power)
(c) kcal/sec
(d) kg m/sec
(e) kcal/kg sec.
Ans: e
18. Which of the following is not the unit of work, energy and heat ?
(a) kcal
(b) kg m
(c) kWhr
(d) hp
(e) hp hr.
Ans: d
19. Which of the following is not the unit of pressure ?

(a) kg/cm
(b) ata
(c) atmosphere
(d) mm of wcl
(e) newton.
Ans: e
20. The weight of a body is due to

(a) centripetal force of earth
(b) gravitational pull exerted by the earth
(c) forces experienced by body in atmos-phere
(d) force of attraction experienced by par-ticles
(e) gravitational force of attraction towards the centre of the earth.
Ans: e
Part 3
21. The forces, which meet at one point, but their lines of action do not lie in a plane, are called
(a) coplanar non-concurrent forces
(b) non-coplanar concurrent forces
(c) non-coplanar non-concurrent forces
(d) intersecting forces
Ans: b
22. When trying to turn a key into a lock, following is applied

(a) coplanar force
(b) non-coplanar forces
(c) lever
(d) moment
(e) couple.
Ans: e
23. Which of the following is not a scalar quantity

(a) time
(b) mass
(c) volume
(d) density
(e) acceleration.
Ans: e
24. According to principle of transmissibility of forces, the effect of a force upon a body is
(a) maximum when it acts at the center of gravity of a body
(b) different at different points in its line of action
(c) the same at every point in its line of action
(d) minimum when it acts at the C.G. of the body
Ans: c
25. Which of the following is a vector quantity

(a) energy
(b) mass
(c) momentum
(d) angle
(e) speed.
Ans: c
26. The magnitude of two forces, which when acting at right angle produce resultant force of
VlOkg and when acting at 60° produce resultant of Vl3 kg. These forces are
(a) 2 and V6
(b) 3 and 1 kg
(c) V5andV5
(d) 2 and 5
Ans: c
27. A number of forces acting at a point will be in equilibrium if

(a) their total sum is zero
(b) two resolved parts in two directions at right angles are equal
(c) sum of resolved parts in any two per-pendicular directions are both zero
(d) all of them are inclined equally
Ans: c
28. Two non-collinear parallel equal forces acting in opposite direction

(b) constitute a moment
(c) constitute a couple
(d) constitute a moment of couple
(e) constitute a resultant couple.
Ans: c
29. According to principle of moments

(a) if a system of coplanar forces is in equilibrium, then their algebraic sum is zero
(b) if a system of coplanar forces is in equilibrium, then the algebraic sum of their moments
(c) the algebraic sum of the moments of any two forces about any point is equal to moment of
theiwesultant about the same point
(d) positive and negative couples can be balanced
Ans: b
30. Which of the following is not a vector quantity

(a) weight
(b) velocity
(c) acceleration
(d) force
(e) moment.
Ans: a
Part4
31. According to law of triangle of forces

to force
(c) if three forces acting upon a patticle are represented in magnitude and direction by the sides
of a triangle, taken in order, they will be in equilibrium
Ans: c
33. If a rigid body is in equilibrium under the action of three forces, then
(a) these forces are equal
(b) the lines of action of these forces meet in a point
(c) the lines of action of these forces are parallel
(d) (b) and (c) above
Ans: d
36. D’ Alembert’s principle is used for

(a) reducing the problem of kinetics to equivalent statics problem
(b) determining stresses in the truss
(c) stability of floating bodies
(d) designing safe structures
(e) solving kinematic problems.
Ans: a
37. A heavy ladder resting on floor and against a vertical wall may not be in equilibrium, if
(a) the floor is smooth, the wall is rough
(b) the floor is rough, the wall is smooth
(c) the floor and wall both are smooth surfaces
(d) the floor and wall both are rough sur-faces
(e) will be in equilibrium under all condi-tions.
Ans: c
38. According to Lami’s theorem

to force
(c) if three forces acting upon a particle are represented in magnitude and
direction by the sides of a triangle, taken in order, they will be in equilibrium
Ans: d
39. Two coplanar couples having equal and op-posite moments

(b) produce a couple and an unbalanced force
(c) are equivalent
(d) produce a moment of couple
(e) can not balance each other.
Ans: e
40. A framed structure is perfect if it contains members equal to
(a) 2n-3
(b) n-l
(c) ‘2n-l
(d) n – 2
(e) 3n-2.
where n = number of joints in a frame
Ans: a
42. The product of either force of couple with the arm of the couple is called
(a) resultant couple
(b) moment of the forces
(c) resulting couple
(d) moment of the couple
Ans: d
43. In detennining stresses in frames by methods of sections, the frame is divided into two parts
by an imaginary section drawn in such a way as not to cut more than
(a) two members with unknown forces of the frame
(b) three members with unknown forces of the frame
(c) four members with unknown forces of the frame
(d) three members with known forces of the frame
(e) four members with two known forces.
Ans: b
44. The center of gravity of a uniform lamina lies at

(a) the center of heavy portion
(b) the bottom surface
(c) the mid point of its axis
Ans: c
45. Center of gravity of a solid cone lies on the axis at the height
Ans: a
46. Center of percussion is

(a) the point of C.G.
(b) the point of metacentre
(c) the point of application of the resultant of all the forces tending to cause a body to rotate
(d) point of suspension
(e) the point in a body about which it can rotate horizontally and oscillate under the influence of
gravity.
Ans: c
47. Center of gravity of a thin hollow cone lies on the axis at a height of
Ans: b
48.The units of moment of inertia of an area are

(a) kg m2
(b) m4
(c) kg/m2
(d) m3
(e) kg/m4.
Ans: b
49. The center of percussion of the homogeneous rod of length L suspended at the top will be
(a) L/2
(b) L/3
(c) 3L/4
(d) 2L/3
(e) 3L/8.
Ans: d
50. The center of gravity of a triangle lies at the point of

(a) concurrence of the medians
(b) intersection of its altitudes
(c) intersection of bisector of angles
(d) intersection of diagonals
Ans: a
Part 5
51. The units of moment of inertia of mass are
(a) kg m2
(b) m4
(c) kg/m2
(d) kg/m
(e) m2/kg.
Ans: a
52. The possible loading in various members of framed structures are

(a) compression or tension
(b) buckling or shear
(c) shear or tension
(e) bending.
Ans: a
53. A heavy string attached at two ends at same horizontal level and when central dip is very
small approaches the following curve
(a) catenary
(b) parabola
(c) hyperbola
(d) elliptical
(e) circular arc.
Ans: b
54. A trolley wire weighs 1.2 kg per meter length. The ends of the wire are attached to two poles
20 meters apart. If the horizontal tension is 1500 kg find the dip in the middle of the span
(a) 2.5 cm
(b) 3.0 cm
(c) 4.0 cm
(d) 5.0 cm
(e) 2.0 cm.
Ans: c
55. From a circular plate of diameter 6 cm is cut out a circle whose diameter is a radius of the
plate. Find the e.g. of the remainder from the center of circular plate
(a) 0.5 cm
(b) 1.0 cm
(c) 1.5 cm
(d) 2.5 cm
(e) 0.25 cm.
Ans: a
58. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following :
(a) The C.G. of a circle is at its center
(b) The C.G. of a triangle is at the intersection of its medians
(c) The C.G. of a rectangle is at the inter-section of its diagonals
(d) The C.G. of a semicircle is at a distance of r/2 from the center
(e) The C-G. of an ellipse is at its center.
Ans: d
59. The centre of percussion of a solid cylinder of radius r resting on a horizontal plane will be
(a) r/2
(b) 2r/3
(c) r/A
(d) 3r/2
(e) 3r/A.
Ans: d
62. In the equation of virtual work, following force is neglected

(a) reaction of any smooth surface with which the body is in contact
(b) reaction of a rough surface of a body which rolls on it without slipping
(c) reaction at a point or an axis, fixed in space, around which a body is con-strained to turn
Ans: d
63. If a suspended body is struck at the centre of percussion, then the pressure on die axis
passing through the point of suspension will be
(a) maximum
(b) minimum
(c) zero
(d) infinity
(e) same as the force applied.
Ans: c
65. The resultant of the following three couples 20 kg force, 0.5 m arm, $ ve sense 30 kg force,
1 m arm, – ve sense 40 kg force, 0.25 m arm, + ve sense having arm of 0.5 m will be
(a) 20 kg, – ve sense
(b) 20 kg, + ve sense
(c) 10 kg, + ve sense
(d) 10 kg, – ve sense
(e) 45 kg, + ve sense.
Ans: a
68. Angle oT friction is the

(c) the ratio of minimum friction force to the friction force acting when the body is just about to
move
(d) the ratio of minimum friction force to friction force acting when the body is in motion
(e) ratio of static and dynamic friction.
Ans: a
69. The coefficient of friction depends on

(a) area of contact
(b) shape of surfaces
(c) strength of surfaces
(d) nature of surface
Ans: d
70. Least force required to draw a body up the inclined plane is W sin (plane inclination + friction
(a) along the plane
(b) horizontally
(c) vertically
(d) at an angle equal to the angle of friction to the inclined plane
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: d
Part 6
71. The ratio of limiting friction and normal reaction is known as
(a) coefficient of friction
(b) angle of friction
(c) angle of repose
(d) sliding friction
(e) friction resistance.
Ans: a
72. Which one of the following statements is not correct

(a) the tangent of the angle of friction is equal to coefficient of friction
(b) the angle of repose is equal to angle of friction
(c) the tangent of the angle of repose is equal to coefficient of friction
(d) the sine of the angle of repose is equal to coefficient to friction
Ans: d
73. On a ladder resting on smooth ground and leaning against vertical wall, the force of friction
will be
(a) towards the wall at its upper end
(b) away from the wall at its upper end
(c) upwards at its upper end
(d) downwards at its upper end
Ans: c
74. On the ladder resting on the ground and leaning against a smooth vertical wall, the force of
friction will be
(a) downwards at its upper end
(b) upwards at its upper end
(c) perpendicular to the wall at its upper end
(d) zero at its upper end
Ans: d
76. Frictional force encountered after commencement of motion is called

(a) post friction
(c) kinematic friction
(d) frictional resistance
Ans: e
77. Coefficient of friction is the

(e) tangent of angle of repose.
Ans: b
78. Pick up wrong statement about friction force for dry surfaces. Friction force is
(a) proportional to normal load between the surfaces
(b) dependent on the materials of contact surface
(c) proportional to velocity of sliding
(d) independent of the area of contact surfaces
(e) none of the above is wrong statement.
Ans: c
79. A body of weight W on inclined plane of a being pulled up by a horizontal force P will be on
the point of motion up the plane when P is equal to
(a) W
(b) W sin (a + $)
(c) Wtan(a + <|))
(d) Wan(a-<t>)
(e) Wtana.
Ans: c
80. A particle moves along a straight line such that distance (x) traversed in t seconds is given
by x = t2 (t – 4), the acceleration of the particle will be given by the equation
(a) 3t2-lt
(b) 3t2+2t
(c) 6f-8
(d) 6f-4
(e) 6t2-8t.
Ans: c
Part 7
81. If rain is falling in the opposite direction of the movement of a pedestrain, he has to hold his
umbrella
(a) more inclined when moving
(b) less inclined when moving
(c) more inclined when standing
(d) less inclined when standing
Ans: d
86. A projectile is fired at an angle 9 to the vertical. Its horizontal range will be maximum when 9
is
(a) 0°
(b) 30°
(c) 45°
(d) 60°
(e) 90°.
Ans: c
88. Limiting force of friction is the

(a) tangent of angle between normal-reaction and the resultant of normal reaction and limiting
friction
(e) minimum force of friction.
Ans: c
89. Coulomb friction is the friction between
(a) bodies having relative motion
(b) two dry surfaces
(c) two lubricated surfaces
(d) solids and liquids
(e) electrically charged particles.
Ans: a
90. Dynamic friction as compared to static friction is

(a) same
(b) more
(c) less
(d) may be less of more depending on nature of surfaces and velocity
(e) has no correlation.
Ans: c
92. Tangent of angle of friction is equal to

(a) kinetic friction
(c) angle of repose
(d) coefficient of friction
(e) friction force.
Ans: d
93. Kinetic friction is the

(a) tangent of angle between normal reac-tion and the resultant of normal reac-tion and the
limiting friction
Ans: d
95. The effort required to lift a load W on a screw jack with helix angle a and angle of friction <j)
is equal to
(a) Wtan(a + <)>)
(b) Wtan(a-<)>)
(c) Wcos(a + <t>)
(d) Wsin(a + <(>)
(e) W (sin a + cos <j>).
Ans: a
96. A semi-circular disc rests on a horizontal surface with its top flat surface horizontal and
circular portion touching down. The coefficient of friction between semi-cricular disc and
horizontal surface is i. This disc is to be pulled by a horizontal force applied at one edge and it
always remains horizontal. When the disc is about to start moving, its top horizontal force will
(a) remain horizontal
(b) slant up towards direction of pull
(c) slant down towards direction of pull
(d) unpredictable
Ans: c
97. A particle inside a hollow sphere of radius r, having coefficient of friction -rr can rest upto
height of
(a) r/2
(b) r/A
(c) r/%
(d) 0.134 r
(e) 3r/8.
Ans: d
98. The algebraic sum of moments of the forces forming couple about any point in their plane is
(a) equal to the moment of the couple
(b) constant
(c) both of above are correct
(d) both of above are wrong
Ans: a
99. A single force and a couple acting in the

same plane upon a rigid body
(b) cannot balance each other
(c) produce moment of a couple
(d) are equivalent
Ans: b
100. If three forces acting in one plane upon a rigid body, keep it in equilibrium, then they must
either
(a) meet in a point
(b) be all parallel
(c) at least two of them must meet
(d) all the above are correct
Ans: d
101. The maximum frictional force which comes into play when a body just begins to slide over
another surface is called
(a) limiting friction
(b) sliding friction
(c) rolling friction
Ans: a
102. The co-efficient of friction depends upon

(a) nature of surfaces
(b), area of contact
(c) shape of the surfaces
(d) ail of the above.
(e) (a) and (b) above.
Ans: a
104. The necessary condition for forces to be in equilibrium is that these should be
(a) coplanar
(b) meet at one point ;
(c) both (a) and (b) above
(d) all be equal
(e) something else.
Ans: c
105. If three forces acting in different planes can be represented by a triangle, these will be in
(a) non-equilibrium
(b) partial equilibribrium
(d) unpredictable
Ans: a
106. If n = number of members andy = number of joints, then for a perfect frame, n =
(a) j-2
(b)2j-l
(c) 2/-3
(d)3/-2
(e) 2/ -4.
Ans: c
107. A body moves, from rest with a constant acceleration of 5 m per sec. The distance covered
in 5 sec is most nearly
(a) 38 m
(b) 62.5 m
(C) 96 m
(d) 124 m
(e) 240 m.
Ans: b
108. A flywheel on a motor goes from rest to 1000 rpm in 6 sec. The number of revolutions
made is nearly equal to
(a) 25
(b) 50
(c) 100
(d) 250
(e) 500.
Ans: b
109 Which of the following is the locus of a point that moves in such a manner that its distance
from a fixed point is equal to its distance from a fixed line multiplied by a constant greater than
one
(a) ellipse
(b) hyperbola
(c) parabola
(d) circle
Ans: b
111. Which of the following is not the unit of energy

(a) kg m
(b) kcal
(c) wattr
(d) watt hours
(e) kg m x (m/sec)2.
Ans: c
112. A sample of metal weighs 219 gms in air, 180 gms in water, 120 gms in an unknown fluid.
Then which is correct statement about density of metal
(a) density of metal can’t be determined
(b) metal is twice as dense as water
(c) metal will float in water
(d) metal is twice as dense as unknown fluid
Ans: a
113. The C.G. of a solid hemisphere lies on the central radius 3r

(a) at distance — from the plane base 3r
(b) at distance — from the plane base 3r
(c) at distance — from the plane base 3r
(d) at distance — from the plane base or
(e) at distance — from the plane base.
Ans: d
117. The C.G. of a plane lamina will not be at its geometrical centre in the case of a
(a) right angled triangle
(b) equilateral triangle
(c) square
(d) circle
(e) rectangle.
Ans: a
119. The C.G. of a right circular solid cone of height h lies at the following distance from the
base
(a) h/2
(b) J/3
(c) h/6
(d) h/4
(e) 3/i/5.
Ans: d
122. The M.I. of hollow circular section about a central axis perpendicular to section as
compared to its M.I. about horizontal axis is
(a) same
(b) double
(c) half
(d) four times
(e) one fourth.
Ans: b
126. Which of the following is the example of lever of first order

(a) arm of man
(b) pair of scissors
(c) pair of clinical tongs
Ans: d
127. A pair of smith’s tongs is an example of the lever of
(a) zeioth order
(b) first order
(c) second order
(d) third order
(e) fourth order.
Ans: c
128. In the lever of third order, load W, effort P and fulcrum F are oriented as follows
(a) W between P and F
(b) F between W and P
(c) P between W and F
(d) W, P and F all on one side
Ans: a
129. The angle which an inclined plane makes with the horizontal when a body placed on it is
about to move down is known as angle of
(a) friction
(c) repose
(e) static friction.
Ans: c
130. In actual machines

Ans: c
131. In ideal machines

Ans: b
132. A cable with a uniformly distributed load per horizontal metre run will take the following
shape
(a) straight line
(b) parabola
(c) hyperbola
(d) elliptical
(e) part of a circle.
Ans: b
Thank u
Subject code-202045
Unit-2
Id
A n=m
B n>m
C n<m
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A n=m
B n>m
C n<m
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Linear
B Parabolic
C Cubic
D Constant
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Linear
B Parabolic
C Cubic
D constant
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Linear
B Parabolic
C Cubic
D constant
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Linear
B Parabolic
C Cubic
D constant
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Linear
B Parabolic
C Cubic
D constant
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Linear
B Parabolic
C Cubic
D constant
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A SF is zero
B SF is maximum
C BM is zero
D BM is maximum
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Middle
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A UDL
B UVL
C Point load
D moment
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Cantilever beam
B Overhanging beam
D Uniform beam
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A is maximum
B is minimum
C is equal
D is zero
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
B fixed beam
C overhanging beam
D cantilever beam
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
B fixed beam
C overhanging beam
D continuous beam
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A WL
B WL/2
C WL/4
D WL/8
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A wL/2 kNm
B wL2/2 kNm
C wL3/2 kNm
D wL2/4 kNm
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A wL/2 kNm
B wL2/2 kNm
C wL3/2 kNm
D wL2/4 kNm
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 40 kNm
B 80 kNm
C 20 kNm
D 60 kNm
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
B One rectangle
D A triangle
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
C varies linearly
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A cubic law
B parabolic law
C linear law
D none of these
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A cubic law
B parabolic law
C linear law
D none of these
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
load is
A wl2/4
B wl2/8
C wl2/12
D wl/4
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
the
A free end
B mid span
C fixed end
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A cubic law
B parabolic law
C linear law
D uniform law
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A cubic law
B parabolic law
C linear law
D uniform law
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A cubic law
B parabolic law
C linear law
D uniform law
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
end is
A triangle
B rectangle
C parabola
D elliptical
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A zero
B also maximum
C minimum
D of any value
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
of the beam.
B length
C width
D depth
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
_____.
A disc
B strut
C column
D beam
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A inclined
B parallel
C normal
D none of the above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
D All of above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A width
B length
C depth
D cross-section
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Bending moment
B Loading
C Deflection
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
length is a
A Triangle
B Rectangle
C Hyperbola
D Parabola
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
B remains same
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
there is a

Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A a horizontal line
B a vertical line
C an inclined line
D a parabolic curve
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A zero
B wl2/2
C wl2/4
D wl2/8
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id

Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
there is a

Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
there is a

Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A P*(L-a) * a/L
B P*(L-a) * b/L
C P*(L-a) /L
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A P
B P/2
C 3P/5
D 2P/5
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
what is maximum SF ?
A w*L
B w*L/2
C 2*w*L
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
what is minimum SF ?
A w*L
B w*L/2
C Zero
D None of the above
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A fixed end
B free end
C middle
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A fixed end
B free end
C middle
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
what is maximum BM?
A w*L*L
B w*L*L/2
C Zero
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A fixed end
B free end
C middle
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question LOAD SFD
1 POINT LOAD A ZERO
2 UDL B PARABOLIC
3 UVL C LINEAR
4 MOMENT D CONSTANT
Match the pairs
A 1-A; 2-C;3-B;4-D
B 1-D; 2-C;3-B;4-A
C 1-A; 2-B;3-C;4-D
D 1-D; 2-B;3-C;4-A
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question LOAD BMD
2 UDL B CUBIC
3 UVL C PARABOLIC
4 MOMENT D LINEAR
Match the pairs
A 1-A; 2-C;3-B;4-D
B 1-D; 2-C;3-B;4-A
C 1-A; 2-B;3-C;4-D
D 1-D; 2-B;3-C;4-A
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A fixed beam
C continuous beam
D overhanging beam
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A Triangle
B Rectangle
C Parabolic
D hyperbolic
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A Free end
B Under the load
C Fixed end
D middle
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
ID
A 4
B -4.33
C -5.33
D 6.33
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 270
B 80
C 45
D 607.5
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 8
B 1
C 4
D 2
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
will be …
A 10
B 52
C 6
D 24
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question For following beam, the Maximum bending moment is
A 72 kN-m
B 8 kN-m
C 60 kN-m
D 104 kN-m
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question For following beam, the Maximum bending moment is
A 126 kN-m
B 12 kN-m
C 18 kN-m
D 180 kN-m
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question For following beam, the maximum bending moment is located ______.
A at point C
C at point D
D at point B
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question For following beam, the shear force is zero ______.

B at point C
C at point B
D at point D
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A at point A
C at point E
D at point B
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question For a following beam shown, the vertical reaction at point B is
A 90 kN
B 6 kN
C 27 kN
D 30 kN
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question For a following beam shown, the vertical reaction at point A is
A 90 kN
B 6 kN
C 27 kN
D 30 kN
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 90 kN-m
B 540 kN-m
C 180 kN-m
D 18 kN-m
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
d
A PL/3
B 2PL/3
C PL/9
D 2PL/9
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A M/L
B M/L/2
C Zero
D M
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A M at fixed end
B M at free end
C M at middle
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A PL
B PL/2
C PL/4
D 2PL
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A 3 kN
B 1.5 kN
C 1 kN
D 2.25 kN
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A W*L
B W*L/2
C 2W*L
D W/L
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A W*L^2
B W*L^2/2
C 2W*L^2
D W*L/2
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A W*L
B W*L/2
C 2W*L
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A W*L*L
B W*L*L/2
C W*L*L/8
D None of the above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question The shear force diagram for a cantilever beam subjected to a point load 'W' at free end
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question The shear force diagram for a cantilever beam subjected to a point load at the midspan is
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question The shear force diagram for following beam is
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question The shear force diagram for a simply supported beam subjected to a point load 'W' is
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
is
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
d
Question
A M/L
B M/L/2
C 2M/L
D Zero
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A M
B M/2
C 2M
D Zero
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question

C Middle section
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A PL
B 2PL
C zero
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A DA
B AB
C BC
D DC
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A P
B P/2
C P/4
D 2P
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A AB
B BC
C AC
D CAN'T SAY
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A AB
B BC
C AC
D CAN'T SAY
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A 100 N
B 60 N
C 40N
D 50 N
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A 100 Nm
B 300 Nm
C 200 Nm
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 50
B 40
C 30
D 20
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
as follows
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A A circular arc
B A parabolic arc
C Elliptical shape
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
cantilever is
A 0 kN-m
B 50 kN-m
C 25 kN-m
D 100 kN-m
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 30 kN-m
B 20 kN-m
C 10 kN-m
D 5 kN-m
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 120 kN
B 60 kN
C 30 kN
D 15 kN
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
the magnitude of W
A 700 kN
B 750 kN
C 800 kN
D 1000 kN
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A The support
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 120 kN-m
B 100 kN-m
C 80 kN-m
D 60 kN-m
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 5wN
B 3wN
C wN
D 0
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 125 kN
B 105 kN
C 50 kN
D 5 kN
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A zero
B wl/4
C wl/2
D wl
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
support?
A 24 kN
B 20 kN
C 16 kN
D 12 kN
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 72.5 kNm
B 52.5 kNm
C 37.5 kNm
D 47.5 kNm
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
support?
A 90 kN-m
B 80 kN-m
C 70 kN-m
D 60 kN-m
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
left support?
A 3.0 m
B 2.25 m
C 2.5 m
D 1.5 m
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 0 kN-m
B 10 kN-m
C 12.5 kN-m
D 25 kN-m
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 3.6 kN-m
B 1.8 kN-m
C 1 kN-m
D 0 kN-m
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question For following beam shown in fig, the maximum bending moment is ________.
A 4 kN-m
B 2.8 kN-m
C 3.2 kN-m
D 3 kN-m
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
of ___________.
A 1 m from C
B 0.75 m from C
C 2 m from B
D 3 m from A
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 1.2 m from D
B 3.2 m from C
C 1.2 m from C
D 3 m from B
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
AB is _______.
A 4 kN-m
B 18 kN-m
C 36 kN-m
D 2.25 kN-m
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 2.67 m from C
B 1 m from B
C 3 m from A
D 2.67 m from A
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 1.5 m from A
B 0.33 m from A
C 1.33 m from A
D 1 m from A
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Subject code-202045
Unit-3
Id
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Maximum
B Minimum
C Zero
D None of them
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Upper fiber
B Lower fiber
C Neutral axis
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
C Both A and B
D None of A and B
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A Linear
B Parabolic
C Cubic
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
C Not related
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Increases
B Decreases
C Remain constant
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A bd^3/6
B bd^2/6
C bd^3/12
D bd^2/12
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
A πd^3/64
B πd^3/32
C πd^2/64
D πd^2/32
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
D None of the above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Constant
B Parabolic
C Cubic
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A Increases
B Decreases
C Remain constant
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Constant
B Parabolic
C Cubic
D Linear
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Outer fibers
B Neutral axis
C Everywhere
D None of above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Outer fibers
B Neutral axis
C Everywhere
D None of above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
D None of these
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A πd4 /64
B πd2 /32
C πd2 /64
D πd4 /32
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Neutral axis
B Extreme fibre
D None of these
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Rectangular
B Circular
C I – section
D None of these
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
will …
A Increase by 50%
B Decrease by 50%
C Increase by 25%
D Decrease by 25%
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Shear modulus
B Bulk modulus
C elastic modulus
D section modulus
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
develop at ....
A Bottom fiber
B Top fiber
C Neutral axis
D Center of gravity
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
A M/Y = E/R
B Y/M=E/R
C M/I = E/R
D M/R=E/I
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
A σb(max)/E
B M/σb(max)
C σb(max)/M
D M/I
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
A I/σbmax
B ymax/I
C σbmax/I
D I/ymax
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id

Answer B
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id

D None of above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
A Continuous beam
B Fixed beam
D None of above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id

Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id

C At the NA
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id

C At the NA
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
A Poisson's ratio
C Modular ratio
D Nodular ratio
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id

Answer D
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
A wL/8
B wL2/8
C wL3/8
D wL2/12
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
be …
A 5 F/(2bd)
B 3 F/(2bd)
C 3 F/(4bd)
D 2 F/(3bd)
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question Rectangular sections A and B have width ’b’ mm and ‘2b’ mm respectively but have
same depth. If these are subjected to same B.M. then what will be the ratio of maximum
A 1:8
B 8:1
C 1:2
D 2:1
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question Rectangular sections A and B have depth ’d’ mm and ‘2d’ mm respectively but have
same width. If these are subjected to same B.M. then what will be the ratio of maximum
A 1:8
B 8:1
C 1:2
D 2:1
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A to section B?
A 1:8
B 8:1
C 1:4
D 4:1
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
will …
A Increase by 50%
B Decrease by 50%
C Increase by 25%
D Decrease by 25%
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A D²/10
B D³/10
C D4/10
D D4/20
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
to
A (4/5) t d2
B (4/5) t2 d2
C (4/5) d t2
D (5/4) t d2
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A moment of inertia
B stress
C strain
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A M
B M/2
C M/3
D M/4
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 3/2
B 4/3
C 7/4
D 2
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A Π/16
B Π/32
C Π64
D Πd2/32
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A Decrease
B Increase
C Remain same
Answer increase
Marks 2
Unit
Id
is developed at.
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 2Ml/ EI
B Ml/ EI
C Ml/ 2EI
D 4Ml/EI
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 2
B 1.33
C 1
D 0.75
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 0.8
B 0.75
C 0.67
D 0.5
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A equal to
B 4/3 times
C 1.5 times
D twice
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
false
directions
dimensions
bending
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
D None of these
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
B Linear variation
C Cubic variation
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A Flanges only
B Web only
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
axis.
A 2100N, 3660Nm
B 5400N, 486Nm
C 54000N, 4860Nm
D 54005N, 4865Nm
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 1.814
B 1.184
C 4.481
D 8.142
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question
A BD-bd/6D
B BD2-bd2/6D
C B-b/6D
D None of these
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A f.[π(D4-d4)/32D]
B f.[π(D4-d4)/34D]
C f.[π(D2-d2)/32D]
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 11.20N/mm2; 2.750N/mm2
B 11.02N/mm2; 2.755N/mm2
C 2.755N/mm2; 11.02N/mm2
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 36.0 MPa
B 27.0 MPa
C 24.0 MPa
D 21.0 MPa
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 319 Nm
B 281 Nm
C 267 Nm
D 249 Nm
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 116.4 MPa
B 96.4 MPa
C 106.4 MPa
D 126.4 Mpa
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 2.1 kNm
B 2.4 kNm
C 2.7 kNm
D 3.0 kNm
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 145 MPa
B 135 MPa
C 125 MPa
D 175 MPa
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 7.8 MPa
B 9.8 MPa
C 6.8 MPa
D 8.5 MPa
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
be.
A 240 mm
B 120 mm
C 75 mm
D 60 mm
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 3 N/mm2
B 1.5 N/mm2
C 0.75 N/mm2
D 0.0 N/mm2
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A thin circular tube is used as a beam . At a particular section it is subjected to shear force
. If the maximum shear stress developed in the section is 'q', the mean shear stress is.
A 0.5q
B 0.75q
C 0.80q
D None of these
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question A steel shaft A of diameter 'd ', length 'l' is subjected to a twisting moment T. another
shaft B of brass of same diameter 'd' but length '0.5l' is also subjected to same twisting
moment 'T'. If the shear modulus of steel is twice the shear modulus of brass and the max
shear stress developed in steel shaft is 100 N/mm2, then the max stress developed in brass
shaft is.
A 200 N/mm2
B 100N/mm2
C 50N/mm2
D 25N/mm2
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 100 cm3
B 150 cm3
C 75 cm3
D 50 cm3
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
the section is
A 90 N/mm2
B 80 N/mm2
C 60 N/mm2
D 45 N/mm2
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 500 N/mm2
B 250 N/mm2
C 125 N/mm2
D 50 N/mm2
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 20 N/mm2
B 17 N/mm2
C 14 N/mm2
D 6.667 N/mm2
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 20 KN
B 40 KN
C 80 KN
D 100KN
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 20 MPa
B 40 MPa
C 60 MPa
D 80 MPa
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
be
A 96 MPa
B 48 MPa
C 72 MPa
D 24 MPa
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 63.6 MPa
B 31.8 MPa
C 17.6 MPa
D 0
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0
B 107 MPa
C 110 MPa
D 117 MPa
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 103 kg/cm2
B 2 x 103 kg/cm2
C 4 x 103 kg/cm2
D 6 x 103
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 25 MPa
B 50 MPa
C 64 MPa
D 100 MPa
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
be.
A 240 mm
B 120 mm
C 75 mm
D 60 mm
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A Fmax= 205 N/mm2 ; M= 1605Nm
B Fmax= 120 N/mm2 ; M= 160Nm
C Fmax= 200 N/mm2 ; M= 1600Nm
D Fmax= 1200 N/mm2 ; M= 1600Nm
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Subject code-202045
Unit-4
Id
A EIy
B E I (dy / dx)
C E I (d2y / dx2)
D E I (d3y / dx3)
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A EIy
B E I (dy / dx)
C E I (d2y / dx2)
D E I (d3y / dx3)
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A [E I (y/dx4)]
B E I (dy/dx)
C E I (d2y/dx2)
D E I (d3y/dx3)
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question E I (d2y/dx2) = _______________.
A SF
B M
C [- w (x)]
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question E I (dy/dx) = _______________.
A M
B Int[M dx]+ C1
D none of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question E I y = _______________.
A M
B Int[M dx]+ C1
D none of the above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A roller
B hinge
C fixed
D all the above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A roller
B hinge
C fixed
D all the above
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A zero
B maximum
C minimum
D none of the above
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A zero
B maximum
C minimum
D none of the above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A zero
B maximum
C minimum
D none of the above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A zero
B maximum
C minimum
D none of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A zero
B maximum
C minimum
D none of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 0<x<L
B 0 < x < L/2
C L/2 < x < L
D none of the above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 0
B L/2
C 3L/4
D L
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 0
B L/2
C 3L/4
D L/4
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 0
B L/2
C 3L/4
D L/4
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 0
B 3L/4
C more than 3L/4
D less than 3L/4
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A L/3
B L/2
C 3L/4
D L/4
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 0
B L/2
C 3L/4
D L/4
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 0
B L/2
C 3L/4
D L/4
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question For a cantilever beam carrying a point load W at its free end, the magnitude of slope at
the free end is ________.
A W L2 / 2EI
B W L2 / 3EI
C W L3 / 3EI
D W L3 / 6EI
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A W L2 / 2EI
B W L2 / 3EI
C W L3 / 3EI
D W L3 / 6EI
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A w L2 / 2EI
B w L2 / 3EI
C w L3 / 3EI
D w L3 / 6EI
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A w L3 / 3EI
B w L3 / 6EI
C w L3 / 8EI
D w L4 / 8EI
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A W L2 / 16 EI
B W L2 / 30 EI
C W L2 / 24 EI
D W L2 / 48 EI
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Elastic curve
B Parabolic curve
C Plastic curve
D None of above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A w L3 / 3 EI
B w L3 / 6 EI
C w a3 / 3 EI
D w a3 / 6 EI
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A w L3 / 3 EI
B w L3 / 6 EI
C w a3 / 3 EI
D w a3 / 6 EI
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Strain energy
B resilience
C Proof resilience
D toughness
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
D all of the above
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A impact energy
B proof resilience
C proof stress
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A equal to
D independent of
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 5WL3/348EI
B 5WL2/384EI
C 5WL3/384EI
D 5WL2/348EI
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
energy
A Kinetic, strain
B Strain, Kinetic
C Potential, Strain
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Zero
B Infinite
C One
D Less than one
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A E
B GI
C EI
D E/I
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Zeroth
B Fourth
C First
D Second
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
EI d2y/dx2 = ___________.
A (W/2)x | -W(x - (L/2))|
B Wx | -W(x - (L/2))|
C (W/2)x | -W(x - L)|
D (W/2)x | + W(x - (L/2))|
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A (wx)/2 - (wx2 /2 )
B w/2 - (wx2 /2 )
C (wLx)/2 - (wL2 /2 )
D (wLx)/2 - (wx2 /2 )
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
the beam.
A slope
B Bending moment
C deflection
D None of above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
D All of above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
________.
B Shear force only
D None of above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A 11 W L4 / 120 EI
B W L3 / 30 EI
C W L3 / 24 EI
D W L4 / 48 EI
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A w L3 / 8EI
B w L3 / 6EI
C w L3 / 24EI
D w L4 / 6EI
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A w L3 / 8EI
B w L4 / 8EI
C w L3 / 24EI
D 5 w L4 / 384EI
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A positive
B negative
D None of above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A positive
B negative
D None of above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
end is _________.
A negative
B positive
D None of above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
end is _________.
A Negative
B Positive
D None of above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A positive
B negative
C zero
D Can't say
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A to stop the watch
B to run the watch
D all of these
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
'B' is
A 1/8
B 1/4
C 1/2
D 2
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A M
B √M
C M²
D M³
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A same
B double
C four times
D six times
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A one-fourth
B one-half
C double
D four times
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
d2y/dx2 = ____________________.
A M0
B (-M0)
C (-M0 / L) x | + M0(x - (L/2))2 |
D (M0 / L) x | - M0(x - (L/2))2 |
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.25
B 2
C 4
D 48
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
__________mm.
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 16
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
________˚.
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 32
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.25
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.52
B 0.72
C 0
D 5.2
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.0018˚
B 0.0018 radian
C 0.72˚
D 0.72 radian
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.01
B 10
C 4
D 16
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
be________mm.
A 2
B 4
C 8
D 16
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
be________mm.
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
be________mm.
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
be________mm.
A 0.25
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
be________mm.
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
a rectangular cross section of b x d shows a slope of 4˚ at the free end. If the same UDL is
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.25
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
_______˚.
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.00167˚
B 0.00167 radian
C 0.72˚
D 0.72 radian
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
_________ mm.
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
_________ mm.
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
_________ mm.
A 0.25
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
_________ mm.
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1.33
B 13.33
C 0.13
D 133.33
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
________mm.
A 0.01
B 10
C 1
D 4
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
will be _________ mm.
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
will be _________ mm.
A 2
B 4
C 8
D 16
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.25
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 3/8
B 3/4
C 4/3
D 8/3
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 8
B 4
C 1/4
D 1/16
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A W2l3/48EI
B W2l3/96EI
C W3l2/48EI
D W3l3/96EI
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A W2l3/48EI
B W2l3/96EI
C W3l2/48EI
D W3l3/96EI
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 5/8
B 8/5
C 5/4
D 4/5
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 2:3
B 3:2
C 1:2
D 2:1
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A M0 L2 / EI
B M0 L2 / 2EI
C 2M0 L2 / EI
D 0
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
end is ________.
A M0 L / EI
B M0 L / 2EI
C 2M0 L / EI
D 0
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A M0 / EI
B M0 L / 24 EI
C M0 L / EI
D M0 L2 / 24 EI
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
deflection is
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
increase by
A 8
B 1/8
C 1/3
D 2
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A b/d
B d/b
C (d/b)2
D (b/d)2
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question For the loading shown, determine the deflection at the free end.
A -Px(3L-x)/6EI
B Px2(3L-x)/6EI
C -Px(3L-x)/6EI
D -Px2(3L-x)/6EI
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Question

A PL2/6EI
B PL2/32EI
C PL2/16EI
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
B U = Int. (M2/2GI)
C U = Int. (M/2EJL)
D U = Int. (M/EI)
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question

A U = T2/2GJL
B U = T2/2EI
C U = T/2GJL
D U = T/EI
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question

A P12L3/6E
B P12L3/6EI
C PL/AE
D P12L/6EI
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A positeve
B Negative
C Zero
D None of the above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
support will be
A positeve
B Negative
C Zero
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit
Id
midspan will be

C Zero
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Positive
B Negetive
C Zero
D All of above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit
Id
A Positive
B Negetive
C Zero
D All of above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id

C Zero
D All of above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit
Id
Question A cantilever of length 4 meter carries a uniformly distributed load w throughout its
length. If the maximum bending moment in the cantilever is 8 N-m and EI is its flexural
rigidity, the slope at free end of the cantilever is ....
A 64/3EI
B 32/3EI
C 8/3EI
D None of these
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
will be __________ mm.
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
__________.
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 32
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
__________.
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 32
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
_________˚.
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
_________˚.
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 2
B 4
C 16
D 32
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 0.25
C 4
D 32
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
m will be _______˚.
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
m will be _______˚.
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1.25
B 0.72
C 0
D 5.2
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
will be ______mm.
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 32
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 32
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 4
D 8
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B 2
C 0.5
D 4
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 2
B 4
C 16
D 32
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.5
B 0.25
C 4
D 32
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
the beam is.
A 1 mm
B 2 mm
C 2.5 mm
D None of these
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 4
B 2
C 1
D 0.25
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 16 mm
B 5 mm
C 2 mm
D 1 mm
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 36/EI
B 27/EI
C 18/EI
D 9/EI
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 6y
B 4y
C 2y
D 1/4y
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 26 mm
B 52 mm
C 2.6 mm
D 10 mm
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
the ratio of
A 8
B 1/8
C 1/2
D 2
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 2 times
B 4 times
C 8 times
D 1/2 times
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1
B
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A WL
B
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.057 rad
B 0.067 rad
C 0.077 rad
D 0.087 rad
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 53.3 mm
B 63.3 mm
C 73.3 mm
D 83.3 mm
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 1.7 mm
B 1.8 mm
C 1.9 mm
D 2.0 mm
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.0166mm
B 1.666mm
C 0.00166mm
D 1.666m
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.133 mm
B 1.333 mm
C 0.00133 mm
D 1.333 m
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 2 mm
B 0.0002 m
C 0.02 mm
D 2m
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit
Id
A 0.63
B 1.6
C 0.8
D 1.25
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit
Id
for that section

Answer D
Marks 2
Unit
As per Revised Syllabus of
University of Pune (UoP)
for Online Examination
H. J. Sawant
M.Sc. M.Tech.
Formerly Lecturer in
Vishwakarma Institute of Technology
Pune
A. M. Umbrajkaar
Associate Professor
SKN college of Engineering,
Pune
Anup Goel
B.E. Mechanical &
Post Graduation in Tool Design with CAD/CAM
® TM
TECHNICAL
PUBLICATIONS technical@vtubooks.com
An Up-Thrust for Knowledge www.vtubooks.com
(i)
TT able of Contents
UNIT - I
Chapter - 1 Simple Stresses and Strains

®
(1 - 1) to (1 - 30)
UNIT - II
Chapter - 2 Shear Force & Bending Moment Diagrams (2 - 1) to (2 - 32)
UNIT - III
Chapter - 3 Bending Stresses in Beams (3 - 1) to (3 - 18)
Chapter - 4 Shear Stresses in Beams (4 - 1) to (4 - 18)
UNIT - IV
Chapter - 5 Slope and Deflection of Beams (5 - 1) to (5 - 18)
Chapter - 6 Strain Energy (6 - 1) to (6 - 14)
(ii)
1 Simple Stresses and Strains
· The internal resistance force developed · Ultimate stress is the maximum stress
in a body per unit area is known as reached in the ductile specimen.
stress.
· Necking takes place after ultimate stress
· S.I unit of stress is pascal (Pa). is reached.
· 1 Pa = 1 N/m2 · The stress at the time of rupture is
known as rupture stress or breaking
· 1 MPa = 10 6 Pa = 1 N mm 2
stress.
· 1 GPa = 10 9 Pa = 1 kN mm 2
· The plastic region includes yielding,
· The change in length per unit original strain hardening and necking regions.
length of a member is known as normal · Brittle materials do not show yielding
strain. and necking.
· If dL is the change in length of a · The ultimate stress and breaking stress
straight member of length L, the strain are same for brittle materials.
( e) is given by,
· Brittle materials show larger strength in
dL
e = compression than in tension.
L
· Strain is a dimensionless quantity. · The mechanical properties of materials
are as follows :
· Stress - strain graph is a straight line in 1) Elasticity : It is the property of a
the linear region up to the proportional material to regain its original shape and
limit. dimensions on removing external loads
· A ductile material regains its original acting on it.
length upto the elastic limit. 2) Plasticity : It is the property of a
· The region of stress - strain graph in material to remain in its deformed
which a ductile material is unable to shape and dimensions permanently
regain its original length is known as even after removal of external loads
plastic region. acting on it.
· The strain insreases without any 3) Strength : It is the ability of a material

increase in the stress in yielding region. to resist failure under the action of
externally applied loads.
· After yielding, the stress again increases
with increase in strain which is known
as strain hardening.
(1 - 1)
TM
TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS - An up thrust for knowledge

Strength of Materials 1-2 Simple Stresses and Strains
4) Hardness : It is the ability of a material safety is also defined as the ratio of

to resist surface abrasion or penetration yield stress to allowable stress.
by other bodies. Yield stress
F.O.S. =
Allowable stress
5) Toughness : It is the ability of a
material to absorb shock energy
without failure. · Factor of safety is also defined on the
basis of ultimate stress as the ratio of
6) Stiffness : It is the property of a
ultimate stress to allowable stress.
material to resist deformation under the
Ultimate stress
action of external loads. F.O.S. =
Allowable stress
7) Ductility : It is the property of a
· Margin of safety = F.O.S. – 1
material which allows it to be drawn
into thin wires without breaking by · In the linear region, the stress is directly
applying a tensile force. proportional to strain. This is known as
Hooke's law.
8) Malleability : It is the property of a
material which allows it to be · As normal stress ( s) is directly
hammered into thin sheets without proportional to normal strain ( e), the
rupturing. ratio of normal stress to normal strain is
9) Brittleness : It is the property of a a constant known as modulus of
material to get ruptured without elasticity E).
significant deformation on applying s
E =
e
external loads.
10) Resilience : It is the ability of a · The elongation of a member of length L
material to absorb energy within elastic subjected to a tensile force P is
PL
limits. dL =
AE
11) Creep : It is the permanent deformation
sL
of a material with time when subjected or dL =
E
to a constant load.
· The force required to produce unit
12) Fatigue : It is the failure of a material
deflection is known as the stiffness of
due to repeated cycles of loading and
the rod.
unloading. AE
k =
13) Endurance : It is the ability of a L
material to resist failure due to fatigue. · The elongation produced by unit load in
· The ratio of ultimate load to allowable the rod is known as its flexibility.
load is known as factor of safety. L
f =
Ultimate load AE
Factor of safety = F.O.S. =
Allowable load
· For a tapered bar with rectangular cross
section subjected to tensile force P the
· Factor of safety can also be defined elongation is
using yield stress criterion. Factor of PL æb ö
dL = log eç ÷
t(b- a)E èaø
TM

· For a tapered bar with circular cross between rigidly fixed supports is
section subjected to tensile force P the subjected to a temperature increase of
elongation is DT,
4 PL sL
dL = a L DT- =0
pd1d2E E
· If the support yields by an amount d,
· Elongation of a bar of uniform cross sL
section under its own weight is a L DT- =d
E
WL
dL = · If there are rods of different materials
2 AE
and different cross-section areas are
· Elongation of a conical bar under its connected in series
own weight is æs L s L ö
2 WL ( a1 L1 DT + a 2 L2 DT)-ç 1 1 + 2 2 ÷ = 0
è 1E E2 ø
dL =
pD 2E
· If two members of differents materials
· Thermal stresses are developed when say steel and copper and different
the free expansion due to increase in cross-section areas AS and AC are
temperature is constrained. connected in parallel
· The change in length due to s S LS s L
a S LS DT + = a C LC DT - C C
temperature is ES EC
d LT = a L DT · Shear stress is caused by forces which
· The change in length due to act tangential to the surface of the body.
temperature change per unit original · The tangential force acting on the
length is known as the thermal strain. surface of a body per unit surface area
d LT is defined as the shear stress.
et =
L
· If V is the tangential force on area A,
or et = a DT then.
· Thermal stresses will be developed only V
Shear stress t =
if the change in length is prevented, i.e., A
when there is no strain. · For a rivet on double shear,
· In statically determinate structures, the F
t =
2A
members are free to expand or contract
and hence thermal stress are not · While punching a hole in a metal sheet,
developed in these structures. the punch is subjected to a compressive
· Thermal stresses are developed in stress and the metal sheet is subjected
statically indeterminate structures where to a shear stress.
the free expansion and contraction of · The ratio of shear stress to shear strain
members is either prevented or is a constant known as modulus of
restricted. rigidity denoted by G.
· If an initially unstressed rod of uniform t
G =
f
cross-sectional area A and length L held
TM

· The change in volume dV per unit · Relation between modulus of elasticity

original volume V is known as the and modulus of rigidity :
volumetric strain eV or dilatation. E = 2G (1 + m)
dV
eV = · Relation between E, G and K :
V
æ 9 KG ö
· The ratio of volumetric stress to E = ç ÷
èG + 3 K ø
volumetric strain is a constant known
as bulk modulus, represented by K.
s Objective Questions & Answers
K =
eV for Online Examination
· A strain in longitudinal direction causes
Simple Stress and Strain
a strain in a perpendicular direction
which is known as lateral strain. Q.1 The internal resistance force developed in
a body per unit area is known as
· The negative ratio of lateral strain to
___________.
longitudinal strain is known as
Poisson's ratio. a stress b strain
Lateral strain c elasticity d Young's modulus
Poisson's ratio n = –
Longitudinal strain [Ans. : a]
Q.2 The S.I unit of stress is ___________.
eL
n = - a GPa b MPa
e
c kPa d Pa
· Poisson's ratio has a value between 0
[Ans. : d]
and 0.5 for all materials.
· Volumetric strain eV = e x + ey + ez Q.3 1 MPa = ___________.
2 2
a 1 N/m b 1 N/mm
· Volumetric strain for a cylindrical bar is 2 2
c 1 kN/mm d 1 kN/m
eV = 2e d + e L
[Ans. : b]
· Generalized Hooke's law :
sy Q.4 1 GPa = ___________.
sx s
ex = -n -n z 2 2
E E E a 1 N/m b 1 N/mm
2 2
c 1 kN/mm d 1 kN/m
sy s s
ey = -n x - n z [Ans. : c]
E E E
sz s sy Q.5 1 Pa = ___________.
ez = -n x - n 2 2
E E E a 1 N/m b 1 N/mm
2 2
· Volumetric strain for ractangular bar : c 1 kN/mm d 1 kN/m
æ s x + sy + sz ö [Ans.: a]
eV = ç
ç ÷
÷(1 - 2 n)
è E ø Q.6 The change in length per unit original
length is known as ___________.
· Relation between modulus of elasticity
and bulk modulus : a stress b strain
E = 3 K(1 - 2 n) c elasticity d Young's modulus
[Ans. : b]
TM

Q.7 The S.I unit for strain is ___________. a creep b plasticity

a Pa b MPa c fatigue d resilience
[Ans. : c]
c GPa d none of the
above [Ans. : d] Q.15 The property of a material to remain in
its deformed state even after removing
Q.8 The property of a material to get external loads is known as ___________.
ruptured without significant deformation
a toughness b plasticity
on applying external load is known as
___________. c stiffness d hardness
[Ans. : b]
a elasticity b plasticity
Q.16 The ratio of normal stress to normal
c ductility d brittleness
strain is known as ___________.
[Ans. : d]
Q.9 The property of a material to get drawn a modulus of elasticity
into thin wires without breaking is b modulus of rigidity
known as ___________. c bulk modulus
a elasticity b plasticity d Poisson's ratio [Ans. : a]
c ductility d malleability
Q.17 Two equal and opposite forces of
[Ans. : c]
magnitude 10 kN are applied at the ends
Q.10 The property of a material to resist of a steel wire to increase its length. The
deformation is known as ___________. internal force in the wire will be
a elasticity b plasticity ___________kN.
c stiffness d resilience a 0 b 10
[Ans. : c]
c 20 d 15
Q.11 The property of a material to absorb [Ans. : b]
energy within elastic limits is known as (Hint : Refer section 1.3.1 of main book)
___________.
Q.18 If an axial force of 1 kN is applied to a
a elasticity b toughness 2
steel rod of 100 mm cross section area,
c stiffness d resilience the stress in it will be ___________.
[Ans. : d]
a 10 MPa b 10 GPa
Q.12 The property of a material to absorb
c 1 MPa d 1 GPa
shock energy without failure is known as
[Ans. : a]
___________.
(Hint : Refer section 1.3.1 of main book)
a elasticity b toughness
Q.19 If a force of magnitude P acts on the
c stiffness d resilience
surface of a body at angle q with the
[Ans. : b]
surface of area A, the normal stress is
Q.13 The permanent deformation of a material
___________.
with time when subjected to a constant
a P b P cosq
load is known as ___________.
A A
a creep b plasticity Psinq
c d none of the
c fatigue d resilience A above [Ans. : c]
[Ans. : a]
Q.14 Failure of a material due to repeated
cycles of loading and unloading is known
as ___________.
TM

Q.20 The longitudinal stress developed in a Q.26 Hooke's law is valid within ___________
2
rod of cross section area 50 mm is region.
100 MPa. The force acting along its axis is a elastic b plastic
___________.
c yielding d linear
a 2N b 2 kN [Ans. : d]
c 5N d 5 kN Q.27 The stress - strain graph is nearly
[Ans. : d] horizontal in ___________ region.
Q.21 Modulus of elasticity for rubber is a elastic b linear
___________ than that for steel. c yielding d necking
a larger than [Ans. : c]
b equal to Q.28 There is increase in strain without any
increase in stress in ___________ region.
c smaller than
a elastic b linear
d any of the above
[Ans. : c] c yielding d necking
[Ans. : c]
Q.22 Stress does not depend upon __________.
Q.29 Fracture occurs at ___________.
a applied force
a rupture point b yield point
b area of c/s
c elastic limit d ultimate stress
c modulus of elasticity [Ans. : a]
d none of the above [Ans. : c] Q.30 The maximum stress reached in a ductile
material is known as ___________.
Q.23 Stress does not depend upon __________.
a rupture stress b yield stress
a applied force
c ultimate stress d none of the
b area of c/s
above [Ans. : c]
c change in length
Q.31 Modulus of elasticity can be calculated
d none of the above [Ans. : c]
within ___________ region.
Stress - Strain Diagram, Hooke's Law
a elastic b plastic
Q.24 A wire of ductile material is able to c yielding d linear
regain its original length till ___________. [Ans. : d]
a proportional limit Factor of Safety, Margin of Safety
b elastic limit
Q.32 The ratio of yield stress to working stress
c yield stress is reached is known as ___________.
d ultimate stress is reached a margin of safety
[Ans. : b]
b factor of safety
Q.25 A wire of ductile material is unable to
regain its original length after c modulus of elasticity
___________. d none of the above
[Ans. : b]
a proportional limit
Q.33 If 1 is subtracted from the ratio of yield
b elastic limit
stress to working stress the quantity
c yield stress is reached obtained is known as ___________.
d ultimate stress is reached a margin of safety
[Ans. : b]
TM

b factor of safety Axially Loaded Members

c modulus of elasticity Q.40 If an axial force of 1 kN is applied to a
2
d none of the above rod of 100 mm cross section area
[Ans. : a] produces change in length of 1 mm over
Q.34 The ratio of ultimate load to working a length of 12 m, the modulus of
load is known as ___________. elasticity of the material will be
___________.
a margin of safety
a 120 MPa b 10 GPa
b factor of safety
c 12 GPa d 120 GPa
c modulus of elasticity [Ans. : d]
d none of the above (Hint : Refer section 1.9.2 of main book)
[Ans. : b]
Q.41 If an axial force of 1 kN is applied to a
Q.35 If the working load is one third of the 2
rod of 100 mm cross section area, length
ultimate load, the factor of safety is
5 m and the modulus of elasticity of the
___________.
material is 100 GPa, the change in length
a 0.333 b 3 of the rod will be ___________.
c 2 d 1 a 1 mm b 1m
[Ans. : b]
c 0.5 mm d 0.25 mm
(Hint : Refer section 1.7 of main book)
[Ans. : c]
Q.36 If the working load is one third of the (Hint : Refer section 1.9.2 of main book)
ultimate load, the margin of safety is
___________. Q.42 If an axial force of 15 kN is applied to a
rod of 25 mm diameter, length 300 mm,
a 0.333 b 3
the change in length of the rod was
c 2 d 1 observed to be 0.045 mm. The modulus
[Ans. : c] of elasticity of the material is 200 GPa.
(Hint : Refer section 1.7 of main book) The strain in the rod will be ___________.
–4
Q.37 Working loads on structures must be a 1.5 b 1.5 ´ 10
___________ ultimate load. –4
c 1.33 ´ 10 d 0.0455
a equal to [Ans. : b]
b greater than (Hint : Refer section 1.9.2 of main book)
c less than Q.43 The expression for change in length of a
d either greater than or equal to uniform cross section wire subjected to
[Ans. : c] axial load is ___________.
Q.38 The value of factor of safety is always a PL b sL
___________. AE E
a >1 b <1 c eL d all the above
[Ans. : d]
c =1 d =0
[Ans. : a] Q.44 The expression for stress is ___________.
Q.39 The value of margin of safety is always a P b DL
E
___________. A L
a >1 b <1 c eE d all the above
[Ans. : d]
c =1 d >0
[Ans. : d]
TM

Q.45 The expression for strain is ___________. Q.52 Two rods have uniform cross section
a s b DL areas in the ratio 1 : 2 and are subjected
E L to axial tensile forces of the same
c P d all the above magnitude. The stresses induced in the
AE [Ans. : d] two rods will be in the ratio ___________.
a 1:2 b 2:1
Q.46 A force of 5 kN is applied axially to a
rod which has a uniform cross section c 1:4 d 4:1
2 [Ans. : b]
area of 50 mm . If the modulus of
elasticity is 100 GPa, the strain is Q.53 Two rods have uniform circular cross
___________. section areas with diameters in the ratio
3 –3 1 : 2 and are subjected to axial tensile
a 10 b 10
forces of the same magnitude. The
–1
c 10 d 10 stresses induced in the two rods will be
[Ans. : b] in the ratio ___________.
Q.47 The force required to produce unit a 1:2 b 2:1
deflection is known as ___________.
c 1:4 d 4:1
a stiffness b plasticity [Ans. : d]
c flexibility d resilience Q.54 Two rods have uniform cross section
[Ans. : a] areas in the ratio 1 : 2 and are subjected
Q.48 The elongation produced by unit load in to axial tensile forces with magnitudes in
the rod is known as ___________. the ratio 1 : 2. The stresses induced in the
two rods will be in the ratio ___________.
a stiffness b plasticity
a 1:2 b 2:1
c flexibility d resilience
[Ans. : c] c 1:1 d 4:1
Q.49 The expression for stiffness is [Ans. : c]
___________. Q.55 Two rods have uniform cross section
AE L areas in the ratio 1 : 2 and are subjected
a b
L AE to axial tensile forces with magnitudes in
PL sL the ratio 2 : 1. The stresses induced in the
c d
AE E [Ans. : a] two rods will be in the ratio ___________.
a 1:2 b 2:1
Q.50 The expression for flexibility is
c 1:1 d 4:1
___________.
[Ans. : d]
a AE b L
Q.56 The change in length of a rod of uniform
L AE
cross section was found to be 2 mm for
c PL d sL some applied force. The change in length
AE E [Ans. : b] of a rod of the same material and length
Q.51 Modulus of elasticity depends upon but of twice the cross section area
___________. subjected to the same force will be
a length ___________ mm.
b change in length a 1 b 2
c stress c 0.5 d 4
[Ans. : a]
d none of the above
[Ans. : d]
cross section was found to be 2 mm for
TM

some applied force. The change in length Q.62 Two rods A and B of different materials
of a rod of the same material and length have the same length and are subjected
but of half the cross section area to the same axial force. If EA = 2EB and
subjected to the same force will be dA = 2dB , then, ___________.
1 1
___________ mm. a dLA = dLB b dLA = dLB
8 2
a 1 b 2
1
c dLA = dLB d dLA = dL
c 0.5 d 4 4 B
[Ans. : d]
[Ans. : a]
Q.63 Two rods A and B of different materials
circular cross section was found to be
have the same length and are subjected
2 mm for some applied force. The change
to the same axial force. If EA = 2EB and
in length of a rod of the same material
dB = 2dA , then, ___________.
and length but of twice the diameter 1 1
a dLA = dLB b dLA = dLB
subjected to the same force will be 8 2
___________ mm. 1
c dLA = 2 dLB d dLA = dL
a 1 b 2 4 B
c 0.5 d 4 [Ans. : c]
[Ans. : c] –3
Q.64 A strain of 4 ´ 10 was observed for a
wire of length 200 mm. The change in
circular cross section was found to be
length of the wire will be __________mm.
2 mm for some applied force. The change
in length of a rod of the same material a 50 b 5
and length but of half the diameter c 0.5 d 0.8
subjected to the same force will be [Ans. : d]
–4
___________ mm. Q.65 A strain of 4 ´ 10 in a particular
a 1 b 2 specimen was observed to be
accompanied by a stress of 80 MPa. The
c 0.5 d 4
[Ans. : d] modulus of elasticity of the material is
___________.
Q.60 Two rods A and B of different materials
have the same length, area of cross a 80 GPa b 200 GPa
section and are subjected to the same c 133.33 GPa d 200 MPa
axial force. If EA > EB , then, __________. [Ans. : b]
a dLA > dLB b dLA < dLB Q.66 A strip of steel (E = 200 GPa, n = 0.25)
has a length of 1 m, width of 200 mm
c dLA = dLB d none of the
and thickness of 10 mm. A line of length
above [Ans. : b]
1 m is drawn parallel to its length on one
Q.61 Two rods A and B of different materials of its side surfaces. When the strip is
have the same length, area of cross subjected to an axial tensile force of
section and are subjected to the same 100 kN, the length of the line will be
axial force. If EA = 2EB, then, __________. ___________ mm.
1
a dLA = 2 dLB b dLA = dLB a 1000 b 1000.25
2
c 999.75 d 0.25
c dLA = dLB d dLA = 4 dLB [Ans. : b]
[Ans. : b] (Hint : Refer section 1.9.2 of main book)
TM

Strength of Materials 1 - 10 Simple Stresses and Strains
Q.67 A strip of steel (E = 200 GPa, n = 0.25) Q.71 The axial force in the portion AB of the
has a length of 1 m, width of 200 mm member shown in Fig. 1.1 is ___________
and thickness of 10 mm. A line of length kN.
1 m is drawn parallel to its length on one A B C D
of its side surfaces. When the strip is
50 kN 90 kN 20 kN 20 kN
subjected to an axial compressive force of
100 kN, the length of the line will be 600 mm 1000 mm 1000 mm
___________ mm. Fig. 1.1
a 1000 b 1000.25
c 999.75 d 0.25 a 50 b – 50
[Ans. : c]
c 40 d – 40
(Hint : Refer section 1.9.2 of main book) [Ans. : a]
Q.68 A strip of steel (E = 200 GPa, n = 0.25) (Hint : Refer example 1.9.1 of main book)
has a length of 1 m, width of 200 mm Q.72 The axial force in the portion BC of the
and thickness of 10 mm. A line of length member shown in Fig. 1.1 is ___________
200 mm is drawn parallel to its width on kN.
one of its side surfaces. When the strip is
a 50 b – 50
subjected to an axial tensile force of
100 kN acting at the ends, the length of c 40 d – 40 [Ans. : d]
the line will be ___________mm.
(Hint : Refer example 1.9.1 of main book)
a 199.99375 b 200.00625
Q.73 The axial force in the portion CD of the
c 200.25 d 199.75
member shown in Fig. 1.1 is _______ kN.
[Ans. : a]
(Hint : Refer section 1.9.2 of main book) a 20 b – 20
c 40 d – 40 [Ans. : b]
Q.69 A steel tube (E = 200 GPa) has an
internal diameter of 40 mm, thickness (Hint : Refer example 1.9.1 of main book)
10 mm and a length of 2 m. If it is
subjected to an axial pull of 80 kN, the Q.74 If the member shown in Fig. 1.1 has a
stress in the tube will be square cross section of 25 mm ´ 25 mm
___________MPa. and E = 200 GPa, the change in length of
portion AB is ___________ mm.
a 28.3 b 50.13
a + 0.24 b – 0.24
c 84.88 d 113.18
[Ans. : b] c + 0.32 d – 0.32
[Ans. : a]
Q.70 A steel tube (E = 200 GPa) has an
internal diameter of 40 mm, thickness (Hint : Refer example 1.9.7 of main book)
10 mm and a length of 2 m. If it is Q.75 If the member shown in Fig. 1.1 has a
subjected to an axial pull of 80 kN, the square cross section of 25 mm ´ 25 mm
change in length of the tube will be and E = 200 GPa, the change in length of
___________mm. portion BC is ___________ mm.
a 0.283 b 0.50 a + 0.24 b – 0.24
c 0.85 d 0.113 c + 0.32 d – 0.32
[Ans. : b] [Ans. : d]
TM

Q.76 If the member shown in Fig. 1.1 has a Q.80 The axially loaded composite rod shown
square cross section of 25 mm ´ 25 mm in Fig. 1.2 has a uniform cross-sectional
and E = 200 GPa, the change in length of area of 500 mm 2 . The modulii of elasticity
portion CD is ___________ mm. are Est = 200 GPa, Eal = 70 GPa and
a + 0.16 b – 0.16 Ecu = 120 GPa. The change in length of
c + 0.24 d – 0.24 AB is ___________ mm.
[Ans. : b] a + 0.25 b – 0.25
(Hint : Refer example 1.9.7 of main book) c – 0.5 d + 0.5 [Ans. : c]
Q.77 If the member shown in Fig. 1.1 has a (Hint : Refer example 1.9.9 of main book)
square cross section of 25 mm ´ 25 mm
and E = 200 GPa, the change in length of Q.81 The axially loaded composite rod shown
the member is ___________ mm. in Fig. 1.2 has a uniform cross-sectional
area of 500 mm 2 . The modulii of elasticity
a + 0.24 b – 0.24
are Est = 200 GPa, Eal = 70 GPa and
c + 0.32 d – 0.32
Ecu = 120 GPa. The change in length of
[Ans. : b]
the composite rod is ___________ mm.
a + 0.95 b – 0.95
Q.78 The axially loaded composite rod shown
c – 0.5 d + 0.5 [Ans. : b]
in Fig. 1.2 has a uniform cross-sectional
area of 500 mm 2 . The modulii of elasticity (Hint : Refer example 1.9.9 of main book)
are Est = 200 GPa, Eal = 70 GPa and Q.82 For the stepped rod shown in Fig. 1.3,
Ecu = 120 GPa. The change in length of the stress is maximum in ___________ .
CD is ___________ mm.
a aluminium
a + 0.15 b – 0.15
b copper
c + 0.24 d – 0.24
c steel
[Ans. : a]
d none of the above
A B C D
2
Copper Aluminium Aa = 500 mm 2
Ac = 400 mm 2
Steel 50 kN Ea = 70 GPa
Ec = 120 GPa
As = 200 mm
30 kN 80 kN Es = 200 GPa
100 kN 100 kN
Aluminium Copper Steel
300 mm
500 mm 700 mm
400 mm 400 mm 400 mm
Fig. 1.2
(Hint : Fig. 1.3
Refer example 1.9.9 of main book) [Ans. : c]
Q.83 For the stepped rod shown in Fig. 1.3,
Q.79 The axially loaded composite rod shown
the elongation is maximum in
in Fig. 1.2 has a uniform cross-sectional
___________ .
area of 500 mm 2 . The modulii of elasticity
a aluminium
are Est = 200 GPa, Eal = 70 GPa and
Ecu = 120 GPa. The change in length of BC b copper
is ___________ mm. c steel
a + 1.6 b – 1.6 d none of the above [Ans. : a]
c – 0.6 d + 0.6 [Ans. : c]
TM

Q.84 For the stepped rod shown in Fig. 1.3, steel is 200 GPa. If P = 5 kN, the vertical
the elongation is minimum in deflection of point C is ___________ mm.
___________ .
a 0.1 b 0.2
a aluminium
c 0.25 d 0.3 [Ans. : c]
b copper
c steel
Q.88 The rigid bar ABC shown in Fig. 1.4 is
d none of the above [Ans. : b]
hinged at A and supported by a steel rod
Q.85 The rigid bar ABC shown in Fig. 1.4 is at B. The steel rod at B has a cross
2
hinged at A and supported by a steel rod sectional area of 250 mm and a length of
at B. The steel rod at B has a cross 400 mm. The modulus of elasticity for
2 steel is 200 GPa. If the maximum vertical
sectional area of 250 mm and a length of
400 mm. The modulus of elasticity for deflection at C is limited to 0.5 mm, the
steel is 200 GPa. If P = 5 kN, the stress in maximum value of P that can be applied
steel rod is ___________ MPa. at C is ___________ kN.
a 10 b 100 a 10 b 20
c 20 d 50 c 30 d 5 [Ans. : a]

at B. The steel rod at B has a cross
A B C 2
P 400 mm. The modulus of elasticity for
2m 3m
steel is 200 GPa. If the maximum stress in
Fig. 1.4 steel is limited to 100 MPa, the maximum
value of P that can be applied at C is
[Ans. : d]
___________ kN.
a 10 b 20
c 30 d 5 [Ans. : a]
at B. The steel rod at B has a cross (Hint : Refer example 1.9.29 of main book)
2
Q.90 A composite rod of uniform cross
400 mm. The modulus of elasticity for 2
sectional area 400 mm is as shown in
steel is 200 GPa. If P = 5 kN, the
Fig. 1.5. For the rod stress is ___________.
elongation of steel rod is __________ mm.
a 0.1 b 0.2 100 kN
Copper
100 kN
Steel Aluminium
c 0.3 d 0.4 [Ans. : a]
200 mm 200 mm 200 mm
Fig. 1.5
hinged at A and supported by a steel rod a maximum in steel
at B. The steel rod at B has a cross b maximum in aluminium
2
c maximum in copper
400 mm. The modulus of elasticity for
d same in all [Ans. : d]
TM

Q.91 A composite rod of uniform cross Stepped Bars

2
Q.95 A stepped bar of steel consists of a
Fig. 1.5. For the rod elongation is 2
portion with cross section area 500 mm
___________.
connected to a portion with cross section
a maximum in steel 2
area 750 mm . The maximum axial tensile
b maximum in aluminium force that can be applied to the bar at the
ends without exceeding a stress of
c maximum in copper
100 MPa is ___________kN.
d same in all [Ans. : b]
a 50 b 75
Q.92 A composite rod of uniform cross c 100 d 150 [Ans. : a]
2
Fig. 1.5. For the rod elongation is (Hint : Refer section 1.9.4 of main book)
___________. Q.96 A stepped bar of steel consists of a
2
a minimum in steel portion with cross section area 500 mm
b minimum in aluminium connected to a portion with cross section
2
area 1000 mm . Each portion has a length
c minimum in copper
of 1 m. The modulus of elasticity of steel
d same in all [Ans. : a] is 200 GPa. The maximum elongation of
the bar by applying an axial tensile force
Q.93 A steel rod of uniform cross section is
at the ends without exceeding a stress of
loaded as shown in Fig. 1.6. The cross
2 100 MPa is ___________ mm.
section area of rod is 250 mm and the
modulus of elasticity is 200 GPa. The a 0.5 b 0.75
value of P for equilibrium of the rod is c 0.1 d 0.15
___________ kN. [Ans. : b]
A B C Q.97 A steel bar ABC (E = 200 GPa) is 1 m
50 kN 75 kN long. For AB = 0.7 m, it has cross section
P 2
area of 500 mm and for BC = 0.3 m the
2
cross section area is 400 mm . The bar is
200 mm x
subjected to an axial pull of 100 kN. The
Fig. 1.6 stress is maximum in ___________.
a 25 b 50 a AB
c 75 d none of the b BC
above [Ans. : a] c same throughout
Q.94 A steel rod of uniform cross section is d none of the above [Ans. : b]
loaded as shown in Fig. 1.6. The cross
2 Q.98 A steel bar ABC (E = 200 GPa) is 1 m
section area of rod is 250 mm and the
long. For AB = 0.7 m, it has cross section
modulus of elasticity is 200 GPa. The 2
area of 500 mm and for BC = 0.3 m the
value of x for which there is no change 2
cross section area is 400 mm . The bar is
in length of the rod is ___________ mm. subjected to an axial pull of 100 kN. The
a 200 b 400 maximum stress in the bar is
___________MPa.
c 100 d none of the
above [Ans. : b] a 200 b 225
c 250 d 300
[Ans. : c]
TM

Q.99 A steel bar ABC (E = 200 GPa) is 1 m are the forces resisted by steel and copper
long. For AB = 0.7 m, it has cross section respectively, then ___________.
2
area of 500 mm and for BC = 0.3 m the PS PC
2 a b
cross section area is 400 mm . If =P =P
PC PS
maximum stress in the bar is not to
exceed 200 MPa, the maximum axial force c PS - PC = P d PS + PC = P
[Ans. : d]
that can be applied is ___________kN.
Q.104 A steel rod is enclosed centrally in a
a 100 b 120 hollow steel tube. The composite rod is
c 150 d 80 [Ans. : d] subjected to an axial force P. If PR and
Tapered Bars PT are the forces resisted by rod and tube
respectively, and AR and AT are their
Q.100 For a tapered bar with rectangular cross cross section areas, then ___________.
section and width varying from a to b PR A
a
subjected to axial force P, the elongation = R
PT AT
is ___________.
b PR A
a PL æbö = T
log eç ÷ PT AR
t(b - a)E èaø
c PR - PT = A R - AT
PL æaö
b log eç ÷ d PR + PT = A R + AT [Ans. : a]
t( b -a)E èbø
c PL d sL Q.105 A member having circular cross section
AE E [Ans. : a] of diameter 25 mm is loaded as shown in
Fig. 1.7. If E = 200 GPa, The reaction at A
Q.101 For a tapered bar with circular cross
is ___________ kN.
section and diameter varying from d1 to
d2 subjected to axial force P, the
elongation is ___________. A 50 kN C
a 4PE b 2PL B
pd1d 2 L pd1d 2E 1m 3m
c PL d 4PL Fig. 1.7
AE pd1d 2E b
a 25 12.5
[Ans. : d]
c 37.5 d 50
Deformation Under Self Weight
[Ans. : c]
Q.102 The elongation of a bar of uniform cross (Hint : Refer example 1.10.3 of main book)
section area A and weight W under its
Q.106 A member having circular cross section
own weight is ___________.
of diameter 25 mm is loaded as shown in
a WL b 2WL Fig. 1.7. If E = 200 GPa, The reaction at B
AE AE
is ___________ kN.
c WL d WA
2AE 2LE a 25 b 12.5
[Ans. : c]
c 37.5 d 50 [Ans. : b]
Statically Indeterminate Structures
Q.103 A steel rod is enclosed centrally in a (Hint : Refer example 1.10.3 of main book)
copper tube. The composite rod is
subjected to an axial force P. If PS and PC
TM

Q.107 A member having circular cross section d coefficient of thermal expansion

of diameter 25 mm is loaded as shown in [Ans. : a]
Fig. 1.7. If E = 200 GPa, The change in Q.112 Thermal stress is developed in a rod
length of AB is ___________. subjected to a change in temperature
when ___________.
a 0.38 mm elongation
a allowed to expand freely
b 0.38 mm compression
b not allowed to expand freely
c 3.8 mm elongation
d 3.8 mm compression [Ans. : a] c either a) or b)
d none of the above
(Hint : Refer example 1.10.3 of main book) [Ans. : b]
Q.108 A member having circular cross section Q.113 Which of the following beams will
of diameter 25 mm is loaded as shown in develop thermal stress when subjected to
Fig. 1.7. If E = 200 GPa, The change in a change in temperature ?
length of BC is ___________. a Cantilever beam
a 0.38 mm elongation b Beam with roller at one end and
b 0.38 mm compression hinge at the other
c 3.8 mm elongation c Simply supported beam
d 3.8 mm compression [Ans. : b] d None of the above
[Ans. : d]
(Hint : Refer example 1.10.3 of main book) Q.114 Which of the following beams will
Thermal Stresses develop thermal stress when subjected to
a change in temperature ?
Q.109 Change in length of a rod due to change
a Cantilever beam
in temperature depends on ___________.
b Beam with hinges at both ends
a original length
c Simply supported beam
b change in temperature
d None of the above
c coefficient of thermal expansion
[Ans. : b]
d all the above Q.115 Which of the following beams will
[Ans. : d] develop thermal stress when subjected to
Q.110 Change in length of a rod due to change a change in temperature ?
in temperature does not depend on
a Fixed beam
___________.
b Beam with roller at one end and
a original length
hinge at the other
b change in temperature
c Simply supported beam
c modulus of elasticity
d None of the above
d coefficient of thermal expansion [Ans. : a]
[Ans. : c] Q.116 Which of the following beams will
Q.111 Change in length of a rod due to change develop thermal stress when subjected to
in temperature does not depend on a change in temperature ?
___________. a Cantilever beam
a ambient temperature b Beam with one end fixed and hinged
b change in temperature at the other
c original length c Simply supported beam
TM

d None of the above d none of the above

[Ans. : b] [Ans. : b]
Q.117 ___________ stress may not be associated Q.122 A steel strip is welded to a copper strip
with any strain. of the same dimensions along the length.
a Longitudinal b Shear The composite strip is placed between
two rigid supports so that the ends touch
c Volumetric d Thermal
[Ans. : d] the supports. The coefficient of thermal
expansion for copper is greater than that
Q.118 A steel strip is welded to a copper strip
for steel. If temperature is increased,
of the same dimensions along the length.
The coefficient of thermal expansion for ___________.
copper is greater than that for steel. If a copper has tensile stress
temperature is increased, ___________.
b steel has tensile stress
a copper has tensile stress
c both have tensile stress
b steel has tensile stress
d none of the above
c both have tensile stress [Ans. : d]
d none of the above Q.123 A steel strip is welded to a copper strip
[Ans. : b] of the same dimensions along the length.
Q.119 A steel strip is welded to a copper strip The composite strip is placed between
of the same dimensions along the length. two rigid supports so that the ends touch
The coefficient of thermal expansion for the supports. The coefficient of thermal
copper is greater than that for steel. If
temperature is increased, ___________.
for steel. If temperature is increased,
a copper has compressive stress ___________.
b steel has compressive stress
a copper has compressive stress
c both have compressive stress
d none of the above
[Ans. : a] c both have compressive stress
Q.120 A steel strip is welded to a copper strip d none of the above
of the same dimensions along the length. [Ans. : c]
The coefficient of thermal expansion for Q.124 A steel strip is welded to a copper strip
copper is greater than that for steel. If of the same dimensions along the length.
temperature is decreased, ___________. The composite strip is placed between
a copper has tensile stress two rigid supports so that the ends touch
b steel has tensile stress the supports. The coefficient of thermal
for steel. If temperature is decreased,
d none of the above
___________.
[Ans. : a]
Q.121 A steel strip is welded to a copper strip a copper has compressive stress
of the same dimensions along the length. b steel has compressive stress
The coefficient of thermal expansion for
c both have compressive stress
temperature is decreased, ___________. d none of the above
[Ans. : d]
a copper has compressive stress
of the same dimensions along the length.
c both have compressive stress The composite strip is placed between
TM

two rigid supports so that the ends touch rigid supports. If the temperature is
the supports. The coefficient of thermal decreased, ___________ will have
expansion for copper is greater than that compressive stress. (The coefficient of
for steel. If temperature is decreased, thermal expansion for copper is greater
___________. than that for steel)
a copper has tensile stress a copper b steel
b steel has tensile stress c both d none [Ans. : d]
d none of the above [Ans. : c] of the same dimensions along the length.
The coefficient of thermal expansion for
Q.126 A steel rod is connected to a copper rod
of the same dimensions in series. The
temperature is increased, both copper and
composite rod is placed between two
steel strips will have the same
rigid supports. If the temperature is
___________.
increased, ___________ will have tensile
stress. (The coefficient of thermal a stress
expansion for copper is greater than that b strain
for steel) c modulus of elasticity
a copper b steel d none of the above [Ans. : b]
c both d none [Ans. : d]
Q.131 A steel rail (a = 12´ 10-6 / °C) has a
Q.127 A steel rod is connected to a copper rod length of 10 m at a temperature of 25 °C.
of the same dimensions in series. The The temperaure at which the length of
composite rod is placed between two rail increases by 1.2 mm is ___________°C.
a 10 b 15
increased, ___________ will have
compressive stress. (The coefficient of c 25 d 35
[Ans. : d]
thermal expansion for copper is greater
than that for steel) (Hint : Refer section 1.11 of main book)
a copper b steel Q.132 A steel rail (a = 12´ 10-6 / °C) has a

c both d none [Ans. : c] length of 10 m at a temperature of 25 °C.
The temperature at which the length of
Q.128 A steel rod is connected to a copper rod rail decreases by 1.2 mm is
of the same dimensions in series. The ___________°C.
a 10 b 15
decreased, ___________ will have tensile c 25 d 35
[Ans. : b]
stress. (The coefficient of thermal
expansion for copper is greater than that (Hint : Refer section 1.11 of main book)
for steel) Q.133 Three steel rods A, B and C have areas of
a copper b steel cross sections AA > AB > AC. All the rods
have the same length and are subjected
c both d none [Ans. : c]
to the same change in temperature. The
Q.129 A steel rod is connected to a copper rod change in length will be maximum for
of the same dimensions in series. The ___________.
TM

a A b B a A b B
c C d none of the c C d none of the
above [Ans. : d] above [Ans. : d]
(Hint : Refer section 1.11 of main book) Q.138 A steel rod (a = 12´ 10-6 / °C and
Q.134 Three steel rods A, B and C have areas of E = 200 GPa) of length 500 mm and area
2
cross sections AA > AB > AC. All the rods of cross section 200 mm is fixed at one
have the same length, are constrained by end to a rigid support. It is initially at a
rigid supports at both ends and are temperature of 20 °C. If its temperature is
subjected to the same change in increased by 50 °C, the stress developed
temperature. The stress will be maximum in it is ___________MPa.
for ___________. a 120 b 72
a A b B c 0 d 80 [Ans. : c]
c C d none of the (Hint : Refer section 1.11 of main book)
above [Ans. : d]
Q.139 A steel rod (a = 12´ 10-6 / °C and
(Hint : Refer section 1.11 of main book) E = 200 GPa) of length 500 mm and area
2
Q.135 Three steel rods A, B and C have areas of of cross section 200 mm is fixed at both
cross sections AA > AB > AC. All the rods ends to rigid supports. It is initially at a
have the same length, are constrained by temperature of 20 °C. If its temperature is
rigid supports at both ends and are increased by 50 °C, the stress developed
subjected to the same change in in it is ___________MPa.
temperature. The force exerted on the a 120 b 72
supports will be maximum for
c 0 d 80 [Ans. : a]
___________.
a A b B (Hint : Refer section 1.11 of main book)
-6
c C d none of the Q.140 A steel rod (a = 12´ 10 / °C and
above [Ans. : a] E = 200 GPa) of length 500 mm and area
2
of cross section 200 mm is fixed at both
Q.136 Three steel rods A, B and C have lengths ends to rigid supports. It is initially at a
LA > LB > LC. All the rods have the same temperature of 20 °C. If its temperature is
areas of cross section and are subjected to increased to 50 °C, the stress developed in
the same change in temperature. The it is ___________MPa.
change in length will be maximum for
a 120 b 72
___________.
c 0 d 80 [Ans. : b]
a A b B
c C d none of the (Hint : Refer section 1.11 of main book)
above [Ans. : a]
Q.137 Three steel rods A, B and C have lengths E = 200 GPa) of length 500 mm and area
2
LA > LB > LC. All the rods have the same of cross section 200 mm is fixed at one
areas of cross section, are constrained by end to a rigid support and a support
which yields by 0.1 mm at the other. It is
rigid supports at both ends and are
initially at a temperature of 20 °C. If its
subjected to the same change in
temperature is increased by 50 °C, the
temperature. The stress will be maximum stress developed in it is ___________MPa.
for ___________.
TM

a 120 b 72 fixed at one end to a rigid support and

c 0 d 80 [Ans. : d] there is a gap of 1 mm between its other
end and another rigid support at a
(Hint : Refer section 1.11 of main book) temperature of 20 °C. If its temperature is
Q.142 A steel rod (a = 12´ 10-6 / °C and increased by 50 °C, the stress developed
in it is ___________MPa.
E = 200 GPa) of length 500 mm and area
2 a – 15 b 15
of cross section 200 mm is fixed at one
end to a rigid support and a support c 0 d none of the
which yields by 0.1 mm at the other. It is above [Ans. : b]
initially at a temperature of 20 °C. If its
temperature is increased to 50 °C, the (Hint : Refer section 1.11 of main book)
stress developed in it is ___________MPa. Q.146 A copper rod of length 1 m
a 120 b 72 (a = 17 ´ 10-6 / °C and E = 100 GPa) is
c 32 d 80 fixed at one end to a rigid support and
[Ans. : c] there is a gap of 1 mm between its other
(Hint : Refer section 1.11 of main book) end and another rigid support at a
temperature of 20 °C. If its temperature is
increased by 75 °C, the stress developed
E = 200 GPa) of length 500 mm and area
2 in it is ___________MPa.
of cross section 200 mm is fixed at one
end to a rigid support and a support a 0 b 27.5
which yields by 0.2 mm at the other. It is c 53 d 70
initially at a temperature of 20 °C. If its [Ans. : b]
temperature is increased to 50 °C, the (Hint : Refer section 1.11 of main book)
stress developed in it is ___________MPa. Q.147 A copper rod of length 1 m
a 0 b 72 (a = 17 ´ 10-6 / °C and E = 100 GPa) is
c 32 d –8 fixed at one end to a rigid support and
[Ans. : a] there is a gap of 1 mm between its other
(Hint : Refer section 1.11 of main book) end and another rigid support at a
Q.144 A copper rod of lengt h 1m temperature of 20 °C. If its temperature is
increased by 90 °C, the stress developed
(a = 17 ´ 10-6 / °C and E = 100 GPa) is
in it is ___________MPa.
fixed at one end to a rigid support and
there is a gap of 1 mm between its other a 0 b 27.5
end and another rigid support at a c 53 d 70
temperature of 20 °C. The rod will be [Ans. : c]
stress free till a temperature of (Hint : Refer section 1.11 of main book)
___________°C. Q.148 A copper rod of length 1 m
a 58.82 b 78.82 (a = 17 ´ 10-6 / °C and E = 100 GPa) is
c 100 d none of the fixed at one end to a rigid support and
above [Ans. : b] there is a gap of 1 mm between its other
end and another rigid support at a
(Hint : Refer section 1.11 of main book) temperature of 20 °C. If its temperature is
Q.145 A copper rod of length 1 m increased by 100 °C, the stress developed
(a = 17 ´ 10-6 / °C and E = 100 GPa) is in it is ___________MPa.
a 0 b 27.5
TM

c 53 d 70 Q.153 If the temperature of the composite rod

[Ans. : d] held between two rigid supports shown
(Hint : Refer section 1.11 of main book) in Fig. 1.8 is increased by 50 °C, then
Q.149 If the temperature of the composite rod stress developed in steel is ___________
held between two rigid supports shown MPa.
in Fig. 1.8 is increased by 50 °C, then a 34.62 b 69.23
___________. c 138.46 d 100 [Ans. : b]
2
As = 500 mm 2
–6 Ac = 250 mm Q.154 If the temperature of the composite rod
αs = 12×10 / ºC –6
αs = 18×10 / ºC held between two rigid supports shown
in Fig. 1.8 is increased by 50 °C, then
Steel Copper stress developed in copper is ___________
MPa.
Es = 200 GPa Ec = 120 GPa a 34.62 b 69.23
200 mm 200 mm c 138.46 d 100 [Ans. : c]
Fig. 1.8 Q.155 If the temperature of the composite rod
a b ss < s c
ss > sc held between two rigid supports shown
c ss = sc d any of the above in Fig. 1.9 is increased by 50 °C, then
[Ans. : b] ___________.
Q.150 If the temperature of the composite rod As = Ac = 200 mm
2
held between two rigid supports shown –6 –6

αs = 12×10 / ºC αc = 18×10 / ºC
in Fig. 1.8 is increased by 50 °C, then
___________.
Steel Copper
a Ps > Pc b Ps < Pc
c Ps = Pc d any of the above
[Ans. : c] 200 mm 200 mm
Q.151 If the temperature of the composite rod
Fig. 1.9
held between two rigid supports shown
a b ss < sc
in Fig. 1.8 is increased by 50 °C, then ss > sc
___________. c ss = s c d any of the above
a ss = 2 sc b ss = 0.5 s c [Ans. : c]
c ss = sc d s s = 0.25 s c Q.156 If the temperature of the composite rod
[Ans. : b] held between two rigid supports shown
Q.152 If the temperature of the composite rod in Fig. 1.9 is increased by 50 °C, then
___________.
held between two rigid supports shown
in Fig. 1.8 is increased by 50 °C, then a Ps > Pc b Ps < Pc
stress is ___________. c Ps = Pc d any of the above
a tensile in steel and compressive in [Ans. : c]
copper Q.157 If the temperature of the composite rod
b tensile in copper and compressive in held between two rigid supports shown
steel in Fig. 1.9 is increased by 50 °C, then
___________.
c tensile in both
d compressive in both a ss = 2 sc b s s = 0.5 s c
[Ans. : d] c ss = s c d s s = 0.25 s c
[Ans. : c]
TM

Q.158 If the temperature of the composite rod c tensile in both

held between two rigid supports shown d compressive in both
in Fig. 1.9 is increased by 50 °C, then [Ans. : a]
stress is ___________. (Hint : Refer example 1.11.13 of main book)
a tensile in steel and compressive in Q.162 A rigid bar ABC is hinged at A and
copper supported by copper and steel rods as
b tensile in copper and compressive in shown in Fig. 1.11. If the temperature of
steel the system is raised by 60 ºC, the stress is
c tensile in both ___________. (Take a S = 11´10- 6/ ºC ;
d compressive in both [Ans. : d] a C = 17´10- 6/ ºC, ES = 200 GPa ;
EC = 100 GPa).
Q.159 If the temperature of the composite rod
held between two rigid supports shown Steel
in Fig. 1.9 is increased by 50 °C, then 20 mm Ø
stress in steel is ___________MPa. 300 mm
Copper
a 56.25 b 112.5 200 mm 30 mm Ø
A
c 130 d 168.75
[Ans. : b] B C
Q.160 If the temperature of the composite rod 250 mm 500 mm
held between two rigid supports shown Fig. 1.11
in Fig. 1.9 is increased by 50 °C, then a tensile in steel and compressive in
stress in copper is ___________MPa. copper
a 56.25 b 112.5 b tensile in copper and compressive in
steel
c 130 d 168.75
[Ans. : b] c tensile in both
Q.161 A rigid bar ABC is hinged at A and d compressive in both
[Ans. : b]
supported by copper and steel rods as
shown in Fig. 1.10. If the temperature of (Hint : Refer example 1.11.14 of main book)
the system is raised by 60 ºC, the stress is Shear Stress and Strain
__________. (Take a S = 11´10- 6/ ºC ;
Q.163 The ratio of shear stress to shear strain is
a C = 17´10- 6/ºC, ES = 200 GPa ; known as ___________.
EC = 100 GPa). a modulus of elasticity
b modulus of rigidity
Copper
20 mm Ø c bulk modulus
300 mm Steel
30 mm Ø
d Poisson's ratio [Ans. : b]
200 mm
Q.164 If a force of magnitude P acts on the
A
surface of a body at angle q with the
B C surface of area A, the shear stress is
250 mm 500 mm
___________.
Fig. 1.10
a P b P cosq
a tensile in steel and compressive in A A
copper
c P sin q d none of the
b tensile in copper and compressive in A
steel above [Ans. : b]
TM

Q.165 If F is the shear force acting on a rivet in The modulus of rigidity of the material is
a state of single shear and the rivet has ___________GPa.
an area of cross section A, the shear
a 200 b 80
stress acting on the rivet is ___________.
c 60 d 40 [Ans. : b]
a F b 2F
A A Q.171 A hole of diameter 25 mm is to be drilled
c F d none of the in a metal sheet of thickness 4 mm and
2A above [Ans. : a] shearing strength 120 MPa. The force
required to be applied to the punch is
Q.166 If F is the shear force acting on a rivet in ___________kN.
a state of double shear and the rivet has
a 58.9 b 235.62
an area of cross section A, the shear
stress acting on the rivet is ___________. c 37.7 d 4.8 [Ans. : c]
a F b 2F
A A
F Q.172 A hole of diameter 25 mm is to be drilled
c d none of the
2A in a metal sheet of thickness 4 mm and
above [Ans. : c]
shearing strength 120 MPa. The
Q.167 While punching a hole in a metal sheet compressive stress developed in the
using a punch, ___________ stress is punch is ___________MPa.
developed in the punch. a 76.8 b 19.2
a normal compressive c 37.7 d 25 [Ans. : a]
b normal tensile
c shear
Q.173 A hole of diameter d is to be drilled in a
d lateral [Ans. : a]
metal sheet of thickness t. The shearing
Q.168 While punching a hole in a metal sheet strength of metal is t max and the safe
using a punch, ___________ stress is compressive strength of the punch is
developed in the metal sheet. s max. The maximum diameter of the hole
that can be drilled is given by
a normal compressive
d = ___________.
b normal tensile æ s max ö æ tmax ö
a ç ÷´ 4t b ç ÷´ 4t
c shear è t max ø è smax ø
d lateral [Ans. : c] c æ s max ö d æ t ö
ç ÷´ 2t ç max ÷´ 2t
è t max ø è s max ø
Q.169 Modulus of rigidity depends upon
___________. [Ans. : b]
a shear stress (Hint : Refer section 1.12 of main book)
b shear strain Q.174 A circular hole is to be drilled in a metal
c both a) and b) sheet of thickness 4 mm. The ultimate
shearing strength of a metal is 120 MPa
d none of the above [Ans. : d]
and safe compressive strength for the
Q.170 When a tangential force of 400 kN is punch is 80 MPa. The maximum diameter
applied on a cube of side 100 mm, the of the hole that can be punched is
distortion of an original right angle ___________mm.
corner was observed to be 5´10-4 radian.
a 24 b 10.7
TM

c 32 d 12 [Ans. : a]
a 159.2 b 79.6
Q.175 A rivet of diameter 20 mm is in a state of
single shear and is subjected to a shear c 39.8 d 20
[Ans. : a]
force of 20 kN. The shear stress in the
rivet is ___________MPa.
a 31.83 b 63.66 Volumetric Stress and Strain
c 15.92 d 20 [Ans. : b] Q.180 The ratio of volumetric stress to

volumetric strain is known as
Q.176 A rivet of diameter 20 mm is in a state of ___________.
double shear and is subjected to a shear
a modulus of elasticity
force of 20 kN. The shear stress in the
rivet is ___________MPa. b modulus of rigidity
a 31.83 b 63.66 c bulk modulus
c 15.92 d 20 [Ans. : a] d Poisson's ratio [Ans. : c]

Q.181 Bulk modulus depends upon __________.
Q.177 A rivet of diameter 20 mm is in a state of
single shear and has an ultimate shear a volumetric stress
stress of 200 MPa. The shear force that b volumetric strain
will cause the rivet to fail in shear is c both a) and b)
___________MPa.
a 125.66 b 31.42
Q.182 The volume of a rectangular steel plate
c 62.83 d 100 [Ans. : c]
1 m long, 0.4 m wide and 20 mm thick
3
Q.178 A rivet of diameter 20 mm is in a state of decreases by 4000 mm when subjected to
double shear and has an ultimate shear uniform pressure of 40 MPa. The bulk
stress of 200 MPa. The shear force that modulus of the material is
will cause the rivet to fail in shear is ___________GPa.
___________MPa. a 80 b 40
a 125.66 b 31.42 c 60 d 100 [Ans. : a]
c 62.83 d 100 [Ans. : a]
Lateral Strain and Poisson's Ratio
Q.179 Three steel plates are joined by two rivets
Q.183 The negative ratio of lateral strain to
as shown in Fig. 1.12. Diameter of rivets
longitudinal strain is known as
is 20 mm. If P = 200 kN, the shear stress
___________.
in the rivets is ___________MPa.
a modulus of elasticity
b modulus of rigidity
P c bulk modulus
d Poisson's ratio [Ans. : d]
Q.184 The maximum value of Poisson's ratio is
___________.
P a 1 b 0.75
c 0.5 d 0.25
[Ans. : c]
Fig. 1.12
TM

Q.185 A steel rod of length L has a circular Q.190 A strip of steel (E = 200 GPa, n = 0.25)
cross section of diameter d. If dL is the has a length of 1 m, width of 200 mm
change in its length when subjected to an and thickness of 10 mm. A line of length
axial tensile force, the longitudinal strain 200 mm is drawn parallel to its width on
will be ___________. Assume Poisson's one of its side surfaces. When the strip is
ratio is n. subjected to an axial compressive force of
a dL b dL 100 kN acting at the ends, the length of
–n
L L the line will be ___________ mm.
c dd d dd a 199.99375 b 200.00625
– -n
d d [Ans. : a]
c 200.25 d 199.75
[Ans. : b]
Q.186 A steel rod of length L has a circular
cross section of diameter d. If dL is the (Hint : Refer section 1.14 of main book)
change in its length when subjected to an Q.191 A metal plate of length L and width b
axial tensile force, the lateral strain will has a circle drawn on it. If it is subjected
be ___________. Assume Poisson's ratio is to a tensile stress s acting along its
n. length, the circle will ___________.
a dL b dL a remain circle of same radius
–n
L L
b become ellipse with major axis along
c dd d none of the
-n its width
d above
[Ans. : b] c become ellipse with major axis along
Q.187 Poisson's ratio depends upon __________. its length
a longitudinal strain d become circle of larger radius

[Ans. : c]
b lateral strain (Hint : Refer section 1.14 of main book)
c both a) and b)
Q.192 A metal plate of length L and width b
d none of the above [Ans. : d] has a circle drawn on it. If it is subjected
to a tensile stress s acting along its
Q.188 Poisson's ratio for rubber is ___________
width, the circle will ___________.
that for steel.
a remain circle of same radius
a larger than
b equal to
its width
c smaller than
c become ellipse with major axis along
d any of the above its length
[Ans. : a]
–3 d become circle of larger radius
Q.189 A strain of 4 ´ 10 was observed for a [Ans. : b]
wire of length 200 mm and diameter (Hint : Refer section 1.14 of main book)
20 mm. If Poisson's ratio is 0.25, the
change in diameter will be _________mm. Q.193 A metal plate of length L and width b
has a circle drawn on it. If it is subjected
a 0.02 b 0.05
to two mutually perpendicular and equal
c 0.5 d 0.8 tensile stresses s acting along its length
[Ans. : a] and width, the circle will ___________.
TM

b become ellipse with major axis along d become circle of smaller radius
its width [Ans. : d]
c become ellipse with major axis along (Hint : Refer section 1.14 of main book)
its length 3-D Stress State
d become circle of larger radius Q.197 A steel rod of length L has a circular
[Ans. : d] cross section of diameter d. If dL is the
(Hint : Refer section 1.14 of main book) change in its length when subjected to an
Q.194 A metal plate of length L and width b axial tensile force, the volumetric strain
has a circle drawn on it. If it is subjected will be ___________. Assume Poisson's
to a compressive stress s acting along its ratio is n.
length, the circle will ___________. a dL b dL
(1 - 2n ) – (1 - 2n )
L L
c dd d dd
b become ellipse with major axis along (1 - 2n ) – (1 - 2n )
d d
its width [Ans. : a]
c become ellipse with major axis along Q.198 A body is subjected to stresses s x , sy
its length and sz along the x, y and z directions
d become circle of smaller radius respectively. The strain in x direction is
[Ans. : b] given by ___________.
sx sy s
(Hint : Refer section 1.14 of main book) a -n -n z
E E E
Q.195 A metal plate of length L and width b sy
sx s
has a circle drawn on it. If it is subjected b +n +n z
E E E
to a compressive stress s acting along its
sy s s
width, the circle will ___________. c -n x -n z
E E E
sz s y s
b become ellipse with major axis along d -n -n x
E E E
its width [Ans. : a]
c become ellipse with major axis along Q.199 A body is subjected to stresses s , s
x y
its length and sz along the x, y and z directions
d become circle of smaller radius respectively. The strain in y direction is
[Ans. : c] given by ___________.
sx sy s
(Hint : Refer section 1.14 of main book) a -n -n z
E E E
Q.196 A metal plate of length L and width b
sx sy s
has a circle drawn on it. If it is subjected b +n +n z
E E E
to two mutually perpendicular and equal
compressive stresses s acting along its sy s s
c -n x -n z
length and width, the circle will E E E
___________. sz sy sx
d -n -n
a remain circle of same radius E E E
[Ans. : c]
Q.200 A body is subjected to stresses s x , sy
its width
and sz along the x, y and z directions
c become ellipse with major axis along respectively. The strain in z direction is
its length given by ___________.
TM

sx sy s
a -n -n z a 0 b 0.125
E E E
c 0.25 d 0.375
sx sy s
b +n +n z [Ans. : a]
E E E
Q.205 A steel cube of dimensions 10 mm ´
sy s s 10 mm ´ 10 mm is subjected to stresses
c -n x -n z
E E E s x = 50 MPa (T), sy = 50 MPa (T) and
sz sy s sz = 50 MPa (T). If the modulus of
d -n -n x
E E E elasticity of steel is 200 GPa and Poisson's
[Ans. : d]
ratio is 0.25, the change in volume of the
3
Q.201 If V is the volume of a rectangular bar cube is ___________ mm .
subjected to a three dimensional stress a 0 b 0.125
state and the Poisson's ratio for the c 0.25 d 0.375
material is 0.5, the change in volume of [Ans. : d]
the bar will be ___________. Q.206 A steel cube of dimensions
a V b 2V 10 mm ´ 10 mm ´ 10 mm is subjected to
c 0.5 V d 0 [Ans. : d] stresses s x = 50 MPa (T), sy = 50 MPa
(T) and sz = 100 MPa (C). If the modulus
Q.202 A steel cube of dimensions of elasticity of steel is 200 GPa and
10 mm ´ 10 mm ´ 10 mm is subjected to Poisson's ratio is 0.25, the change in
stresses s x = 50 MPa (T), sy = 50 MPa 3
volume of the cube is ___________ mm .
(C) and sz = 50 MPa (T). If the modulus
a 0 b 0.125
of elasticity of steel is 200 GPa and
Poisson's ratio is 0.25, the change in c 0.25 d 0.375
3 [Ans. : a]
Q.207 A steel cube of dimensions
a 0 b 0.125
10 mm ´ 10 mm ´ 10 mm is subjected to
c 0.25 d 0.375 stresses s x = 50 MPa (T) and sz = 0. The
[Ans. : b]
modulus of elasticity of steel is 200 GPa
(Hint : Refer section 1.17 of main book) and Poisson's ratio is 0.25. If the change
Q.203 A steel cube of dimensions in volume of the cube is required to be
10 mm ´ 10 mm ´ 10 mm is subjected to zero, the force to be applied along
stresses s x = 100 MPa (T), sy = 100 MPa y - direction is ___________.
(C) and sz = 100 MPa (T). If the modulus a 0 b 5 kN (T)
of elasticity of steel is 200 GPa and
c 5 kN (C) d 0.5 kN (C)
Poisson's ratio is 0.25, the change in [Ans. : c]
3
a 0 b 0.125 10 mm ´ 10 mm ´ 10 mm is subjected to
c 0.25 d 0.375 stresses s x = 50 MPa (C) and sz = 0. The
[Ans. : c] modulus of elasticity of steel is 200 GPa
Q.204 A steel cube of dimensions and Poisson's ratio is 0.25. If the change
10 mm ´ 10 mm ´ 10 mm is subjected to in volume of the cube is required to be
stresses s x = 50 MPa (T), sy = 50 MPa zero, the force to be applied along
(C) and sz = 0. If the modulus of y - direction is ___________.
elasticity of steel is 200 GPa and Poisson's a 0 b 5 kN (T)
ratio is 0.25, the change in volume of the
3 c 5 kN (C) d 0.5 kN (C)
cube is ___________ mm . [Ans. : b]
TM

Q.209 A steel cube of dimensions 9KG 9KG

a E= b E=
10 mm ´ 10 mm ´ 10 mm is subjected to 3G+ K 3G - K
stresses s x = 50 MPa (C) and 9KG 9KG
c E= d E=
sz = 100 MPa (T). The modulus of G - 3K G+ 3K
elasticity of steel is 200 GPa and Poisson's [Ans. : d]
ratio is 0.25. If the change in volume of Q.214 For a certain material, E = 3K . The value
the cube is required to be zero, the force of Poisson's ratio for the material will be
to be applied along y - direction is ___________.
___________.
a 0 b 0.25
a 0 b 5 kN (T)
c 0.5 d 0.75
c 5 kN (C) d 0.5 kN (C) [Ans. : a]
[Ans. : c]
10 mm ´ 10 mm ´ 10 mm is subjected to Q.215 For a certain material, E = 1.5 K . The
stresses s x = 50 MPa (T) and value of Poisson's ratio for the material
sz = 100 MPa (C). The modulus of will be ___________.
elasticity of steel is 200 GPa and Poisson's a 0 b 0.25
ratio is 0.25. If the change in volume of
c 0.5 d 0.75 [Ans. : b]
the cube is required to be zero, the force
to be applied along y - direction is Q.216 For a certain material, the Poisson's ratio
___________. is 0. The relation between modulus of
a 0 b 5 kN (T) elasticity E and the bulk modulus K is
E = ___________.
c 5 kN (C) d 0.5 kN (C)
[Ans. : b] a 0 b 3K
Relations Between Elastic Constants c 1.5 K d 1.2 K
[Ans. : b]
Q.211 The relation between modulus of (Hint : Refer section 1.18 of main book)
elasticity E, bulk modulus K and
Poisson's ratio n is ___________. Q.217 For a certain material, the Poisson's ratio
is 0.5. The relation between modulus of
a E = 3 K(1+ 2n )
elasticity E and the bulk modulus K is
b E = 3 K(1 - 2n ) E = ___________.
c E = 2K(1+ 3n ) a 0 b 3K
d E = 2K(1 - 3n ) [Ans. : b] c 1.5 K d 1.2 K
[Ans. : a]
Q.212 The relation between modulus of
Q.218 For a certain material, the Poisson's ratio
elasticity E, modulus of rigidity G and
is 0.5. The relation between modulus of
Poisson's ratio n is ___________.
elasticity E and the bulk modulus K is
a E = 3G(1+ 2n ) E = ___________.
b E = 3G(1 - 2n ) a 0 b 3K
c E = 2G(1+ n ) c 1.5 K d 1.2 K
d E = 2G(1 - n ) [Ans. : c] [Ans. : c]
Q.213 The relation between modulus of is 0.3. The relation between modulus of
elasticity E, modulus of rigidity G and elasticity E and the bulk modulus K is
bulk modulus K is ___________. E = ___________.
TM

a 0 b 3K Q.226 For any material, the maximum value of

c 1.5 K d 1.2 K G in terms of E is G = ___________.
[Ans. : d] a E b 2E
c E/3 d 0.5 E
is 0. The relation between modulus of [Ans. : d]
elasticity E and the modulus of rigidity G Q.227 For any material, the maximum value of
is E = ___________. E in terms of K is E = ___________.
a 0 b 2G a 0 b 2K
c 3G d 2.5 G c 3K d 2.5 K
[Ans. : b] [Ans. : c]
(Hint : Refer section 1.19 of main book) Q.228 For any material, the minimum value of
Q.221 For a certain material, the Poisson's ratio E in terms of K is E = ___________.
is 0.5. The relation between modulus of a 0 b 2K
elasticity E and the modulus of rigidity G
c 3K d 2.5 K
is E = ___________. [Ans. : a]
a 0 b 2G Q.229 For any material, the minimum value of
c 3G d 2.5 G K in terms of E is K = ___________.
[Ans. : c] a E b 2E
c E/3 d 0.5 E
is 0.25. The relation between modulus of [Ans. : c]
elasticity E and the modulus of rigidity G
Q.230 If E = 3 K, then G = ___________.
is E = ___________.
a 0 b 1.5 K
a 0 b 2G
c K d 6
c 3G d 2.5 G K
7 [Ans. : b]
[Ans. : d]
Q.223 For any material, the maximum value of (Hint : Refer section 1.20 of main book)
E in terms of G is E = ___________.
Q.231 If E = 2 K, then G = ___________.
a G b 2G
a 0 b 1.5 K
c 3G d 2.5 G 6
[Ans. : c] c K d
K
7 [Ans. : d]
Q.224 For any material, the minimum value of
E in terms of G is E = ___________. Q.232 If 4E = 9G, then G = ___________.
a G b 2G a 0 b 1.5 K
c 3G d 2.5 G c K d 6
K
[Ans. : b] 7 [Ans. : c]
Q.225 For any material, the minimum value of
Q.233 If 2G = 3 K, then E = ___________.
G in terms of E is G = ___________.
a 0 b 3K
a E b 2E
c K d 2K
c E/3 d 0.5 E [Ans. : b]
[Ans. : c]
TM

Q.234 If 7 G = 6 K, then E = ___________. a 80 GPa b 200 GPa

a 0 b 3K c 133.33 GPa d 200 MPa
[Ans. : c]
c K d 2K
[Ans. : d] Q.242 The modulus of elasticity of a material is
Q.235 If n = 0, then G = ___________. 210 GPa and its modulus of rigidity is
75 GPa. The bulk modulus of the material
a 0 b 3K
is ___________GPa.
c 3 d 2K
K a 210
2 [Ans. : c]
b 75
Q.236 If n = 0.5, then G = ___________.
c 350
a 0 b 3K
c 3 d 2K
K
2 [Ans. : a] Q.243 The modulus of elasticity of a material is
210 GPa and its modulus of rigidity is
Q.237 If n = 0.1, then G = ___________. 75 GPa. The Poisson's ratio of the
a 0 b 12 material is ___________.
K
11
a 0 b 0.2
c 11 d 3
K K c 0.3 d 0.4 [Ans. : d]
12 4 [Ans. : b]
Q.238 If n = 0.2, then G = ___________. Q.244 The modulus of rigidity of a material is

75 GPa and its Poisson's ratio is 0.4. The
a 0 b 12
K modulus of elasticity of the material is
11
___________GPa.
c 11 d 3
K K
12 4 [Ans. : d] a 210 b 75
c 350 d none of the
Q.239 If n = 0.25, then G = ___________.
above [Ans. : a]
a 0 b 12
K
11 Q.245 The bulk modulus of a material is
c 3 d 3 350 GPa and its Poisson's ratio is 0.4. The
K K
5 4 [Ans. : c] modulus of elasticity of the material is
–4 ___________GPa.
Q.240 A strain of 4 ´ 10 in a particular
specimen was observed to be a 210 b 75
accompanied by a stress of 80 MPa. If c 350 d none of the
Poisson's ratio is 0.25, the modulus of above [Ans. : a]
rigidity of the material is ___________.
Q.246 The bulk modulus of a material is
a 80 GPa b 200 GPa
350 GPa and its modulus of rigidity is
c 133.33 GPa d 200 MPa 75 GPa. The modulus of elasticity of the
[Ans. : a]
–4 material is ___________GPa.
Q.241 A strain of 4 ´ 10 in a particular
specimen was observed to be a 210 b 75
accompanied by a stress of 80 MPa. If c 350 d none of the
Poisson's ratio is 0.25, the bulk modulus above [Ans. : a]
of the material is ___________.
TM

Q.247 The modulus of elasticity of a material is

bulk modulus of the material is
___________GPa.
a 210 b 75
c 350 d none of the
above [Ans. : c]
Q.248 The modulus of elasticity of a material is

modulus of rigidity of the material is
___________GPa.
a 210
b 75
c 350
qqq
TM

Shear Force & Bending
2 Moment Diagrams
· The net force to the left or right of the dV
= -w( x)
dx
section perpendicular to the beam is
defined as the shear force. · Change in shear force = – (area under
load curve)
· The net moment due to all forces on
one side of a section is defined as the · Slope of tangent to bending moment
bending moment. curve = Shear force.
dM
· All upwards forces to the left of the = V
dx
section are taken positive and
downward negative. · Change in bending moment = Area
under shear force diagram.
· All downward forces to the right of the
section are taken positive and upward · There is upward step in S.F.D at the
negative. point where there is an upward point
load on the load diagram. For vertically
· Clockwise moments due to all forces to
downward force there will be a
the left of the section are taken positive
downward step.
and anticlockwise negative.
· If there is no force between two points,
· Anticlockwise moments to the right of
the S.F.D. will be a horizontal straight
the section are taken positive and
line between those points.
clockwise negative.
· If there is uniformly distributed load
· The clockwise moments to the left of a
between two points, S.F.D. will be an
section and anticlockwise to the right of
inclined straight line.
the section produce sagging.
· If there is uniformly varying load
· Anticlockwise moment to the left of the
between two points, the S.F.D. will be a
section and clockwise to the right
parabola.
produce hogging.
· If the rate of loading increases from left
· Sagging bending moment is considered
to right, the tangent to the parabola on
positive.
S.F.D. must rotate clockwise while going
· Hogging bending moment is considered from left to right. If the rate of loading
negative. decreases from left to right, the tangent
· Slope of tangent to shear force diagram to the parabola rotates anticlockwise.
= – (rate of loading) · If the uniformly varying load changes
sign, then shear force has either a
(2 - 1)
TM

Strength of Materials 2-2 Shear Force & Bending Moment Diagrams
maximum or a minimum value at the

Objective Questions & Answers
point where the rate of loading becomes
zero. for Online Examination
· At points where there is a clockwise Shear Force and Bending Moment
couple on the beam, there will be an Q.1 The shear force at any section in a beam
upward step in B.M.D. For is ___________.
anticlockwise couple, there will be a a the net force to the left of the section
downward step. perpendicular to the beam
· If shear force is zero between two b the net force to the right of the
points, the bending moment is constant. section perpendicular to the beam
Hence there will be a horizontal straight c either a) or b)
line on B.M.D. d none of the above
· If shear force is a non-zero constant [Ans. : c]
Q.2 The bending moment at any section in a
between two points, B.M.D. will be an
beam is ___________.
inclined straight line.
a the net moment to the left of the
· If S.F.D. is an upward inclined line, section
B.M.D. will be a parabola with tangent b the net moment to the right of the
rotating anticlockwise. For a downward section
inclined line on S.F.D., the B.M.D. will
c either a) or b)
be a parabola with tangent rotating
d none of the above
clockwise. If shear force is zero at any [Ans. : c]
point, bending moment will be either Q.3 While calculating the shear force, the
maximum or minimum. upward forces to the left of the section
are considered ___________.
· If S.F.D. is a parabola, B.M.D. will be a
cubic curve. a positive b negative
c zero d none of the
· The shear force and bending moment
above [Ans. : a]
are zero at the ends of the beam.
Q.4 While calculating the shear force, the
· If the bending moment becomes zero at downward forces to the left of the section
any intermediate point on the beam it is are considered ___________.
known as point of contraflexure or a positive b negative
point of inflexion. At such a point the
bending moment changes from sagging
above [Ans. : b]
to hogging or vice versa.
Q.5 While calculating the shear force, the
upward forces to the right of the section
are considered ___________.
a positive b negative
above
[Ans. : b]
TM

Q.6 While calculating the shear force, the Q.12 The shear force produced by upward
downward forces to the right of the forces to the left of a section is
section are considered ___________. ___________.
a positive b negative a clockwise b anticlockwise
c zero d none of the c sagging d hogging
above [Ans. : a]
[Ans. : a] Q.13 The shear force produced by downward
Q.7 While calculating the bending moment, forces to the left of a section is
the clockwise moments to the left of the ___________.
section are considered ___________. a clockwise b anticlockwise
a positive b negative c sagging d hogging
c zero d none of the [Ans. : b]
above Q.14 The shear force produced by upward
[Ans. : a] forces to the right of a section is
Q.8 While calculating the bending moment, ___________.
the clockwise moments to the right of the a clockwise b anticlockwise
section are considered ___________.
c sagging d hogging
a positive b negative [Ans. : b]
c zero d none of the Q.15 The shear force produced by downward
above forces to the right of a section is
[Ans. : b] ___________.
Q.9 While calculating the bending moment, a clockwise b anticlockwise
the anticlockwise moments to the right of
c sagging d hogging
the section are considered ___________. [Ans. : a]
a positive b negative Q.16 The bending moment produced by
c zero d none of the upward forces to the left of a section is
above ___________.
[Ans. : a] a upward b downward
Q.10 While calculating the bending moment, c sagging d hogging
the anticlockwise moments to the left of [Ans. : c]
the section are considered ___________. Q.17 The bending moment produced by
a positive b negative downward forces to the left of a section
c zero d none the above is ___________.
[Ans. : b] a upward b downward
Q.11 While calculating the shear force, the c sagging d hogging
forces to the left of the section acting [Ans. : d]
parallel to the beam are considered Q.18 The bending moment produced by
___________. upward forces to the right of a section is
a positive ___________.
b negative a upward b downward
c either positive or negative c sagging d hogging
[Ans. : c]
d none of the above
[Ans. : d]
TM

Q.19 The bending moment produced by b change in shear force

downward forces to the right of a section c bending moment
is ___________.
d change in bending moment
a upward b downward [Ans. : d]
c sagging d hogging Q.26 Area under bending moment diagram
[Ans. : d] gives ___________.
Q.20 Sagging bending moment is considered a shear force
___________.
b change in shear force
c bending moment
d none of the above
above [Ans. : d]
[Ans. : a]
Q.27 Slope of tangent to load diagram gives
Q.21 Hogging bending moment is considered
___________.
___________.
a change in shear force
b shear force
above c rate of loading
[Ans. : b] d none of the above
Relations Between Shear Force, Bending [Ans. : d]
Moment and Rate of Loading Q.28 Slope of tangent to shear force diagram =
___________.
Q.22 Slope of tangent to shear force diagram
gives ___________. a – (rate of loading)
a bending moment b – (area under load curve)
b couple moment c rate of loading
c support reactions d none of the above
[Ans. : a]
d rate of loading
[Ans. : d] Q.29 Change in shear force = ___________.
Q.23 Slope of tangent to bending moment a – (rate of loading)
diagram gives ___________. b – (area under load curve)
a couple moment b rate of loading c rate of loading
c shear force d support reactions d none of the above
[Ans. : c] [Ans. : b]
Q.24 Area under load diagram gives Q.30 Slope of tangent to bending moment
___________. curve = ___________.
a shear force a – (rate of loading)
b change in shear force b – (area under load curve)
c bending moment c change in shear force
d change in bending moment d shear force
[Ans. : b] [Ans. : d]
Q.25 Area under shear force diagram gives Q.31 Change in bending moment =
___________. ___________.
a shear force a area under shear force diagram
TM

b – (area under load curve) a load diagram b S.F.D

c area under bending moment diagram c B.M.D d none of the
d slope of shear force diagram above
[Ans. : a] [Ans. : d]
Q.38 If there is a clockwise couple moment
Q.32 Shear force = ___________.
acting on the beam, there will be a
a area under bending moment diagram upward step on ___________.
b – (area under load curve) a load diagram b S.F.D
c slope of bending moment diagram c B.M.D d none of the
d slope of shear force diagram above
[Ans. : c] [Ans. : c]
Q.33 If there is an upward point load acting Q.39 If there is an anticlockwise couple
on the beam, there will be an upward moment acting on the beam, there will be
step on ___________. a downward step on ___________.
a load diagram b S.F.D a load diagram b S.F.D
c B.M.D d none of the c B.M.D d none of the
above above
[Ans. : b] [Ans. : c]
Q.40 If there is a anticlockwise couple moment
Q.34 If there is an upward point load acting
acting on the beam, there will be a
on the beam, there will be a downward
upward step on ___________.
step on ___________.
a load diagram b S.F.D
a load diagram
c B.M.D d none of the
b S.F.D
above
c B.M.D [Ans. : d]
d none of the above Q.41 If there is a point load acting on the
[Ans. : d] beam, there will be ___________ on S.F.D.
Q.35 If there is a downward point load acting a step
on the beam, there will be an upward b horizontal straight line
step on ___________.
c inclined straight line
a load diagram b S.F.D
d parabola
c B.M.D d none of the [Ans. : a]
above Q.42 If there is no load acting on the beam
[Ans. : d] between two points, there will be
Q.36 If there is a downward point load acting ___________ on S.F.D.
on the beam, there will be a downward a step
step on ___________.
b horizontal straight line
a load diagram
b S.F.D
d parabola
c B.M.D [Ans. : b]
d none of the above Q.43 If there is a uniformly distributed load
[Ans. : b] acting on the beam, there will be
Q.37 If there is a clockwise couple moment ___________ on S.F.D.
acting on the beam, there will be a a step
downward step on ___________.
TM

b horizontal straight line d third degree curve

[Ans. : a]
Q.49 If the shear force between two points is a
d parabola
non - zero constant, there will be
[Ans. : c]
___________ on B.M.D.
Q.44 If there is a uniformly varying load
acting on the beam, there will be a horizontal straight line
___________ on S.F.D. b inclined straight line
a step c parabola
b horizontal straight line d third degree curve
[Ans. : b]
Q.50 If there is inclined line on S.F.D, there
d parabola
will be ___________ on B.M.D.
[Ans. : d]
Q.45 If there is no load acting on the beam a horizontal straight line
between two points, there will be b inclined straight line
___________ on B.M.D. c parabola
a horizontal straight line d third degree curve
b inclined straight line [Ans. : c]
c parabola Q.51 If there is parabola on S.F.D, there will be
___________ on B.M.D.
d either a) or b)
[Ans. : d] a horizontal straight line
Q.46 If there is a uniformly distributed load b inclined straight line
acting on the beam, there will be c parabola
___________ on B.M.D.
d third degree curve
a horizontal straight line [Ans. : d]
b inclined straight line Q.52 The point of contraflexure is a point of
c parabola zero ___________.
d third degree curve a load

[Ans. : c] b shear force
Q.47 If there is a uniformly varying load c bending moment
acting on the beam, there will be d none of the above [Ans. : c]
___________ on B.M.D.
a horizontal straight line Q.53 Shear force is ___________ at the end
points of a beam.
b inclined straight line
a maximum b minimum
c parabola
[Ans. : d] above
[Ans. : c]
Q.48 If the shear force is zero between two
Q.54 Bending moment is ___________ at the
points, there will be ___________ on
end points of a beam.
B.M.D.
a maximum b minimum
a horizontal straight line
b inclined straight line
above
c parabola [Ans. : c]
TM

Q.55 Bending moment is ___________ at the left to right in the neighborhood of a

point of contraflexure of a beam. point. The point load acting on the beam
a maximum b minimum at that point is ___________ kN.
c zero d none of the a 20 b 40
above c 0 d – 20
[Ans. : c] [Ans. : c]
Q.56 Shear force is ___________ at the internal Q.62 If there is inclined straight line on S.F.D.,
hinge of a compound beam. there will be ___________ acting on the
a maximum b minimum beam.
a point load b u.d.l
above c u.v.l d couple moment
[Ans. : d] [Ans. : b]
Q.57 Bending moment is ___________ at the Q.63 If there is parabola on S.F.D., there will
internal hinge of a compound beam. be ___________ acting on the beam.
a maximum b minimum
c u.v.l d couple moment
[Ans. : c]
above
[Ans. : c] Q.64 If there is vertical step on B.M.D., there
will be ___________ acting on the beam.
Q.58 The value of shear force at a point
changes from –20 kN to 50 kN while
tracing the S.F.D from left to right. The c u.v.l d couple moment
point load acting on the beam at that [Ans. : d]
point is ___________ kN. Q.65 The bending moment changes linearly
from –120 kN m at A to – 40 kN m at B.
a 20 b 50
If the distance between A and B is 2 m,
c 70 d – 20 the shear force between A and B is
[Ans. : c]
___________ kN.
Q.59 The value of shear force at a point
a – 40 b 40
changes from –20 kN to 20 kN while
tracing the S.F.D from left to right. The c – 80 d 80
[Ans. : b]
point load acting on the beam at that
point is ___________ kN. Q.66 The bending moment changes linearly
from – 40 kN m at A to –120 kN m at B.
a 20 b 40
If the distance between A and B is 2 m,
c 0 d – 20 the shear force between A and B is
[Ans. : b]
___________ kN.
Q.60 The value of shear force remains constant
a – 40 b 40
at 20 kN while tracing the S.F.D. from
left to right in the neighborhood of a c – 80 d 80
point. The point load acting on the beam [Ans. : a]
at that point is ___________ kN. Q.67 If there is a parabola on B.M.D., there
a 20 b 40 will be ___________ acting on the beam.
c 0 d – 20 a point load b u.d.l

[Ans. : c] c u.v.l d couple moment
Q.61 The value of shear force remains constant [Ans. : b]
at –20 kN while tracing the S.F.D. from
TM

Q.68 If there is a cubic curve on B.M.D., there c 0 d 11.67

will be ___________ acting on the beam. [Ans. : d]
Q.73 The S.F.D. for a 4 m long beam is a
parabola with + 20 kN m value at both
c u.v.l d couple moment its ends and zero at the centre. If there
[Ans. : c]
are no couple moments acting on the
beam, there will be ___________ at the
left end.
its ends and zero at the centre. If there
are no couple moments acting on the a upward force of 20 kN
beam, the B.M.D. will be ___________. b downward force of 20 kN
a straight line with increasing slope c no force
b straight line with increasing slope d upward force of 40 kN
[Ans. : a]
c third degree curve with tangent
rotating clockwise
d third degree curve with tangent its ends and zero at the centre. If there
rotating anticlockwise are no couple moments acting on the
[Ans. : c]
beam, there will be ___________ at the
Q.70 The S.F.D. for a 4 m long beam is a right end.
a upward force of 20 kN
are no couple moments acting on the b downward force of 20 kN
beam, the maximum value of bending c no force
moment will be ___________ kN m. d upward force of 40 kN
a 20 b 13.33 [Ans. : b]
c 23.33 d 40 Q.75 The S.F.D. for a 4 m long beam is a
[Ans. : b] parabola with + 20 kN m value at both
Q.71 The S.F.D. for a 4 m long beam is a its ends and zero at the centre. If there
parabola with + 20 kN m value at both are no couple moments acting on the
its ends and zero at the centre. If there beam, there will be ___________ acting on
are no couple moments acting on the the beam.
beam, the value of shear force at a a upward forces of 20 kN at both ends
distance of 1 m from the left end is b downward force of 20 kN at both
___________ kN.
ends
a 5 b 10
c u.d.l of 10 kN/m throughout its
c 20 d 0 length
[Ans. : a]
d u.v.l varying from 20 kN/m
downward at left end to 20 kN/m
upward at right end
[Ans. : d]
are no couple moments acting on the
beam, the value of bending moment at a Q.76 From S.F.D we cannot locate the position
distance of 1 m from the from the left of ___________ acting on the beam.
end is ___________ kN m. a point load b u.d.l
a 20 b 13.33 c u.v.l d couple moment
[Ans. : d]
TM

Q.77 From B.M.D we cannot locate the Q.82 A cantilever beam AB of length L carries
position of ___________ acting on the a point load P at its free end B. The shear
beam. force just to the right of B is ___________.
a point load b u.d.l a P b P
2
c u.v.l d couple moment
[Ans. : a] c PL d 0
2 [Ans. : d]
Cantilever Beam with Point Load
(Hint : Refer example 2.8.1 of main book.)
Q.78 A cantilever beam AB of length L carries
a point load P at its free end B. The shear Q.83 A cantilever beam AB of length L carries
force at the centre of the beam is a point load P at its free end B. The
___________. bending moment just to the left of A is
a P b P ___________.
2 a 0 b PL
–
c PL d PL 4
2 [Ans. : a] c PL d – PL
–
2 [Ans. : a]
a point load P at its free end B. The shear Q.84 A cantilever beam AB of length L carries
force just to the left of A is ___________. a point load P at its free end B. The
a P b P bending moment just to the right of A is
2 ___________.
c PL d 0 a 0 b PL
–
2 [Ans. : d] 4
c PL d – PL
(Hint : Refer example 2.8.1 of main book.) –
2 [Ans. : d]
a point load P at its free end B. The shear
force just to the right of A is ___________. Q.85 A cantilever beam AB of length L carries
a P b P a point load P at its free end B. The
2 bending moment at B is ___________.
c PL d 0 a 0 b PL
–
2 [Ans. : a] 4
c PL d – PL
(Hint : Refer example 2.8.1 of main book.) –
2 [Ans. : d]
a point load P at its free end B. The shear
force just to the left of B is ___________. Q.86 A cantilever beam AB of length L carries
a P b P a point load P at its free end B. The
2 bending moment at the centre of the
c PL d 0 beam is ___________.
2 [Ans. : a] a 3 PL b PL
– –
4 4
c PL d – PL
–
2 [Ans. : c]
TM

Strength of Materials 2 - 10 Shear Force & Bending Moment Diagrams
(Hint : Refer example 2.8.1 of main book.) a 0 b wL
Q.87 A cantilever beam AB of length L carries c wL d wL

2 4
a point load P at its free end B. The
[Ans. : a]
bending moment at distance L/4 to the
right of A is ___________.
a 3PL b PL Q.92 A cantilever beam AB of length L carries
– –
4 4 a uniformly distributed load of intensity
PL w per metre run throughout its length.
c d – PL
– The shear force just to the right of A is
2 [Ans. : a]
___________.
a 0 b wL
Q.88 A cantilever beam AB of length L carries c wL d wL
a point load P at its free end B. The 2 4
bending moment at distance 3L/4 to the [Ans. : b]
right of A is ___________. (Hint : Refer example 2.8.2 of main book.)
a 3 PL b PL Q.93 A cantilever beam AB of length L carries
– –
4 4 a uniformly distributed load of intensity
c PL d – PL w per metre run throughout its length.
–
2 [Ans. : b] The shear force at the centre of the beam
is ___________.
a 0 b wL
c wL d wL
a point load P at its free end B. The S.F.D
2 4
is ___________ between A and B. [Ans. : c]
a horizontal straight line (Hint : Refer example 2.8.2 of main book.)
b inclined straight line Q.94 A cantilever beam AB of length L carries
c parabola a uniformly distributed load of intensity
d third degree curve w per metre run throughout its length.
[Ans. : a] The S.F.D is ___________ between A and
Q.90 A cantilever beam AB of length L carries B.
a point load P at its free end B. The a horizontal straight line
B.M.D is ___________ between A and B. b inclined straight line
a horizontal straight line c parabola
b inclined straight line d third degree curve
c parabola [Ans. : b]
d third degree curve Q.95 A cantilever beam AB of length L carries
[Ans. : b] a uniformly distributed load of intensity
Cantilever Beam with u.d.l w per metre run throughout its length.
The B.M.D is ___________ between A and
Q.91 A cantilever beam AB of length L carries B.
a uniformly distributed load of intensity
a horizontal straight line
w per metre run throughout its length.
The shear force just to the left of A is b inclined straight line
___________.
TM

c parabola Cantilever Beam with u.v.l

d third degree curve Q.100 A cantilever beam AB of length L carries
[Ans. : c]
a uniformly varying load of intensity
Q.96 A cantilever beam AB of length L carries varying from zero at the fixed end A to
a uniformly distributed load of intensity w per metre run at the free end B. The
w per metre run throughout its length. shear force just to the right of A is
The shear force at the point B is ___________.
___________.
a 0 b wL
a 0 b wL
c wL d wL
c wL d wL 2 4
2 4 [Ans. : c]
[Ans. : a]
a uniformly distributed load of intensity Q.101 A cantilever beam AB of length L carries
w per metre run throughout its length. a uniformly varying load of intensity
The bending moment at the centre of the varying from zero at the fixed end A to
beam is ___________. w per metre run at the free end B. The
shear force at a distance L/2 to the right
a 0 b wL2
– of A is ___________.
2
a 15 b 3
c wL2 d wL2 32
wL
8
wL
– –
4 8
c wL d 7
[Ans. : d] wL
2 32
Q.98 A cantilever beam AB of length L carries [Ans. : b]
a uniformly distributed load of intensity (Hint : Refer example 2.8.3 of main book.)
w per metre run throughout its length.
The bending moment just to the right of Q.102 A cantilever beam AB of length L carries
A is ___________. a uniformly varying load of intensity
varying from zero at the fixed end A to
a 0 b wL2
– w per metre run at the free end B. The
2
c wL2 d wL2 of A is ___________.
– –
4 8
a 15 b 3
[Ans. : b] wL wL
32 8
c wL d 7
a uniformly distributed load of intensity wL
2 32
w per metre run throughout its length. [Ans. : a]
The distance of the point at which
wL2
bending moment is – to the right of
4 Q.103 A cantilever beam AB of length L carries
A is ___________. a uniformly varying load of intensity
L L varying from zero at the fixed end A to
a b
2 4 w per metre run at the free end B. The
æ 2 -1 ö shear force at a distance 3L/4 to the right
c ç ÷L d æ ö
ç 2 + 1 ÷L
ç ÷ ç ÷ of A is ___________.
è 2 ø è 2 ø
a 15 b 3
[Ans. : c] wL wL
32 8
TM

c wL d 7 a parabola with tangent rotating

wL
2 32 clockwise
[Ans. : d]
b parabola with tangent rotating
anticlockwise
rotating clockwise
w per metre run at the free end B. The d third degree curve with tangent
bending moment just to the right of A is rotating anticlockwise
___________. [Ans. : a]
a -w L2 b w L2
-
c wL 2 d wL2 a uniformly varying load of intensity
- - varying from zero at the fixed end A to
3 4
[Ans. : c] w per metre run at the free end B. The
(Hint : Refer example 2.8.3 of main book.) B.M.D is ___________ between A and B.
a parabola with tangent rotating
a uniformly varying load of intensity clockwise
varying from zero at the fixed end A to b parabola with tangent rotating
w per metre run at the free end B. The anticlockwise
S.F.D is ___________ between A and B. c third degree curve with tangent
a horizontal straight line rotating clockwise
b inclined straight line d third degree curve with tangent
c parabola rotating anticlockwise
[Ans. : c]
[Ans. : c] (Hint : Refer example 2.8.3 of main book.)
(Hint : Refer example 2.8.3 of main book.) Q.109 A cantilever beam AB of length L carries
w per metre run at the free end B. The
distance of the point at which shear force
wL
B.M.D is ___________ between A and B. is to the right of A is ___________.
4
a horizontal straight line a L b L
b inclined straight line 2 2
c parabola c 3 d none of the
L
d third degree curve 2 above
[Ans. : d] [Ans. : b]
(Hint : Refer example 2.8.3 of main book.) (Hint : Refer example 2.8.3 of main book.)
Q.107 A cantilever beam AB of length L carries Q.110 A cantilever beam AB of length L carries
a uniformly varying load of intensity a uniformly varying load of intensity
varying from zero at the fixed end A to varying from zero at the fixed end A to
w per metre run at the free end B. The w per metre run at the free end B. The
S.F.D is ___________ between A and B.
TM

distance of the point at which shear force c 11 2 d none of the

– wL
wL 384 above
is to the right of A is ___________.
8 [Ans. : a]
a L b L (Hint : Refer example 2.8.3 of main book.)
2 2 Q.114 A cantilever beam AB of length L carries
c 3 d none of the a uniformly varying load of intensity
L
2 above varying from zero at the fixed end A to
[Ans. : c] w per metre run at the free end B. The
(Hint : Refer example 2.8.3 of main book.) bending moment at a distance L/4 to the
right of A is ___________.
a 5 2 b 27 2
a uniformly varying load of intensity – wL – wL
48 128
c 11 2 d none of the
w per metre run at the free end B. The – wL
384 above [Ans. : b]
3wL
is
8
to the right of A is ___________. (Hint : Refer example 2.8.3 of main book.)
a L b L Q.115 A cantilever beam AB of length L carries

2 2 a uniformly varying load of intensity
c 3 d none of the
L w per metre run at the free end B. The
2 above
[Ans. : a] bending moment at a distance 3L/4 to the
right of A is ___________.
a 5 2 b 27 2
Q.112 A cantilever beam AB of length L carries – wL – wL
48 128
a uniformly varying load of intensity 11
c 2 d none of the
varying from zero at the fixed end A to – wL
384 above [Ans. : c]
distance of the point at which shear force (Hint : Refer example 2.8.3 of main book.)
3wL
is to the right of A is ___________.
L L a uniformly varying load of intensity
a b
2 varying from w per metre run at the
2
fixed end A to zero at the free end B. The
c 3 d none of the shear force just to the right of A is
L
2 above ___________.
[Ans. : d]
a 0 b wL
c wL d wL
Q.113 A cantilever beam AB of length L carries 2 4 [Ans. : c]
varying from zero at the fixed end A to (Hint : Refer example 2.8.4 of main book.)
w per metre run at the free end B. The Q.117 A cantilever beam AB of length L carries
bending moment at a distance L/2 to the a uniformly varying load of intensity
right of A is ___________. varying from w per metre run at the
a 5 2 b 27 2 fixed end A to zero at the free end B. The
– wL – wL
48 128 shear force at a distance L/2 to the right
of A is ___________.
TM

a 1 b 1 fixed end A to zero at the free end B. The

wL wL
32 8
S.F.D. is ___________ between A and B.
c wL d 9
wL a horizontal straight line
2 32
[Ans. : b] b inclined straight line
(Hint : Refer example 2.8.4 of main book.) c parabola
Q.118 A cantilever beam AB of length L carries d third degree curve
a uniformly varying load of intensity [Ans. : c]
varying from w per metre run at the (Hint : Refer example 2.8.4 of main book.)
of A is ___________.
varying from w per metre run at the
wL wL
32 8
B.M.D. is ___________ between A and B.
c wL d 9
wL a horizontal straight line
2 32
[Ans. : a] b inclined straight line
(Hint : Refer example 2.8.4 of main book.) c parabola
Q.119 A cantilever beam AB of length L carries d third degree curve
a uniformly varying load of intensity [Ans. : d]
varying from w per metre run at the (Hint : Refer example 2.8.4 of main book.)
shear force at a distance 3L/4 to the right
of A is ___________.
wL wL
32 8 S.F.D. is ___________ between A and B.
c wL d 9
wL a parabola with tangent rotating
2 32
[Ans. : d] clockwise
(Hint : Refer example 2.8.4 of main book.) b parabola with tangent rotating
anticlockwise
a uniformly varying load of intensity c third degree curve with tangent
varying from w per metre run at the rotating clockwise
fixed end A to zero at the free end B. The d third degree curve with tangent
bending moment just to the right of A is rotating anticlockwise
___________. [Ans. : b]
a -w L2 b w L2 (Hint : Refer example 2.8.4 of main book.)
-
c w L2 d w L2 a uniformly varying load of intensity
- -
3 6 varying from w per metre run at the
[Ans. : d] fixed end A to zero at the free end B. The
(Hint : Refer example 2.8.4 of main book.) B.M.D. is ___________ between A and B.
Q.121 A cantilever beam AB of length L carries a parabola with tangent rotating
a uniformly varying load of intensity clockwise
TM

b parabola with tangent rotating c 3 d none of the

L
anticlockwise 2 above
[Ans. : c]
rotating clockwise (Hint : Refer example 2.8.4 of main book.)
d third degree curve with tangent Q.128 A cantilever beam AB of length L carries
rotating anticlockwise a uniformly varying load of intensity
[Ans. : c] varying from w per metre run at the
(Hint : Refer example 2.8.4 of main book.) fixed end A to zero at the free end B. The
Q.125 A cantilever beam AB of length L carries 3wL
is from the free end B is
a uniformly varying load of intensity 4
varying from w per metre run at the ___________.
fixed end A to zero at the free end B. The L L
a b
distance of the point at which shear force 2 2
wL
is from the free end B is ___________. 3
4 c d none of the
L
L L 2 above
a b
2 [Ans. : d]
2
c 3 d none of the
L Q.129 A cantilever beam AB of length L carries
2 above
[Ans. : b] a uniformly varying load of intensity
(Hint : Refer example 2.8.4 of main book.) varying from w per metre run at the
Q.126 A cantilever beam AB of length L carries bending moment at distance L/2 from the
a uniformly varying load of intensity fixed end A is ___________.
a 9wL2 b wL2
- -
128 384
wL c wL2
is
8
from the free end B is ___________. -
48
a L b L d none of the above
2 2 [Ans. : c]
c 3 d none of the (Hint : Refer example 2.8.4 of main book.)
L
2 above Q.130 A cantilever beam AB of length L carries
[Ans. : a] a uniformly varying load of intensity
(Hint : Refer example 2.8.4 of main book.) varying from w per metre run at the
Q.127 A cantilever beam AB of length L carries fixed end A to zero at the free end B. The
a uniformly varying load of intensity bending moment at distance L/4 from the
varying from w per metre run at the fixed end A is ___________.
fixed end A to zero at the free end B. The a 9wL2 b wL2
- -
distance of the point at which shear force 128 384
3wL
is from the free end B is c wL2 d none of the
8 -
48 above
___________. [Ans. : a]
a L b L (Hint : Refer example 2.8.4 of main book.)
2 2
TM

Q.131 A cantilever beam AB of length L carries end B. The shear force at a distance L/4
a uniformly varying load of intensity from A is ___________.
a M b ML
bending moment at distance 3L/4 from c M L/2 d 0
[Ans. : d]
the fixed end A is ___________.
a 9wL2 b wL2 a clockwise couple moment M at its free
- -
128 384
end B. The bending moment at distance
c wL2 d none of the L/4 from A is ___________.
-
48 above a –M b –ML
[Ans. : b]
(Hint : Refer example 2.8.4 of main book.) c – M L/2 d 0
[Ans. : a]
Q.132 A cantilever beam AB of length L carries Q.137 A cantilever beam AB of length L with
a uniformly varying load of intensity fixed support at A carries a clockwise
varying from w per metre run at the couple moment M at its centre C. The
fixed end A to zero at the free end B. The shear force is zero from ___________.
distance of the point at which bending
a A to C b C to B
wL2
moment is - to the right of A is c A to B d none of the
162
___________. above
[Ans. : c]
a L b L
2 3 Q.138 A cantilever beam AB of length L with
fixed support at A carries a clockwise
c 2 d none of the
L couple moment M at its centre C. The
3 above bending moment is zero from
[Ans. : c]
___________.
a A to C b C to B
Cantilever Beam with Couple Moment
c A to B d none of the
Q.133 A cantilever beam AB of length L carries above
a clockwise couple moment M at its free [Ans. : b]
end B. The shear force at the centre of Q.139 A simply supported beam AB of length L
the beam is ___________. carries a point load P at the centre C. The
a M b ML shear force just to the right of A is
___________.
c M L/2 d 0
[Ans. : d] a P b P
Q.134 A cantilever beam AB of length L carries 2
a clockwise couple moment M at its free c P d 0
–
end B. The bending moment at the centre 2 [Ans. : b]
of the beam is ___________.
Simply Supported Beam with Point Load
a –M b –ML
Q.140 A simply supported beam AB of length L
c – M L/2 d 0 carries a point load P at the centre C. The
[Ans. : a]
shear force just to the left of B is
___________.
a clockwise couple moment M at its free
a P b P
2
TM

c P d 0 Q.146 A simply supported beam AB of length L

–
2 [Ans. : c] carries a point load P at the centre C. The
S.F.D. between A and C is ___________.
carries a point load P at the centre C. The a horizontal straight line
shear force just to the left of C is b inclined straight line
___________.
c parabola
a P b P
d third degree curve [Ans. : a]
2
–
2 [Ans. : b] carries a point load P at the centre C. The
S.F.D. between B and C is ___________.
shear force just to the right of C is b inclined straight line
___________. c parabola
a P b P
d third degree curve [Ans. : a]
2
–
2 [Ans. : c] carries a point load P at the centre C. The
B.M.D. between A and C is ___________.
bending moment at C is ___________. b inclined straight line with positive
a PL b PL slope
– –
2 4 c inclined straight line with negative
c PL d PL slope
4 2 [Ans. : c]
d parabola [Ans. : b]
carries a point load P at the centre C. The
bending moment at distance L/4 from A
B.M.D. between B and C is ___________.
is ___________.
PL PL a horizontal straight line
a b
–
8 4 b inclined straight line with positive
c PL d PL slope
4 2 [Ans. : a] c inclined straight line with negative
slope
carries a point load P at the centre C. The d parabola [Ans. : c]
bending moment at distance 3L/4 from A
is ___________.
a PL b PL
– maximum bending moment is _________.
8 4
a PL b PL
c PL d PL – –
2 4
4 2 [Ans. : a]
c PL d PL
4 2 [Ans. : c]
TM

Q.151 A beam AB of length 5 m is simply a 0 b 100

supported at its ends and carries a point c 120 d 60
load of 100 kN at a distance of 2 m from [Ans. : d]
A. The shear force at a distance of 1 m
Simply Supported Beam with u.d.l
from A is ___________ kN.
a 60 b – 60
carries uniformly distributed load of
c 40 d – 40 intensity w per unit run throughout its
[Ans. : a]
length. The shear force just to the right of
Q.152 A beam AB of length 5 m is simply
A is ___________.
supported at its ends and carries a point
a wL b 0
load of 100 kN at a distance of 2 m from
2
A. The shear force at a distance of 4 m
c wL d wL
from A is ___________ kN. –
4 2 [Ans. : a]
a 60 b – 60
c 40 d – 40 (Hint : Refer example 2.8.7 of main book.)
[Ans. : d] Q.158 A simply supported beam AB of length L
Q.153 A beam AB of length 5 m is simply carries uniformly distributed load of
supported at its ends and carries a point intensity w per unit run throughout its
load of 100 kN at a distance of 2 m from length. The shear force just to the left of
A. The shear force at the centre of the B is ___________.
beam is ___________ kN. wL
a b 0
a 0 b 60 2
c 40 d – 40 c wL d wL
–
[Ans. : d] 4 2 [Ans. : d]
load of 100 kN at a distance of 2 m from Q.159 A simply supported beam AB of length L
A. The maximum bending moment on carries uniformly distributed load of
the beam is ___________ kN m. intensity w per unit run throughout its
a 0 b 60 length. The shear force at the centre of
the beam is ___________.
c 120 d 40
[Ans. : c] a wL b 0
2
c wL d wL
supported at its ends and carries a point –
4 2
[Ans. : b]
A. The bending oment at the centre of the
beam is ___________ kN m.
a 0 b 100 Q.160 A simply supported beam AB of length L
c 120 d 60
intensity w per unit run throughout its
[Ans. : b]
length. The shear force at a distance of
L/4 to the right of A is ___________.
a wL b 0
2
A. The bending moment at 1 m from A is
___________ kN m.
TM

c wL d wL c wL2 d wL2
– –
4 2 8 8 [Ans. : a]
[Ans. : c]
Q.161 A simply supported beam AB of length L Q.165 A simply supported beam AB of length L
carries uniformly distributed load of carries uniformly distributed load of
intensity w per unit run throughout its intensity w per unit run throughout its
length. The bending moment at the centre length. The S.F.D is ___________.
of the beam is ___________. a straight line with positive slope
a wL2 b wL2 b straight line with negative slope
–
2 2
c parabola with tangent rotating
c wL2 d wL2 clockwise
–
8 8
[Ans. : c] d parabola with tangent rotating
(Hint : Refer example 2.8.7 of main book.) anticlockwise [Ans. : b]
Q.162 A simply supported beam AB of length L (Hint : Refer example 2.8.7 of main book.)
carries uniformly distributed load of Q.166 A simply supported beam AB of length L
intensity w per unit run throughout its carries uniformly distributed load of
length. The maximum bending moment intensity w per unit run throughout its
is ___________. length. The B.M.D is ___________.
a wL2 b wL2 a straight line with positive slope
–
2 2
b straight line with negative slope
c wL2 d wL2
– c parabola with tangent rotating
8 8
[Ans. : c] clockwise
(Hint : Refer example 2.8.7 of main book.) d parabola with tangent rotating
Q.163 A simply supported beam AB of length L anticlockwise [Ans. : c]
carries uniformly distributed load of (Hint : Refer example 2.8.7 of main book.)
length. The bending moment at distance Q.167 A 5 m long beam ABC is simply
L/4 from A is ___________. supported at its ends. The portion AB of
length 4 m carries a u.d.l of 10 kN/m
a 3wL2 b 3wL2
– and there is no load for the remaining
32 32
1 m portion BC. The value of shear force
c wL2 d wL2 just to the right of A is ___________ kN.
–
8 8
[Ans. : a] a 16 b 24
(Hint : Refer example 2.8.7 of main book.) c – 16 d 10
[Ans. : b]
Q.168 A 5 m long beam ABC is simply
supported at its ends. The portion AB of
length. The bending moment at distance
and there is no load for the remaining
3L/4 from A is ___________.
1 m portion BC. The value of shear force
a 3wL2 b 3wL2 at B is ___________ kN.
–
32 32
a 16 b 24
TM

c – 16 d 10 and there is no load for the remaining

[Ans. : c]
1 m portion BC. The shear force diagram
Q.169 A 5 m long beam ABC is simply is ___________ from B to C.
a horizontal line
and there is no load for the remaining b inclined line with positive slope
1 m portion BC. The value of shear force c inclined line with negative slope
just to the left of B is ___________ kN. d parabola [Ans. : a]
a 16 b 24
c – 16 d 10 [Ans. : c]
Q.170 A 5 m long beam ABC is simply length 4 m carries a u.d.l of 10 kN/m
supported at its ends. The portion AB of and there is no load for the remaining
length 4 m carries a u.d.l of 10 kN/m 1 m portion BC. The bending moment
and there is no load for the remaining diagram is ___________ from A to B.
1 m portion BC. The shear force is zero at a parabola with tangent rotating
a distance of ___________ m from A. clockwise
a 1.6 b 2.4 b parabola with tangent rotating
c 4 d 2.5 anticlockwise
[Ans. : b]
c inclined line with positive slope
d inclined line with negative slope
supported at its ends. The portion AB of [Ans. : a]
1 m portion BC. The shear force diagram
is ___________ from A to B.
a horizontal line 1 m portion BC. The bending moment
b inclined line with positive slope diagram is ___________ from B to C.
c inclined line with negative slope a parabola with tangent rotating
d parabola [Ans. : c] clockwise
Q.172 A 5 m long beam ABC is simply anticlockwise
c inclined line with positive slope
and there is no load for the remaining d inclined line with negative slope
1 m portion BC. The shear force varies [Ans. : d]
from ___________ . Q.176 A 5 m long beam ABC is simply
a 24 kN to – 16 kN
b 24 kN to 16 kN and there is no load for the remaining
c – 24 kN to – 16 kN 1 m portion BC. The value of bending
d – 24 kN to 16 kN [Ans. : a] moment at B is ___________ kN m.
a 16 b 24
c 28.8 d 10 [Ans. : a]
TM

Q.177 A 5 m long beam ABC is simply Q.181 A simply supported beam AB of length L
supported at its ends. The portion AB of carries uniformly varying load of
length 4 m carries a u.d.l of 10 kN/m intensity varying from 0 at A to w per
and there is no load for the remaining unit run at B. The B.M.D. is ___________.
1 m portion BC. The value of bending a parabola with tangent rotating
moment just to the right of A is clockwise
___________ kN m.
a 16 b 24
anticlockwise
c 28.8 d 10 [Ans. : b]
Q.178 A 5 m long beam ABC is simply rotating clockwise
supported at its ends. The portion AB of d third degree curve with tangent
length 4 m carries a u.d.l of 10 kN/m rotating anticlockwise [Ans. : c]
1 m portion BC. The maximum value of (Hint : Refer example 2.8.8 of main book.)
bending moment is ___________ kN m. Q.182 A simply supported beam AB of length L
a 16 b 24 carries uniformly varying load of
intensity varying from 0 at A to w per
c 28.8 d 10 [Ans. : c]
unit run at B. The shear force just to the
Q.179 A 5 m long beam ABC is simply right of A is ___________.
supported at its ends. The portion AB of a wL b wL
length 4 m carries a u.d.l of 10 kN/m 2 6
and there is no load for the remaining c wL d wL
–
1 m portion BC. The bending moment is 3 3 [Ans. : b]
maximum at a distance of ___________ m
from A. (Hint : Refer example 2.8.8 of main book.)
a 1.6 b 2.4 Q.183 A simply supported beam AB of length L

c 4 d 2.5 [Ans. : b] carries uniformly varying load of
intensity varying from 0 at A to w per
Simply Supported Beam with u.v.l unit run at B. The shear force just to the
Q.180 A simply supported beam AB of length L left of B is ___________.
carries uniformly varying load of a wL b wL
intensity varying from 0 at A to w per 2 6
unit run at B. The S.F.D. is ___________. c wL d wL
–
a parabola with tangent rotating 3 3 [Ans. : d]
clockwise (Hint : Refer example 2.8.8 of main book.)
anticlockwise
carries uniformly varying load of
c third degree curve with tangent intensity varying from 0 at A to w per
rotating clockwise unit run at B. The shear force is zero at a
d third degree curve with tangent distance of ___________ from A.
rotating anticlockwise [Ans. : a] a L b L
2 3
(Hint : Refer example 2.8.8 of main book.) L L
c d
3 2 [Ans. : c]
TM

carries uniformly varying load of carries uniformly varying load of
intensity varying from 0 at A to w per intensity varying from 0 at A to w per
unit run at B. The bending moment is unit run at B. The bending moment at a
maximum at a distance of ___________ distance L/2 from A is ___________.
from A. a wL2 b wL2
a L b L 2 16
2 3
c 4wL2 d wL2
c L d L 81 162 [Ans. : b]
3 2 [Ans. : c]
Q.186 A simply supported beam AB of length L carries uniformly varying load of
carries uniformly varying load of intensity varying from 0 at A to w per
intensity varying from 0 at A to w per unit run at B. The bending moment at a
unit run at B. The shear force at a distance L/3 from A is ___________.
distance L/2 from A is ___________.
a wL2 b wL2
a wL b wL 2 16
2 9
c 4wL2 d wL2
c wL d wL
– 81 162
24 18 [Ans. : c] [Ans. : c]
unit run at B. The shear force at a unit run at B. The bending moment at a
distance L/3 from A is ___________. distance 2L/3 from A is ___________.
a wL b wL a wL2 b wL2
2 9 2 16
c wL d wL c 4wL2 d wL2
–
24 18 81 162
[Ans. : b] [Ans. : d]
unit run at B. The shear force at a unit run at B. The maximum bending
distance 2L/3 from A is ___________. moment A is ___________.
a wL b wL a wL2 b wL2
2 9 16
9 3
c wL d wL
24
–
18 c 4wL2 d wL2
[Ans. : d] 81 162
[Ans. : a]
TM

(Hint : Refer example 2.8.8 of main book.) Q.199 A simply supported beam AB of length L
carries a clockwise couple moment M at
Simply Supported Beam with Couple Moment
its centre C. The bending moment at
Q.193 A simply supported beam AB of length L distance 3L/4 from A is ___________.
a – M/2 b M/2
its centre. The shear force just to the right
of A is ___________. c – M/4 d M/4
[Ans. : d]
a – M/L b M/L S.F.D from B.M.D and Load Diagram from
c 0 d 2M/L S.F.D
[Ans. : a]
Q.200 The S.F.D. of a beam is as shown in
Fig. 2.1. There will be ___________ at the
left end on the beam.
its centre. The shear force just to the left
of B is ___________. 10 kN
a – M/L b M/L 5.5 kN 3 kN 3 kN

+
c 0 d 2M/L +
[Ans. : a] 1.5 kN –
9 kN
its centre. The shear force at the centre is 6m 10 m 2m
___________.
Fig. 2.1
a – M/L b M/L
a 10 kN force
c 0 d 2M/L
[Ans. : a] b 10 kN ¯ force
Q.196 A simply supported beam AB of length L c couple moment of 10 kNm
carries a clockwise couple moment M at anticlockwise
its centre C. The bending moment just to
d couple moment of 10 kNm clockwise
the left of C is ___________.
[Ans. : a]
a – M/2 b M/2 (Hint : Refer example 2.9.1 from main book)
c 0 d 2M [Ans. : a]
Q.197 A simply supported beam AB of length L Fig. 2.1. There will be ___________ at 6 m
carries a clockwise couple moment M at from the left end on the beam.
its centre C. The bending moment just to a 7 kN force b 7 kN ¯ force
the right of C is ___________. c 5.5 kN force d 5.5 kN ¯ force
a – M/2 b M/2 [Ans. : b]
c 0 d 2M (Hint : Refer example 2.9.1 from main book)
[Ans. : b]
Fig. 2.1. There will be ___________ at 16
m from the left end on the beam.
its centre C. The bending moment at
distance L/4 from A is ___________. a 3 kN force b 9 kN ¯ force
a – M/2 b M/2 c 9 kN force d 3 kN ¯ force

[Ans. : c]
c – M/4 d M/4
[Ans. : c] (Hint : Refer example 2.9.1 from main book)
TM

Q.203 The S.F.D. of a beam is as shown in (Hint : Refer example 2.9.3 from main book)
Fig. 2.1. There will be ___________ at
Q.207 The B.M.D of a simply supported beam is
right end of the beam.
shown in Fig. 2.2. The shear force is zero
a 3 kN force b 9 kN ¯ force at a distance of ___________m to the right
c 9 kN force d 3 kN ¯ force of C.
[Ans. : d] a 1 b 2
(Hint : Refer example 2.9.1 from main book) c 3 d 4 [Ans. : a]
Q.204 The S.F.D. of a beam is as shown in (Hint : Refer example 2.9.3 from main book)
Fig. 2.1. There will be ___________ for the
Q.208 The B.M.D of a simply supported beam is
first 6 m from the left end of the beam.
shown in Fig. 2.2. The bending moment
a 0.75 kN/m u.d.l is maximum at a distance of ___________
b 0.75 kN/m ¯ u.d.l m to the right of C.
c 2.583 kN/m u.d.l a 1 b 2
d 2.583 kN/m ¯ u.d.l [Ans. : b] c 3 d 4 [Ans. : a]
(Hint : Refer example 2.9.1 from main book) (Hint : Refer example 2.9.3 from main book)
Q.205 The B.M.D. of a simply supported beam Q.209 The B.M.D of a simply supported beam is
is shown in Fig. 2.2. The shear force shown in Fig. 2.2. The point load at A is
between A and C is ___________. ___________.
28.125 kNm a 15 kN b 15 kN ¯
22.5 kNm c 30 kN d 30 kN ¯
[Ans. : a]
(Hint : Refer example 2.9.3 from main book)
Q.210 The B.M.D. of a simply supported beam
is shown in Fig. 2.2. The point load at B
A C D E B
1.5 m 1.5 m 1m is ___________.
0.5 m
a 15 kN b 15 kN ¯
Fig. 2.2
c 30 kN d 30 kN ¯
a 15 kN constant [Ans. : c]
b – 15 kN constant (Hint : Refer example 2.9.3 from main book)
c varies linearly from 0 to 15 kN Miscellaneous Questions
d varies linearly from 0 to – 15 kN
Q.211 A 5 m long beam ABC has a hinge at A
[Ans. : a]
and a roller at B which is at 4 m to the
right of A. There is a 20 kN point load at
Q.206 The B.M.D. of a simply supported beam the right end C. The shear force just to
is shown in Fig. 2.2. The shear force the right of A is ___________ kN.
between C and B is ___________. a 5 b –5
a 15 kN constant c 20 d – 20 [Ans. : b]
b – 15 kN constant
c varies linearly from 15 kN to 15 kN
d varies linearly from 15 kN to – 30 kN right of A. There is a 20 kN point load at
[Ans. : d]
TM

the right end C. The shear force just to Q.218 For the beam shown in Fig. 2.3, the shear
the left of B is ___________ kN. force just to the left of D is ___________
kN.
a 5 b –5
c 20 d – 20 [Ans. : b] 10 kNm 15 kNm
Q.213 A 5 m long beam ABC has a hinge at A A B

C D
right of A. There is a 20 kN point load at 5m 2.5 m 2.5 m
the right end C. The shear force just to
Fig. 2.3
the right of B is ___________ kN.
a b
a 5 b –5 39 11
c 20 d – 20 [Ans. : c] c –11 d 0 [Ans. : c]

and a roller at B which is at 4 m to the Q.219 For the beam shown in Fig. 2.3, the shear
right of A. There is a 20 kN point load at force just to the right of D is ___________
the right end C. The shear force just to kN.
the left of C is ___________ kN. a 39 b 11
a 5 b –5 c –11 d 0 [Ans. : c]
c 20 d – 20 [Ans. : c] (Hint : Refer example 2.8.9 from main book)
Q.215 A 5 m long beam ABC has a hinge at A Q.220 For the beam shown in Fig. 2.3, the shear
and a roller at B which is at 4 m to the force is zero at a distance of ___________
right of A. There is a 20 kN point load at m to the right of A.
the right end C. The bending moment at a 2 b 2.5
B is ___________ kN m. c 3 d 3.9 [Ans. : d]
a 5 b –5
c 20 d – 20 [Ans. : d]
Q.221 For the beam shown in Fig. 2.3, the
Q.216 For the beam shown in Fig. 2.3, the shear bending moment is maximum at a
force at a distance of 2 m to the right of distance of ________ m to the right of A.
A is ___________ kN. a 2 b 2.5
a 39 b 19 c 3 d 3.9 [Ans. : d]
c 29 d 0 (Hint : Refer example 2.8.9 from main book)
[Ans. : b]
Q.222 For the beam shown in Fig. 2.3, there is
___________ on bending moment diagram
Q.217 For the beam shown in Fig. 2.3, the shear at point D.
force at C is ___________ kN. a upward step of 15 kN m
a 39 b 11 b downward step of 15 kN m
c –11 d 0 [Ans. : c] c horizontal line
(Hint : Refer example 2.8.9 from main book) d none of the above [Ans. : b]
TM

Q.223 For the beam shown in Fig. 2.4, the shear Q.228 For the beam shown in Fig. 2.4, the
force just to the right of A is ___________ bending moment at C is _________ kNm.
kN.
a – 22.5 b 22.5
3 kN 1 kN/m 2.5 kN c – 15 d – 8.25
[Ans. : d]
A B C D E
0.5 m Q.229 For the beam shown in Fig. 2.5, the shear
1m 1.5 m 2m
force just to the right of A is ___________
kN.
Fig. 2.4
b 40 kN 20 kN/m 20 kN
a 3 2.5
10 kN/m
c 7.5 d 0
[Ans. : c]
A B C D E
Q.224 For the beam shown in Fig. 2.4, the shear
2m 2m 2m 2m
force just to the right of B is ___________
kN. Fig. 2.5
a 3 b 2.5 a b
– 20 21.67
c 7.5 d 4.5 [Ans. : d] c 10 d 0
[Ans. : d]
Q.225 For the beam shown in Fig. 2.4, the shear force just to the left of B is __________
force just to the right of D is ___________ kN.
kN.
a – 20 b 21.67
a 3 b 2.5
c 10 d 0 [Ans. : a]
c 7.5 d 4.5 [Ans. : b]
(Hint : Refer example 2.8.10 from main book) force just to the right of B is ___________
Q.226 For the beam shown in Fig. 2.4, the kN.
bending moment just to the right of A is a – 20 b 21.67
___________ kN m.
c 10 d 0 [Ans. : b]
a – 22.5 b 22.5
c – 15 d – 8.25 number of points of contraflexure is
[Ans. : a]
___________ .
(Hint : Refer example 2.8.10 from main book) a 0 b 1
Q.227 For the beam shown in Fig. 2.4, the c 2 d 3 [Ans. : c]
bending moment at B is _____________
kN m.
B.M.D between A and B is ___________ .
a – 22.5 b 22.5
a inclined straight line
c – 15 d – 8.25
[Ans. : c] b parabola with tangent rotating
clockwise
TM

c parabola with tangent rotating a 10.6 b 2.6

anticlockwise c – 3.4 d – 6.4
d cubic curve [Ans. : b] [Ans. : a]
force just to the left of D is ___________
B.M.D between B and C is ___________ .
kN.
a inclined straight line
a 10.6 b 2.6
c – 3.4 d – 6.4
clockwise [Ans. : b]
c parabola with tangent rotating
anticlockwise force just to the right of D is _______ kN.
d cubic curve [Ans. : a] a 10.6 b 2.6
Q.235 For the beam shown in Fig. 2.5, the c – 3.4 d – 6.4
B.M.D between C and D is ___________ . [Ans. : c]
a inclined straight line Q.241 For the beam shown in Fig. 2.6, the shear
b parabola with tangent rotating force just to the left of E is _________ kN.
clockwise a 10.6 b 2.6
c parabola with tangent rotating c – 3.4 d – 6.4
anticlockwise [Ans. : d]
d cubic curve [Ans. : d] Q.242 For the beam shown in Fig. 2.6, the shear
force just to the left of B is _________ kN.
Q.236 For the beam shown in Fig. 2.5, the point
of contraflexure between B and C is at a a 10.6 b 6
distance of ___________ m from A. c – 3.4 d – 6.4 [Ans. : d]
a 0.923 b 1.923 Q.243 For the beam shown in Fig. 2.6, the shear
c 2.923 d 3.923 [Ans. : c] force just to the right of B is _______ kN.
Q.237 For the beam shown in Fig. 2.5, the point a 10.6 b 6
of contraflexure between C and D is at a c – 3.4 d – 6.4 [Ans. : b]
distance of ___________ m from A.
a 2.923 b 5.24 bending moment at D is ________ kN m.
c 4.24 d 3.24 [Ans. : b] a 26.4 b 19.6
Q.238 For the beam shown in Fig. 2.6, the shear c –6 d 0 [Ans. : a]
force just to the right of A is ___________
kN.
6 kN 3 kN bending moment at E is _________ kN m.
2 kN/m 3 kN/m
a 26.4 b 19.6
c –6 d 0 [Ans. : b]
A D E B C
4m 2m 4m 2m Q.246 For the beam shown in Fig. 2.6, the
RA RB bending moment at B is _________ kN m.
Fig. 2.6 a 26.4 b 19.6
c –6 d 0 [Ans. : c]
TM

Q.247 For the beam shown in Fig. 2.7, the shear a – 10 b 52.5
force just to the right of A is ___________ c 0 d – 25 [Ans. : b]
kN.
5 kN/m
A B
bending moment at A is ___________ kN
C D
2m 10 m 2m m.
a – 10 b 52.5
Fig. 2.7
c 0 d – 25 [Ans. : a]
a b
– 10 25 (Hint : Refer example 2.8.12 from main book)
c 0 d – 25 Q.254 For the beam shown in Fig. 2.7, the
[Ans. : b]
bending moment at B is _________ kN m.
a – 10 b 52.5
c 0 d – 25 [Ans. : a]
force just to the left of A is ___________
kN. (Hint : Refer example 2.8.12 from main book)
a – 10 b 25 Q.255 For the beam shown in Fig. 2.7, the
c 0 d – 25 [Ans. : a] number of points of contraflexure is
___________.
a 0 b 1
c 2 d 3 [Ans. : c]
force just to the left of B is ___________
kN. (Hint : Refer example 2.8.12 from main book)
a – 10 b 25 Q.256 For the beam shown in Fig. 2.8, the shear
c 0 d – 25 [Ans. : d] force is maximum at ___________.
(Hint : Refer example 2.8.12 from main book) 50 kN 20 kN
Q.250 For the beam shown in Fig. 2.7, the shear 10 kN/m
A
force just to the right of B is ___________ B C
kN. 2m 2m
a – 10 b 25 Fig. 2.8
c 10 d – 25 [Ans. : c] a b
A B
c C d A and B
Q.251 For the beam shown in Fig. 2.7, the shear [Ans. : a]
force at the centre of the beam is
___________ kN. Q.257 For the beam shown in Fig. 2.8, the shear
force is minimum at ___________.
a – 10 b 25
a A b B
c 0 d – 25 [Ans. : c]
c C d A and B
(Hint : Refer example 2.8.12 from main book) [Ans. : d]
bending moment at the centre of the Q.258 For the beam shown in Fig. 2.8, S.F.D is a
beam is ___________ kN m. horizontal straight line in the region
___________ .
TM

a AB b BC c AC d none of the
c AC d none of the above
[Ans. : d]
above
[Ans. : a] Q.266 For the beam shown in Fig. 2.8, B.M.D is
Q.259 For the beam shown in Fig. 2.8, S.F.D is a inclined straight line in the region
an inclined straight line in the region ___________ .
___________ . a AB b BC
[Ans. : a]
above
[Ans. : b] Q.267 For the beam shown in Fig. 2.8, B.M.D is
Q.260 For the beam shown in Fig. 2.8, S.F.D is a a parabola in the region ___________ .
parabola in the region ___________ . a AB b BC
[Ans. : b]
above
[Ans. : d] Q.268 For the beam shown in Fig. 2.8, the
Q.261 For the beam shown in Fig. 2.8, the shear bending moment at a distance of 2 m
force at a distance of 1 m from A is from A is ___________ kNm.
___________ kN. a – 150 b – 60
a – 90 b 90 c – 25 d 240 [Ans. : b]
c 50 d 20 [Ans. : b]
Q.269 Which of the following beams have a
Q.262 For the beam shown in Fig. 2.8, the shear point of contraflexure ?
force at a distance of 3 m from A is
10 kN
___________ kN.
10 kN/m
a – 90 b 90 a) b)
c 50 d 30 [Ans. : d] 2m 2m
Q.263 For the beam shown in Fig. 2.8, the 10 kN 20 kN 10 kN

bending moment at a distance of 1 m
from A is ___________ kNm. c)
1m 1m
d)
1m 1m 1m
a – 150 b 150
c – 240 d 240 [Ans. : a]
[Ans. : d]
bending moment at a distance of 3 m Q.270 For the beam shown in Fig. 2.9 , the
from A is ___________ kNm. point of contraflexure is at a distance of
a – 150 b 150 ___________ m from A.
c – 25 d 240 [Ans. : c]
40 kN 20 kN
Q.265 For the beam shown in Fig. 2.8, B.M.D is
a horizontal straight line in the region A D
B C
___________ . 3m 3m 3m
a AB b BC Fig. 2.9
TM

a 3 b 4 Q.277 For the beam shown in Fig. 2.10, the

c 5 d 7 [Ans. : b] shear force at a distance of 7 m from A is
___________ kN.
a 17.5 b 7.5
shear force is zero at a distance of
___________ m from A. c – 2.5 d – 12.5 [Ans. : d]

10 kN
10 kN/m from A is ___________ kNm.
A B
C a 17.5 b 35
5m 5m
c 52.5 d 70 [Ans. : a]
Fig. 2.10
b Q.279 For the beam shown in Fig. 2.10, the
a 5 2.5 bending moment at a distance of 2 m
c 5.75 d 7.5 [Ans. : c] from A is ___________ kNm.
a 17.5 b 35
bending moment is maximum at a c 52.5 d 70 [Ans. : b]
distance of ___________ m from A.
a 5 b 2.5 bending moment at a distance of 3 m
c 5.75 d 7.5 [Ans. : c] from A is ___________ kNm.
a 17.5 b 35
maximum bending moment is c 52.5 d 70 [Ans. : c]
___________ kNm.
a 20 b 30 bending moment at a distance of 4 m
c 20.3 d 25 [Ans. : c] from A is ___________ kNm.
a 17.5 b 35
shear force at a distance of 2 m from A is c 52.5 d 70 [Ans. : d]
___________ kN.
a 17.5 b 7.5 bending moment at a distance of 5 m
c – 2.5 d – 12.5 [Ans. : a] from A is ___________ kNm.
a 65 b 82.5
shear force at a distance of 3 m from A is c 87.5 d 90 [Ans. : c]
___________ kN.
a 17.5 b 7.5 bending moment at a distance of 6 m
c – 2.5 d – 12.5 [Ans. : a] from A is ___________ kNm.
a 65 b 82.5
shear force at a distance of 6 m from A is c 87.5 d 90
___________ kN. [Ans. : d]
a 17.5 b 7.5
c – 2.5 d – 12.5 [Ans. : c] from A is ___________ kNm.
TM

a 65 b 82.5 Q.290 For the beam shown in Fig. 2.11, the

c 87.5 d 90 shear force at a distance of 4 m from A is
[Ans. : b] ___________ kN.
Q.285 For the beam shown in Fig. 2.10, the a – 3.33 b 2.5
c 6.67 d 9.17
from A is ___________ kNm. [Ans. : a]
a 65 b 82.5 Q.291 For the beam shown in Fig. 2.11, the
c 87.5 d 90 shear force at a distance of 5 m from A is
[Ans. : a] ___________ kN.
Q.286 For the beam shown in Fig. 2.11, the a – 3.33 b – 10.83
shear force just to the right of A is
c 6.67 d 9.17
___________ kN. [Ans. : b]
10 kN/m shear force is zero at a distance of
___________ m from A.
a 3 b 4
c 3.464 d 5
A B [Ans. : c]
6m
shear force is zero at a distance of
Fig. 2.11
___________ m from A.
a b
10 20 a 3 b 4
c 25 d 30 c 3.464 d 5
[Ans. : a] [Ans. : c]
Q.287 For the beam shown in Fig. 2.11, the Q.294 For the beam shown in Fig. 2.11, the
shear force at a distance of 1 m from A is bending moment is maximum at a
___________ kN. distance of ___________ m from A.
a – 3.33 b 2.5 a 3 b 4
c 6.67 d 9.17 c 3.464 d 5
[Ans. : d] [Ans. : c]
Q.288 For the beam shown in Fig. 2.11, the Q.295 For the beam shown in Fig. 2.11 , the
shear force at a distance of 2 m from A is maximum bending moment is
___________ kN. ___________ kNm.
a – 3.33 b 2.5 a 22.5 b 17.78
c 6.67 d 9.17 c 9.72 d 23.09
[Ans. : c] [Ans. : d]
Q.289 For the beam shown in Fig. 2.11, the Q.296 For the beam shown in Fig. 2.11, the
shear force at a distance of 3 m from A is bending moment at a distance of 1 m
___________ kN. from A is ___________ kNm.
a – 3.33 b 2.5 a 22.5 b 17.78
c 6.67 d 9.17 c 9.72 d 23.09
[Ans. : b] [Ans. : c]
TM


from A is ___________ kNm.
a 22.5 b 17.78
c 9.72 d 23.09
[Ans. : b]
from A is ___________ kNm.
a 22.5 b 17.78
c 9.72 d 23.09
[Ans. : a]
from A is ___________ kNm.
a 22.22 b 15.28
c 9.72 d 23.09
[Ans. : a]
from A is ___________ kNm.
a 22.22 b 15.28
c 9.72 d 23.09
[Ans. : b]
qqq
TM

Strength of Materials 2-1 Bending Stresses in Beams
3 Bending Stresses in Beams
· If a portion of the beam has constant Where, IXX = Moment of inertia about
bending moment, it causes only normal X - axis
stresses to develop at any section of the · Perpendicular Axes Theorem : Moment
beam in that portion. Such a state of of inertia of an area about an axis
bending is referred to as a state of pure perpendicular to its plane (i.e. the polar
bending or simple bending. In such a moment of inertia) at any point is equal
portion of the beam, the shear force is to the sum of moments of inertia about
dM any two mutually perpendicular axes
zero as V = and M is a constant.
dx through the same point in the plane of
· If the bending moment is not constant the area.
in some portion of the beam, the shear · I ZZ = IXX + IYY
force will be non-zero in that portion.
· KZZ2 = K2 + K2
At any section in such a region of the XX YY
beam there will be normal stress as well · Parallel Axes Theorem : The moment of
as shear stress. Such a portion of the inertia of any area about an axis in its
beam is said to be in a state of plane is the sum of moment of inertia
non-uniform bending. about a parallel axis passing through
· The moment of inertia of a differential the centroid of the area (known as
element of area dA about the X-axis is centroidal axis) and the product of area
defined as the product of its area and and square of the distance between the
the square of its distance from X-axis. two parallel axes.
· The S.I. unit of moment of inertia is m4 . · If AB is an axis parallel to centroidal

axis.
· If the area is concentrated into a strip of
the same area and is placed parallel to I AB = IG + Ad 2
X-axis at a distance KXX such that this Where d is the distance between the two
strip has the same moment of inertia parallel axes.
about X-axis as that of area A, then KXX · KAB 2 = K2 + d2
G
is known as the radius of gyration
about X-axis.
· If KXX is the radius of gyration about
X - axis,
IXX
KXX =
A
(3 - 1)
TM

Sr. Basic area M. I.

No.
Description Figure
b
1. Rectangle
Y bd 3
I XX =
12
db 3
I YY =
12
X X d bd 2
G I ZZ = ( b + d2 )
12
bd 3
I AB =
3
A Y B
2. Triangle bh 3
IXX =
2 h/3 36
bh 3
I AB =
X X 12
G
h/3
A b B
Y
3. Circle pR4 pD4
IXX = IYY = =
4 64
R pR4 pD4
G
I ZZ = =
2 32
X X
Y
4. Semicircle IXX = 0.11 R4
pR4 pD4
I YY = =
X X 8 128
G 4R
–– pR4 pD4
3p
B I AB = =
A R 8 128
Y
5. Quarter circle 4R Y IXX = I YY = 0.055 R4

––
3p
pR4 pD4
I AB = =
16 256
X X
R G 4R
––
3p
A B
Y
TM

· The following assumptions are made in · Neutral axis is the centroidal axis of the
the simple theory of bending : cross-section of the beam.
i) Transverse sections of the beam which s M E
· The flexure formula is y = I = R
are plane before bending remain plane
after bending. · The ratio of moment of inertia of a
ii) The material of the beam is cross-section to the distance of extreme
homogeneous, isotropic and obeys fibres from the neutral axis is known as
the section modulus.
Hooke's law.
iii) The modulus of elasticity is same in
· Section with larger section modulus has
smaller bending stress.
compression and tension.
M
iv) The beam is initially straight and has a · s= Z
uniform cross-section.
· The moment caused by the tensile and
v) Each layer is free to contract and compressive forces on a section about
expand independent of the other layers. neutral axis is known as moment of
resistance.
vi) The beam section is symmetrical about
the plane of bending. · M R c = ( s c ) max Z c and
· For sagging bending moment, the top MRt = ( st ) max Zt
layers of the beam will be in · Flitched beams or composite beams
compression and bottom layers in have cross-section consisting of two or
tension. more materials.
· For an intermediate layer, called the · The different components of the flitched
neutral layer, there is neither beam have the same radius of curvature
compression nor tension. The when subjected to a bending moment.
intersection of the cross-section of beam
with neutral layer is called neutral axis Objective Questions & Answers
(N.A.). for Online Examination
· For hogging bending moment, tension
Uniform and Non - Uniform Bending
zone is above neutral layer and
compression zone below neutral layer. Q.1 The portion of the beam which is in a
state of simple bending has ___________.
· The stress is proportional to the distance
a increasing bending moment
from neutral axis. The stress increases
b decreasing bending moment
from 0 at neutral axis to maximum
value at the outermost layers. c constant bending moment
d zero [Ans. : c]
· If neutral axis is at the centre of the
section, the maximum values of normal Q.2 The portion of the beam which is in a
stress will be same in tension and state of simple bending has ___________.
compression zones. Otherwise the two a only normal stress
maximum values will be different.
b only shear stress
(s ) (s ) E
· ( y c) max = ( yt ) max = R c both normal and shear stresses
c max t max
TM

d neither normal nor shear stress b only shear stress

[Ans. : a]
c both normal and shear stresses
Q.3 The portion of the beam which is in a
d neither normal nor shear stress
state of simple bending has ___________.
[Ans. : c]
a increasing shear force Q.8 If a portion of the beam has zero shear
b decreasing shear force force and zero bending moment, it will
c constant shear force have ___________.
d zero shear force [Ans. : d] a only normal stress

b only shear stress
Q.4 Bending moment in a beam gives rise to
c both normal and shear stresses
___________.
d neither normal nor shear stress
a shear stress
[Ans. : d]
b normal stress Moment of Inertia
c both shear stress and normal stress
Q.9 The unit of radius of gyration is
d neither normal nor shear stress ___________.
[Ans. : b]
a mm b mm 2
state of simple bending has ___________. c mm 3 d mm 4 [Ans. : a]
a zero shear force and
non-zero Q.10 The moment of inertia of an area about
bending moment an axis which is in a plane perpendicular
b non-zero shear force and non-zero to the area is called ___________.
bending moment a radius of gyration
c zero shear force and zero bending b polar moment of inertia
moment
c second moment of area
d non-zero shear force and zero
bending moment zero shear force
[Ans. : a] Q.11 The moment of inertia of a circle with 'D'
Q.6 The portion of the beam which is in a as its diameter about a centroidal axis in
state of non-uniform bending has its plane is ___________.
___________. a pD 2 b pD 2
a zero shear force and non-zero 32 64
bending moment c pD 4 d pD 4
b non-zero shear force and non-zero 32 64 [Ans. : d]
bending moment
Q.12 The moment of inertia of a square of side
c zero shear force and zero bending
'b' about an axis through its centroid is
moment ___________.
d non-zero shear force and zero a b4 b b4
bending moment zero shear force 12 8
[Ans. : b]
c b4 d b3
36 12 [Ans. : a]
state of non-uniform bending has
___________. Q.13 Moment of inertia is a ___________.
a only normal stress
TM

a first moment of area Q.20 M.I. of a circular area of radius R about a

b second moment of area tangent in its plane is ___________.
c third moment of area a pR 4 b 3pR 4
4 4
c pR 4 d 3pR 4
Q.14 M.I. of triangular section about base 2 2 [Ans. : c]
having base 'b' and height 'h' is
___________. Q.21 M.I. of a circular area of radius R about a
tangent perpendicular to its plane is
a bh3 b bh3
___________.
36 12
a pR 4 b 3pR 4
c bh3 d none of the
4 4
64 above [Ans. : b]
c pR 4 d 3pR 4
Q.15 M.I. of hollow circular section whose 2 2 [Ans. : b]
external diameter is 8 mm and internal
diameter 4 mm about centroidal axis is Q.22 The cross section area of a hollow
___________ mm 4 . cylinder has an internal diameter of
50 mm and a thickness of 5 mm. The M.I.
a 437.5 b 337.5
of the cross section about its centroidal
c 237.5 d 188.4 axis is ___________.
[Ans. : d]
a 3.294 ´ 10 5 mm 4
Q.16 The unit of moment of inertia of an area
is ___________. b 1.424´10 5 mm 4
a mm b mm 2 c 1.647 ´ 10 5 mm 4
c mm 3 d mm 4 d 2.848 ´ 10 5 mm 4 [Ans. : a]
[Ans. : d]
Q.17 The polar moment of inertia of a circular Q.23 M.I. of triangular section of base b and
section of diameter 'D' about its height h about its centroidal axis paralel
centroidal axis is ___________. to its base is ___________.
a pD 2 b pD 2 a bh3 b bh3
32 64 36 12
c pD 4 d pD 4 c bh3 d none of the
32 64 [Ans. : c] 64 above [Ans. : a]
Q.18 If IG is M.I. of a rectangle about its Q.24 M.I. of an equilateral triangle of side 'b'
centroidal axis and I AB is M.I. about its about its base is ___________.
base, then ___________.
a b4 b b4
a IG > I AB b IG < I AB 12 36
c IG = I AB d none of the c 2 b4 d 2 b4
above [Ans. : a] 32 32
[Ans. : d]
Q.19 If KXX = 3 mm and KYY = 4 mm for
Q.25 M.I. of a triangle of base b and height h
some area, then K ZZ = ___________ mm.
about an axis passing through its apex
a 3 b 4 and parallel to its base is ___________.
c 5 d 6 [Ans. : c]
TM

a bh3 b bh3 Q.31 The moment of inertia about centroidal

12 36 Y-axis is given by IYY = ___________.
c bh3 d bh3 a ò x 2 dA b ò y 2 dA
4 3 [Ans. : c]
c ò x dA d ò y dA
Q.26 If I AB is the moment of inertia of an area [Ans. : a]
about an axis AB in its plane, IG is M.I.
Bending stresses
of the area about its centroidal axis and d
is the distance between the two parallel Q.32 For sagging bending moment __________.
axes, then ___________.
a tension zone is above N.A
a IG = I AB+ Ad 2
b tension zone is below N.A
b IG = I AB - Ad 2 c tension zone can be either above or
c IG = I AB+ Ad below N.A
d IG = I AB -Ad [Ans. : b] d there is no tension zone

[Ans. : b]
Q.27 Which of the following equations relating Q.33 For hogging bending moment __________.
the three radii of gyration about X, Y and
a tension zone is above N.A
Z axes is correct where Z axis is
perpendicular to the plane of the area ? b tension zone is below N.A
a K ZZ = KXX + KYY c tension zone can be either above or
b KXX = KYY + K ZZ below N.A
2 = 2 + 2 d there is no tension zone
c K ZZ KXX KYY
[Ans. : a]
d None of the above [Ans. : c] Q.34 For sagging bending moment __________.
Q.28 The radius of gyration of a circular area a compression zone is above N.A
of radius R about a centroidal axis in its b compression zone is below N.A
plane is ___________. c compression zone can be either
a R b R above or below N.A
2
d there is no compression zone
c R d 3R [Ans. : a]
4 2 [Ans. : b]
Q.35 For hogging bending moment __________.
Q.29 The radius of gyration of a square of side a compression zone is above N.A
'b' about a centroidal axis in its plane is b compression zone is below N.A
___________.
c compression zone can be either
a b b b
above or below N.A
2 3 3 2
d there is no compression zone
2
c b d b2 [Ans. : b]
2 3 3 2 [Ans. : a] Q.36 For sagging bending moment, at N.A
there is ___________.
Q.30 The moment of inertia about centroidal
X-axis is given by IXX = ___________. a compression
a ò x 2 dA b ò y 2dA
b tension
c neither compression nor tension
c ò x dA d ò y dA
d either compression or tension
[Ans. : b] [Ans. : c]
TM

Q.37 For hogging bending moment, at N.A Q.43 The magnitudes of maximum tensile and
there is ___________. compressive stresses will be same for
a compression ___________.
b tension a rectangular section
c neither compression nor tension b symmetric I - section
d either compression or tension c symmetric C - section

[Ans. : c] d all the above [Ans. : d]
Q.38 Bending stress is proportional to
___________. Q.44 The magnitudes of maximum tensile and
compressive stresses will be different for
a distance from N.A
___________.
b square of distance from N.A
a rectangular section
c width of the section
b T - section with flange and web of
d none of the above [Ans. : a] same dimensions
Q.39 The bending stress is ___________ at the c symmetric C - section
N.A. d symmetric I - section [Ans. : b]
a maximum b minimum
Q.45 The neutral axis coincides with
c zero d none of the ___________ of the cross section of beam.
above [Ans. : c]
a horizontal centroidal axis
Q.40 The change in length of the neutral layer b vertical centroidal axis
is ___________. c X - axis
a maximum b minimum Y - axis d [Ans. : a]
c zero d
none of the
above [Ans. : c] Q.46 Section modulus is a ___________
property of the cross section of beam.
Q.41 In simple theory of bending, it is a elastic b geometric
assumed that the modulus of elasticity is
c both a) and b) d none of the
___________.
above [Ans. : b]
a more in tension than compression
b more in compression than tension Q.47 The ratio of moment of inertia of a cross
section to the distance of extreme fibres
c same in tension and compression from the neutral axis is known as
d none of the above [Ans. : c] ___________.
a elastic modulus
Q.42 In simple theory of bending, it is
assumed that the material is ___________. b rigidity modulus
a homogeneous c section modulus
b isotropic d bulk modulus
[Ans. : c]
c obeys Hooke's law
Q.48 The unit for section modulus is
d all the above [Ans. : d] ___________.
a mm b mm 2
3
c mm d mm 4
[Ans. : c]
TM

Q.49 The bending stress is ___________ Q.54 Three rectangular sections A, B and C
section modulus. have depth 50 mm, 75 mm and 100 mm
a directly proportional to respectively. All have the same width
80 mm. If all of them are subjected to the
b independent of
same bending moment, ___________will
c inversely proportional to have the maximum bending stress.
d proportional to square of a A b B
[Ans. : c]
c C d none of the
Q.50 For a beam with rectangular cross section
above [Ans. : a]
subjected to sagging bending moment,
the relation between section modulus Z1 Q.55 Three rectangular sections A, B and C
in tension zone and section modulus Z2 have depth 50 mm, 75 mm and 100 mm
in compression zone is ___________. respectively. All have the same width
a Z1 > Z2 80 mm. If all of them are subjected to the
b Z1 = Z2 same bending moment, ___________will
have the minimum bending stress.
c Z1 < Z2
a A b B
c C d none of the
Q.51 The bending stress at a point in the cross above [Ans. : c]
section of a beam does not depend upon
___________. Q.56 Three rectangular sections A, B and C
have width 50 mm, 75 mm and 100 mm
a moment of inertia of the cross
respectively. All have the same depth
section
80 mm. If all of them are subjected to the
b bending moment same bending moment, ___________will
c width of section at that point have the maximum bending stress.
d distance of the point from N.A a A b B
[Ans. : c] c C d none of the
Q.52 The bending stress s at distance y from above [Ans. : a]
N.A is given by ___________.
a P Q.57 Three rectangular sections A, B and C
A have width 50 mm, 75 mm and 100 mm
My respectively. All have the same depth
b
I 80 mm. If all of them are subjected to the
same bending moment, ___________will
c either a) or b)
have the minimum bending stress.
a A b B
Q.53 The bending stress s at distance y from c C d none of the
N.A is given by ___________. above [Ans. : c]
a Ey
R Q.58 If y is the distance of centroid from base
My of the cross section, ( y c ) is distance of
b max
I extreme fibre from N.A in compression
c either a) or b) zone and ( yt ) is distance of extreme
max
TM

fibre from N.A in tension zone, then for b ( yt ) max= y + ( y c ) max

sagging bending moment ___________.
c ( y c ) max= y – ( yt ) max
a ( y c ) max= y
d ( yt )max = y – ( y c )max
b ( yt )max = y [Ans. : d]
c ( y c ) max= y + ( yt ) max Q.62 The section modulus Z is given by

___________.
d ( yt ) max= y + ( y c ) max [Ans. : b] a M b I
I y
Q.59 If y is the distance of centroid from base c y d E
of the cross section, ( y c ) is distance of I R [Ans. : b]
max
extreme fibre from N.A in compression
Q.63 The bending stress is zero at ___________.
zone and ( yt ) is distance of extreme
max a top of the section
fibre from N.A in tension zone, then for
b bottom of the section
hogging bending moment ___________.
c middle of the section
a ( y c )max = y
d neutral axis of the section
b ( yt ) max= y [Ans. : d]
Q.64 If ( yt ) max : ( y c ) max is 2 : 1, then the
c ( y c ) max= y + ( yt ) max
ratio ( st ) : (sc ) is ___________.
max max
d ( yt ) max= y + ( y c ) max [Ans. : a]
a 1:1 b 1:2
Q.60 If y is the distance of centroid from base c 2:1 d 1:3 [Ans. : c]
of the cross section, ( y c ) is distance of
max Q.65 If ( st ) max : ( s c ) max is 2 : 1, then the
extreme fibre from N.A in compression
zone and ( yt ) ratio ( yt ) : ( yc ) is ___________.
is distance of extreme max max
max
fibre from N.A in tension zone, then for a 1:1 b 1:2
sagging bending moment ___________. c 2:1 d 1:3
a ( y c ) max= y + ( yt ) max [Ans. : c]
Q.66 A simply supported beam of length L
b ( yt ) max= y + ( y c ) max carries a point load at the centre. The
bending stresses will be maximum at a
c ( y c )max = y – ( yt )max
distance of ___________ from the left end.
d ( yt ) max= y – ( y c ) max [Ans. : c] a 0 b L/4
c L/2 d 3L/4
Q.61 If y is the distance of centroid from base [Ans. : c]
of the cross section, ( y c ) is distance of Q.67 A cantilever beam of length L carries a
max
extreme fibre from N.A in compression point load at the free end. The bending
zone and ( yt ) is distance of extreme stresses will be maximum at a distance of
max
___________ from the fixed end.
fibre from N.A in tension zone, then for
a 0 b L/4
hogging bending moment ___________.
a ( y c ) max= y + ( yt ) max c L/2 d 3L/4
[Ans. : a]
TM

Strength of Materials 3 - 10 Bending Stresses in Beams
Q.68 A cantilever beam of length L carries a Q.73 A beam has a triangular cross section of
u.d.l throughout its length. The bending base b and height h. It is subjected to
stresses will be maximum at a distance of sagging bending moment. The maximum
___________ from the fixed end. compressive stress will be at a distance of
a 0 b L/4 ___________ from base.
a h b h
c L/2 d 3L/4
[Ans. : a] 2 3
Q.69 A simply supported beam AB of length L c 2h d h [Ans. : d]
carries uniformly varying load of 3
intensity varying from 0 at A to w per Q.74 A beam has a triangular cross section of
unit run at B. The bending stresses are base b and height h. It is subjected to
maximum at a distance of ___________ sagging bending moment. The maximum
from A. tensile stress will be at a distance of
a L b L ___________ from N.A.
2 3
a h b h
c L d L 2 3
3 2 [Ans. : c] 2h
c d 0 [Ans. : b]
3
Q.70 A beam has a triangular cross section of
base b and height h. It is subjected to Q.75 A beam has a triangular cross section of
sagging bending moment. The maximum base b and height h. It is subjected to
magnitude of bending stress will be at a hogging bending moment. The maximum
distance of ___________ from N.A. magnitude of bending stress will be at a
a h b h distance of ___________ from N.A.
2 3 a h b h
c 2h d h [Ans. : c] 2 3
3 c 2h d h [Ans. : c]
3
tensile stress will be at a distance of hogging bending moment. The maximum
___________ from base. tensile stress will be at a distance of
a h b h ___________ from base.
2 3 a h b h
c 2h d 0 [Ans. : d] 3
3 c 2h d 0 [Ans. : a]
3
magnitude of bending stress will be at a hogging bending moment. The maximum
distance of ___________ from base. magnitude of bending stress will be at a
a h b h distance of ___________ from base.
2 3 a h b h
c 2h d h [Ans. : d] 2 3
3
TM

c 2h d h [Ans. : d] Q.83 The cross section of a beam is symmetric

3 I - section. It is subjected to hogging
bending moment. The ratio of maximum
tensile stress to maximum compressive
base b and height h. It is subjected to
stress is ___________ .
hogging bending moment. The maximum
compressive stress will be at a distance of a 1:1 b 1:2
___________ from base. c 2:1 d 1:3 [Ans. : a]
a 0 b h
3 Q.84 The cross section of a beam is a
T - section with the same dimensions of
c 2h d h [Ans. : a]
3 flange and web is subjected to sagging
bending moment. If ( st ) is the
max
maximum bending stress in tension and
base b and height h. It is subjected to
(sc ) is the maximum bending stress
max
hogging bending moment. The maximum
tensile stress will be at a distance of in compression, ___________ .
___________ from N.A. a ( st ) max > ( s c ) max
a h b h
2 3 b ( st ) max < ( s c ) max
c 2h d 0 [Ans. : c] c ( st ) max = ( s c ) max
3
d none of the above [Ans. : a]
base b and height h. It is subjected to Q.85 The cross section of a beam is a
hogging bending moment. The ratio of T - section with the same dimensions of
maximum tensile stress to maximum flange and web is subjected to hogging
compressive stress is ___________ . bending moment. If ( st ) is the
max
a 1:1 b 1:2 maximum bending stress in tension and
c 2:1 d 1:3 [Ans. : c] ( s c ) max
is the maximum bending stress
in compression, ___________ .
base b and height h. It is subjected to a ( st ) max > ( s c ) max
sagging bending moment. The ratio of
maximum tensile stress to maximum
b ( st ) max < ( s c ) max
compressive stress is ___________ . c ( st ) max = ( s c ) max
a 1:1 b 1:2
c 2:1 d 1:3 [Ans. : b]
Q.86 An asymmetric I - section consists of a
Q.82 The cross section of a beam is symmetric
web, a bottom flange and a top flange.
I - section. It is subjected to sagging
The two flanges have the same width but
bending moment. The ratio of maximum
the top flange has more depth than the
tensile stress to maximum compressive
bottom flange. The beam is subjected to
stress is ___________ .
sagging bending moment. If ( st ) is
max
a 1:1 b 1:2
the maximum bending stress in tension
c 2:1 d 1:3 [Ans. : a]
TM

and ( s c ) max is the maximum bending bottom flange. The beam is subjected to
hogging bending moment. If ( st ) is
stress in compression, ___________ . max
a ( st ) max > ( s c ) max the maximum bending stress in tension

and ( s c ) is the maximum bending
max
b ( st ) max < ( s c ) max stress in compression, ___________ .
c ( st ) max = ( s c ) max a ( st ) max > ( s c ) max
d none of the above [Ans. : a] b ( st ) max < ( s c ) max
Q.87 An asymmetric I - section consists of a c ( st ) max = ( s c ) max
web, a bottom flange and a top flange.
The two flanges have the same width but d none of the above [Ans. : a]
the top flange has more depth than the
Q.90 A symmetric I - section is subjected to
bottom flange. The beam is subjected to
hogging bending moment. If ( st ) is
hogging bending moment. If ( st ) is max
max
and ( s c ) is the maximum bending
and ( s c ) is the maximum bending max
max
stress in compression, ___________ .
stress in compression, ___________ .
a ( st ) max > ( s c ) max
c ( st ) max = ( s c ) max
c ( st ) max = ( s c ) max
Q.91 A symmetric I - section is subjected to
web, a bottom flange and a top flange. max
The two flanges have the same width but the maximum bending stress in tension
the top flange has smaller depth than the and ( s c ) is the maximum bending
max
bottom flange. The beam is subjected to stress in compression, ___________ .
max a ( st ) max > ( s c ) max
and ( s c ) is the maximum bending b ( st ) max < ( s c ) max
max
stress in compression, ___________ . c ( st ) max = ( s c ) max
Q.92 The sagging bending moment at a
c ( st ) max = ( s c ) max particular section of a beam is 200 N m.
The section is rectangular of dimensions
d none of the above [Ans. : b] 30 mm ´ 40 mm. The maximum tensile
stress in the section is ___________MPa .
web, a bottom flange and a top flange. a 25 b 50
The two flanges have the same width but c 250 d 500
the top flange has smaller depth than the [Ans. : a]
TM

(Hint : Refer example 3.11.1 from main book) The section is rectangular of dimensions
Q.93 The sagging bending moment at a 30 mm ´ 40 mm. The stress at a distance
particular section of a beam is 200 N m. of 5 mm above the N.A of the section is
The section is rectangular of dimensions ___________ .
30 mm ´ 40 mm. The maximum a 6.25 MPa (T) b 6.25 MPa (C)
compressive stress in the section is c 18.75 MPa (T) d 18.75 MPa (C)
___________MPa . [Ans. : b]
a 25 b 50 (Hint : Refer example 3.11.1 from main book)
c 250 d 500 [Ans. : a] Q.98 The hogging bending moment at a
particular section of a beam is 200 N m.
particular section of a beam is 200 N m. of 5 mm from the bottom of the section
The section is rectangular of dimensions is ___________ .
30 mm ´ 40 mm. The stress at a distance a 6.25 MPa (T) b 6.25 MPa (C)
of 5 mm from the bottom of the section
c 18.75 MPa (T) d 18.75 MPa (C)
is ___________ . [Ans. : d]
a 6.25 MPa (T) b 6.25 MPa (C) (Hint : Refer example 3.11.1 from main book)
c 18.75 MPa (T) d 18.75 MPa (C) Q.99 The hogging bending moment at a
[Ans. : c]
particular section of a beam is 200 N m. of 5 mm below the N.A of the section is
of 5 mm below the N.A of the section is
c 18.75 MPa (T) d 18.75 MPa (C)
___________ . [Ans. : b]
c 18.75 MPa (T) d 18.75 MPa (C) Q.100 The hogging bending momen at a
[Ans. : a]
particular section of a beam is 200 N m. of 5 mm from the top of the section is
of 5 mm from the top of the section is
c 18.75 MPa (T) d 18.75 MPa (C)
___________ . [Ans. : c]
c 18.75 MPa (T) d 18.75 MPa (C) Q.101 The hogging bending moment at a
[Ans. : d]
TM

of 5 mm above the N.A of the section is moment. If the maximum compressive

___________ . stress in the section is 90 MPa, the
a 6.25 MPa (T) b 6.25 MPa (C) maximum tensile stress is
___________MPa .
c 18.75 MPa (T) d 18.75 MPa (C)
[Ans. : a] a 60 b 135
(Hint : Refer example 3.11.1 from main book) c 225 d 150 [Ans. : b]
Q.102 A section of a beam has a depth of (Hint : Refer example 3.11.2 from main book)
100 mm. Its centroid is at a distance of
40 mm above the base of the section. The Q.106 A section of a beam has a depth of
beam is subjected to sagging bending 100 mm. Its centroid is at a distance of
moment. If the maximum tensile stress in 40 mm above the base of the section. The
the section is 90 MPa, the maximum beam is subjected to sagging bending
compressive stress is ___________MPa . moment. If the maximum tensile stress in
the section is 90 MPa, the stress at a
a 60 b 135
distance of 30 mm above N.A is
c 225 d 150 [Ans. : b] ___________.
(Hint : Refer example 3.11.2 from main book) a 45 MPa (T) b 45 MPa (C)
Q.103 A section of a beam has a depth of c 67.5 MPa (T) d 67.5 MPa (C)
[Ans. : d]
40 mm above the base of the section. The
beam is subjected to sagging bending Q.107 A section of a beam has a depth of
moment. If the maximum compressive 100 mm. Its centroid is at a distance of
stress in the section is 90 MPa, the 40 mm above the base of the section. The
maximum tensile stress is beam is subjected to sagging bending
___________MPa . moment. If the maximum tensile stress in
a 60 b 135 the section is 90 MPa, the stress at a
distance of 30 mm below N.A is
c 225 d 150 [Ans. : a]
___________.
(Hint : Refer example 3.11.2 from main book) a 45 MPa (T) b 45 MPa (C)
Q.104 A section of a beam has a depth of c 67.5 MPa (T) d 67.5 MPa (C)
100 mm. Its centroid is at a distance of [Ans. : c]
40 mm above the base of the section. The (Hint : Refer example 3.11.2 from main book)
beam is subjected to hogging bending Q.108 A section of a beam has a depth of
moment. If the maximum tensile stress in 100 mm. Its centroid is at a distance of
the section is 90 MPa, the maximum 40 mm above the base of the section. The
compressive stress is ___________MPa . beam is subjected to hogging bending
a 60 b 135 moment. If the maximum tensile stress in
c 225 d 150 [Ans. : a] the section is 90 MPa, the stress at a
distance of 30 mm above N.A is
(Hint : Refer example 3.11.2 from main book) ___________.
Q.105 A section of a beam has a depth of a 45 MPa (T) b 45 MPa (C)
100 mm. Its centroid is at a distance of c 67.5 MPa (T) d 67.5 MPa (C)
40 mm above the base of the section. The [Ans. : a]
beam is subjected to hogging bending (Hint : Refer example 3.11.2 from main book)
TM


40 mm above the base of the section. The [Ans. : c]
beam is subjected to hogging bending (Hint : Refer example 3.11.2 from main book)
moment. If the maximum tensile stress in
Q.113 A section of a beam has a depth of
the section is 90 MPa, the stress at a
distance of 30 mm below N.A is
___________.
beam is subjected to hogging bending
a 45 MPa (T) b 45 MPa (C) moment. If the maximum tensile stress in
c 67.5 MPa (T) d 67.5 MPa (C) the section is 90 MPa, the stress at a
[Ans. : b] distance of 30 mm below N.A is
(Hint : Refer example 3.11.2 from main book) ___________.
40 mm above the base of the section. The [Ans. : d]
beam is subjected to sagging bending (Hint : Refer example 3.11.2 from main book)
moment. If the maximum compressive
Q.114 The maximum allowable stresses in a
stress in the section is 90 MPa, the stress
beam are 50 MPa in tension and 40 MPa
at a distance of 30 mm above N.A is
in compression. The neutral axis of the
___________.
cross section of beam is at a distance of
a 45 MPa (T) b 45 MPa (C) 80 mm from the base and 100 mm from
c 67.5 MPa (T) d 67.5 MPa (C) the top of the section. The moment of
[Ans. : b] inertia of the section about N.A is
(Hint : Refer example 3.11.2 from main book) 20´ 106 mm4. The moment of resistance
Q.111 A section of a beam has a depth of of the section is ___________ kN m.
100 mm. Its centroid is at a distance of a 8 b 10
40 mm above the base of the section. The c 12.5 d 16
beam is subjected to sagging bending [Ans. : b]
moment. If the maximum compressive
Q.115 For the beam loaded as shown in Fig. 3.1,
at a distance of 30 mm below N.A is
___________ part of the beam is in a state
___________.
of pure bending.
a 45 MPa (T) b 45 MPa (C)
10 kN/m 10 kN/m
c 67.5 MPa (T) d 67.5 MPa (C)
[Ans. : a]
(Hint : Refer example 3.11.2 from main book) A D
B C
Q.112 A section of a beam has a depth of
1m 2m 1m
beam is subjected to hogging bending Fig. 3.1
moment. If the maximum compressive a b
AB BC
c CD d none of the
at a distance of 30 mm above N.A is
above
___________.
[Ans. : b]
TM

Q.116 For the beam loaded as shown in Fig. 3.2, Q.118 A simply supported beam with overhang
___________ part of the beam is in a state is loaded with a point load W = 150 kN
of pure bending. as shown in Fig. 3.3(a) and has a cross
section shown in Fig. 3.3(b). At point B,
10 kN ( yt ) = ___________ mm.
max
10 kN m
a 98.82 b 181.18
A
1m 1m c 110 d 140
B C
[Ans. : b]
Fig. 3.2 (Hint : Refer example 3.11.5 of main book)
a b
AB BC Q.119 A simply supported beam with overhang
c AC d none of the is loaded with a point load W = 150 kN
above as shown in Fig. 3.3(a) and has a cross
[Ans. : b] section shown in Fig. 3.3(b). At point B,
( s c ) = ___________ MPa.
max
Q.117 A simply supported beam with overhang a 98.82 b 181.18
is loaded with a point load W = 150 kN
c 77.67 d 142.4
as shown in Fig. 3.3(a) and has a cross [Ans. : c]
( y c ) = ___________ mm.
max
Q.120 A simply supported beam with overhang
a 98.82 b 181.18 is loaded with a point load W = 150 kN
c 110 d 140 as shown in Fig. 3.3(a) and has a cross
[Ans. : a] section shown in Fig. 3.3(b). At point B,
(Hint : Refer example 3.11.5 of main book) ( st ) = ___________ MPa.
max
W a 98.82 b 181.18
c 77.67 d 142.4
[Ans. : d]
900 mm 700 mm
Fig. 3.3 (a) is loaded with a point load W = 150 kN
as shown in Fig. 3.3(a) and has a cross
100 mm section shown in Fig. 3.3(b). At point B,
s = ___________ MPa.
20 mm
a 31.44 (T) b 31.44 (C)
c 46.23 (T) d 46.23 (C)
20 220 mm [Ans. : d]
40 mm
180 mm
as shown in Fig. 3.3(a) and has a cross
Fig. 3.3 (b) at a distance of 40 mm from the bottom
of the section, s = ___________ MPa.
TM

a 31.44 (T) b 31.44 (C) (Hint : Refer example 3.11.5 of main book)
c 46.23 (T) d 46.23 (C) Q.127 A beam of length 4 m carries a point
[Ans. : d]
load of 3 kN at the centre and is simply
(Hint : Refer example 3.11.5 of main book) supported at its ends. The cross section of
Q.123 A simply supported beam with overhang the beam is shown in Fig. 3.4. The
is loaded with a point load W = 150 kN maximum compressive stress in the beam
as shown in Fig. 3.3(a) and has a cross due to bending is ___________ MPa.
50 mm
at a distance of 20 mm from the top of
the section, s = ___________ MPa.
60 mm
a 126.7 (T) b 126.7 (C)
c 15.72 (T) d 15.72 (C)
[Ans. : a]
(Hint : Refer Example 3.11.5 of main book)
Fig. 3.4
a b
as shown in Fig. 3.3(a) and has a cross 25 50
section shown in Fig. 3.3(b). At point B, c 100 d 150
at a distance of 40 mm below N.A of the [Ans. : c]
section, s = ___________ MPa. Q.128 A beam of length 4 m carries a point
a 31.44 (T) b 31.44 (C) load of 3 kN at the centre and is simply
supported at its ends. The cross section of
c 46.23 (T) d 46.23 (C)
[Ans. : b] the beam is shown in Fig. 3.4. The
maximum tensile stress in the beam due
to bending is ___________ MPa.
a 25 b 50
as shown in Fig. 3.3(a) and has a cross c 100 d 150
[Ans. : c]
at a distance of 20 mm above the N.A of Q.129 A cantilever beam of length 1 m carries a
the section, s = ___________ MPa. point load of 3 kN at its free end. The
cross section of the beam is shown in
a 126.7 (T) b 126.7 (C)
Fig. 3.4. The maximum tensile stress in
c 15.72 (T) d 15.72 (C) the beam due to bending is _______ MPa.
[Ans. : c]
a 20 b 40
c 60 d 100
Q.126 A simply supported beam with overhang [Ans. : d]
is loaded with a point load W = 150 kN Q.130 A cantilever beam of length 1 m carries a
as shown in Fig. 3.3(a) and has a cross point load of 3 kN at its free end. The
section shown in Fig. 3.3(b). At point B, cross section of the beam is shown in
the radius of curvature = ___________ . Fig. 3.4. The maximum compressive stress
Assume E = 200 GPa. in the beam due to bending is
a 254.5 m b 254.5 mm ___________ MPa.
c 2.545 m d 2.545 mm a 20 b 40
[Ans. : a]
c 60 d 100
[Ans. : d]
TM

Q.131 A cantilever beam of length 900 mm

carries a uniformly distibuted load of
2 kN/m throughout its length. The cross
section of the beam is shown in Fig. 3.4.
The maximum tensile stress in the beam
due to bending is ___________ MPa.
a 27 b 54
c 60 d 100
[Ans. : a]
qqq
TM

4 Shear Stresses in Beams
O
· Shear stress in a beam subjected to
bending moment is
V Ay
t =
bI tmax
· For rectangular section of a beam,
3
t max = t
2 avg
O t
· For circular section of a beam,
4 Fig. 4.1 (c)
t max = t
3 avg
· Stress distribution patterns for various O
sections :
O tmax
tmax
d
tmax
N A
O t
Fig. 4.1 (d)
O
b
t
Fig. 4.1 (a) tmax

N A
O
tmax
Fig. 4.1 (e)
· Shear stress variation across any section

of beam is parabolic in nature.
O t
Fig. 4.1 (b)
(4 - -1)An up thrust for knowledge

TECHNICAL PUBLICATIONS
TM
Strength of Materials 4-2 Shear Stresses in Beams
a t max = 3/2 t mean

· Shear stress for plane cross-section of
beam is maximum at N.A. b t max = t mean
c t max = 2/3 t mean
· A beam under action of shear force, has
zero shear stresses at extreme/outermost d t max = 4 / 3 t mean [Ans. : d]
layers, irrespect of end condition or Q.4 In case of a circular section the maximum
cross-section of beam. shear stress is ______ percent more than
· If beam is made of varying the mean shear stress.
cross-section, maximum shear stress is a 10 b 20
at minimum width of cross-section or at c 33.33 d 66.66 [Ans. : c]
N.A. of section.
Q.5 In case of square section the maximum
· Strength of additional section or at shear stress is _______ percent more than
change in section with external joints is the mean shear.
always compared with shear flow at the a 50 or 12.5 b 52 or 10.5
same section. c 45 or 15.5 d none of above
· Addition of supporting plates to parent [Ans. : a]
cross-section of beam will reduce shear Q.6 A beam of square section subject to a
stress but increases bending stress in shear force 'S' is so placed that one of its
diagonals is horizontal. The ratio of
section.
maximum shear stress to mean shear
· Depend on sagging or hogging nature stress for this condition is ______.
of beam deflection, maximum dimension a 8/9 b 7
of cross-section can be placed in the 9
plane of bending moment by selecting c 9/7 d 9/8 [Ans. : d]
appropriate beam cross-section
Q.7 In case of a symmetric I-section beam
orientation.
maximum shear stress is at ______.
Objective Questions & Answers a junction of top flange and web

b middle of web
for Online Examination
c either (a) or (b)
Q.1 If the bending moment is constant there d none of the above [Ans. : b]
will be no _____ stresses.
a tensile b compressive Q.8 A square section with side 'x' of beam is
subjected to a shear force 'S', the
c shearing d none of above
magnitude of shear stress at the top edge
[Ans. : c]
of the square is ________.
Q.2 In case of a rectangular section ______.
a 1.5 S b S
a 1
t max = t mean x2 x2
2
c 0.55 d zero [Ans. : d]
b t max = t mean
x2
c t max = 3 / 2 t mean
d t max = 5/2 t mean [Ans. : c]
Q.3 In case of a circular section _______.
TM

Q.9 When a beam is subjected to a transverse Q.11 A

τ=0
shearing force, the shear stress in the bea
upper fibres will be ______. m
a maximum b minimum of
tmax
'T'
sect
above [Ans. : c]
ion
Q.10 A is
τ=0
bea sub τ=0
m ject
of tmax
rect ed
ang to τ=0
ular she
sect ar
τ=0
ion forc tmax
of e of
width b and depth d, subjected to shear 'V'
forc N,
τ=0 has
e
τ=0
'V' tmax she
N, ar
has stress distribution pattern as _______.
she a τ=0
ar
stre
ss τ=0 tmax
dist
ribution pattern as ______
a τ=0
τ=0
tmax
b τ=0
τ=0 tmax
b
c
τ=0
d none of this [Ans. : c)
c
d
TM

d [Ans. : d]
[Ans. : a]
Q.12 A beam of hollow circular section, Q.13 A beam of any section subjected to shear
sub force 'F' N, shear stress at extreme layer
ject τ=0 has ______.
ed a maximum value
to b minimum value
she tmax
c average value
ar
forc d zero value [Ans. : d]
e of
Q.14 A beam made of uniform section
'V' τ=0 (rectangular, circle etc.) subjected to shear
N,
force, has its maximum shear stress in the
has shear stress variation pattern as
section at ______.
___ τ=0
___. a neutral axis
a tmax b any axis of beam

c at extreme layer
d none of above [Ans. : a]
Q.15 Shear stress variation across any section

of beam which is under influence of
τ=0
shear forces is ______.
a linear b parabolic
b τ=0 c hyperbolic d exponential
[Ans. : b]
Q.16 A beam made of varying section (T, I, C,
etc.) subjected to shear force, has its
tmax
maximum shear stress in the section at
_______.
a at extreme layer
b centroidal axis
τ=0
c width of minimum cross-section
d width of maximum cross-section
c τ=0 [Ans. : c]
Q.17 For better strength of frame made up
with shear joint, the condition that must
tmax satisfy is _____ .
a shear flow at section is equal to
shear strength of joint
b shear strength of joint is less than
τ=0 shear flow at section
c shear strength of joint is maximum
than maximum shear stress in the
section.
TM

d none of above [Ans. : a] Q.23 If width of the section at the top is less
Q.18 A beam AB of length L simply supported than that at the bottom, the shear stress
at its ends carries a uniformly distributed at the top is ___________ the shear stress
load of w kN/m throughout its length. at the bottom.
The beam has a rectangular cross section a less than b more than
of width b and depth d. The shear stress c equal to d none of the
is maximum at ___________. above
a A b B [Ans. : c]
c both A and B d centre of the Q.24 If width of the section at the top is more
than that at the bottom, the shear stress
beam [Ans. : c]
at the top is ___________ the shear stress
Q.19 A beam AB of length L simply supported at the bottom.
at its ends carries a uniformly distributed a less than b more than
load of w kN/m throughout its length.
c equal to d none of the
The beam has a rectangular cross section
above
of width b and depth d. The shear stress [Ans. : c]
is minimum at ___________.
Q.25 A beam AB of length L simply supported
a A b B at its ends carries a uniformly distributed
c both A and B d centre of the load of w kN/m throughout its length.
beam [Ans. : d]
of width b and depth d. The shear stress
Q.20 To find the shear stress at the neutral is zero at all points of the section at
___________.
axis, we can take moment of area
___________. a A
a above N.A. b below N.A. b B
c either a) or b) d both above and c centre of the beam
below N.A. d none of the above [Ans. : c]
[Ans. : c]
Q.21 If the width of section at a particular Q.26 A beam AB of length L simply supported
distance from N.A suddenly decreases (as at its ends carries a uniformly distributed
in case of T - section), the shear stress load of w kN/m throughout its length.
___________.
of width b and depth d. The shear stress
a increases b decreases is constant along ___________.
c remains same d none of the a the depth of the section
above [Ans. : a] b the width of the section
Q.22 If the width of section at a particular c the length of the beam
distance from N.A suddenly increases (as d both (b) and (c) [Ans. : b]
in case of T - section), the shear stress
___________. Q.27 A beam AB of length L simply supported
at its ends carries a clockwise couple
a increases
moment M at its centre. The beam has a
b decreases rectangular cross section of width b and
c remains same depth d. The shear stress is constant
along ___________.
a the depth of the section
TM

b the width of the section a steel b copper

c the length of the beam c wood d none of the
d both (b) and (c) [Ans. : d] above [Ans. : d]
Q.28 A cantilever beam AB has fixed support Q.32 A cantilever beam and its cross section
at A and carries a point load P at its free are as shown in Fig. 4.2. The shear stress
end B. The beam has a rectangular cross in layer 1–1 at point B on the beam is
section of width b and depth d. The shear __________ MPa.
stress is constant along ___________. 40 mm
10 kN
20 mm
a the length of the beam
B D E 1 1
A 60 mm
b the width of the section 2m C 2m
2 1
c both (a) and (b) 3m 3m 10 mm
d the depth of the section [Ans. : c]

Fig. 4.2
Q.29 A cantilever beam AB has fixed support
a 5.56 b 3.47
at A and carries a point load P at its free
end B. The beam has a rectangular cross c 55.6 d 0
[Ans. : a]
section of width b and depth d. The shear
stress has parabolic variation along Q.33 A cantilever beam and its cross section
___________. are as shown in Fig. 4.2. The shear stress
in layer 2–2 at point B on the beam is
___________MPa.
b the width of the section
a 5.56 b 3.47
c the depth of the section
c 55.6 d 0
d none of the above [Ans. : c] [Ans. : b]
Q.34 A cantilever beam and its cross section
Q.30 A cantilever beam AB has fixed support
are as shown in Fig. 4.2. The shear stress
at A and carries a clockwise couple
in layer 1–1 at point D on the beam is
moment M at its free end B. The beam
_________ MPa.
has a rectangular cross section of width b
and depth d. The shear stress has a 5.56 b 3.47
parabolic variation along _________. c 55.6 d 0 [Ans. : d]
Q.35 A cantilever beam and its cross section
b the width of the section are as shown in Fig. 4.2. The shear stress
c the depth of the section in layer 2–2 at point D on the beam is
___________MPa.
d none of the above
[Ans. : d] a 5.56 b 3.47
Q.31 Three beams of same rectangular cross c 55.6 d 0 [Ans. : d]
section dimensions but made of steel,
copper and wood are subjected to the Q.36 A cantilever beam and its cross section
same shear force at a section. If the are as shown in Fig. 4.2. The shear stress
modulus of rigidity G is maximum for in neutral layer at point D on the beam is
steel and minimum for wood, the shear _________ MPa.
stress at N.A will be maximum for a 5.56 b 3.47
__________.
c 6.25 d 0 [Ans. : d]
TM

Q.37 A cantilever beam and its cross section Q.39 A beam of length L having rectangular
are as shown in Fig. 4.2. The shear stress cross section of width b and depth d,
in neutral layer at point C on the beam is subjected to a certain loading has
_________ MPa. maximum shear stress t max. The
a 5.56 b 3.47 maximum shear stress in a beam of
length L, width 2b and depth d, subjected
c 6.25 d 0 [Ans. : c]
to the same loading is ___________t max.
Q.38 For which of the following sections, the a 2 b 1
shear stress is not maximum at the 2
neutral axis ? c 4 d 1
a 4 [Ans. : b]
Q.40 A beam of length L having rectangular

cross section of width b and depth d,
d subjected to a certain loading has
maximum shear stress t max. The
maximum shear stress in a beam of
length L, width 0.5b and depth d,
b subjected to the same loading is
___________t max.
b 1
a 2 b
2
r 1
c 4 d
4 [Ans. : a]

c subjected to a certain loading has
b
d maximum shear stress in a beam of
length L, width b and depth 2d, subjected
b a 2 b 1
2
c 4 d 1
4 [Ans. : b]
d
d cross section of width b and depth 0.5d,
a subjected to a certain loading has
b maximum shear stress in a beam of
length L, width b and depth 0.5d,
a
subjected to the same loading is
_________ t max.
b 1
a 2 b
2
[Ans. : d]
TM

c 4 d 1 a n b 1
4 [Ans. : a] n
c n2 d 1
n2 [Ans. : b]
subjected to a certain loading has Q.47 A beam of length L having rectangular
maximum shear stress t max. The cross section of width b and depth d,
maximum shear stress in a beam of subjected to a certain loading has
length L, width 2b and depth 2d, maximum shear stress t max. The
subjected to the same loading is maximum shear stress in a beam of
_________ t max. length L, width nb and depth nd,
a 2 b 1 subjected to the same loading is
2 ___________t max.
c 4 d 1 a n b 1
4 [Ans. : d] n
c n2 d 1
cross section of width b and depth d, n2 [Ans. : d]
subjected to a certain loading has
Q.48 The shear stress variation along the depth
is linear for ___________.
length L, width 0.5b and depth 0.5d, a T - section
subjected to the same loading is b L - section
_________ t max. c C - section
a 2 b 1
2
c 4 d 1 Q.49 The maximum shear stress for a beam
4 [Ans. : c] with rectangular cross section of width b
and depth d subjected to a certain
loading is 100 MPa. The maximum shear
stress for a beam with rectangular cross
section of width 2b and depth d subjected
to the same loading is ___________ MPa.
length L, width nb and depth d, subjected a 50 b 100
to the same loading is ___________t max. c 200 d 150 [Ans. : a]
a n b 1
Q.50 The maximum shear stress for a beam
n
with rectangular cross section of width b
c n2 d 1
n2 [Ans. : b] loading is 100 MPa. The maximum shear
section of width b and depth 2d subjected
to the same loading is ___________ MPa.
maximum shear stress t max. The a 50 b 100
maximum shear stress in a beam of c 200 d 150 [Ans. : a]
length L, width b and depth nd, subjected
TM

Q.51 The maximum shear stress for a beam and depth d subjected to a certain
with rectangular cross section of width b loading is 100 MPa. The shear stress at a
and depth d subjected to a certain distance d/4 from the neutral axis is
loading is 100 MPa. The maximum shear ___________ MPa.
a 100 b 75
section of width 2b and depth 2d
subjected to the same loading is c 50 d 0 [Ans. : b]
___________ MPa.
a 50 b 100 with rectangular cross section of width b
c 200 d 25 [Ans. : d] and depth d subjected to a certain
loading is 100 MPa. The shear stress at a
Q.52 The maximum shear stress for a beam distance d/3 from the neutral axis is
with rectangular cross section of width b ___________ MPa.
a 100 b 75
stress for a beam with rectangular cross c 50 d 83.33 [Ans. : d]
section of width 0.5b and depth d
___________ MPa.
a 50 b 100 loading is t max. The shear stress at a
c 200 d 150 [Ans. : c] distance d/4 from N.A is _________ t max.
a 1/4 b 1/2
with rectangular cross section of width b c 3/4 d 3/2 [Ans. : c]
section of width b and depth 0.5d
loading is t max. The shear stress at a
distance d/3 from N.A is _________ t max.
___________ MPa.
a 1/3 b 5/9
a 50 b 100
c 1/9 d 3/2
c 200 d 150 [Ans. : c] [Ans. : b]
Q.54 The maximum shear stress for a beam Q.59 The shear stress distribution shown in
with rectangular cross section of width b Fig. 4.3 is for _________ section.
section of width 0.5b and depth 0.5d
___________ MPa. Fig. 4.3
a 20 b 10
a T b L
c 5 d 40
[Ans. : d] c C d I
Q.55 The maximum shear stress for a beam [Ans. : a]
TM

Strength of Materials 4 - 10 Shear Stresses in Beams
Q.60 The shear stress distribution shown in Q.65 If depth of a rectangular section is
Fig. 4.4 is for ___________ section. increased keeping its width constant,
maximum shearing stress _________ and
maximum bending stress __________.
a increases, increases
b increases, decreases
c decreases, decreases
Fig. 4.4 d decreases, increases
[Ans. : c]
a T b L Q.66 If width of a rectangular section is
c C d I increased keeping its depth constant,
[Ans. : b] maximum shearing stress _________ and
Q.61 The shear stress distribution shown in maximum bending stress _________.
Fig. 4.4 is for ___________ section. a increases, increases
a inverted T b increases, decreases
b L c decreases, decreases
c either inverted T or L d decreases, increases [Ans. : c]
d I [Ans. : c]
Q.67 The bending moment on a beam
Q.62 The shear stress distribution shown in decreases uniformly from M2 to M1 over
Fig. 4.5 is for ___________ section. a length of x along the beam from left to
right. The shear stress in this region is
___________.
a xAy
bI
b xAy
( M2 - M1) b I
Fig. 4.5
c ( M2 - M1) A y
a T b L xbI
c C d none of the d none of the above [Ans. : c]
above [Ans. : c]
Q.68 A beam of any section, subjected to shear
Q.63 The shear stress distribution shown in force 'f'. The shear stress induced in any
Fig. 4.5 is for ___________ section. section and at any level in the beam is
a I b L a FA y b FA y2
c T d none of the I Ib
above c FA y d FA y
[Ans. : a] Ib 2I b [Ans. : c]
Q.64 The shear stress distribution shown in
Fig. 4.5 is for _________ section. Q.69 A beam is made of inverted 'T' section, as
a I b C shown in Fig. 4.6.
c either I or C d none of the
above [Ans. : c]
TM

b Q.73 A SSB of 5 m span, with rectangular

d = 3b cross-section is as shown in Fig. 4.7.
2
Shear stress in N/mm at point 'E', at
d 10 mm distance above N.A. for given
section is _________.
b
90 N 10 m
40 mm
d N A
A B
C D E
Fig. 4.6 1m
1.5 m 2m 1.5 m Beam section

The beam of above section subjected to
20 mm
shear-force 'F' has its ratio of maximum
Fig. 4.7
shear stress to mean shear stress as
_______. a 1.354 b 0.0885
a 1.12 b 2.12 c 0.254 d 0.364 [Ans. : b]
c 1.10 d 2.15 [Ans. : b]
Q.74 For beam condition, given in Fig. 4.7, the
Q.70 Shear stress in a beam subjected to shear ratio of maximum shear stress to shear
force 'F', is inversely proportional to stress at 'E', at distance 10 mm above
_____ N.A. is ________.
a moment of inertia of section and a 1.333 b 1.345
width of section c 1.357 d 0.750 [Ans. : a]
b polar moment of inertia of section
Q.75 A SSB of 7 m span with triangular
and area above neutral axis
cross-section is as shown in Fig. 4.8.
c area of whole section and inertia of 2
Shear stress in N/mm at point 'D', at
section 10 mm above N.A. is ______.
d none of above [Ans. : a] 70 kN
200 mm
Q.71 A beam of circular section, subjected to A B
200 mm
shear force 'F', has maximum shear stress C D
at neutral axis as ________.
2m 2m 3m Beam section
a 3 F b 4 F 200 mm
´
4 p R2 3 p R2
Fig. 4.8
c 5 F d 4 F
4 p R2 5 p R2 a 1.7497 b 2.7497
[Ans. : b] c 0.7497 d 1.6497 [Ans. : d]
Q.72 A beam of square section subjected to Q.76 For a beam as shown in Fig. 4.8, the ratio
shear force 'F', has maximum shear stress of maximum shear stress to shear stress
at neutral axis as _______. at 'D', at distance 10 mm above N.A is
______.
a 2 F b 2 F
3 bd 5 bd a 2.339 b 3.339
c 3 F d 3 F c 4.339 d none of above

2bd 5 bd [Ans. : a]
[Ans. : c]
TM

Q.77 For a beam as shown in Fig. 4.7, shear

2
stress in N/mm at point 'C', at 5 mm
b
below N.A for given section is ___ τ=0
a 0.0744 b 0.0447
c 0.0474 d 0.447 [Ans. : c]
tmaxi
Q.78 A beam as shown in Fig. 4.8, shear stress
2
in N/mm at any point between section
A and C, at 10 mm above N.A. is ____.
a 4.241 b 4.412
c 4.124 d 4.421 [Ans. : c]
Q.79 A SSB of 5 m span with circular c

τ=0
cross-section is as shown in Fig. 4.9.
2
Maximum shear stress in N/mm , at any
point between section C and B, at N.A. of tmaxi
section is ______.
10 kN
A B
C
Beam section
2.5 m 2.5 m 100 mm
Fig. 4.9 d
τ=0
a 0.848 b 0.748
c 0.478 d 0.874 [Ans. : a]
tmaxi
Q.80 For similar beam condition with similar
section V as shown in Fig. 4.9, the shear
2
stress N/mm , at D/2 of beam distance
from N.A. is _______.
a 0.748 b 0.478 [Ans. : c]
c 0 d 0.628 [Ans. : c]
Q.82 A beam is made with two orientation of
Q.81 A beam of I-section with horizontal similar 'I' - section. The ______ has
positioned web, has shear stress maximum value of shear stress at N.A.
distribution pattern as _______.
B
a
τ=0 D
d b
N A N A
tmaxi
Beam - I Beam - II
Fig. 4.10
TM

a beam I b beam II Q.87 A beam of span 3 m, carrying UDL is as

c beam I and II d none of above shown in Fig. 4.12 has a circular
[Ans. : a] cross-section.
Q.83 To avoid failure of beam under shear
stresses due to applied bending moment 7 kN/m
'M', the orientation should be selected on
the basis of _______ in the plane of A
B C
bending.
a maximum bending stress 2m 1m 100 mm
b maximum shear stress
Beam section
c maximum inertia of beam section
Fig. 4.12
d maximum resisting torque by section
[Ans. : c] For given condition of beam loading,
2
Q.84 A beam of span 5 m, carrying UDL is as shear stress (N/mm ) induced in beam
shown in Fig. 4.11. The beam is made of section at N.A. at just L.H.S. of B is, ___.
rectangular cross-section. a 2.485 b 2.854
For given condition of loading, shear c 1.485 d zero [Ans. : c]
2
stress (N/mm ) induced in beam section
at 5 mm above N.A., at just R.H.S. of B Q.88 For above given beam condition Fig. 4.12,
is _________. shear stress at D/2 distance from N.A at
a 1.469 b 1.946 point 'A' is ______.
2 2
c 2.946 d 1.496 [Ans. : d] a 3.250 N/mm b 2.350 N/mm
2 2
c zero N/mm d 1.250 N/mm
Q.85 For above given beam condition Fig. 4.11, [Ans. : c]
shear stress at N.A. of beam section at Q.89 For above given loading of a beam as
0.833 m distance from support 'A' is ____. shown in Fig. 4.12, shear stress at any
2 2
a 0.469 N/mm b 1.490 N/mm layer in beam cross-section at 0.75 m
2 2 distance from support 'A' is, ______.
c 0 N/mm d 2.469 N/mm
2 2
10 kN/m a 3.032 N/mm b 4.032 N/mm
2 2
c 1.032 N/mm d zero N/mm
A
B C [Ans. : d]
200 mm
Q.90 A SSB of span 5 m, carries point moment
3m 2m Beam section of 5 kN.m at mid-span. The beam section
100 mm is equilateral of side 70 mm. The shear
Fig. 4.11 stress at 10 mm distance above N.A., at
[Ans. : c] any point between support is _____.
2 2
Q.86 The ratio of maximum shear stress to a 1.707 N/mm b 0.707 N/mm
shear stress at point 'B', at 5 mm above 2 2
c 2.707 N/mm d 3 N/mm
N.A., for beam shown in Fig. 4.11, is [Ans. : b]
given as ______. Q.91 For a beam condition mentioned in above
a 1.0025 b 1.0035 example 90, the shear stress at N.A is,
c 1.0045 d 1 [Ans. : a] ________.
2 2
a 0.629 N/mm b 0.529 N/mm
2
c 0.829 N/mm d zero [Ans. : a]
TM

Q.92 A beam of 6 m length, subjected to 100 100

loading as shown in Fig. 4.13. 10 10 25 mm
50
250 mm 10 N A 90
2 kN.m 100 N A
D
A B
C
10
3m
4m 2m 500 mm Beam I Beam II
Fig. 4.14
a 2.685 b 3.685
Beam section
c 1.685 d 4.685 [Ans. : c]
Fig. 4.13
Shear stress of any section between point Q.96 A SSB subjected to 'M' N.m moment. To
C and B, at N.A. of section is _____. avoid shear failure of beam, _______ of
2 2 'T' section will be most suitable. Both
a 10 N/mm b 7.23 N/mm
2 2 section are of similar dimensions.
c zero N/mm d 3.50 N/mm
[Ans. : c]
Q.93 For above given beam condition (Q. 92),
shear stress at N.A. of beam section at
any point between supports is _______.
–3 2
a 6 ´ 10 N/mm
b 5 ´ 10
–3
N/mm
2 Orientation 1 Orientation 2
–3 2 Fig. 4.15
c 4.5 ´ 10 N/mm
2
d zero N/mm [Ans. : a]
a orientation 1
Q.94 A SSB, length 'L' m and carries couple b orientation 2
moment 'M' N.m at a point between
c orientation 1 as well as 2
supports. The shear force at any section
between supports is ______. d none of above [Ans. : d]
a uniform Q.97 A beam is made with two orientation of

b non-uniform similar 'T' - section. The _______ offers
maximum value of shear stress at N.A.
c varies unevenly
d zero [Ans. : a]
Q.95 Two beam made up of two different N A N A

sections, are SSB, equal spans and carry
central loads to produce the same
maximum bending stress in each. The
A - Beam section B - Beam section
ratio of shear forces in the webs of beam
at N.A. is ________. Fig. 4.16
a A b B
c A as well as B d none of above
[Ans. : a]
TM

Q.98 A beam subjected to bending moment

has offered with two options of simillar
N A
dimension 'T' section. d A b
N
d
b
Beam I Beam II
Fig. 4.19
A - type B - type a beam I

Fig 4.17 b beam II
The shear stess at N.A. for any above c both beam I and II
option preferred has _____. d none of any above beam [Ans. : a]
a same magnitude
Q.101 A beam made with two sections as
b different magnitude shown in Fig. 4.20 and compared for
c a-type with maximum value shear stress at N.A. The _______ will
d b-type with maximum value offer minimum value of shear stress at
[Ans. : a] N.A.
Q.99 Two beams made up of 'T' section of x
similar dimension equal span and carry
central load with SSB to produce same
maximum bending stress in each. The x x x x
ratio of shear forces in the webs of beam
at N.A. ________.
x
10 mm Section I Section II
100 mm
10 mm
Fig. 4.20
90 mm a both section I and II
90 mm b section I
10 mm c section II
100 mm
d none of above [Ans. : c]
10 mm
Beam II
Beam I Q.102 A beam subjected to 'M' N.m moment. If
Fig. 4.18 beam is made of equilateral triangle
section as shown in Fig. 4.21 and
a 0.5 b 0.407
compared for shear stresses at N.A. and
c 1.0 d 2 [Ans. : c] observed that _______.
Q.100 A beam is made with two orientation of

x x
similar rectangular section. The maximum
value of shear stress at N.A. is for section x x
of _______. x x
Section I Section II
Fig. 4.21
TM

a both section I and II has same shear Q.105 A beam with SSB condition with 'I'
stress. section, subjected to M N.m bending
b only section I has maximum shear moment, an addition of suitable plate to
stress. any side or both side of flange will _____.
c only section II has maximum shear a reduce bending stresses and increase
stress. shear stresses in section.
d both section I and II has different b reduce shear stresses and increase
shear stress. [Ans. : a] bending stresses in section.
c increase both bending and shear
Q.103 Two beams made of rectangular section stresses in section.
of similar dimension, of equal span and
d decrease both bending and shear
carry central load with SSB to produce
same maximum bending stress in each. stresses in section. [Ans. : b]
The ratio of shear stresses at N.A. i.e. Q.106 Two beams are made of following
t I t II is ________________. cross-section. It is subjected to 'M' N.m
b bending moment and induced same
d bending stress.
fD fD
d b ,d=2b
Section I Section II
Fig. 4.22 Beam - I Beam - II
Fig. 4.24
a equal to one b less than one Maximum shear stress induced at N.A. is
c more than one d none of above of ______.
[Ans. : c] a beam I b beam II
Q.104 Minimum shear stress at N.A. for a beam c beam II and I d none of above
made up of following section can be [Ans. : b]
obtained with _________. Q.107 Shear flow for any shear joint at
intersection is flange and web for
x
different sections can be obtained by
x x x considering _________.
x a shear strength of shear connector
x b shear strength at intersection of
Section I Section II flange and web.
Fig. 4.23 c shear stress at intersection of flange
a and web.
section II
d shear stress at N.A. of section.
b any section I or II [Ans. : a]
c section I Q.108 Strength of shear connector is influenced
d none of above [Ans. : c] by ______.
TM

a cross-section of connector and flange Q.113 A beam subjected to 'M' N.m moment, of
depth. triangular cross-section has maximum
b stress in flange section. shear stress value at _______.
c stress in web section. a N.A of section
d cross-section of connector and pitch b other than N.A of section

of connector. [Ans. : d] c the base of section
d at extreme layer of section
Q.109 Appropriate pitch as well as number of
[Ans. : b]
required shear connector depend on ____.
Q.114 Usually shear stress induced in the beam
a maximum shear stress value at N.A. section due to applied moment is ______.
b maximum shear stress at least a inversly proportional to moment of
cross-section inertia
c shear stress at intersection of flange b independent of area of section
and web.
c directly proportional to shear force
d shear stress at extreme layers of in the section and inversly
section. [Ans. : c] proportional to width of section
Q.110 A beam of span 5 m, subjected to loading d depends on position of N.A.
is as shown in Fig. 4.25. [Ans. : c]
Q.115 The ratio of maximum shear stress to the
10 kN 5 kN
mean shear stress for two rectangular
sections depends upon their ______.
300 mm
A B
C D a areas
2m Beam section
b depths
3m 2m
150 mm c both (a) and (b)
Fig. 4.25 d none of the above
[Ans. : d]
For given condition of loading, shear
stress induced in beam section at 20 mm Q.116 A simply supported beam of rectangular
above N.A at just R.H.S of 'D' is _____. cross section carries a uniformly
2 2 distributed load throughout its length.
a 1.163 N/mm b 0.163 N/mm
The shear stress varies linearly along the
2 2
c 2.163 N/mm d 0.631 N/mm _______.
[Ans. : b]
a length b depth
Q.111 For above given beam condition, (Ex. 110)
the ratio of maximmum shear stress to c width d none of the
shear stress at 20 mm from N.A is above [Ans. : a]
a 1.501 b 2.510 Q.117 The maximum shear stress at a point in a
c 1.018 d 0.503 [Ans. : c] beam of rectangular cross section b ´ d is
60 MPa. For the same loading and at the
Q.112 For above given beam condition, (Q. 110), same point, the maximum shear stress in
shear stress at N.A of beam section at a beam of section 2b ´ d is _____ MPa.
point 'A' is _______.
2 2 a 30 b 60
a zero N/mm b 0.505 N/mm
2 2 c 120 d 15
c 1.590 N/mm d 0.707 N/mm [Ans. : a]
[Ans. : a]
TM

Q.118 The maximum shear stress at a point in a

beam of rectangular cross section b ´ d is
same point, the maximum shear stress in
a beam of section b ´ 2 d is _____ MPa.
a 30 b 60
c 120 d 15
[Ans. : a]
a beam of section 2 b ´ 2 d is _____ MPa.
a 30 b 60
c 120 d 15
[Ans. : d]
a beam of section 0.5 b ´ d is _____ MPa.
a 30 b 60
c 120 d 15
[Ans. : c]
a beam of section b ´0.5 d is _____ MPa.
a 30 b 60
c 120 d 15
[Ans. : c]
a beam of section 2 b ´ 0.5 d is _____ MPa.
a 30 b 60
c 120 d 15
[Ans. : b]
qqq
TM

5 Slope and Deflection of Beams
Slope, Deflection and Bending Moment · If there is a udl which does not extend
· The slope and deflection of beams can up to the end, extend the udl till the
end and subtract the same.
· be obtained by integrating the equation
d 2y · The constant of integration is taken with
EI = M
dx2 the first term.
dy · The constants of integration are
· The slope can be calculated using
dx obtained using boundary conditions.
dy
EI
dx
= ò M dx+C1 · For a simply supported beam, the
deflections are zero at the supports.
· The deflection y can be calculated using
· For a cantilever beam, the slope as well
EIy = ò [ò Mdx] dx+C1x+C2 as deflection are zero at the fixed
· Shear force V is given by support.
d 3y dy
V = EI · The slope is zero at the point of
dx
dx 3
maximum deflection.
· Rate of loading
d 4y Objective Questions & Answers
w(x) = -EI
dx4 for Online Examination
Macaulay's Method
Questions Based on Standard Formulae
· The bending moment is written for a
section in the last part of the beam. Q.1 The bending moment M = _______.
a EIy b dy
· The terms are written with partitions in EI
dx
such a way that the terms up to a
c d2y d d3y
particular partition are applicable to a EI EI
dx 2 dx 3 [Ans. : c]
particular region of the beam.
Shear force V = _______.
· The term corresponding to a couple Q.2
moment is written as a product of the a EIy b dy
EI
dx
couple moment and its distance from
the section raised to power zero. c d2y d d3y
EI EI
dx 2 dx 3
[Ans. : d]
(5 - 1)
TM

Strength of Materials 5-2 Slope and Deflection of Beams
Q.3 Rate of loading w(x) = _______. a W b Wx

a d4y b dy c –Wx d Wx–WL
– EI EI
dx 4 dx [Ans. : d]
c d2y d d3y (Hint : Refer Example 5.3.1 from main book)
EI 2 EI
dx dx 3
[Ans. : a] Q.9 For the beam shown in Fig. 5.2,
2 d2y
Q.4 d y EI = _______.
EI = _______. dx 2
dx 2
w kN/m
a V b M
A B
c – w(x) d None of the
above [Ans. : b]
L
Q.5 d2y Fig. 5.2
EI = _______.
dx 2
a wL b wLx
a M
2
c w L2 d wLx–wL
b ò M dx+C1 wLx–
2 [Ans. : c]
c ò [ò Mdx] dx+C1x+C2 (Hint : Refer Example 5.3.2 from main book)
d None of the above [Ans. : a]
Q.10 A cantilever beam of length L with fixed
Q.6 dy end A on the left side carries a clockwise
EI = _______. couple moment M0 at its free end. For
dx
a M d2y
this beam, EI = _______.
dx 2
b ò M dx+C1
a M0 L b – M0 x
c ò [ò Mdx] dx+C1x+C2 c M0 x d – M0 L
d None of the above [Ans. : b] [Ans. : b]
Q.7 EIy = _______. (Hint : Refer Example 5.3.5 from main book)
a M Q.11 For a simply supported beam of length L
subjected to a concentrated load W, EI
b ò M dx+C1
d2y
= _______.
c ò [ò Mdx] dx+C1x+C2 dx 2
a W | æ L ö|
d None of the above [Ans. : c] x -W çx - ÷ |
2 | è 2ø
Q.8 d2y æ
For the beam shown in Fig. 5.1, EI b | L ö|
dx 2 W x | -W çx - ÷ |
è 2ø
= _______.
c W | |
x -W ( x -L) |
W 2 |
d W | æ Lö |
A B x + W çx - ÷ |
2 | è 2ø [Ans. : a]
L (Hint : Refer Example 5.3.6 from main book)

Fig. 5.1
TM

Q.12 For a simply supported beam of length L 20 kN 30 kN

carrying a u.d.l of intensity w per unit
d2y
length over its entire length, EI =
dx 2 A B
_______. C D
a wx wx 2 b w wx 2 1.5 m 1.5 m
- -
2 2 2 2 2.5 m
c wL w L2 d wL wx 2
x- x- Fig. 5.4
2 2 2 2
[Ans. : d] | | |
a 23.75 x |- 20( x - 1.5) |- 30 ( x - 2.5) |
(Hint : Refer Example 5.3.8 from main book)
b | | |
-23.75 x | + 20( x - 1.5) | +30 ( x - 2.5) |
Q.13 For a simply supported beam of length L
carrying a couple moment M0 at the c | | |
26.25 x |- 20( x - 1.5) |- 30 ( x - 2.5) |
d2y
centre, EI = _______.
dx 2 d |
- 20( x - 1.5) |- 30 ( x - 2.5) |
|
[Ans. : a]
a M0
b – M0 Q.16 For the beam shown in Fig. 5.5,
d2y
c -M 0 | æ L ö2 | EI = _______.
x | + M0 çx - ÷ | dx 2
L è 2ø
6 kN
2 kN/m
d M0 | æ L ö2 |
x | - M0 çx - ÷ |
L è 2ø [Ans. : c] D C
A B
2m 3m
Q.14 For the beam shown in Fig. 5.3, 1m
d2y RA RB
EI = _______.
dx 2 Fig. 5.5
M0
| | |
a -5.5x |-6( x -2) |-( x - 3) 2 |
| | |
A B b 5.5x |-6( x -2) |-( x - 3) 2 |
| | |
c 6.5x |-6( x -2) |-( x - 3) 2 |
L
| | |
Fig. 5.3 d -5.5x |-6( x -2) |-( x - 3) 2 |
[Ans. : b]
a M0 b – M0 Q.17 The slope is always zero at _______
c -M0 d M0 support.
x x
L L [Ans. : c]
a roller b hinge
(Hint : Refer Example 5.3.12 from main book) c fixed d all the above
Q.15 For the beam shown in Fig. 5.4, [Ans. : c]
d2y
EI = _______.
dx 2
TM

Q.18 The deflection is zero at _______ support. c minimum d none of the

a roller b hinge above [Ans. : b]
c fixed d all the above Q.25 A cantilever beam of length L carries a

[Ans. : d] point load at its centre. If x is the
distance from the fixed end, the slope is
Q.19 At a roller support, the slope is always
constant for _______.
_______.
a 0<x<L b 0 < x < L/2
a zero b maximum
c L/2 < x < L d none of the
c minimum d none of the
above [Ans. : c]
above [Ans. : d]
Q.26 A cantilever beam of length L carries a
Q.20 At a hinged support, the slope is always
point load at its centre. If x is the
_______.
distance from the fixed end, the
a zero b maximum deflection is maximum at x = _______.
c minimum d none of the a 0 b L/2
above [Ans. : d] c 3L/4 d L [Ans. : d]
Q.21 At a fixed support, the slope is always Q.27 A simply supported beam of length L
_______. carries a point load at the centre. If x is
a zero b maximum the distance from the left support, the
deflection is maximum at x = _______.
above [Ans. : a] a 0 b L/2
c 3L/4 d L/4 [Ans. : b]
Q.22 For a beam simply supported at its ends
and carrying a point load, the slope at Q.28 A simply supported beam of length L
the point of maximum deflection is carries a point load at the centre. If x is
_______. the distance from the left support, the
a zero b maximum slope is zero at x = _______.
c minimum d none of the a 0 b L/2

above [Ans. : a] c 3L/4 d L/4 [Ans. : b]
Q.23 For a cantilever beam carrying a point Q.29 A simply supported beam of length L
load at its free end, the magnitude of carries a point load at a distance of 3L/4
slope at the point of maximum deflection from the left support. The deflection is
is _______. maximum at a distance _______ from the
left support.
a zero b maximum
a 0
b 3L/4
above [Ans. : b]
c more than 3L/4
Q.24 For a cantilever beam carrying a point
d less than 3L/4 [Ans. : d]
load at its centre, the magnitude of slope
at the point of maximum deflection is Q.30 A simply supported beam of length L
_______. carries a clockwise couple moment at its
a zero b maximum centre. If x is the distance from the left
TM

support, the deflection is zero at c W L3 d W L3

x = _______. 3 EI 6EI [Ans. : d]
a L/3 b L/2 (Hint : Refer Example 5.3.2 from main book)
c 3L/4 d L/4 [Ans. : b]
Q.36 For a cantilever beam carrying a u.d.l of
Q.31 A simply supported beam of length L w per unit length throughout its length,
carries a u.d.l throughout its length. If x the magnitude of deflection at the free
is the distance from the left support, the end is _______.
deflection is maximum at x = _______. a w L3 b w L3
a 0 b L/2 3 EI 6EI
c 3L/4 d L/4 [Ans. : b] c w L3 d w L4
8EI 8EI [Ans. : d]
Q.32 A simply supported beam of length L
carries a u.d.l throughout its length. If x
is the distance from the left support, the
slope is zero at x = _______. Q.37 For a cantilever beam carrying a u.v.l of
intensity varying from w per unit length
a 0 b L/2
at fixed end to 0 at the free end, the
c 3L/4 d L/4 [Ans. : b] magnitude of slope at the free end is
Q.33 For a cantilever beam carrying a point _______.
load W at its free end, the magnitude of a w L3 b w L3
slope at the free end is _______. 8EI 6EI
a W L2 b W L2 c w L3 d w L4
2EI 3 EI 24EI 6EI [Ans. : c]
c W L3 d W L3
3 EI 6EI (Hint : Refer Example 5.3.3 from main book)
[Ans. : a]
Q.38 For a cantilever beam carrying a u.v.l of
(Hint : Refer Example 5.3.1 from main book) intensity varying from w per unit length
Q.34 For a cantilever beam carrying a point at fixed end to 0 at the free end, the
load W at its free end, the magnitude of magnitude of deflection at the free end is
deflection at the free end is _______. _______.
a W L2 b W L2 a 11w L4 b w L4
2EI 3 EI 120EI 30EI
c W L3 d W L3 c w L3 d w L4
3 EI 6EI [Ans. : c] 24EI 6EI [Ans. : b]
(Hint : Refer Example 5.3.1 from main book) (Hint : Refer Example 5.3.3 from main book)
Q.35 For a cantilever beam carrying a u.d.l of Q.39 For a cantilever beam carrying a u.v.l of
w per unit length throughout its length, intensity varying from w per unit length
the magnitude of slope at the free end is at free end to 0 at the fixed end, the
_______. magnitude of slope at the free end is
_______.
a W L2 b W L2
2EI 3 EI a w L3 b w L3
8EI 6EI
TM

c w L3 d w L4 Q.44 For a simply supported beam of length L

24EI 6EI [Ans. : a] carrying a point load W at its centre, the
slope at the end points is _______.
a W L2 b W L2
Q.40 For a cantilever beam carrying a u.v.l of 16EI 30EI
intensity varying from w per unit length
c W L2 d W L2
at free end to 0 at the fixed end, the
24EI 48EI [Ans. : a]
magnitude of deflection at the free end is
_______.
a 11w L4 b w L4
120EI 30EI
c w L3 d w L4 length throughout its length, the slope at
24EI 6EI [Ans. : a] its ends is _______.
a w L3 b w L3
8EI 6EI
Q.41 For a cantilever beam carrying a couple
c w L3 d w L4
moment M0 at the free end, the slope at
24EI 6EI [Ans. : c]
the free end is _______.
a M0 L b M0 L (Hint : Refer Example 5.3.8 from main book)
EI 2EI
c 2 M0 L d 0 [Ans. : a] carrying a u.d.l of intensity w per unit
EI
length throughout its length, the
deflection at its centre is _______.
a w L3 b w L4
Q.42 For a cantilever beam carrying a couple
8EI 8EI
moment M0 at the free end, the deflection
at the free end is _______. c w L3 d 5 w L4
24EI 384EI [Ans. : d]
a M0 L2 b M0 L2
EI 2EI
c 2 M0 L2 d 0 [Ans. : b]
Q.47 For a simply supported beam AB of
EI
length L carrying a u.v.l of intensity
varying from 0 at A to w per unit length
at B, the slope at A is _______.
a w L3 b 7 w L3
carrying a point load W at its centre, the
8EI 360EI
deflection at the centre is _______.
c w L3 d w L3
a 11W L4 b W L3
45 EI 9EI [Ans. : b]
120EI 30EI
c W L3 d W L3 (Hint : Refer Example 5.3.9 from main book)
24EI 48EI [Ans. : d] Q.48 For a simply supported beam AB of
at B, the slope at B is _______.
TM

a w L3 b 7 w L3 (Hint : Refer Example 5.3.12 from main book)

8EI 360EI
c w L3 d w L3 length L carrying a couple moment M0 at
45 EI 9EI [Ans. : c] B, the slope at point B is _______.
a M0 L b M0 L
(Hint : Refer Example 5.3.9 from main book) 3 EI 24EI
Q.49 For a simply supported beam AB of c M0 L d M0 L2
length L carrying a u.v.l of intensity 6EI 24EI [Ans. : a]
at B, the maximum deflection occurs at a (Hint : Refer Example 5.3.12 from main book)
distance of _______ from A.
a 0.5 L b 0.52 L length L carrying a couple moment M0 at
c 0.25 L d 0.75 L [Ans. : b] B, the maximum deflection is at a
distance of _______ from A.
a L/2 b L/ 2
c L/ 3 d L/ 5 [Ans. : c]
varying from 0 at A to w per unit length (Hint : Refer Example 5.3.12 from main book)
at B, the maximum deflection is _______.
a w L4 b 7 w L4
length L carrying a couple moment M0 at
8EI 360EI
B, the maximum deflection is _______.
c w L4 d 6.52´10-3 w L4 a M0 L2 b M0 L2
45 EI EI 3 EI 9 3 EI
[Ans. : d]
c M0 L2 d M0 L2
(Hint : Refer Example 5.3.9 from main book) 3 EI 9 EI [Ans. : b]
its centre, the slope at the end points is Q.56 For a cantilever beam AB of length L
_______. carrying a u.d.l of intensity w per unit
a M0 b M0 L length over a distance a (a < L) from the
EI 24EI fixed end A to C, the slope at C is
_______.
c M0 L d M0 L2
EI 24EI [Ans. : b] a w L3 b w L3
3 EI 6EI
(Hint : Refer Example 5.3.10 from main book) c w a3 d w a3
Q.52 For a simply supported beam AB of 3 EI 6EI [Ans. : d]
B, the slope at point A is _______. (Hint : Refer Example 5.3.22 from main book)
a M0 L b M0 L Q.57 For a cantilever beam AB of length L

3 EI 24EI carrying a u.d.l of intensity w per unit
M0 L length over a distance a (a < L) from the
c d M0 L2
6EI 24EI [Ans. : c] fixed end A to C, the slope at free end B
is _______.
TM

a w L3 b w L3 a 1 b 2
3 EI 6EI c 0.5 d 4 [Ans. : c]
3 3
c wa d wa
Q.62 A cantilever beam of length 1 m having a
3 EI 6EI [Ans. : d] point load at its free end shows a
(Hint : Refer Example 5.3.22 from main book) deflection of 4 mm at the free end. If the
same load is applied on the free end of
Q.58 For a cantilever beam AB of length L another cantilever of the same cross
carrying a u.d.l of intensity w per unit sectional dimensions but of length 2 m,
length over a distance a (a < L) from the the deflection at its free end will be
fixed end A to C, the deflection at C is _______ mm.
_______.
a 0.5 b 2
a w a4 b w a4
c 4 d 32 [Ans. : d]
8EI 24EI
c w a3 d w a3 Q.63 A cantilever beam of length 1 m having a
24EI
( 4L - a )
24EI
( L - 4 a) point load at its free end shows a
deflection of 4 mm at the free end. If the
[Ans. : a]
(Hint : Refer Example 5.3.22 from main book) another cantilever of the same cross
sectional dimensions but of length 0.5 m,
Q.59 For a cantilever beam AB of length L
the deflection at its free end will be
_______ mm.
length over a distance a (a < L) from the
fixed end A to C, the deflection at free a 0.5 b 2
end B is _______. c 4 d 32 [Ans. : a]
4 4
a wa b wa Q.64 A cantilever beam of steel (E = 200 GPa)
8EI 24EI
having a point load at its free end shows
c w a3 d w a3 a deflection of 4 mm at the free end. If
24EI
( 4L - a )
24EI
( L - 4 a) the same load is applied on the free end
[Ans. : c] of another cantilever of the same cross
sectional dimensions and length but of
(Hint : Refer Example 5.3.22 from main book) copper (E = 100 GPa), the deflection at
Cantilever Beam with Point Load at Free End the free end will be _______ mm.
a 0.5 b 2
Q.60 A cantilever beam has a point load acting
at its free end. The deflection at the free c 4 d 8 [Ans. : d]
end is observed to be 1 mm for a load of
Q.65 A cantilever beam of copper
10 kN. The deflection at the free end for
(E = 100 GPa) having a point load at its
a load of 20 kN will be _______ mm.
free end shows a deflection of 4 mm at
a 1 b 2 the free end. If the same load is applied
c 0.5 d 4 [Ans. : b] on the free end of another cantilever of
the same cross sectional dimensions and
Q.61 A cantilever beam has a point load acting length but of steel (E = 200 GPa), the
at its free end. The deflection at the free deflection at the free end will be _______
end is observed to be 1 mm for a load of mm.
10 kN. The deflection at the free end for
a load of 5 kN will be _______ mm.
TM

a 1 b 2 of b ´ 2d, the deflection at its free end

c 4 d 8 [Ans. : b] will be _______ mm.
a 0.5 b 2
(E = 100 GPa) having a point load of c 4 d 8 [Ans. : a]
10 kN at its free end shows a deflection
Q.70 A cantilever beam of steel (E = 200 GPa)
of 4 mm at the free end. If a load of
having a point load at its free end and a
20 kN is applied on the free end of
rectangular cross section of b ´ d shows a
another cantilever of the same cross
sectional dimensions and length but of
steel (E = 200 GPa), the deflection at the
another cantilever of the same material
free end will be _______ mm.
and length but rectangular cross section
a 1 b 2 of 2b ´ 2d, the deflection at its free end
c 4 d 8 [Ans. : c] will be _______ mm.
a 0.25 b 2
(E = 100 GPa) having a point load of c 4 d 48 [Ans. : a]
10 kN at its free end shows a deflection
of 1 mm at the free end. If a load of
20 kN is applied on the free end of
another cantilever of the same cross
sectional dimensions, double the length
and of steel (E = 200 GPa), the deflection
at the free end will be _______ mm.
but twice the length and rectangular cross
a 1 b 2 section of b ´ 2d, the deflection at its free
c 4 d 8 [Ans. : d] end will be _______ mm.
a 0.5 b 2
having a point load at its free end and a c 4 d 8 [Ans. : c]
Q.72 A cantilever beam has a point load acting
at its free end. The slope at the free end
is observed to be 1° for a load of 10 kN.
The slope at the free end for a load of
20 kN will be _______ °.
of 2b ´ d, the deflection at its free end
will be _______ mm. a 1 b 2
a 1 b 2 c 0.5 d 4 [Ans. : b]
c 4 d 8 [Ans. : b] Q.73 A cantilever beam has a point load acting

at its free end. The slope at the free end
is observed to be 1° for a load of 10 kN.
The slope at the free end for a load of
5 kN will be _______ °.
same load is applied on the free end of a 1 b 2
another cantilever of the same material c 0.5 d 4 [Ans. : c]
TM

Strength of Materials 5 - 10 Slope and Deflection of Beams
Q.74 A cantilever beam of length 1 m having a on the free end of another cantilever of
point load at its free end shows a slope the same cross sectional dimensions and
of 4° at the free end. If the same load is length but of steel (E = 200 GPa), the
applied on the free end of another slope at the free end will be _______ °.
cantilever of the same cross sectional
a 1 b 2
dimensions but of length 2 m, the slope
at its free end will be _______°. c 4 d 8 [Ans. : c]
a 0.5 b 2 Q.79 A cantilever beam of copper

c 4 d 16 [Ans. : d] (E = 100 GPa) having a point load of
10 kN at its free end shows a slope of 1°
Q.75 A cantilever beam of length 1 m having a at the free end. If a load of 20 kN is
point load at its free end shows a slope applied on the free end of another
of 4° at the free end. If the same load is cantilever of the same cross sectional
applied on the free end of another dimensions, double the length and of
cantilever of the same cross sectional steel (E = 200 GPa), the slope at the free
dimensions but of length 0.5 m, the slope end will be _______ °.
at its free end will be _______ °.
a 1 b 2
a 1 b 2
c 4 d 8 [Ans. : c]
c 4 d 32 [Ans. : a]
Q.76 A cantilever beam of steel (E = 200 GPa) having a point load at its free end and a
having a point load at its free end shows rectangular cross section of b ´ d shows a
a slope of 4° at the free end. If the same slope of 4° at the free end. If the same
load is applied on the free end of another load is applied on the free end of another
cantilever of the same cross sectional cantilever of the same material and
dimensions and length but of copper length but rectangular cross section of
(E = 100 GPa), the slope at the free end 2b ´ d, the slope at its free end will be
will be _______ °. _______ °.
a 0.5 b 2 a 1 b 2
c 4 d 8 [Ans. : d] c 4 d 8 [Ans. : b]
Q.77 A cantilever beam of copper Q.81 A cantilever beam of steel (E = 200 GPa)
(E = 100 GPa) having a point load at its having a point load at its free end and a
free end shows a slope of 4° at the free rectangular cross section of b ´ d shows a
end. If the same load is applied on the slope of 4° at the free end. If the same
free end of another cantilever of the same load is applied on the free end of another
cross sectional dimensions and length but cantilever of the same material and
of steel (E = 200 GPa), the slope at the length but rectangular cross section of
free end will be _______ °. b ´ 2d, the slope at its free end will be
a 1 b 2 _______ °.
c 4 d 8 [Ans. : b] a 0.5 b 2
c 4 d 8 [Ans. : a]
(E = 100 GPa) having a point load of 10 Q.82 A cantilever beam of steel (E = 200 GPa)
kN at its free end shows a slope of 4° at having a point load at its free end and a
the free end. If a load of 20 kN is applied rectangular cross section of b ´ d shows a
TM

slope of 4° at the free end. If the same cross section of diameter x. If all the
load is applied on the free end of another beams are subjected to the same point
cantilever of the same material and load at their free end, the deflection at
length but rectangular cross section of free end will be maximum for _______ .
2b ´ 2d, the slope at its free end will be a A b B
_______ °.
c C d D [Ans. : c]
a 0.25 b 2
c 4 d 8 [Ans. : a] Q.87 Four cantilever beams of the same
material and length have cross sections as
Q.83 A cantilever beam of steel (E = 200 GPa) follows - A has rectangular cross section
having a point load at its free end and a of dimensions x´ x, B has rectangular
rectangular cross section of b ´ d shows a cross section of dimensions 05 . x´ 2x, C
slope of 4° at the free end. If the same has rectangular cross section of
load is applied on the free end of another dimensions 2x´ 05. x and D has a circular
cantilever of the same material but twice cross section of diameter x. If all the
the length and rectangular cross section beams are subjected to the same point
of b ´ 2d, the slope at its free end will be load at their free end, the deflection at
_______ °. free end will be minimum for _______ .
a 0.5 b 2 a A b B
c 4 d 8 [Ans. : b] c C d D [Ans. : b]
Q.84 A cantilever beam of steel (E = 200 GPa), Q.88 A rod of length 2 m and square cross
600 mm in length has a rectangular cross section 100 mm ´ 100 mm elongates by
section of width 60 mm ´ 100 mm.depth 0.01 mm when subjected to an axial load
is subjected to a point load of 10 kN at W. If the same rod is used as a cantilever
its free end. The deflection at its free end and subjected to the same load at its free
will be _______ mm. end, the deflection at the free end will be
a 0.52 b 0.72 _______ mm.
c 0.0018 d 5.2 [Ans. : b] a 0.01 b 10

c 4 d 16 [Ans. : d]
Q.85 A cantilever beam of steel (E = 200 GPa),
600 mm in length has a rectangular cross Cantilever Beam with u.d.l
section of width 60 mm ´ 100 mm.depth
Q.89 A cantilever beam has a u.d.l acting
is subjected to a point load of 10 kN at
throughout its length. The deflection at
its free end. The slope at its free end will
the free end is observed to be 1 mm for a
be _______ .
u.d.l of 10 kN/m. The deflection at the
a 0.0018 degree b 0.0018 radian free end for a u.d.l of 20 kN/m will be
c 0.72 degree d 0.72 radian _______ mm.
[Ans. : b] a 1 b 2
Q.86 Four cantilever beams of the same c 0.5 d 4 [Ans. : b]
material and length have cross sections as
follows - A has rectangular cross section Q.90 A cantilever beam has a u.d.l acting
of dimensions x´ x, B has rectangular throughout its length. The deflection at
cross section of dimensions 05 . x´ 2x, C the free end is observed to be 1 mm for a
has rectangular cross section of u.d.l of 10 kN/m. The deflection at the
dimensions 2x´ 05. x and D has a circular
TM

free end for a u.d.l of 5 kN/m will be deflection at the free end will be _______
_______ mm. mm.
a 1 b 2 a 1 b 2
c 0.5 d 4 [Ans. : c] c 4 d 8 [Ans. : b]
Q.91 A cantilever beam of length 1 m having a Q.95 A cantilever beam of copper

u.d.l throughout its length shows a (E = 100 GPa) having a u.d.l of 10 kN/m
deflection of 1 mm at the free end. If the throughout its length shows a deflection
same u.d.l is applied on another of 4 mm at the free end. If a u.d.l of
cantilever of the same cross sectional 20 kN/m is applied throughout the
dimensions but of length 2 m throughout length on another cantilever of the same
the length, the deflection at its free end cross sectional dimensions and length but
will be _______ mm. of steel (E = 200 GPa), the deflection at
a 2 b 4 the free end will be _______ mm.
c 16 d 32 [Ans. : c] a 1 b 2
c 4 d 8 [Ans. : c]
Q.92 A cantilever beam of length 1 m having a
u.d.l throughout its length shows a Q.96 A cantilever beam of copper
deflection of 4 mm at the free end. If the (E = 100 GPa) having a u.d.l of 10 kN/m
same u.d.l is applied on another throughout its length shows a deflection
cantilever of the same cross sectional of 1 mm at the free end. If a u.d.l of
dimensions but of length 0.5 m, the 20 kN/m is applied throughout the
deflection at its free end will be _______ length on another cantilever of the same
mm. cross sectional dimensions, double the
a 0.5 b 0.25 length and of steel (E = 200 GPa), the
deflection at the free end will be _______
c 4 d 32 [Ans. : b]
mm.
Q.93 A cantilever beam of steel (E = 200 GPa) a 2 b 4
having a u.d.l acting throughout its c 8 d 16 [Ans. : d]
length shows a deflection of 4 mm at the
free end. If the same u.d.l is applied on Q.97 A cantilever beam of steel (E = 200 GPa)
another cantilever of the same cross having a u.d.l acting throughout its
sectional dimensions and length but of length and a rectangular cross section of
copper (E = 100 GPa), the deflection at b ´ d shows a deflection of 4 mm at the
the free end will be _______ mm. free end. If the same u.d.l is applied
a 0.5 b 2 throughout the length on another
cantilever of the same material and
c 4 d 8 [Ans. : d]
length but rectangular cross section of
Q.94 A cantilever beam of copper 2b ´ d, the deflection at its free end will
(E = 100 GPa) having a u.d.l acting be _______ mm.
throughout its length shows a deflection a 1 b 2
of 4 mm at the free end. If the same u.d.l c 4 d 8 [Ans. : b]
is applied on another cantilever of the
same cross sectional dimensions and Q.98 A cantilever beam of steel (E = 200 GPa)
length but of steel (E = 200 GPa), the having a u.d.l acting throughout its
length and a rectangular cross section of
TM

b ´ d shows a deflection of 4 mm at the free end is observed to be 1° for a u.d.l of

free end. If the same u.d.l is applied 10 kN/m. The slope at the free end for a
throughout the length on another u.d.l of 5 kN/m will be _______ °.
cantilever of the same material and a 1 b 2
length but rectangular cross section of
c 0.5 d 4 [Ans. : c]
b ´ 2d, the deflection at its free end will
be _______ mm. Q.103 A cantilever beam of length 1 m having a
a 0.5 b 2 u.d.l acting throughout its length shows a
c 4 d 8 [Ans. : a] slope of 1° at the free end. If the same
u.d.l is applied throughout the length on
Q.99 A cantilever beam of steel (E = 200 GPa) another cantilever of the same cross
having a u.d.l acting throughout its sectional dimensions but of length 2 m,
length and a rectangular cross section of the slope at its free end will be _______°.
b ´ d shows a deflection of 4 mm at the a 0.5 b 2
free end. If the same u.d.l is applied on
c 4 d 8 [Ans. : d]
throughout the length on another
cantilever of the same material and Q.104 A cantilever beam of length 1 m having a
length but rectangular cross section of u.d.l acting throughout its length shows a
2b ´ 2d, the deflection at its free end will slope of 4° at the free end. If the same
be _______ mm. u.d.l is applied throughout the length on
a 0.25 b 2 another cantilever of the same cross
c 4 d 8 [Ans. : a] sectional dimensions but of length 0.5 m,
the slope at its free end will be _______ °.
Q.100 A cantilever beam of steel (E = 200 GPa) a 0.5 b 2
having a u.d.l acting throughout its
c 4 d 8 [Ans. : a]
b ´ d shows a deflection of 4 mm at the Q.105 A cantilever beam of steel (E = 200 GPa)
free end. If the same u.d.l is applied having a u.d.l acting throughout its
throughout the length on another length shows a slope of 4° at the free end.
cantilever of the same material but twice If the same u.d.l is applied throughout
the length and rectangular cross section the length on another cantilever of the
of b ´ 2d, the deflection at its free end same cross sectional dimensions and
will be _______ mm. length but of copper (E = 100 GPa), the
a 0.5 b 2 slope at the free end will be _______ °.
c 4 d 8 [Ans. : d] a 0.5 b 2
c 4 d 8 [Ans. : d]
Q.101 A cantilever beam has a u.d.l acting
throughout its length. The slope at the Q.106 A cantilever beam of copper
free end is observed to be 1° for a u.d.l of (E = 100 GPa) having a u.d.l acting
10 kN/m. The slope at the free end for a throughout its length shows a slope of 4°
u.d.l of 20 kN/m will be _______ °. at the free end. If the same u.d.l is
a 1 b 2 applied throughout the length on another
c 0.5 d 4 [Ans. : b] cantilever of the same cross sectional
dimensions and length but of steel
Q.102 A cantilever beam has a u.d.l acting (E = 200 GPa), the slope at the free end
throughout its length. The slope at the will be _______ °.
TM

a 1 b 2 cross section of b ´ 2d, the slope at its free

c 4 d 8 [Ans. : b] end will be _______ °.
a 0.5 b 2
(E = 100 GPa) having a u.d.l of 10 kN/m c 4 d 8 [Ans. : a]
throughout its length shows a slope of 4°
at the free end. If a u.d.l of 20 kN/m is
applied throughout the length on another
b ´ d shows a slope of 4° at the free end.
dimensions and length but of steel
If the same u.d.l is applied throughout
(E = 200 GPa), the slope at the free end
the length on another cantilever of the
will be _______ °.
same material and length but rectangular
a 1 b 2 cross section of 2b ´ 2d, the slope at its
c 4 d 8 [Ans. : c] free end will be _______ °.
a 0.25 b 2
(E = 100 GPa) having a u.d.l of 10 kN/m c 4 d 8 [Ans. : a]
throughout its length shows a slope of 1°
at the free end. If a u.d.l of 20 kN/m is
dimensions, double the length and of
steel (E = 200 GPa), the slope at the free
end will be _______ °.
same material but twice the length and
a 1 b 2 rectangular cross section of b ´ 2d, the
c 4 d 8 [Ans. : d] slope at its free end will be _______ °.
a 0.5 b 2
having a u.d.l acting throughout its c 4 d 8 [Ans. : c]
1 m in length has a rectangular cross
section of width 60 mm ´ 100 mm.depth
is subjected to a u.d.l of 10 kN/m
throughout its length. The deflection at
cross section of 2b ´ d, the slope at its free
its free end will be _______ mm.
end will be _______ °.
a 1.25 b 0.72
a 1 b 2
c 0.00167 d 5.2 [Ans. : a]
c 4 d 8 [Ans. : b]
Q.110 A cantilever beam of steel (E = 200 GPa) 600 mm in length has a rectangular cross
having a u.d.l acting throughout its section of width 60 mm ´ 100 mm.depth
length and a rectangular cross section of is subjected to a point load of 10 kN at
b ´ d shows a slope of 4° at the free end. its free end. The slope at its free end will
If the same u.d.l is applied throughout be _______ .
a 0.00167 degree b 0.00167 radian
c 0.72 degree d
TM

0.72 radian load of 10 kN. The deflection at the

[Ans. : b] centre for a load of 5 kN will be _______
mm.
Q.115 Four cantilever beams of the same
material and length have cross sections as a 1 b 2
follows - A has rectangular cross section c 0.5 d 4 [Ans. : c]
of dimensions x´ x, B has rectangular
cross section of dimensions 05 . x´ 2x, C Q.119 A simply supported beam of length 1 m
has rectangular cross section of having a point load at its centre shows a
dimensions 2x´ 05 . x and D has a circular deflection of 4 mm at the centre. If the
cross section of diameter x. If all the same load is applied at the centre of
beams are subjected to the same u.d.l another simply supported beam of the
acting throughout the length, the same cross sectional dimensions but of
deflection at free end will be maximum length 2 m, the deflection at its centre
for _______ . will be _______ mm.
a A b B a 0.5 b 2
c C d D [Ans. : c] c 4 d 32 [Ans. : d]
Q.116 Four cantilever beams of the same Q.120 A simply supported beam of length 1 m
material and length have cross sections as having a point load at its centre shows a
follows - A has rectangular cross section deflection of 4 mm at the centre. If the
of dimensions x´ x, B has rectangular same load is applied at the centre of
cross section of dimensions 05 . x´ 2x, C another simply supported beam of the
has rectangular cross section of same cross sectional dimensions but of
dimensions 2x´ 05 . x and D has a circular length 0.5 m, the deflection at its centre
cross section of diameter x. If all the will be _______ mm.
beams are subjected to the same u.d.l a 0.5 b 2
acting throughout the length, the c 4 d 32 [Ans. : a]
deflection at free end will be minimum
for _______ . Q.121 A simply supported of steel
a A b B (E = 200 GPa) having a point load at its
centre shows a deflection of 4 mm at the
c C d D [Ans. : b]
centre. If the same load is applied at the
Simply Supported Beam With Point Load at centre of another simply supported beam
the Centre of the same cross sectional dimensions
and length but of copper (E = 100 GPa),
Q.117 A simply supported beam has a point
the deflection at the centre will be
load acting at its centre. The deflection at
_______ mm.
the centre is observed to be 1 mm for a
load of 10 kN. The deflection at the a 0.5 b 2
centre for a load of 20 kN will be _______ c 4 d 8 [Ans. : d]
mm.
Q.122 A simply supported beam of copper
a 1 b 2
c 0.5 d 4 [Ans. : b] centre shows a deflection of 4 mm at the
centre. If the same load is applied at the
Q.118 A simply supported beam has a point
centre of another simply supported beam
load acting at its centre. The deflection at
of the same cross sectional dimensions
the centre is observed to be 1 mm for a
TM

and length but of steel (E = 200 GPa), the b ´ d shows a deflection of 4 mm at the
deflection at the centre will be _______ centre. If the same load is applied on the
mm. centre of another simply supported beam
a 1 b 2 of the same material and length but
rectangular cross section of b ´ 2d, the
c 4 d 8 [Ans. : b]
deflection at its centre will be _______
Q.123 A simply supported beam of copper mm.
(E = 100 GPa) having a point load of 10 a 0.5 b 2
kN at its centre shows a deflection of 4 c 4 d 8 [Ans. : a]
mm at the centre. If a load of 20 kN is
applied at the centre of another simply Q.127 A simply supported beam of steel
supported beam of the same cross (E = 200 GPa) having a point load at its
sectional dimensions and length but of centre and a rectangular cross section of
steel (E = 200 GPa), the deflection at the b ´ d shows a deflection of 4 mm at the
centre will be _______ mm. centre. If the same load is applied on the
a 1 b 2 centre of another simply supported beam
of the same material and length but
c 4 d 8 [Ans. : c]
rectangular cross section of 2b ´ 2d, the
Q.124 A simply supported beam of copper deflection at its centre will be _______
(E = 100 GPa) having a point load of mm.
10 kN at its centre shows a deflection of a 0.25 b 2
1 mm at the centre. If a load of 20 kN is c 4 d 8 [Ans. : a]
applied at the centre of another simply
supported beam of the same cross Q.128 A simply supported beam of steel
sectional dimensions, double the length (E = 200 GPa) having a point load at its
and of steel (E = 200 GPa), the deflection centre and a rectangular cross section of
at the centre will be _______ mm. b ´ d shows a deflection of 4 mm at the
a 1 b 2 centre. If the same load is applied on the
c 4 d 8 [Ans. : d]
of the same material but twice the length
Q.125 A simply supported beam of steel and rectangular cross section of b ´ 2d,
(E = 200 GPa) having a point load at its the deflection at its centre will be _______
centre and a rectangular cross section of mm.
b ´ d shows a deflection of 4 mm at the a 0.5 b 2
centre. If the same load is applied at the c 4 d 8 [Ans. : c]
of the same material and length but Q.129 A simply supported beam of steel
rectangular cross section of 2b ´ d, the (E = 200 GPa), 4 m in length has a
deflection at its centre will be _______ rectangular cross section of width 60 mm
mm. ´ 100 mm depth is subjected to a point
a 1 b 2 load of 10 kN at its centre. The deflection
at its centre will be _______ mm.
c 4 d 8 [Ans. : b]
a 1.33 b 13.33
Q.126 A simply supported beam of steel c 0.133 d 133.33 [Ans. : b]
centre and a rectangular cross section of
TM

Q.130 Four simply supported beams of the c 0.5 d 4 [Ans. : b]

same material and length have cross
Q.134 A simply supported beam has a u.d.l
sections as follows - A has rectangular
acting throughout its length. The
cross section of dimensions x´ x, B has
deflection at the centre is observed to be
rectangular cross section of dimensions
1 mm for a u.d.l of 10 kN/m. The
. x´ 2x, C has rectangular cross section
05
deflection at the centre for a u.d.l of
of dimensions 2x´ 05 . x and D has a
5 kN/m will be _______ mm.
circular cross section of diameter x. If all
the beams are subjected to the same point a 1 b 2
load at their centre, the deflection at the c 0.5 d 4 [Ans. : c]
centre will be maximum for _______ .
Q.135 A simply supported beam of length 1 m
a A b B
having a u.d.l throughout its length
c C d D [Ans. : c] shows a deflection of 1 mm at the centre.
If the same u.d.l is applied on another
Q.131 Four simply supported beams of the
simply supported beam of the same cross
same material and length have cross
sectional dimensions but of length 2 m
sections as follows - A has rectangular
throughout the length, the deflection at
cross section of dimensions x´ x, B has
its centre will be _______ mm.
rectangular cross section of dimensions
. x´ 2x, C has rectangular cross section
05 a 2 b 4
of dimensions 2x´ 05 . x and D has a c 16 d 32 [Ans. : c]
circular cross section of diameter x. If all
the beams are subjected to the same point Q.136 A simply supported beam of length 1 m
load at their centre, the deflection at the having a u.d.l throughout its length
centre will be minimum for _______ . shows a deflection of 4 mm at the centre.
If the same u.d.l is applied on another
a A b B
simply supported beam of the same cross
c C d D [Ans. : b] sectional dimensions but of length 0.5 m,
the deflection at its centre will be _______
Q.132 A rod of length 2 m and square cross
mm.
section 100 mm ´ 100 mm elongates by
0.01 mm when subjected to an axial load a 0.5 b 0.25
W. If the same rod is used as a simply c 4 d 32 [Ans. : b]
supported beam and subjected to the
same load at its centre, the deflection at Q.137 A simply supported beam of steel
the centre will be _______ mm. (E = 200 GPa) having a u.d.l acting
throughout its length shows a deflection
a 0.01 b 10
of 4 mm at the centre. If the same u.d.l is
c 1 d 4 [Ans. : c] applied on another simply supported
Simply Supported Beam With u.d.l beam of the same cross sectional
dimensions and length but of copper
Q.133 A simply supported beam has a u.d.l
(E = 100 GPa), the deflection at the centre
acting throughout its length. The
will be _______ mm.
deflection at the centre is observed to be
1 mm for a u.d.l of 10 kN/m. The a 0.5 b 2
deflection at the centre for a u.d.l of c 4 d 8 [Ans. : d]
20 kN/m will be _______ mm.
a 1 b 2
(E = 100 GPa) having a u.d.l acting
TM

throughout its length shows a deflection a 1 b 2

of 4 mm at the centre. If the same u.d.l is c 4 d 8 [Ans. : b]
applied on another simply supported
beam of the same cross sectional Q.142 A simply supported beam of steel
dimensions and length but of steel (E = 200 GPa) having a u.d.l acting
(E = 200 GPa), the deflection at the centre throughout its length and a rectangular
will be _______ mm. cross section of b ´ d shows a deflection
of 4 mm at the centre. If the same u.d.l is
a 1 b 2
c 4 d 8 [Ans. : b] simply supported beam of the same
material and length but rectangular cross
section of b ´2d, the deflection at its
(E = 100 GPa) having a u.d.l of 10 kN/m
centre will be _______ mm.
of 4 mm at the centre. If a u.d.l of a 0.5 b 2
20 kN/m is applied throughout the c 4 d 8 [Ans. : a]
length on another simply supported beam
of the same cross sectional dimensions Q.143 A simply supported beam of steel
and length but of steel (E = 200 GPa), the (E = 200 GPa) having a u.d.l acting
deflection at the centre will be _______ throughout its length and a rectangular
mm. cross section of b ´ d shows a deflection of
4 mm at the centre. If the same u.d.l is
a 1 b 2
applied on throughout the length on
c 4 d 8 [Ans. : c] another simply supported beam of the
cross section of 2b ´ 2d, the deflection at
(E = 100 GPa) having a u.d.l of 10 kN/m
its centre will be _______ mm.
of 1 mm at the centre. If a u.d.l of a 0.25 b 2
20 kN/m is applied throughout the c 4 d 8 [Ans. : a]
length on another simply supported beam
of the same cross sectional dimensions, Q.144 A simply supported beam of steel
double the length and of steel (E = 200 GPa) having a u.d.l acting
(E = 200 GPa), the deflection at the centre throughout its length and a rectangular
will be _______ mm. cross section of b ´ d shows a deflection of
4 mm at the centre. If the same u.d.l is
a 2 b 4
c 8 d 16 [Ans. : d] simply supported beam of the same
material but twice the length and
Q.141 A simply supported beam of steel
rectangular cross section of b ´2d, the
(E = 200 GPa) having a u.d.l acting
deflection at its centre will be _______
throughout its length and a rectangular
mm.
cross section of b ´ d shows a deflection of
4 mm at the centre. If the same u.d.l is a 0.5 b 2
applied throughout the length on another c 4 d 8 [Ans. : d]
simply supported beam of the same
material and length but rectangular cross
section of 2b ´ d, the deflection at its
centre will be _______ mm. qqq
TM

Strength of Materials 6-1 Strain Energy
6 Strain Energy
· The work done by forces acting on an · If the load P is applied suddenly,

elastic b0ody during deformation is 2P
s =
known as strain energy. A
· The strain energy per unit volume is · The stress in case of suddenly applied
given by load P is double the stress produced by
1 s2 Ee 2 the same load applied gradually.
se = =
2 2E 2 · For impact load,
· The unit of strain energy is joule (J) Wé 2h ù
s 1 ± 1+
Aê dst ú
=
which is equivalent to newton-meter ë û
(N-m). WL
Where d st =
· The maximum strain energy that can be AE
stored in the bar without permanent · The expression for strain energy due to
deformation is known as proof self weight for a rod of uniform cross
resilience. section area A, length L, density r and
· If sy = Stress at elastic limit, modulus of elasticity E is
r2 g 2 AL3
sy2 U =
6E
Proof resilience = ´ Volume
2E
If W is the weight of the rod,
· The unit of proof resilience is joule (J).
W 2L
U =
· The proof resilience per unit volume is 6 AE
defined as modulus of resilience. It can · Strain energy due to bending is given
also be defined as the maximum strain by
energy per unit volume that can be L
M2
stored without causing permanent U = ò 2 EI
dx
0
deformation.
sy2 · Strain energy due to torsion is given by
· Modulus of resilience = 2E T 2L
U =
2GJ
· The S.I unit of modulus of resilience is
Pa but is generally expressed in MPa.
· The strain energy due to bending in a
cantilever beam of length L carrying a
· If load P is gradually applied, point load P at its free end is
P
s = P 2 L3
A U =
6 EI
(6 - 1)
TM

2
c N/m d N/m
· The strain energy due to bending in a [Ans. : a]
cantilever beam of length L carrying a Q.6 Proof resilience = ___________.
u.d.l of intensity w per unit run
a sy2
throughout its length is
2E
WL5
U =
40 EI b sy2 ´ Volume
c sy2
Objective Questions & Answers ´ Volume
2E
for Online Examination d None of the above [Ans. : c]
Questions Based on Theory Q.7 Modulus of resilience = ___________.

a sy2
Q.1 The strain energy per unit volume is
given by ___________. 2E
a 1 b s2 b sy2 ´ Volume
se
2 2E
c sy2
c Ee2 d any of the above 2E
´ Volume
2 [Ans. : d]
d None of the above [Ans. : a]
Q.2 The unit of strain energy is ___________.
2 Q.8 The S.I unit of modulus of resilience is
a Nm b Nm ___________.
2
c N/m d N/m 2
a Nm b Nm
[Ans. : a]
2
Q.3 The maximum strain energy that can be c N/m d N/m
[Ans. : d]
stored in a bar without permanent
Q.9 If an axial load P is applied gradually to
deformation is known as ___________.
a rod, the stress developed in it is
a modulus of resilience ___________.
b proof resilience a 2P b P
c resilience A 2A
d none of the above [Ans. : b] c P d A
A P [Ans. : c]
Q.4 The maximum strain energy per unit
volume that can be stored in a body Q.10 If an axial load P is applied suddenly to
without causing permanent deformation a rod, the stress developed in it is
is known as ___________. ___________.
a 2P b P
a modulus of resilience
A 2A
b proof resilience P A
c d
c resilience A P [Ans. : a]
Q.11 For impact load, smax = ___________.
Q.5 The unit of proof resilience is a Wé d ù
1 + 1+ st ú
___________. Aê
ë 2h û
2
a Nm b Nm
TM

b Wé 2h ù a uniformly distributed load of intensity

1 + 1+
Aê
ë d ú
st û w throughout its length is ___________.
c Wé h ù a w L5
1 + 1+
Aê
ë d ú
st û
6EI
b w2 L3
d Aé 2h ù
ê1 + 1+ 6 EI
Wë dst ú
û [Ans. : b]
c w L5
Q.12 The expression for strain energy due to 40EI
self weight for a rod of uniform cross d w2 L5
section area A, length L and weight W is 240EI [Ans. : d]
___________.
a WL b W2 L Q.16 The strain energy stored in a simply
AE 3 AE supported beam of length L subjected to
a point load P at the centre is
c W2 L d W2 L
6AE 2AE [Ans. : c] ___________.
a P 2 L3
Q.13 The strain energy stored in a cantilever 6EI
beam of length L subjected to a point
load P at the free end is ___________. b P 2 L3
96EI
a P 2 L3
6EI c P 2 L2
6EI
b P L3
6EI d P 2 L3
6E [Ans. : b]
c P 2 L2
6EI Gradually and Suddenly Applied Loads
d P 2 L3 Q.17 An axial pull of 10 kN is gradually
6E [Ans. : a] applied to a bar of uniform cross
sectional area 500 mm2 and length 1 m.
Q.14 The strain energy stored in a cantilever
The modulus of elasticity is 200 GPa. The
beam of length L subjected to a uniformly
maximum stress developed in the bar is
distributed load of intensity w throughout
___________ MPa.
its length is ___________.
a 10 b 20
a w L5
6EI c 30 d 40
[Ans. : b]
b w2 L3 Q.18 An axial pull of 10 kN is suddenly
6 EI applied to a bar of uniform cross
c w L5 sectional area 500 mm2 and length 1 m.
40EI The modulus of elasticity is 200 GPa. The
maximum stress developed in the bar is
d w2 L5 ___________ MPa.
240EI [Ans. : c]
a 10 b 20
Q.15 The strain energy stored in a simply c 30 d 40
supported beam of length L subjected to [Ans. : d]
TM

Q.19 An axial pull of 10 kN is gradually Q.24 An axial pull of 10 kN is suddenly

applied to a bar of uniform cross applied to a bar of uniform cross
sectional area 500 mm2 and length 1 m. sectional area 500 mm2 and length 1 m.
The modulus of elasticity is 200 GPa. The The modulus of elasticity is 200 GPa. The
maximum elongation of the bar is maximum strain energy stored in the bar
___________ mm. is ___________ J.
a 0.1 b 0.2 a 0.5 b 1
c 0.3 d 0.4 c 1.5 d 2
[Ans. : a] [Ans. : d]
Q.20 An axial pull of 10 kN is suddenly Q.25 An axial pull of 10 kN is gradually
maximum elongation of the bar is maximum strain energy stored per unit
___________ mm. volume in the bar is ___________ N/m2.
a 0.1 b 0.2 a 1´ 10-3 b 1´ 103
c 0.3 d 0.4 [Ans. : b] c 4´ 10-3 d 4´ 103
[Ans. : b]
Q.21 An axial pull of 10 kN is gradually Q.26 An axial pull of 10 kN is suddenly
maximum strain in the bar is maximum strain energy stored per unit
___________. volume in the bar is ___________ N/m2.
a 1´ 10-3 b 2´ 10-4 a 1´ 10-3 b 1´ 103
c 1´ 10-4 d 2´ 10-3 c 4´ 10-3 d 4´ 103
[Ans. : c] [Ans. : d]
Q.22 An axial pull of 10 kN is suddenly Q.27 Two identical rods A and B are subjected
applied to a bar of uniform cross to the same axial pull P. The load is
sectional area 500 mm2 and length 1 m. gradually applied on A whereas it is
The modulus of elasticity is 200 GPa. The suddenly applied to B. The ratio of strain
maximum strain in the bar is energy stored in A to that in B is
___________. ___________.
a 1´ 10-3 b 2´ 10-4 a 1:1
c 1´ 10-4 d 2´ 10-3 b 1:2
[Ans. : b]
c 1:4
Q.23 An axial pull of 10 kN is gradually
applied to a bar of uniform cross d none of the above [Ans. : c]
sectional area 500 mm2 and length 1 m.
Q.28 Two identical rods A and B are subjected
The modulus of elasticity is 200 GPa. The
to the same axial pull P. The load is
maximum strain energy stored in the bar
gradually applied on A whereas it is
is ___________ J.
suddenly applied to B. The ratio of stress
a 0.5 b 1 in A to that in B is ___________.
c 1.5 d 2 a 1:1
[Ans. : a]
TM

b 1:2 c 1:4
c 1:4 d none of the above [Ans. : b]
Q.33 Two rods A and B have the same cross
Q.29 Two identical rods A and B are subjected section area but the length of B is twice
to the same axial pull P. The load is that of A. The two rods are subjected to
gradually applied on A whereas it is the same axial force P which is applied
suddenly applied to B. The ratio of gradually. The ratio of elongation of A to
elongation of A to that of B is that of B is ___________.
___________. a 1:1 b 1:2
a 1:1 c 1:4
b 1:2 d none of the above [Ans. : b]
c 1:4
d none of the above [Ans. : b] section area but the length of B is twice
that of A. The two rods are subjected to
the same axial force P which is applied
gradually. The ratio of the strain in A to
gradually applied on A whereas it is
that in B is ___________.
suddenly applied to B. The ratio of strain
in A to that in B is ___________. a 1:1 b 1:2
a 1:1 c 1:4
b 1:2 d none of the above [Ans. : a]
c 1:4 Q.35 Two rods A and B have the same cross

d none of the above [Ans. : b] section area but the length of B is twice
Q.31 Two rods A and B have the same cross the same axial force P which is applied
section area but the length of B is twice gradually. The ratio of strain energy per
that of A. The two rods are subjected to unit volume in A to that in B is
the same axial force P which is applied ___________.
gradually. The ratio of the stress in A to
a 1:1
that in B is ___________.
b 1:2
a 1:1
c 1:4
b 1:2
c 1:4
d none of the above [Ans. : a] Q.36 Two rods A and B have the same cross
section area but the length of B is twice
Q.32 Two rods A and B have the same cross that of A. The two rods are subjected to
section area but the length of B is twice the same axial force P which is applied
that of A. The two rods are subjected to gradually in A but applied suddenly in B.
the same axial force P which is applied The ratio of the stress in A to that in B is
gradually. The ratio of strain energy in A ___________.
to that in B is ___________.
a 2:1 b 1:2
a 1:1
c 1:4 d 1:8 [Ans. : b]
b 1:2
TM

Q.37 Two rods A and B have the same cross ratio of the stress in A to that in B is
section area but the length of B is twice ___________.
a 2:1 b 1:2
gradually in A but applied suddenly in B. c 1:4 d 4:1 [Ans. : d]
The ratio of strain energy in A to that in
Q.42 Two rods A and B have the same length.
B is ___________.
Their cross sections are circular with
a 1:1 b 1:2 diameter of B being twice that of A. The
c 1:4 d 1:8 [Ans. : d] two rods are subjected to the same axial
force P which is applied suddenly. The
Q.38 Two rods A and B have the same cross ratio of the strain energy in A to that in
section area but the length of B is twice B is ___________.
a 2:1 b 1:2
The ratio of elongation of A to that of B
is ___________.
c 1:4 d 1:8 [Ans. : c] two rods are subjected to the same axial
Q.39 Two rods A and B have the same cross ratio of the elongation of A to that of B is
section area but the length of B is twice ___________.
a 2:1 b 1:2
The ratio of the strain in A to that in B is
___________.
c 1:4 d 1:8 [Ans. : b] two rods are subjected to the same axial
Q.40 Two rods A and B have the same cross ratio of the strain energy per unit volume
section area but the length of B is twice in A to that in B is ___________.
a 2:1 b 16 : 1
gradually in A but applied suddenly in B. c 1:4 d 4:1 [Ans. : b]
The ratio of strain energy per unit
volume in A to that in B is ___________.
a 1:1 b 1:2 diameter of B being twice that of A. An
c 1:4 d 4:1 [Ans. : c] axial load P is applied gradually to A but
the same force is applied suddenly on B.
Q.41 Two rods A and B have the same length. The ratio of the stress in A to that in B is
Their cross sections are circular with ___________.
diameter of B being twice that of A. The
a 2:1 b 1:2
two rods are subjected to the same axial
force P which is applied suddenly. The c 1:4 d 4:1 [Ans. : a]
TM

Q.46 Two rods A and B have the same length. The ratio of the stress in A to that in B is
diameter of B being twice that of A. An
a 8:1 b 1:8
axial load P is applied gradually to A but
the same force is applied suddenly on B. c 2:1 d 4:1 [Ans. : a]
The ratio of the strain energy in A to that
in B is ___________.
c 1:1 d 4:1 [Ans. : c] axial load P is applied suddenly to A but
the same force is applied gradually on B.
Q.47 Two rods A and B have the same length. The ratio of the strain energy in A to that
Their cross sections are circular with in B is ___________.
a 8:1 b 1:8
the same force is applied suddenly on B. c 16 : 1 d 1 : 16 [Ans. : c]
The ratio of the elongation of A to that of
B is ___________.
c 1:4 d 4:1 [Ans. : a] axial load P is applied suddenly to A but
Q.48 Two rods A and B have the same length. The ratio of the elongation of A to that of
Their cross sections are circular with B is ___________.
a 8:1 b 1:8
the same force is applied suddenly on B. c 16 : 1 d 1 : 16 [Ans. : a]
The ratio of the strain energy per unit
volume in A to that in B is ___________.
a 2:1 b 16 : 1 diameter of B being twice that of A. An
c 1:4 d 4:1 [Ans. : d] axial load P is applied suddenly to A but
Q.49 Two rods A and B have the same length. The ratio of the strain energy per unit
Their cross sections are circular with volume in A to that in B is ___________.
a 8:1 b 1:8
the same force is applied suddenly on B. c 16 : 1 d 64 : 1 [Ans. : d]
The ratio of the strain in A to that in B is
___________.
a 2:1 b 16 : 1 diameter of B being twice that of A. An
c 1:4 d 4:1 [Ans. : a] axial load P is applied suddenly to A but
Q.50 Two rods A and B have the same length. The ratio of the strain in A to that in B is
a 2:1 b 8:1
axial load P is applied suddenly to A but
the same force is applied gradually on B. c 1:4 d 4:1 [Ans. : b]
TM

Q.55 Two rods A and B have the same length of different materials. The modulus of
and cross section areas but are made up elasticity of A is twice that of B. Both the
of different materials. The modulus of rods are subjected to the same axial load
elasticity of A is twice that of B. Both the P which is applied suddenly. The ratio of
rods are subjected to the same axial load the strain energy per unit volume in A to
P which is applied suddenly. The ratio of that in B is ___________.
the stress in A to that in B is
a 1:1 b 1:2
___________.
c 2:1 d 4:1 [Ans. : b]
a 1:1 b 1:2
c 2:1 d 4:1 [Ans. : a] Q.60 Two rods A and B have the same length
and cross section areas but are made up
and cross section areas but are made up elasticity of A is twice that of B. An axial
of different materials. The modulus of load P is applied gradually to A but the
elasticity of A is twice that of B. Both the same force is applied suddenly on B. The
rods are subjected to the same axial load ratio of the stress in A to that in B is
P which is applied suddenly. The ratio of ___________.
the strain energy in A to that in B is
a 1:1 b 1:2
___________.
c 2:1 d 4:1 [Ans. : b]
a 1:1 b 1:2
c 2:1 d 4:1 [Ans. : b] Q.61 Two rods A and B have the same length
rods are subjected to the same axial load ratio of the strain energy in A to that in
P which is applied suddenly. The ratio of B is ___________.
the elongation of A to that of B is
a 1:1 b 1:2
___________.
c 1:4 d 1:8 [Ans. : d]
a 1:1 b 1:2
rods are subjected to the same axial load ratio of the elongation of A to that of B is
P which is applied suddenly. The ratio of ___________.
the strain in A to that in B is
a 1:1 b 1:2
___________.
c 1:4 d 1:8 [Ans. : c]
a 1:1 b 1:2
TM

load P is applied gradually to A but the ratio of the elongation of A to that of B is

same force is applied suddenly on B. The ___________.
ratio of the strain in A to that in B is a 1:1 b 2:1
___________.
c 4:1 d 8:1 [Ans. : a]
a 1:1 b 1:2
c 1:4 d 1:8 [Ans. : c] Q.68 Two rods A and B have the same length
of different materials. The modulus of load P is applied suddenly to A but the
elasticity of A is twice that of B. An axial same force is applied gradually on B. The
load P is applied gradually to A but the ratio of the strain in A to that in B is
same force is applied suddenly on B. The ___________.
ratio of the strain energy per unit volume a 1:1 b 2:1
in A to that in B is ___________.
c 4:1 d 8:1 [Ans. : a]
a 1:1 b 1:2
c 1:4 d 1:8 [Ans. : c] Q.69 Two rods A and B have the same length
of different materials. The modulus of load P is applied suddenly to A but the
elasticity of A is twice that of B. An axial same force is applied gradually on B. The
load P is applied suddenly to A but the ratio of the strain energy per unit volume
same force is applied gradually on B. The in A to that in B is ___________.
ratio of the stress in A to that in B is a 1:1 b 2:1
___________.
c 4:1 d 8:1 [Ans. : a]
a 1:1 b 1:2
c 2:1 d 4:1 [Ans. : c] Q.70 Two rods A and B have the same length.
Q.66 Two rods A and B have the same length diameter of A being twice that of B. The
and cross section areas but are made up modulus of elasticity of A is twice that of
of different materials. The modulus of B. Both the rods are subjected to the
elasticity of A is twice that of B. An axial same axial load P which is applied
load P is applied suddenly to A but the suddenly. The stress in A is ___________
same force is applied gradually on B. The times that in B.
ratio of the strain energy in A to that in a 2 b 4
B is ___________.
c ½ d 1/4 [Ans. : d]
a 1:1 b 2:1
c 4:1 d 8:1 [Ans. : b] Q.71 Two rods A and B have the same length.
Q.67 Two rods A and B have the same length diameter of A being twice that of B. The
and cross section areas but are made up modulus of elasticity of A is twice that of
of different materials. The modulus of B. Both the rods are subjected to the
elasticity of A is twice that of B. An axial same axial load P which is applied
load P is applied suddenly to A but the suddenly. The strain energy in A is
same force is applied gradually on B. The ___________ times that in B.
TM

Strength of Materials 6 - 10 Strain Energy
a ½ b 1/4 c 1/8 d 1/16 [Ans. : c]

c 1/8 d 1/16 [Ans. : d]
Q.72 Two rods A and B have the same length. Their cross sections are circular with
Their cross sections are circular with diameter of A being twice that of B. The
diameter of A being twice that of B. The modulus of elasticity of A is twice that of
modulus of elasticity of A is twice that of B. An axial load P is applied gradually to
B. Both the rods are subjected to the A but the same force is applied suddenly
same axial load P which is applied on B. The strain energy in A is
suddenly. The elongation in A is ___________ times that in B.
___________ times that in B. a 1/32 b 1/64
a ½ b 1/44 c 1/128 d 1/16 [Ans. : a]
c 1/8 d 1/16 [Ans. : c]
same axial load P which is applied on B. The elongation in A is ___________
suddenly. The strain in A is ___________ times that in B.
times that in B. a ½ b 1/4
a ½ b 1/4 c 1/8 d 1/16 [Ans. : d]
c 1/8 d 1/16 [Ans. : c]
same axial load P which is applied on B. The strain in A is ___________
suddenly. The strain energy per unit times that in B.
volume in A is ___________ times that in a ½ b 1/4
B. c 1/8 d 1/16 [Ans. : d]
a 1/32 b 1/4
c 1/8 d 1/16 [Ans. : a]
Q.75 Two rods A and B have the same length. diameter of A being twice that of B. The
Their cross sections are circular with modulus of elasticity of A is twice that of
diameter of A being twice that of B. The B. An axial load P is applied gradually to
modulus of elasticity of A is twice that of A but the same force is applied suddenly
B. An axial load P is applied gradually to on B. The strain energy per unit volume
A but the same force is applied suddenly in A is ___________ times that in B.
on B. The stress in A is ___________ a 1/32 b 1/64
times that in B. c 1/128 d 1/16 [Ans. : c]
a ½ b 1/4
TM

Q.80 Two rods A and B have the same length. diameter of A being twice that of B. The
Their cross sections are circular with modulus of elasticity of A is twice that of
diameter of A being twice that of B. The B. An axial load P is applied suddenly to
modulus of elasticity of A is twice that of A but the same force is applied gradually
B. An axial load P is applied suddenly to on B. The strain energy per unit volume
A but the same force is applied gradually in A is ___________ times that in B.
on B. The stress in A is ___________
a ½ b 1/4
times that in B.
c 1/8 d 1/16 [Ans. : c]
a ½ b 1/4
c 1/8 d 1/16 [Ans. : a] Q.85 Two identical rods A and B are subjected
Q.81 Two rods A and B have the same length. suddenly applied on A whereas it is
Their cross sections are circular with gradually applied to B. If the strain
diameter of A being twice that of B. The energy stored in A is 4 J, the strain
modulus of elasticity of A is twice that of energy stored in B is ___________ J.
B. An axial load P is applied suddenly to
a 1 b 4
A but the same force is applied gradually
on B. The strain energy in A is c 8 d 16 [Ans. : a]
___________ times that in B.
a ½ b 1/4 to the same axial pull P. The load is
c 1/8 d 1/16 [Ans. : b] gradually applied on A whereas it is
suddenly applied to B. If the strain
Q.82 Two rods A and B have the same length. energy stored in A is 4 J, the strain
Their cross sections are circular with energy stored in B is ___________ J.
diameter of A being twice that of B. The
a 1 b 4
modulus of elasticity of A is twice that of
B. An axial load P is applied suddenly to c 8 d 16 [Ans. : d]
on B. The elongation in A is ___________
times that in B.
a ½ b 1/4 the same axial force P which is applied
c 1/8 d 1/16 [Ans. : b] gradually in A but applied suddenly in B.
If the strain energy stored in A is 4 J, the
Q.83 Two rods A and B have the same length. strain energy stored in B is ___________ J.
a 1 b 8
diameter of A being twice that of B. The
modulus of elasticity of A is twice that of c 16 d 32 [Ans. : d]
B. An axial load P is applied suddenly to
on B. The strain in A is ___________
times that in B.
a ½ b 1/4 suddenly in A but applied gradually in B.
c 1/8 d 1/16 [Ans. : b] If the strain energy stored in A is 4 J, the
strain energy stored in B is ___________ J.
a 1 b 2
c 16 d 32 [Ans. : b]
TM

Q.89 Two rods A and B have the same length. 240 MPa. The maximum axial load P that
Their cross sections are circular with can be applied to rod of cross sectional
diameter of A being twice that of B. The area 500 mm2 with a factor of safety 4 is
two rods are subjected to the same axial ___________ kN.
force P which is applied gradually in A
a 60 b 15
but applied suddenly in B. If the strain
energy stored in A is 4 J, the strain c 240 d 40 [Ans. : b]
energy stored in B is ___________ J. Impact Loads
a 1 b 8 Q.94 A 10 mm diameter mild steel bar of
c 16 d 32 [Ans. : c] length 1.5 m is stressed by a weight of
120 N dropping freely through a distance
Q.90 Two rods A and B have the same length. of 20 mm before commencing to stretch
Their cross sections are circular with the bar. If E = 200 GPa, the maximum
diameter of A being twice that of B. The instantaneous stress is ___________ MPa.
two rods are subjected to the same axial
a 81.81 b 91.81
force P which is applied suddenly in A
but applied gradually in B. If the strain c 101.81 d 71.81 [Ans. : b]
energy stored in A is 4 J, the strain
Q.95 A 10 mm diameter mild steel bar of
energy stored in B is ___________ J.
length 1.5 m is stressed by a weight of
a 4 b 8 120 N dropping freely through a distance
c 16 d 32 [Ans. : a] of 20 mm before commencing to stretch
the bar. If E = 200 GPa, the maximum
Q.91 Two rods A and B have the same length instantaneous elongation is ___________
and cross section areas but are made up mm.
of different materials. The modulus of
a 0.49 b 0.59
elasticity of A is twice that of B. An axial
load P is applied suddenly to A but the c 0.69 d 0.79 [Ans. : c]
same force is applied gradually on B. If
Q.96 A collar of mass 1 kg moving on a
the strain energy stored in A is 4 J, the
horizontal frictionless rod with a speed of
strain energy stored in B is ___________ J.
3 m/s is stopped by a plate rigidly fixed
a 2 b 4 at the end of the rod. The rod has a
c 8 d 16 [Ans. : a] length of 1.5 m and a cross section area
of 200 mm2. If E = 200 GPa for the rod,
Q.92 Two rods A and B have the same length the instantaneous stress induced in the
and cross section areas but are made up rod is ___________ MPa.
of different materials. The modulus of
a 77.46 b 7.746
elasticity of A is twice that of B. An axial
load P is applied gradually to A but the c 774.6 d 746.7 [Ans. : a]
same force is applied suddenly on B. If
the strain energy stored in A is 4 J, the
strain energy stored in B is ___________ J. Q.97 A collar moving on a horizontal
a 2 b 4 frictionless rod has a kinetic energy of 8
J. The rod has a length of 2 m and a
c 8 d 32 [Ans. : d]
cross section area of 200 mm2. If
Q.93 An axial load P is suddenly applied to a E = 200 GPa for the rod and a factor of
steel rod for which the yield stress is safety 4 is used, the yield stress for the
rod is ___________ MPa.
TM

a 11.18 Q.102 Water under pressure of 8 MPa is

b 44.72 suddenly admitted on to a plunger of
area 5000 mm2. The plunger is attached
c 178.88
to a rod of area 500 mm2. The stress in
d none of the above [Ans. : c] the rod is ___________ MPa.
(Hint : Refer example 6.1.9 from main book) a 80 b 160
Q.98 A weight of 500 N falls through height h c 120 d 40 [Ans. : b]

onto a collar attached to the end of a
vertical rod of cross section area 200 mm2
giving rise to a maximum stress of Q.103 A car of mass 1000 kg at rest is to be
150 MPa in the rod. If the length of the pulled by a towing truck with the help of
rod is 2 m and E = 200 GPa, a 5 m long steel cable. The maximum
h = _________ mm. allowable stress in the steel cable is
150 MPa and the modulus of elasticity of
a 50 b 43.5
steel is 200 GPa. If the speed of the
c 53.5 d 33.5 [Ans. : b] towing truck is 0.5 m/s when the cable
becomes taut, the diameter of the cable
Q.99 A weight W falls through a height of
required to pull the car is ___________
95 mm onto a collar attached to the end
mm.
of a vertical rod of circular cross section
of diameter 15 mm and length 1.4 m. The a 11.9 b 23.8
maximum stress induced in the rod is c 30 d 40 [Ans. : b]
observed to be 150 MPa. If E = 200 GPa,
W = ___________ N.
a 145 b 150 qqq
c 155 d 160 [Ans. : a]
Miscellaneous Questions
Q.100 Water under pressure of 8 MPa is
suddenly admitted on to a plunger of
area 5000 mm2. The force acting on the
plunger is ___________ kN.
a 0.625 b 625
c 1.6 d 40 [Ans. : d]

Q.101 Water under pressure of 8 MPa is
suddenly admitted on to a plunger of
area 5000 mm2. The plunger is attached
to a rod of area 500 mm2. The force
acting on the rod is ___________ kN.
a 0.625 b 625
c 1.6 d 40 [Ans. : d]
TM

Notes
TM

Subject code-202045
Unit-1
D Any one of above
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A mm/mm
B N/cm
C N
D N/cm2
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Strain
B Lateral strain
C Linear strain
D Linear stress
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
is called
B Tensile stress
C Transverse stress
D Working stress
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Ideal material
B Uniform material
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Same
B More
C Less
D Unpredictable
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
the
D None of above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Unit stress
B Bulk modulus
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Surface tension
B Bulk modulus
C strain
D elasticity
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Plasticity
B elasticity
C ductility
D malleability
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Homogeneous
B Inelastic
C Isotropic
D Isentropic
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Plasticity
B Ductility
C elasticity
D malleability
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Poisson’s ratio
B Bulk modulus
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A Remains constant
B Varies with time
D None of these
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
A Elastic limit
D None of these
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit A1
Id
A Hooks law
B Yield point
C Proof stress
D Permanent set
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit A
Id
D None of the above
Answer D
Marks 2
U
Id
A Not deform
B Be safest
C Stretch
D Not stretch
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Young's modulus
B Bulk modulus
D Poisson's ratio
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit A
Id
A 1 to -0.5
B 1 to +0.5
C 0 to +0.5
D 0 to -0.5
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 10 kN/mm2
B 80 kN/mm2
C 100 kN/mm2
D 210 kN/mm2
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Pa
B Kgf/mm2
C Tonne/m2
D any one of these
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A equal to
B less than
C greater than
D Nearly equal to
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A ductile
B brittle
C malleable
D plastic
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 0.1 to 0.9
B 0.05 to 0.1
C 1 to 10
D 0.25 to 0.35
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 1
B 2
C 3
D 4
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
D Equal to strain
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Unit stress
C Bulk modulus
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Plastic limit
B Elastic limit
C Yield point
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A point of failure
B point of rupture
C yield point
D none of these
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A plastic range
B elastic range
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A The same
B One fourth
C Half
D Double
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id

Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Decrease
B Increase
C Remains same
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Young's modulus
B Shear modulus
C Poisson’s ratio
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Cast iron
B Mild steel
C Soft brass
D Aluminum
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Yield strength
C Elastic limit
D Tensile strength
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Two
B Three
C Four
D Six
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Elastic limit
C Ultimate stress
D Breaking point
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
upon the
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 0.7 Nm
B 1.0 Nm
C 1.4 Nm
D 2.8 Nm
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
in length would be
A P/LAE
B PE/AL
C PL/AE
D AL/PE
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
would be
A 0.5
B 0.4
C 0.3
D 1
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 0.66
B 0.33
C 1.33
D 1
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id

Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
incresead
A Increased
B Decreased
C Remains constant
D Either A or B
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Stress to strain
D All of these
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 4PL/πEd2 d1
B 4πEd2 d1 /PL
C 4PE/πLd2 d1
D None of above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Larger end
B Smaller end
C Middle
D anywhere
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
material will be
A Same
B Zero
C Different
D None of above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
will induce
A no stress
B shear stress
C tensile stress
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A no stress
B shear stress
C tensile stress
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A elastic limit
B yield point
C ultimate point
D breaking point
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
D none of these
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
B Upper yield point
C Lower yield point
D Ultimate point
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A doubled
B remain unaffected
C become one-fourth
D become four times
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
the
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 50.00%
B 0.00%
C 10.00%
D 20.00%
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
D none of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 4 kN/cm2
B 8 kN/cm2
C 16 kN/cm2
D None of above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A half
B same
C One third
D One
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A plasticity
B elasticity
C malleability
D ductility
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Steel
B Copper
C Brass
D none of the above
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
called
A reliability
B plasticity
C ductility
D malleability
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A breaking stress
D maximum stress
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A -0.01
B +0.01
C +0.001
D -0.001
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A +0.001 mm
B +0.01mm
C - 0.01 mm
D - 0.001 mm
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A original length
D All of these
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 4 x 10-4
B 2 x 10-4
C 8 x 10-4
D 4 x 10-4
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 50 Pa
B 500 Pa
C 50 MPa
D 500 MPa
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A Doubled
B Half
C Become four time
D Remain unaffected
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
D None of above
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A D1+ d2
B 1/( d1+d2 )
C d1d2
D 1/( d1d2)
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
strains in bar is
A 100* l/L
B 0.1*l/L
C 0.01*l /L
D l/L
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Answer D
Marks 2
--Unit --
Id
A (d1+d2)/2
B (d1-d2)/2
C √( d1d2)
D √(d12-d22)
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
2.Temperature rise
A 1 and 2 only
B 1 and 3 only
C 2 and 3 only
D 1, 2 and 3 only
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 1.25 mm
B 2.70 mm
C 4.05 mm
D 5.40 mm
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A Young's modulus
B Shear modulus
C Poisson's ratio
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 2G(1+ μ )
B 2G(1 − μ )
C 0.5G(1+ μ )
D 0.5G(1 − μ )
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A E = 3 K (1 − 2μ )
B K = 3 E (1 − 2μ )
C E = 3 K (1 − μ )
D K = 3 E (1 − μ )
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2 and 3
C 1, 2 and 4
D 1, 3 and 4
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
least
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A wl3 /6E
B wl3 /E
C wl3 /4E
D wl3 /3E
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
ratio will
A Increase
B Decrease
C Remain same
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 9KG/(K+G)
B 9KG/(G+3K)
C 9KG/(K+3G)
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A wL2/2E
B WL2/6E
C wL2/8E
D wL/8E
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A equal to
B less than
C more than
D Nearly equal to
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A equal to half
B less than half
C more than half
D none of these
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A WL/AE
B 2WL/AE
C WL/2AE
D None of these
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
will be
A 10
B 25
C 33
D 50
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 2
B 4
C 0.5
D 0.25
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit D1
Id
A 1/7
B 2/7
C 3/7
D 4/7
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 0.12
B 0.25
C 0.38
D 0.5
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
called
B Tensile stress
D Working stress.
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A (3σ/E)*(1+ν)
B (3σ/E)*(1-ν)
C (3σ/E)*(1+2ν)
D (3σ/E)*(1-2ν)
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
test would be
A More than 50 %
B 25-50 %
C 10-25 %
D Negligible
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A Same
B Half
C One third
D Double
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A Half
B Double
C Same
D One third
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
3
Id
A 0.01 to 0.1
B 0.25 to 0.33
C 0.4 to 0.6
D 0.23 to 0.27
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A Creeping
B Yielding
C Breaking
D None of above
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question Assertion (A): Hook’s law is the constitutive law for a linear elastic material. Reason (R)
: Formulation of the theory of elasticity requires the hypothesis that there exists a unique
unstressed state of the body, to which the body returns whenever all the forces are
removed.
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
below the Lists:
A A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
B A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
C A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
D A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
a test?
2. Yield stress
3. Ductility
4. Tensile strength
A 1, 3, 5 and 6
B 2, 3, 4 and 6
C 1, 2, 5 and 6
D 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
as heat
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 1:4
B 4:1
C 1:2
D 2:1
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
A Linear Elastic
B Linear plastic
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A Linear Elastic
B Linear plastic
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A Cast iron
B Mild Steel
C Aluminum
D Pure copper
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A Cast iron
B Mild Steel
C Aluminum
D Pure copper
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A Cast iron
B Mild Steel
C Aluminum
D Pure copper
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Elastic limit
B Upper yield point
C Lower yield point
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 0.4e
B 0.6e
C 3e
D 1.6 e
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
increase
A eight times
B four times
C three times
D two times
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 3.75
B 3
C 2.5
D 1.5
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 8 x 106 N/mm2
B 8 x 105 N/mm2
C 0.8 x 104 N/mm2
D 0.8 x 105 N/mm2

Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 8 x 106 N/mm2
B 8 x 105 N/mm2
C 0.8 x 104 N/mm2
D 0.8 x 105 N/mm2

Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
will be
A 1/1000
B 1/1200
C 1/2400
D 1/4800
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
ratio is
A 0.25
B 0.30
C 0.33
D 0.35
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 0.25
B 0.326
C 0.356
D 0.28
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 2
B 4
C 1/2
D 1/4
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 50 kN/mm2
B 100 kN/mm2
C 150 kN/mm2
D 200 kN/mm2
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 2.5
B 1.6
C 0.8
D 0.4
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
direction is
A 1.2
B 1.8
C 2.4
D 3.0
Answer D
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 2 mm
B 0.2 mm
C 0.02 mm
D 0.01 mm
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 250 N/mm2
B 100 N/mm2
C 50 N/mm2
D 25 N/mm2
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A equal to
B less than
C greater than
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 750 N/mm2
B 600 N/mm2
C 500 N/mm2
D None of these
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
specimen is
A 4 tonnes/cm2
B 8 tonnes/cm2
C 16 tonnes/cm2
D 22 tonnes/cm2
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 1000 mm3
B 100 mm3
C 10 mm3
D 5 mm3
Answer B
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 12 kN
B 6 kN
C 4 kN
D 2 kN
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 300 N/mm2
B 100 N/mm2
C 50 N/mm2
D 33.33 N/mm2
Answer C
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
A 1
B 0.5
C 2
D 25
Answer A
Marks 2
Unit --
Id
Question
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Question
be....
A 0.0725 mm
B 0.7025 mm
C 0.7025 cm
D 1.7025 mm
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question

Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A 12.73 N/m2
B 12.73 MN/m
C 12.73 MN/m2
D 12.73 KN/m2
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A 88.42 N/m2
B 88.42 GN/m2
C 88.42 KN/m2
D 88.42 MN/m2
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Question
A 9.1777 x10-5 cm
B 9.1777 x10-5m
C 9.1777 x10-5mm
D 9.1777 x10-3mm
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Question No. 01
According to Lami's theorem
to force
Answer: Option D
Question No. 02
A number of forces acting at a point will be in equilibrium if
(A) Their total sum is zero
(B) Two resolved parts in two directions at right angles are equal
(C) Sum of resolved parts in any two perpendicular directions are both zero
(D) All of them are inclined equally
Answer: Option C
Question No. 03
The center of gravity of a triangle lies at the point of
(A) Concurrence of the medians
(B) Intersection of its altitudes
(C) Intersection of bisector of angles
(D) Intersection of diagonals
Answer: Option A
Question No. 04
Angle of friction is the
(C) The ratio of minimum friction force to the friction force acting when the body is just about
to move
(D) The ratio of minimum friction force to friction force acting when the body is in motion
Answer: Option A
Question No. 05
Limiting force of friction is the
(A) Tangent of angle between normal reaction and the resultant of normal reaction and limiting
friction
Answer: Option C
Question No. 06
The necessary condition for forces to be in equilibrium is that these should be
(A) Coplanar
(B) Meet at one point
(C) Both (A) and (B) above
(D) All be equal
Answer: Option C
Question No. 07
Which of the following is the example of lever of first order?
(A) Arm of man
(B) Pair of scissors
(C) Pair of clinical tongs
Answer: Option D
Question No. 08
A cable with a uniformly distributed load per horizontal metre run will take the following shape
(A) Straight line
(B) Parabola
(C) Hyperbola
(D) Elliptical
Answer: Option B
Question No. 09
In determining stresses in frames by methods of sections, the frame is divided into two parts by an
imaginary section drawn in such a way as not to cut more than
(A) Two members with unknown forces of the frame
(B) Three members with unknown forces of the frame
(C) Four members with unknown forces of the frame
(D) Three members with known forces of the frame
Answer: Option B
Question No. 10
According to principle of transmissibility of forces, the effect of a force upon a body is
(A) Maximum when it acts at the center of gravity of a body
(B) Different at different points in its line of action
(C) The same at every point in its line of action
(D) Minimum when it acts at the C.G. of the body
Answer: Option C
Question No. 11
Which of the following do not have identical dimensions?
(A) Momentum and impulse
(B) Torque and energy
(C) Torque and work
(D) Moment of a force and angular momentum
Answer: Option D
Question No. 12
If a number of forces act simultaneously on a particle, it is possible
(A) Not a replace them by a single force
(B) To replace them by a single force
(C) To replace them by a single force through C.G.
(D) To replace them by a couple
Answer: Option B
Question No. 13
Two coplanar couples having equal and opposite moments
(B) Produce a couple and an unbalanced force
(C) Are equivalent
(D) Produce a moment of couple
Answer: Option D
Question No. 14
If a suspended body is struck at the centre of percussion, then the pressure on die axis passing
through the point of suspension will be
(A) Maximum
(B) Minimum
(C) Zero
(D) Infinity
Answer: Option C
Question No. 15
Kinetic friction is the
(A) Tangent of angle between normal reaction and the resultant of normal reaction and the
limiting friction
Answer: Option D
Question No. 16
The center of gravity of a uniform lamina lies at
(A) The center of heavy portion
(B) The bottom surface
(C) The midpoint of its axis
Answer: Option C
Question No. 17
The bending moment at E for the structure shown in below figure, is
(A) Zero
(B) 10 Tm
(C) 20 Tm
(D) 40 Tm
Answer: Option A
Question No. 18
The maximum twisting moment a shaft can resist, is the product of the permissible shear stress
and
(A) Moment of inertia
(B) Polar moment of inertia
(C) Polar modulus
(D) Modulus of rigidly
Answer: Option C
Question No. 19
The deflection of any rectangular beam simply supported, is
(A) Directly proportional to its weight
(B) Inversely proportional to its width
(C) Inversely proportional to the cube of its depth
(D) Directly proportional to the cube of its length
Answer: Option C
Question No. 20
(A) The point through which the resultant of the shear stresses passes is known as shear centre
(B) In the standard rolled channels, the shear centre is on the horizontal line passing through
and away from the C.G. beyond web
(C) In equal angles, the shear centre is on the horizontal plane and away from the C.G., outside
of the leg projection
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 21
A heavy string attached at two ends at same horizontal level and when central dip is very small
approaches the following curve
(A) Catenary
(B) Parabola
(C) Hyperbola
(D) Elliptical
Answer: Option B
Question No. 22
(B) Deflection is same throughout the beam
(C) Bending stress is same throughout the beam
(D) Shear stress is same throughout the beam
Answer: Option C
Question No. 23
(A) The distance of the eccentric axial load from the C.G. beyond which tension develops, is
known as kern distance
(B) In visco-elastic material, stress-strain relation is dependent on time
(C) An orthotropic material has different properties in three mutually perpendicular directions
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 24
The ratio of limiting friction and normal reaction is known as
(A) Coefficient of friction
(B) Angle of friction
(C) Angle of repose
(D) Sliding friction
Answer: Option A
Question No. 25
If a three hinged parabolic arch carries a uniformly distributed load on its entire span, every
section of the arch resists.
(A) Compressive force
(B) Tensile force
(C) Shear force
(D) Bending moment
Answer: Option A
Question No. 26
The under mentioned type is simple strain
(A) Tensile strain
(B) Compressive strain
(C) Shear strain
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 27
If rain is falling in the opposite direction of the movement of a pedestrian, he has to hold his
umbrella
(A) More inclined when moving
(B) Less inclined when moving
(C) More inclined when standing
(D) Less inclined when standing
Answer: Option D
Question No. 28
The reaction at support A of the beam shown in below figure, is
(A) Zero
(B) 5 T
(C) 10 T
(D) 1 T
Answer: Option A
Question No. 29
In a solid arch, shear force acts
(A) Vertically upwards
(B) Along the axis of the arch
(C) Perpendicular to the axis of arch
(D) Tangentially to the arch
Answer: Option C
Question No. 30
The maximum frictional force which comes into play when a body just begins to slide over another
surface is called
(A) Limiting friction
(B) Sliding friction
(C) Rolling friction
Answer: Option A
Question No. 31
An arch with three hinges, is a structure
(A) Statically determinate
(B) Statically indeterminate
(C) Geometrically unstable
(D) Structurally sound but indeterminate
Answer: Option A
Question No. 32
Beams of uniform strength are preferred to those of uniform section because these are
economical for
(A) Large spans
(B) Heavy weights
(C) Light weights
(D) Short spans
Answer: Option A
Question No. 33
The M.I. of hollow circular section about a central axis perpendicular to section as compared to its
M.I. about horizontal axis is
(A) Same
(B) Double
(C) Half
(D) Four times
Answer: Option B
Question No. 34
The tensile force required to cause an elongation of 0.045 mm in a steel rod of 1000 mm length
and 12 mm diameter, is (where E = 2 × 106 kg/cm2)
(A) 166 kg
(B) 102 kg
(C) 204 kg
(D) 74 kg
Answer: Option B
Question No. 35
A long vertical member, subjected to an axial compressive load, is called
(A) A column
(B) A strut
(C) A tie
(D) A stanchion
Answer: Option A
Question No. 36
In ideal machines
Answer: Option B
Question No. 37
The nature of the stress in horizontal members of the truss shown in below figure may be
(A) Compressive
(B) Tensile
(C) Shear
(D) Zero
Answer: Option B
Question No. 38
The property of a material by which it can be drawn to a smaller section, due to tension, is called
(A) Plasticity
(B) Ductility
(C) Elasticity
(D) Malleability
Answer: Option B
Question No. 39
The unit of force in S.I. units is
(A) Kilogram
(B) Newton
(C) Watt
(D) Dyne
Answer: Option B
Question No. 40
A bending moment may be defined as:
(A) Arithmetic sum of the moments of all the forces on either side of the section
(B) Arithmetic sum of the forces on either side of the section
(C) Algebraic sum of the moments of all the forces on either side of the section
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 41
If a circular beam of diameter d experiences a longitudinal strain P/E and a lateral strain 2P/mE,
the volumetric strain is
(A) (P/E) + (2P/mE)
(B) (P/E) - (2P/mE)
(C) (P/E) + (mE/2P)
(D) (P/E) - (mE/2P)
Answer: Option B
Question No. 42
The resolved part of the resultant of two forces inclined at an angle in a given direction is equal
to
(A) The algebraic sum of the resolved parts of the forces in the given direction
(B) The sum of the resolved parts of the forces in the given direction
(C) The difference of the forces multiplied by the cosine of
(D) The sum of the forces multiplied by the sine of
Answer: Option A
Question No. 43
For structural analysis, Maxwell's reciprocal theorem can be applied to:
(A) Plastic structures
(B) Elastic structures
(C) Symmetrical structures
(D) All the above
Answer: Option B
Question No. 44
If all the dimensions of a bar are increased in the proportion n : 1, the proportion with which the
maximum stress produced in the prismatic bar by its own weight, will increase in the ratio
(A) 1 : n
(B) n : 1
(C) 1 : (1/n)
(D) 1 : n
Answer: Option B
Question No. 45
Which of the following is a vector quantity?
(A) Energy
(B) Mass
(C) Momentum
(D) Angle
Answer: Option C
Question No. 46
Pick up the incorrect statement
(A) The cross-sectional area of the welded member is effective
(B) A welded joint develops strength of its parent metal
(C) Welded joints provide rigidity
(D) Welding takes more time than riveting
Answer: Option D
Question No. 47
A 8 metre long simply supported rectangular beam which carries a distributed load 45 kg/m.
experiences a maximum fibre stress 160 kg/cm2. If the moment of inertia of the beam is 640 cm4,
the overall depth of the beam is
(A) 10 cm
(B) 12 cm
(C) 15 cm
(D) 18 cm
Answer: Option A
Question No. 48
A heavy ladder resting on floor and against a vertical wall may not be in equilibrium, if
(A) The floor is smooth, the wall is rough
(B) The floor is rough, the wall is smooth
(C) The floor and wall both are smooth surfaces
(D) The floor and wall both are rough surfaces
Answer: Option C
Question No. 49
A triangular section having base b, height h, is placed with its base horizontal. If the shear stress at
a depth y from top is q, the maximum shear stress is
(A) 3S/bh
(B) 4S/bh
(C) 4b/Sh
(D) 3b/bS
Answer: Option A
Question No. 50
Maximum deflection of a
(A) Cantilever beam carrying a concentrated load W at its free end is WL3/3EI
(B) Simply supported beam carrying a concentrated load W at mid-span is WL3/48EI
(C) Cantilever beam, carrying a uniformly distributed load over span is WL3/8EI
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 51
From a circular plate of diameter 6 cm is cut out a circle whose diameter is a radius of the plate.
Find the e.g. of the remainder from the center of circular plate
(A) 0.5 cm
(B) 1.0 cm
(C) 1.5 cm
(D) 2.5 cm
Answer: Option A
Question No. 52
If a rectangular beam measuring 10 × 18 × 400 cm carries a uniformly distributed load such that
the bending stress developed is 100 kg/cm2. The intensity of the load per metre length, is
(A) 240 kg
(B) 250 kg
(C) 260 kg
(D) 270 kg
Answer: Option B
Question No. 53
If two tensile forces mutually perpendicular act on a rectangular parallelepiped bar are equal, the
resulting elongation of the pipe, is
(A) (P/E) (1 - m)
(B) (E/P) (m -1)
(C) (E/P) (1 - m)
(D) (P/E) (1 + m)
Answer: Option A
Question No. 54
On a ladder resting on smooth ground and leaning against vertical wall, the force of friction will be
(A) Towards the wall at its upper end
(B) Away from the wall at its upper end
(C) Upwards at its upper end
(D) Downwards at its upper end
Answer: Option C
Question No. 55
If the rivets in adjacent rows are staggered and outermost row has only one rivet, the
arrangement of the rivets, is called
(A) Chain riveting
(B) Zig-zag riveting
(C) Diamond riveting
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 56
The bending moment at C of a portal frame shown in below figure is
(A) 8 t-m
(B) 4 t-m
(C) 28 t-m
(D) Zero
Answer: Option D
Question No. 57
If three forces acting in one plane upon a rigid body, keep it in equilibrium, then they must either
(A) Meet in a point
(B) Be all parallel
(C) At least two of them must meet
(D) All the above are correct
Answer: Option D
Question No. 58
In a three hinged arch, the shear force is usually
(A) Maximum at crown
(B) Maximum at springing
(C) Maximum at quarter points
(D) Varies with slope
Answer: Option B
Question No. 59
If Z and I are the section modulus and moment of inertia of the section, the shear force F and
bending moment M at a section are related by
(A) F = My/I
(B) F = M/Z
(C) F = dM/dx
(D) F Mdx
Answer: Option C
Question No. 60
A pair of smith's tongs is an example of the lever of
(A) Zeroth order
(B) First order
(C) Second order
(D) Third order
Answer: Option C
Question No. 61
The direction of the reaction at support B of a truss shown in below figure will be
(A) East of North

(B) West of North
(C) East of South
(D) West of South
Answer: Option A
Question No. 62
A beam of length L supported on two intermediate rollers carries a uniformly distributed load on
its entire length. If sagging B.M. and hogging B.M. of the beam are equal, the length of each
overhang, is
(A) 0.107 L
(B) 0.207 L
(C) 0.307 L
(D) 0.407 L
Answer: Option B
Question No. 63
The unit of work or energy in S.I. units is
(A) Newton
(B) Pascal
(C) Kilogram meter
(D) Joule
Answer: Option D
Question No. 64
The shear force on a simply supported beam is proportional to
(A) Displacement of the neutral axis
(B) Sum of the forces
(C) Sum of the transverse forces
(D) Algebraic sum of the transverse forces of the section
Answer: Option D
Question No. 65
Shear deflection of a cantilever of length L, cross sectional area A and shear modulus G, subjected
to w/m u.d.l., is
(A) (3/4) (L²w/GA)
(B) (3/2) (L²w/GA)
(C) (2/3) (L3w/GA)
(D) (3/2) (Lw/GA²)
Answer: Option A
Question No. 66
Which of the following is not the unit of distance?
(A) Angstrom
(B) Light year
(C) Micron
(D) Milestone
Answer: Option D
Question No. 67
In a bar of large length when held vertically and subjected to a load at its lower end, its own-
weight produces additional stress. The maximum stress will be
(A) At the lower cross-section
(B) At the built-in upper cross-section
(C) At the central cross-section
(D) At every point of the bar
Answer: Option B
Question No. 68
The value of Poisson's ratio always remains
(A) Greater than one
(B) Less than one
(C) Equal to one
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 69
The B.M. diagram of the beam shown in below figure, is
(A) A rectangle
(B) A triangle
(C) A trapezium
(D) A parabola
Answer: Option A
Question No. 70
Which of the following is not a vector quantity?
(A) Weight
(B) Velocity
(C) Acceleration
(D) Force
Answer: Option A
Question No. 71
The greatest eccentricity which a load W can have without producing tension on the cross-section
of a short column of external diameter D and internal diameter d, is
(A) 4W/ (D² - d²)
(B) (D² - d²)/32D
(C) (D² + d²)/8D
(D) (D² - d²)/8D
Answer: Option C
Question No. 72
If is the shear force at a section of an I-joist, having web depth and moment of inertia
about its neutral axis, the difference between the maximum and mean shear stresses in the
web is,
(A) Sd²/8I
(B) Sd²/12I
(C) Sd²/16I
(D) Sd²/24I
Answer: Option D
Question No. 73
Center of gravity of a thin hollow cone lies on the axis at a height of
Answer: Option B
Question No. 74
A rectangular bar of width b and height h is being used as a cantilever. The loading is in a plane
parallel to the side b. The section modulus is
(A) bh3/12
(B) bh²/6
(C) b²h/6
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 75
(B) Shear stress is same throughout the beam
(C) Deflection is same throughout the beam
(D) Bending stress is same at every section along its longitudinal axis
Answer: Option D
Question No. 76
The coefficient of friction depends on
(A) Area of contact
(B) Shape of surfaces
(C) Strength of surfaces
(D) Nature of surface
Answer: Option D
Question No. 77
A closely coiled helical spring of radius R, contains n turns and is subjected to an axial loadW. If the
radius of the coil wire is r and modulus of rigidity of the coil material is C, the stress developed in
the helical spring is
(A) WR/ 3
(B) 2WR/ 3
(C) 2WR/ 2
(D) 4WR/ 2
Answer: Option B
Question No. 78
The intensity of direct longitudinal stress in the cross-section at any point distant r from the
neutral axis, is proportional to
(A) r
(B) 1/r
(C) r2
(D) 1/r²
Answer: Option A
Question No. 79
The coefficient of friction depends upon
(A) Nature of surfaces
(B) Area of contact
(C) Shape of the surfaces
Answer: Option A
Question No. 80
The force in member U2L2 of the truss shown in below figure, is
(A) 10 T tension
(B) 10 T compression
(C) Zero
(D) 15 T compression
Answer: Option B
Question No. 81
The ratio of the moments of resistance of a solid circular shaft of diameter D and a hollow shaft
(external diameter D and internal diameter d), is
(A) D4/(D4 - d4)
(B) D3/(D3 - d3)
(C) (D4 - d4)/D4
(D) (D3 - d3)/D3
Answer: Option A
Question No. 82
The angle which an inclined plane makes with the horizontal when a body placed on it is about to
move down is known as angle of
(A) Friction
(C) Repose
Answer: Option C
Question No. 83
When loads are applied proportionately to a frame structure containing its members in one plane,
the structure is called
(A) Grid frame
(B) Plane frame
(C) Space frame
(D) Truss frame
Answer: Option C
Question No. 84
The maximum stress intensity due to a suddenly applied load is x-times the stress intensity
produced by the load of the same magnitude applied gradually. The value of x is
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 1/2
Answer: Option B
Question No. 85
The unit of power in S.I. units is
(A) Newton meter
(B) Watt
(C) Joule
(D) Kilogram meter/sec
Answer: Option B
Question No. 86
The maximum bending moment due to a moving load on a simply supported beam, occurs
(A) At the mid span
(B) At the supports
(C) Under the load
(D) Anywhere on the beam
Answer: Option C
Question No. 87
Which of the following is not the unit of pressure?
(A) kg/cm
(B) atm
(C) kg/cm²
(D) Newton
Answer: Option D
Question No. 88
The force in BD of the truss shown in below figure is:
(A) 500 kg compressive

(B) 500 kg tensile
(C) 1500 kg tensile
(D) 1500 kg compressive
Answer: Option A
Question No. 89
The maximum resistance against rotation, is offered by the weld at a point
(A) Most distant
(B) Least distant
(C) At either end
(D) Centrally located
Answer: Option A
Question No. 90
During a tensile test on a ductile material
(A) Nominal stress at fracture is higher than the ultimate stress
(B) True stress at fracture is higher than the ultimate stress
(C) True stress at fracture is the same as the ultimate stress
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 91
A framed structure is perfect if it contains members equal to
(A) 2n3
(B) nl
(C) 2nl
(D) 3n²
Where n = number of joints in a frame
Answer: Option A
Question No. 92
When equal and opposite forces applied to a body, tend to elongate it, the stress so produced, is
called
(A) Shear stress
(B) Compressive stress
(C) Tensile stress
(D) Transverse stress
Answer: Option C
Question No. 93
A joint of a frame is subjected to three tensile forces P, Q and R equally inclined to each other.
If P is 10 tonnes, the other forces will be
(A) Q = 10 tonnes and R = zero
(B) R + 10 tonnes and Q = zero
(C) Q + R = 10 tonnes
(D) Q and R each is equal to 10 tonnes
Answer: Option D
Question No. 94
In the equation of virtual work, following force is neglected
(A) Reaction of any smooth surface with which the body is in contact
(B) Reaction of a rough surface of a body which rolls on it without slipping
(C) Reaction at a point or an axis, fixed in space, around which a body is constrained to turn
Answer: Option D
Question No. 95
The structure shown in below figure is stable, if
(A) x y/2
(B) x = 2y
(C) =y
(D) x) = y
Answer: Option D
Question No. 96
(A) The rate of change of bending moment is equal to rate of shear force
(B) The rate of change of shear force is equal to rate of loading
(C) Neither (a) nor (b)
(D) Both (a) and (b)
Answer: Option D
Question No. 97
Tangent of angle of friction is equal to
(A) Kinetic friction
(C) Angle of repose
(D) Coefficient of friction
Answer: Option D
Question No. 98
The type of butt joints in common use, is:
(A) Single inverted V-butt joint
(B) Double V-butt joint
(C) Double U-butt joint
(D) Single V-butt joint
Answer: Option A
Question No. 99
For keeping the stress wholly compressive the load may be applied on a circular column anywhere
within a concentric circle of diameter
(A) d/2
(B) d/3
(C) d/4
(D) d/8
Answer: Option C
Question No. 100

The C.G. of a solid hemisphere lies on the central radius 3r
(A) At distance from the plane base 3r
(B) At distance from the plane base 3r
(C) At distance from the plane base 3r
(D) At distance from the plane base or
Answer: Option D
Question No. 101

In a loaded beam, the point of contraflexure occurs at a section where
(A) Bending moment is minimum
(B) Bending moment is zero or changes sign
(C) Bending moment is maximum
(D) Shearing force is maximum
Answer: Option B
Question No. 102
In actual machines
Answer: Option C
Question No. 103

In the given below figure, the rivets with maximum stress, are:
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 2 and 4
Answer: Option D
Question No. 104

If two forces acting at a joint are not along the straight line, then for the equilibrium of the joint
(A) One of the forces must be zero
(B) Each force must be zero
(C) Forces must be equal and of the same sign
(D) Forces must be equal in magnitude but opposite in sign
Answer: Option B
Question No. 105

Shear deflection of a cantilever of length L, cross sectional area A and shear modulus G, under a
concentrated load W at its free end, is
(A) (2/3) (WL/AG)
(B) (1/3) (WL²/EIA)
(C) (3/2) (WL/AG)
(D) (3/2) (WL²/AG)
Answer: Option C
Question No. 106

Forces are called concurrent when their lines of action meet in
(A) One point
(B) Two points
(C) Plane
Answer: Option A
Question No. 107

The ratio of the maximum deflections of a beam simply supported at its ends with an isolated
central load and that of with a uniformly distributed load over its entire length, is
(A) 3/2
(B) 15/24
(C) 24/15
(D) 2/3
Answer: Option C
Question No. 108

At either end of a plane frame, maximum number of possible bending moments, are
(A) Zero
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
Answer: Option A
Question No. 109

Which of the following is not the unit of work, energy and heat?
(A) kcal
(B) kg m
(C) kWhr
(D) hp
Answer: Option D
Question No. 110

If a shaft is rotating N revolutions per minute with an applied torque T kg-m, the horse power
being transmitted by the shaft, is
(A) 2 /550
(B) 2 /750
(C) 2 /4500
(D) 2 /55
Answer: Option C
Question No. 111
In a shaft shear stress intensity at a point is not
(A) Directly proportional to the distance from the axis
(B) Inversely proportional to the distance from the axis
(C) Inversely proportional to the polar moment of inertia
(D) Directly proportional to the applied torque
Answer: Option B
Question No. 112

Center of gravity of a solid cone lies on the axis at the height
Answer: Option A
Question No. 113

The force in DB of the truss shown in below figure is
(A) W compression
(B) W tension
(C) 2 W compression
(D) 5 W tension
Answer: Option B
Question No. 114

A diagram which shows the variations of the axial load for all sections of the span of a beam, is
called
(A) Bending moment diagram
(B) Shear force diagram
(C) Thrust diagram
(D) Stress diagram
Answer: Option C
Question No. 115

The resultant of the following three couples 20 kg force, 0.5 m arm, +ve sense 30 kg force, 1 m
arm, -ve sense 40 kg force, 0.25 m arm, +ve sense having arm of 0.5 m will be
(A) 20 kg, -ve sense
(B) 20 kg, +ve sense
(C) 10 kg, +ve sense
(D) 10 kg, -ve sense
Answer: Option A
Question No. 116

A cantilever beam rectangular in cross-section is subjected to an isolated load at its free end. If the
width of the beam is doubled, the deflection of the free end will be changed in the ratio of
(A) 8
(B) 1/8
(C) 1/2
(D) 3
Answer: Option C
Question No. 117

In rectangular columns (cross-section b × h), the core is a
(A) Rectangle of lengths b/2 and h/2
(B) Square of length b/2
(C) Rhombus of length h/2
(D) Rhombus of diagonals b/3 and h/3
Answer: Option D
Question No. 118

Pick up the correct assumption of the theory of simple bending
(A) The value of the Young's modulus is the same in tension as well as in compression
(B) Transverse section of a beam remains plane before and after bending
(C) The material of the beam is homogeneous and isotropic
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 119

Dynamic friction as compared to static friction is
(A) Same
(B) More
(C) Less
(D) May be less of more depending on nature of surfaces and velocity
Answer: Option C
Question No. 120

The property of a material by which it can be beaten or rolled into thin plates, is called
(A) Malleability
(B) Ductility
(C) Plasticity
(D) Elasticity
Answer: Option A
Question No. 121
A closely coiled helical spring of radius R, contains n turns and is subjected to an axial load W. If
the radius of the coil wire is r and modulus of rigidity of the coil material is C, the deflection of the
coil is
(A) WR3n/Cr4
(B) 2WR3n/Cr4
(C) 3WR3n/Cr4
(D) 4WR3n/Cr4
Answer: Option D
Question No. 122

In the lever of third order, load W, effort P and fulcrum F are oriented as follows
(A) W between P and F
(B) F between W and P
(C) P between W and F
(D) W, P and F all on one side
Answer: Option A
Question No. 123

In the cantilever truss as shown in below figure, the horizontal component of the reaction at A, is
(A) 30 tonnes
(B) 60 tonnes
(C) 90 tonnes
(D) 120 tonnes
Answer: Option A
Question No. 124

The property by which a body returns to its original shape after removal of the force, is called
(A) Plasticity
(B) Elasticity
(C) Ductility
(D) Malleability
Answer: Option B
Question No. 125
Forces are called coplanar when all of them acting on body lie in
(A) One point
(B) One plane
(C) Different planes
Answer: Option B
Question No. 126

The slenderness ratio of a vertical column of a square cross-section of 2.5 cm sides and 300 cm
length, is
(A) 200
(B) 240
(C) 360
(D) 416
Answer: Option D
Question No. 127

The stress necessary to initiate yielding, is considerably
(A) More than that necessary to continue it
(B) Less than that necessary to continue it
(C) More than that necessary to stop it
(D) Less than that necessary to stop it
Answer: Option A
Question No. 128

Which of the following is not a scalar quantity?
(A) Time
(B) Mass
(C) Volume
(D) Acceleration
Answer: Option D
Question No. 129

Influence lines are drawn for structures
(A) Of any type
(C) Pin-jointed truss
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 130

A cast iron T section beam is subjected to pure bending. For maximum compressive stress to be
three times the maximum tensile stress, centre of gravity of the section from flange side is
(A) h/4
(B) h/3
(C) h/2
(D) 2/3 h
Answer: Option A
Question No. 131

The units of moment of inertia of an area are
(A) kg m²
(B) m4
(C) kg/m²
(D) m3
Answer: Option B
Question No. 132

The radius of gyration of a rectangular section is not proportional to
(A) Square root of the moment of inertia
(B) Square root of the inverse of the area
(C) Square root of the moment of inertia divided by area of the section
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 133

Ties are load carrying members of a frame, which are subjected to
(A) Transverse loads
(B) Axial tension loads
(C) Axial compressive loads
(D) Torsional loads
Answer: Option B
Question No. 134

On the ladder resting on the ground and leaning against a smooth vertical wall, the force of
friction will be
(A) Downwards at its upper end
(B) Upwards at its upper end
(C) Perpendicular to the wall at its upper end
(D) Zero at its upper end
Answer: Option D
Question No. 135

The phenomenon of slow extension of materials having constant load, i.e. increasing with the time
is called
(A) Creeping
(B) Yielding
(C) Breaking
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 136

The maximum deflection of
(A) A simply supported beam carrying a uniformly increasing load from either end and having
the apex at the mid span is WL3/60EI
(B) A fixed ended beam carrying a distributed load over the span is WL3/384EI
(C) A fixed ended beam carrying a concentrated load at the mid span is WL3/192EI
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 137

A flywheel on a motor goes from rest to 1000 rpm in 6 sec. The number of revolutions made is
nearly equal to
(A) 25
(B) 50
(C) 100
(D) 250
Answer: Option B
Question No. 138

The B.M. of a cantilever beam shown in below figure at A, is
(A) Zero
(B) 8 Tm
(C) 12 Tm
(D) 20 Tm
Answer: Option A
Question No. 139

A cantilever carries is uniformly distributed load W over its whole length and a force W acts at its
free end upward. The net deflection of the free end will be
(A) Zero
(B) (5/24) (WL3/EI) upward
(C) (5/24) (WL3/EI) downward
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 140
The C.G. of a plane lamina will not be at its geometrical centre in the case of a
(A) Right angled triangle
(B) Equilateral triangle
(C) Square
(D) Circle
Answer: Option A
Question No. 141

Struts are load carrying members of a frame structure which are subjected to
(A) Axial tension loads
(B) Axial compressive loads
(C) Torsional loads
(D) Transverse loads
Answer: Option B
Question No. 142

Strain energy of a member may be equated to
(A) Average resistance × displacement
(B) ½ stress × strain × area of its cross-section
(C) ½ stress × strain × volume of the member
(D) ½ (stress)2 × volume of the member + Young's modulus E
Answer: Option D
Question No. 143

A force acting on a body may
(A) Introduce internal stresses
(B) Balance the other forces acting on it
(C) Retard its motion
Answer: Option D
Question No. 144

A simply supported beam (l + 2a) with equal overhangs (a) carries a uniformly distributed load
over the whole length, the B.M. changes sign if
(A) l > 2a
(B) l < 2a
(C) l = 2a
(D) l = 4a
Answer: Option A
Question No. 145

The stress in the wall of a cylinder in a direction normal to its longitudinal axis, due to a force
acting along the circumference, is known as
(A) Yield stress
(B) Longitudinal stress
(C) Hoop stress
(D) Circumferential stress
Answer: Option C
Question No. 146

According to principle of moments
(A) If a system of coplanar forces is in equilibrium, then their algebraic sum is zero
(B) If a system of coplanar forces is in equilibrium, then the algebraic sum of their moments
(C) The algebraic sum of the moments of any two forces about any point is equal to moment of
their resultant about the same point
(D) Positive and negative couples can be balanced
Answer: Option B
Question No. 147

The ratio of strengths of solid to hollow shafts, both having outside diameter D and hollow having
inside diameter D/2, in torsion, is
(A) 1/4
(B) 1/2
(C) 1/16
(D) 15/15
Answer: Option D
Question No. 148

Along the neutral axis of a simply supported beam
(A) Fibres do not undergo strain
(B) Fibres undergo minimum strain
(C) Fibres undergo maximum strain
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 149

A trolley wire weighs 1.2 kg per meter length. The ends of the wire are attached to two poles 20
meters apart. If the horizontal tension is 1500 kg find the dip in the middle of the span
(A) 2.5 cm
(B) 3.0 cm
(C) 4.0 cm
(D) 5.0 cm
Answer: Option C
Question No. 150

In case of an eccentric loading on a bracket subjected to moment M, the tangential force
developed in any rivet, at right angles to its radius vector r is
(A) Mr/ r²
(B) r²/Mr
(C) Mr²/ r²
(D) Mr/ r²
Answer: Option A
Question No. 151

A composite member shown in below figure was formed at 25°C and was made of two
materials a and b. If the coefficient of thermal expansion of a is more than that of b and the
composite member is heated upto 45°C, then
(A) a will be in tension and b in compression

(B) Both will be in compression
(C) Both will be in tension
(D) a will be in compression and b in tension
Answer: Option D
Question No. 152

Coulomb friction is the friction between
(A) Bodies having relative motion
(B) Two dry surfaces
(C) Two lubricated surfaces
(D) Solids and liquids
Answer: Option A
Question No. 153

The ratio of the moment of inertia of a circular plate and that of a square plate for equal depth, is
(A) Less than one
(B) Equal to one
(C) More than one
(D) Equal
Answer: Option D
Question No. 154

The principal stresses at a point are 100, 100 and -200 kgf/cm2, the octahedral shear stress at the
point is:
(A) 100 kg/cm2
(B) 200 kg/cm2
(C) 300 kg/cm2
(D) 400 kg/cm2
Answer: Option A
Question No. 155

A sample of metal weighs 219 gms in air, 180 gms in water, 120 gms in an unknown fluid. Then
which is correct statement about density of metal
(A) Density of metal can't be determined
(B) Metal is twice as dense as water
(C) Metal will float in water
(D) Metal is twice as dense as unknown fluid
Answer: Option A
Question No. 156

The energy stored in a beam of length subjected to a constant B.M. is
(A) M²L/2EI
(B) ML²/2EI
(C) M²L/EI
(D) ML²/EI
Answer: Option A
Question No. 157

In a simply supported beam L with a triangular load W varying from zero at one end to the
maximum value at the other end, the maximum bending moment is
(A) WL/3
(B) WL
(C) WL/4
(D) WL3
Answer: Option D
Question No. 158

Which is the correct statement about law of polygon of forces?
(A) If any number of forces acting at a point can be represented by the sides of a polygon taken
in order, then the forces are in equilibrium
(B) If any number of forces acting at a point can be represented in direction and magnitude by
(C) If a polygon representing forces acting at a point is closed then forces are in equilibrium
(D) If any number of forces acting at a point can be represented in direction and magnitude by
Answer: Option D
Question No. 159

If a member carries a tensile force P on its area of cross-section A, the normal stress introduced on
(A) (P/A
(B) (P/A
(C) (P/A
(D) (P/2A
Answer: Option B
Question No. 160

Failure of riveted joints is due to
(A) Tearing of the plates between the rivet hole and the edge of the plate
(B) Tearing of plates between rivets
(C) Shearing of rivets
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 161

Two non-collinear parallel equal forces acting in opposite direction
(B) Constitute a moment
(C) Constitute a couple
(D) Constitute a moment of couple
Answer: Option C
Question No. 162

A simply supported wooden beam 150 cm long and having a cross section 16 cm × 24 cm carries a
concentrated load, at the centre. If the permissible stress ft = 75 kg/cm2 and fs= 10 kg/cm2 the safe
load is
(A) 3025 kg
(B) 3050 kg
(C) 3075 kg
(D) 3100 kg
Answer: Option C
Question No. 163

If a steel rod of 20 mm diameter and 5 metres long elongates by 2.275 mm when subjected to an
axial pull of 3000 kg, the stress developed, is
(A) 9.5541 kg/cm2
(B) 95.541 kg/cm2
(C) 955.41 kg/cm2
(D) 9554.1 kg/cm2
Answer: Option C
Question No. 164

Least force required to draw a body up the inclined plane is W sin (plane inclination + friction
(A) Along the plane
(B) Horizontally
(C) Vertically
(D) At an angle equal to the angle of friction to the inclined plane
Answer: Option D
Question No. 165

If a constant section beam is subjected to a uniform bending moment throughout, its length bends
to
(A) A circular arc
(B) A parabolic arc
(C) A catenary
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 166

The width b and depth d of a beam cut from a wooden cylindrical log of 100 cm diameter for
maximum strength are:
(A) b = 57.73 cm d = 81.65 cm
(B) b = 81.65 cm d = 57.73 cm
(C) b = 50.00 cm d = 50.00 cm
(D) b = 40.00 cm d = 80.00 cm
Answer: Option A
Question No. 167

Which of the following is the locus of a point that moves in such a manner that its distance from a
fixed point is equal to its distance from a fixed line multiplied by a constant greater than one
(A) Ellipse
(B) Hyperbola
(C) Parabola
(D) Circle
Answer: Option B
Question No. 168

As compared to uniaxial tension or compression, the strain energy stored in bending is only
(A) 1/8
(B) 1/4
(C) 1/3
(D) 1/2
Answer: Option C
Question No. 169

Strain energy of any member may be defined as work done on it
(A) To deform it
(B) To resist elongation
(C) To resist shortening
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 170
Effect of a force on a body depends upon
(A) Magnitude
(B) Direction
(C) Position or line of action
Answer: Option D
Question No. 171

If n is the ratio of internal and external diameters of a hollow shaft, the ratio of the weight of the
hollow shaft and that of solid shaft of same strength, will be
(A) (1 - n²)/(1 - n²)1/2
(B) (1 - n²)/(1 - n4)2/3
(C) (1 + n3)/(1 + n4)1/2
(D) (1 + n1)/(1 + n4)2/3
Answer: Option B
Question No. 172

The effect of arching a beam, is
(A) To reduce the bending moment throughout
(B) To increase the bending moment throughout
(C) Nothing on the bending throughout
(D) All the above
Answer: Option A
Question No. 173

D' Alembert's principle is used for
(A) Reducing the problem of kinetics to equivalent statics problem
(B) Determining stresses in the truss
(C) Stability of floating bodies
(D) Designing safe structures
Answer: Option A
Question No. 174

The range within which a load can be applied on a rectangular column, to avoid any tensile stress,
is
(A) One-half of the base
(B) One-fifth of the base
(C) One-fourth of the base
(D) One-fifth of the base
Answer: Option B
Question No. 175

For the same height, the bottom width for no tension,
(A) For triangular section is more than rectangular section
(B) For rectangular section is more than triangular section
(C) For triangular section is same as that of a rectangular section
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 176

Coefficient of friction is the
Answer: Option B
Question No. 177

An arch may be subjected to
(A) Shear and axial force
(B) Bending moment and shear force
(C) Bending moment and axial force
(D) Thrust, shear force and bending moment
Answer: Option D
Question No. 178

increasing load, is always
(A) Linear
(B) Parabolic
(C) Cubical
(D) Circular
Answer: Option C
Question No. 179

The C.G. of a right circular solid cone of height h lies at the following distance from the base
(A) h/2
(B) J/3
(C) h/6
(D) h/4
Answer: Option D
Question No. 180

For a channel section, the shear centre lies at a distance of
(A) dbt/2I
(B) d²bt/3I
(C) d²b²t/4I
(D) db²t/5I
Answer: Option C
Question No. 181
For the beam shown in below figure, the maximum positive bending moment is nearly equal to
negative bending moment when L1 is equal to
(A) 1.0 L
(B) 0.7 L
(C) 0.5 L
(D) 0.35 L
Answer: Option D
Question No. 182

A force is completely defined when we specify
(A) Magnitude
(B) Direction
(C) Point of application
Answer: Option D
Question No. 183

In a three hinged arch, the third hinge is generally kept at
(A) Crown of the arch
(B) Midpoint of the crown and left support hinge
(C) Midpoint of the crown and right support hinge
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 184

The stiffness factor for a prismatic beam of length L and moment of inertia I, is
(A) IE/L
(B) 2EI/L
(C) 3EI/L
(D) 4EI/L
Answer: Option A
Question No. 185

Center of percussion is
(A) The point of C.G.
(B) The point of metacentre
(C) The point of application of the resultant of all the forces tending to cause a body to rotate
(D) Point of suspension
Answer: Option C
Question No. 186

The weakest section of a diamond riveting, is the section which passes through
(A) First row
(B) Second row
(C) Central row
(D) One rivet hole of end row
Answer: Option A
Question No. 187

If a solid shaft is subjected to a torque at its end such that maximum shear stress does not
exceed fs the diameter of the shaft will be
(A) 16T/ fs
(B) T/ fs)
(C) (16T/ fs)
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 188

Pick up wrong statement about friction force for dry surfaces. Friction force is
(A) Proportional to normal load between the surfaces
(B) Dependent on the materials of contact surface
(C) Proportional to velocity of sliding
(D) Independent of the area of contact surfaces
Answer: Option C
Question No. 189

distributed load is always
(A) Linear
(B) Parabolic
(C) Cubical
(D) Circular
Answer: Option B
Question No. 190

The maximum load to which a fillet joint of length can be subjected to, is
(A) 0.7 × S × fillet size × L
(B) 2 × S × fillet size × L
(C) Permissible shear stress × fillet size × L
(D) (S × fillet size × L)/3
Answer: Option A
Question No. 191

Which of the following is not the unit of energy?
(A) kg m
(B) kcal
(C) watt
(D) watt hours
Answer: Option C
Question No. 192

In a beam, the neutral plane
(A) May be its centre
(B) Passes through the C.G. of the area of cross-section
(C) Does not change during deformation
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 193

The moment diagram for a cantilever whose free end is subjected to a bending moment, will be a
(A) Triangle
(B) Rectangle
(C) Parabola
(D) Cubic parabola
Answer: Option B
Question No. 194

The algebraic sum of the resolved parts of a number of forces in a given direction is equal to the
resolved part of their resultant in the same direction. This is as per the principle of
(A) Forces
(B) Independence of forces
(C) Dependence of forces
(D) Resolution of forces
Answer: Option D
Question No. 195

The law which states, "Within elastic limits strain produced is proportional to the stress producing
it", is known as
(A) Bernoulli's law
(B) Stress law
(C) Hooke's law
(D) Poisson's law
Answer: Option C
Question No. 196
For a beam of uniform strength keeping its depth constant, the width will vary in proportion to
(A) Bending moment (M)
(B)
(C) M2
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 197

The product of either force of couple with the arm of the couple is called
(A) Resultant couple
(B) Moment of the forces
(C) Resulting couple
(D) Moment of the couple
Answer: Option D
Question No. 198

While testing a cast iron beam (2.5 cm × 2.5 cm) in section and a metre long simply supported at
the ends failed when a 100 kg weight is applied at the centre. The maximum stress induced is:
(A) 960 kg/cm2
(B) 980 kg/cm2
(C) 1000 kg/cm2
(D) 1200 kg/cm2
Answer: Option A
Question No. 199

Simple bending equation is
(A) M/I = R/E = F/Y
(B) I/M = E/R = Y/F
(C) M/I = E/R = F/Y
(D) M/I = R/E = Y/F
Answer: Option C
Question No. 200

The algebraic sum of moments of the forces forming couple about any point in their plane is
(A) Equal to the moment of the couple
(B) Constant
(C) Both of above are correct
(D) Both of above are wrong
Answer: Option A
Question No. 201

and are numbers of members and joints in a frame. It contains redundant members if
(A) n = 2j - 3
(B) n = 3j - 2
(C) n < 2j - 3
(D) n > 2j - 3
Answer: Option D
Question No. 202

The equivalent length of a column fixed at both ends, is
(A) 0.5 l
(B) 0.7 l
(C) l
(D) 1.5 l
Answer: Option A
Question No. 203

Which of the following is not the unit of power?
(A) kW (kilowatt)
(B) hp (horse power)
(C) kcal/sec
(D) kcal/kg sec
Answer: Option D
Question No. 204

The ratio of elongations of a conical bar due to its own weight and that of a prismatic bar of the
same length, is
(A) 1/2
(B) 1/3
(C) 1/4
(D) 1/5
Answer: Option B
Question No. 205

The force in the member DE of the truss shown in below figure will be
(A) Zero
(B) 2 W tensile
(C) 2 W compressive
(D) 4 W compressive
Answer: Option C
Question No. 206
The possible loading in various members of framed structures are
(A) Compression or tension
(B) Buckling or shear
(C) Shear or tension
Answer: Option A
Question No. 207

A simply supported beam of span L carries a concentrated load W at its mid-span. The maximum
bending moment M is
(A) WL/2
(B) WL/4
(C) WL/8
(D) WL/12
Answer: Option B
Question No. 208

The following assumption is not true in the theory of pure torsion:
(A) The twist along the shaft is uniform
(B) The shaft is of uniform circular section throughout
(C) Cross-section of the shaft, which is plane before twist remains plane after twist
(D) All radii get twisted due to torsion
Answer: Option D
Question No. 209

If three forces acting in different planes can be represented by a triangle, these will be in
(A) Non-equilibrium
(B) Partial equilibrium
(C) Full equilibrium
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option A
Question No. 210

A simply supported beam carrying a uniformly distributed load over its whole span, is propped at
the centre of the span so that the beam is held to the level of the end supports. The reaction of
the prop will be
(A) Half the distributed load
(B) 3/8th the distributed load
(C) 5/8th the distributed load
(D) Distributed load
Answer: Option C
Question No. 211
Shear force for a cantilever carrying a uniformly distributed load over its length, is
(A) Triangle
(B) Rectangle
(C) Parabola
(D) Cubic parabola
Answer: Option B
Question No. 212

The weight of a body is due to
(A) Centripetal force of earth
(B) Gravitational pull exerted by the earth
(C) Forces experienced by body in atmosphere
(D) Gravitational force of attraction towards the centre of the earth
Answer: Option D
Question No. 213

For structural analysis of forces, the method refers to
(A) Moment-area-theorem
(B) Three-moment equation
(C) Maxwell's reciprocal theorem
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 214

The section modulus of a rectangular section is proportional to
(A) Area of the section
(B) Square of the area of the section
(C) Product of the area and depth
(D) Product of the area and width
Answer: Option A
Question No. 215

Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
(A) The C.G. of a circle is at its center
(B) The C.G. of a triangle is at the intersection of its medians
(C) The C.G. of a rectangle is at the intersection of its diagonals
(D) The C.G. of a semicircle is at a distance of r/2 from the center
Answer: Option D
Question No. 216

According to Unwin's formula, the diameter of a rivet of plate of thickness is :
(A) d = 6.05 t
(B) d = 1.5 t + 4
(C) d = t
(D) d = t + 1.5
Answer: Option A
Question No. 217

For a beam having fixed ends, the unknown element of the reactions, is
(A) Horizontal components at either end
(B) Vertical components at either end
(C) Horizontal component at one end and vertical component at the other
(D) Horizontal and vertical components at both the ends
Answer: Option D
Question No. 218

If a rigid body is in equilibrium under the action of three forces, then
(A) These forces are equal
(B) The lines of action of these forces meet in a point
(C) The lines of action of these forces are parallel
(D) Both (B) and (C) above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 219

The materials which have the same elastic properties in all directions, are called
(A) Isotropic
(B) Brittle
(C) Homogeneous
(D) Hard
Answer: Option A
Question No. 220

A solid circular shaft of diameter d is subjected to a torque T. The maximum normal stress induced
in the shaft, is
(A) Zero
(B) 16T/ 3
(C) 32T/ 3
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 221

Frictional force encountered after commencement of motion is called
(A) Post friction
(C) Kinematic friction
(D) Dynamic friction
Answer: Option D
Question No. 222
A three-hinged arch is said to be:
(A) Statically determinate structure
(B) Statically indeterminate structure
(C) A bent beam
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 223

The areas of cross-section of a square beam and a circular beam subjected to equal bending
moments, are same.
(A) Circular beam is more economical
(B) Square beam is more economical
(C) Both the beams are equally strong
(D) Both the beams are equally economical
Answer: Option B
Question No. 224

A single force and a couple acting in the same plane upon a rigid body
(B) Cannot balance each other
(C) Produce moment of a couple
(D) Are equivalent
Answer: Option B
Question No. 225

If the shear force along a section of a beam is zero, the bending moment at the section is
(A) Zero
(B) Maximum
(C) Minimum
(D) Average of maximum-minimum
Answer: Option B
Question No. 226

The moment diagram for a cantilever carrying a concentrated load at its free end, will be
(A) Triangle
(B) Rectangle
(C) Parabola
(D) Cubic parabola
Answer: Option A
Question No. 227

The forces, which meet at one point, but their lines of action do not lie in a plane, are called
(A) Coplanar non-concurrent forces
(B) Non-coplanar concurrent forces
(C) Non-coplanar non-concurrent forces
(D) Intersecting forces
Answer: Option B
Question No. 228

The shear stress at any section of a shaft is maximum
(A) At the centre of the section
(B) At a distance r/2 from the centre
(C) At the top of the surface
(D) At a distance 3/4 r from the centre
Answer: Option C
Question No. 229

If the width b and depth d of a beam simply supported with a central load are interchanged, the
deflection at the centre of the beam will be changed in the ratio of
(A) b/d
(B) d/b
(C) (d/b)2
(D) (b/d)2
Answer: Option D
Question No. 230

The centre of percussion of a solid cylinder of radius r resting on a horizontal plane will be
(A) r/2
(B) 2r/3
(C) r/A
(D) 3r/2
Answer: Option D
Question No. 231

A three hinged parabolic arch hinged at the crown and springing, has a horizontal span of 4.8 m
and a central rise of 1 m. It carries a uniformly distributed load of 0.75 tonne per metre over half
left hand span. The horizontal thrust at the support will be
(A) 10.8 tonnes
(B) 1.08 tonnes
(C) 1.8 tonnes
(D) 0.8 tonnes
Answer: Option B
Question No. 232

A member which is subjected to reversible tensile or compressive stress may fail at a stress lower
than the ultimate stress of the material. This property of metal, is called
(A) Plasticity of the metal
(B) Elasticity of the metal
(C) Fatigue of the metal
(D) Workability of the metal
Answer: Option C
Question No. 233

A body moves, from rest with a constant acceleration of 5 m per sec. The distance covered in 5 sec
is most nearly
(A) 38 m
(B) 62.5 m
(C) 96 m
(D) 124 m
Answer: Option B
Question No. 234

Stress in a beam due to simple bending, is
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 235

The ratio of the tensile stress developed in the wall of a boiler in the circumferential direction to
the tensile stress in the axial direction, is
(A) 4
(B) 3
(C) 2
(D) 1
Answer: Option C
Question No. 236

According to law of triangle of forces
to force
Answer: Option C
Question No. 237

The deflection due to couple M at the free end of a cantilever length L is
(A) ML/EI
(B) 2ML/EI
(C) ML²/2EI
(D) M²L/2EI
Answer: Option C
Question No. 238

The bending moment is maximum on a section where shearing force
(A) Is maximum
(B) Is minimum
(C) Is equal
(D) Changes sign
Answer: Option D
Question No. 239

Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(A) The tangent of the angle of friction is equal to coefficient of friction
(B) The angle of repose is equal to angle of friction
(C) The tangent of the angle of repose is equal to coefficient of friction
(D) The sine of the angle of repose is equal to coefficient to friction
Answer: Option D
Question No. 240

For a simply supported beam with a central load, the bending moment is
(A) Least at the centre
(B) Least at the supports
(C) Maximum at the supports
(D) Maximum at the centre
Answer: Option D
Question No. 241

A member is balanced at its end by two inclined members carrying equal forces. For equilibrium
the angle between the inclined bars must be
(A) 3°
(B) 45°
(C) 90°
(D) 120°
Answer: Option D
Question No. 242

When trying to turn a key into a lock, following is applied
(A) Coplanar force
(B) Non-coplanar forces
(C) Couple
(D) Moment
Answer: Option C
Question No. 243
A reinforced concrete beam is assumed to be made of
(A) Homogeneous material
(B) Heterogeneous material
(C) Isotropic material
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 244

For a stable frame structure, number of members required, is
(A) Three times the number of joints minus three
(B) Twice the number of joints minus three
(C) Twice the number of joints minus two
(D) Twice the number of joints minus one
Answer: Option B
Question No. 245

The units of moment of inertia of mass are
(A) kg m²
(B) m4
(C) kg/m²
(D) kg/m
Answer: Option A
Question No. 246

The reaction at the supports will be vertical to the plane of the support if the frame structure rests
on
(A) Roller supports
(B) Free supports
(C) Hinged supports
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 247

If the stress produced by a prismatic bar is equal to the working stress, the area of the cross-
section of the prismatic bar, becomes
(A) Zero
(B) Infinite
(C) Maximum
(D) Minimum
Answer: Option B
Question No. 248
(A) L/2
(B) L/3
(C) 3L/4
(D) 2L/3
Answer: Option D
Question No. 249

A beam of length L is pinned at both ends and is subjected to a concentrated bending couple of
moment M at its centre. The maximum bending moment in the beam is
(A) M
(B) M/2
(C) M/3
(D) ML/2
Answer: Option A
Question No. 250

If b is the width of a plate joined by diamond riveting of diameter d, the efficiency of the joint is
given by
(A) (b + d)/b
(B) (b - d)/b
(C) (d - b)/d
(D) (b - d)/d
Answer: Option B
Question No. 251

A projectile is fired at an angle to the vertical. Its horizontal range will be maximum when is
(A) 0°
(B) 30°
(C) 45°
(D) 60°
Answer: Option C
Question No. 252

For a simply supported beam of length , the bending moment is described as M = a (x- x3/L2),
x < L; where is a constant. The shear force will be zero at
(A) The supports
(B) x = L/2
(C) x = L
(D) x = L/3
Answer: Option C
Question No. 253

A column is said to be of medium size if its slenderness ratio is between
(A) 20 and 32
(B) 32 and 120
(C) 120 and 160
(D) 160 and 180
Answer: Option B
Question No. 254

The length of a column, having a uniform circular cross-section of 7.5 cm diameter and whose ends
are hinged, is 5 m. If the value of E for the material is 2100 tonnes/cm2, the permissible maximum
crippling load will be
(A) 1.288 tonnes
(B) 12.88
(C) 128.8 tonnes
(D) 288.0
Answer: Option B
Question No. 255

The moment diagram for a cantilever which is subjected to a uniformly distributed load will be a
(A) Triangle
(B) Rectangle
(C) Parabola
(D) Cubic parabola
Answer: Option C
Question No. 256

If the normal cross-section of a member is subjected to tensile force , the resulting normal
(A) (P/A
(B) (P/A
(C) (P/2A
(D) (P/2A
Answer: Option B
Question No. 257

In a shaft rotated by a couple, the shear force varies
(A) From zero at the centre to a maximum at the circumference
(B) From minimum at the centre of maximum at the circumference
(C) From maximum at the centre to zero at the circumference
(D) Equally throughout the section
Answer: Option A
Question No. 258

The shape of the bending moment diagram over the length of a beam, having no external load, is
always
(A) Linear
(B) Parabolic
(C) Cubical
(D) Circular
Answer: Option A
Question No. 259

The stress at which extension of a material takes place more quickly as compared to the increase
in load, is called
(A) Elastic point
(B) Plastic point
(C) Breaking point
(D) Yielding point
Answer: Option D
Question No. 260

A shaft turning 150 r.p.m. is subjected to a torque of 150 kgm. Horse power transmitted by the
shaft is
(A)
(B) 10
(C) ²
(D) 1/
Answer: Option B
Question No. 261

In a simply supported beam (l + 2a) with equal overhangs (a) and carrying a uniformly distributed
load over its entire length, B.M. at the middle point of the beam will be zero if
(A) l = 2a
(B) l = 4a
(C) l < 2a
(D) l > a
Answer: Option A
Question No. 262

A simply supported beam of span carries a uniformly distributed load . The maximum
bending moment is
(A) WL/2
(B) WL/4
(C) WL/8
(D) WL/12
Answer: Option C
Question No. 263

A member which does not regain its original shape after removed of load producing deformation
is said
(A) Plastic
(B) Elastic
(C) Rigid
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 264

A solid cube is subjected to equal normal forces on all its faces. The volumetric strain will be x-
times the linear strain in any of the three axes when
(A) x = 1
(B) x = 2
(C) x = 3
(D) x = 4
Answer: Option C
Question No. 265

A three hinged arch is loaded with an isolated load 1000 kg at a horizontal distance of 2.5 m from
the crown, 1 m above the level of hinges at the supports 10 metres apart. The horizontal thrust is
(A) 1250 kg
(B) 125 kg
(C) 750 kg
(D) 2500 kg
Answer: Option A
Question No. 266

A uniform girder simply supported at its ends is subjected to a uniformly distributed load over its
entire length and is propped at the centre so as to neutralise the deflection. The net B.M. at the
centre will be
(A) WL
(B) WL/8
(C) WL/24
(D) WL/32
Answer: Option D
Question No. 267

When a rectangular beam is loaded transversely, the maximum compressive stress develops on
(A) Bottom fibre
(B) Top fibre
(C) Neutral axis
(D) Every cross-section
Answer: Option B
Question No. 268

In a tension test, the yield stress is 300 kg/cm2, in the octahedral shear stress at the point is:
(A) 100 kg/cm2
(B) 150 kg/cm2
(C) 200 kg/cm
(D) 250 kg/cm2
Answer: Option A
Question No. 269
Columns of given length, cross-section and material have different values of buckling loads for
different end conditions. The strongest column is one whose
(A) One end is fixed and other end is hinged
(B) Both ends are hinged or pin jointed
(C) One end is fixed and the other end entirely free
(D) Both the ends are fixed
Answer: Option D
Question No. 270

A cantilever carrying a uniformly distributed load W over its full length is propped at its free end
such that it is at the level of the fixed end. The bending moment will be zero at its free end also at
(A) Midpoint of the cantilever
(B) Fixed point of the cantilever
(C) 1/4th length from free end
(D) 3/4th length from free end
Answer: Option D
Question No. 271

If the depth of a simply supported beam carrying an isolated load at its centre, is doubled, the
deflection of the beam at the centre will be changed by a factor of
(A) 2
(B) 1/2
(C) 8
(D) 1/8
Answer: Option D
Question No. 272

The minimum number of rivets for the connection of a gusset plate, is
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Answer: Option B
Question No. 273

The cross sections of the beams of equal length are a circle and a square whose permissible
bending stress is same under same maximum bending. The ratio of their flexural weights is,
(A) 1.118
(B) 1.338
(C) 1.228
(D) 1.108
Answer: Option A
Question No. 274
(A) A ductile material has large plastic zone
(B) A brittle material has no plastic zone
(C) A rigid material has no plastic zone
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 275

The section modulus of a rectangular light beam 25 metres long is 12.500 cm3. The beam is simply
supported at its ends and carries a longitudinal axial tensile load of 10 tonnes in addition to a
point load of 4 tonnes at the centre. The maximum stress in the bottom most fibre at the mid span
section, is
(A) 13.33 kg/cm2 tensile
(B) 13.33 kg/cm2 compressive
(C) 26.67 kg/cm2 tensile
(D) 26.67 kg/cm2 compressive
Answer: Option C
Question No. 276

Stress in members of statically determinate simple frames, can be determined by
(A) Method of joints
(B) Method of sections
(C) Graphical solution
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 277

The point of contraflexure occurs in
(A) Cantilever beams only
(B) Continuous beams only
(C) Over hanging beams only
(D) All types of beams
Answer: Option C
Question No. 278

A rectangular beam 20 cm wide is subjected to a maximum shearing force of 10,000 kg, the
corresponding maximum shearing stress being 30 kg/cm2. The depth of the beam is
(A) 15 cm
(B) 20 cm
(C) 25 cm
(D) 30 cm
Answer: Option C
Question No. 279
If a member is subjected to a tensile force P, having its normal cross-section A, the resulting shear
(A) (P/A
(B) (P/2A
(C) (P/2A
(D) (P/A
Answer: Option B
Question No. 280

If a shaft is simultaneously subjected to a toque T and a bending moment M, the ratio of
maximum bending stress and maximum shearing stress is
(A) M/T
(B) T/M
(C) 2M/T
(D) 2T/M
Answer: Option C
Question No. 281

The ratio of the effective length of a column and minimum radius of gyration of its cross-sectional
area, is known
(A) Buckling factor
(B) Slenderness ratio
(C) Crippling factor
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 282

The region of the cross-section of a column in which compressive load may be applied without
producing any tensile stress, is known as the core of the cross-section. In circular columns the
radius of the core, is
(A) One-half of the radius
(B) One-third of the radius
(C) One-quarter of the radius
(D) One-fifth of the radius
Answer: Option C
Question No. 283

(A) 2 times
(B) 4 times
(C) 8 times
(D) 1/2 times
Answer: Option C
Question No. 284
A cylinder is said to be thin if the ratio of its thickness and diameter, is less than
(A) 1/25
(B) 1/20
(C) 1/15
(D) 1/10
Answer: Option D
Question No. 285

As the elastic limit reaches, tensile strain
(A) Increases more rapidly
(B) Decreases more rapidly
(C) Increases in proportion to the stress
(D) Decreases in proportion to the stress
Answer: Option A
Question No. 286

For a given material Young's modulus is 200 GN/m2 and modulus of rigidity is 80 GN/m2. The value
of Poisson's ratio is
(A) 0.15
(B) 0.20
(C) 0.25
(D) 0.30
Answer: Option C
Question No. 287

The rise of a parabolic arch at quarter points, is equal to
(A) 1/3 times the rise of the crown
(B) 1/4 times the rise of the crown
(C) 1/2 times the rise of the crown
(D) 3/4 times the rise of the crown
Answer: Option D
Question No. 288

The number of points of contraflexure in a simple supported beam carrying uniformly distributed
load, is
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
Answer: Option A
Question No. 289

When two plates butt together and are riveted with two cover plates with two rows of rivets, the
joint is known as
(A) Lap joint
(B) Butt joint
(C) Single riveted single cover butt joint
(D) Double riveted double cover butt joint
Answer: Option D
Question No. 290

(A) 1/2
(B) 1/8
(C) 2
(D) 8
Answer: Option A
Question No. 291

The moment diagram for a cantilever carrying linearly varying load from zero at its free end and to
maximum at the fixed end will be a
(A) Triangle
(B) Rectangle
(C) Parabola
(D) Cubic parabola
Answer: Option D
Question No. 292

When a rectangular beam is loaded longitudinally, shear develops on
(A) Bottom fibre
(B) Top fibre
(C) Middle fibre
(D) Every-horizontal plane
Answer: Option D
Question No. 293

For a simply supported beam carrying uniformly distributed load W on it entire length L, the
maximum bending moment is
(A) WL/4
(B) WL/8
(C) WL/2
(D) WL/3
Answer: Option B
Question No. 294

Along the principal plan subjected to maximum principal stress
(A) Maximum shear stress acts
(B) Minimum shear stress acts
(C) No shear stress acts
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 295

The width of a beam of uniform strength having a constant depth d length L, simply supported at
the ends with a central load W is
(A) 2WL/3fd²
(B) 3WL/2fd²
(C) 2fL/3Wd4
(D) 3fL²/2Wd
Answer: Option B
Question No. 296

The distance between the centres of adjacent rivets in the same row, is called
(A) Pitch
(B) Lap
(C) Gauge
(D) Staggered pitch
Answer: Option A
Question No. 297

Hooke's law states that stress and strain are
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 298

For a beam, if fundamental equations of statics are not sufficient to determine all the reactive
forces at the supports, the structure is said to be
(A) Determinate
(C) Statically indeterminate
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 299

The tension coefficient of any member is
(A) Force divided by the length
(B) Tension divided by the length
(C) Tension per unit area
(D) Tension in the member
Answer: Option B
Question No. 300
Rankine-Golden formula accounts for direct as well as buckling stress and is applicable to
(A) Very long columns
(B) Long columns
(C) Short columns
(D) Intermediate columns
Answer: Option D
Question No. 301

The neutral axis of a beam cross-section must
(A) Pass through the centroid of the section
(B) Be equidistant from the top of bottom films
(C) Be an axis of symmetry of the section
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 302

In a continuous bending moment curve the point where it changes sign, is called
(A) Point of inflexion
(B) Point of contraflexure
(C) Point of virtual hinge
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 303

The equivalent length of a column fixed at one end and free at the other end, is
(A) 0.5 l
(B) 0.7 l
(C) 2 l
(D) 1.5 l
Answer: Option C
Question No. 304

For a given material, if E, C, K and m are Young's modulus, shearing modulus, bulk modulus and
Poisson ratio, the following relation does not hold good
(A) E = 9KC/3K + C
(B) E = 2K (1 + 2/m)
(C) E = 2C (1 + 1/m)
(D) E = 3C (1 - 1/m)
Answer: Option C
Question No. 305

A short masonry pillar is 60 cm x 60 cm in cross-section, the core of the pillar is a square whose
side is
(A) 17.32 cm
(B) 14.14 cm
(C) 20.00 cm
(D) 22.36 cm
Answer: Option B
Question No. 306

The ratio of the maximum deflection of a cantilever beam with an isolated load at its free end and
with a uniformly distributed load over its entire length, is
(A) 1
(B) 24/15
(C) 3/8
(D) 8/3
Answer: Option D
Question No. 307

The slenderness ratio of a vertical column of square cross- section of 10 cm side and 500 cm long,
is
(A) 117.2
(B) 17.3
(C) 173.2
(D) 137.2
Answer: Option C
Question No. 308

A steel rod of 2 cm diameter and 5 metres long is subjected to an axial pull of 3000 kg. If E = 2.1 ×
106, the elongation of the rod will be
(A) 2.275 mm
(B) 0.2275 mm
(C) 0.02275 mm
(D) 2.02275 mm
Answer: Option B
Question No. 309

A rectangular log of wood is floating in water with a load of 100 N at its centre. The maximum
shear force in the wooden log is
(A) 50 N at each end
(B) 50 N at the centre
(C) 100 N at the centre
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 310

The maximum compressive stress at the top of a beam is 1600 kg/cm2 and the corresponding
tensile stress at its bottom is 400 kg/cm2. If the depth of the beam is 10 cm, the neutral axis from
the top, is
(A) 2 cm
(B) 4 cm
(C) 6 cm
(D) 8 cm
Answer: Option D
Question No. 311

At either end of a plane frame, maximum number of possible transverse shear forces, are
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
Answer: Option A
Question No. 312

In a square beam loaded longitudinally, shear develops
(A) On middle fibre along horizontal plane
(B) On lower fibre along horizontal plane
(C) On top fibre along vertical plane
(D) Equally on each fibre along horizontal plane
Answer: Option D
Question No. 313

Reactions at the supports of a structure can be determined by equating the algebraic sum of
(A) Horizontal forces to zero
(B) Vertical forces to zero
(C) Moment about any point to zero
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 314

The phenomenon of slow growth of strain under a steady tensile stress, is called
(A) Yielding
(B) Creeping
(C) Breaking
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 315

If the stress in each cross-section of a pillar is equal to its working stress, it is called
(A) Body of equal
(B) Body of equal section
(C) Body of equal strength
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 316
Maximum deflection of a cantilever due to pure bending moment M at its free end, is
(A) ML²/3EI
(B) ML²/4EI
(C) ML²/6EI
(D) ML²/2EI
Answer: Option D
Question No. 317

The maximum deflection of a simply supported beam of length L with a central load W, is
(A) WL²/48EI
(B) W²L/24EI
(C) WL3/48EI
(D) WL²/8EI
Answer: Option C
Question No. 318

An open-ended cylinder of radius and thickness is subjected to internal pressure . The
Young's modulus for the material is and Poisson's ratio is . The longitudinal strain is
(A) Zero
(B) pr/TE
(C) pr/2TE
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 319

Euler's formula states that the buckling load for a column of length , both ends hinged and
whose least moment of inertia and modulus of elasticity of the material of the column
are and respectively, is given by the relation
(A) P = ²EI/l²
(B) P = /EI
(C) P = /l²
(D) P = ²EI/l3
Answer: Option A
Question No. 320

In a three hinged arch, the bending moment will be zero
(A) At right hinge only
(B) At left hinge only
(C) At both right and left hinges
(D) At all the three hinges
Answer: Option D
Question No. 321
A simply supported beam carries two equal concentrated loads W at distances L/3 from either
support. The maximum bending moment
(A) WL/3
(B) WL/4
(C) 5WL/4
(D) 3WL/12
Answer: Option A
Question No. 322

If the beam is supported so that there are only three unknown reactive elements at the supports.
These can be determined by using the following fundamental equation of statics
(A) H = 0
(B) V = 0
(C) H H=0
(D) H V M=0
Answer: Option D
Question No. 323

For a cantilever with a uniformly distributed load W over its entire length L, the maximum bending
moment is
(A) WL
(B) ½ WL
(C) WL
(D) ½ WL2
Answer: Option B
Question No. 324

To ascertain the maximum permissible eccentricity of loads on circular columns, the rule generally
followed, is
(A) Middle half rule of columns
(B) Middle third rule of columns
(C) Middle fourth rule of columns
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 325

A shaft 9 m long is subjected to a torque 30 t-m at a point 3 m distant from either end. The
reactive torque at the nearer end will be
(A) 5 tonnes metre
(B) 10 tonnes metre
(C) 15 tonnes metre
(D) 20 tonnes metre
Answer: Option D
Question No. 326
Every material obeys the Hooke's law within its
(A) Elastic limit
(B) Plastic point
(C) Limit of proportionality
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 327

If the length of a cantilever carrying an isolated load at its free end is doubled, the deflection of
the free end will increase by
(A) 8
(B) 1/8
(C) 1/3
(D) 2
Answer: Option B
Question No. 328

If is the internal pressure in a thin cylinder of diameter and thickness , the developed hoop
stress, is
(A) pd/2t
(B) pd/4t
(C) pd/t
(D) 2pd/t
Answer: Option A
Subject code-202045
Unit-2
Id
A n=m
B n>m
C n<m
D None of the above
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A n=m
B n>m
C n<m
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Linear
B Parabolic
C Cubic
D Constant
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Linear
B Parabolic
C Cubic
D constant
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Linear
B Parabolic
C Cubic
D constant
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Linear
B Parabolic
C Cubic
D constant
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Linear
B Parabolic
C Cubic
D constant
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Linear
B Parabolic
C Cubic
D constant
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A SF is zero
B SF is maximum
C BM is zero
D BM is maximum
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Middle
D None of the above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A UDL
B UVL
C Point load
D moment
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Cantilever beam
B Overhanging beam
D Uniform beam
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A is maximum
B is minimum
C is equal
D is zero
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
B fixed beam
C overhanging beam
D cantilever beam
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
B fixed beam
C overhanging beam
D continuous beam
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A WL
B WL/2
C WL/4
D WL/8
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A wL/2 kNm
B wL2/2 kNm
C wL3/2 kNm
D wL2/4 kNm
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A wL/2 kNm
B wL2/2 kNm
C wL3/2 kNm
D wL2/4 kNm
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A 40 kNm
B 80 kNm
C 20 kNm
D 60 kNm
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
B One rectangle
D A triangle
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
C varies linearly
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A cubic law
B parabolic law
C linear law
D none of these
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A cubic law
B parabolic law
C linear law
D none of these
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
load is
A wl2/4
B wl2/8
C wl2/12
D wl/4
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
the
A free end
B mid span
C fixed end
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A cubic law
B parabolic law
C linear law
D uniform law
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A cubic law
B parabolic law
C linear law
D uniform law
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A cubic law
B parabolic law
C linear law
D uniform law
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
end is
A triangle
B rectangle
C parabola
D elliptical
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A zero
B also maximum
C minimum
D of any value
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
of the beam.
B length
C width
D depth
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
_____.
A disc
B strut
C column
D beam
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A inclined
B parallel
C normal
D none of the above
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
D All of above
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
Answer C
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A width
B length
C depth
D cross-section
Answer B
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
A Bending moment
B Loading
C Deflection
Answer D
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
length is a
A Triangle
B Rectangle
C Hyperbola
D Parabola
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --
Id
B remains same
Answer A
Marks 1
Unit --

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Strength of Materials

ANSWER: shear force

4) Which of the following is a differential equation for deflection?

ANSWER: d2y / dx2 = (M/EI)

5) Macaulay's method is used to determine ______

Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: 0.0845 N/mm2

7) Strain energy stored in a uniform bar is given as ______

ANSWER: (σ2 AL/ 2E)

8) Modulus of resilience is the ratio of ______

a. minimum strain energy and unit volume

ANSWER: proof resilience and unit volume

10) Energy stored in a body within an elastic limit is called as _____

ANSWER: both a. and b.

ANSWER: both a. and b.

ANSWER: 50.57 N/mm2

ANSWER: 14.69 N/mm2

15) Which of the following assumptions are made in torsion theory?

a. Shaft is perfectly straight

ANSWER: Shaft is perfectly straight

a. both ends of solid circular bar are fixed

ANSWER: one end is fixed and other end is hinged

17) Rankine-Gordon's empirical formula is applicable for _____

ANSWER: both a. and b.

a. fixed at both the ends

ANSWER: fixed at one end and free at the other

20) What is the value of Rankine's constant for cast iron?

a. [(σx – σy)/2 ]sin θ – τ cos 2θ

ANSWER: [(σx – σy)/2 ]sin θ – τ cos 2θ

ANSWER: 39.60 Mpa

25) Minor principal stress has minimum ________

a. value of shear stress acting on the plane

ANSWER: intensity of direct stress

a. reaches the value of yield point

ANSWER: reaches the value of strain energy

Answer Explanation Related Ques

a. Maximum shear stress theory

ANSWER: Both a. and b.

30) Shear stress energy theory is called as ______

ANSWER: both a. and b.

3) Euler's formula is applicable only _________

1. for short columns

4) Slenderness ratio is the ratio of effective length of column and ________

a. lateral dimension of a column

ANSWER: least radius of gyration of a column

ANSWER: Normal stress

7) When a component is subjected to axial stress the normal stress σn is maximum, if

ANSWER: Principal stress

10) In Mohr's circle method, compressive direct stress is represented on ____

ANSWER: negative x-axis

11) St. Venant's theory is also known as maximum _________

ANSWER: principle strain theory

12) According to Coulomb's theory, material subjected to complex stresses fails, if

ANSWER: maximum, maximum

ANSWER: Rankine's theory

14) Which theory gives satisfactory results for brittle materials?

a. Maximum shear stress theory

ANSWER: Maximum principle stress theory

16) Modulus of rigidity is the ratio of ______

a. Lateral strain and linear strain

ANSWER: Shear stress and shear strain

Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: 62.5 Gpa