Odisha Judicial Service Exam, 2021

Constitutional of India
1. Which of these Amendments and their subject matter is/are incorrectly
matched?
1. 26th Amendment - Abolition of titles and privileges of former rules of princely
states
2. 21st Amendment - Curtailed the right to property
3. 51st Amendment - Curbed political defections
4. 61st Amendment - Reduced voting age
(a) I, II and IV
(b) II, III and IV
(c) I and IV
(d) II and III
2. Match the following:
A. Fifty-eighth Amendment 1. Delhi to be called as National Capital Territory
of Delhi
B. Sixty-first Amendment 2. Reduced voting age from 21 years to 18 years
C. Sixty-ninth Amendment 3. An authoritative text of the Constitution in Hindi
D. Seventy-first Amendment 4. Included Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali
languages in the Eighth Schedule
A B C D
(a) 3 2 1 4
(b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 2 1 3 4
(d) 4 2 1 3
3. What was the decision of the Supreme Court in Keshavanand Bharati case?
(a) Parliament is supreme in the matters of legislation
(b) In matters relating to compulsory acquisition of private property the court had
the ultimate powers of determining what is public purpose under Article 31
(c) The power under Article 368 to amend the Constitution cannot be so exercised
as to alter the basic structure or the essential features of the Constitution
(d) The Supreme Court has full authority to pronounce on the Constitutional
Validity of any State law
4. The Constituent Assembly for undivided India first met on
(a) 6th December, 1946
(b) 9th December, 1946
(c) 20th February, 1947
(d) 3rd June, 1947
5. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) The Constituent Assembly of India was elected by the Provincial Assemblies in
the year 1946
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru; M.A. Jinnah and Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel were members of
the Constituent Assembly of India
(c) The First Session of the Constituent Assembly of India was held in January,
1947
(d) The Constitution of India was adopted on 26th January, 1950
6. Match the following:
A. July 22, 1947 1. Adoption of National Song by the Constituent Assembly
B. January 24, 1950 2. Adoption of National Emblem by the Government
C. January 26, 1950 3. Adoption of National Calendar by the Government
D. March 22, 1957 4. Adoption of National Flag by the Constituent Assembly
A B C D
(a) 4 1 2 3
(b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 4 2 1 3
(d) 2 1 3 4
7. Which of the following are the principal features of Government of India Act,
1919?
1. Introduction of dyarchy in the executive government of the provinces.
2. Introduction of separate communal electorate for Muslims.
3. Devolution of legislative authority by the Centre to the Provinces.
4. Expansion and reconstitution of Central and Provincial Legislatures.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4
8. Which of the following proved to be the most short lived of all the British
constitutional experiments in India?
(a) Government of India Act, 1919
(b) Indian Council Act, 1909
(c) Pitt's India Act, 1784
(d) Government of India Act, 1935
9. Which one of the following Acts formally introduced the principles of elections
for the first time?
(a) Indian Councils Act, 1909
(b) Government of India Act, 1919
(c) Government of India Act, 1935
(d) Indian Independence Act, 1947
10. Which of the following features do not contribute to making the Indian
Constitution the bulkiest in the world?
I. Various types of emergencies are considered in detail.
II. It codifies the rights and privileges of the members of Parliament and State
Legislatures.
III. It enumerates all types of Indian citizenship and how it can be terminated.
IV. It contains not only a list of fundamental rights but also the restrictions to be
placed on them.
(a) I and II
(b) I and IV
(c) II and III
(d) II, III and IV
11. Which of the following statements is/are not correct about the Objectives
Resolution?
I. It was moved by Jawaharlal Nehru in the Constituent Assembly.
II. It called for just rights for minorities.
III. It formed the basis for the chapter on Fundamental Rights.
IV. It called for the establishment of a socialist and secular polity.
(a) I and II
(b) I, II and III
(c) III and IV
(d) Only III
12. Which of the following items is wrongly matched?
(a) December 9, 1947-Constituent Assembly's first meeting
(b) November 26, 1949-the people of India adopted, enacted and gave to
themselves the Constitution
(c) January 24,' 1950-the Constitution was finally signed by the members of the
Constituent Assembly
(d) January 26, 1950-the date of commencement of the Constitution
13. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution came into force from
November 26, 1949 ?
I. Provisions relating to citizenship.
II. Provisions relating to elections.
III. Provisions relating to provisional Parliament.
IV. Fundamental Rights.
(a) I and II
(b) I, III and IV
(c) I, II and III
(d) None
14. Which of the following Acts gave representation to Indians for the first time in
the Legislature?
(a) Indian Councils Act, 1909
(b) Indian Councils Act, 1919
(c) Government of India Act, 1935
(d) None of the above
15. The Crown took the Government of India into its own hands by :
(a) Charter Act, 1833
(b) Government of India Act, 1858
(c) Indian Council Act, 1861
(d) Government of India Act, 1935
16. The nationalist demand for a Constituent Assembly was for the first time
conceded by the British Government, though indirectly and with reservations in the:
(a) Cripps proposals
(b) August Offer
(c) Cabinet Mission Plan
(d) Act of 1935
17. Who among the following is known as the Father of the Indian Constitution?
(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Vallabhbhai PateI
18. When did Mr. Attlee, Prime Minister of England, announce the transfer of
power to the Indians?
(a) February, 1947
(b) August, 1947
(c) June, 1948
(d) June, 1949
19. Who proposed the Preamble before the Drafting Committee of the
Constitution?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) B.R. Ambedkar
(c) B.N. Rao
(d) Mahatma Gandhi
20. Which of the following is correct regarding the Indian Constitution?
(a) It is completely based on British Constitution
(b) It is made only on the basis of Government of India Act, 1935
(c) It is a mixture of several Constitutions
(d) It is original
21. Match the following:
A. Govt. of India Act, 1919 1. Provincial autonomy
B. Govt. of India Act, 1935 2. Separate Electorate
C. Minto-Morley Reforms 3. Dyarchy
D. Cabinet Mission Plan 4. Constituent Assembly
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 4 3 1
(c) 4 1 3 2
(d) 3 1 2 4
22. The amendment procedure laid down in the Constitution of India is on the
pattern of?
(a) Government of India Act, 1935
(b) Government of India Act, 1947
(c) Constitution of South Africa
(d) Constitution of UK
23. The first session of the Constituent Assembly was held in :
(a) Bombay
(b) Calcutta
(c) Lahore
(d) New Delhi
24. Who among the following was the Chairman of the Union Constitution
Committee of the Constituent Assembly?
(a) B.R. Ambedkar
(b) J.B. Kripalani
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar
25. Which among the following is/are the feature (s) of a Federal State?
1. The powers of the Central and the State (Constituent Unit) Governments are
clearly laid down
2. It has an unwritten Constitution. Select the correct answer using the codes
given below
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
26. Which one among the following is a fundamental duty of citizens under the
Constitution of India?
(a) To provide friendly cooperation to the people of the neighbouring countries
(b) To protect monuments of national importance
(c) To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
(d) To know more and more about the history of India
27. The members of the Constituent Assembly were:
(a) elected by Provincial Assemblies
(b) elected directly by people
(c) nominated by the government
(d) only representatives of the princely States
28. Which of the following statements regarding the' Constituent Assembly are
true?
1. It was not based on Adult Franchise.
2. It resulted from direct elections.
3. It was a multi-party body.
4. It worked through several Committees.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
29. Which one of the following made the Indian Legislature bicameral:
(a) Indian Councils Act, 1909
(b) Government of India Act, 1919
(c) Government of India Act, 1935
(d) Indian Independence Act, 1947
30. The Government of India Act, 1935 vested the residuary power in the:
(a) British Parliament
(b) Federal Legislature
(c) State Legislature
(d) Governor-General
31. Which of the following describes India as a Secular State?
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Ninth Schedule
(c) Directive Principles
(d) Preamble to the Constitution
32. In a parliamentary form of government, real powers of the State are vested in
the:
(a) Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister
(b) President
(c) Government
(d) Parliament
33. Which of the following is not a basic feature of the Indian Constitution?
(a) Presidential Government
(b) Parliamentary Government
(c) Federal Government
(d) Independence of Judiciary
34. Which of the following is a feature of the Parliamentary form of government?
(a) Executive is responsible to Judiciary
(b) Executive is responsible to Legislature
(c) Judiciary is responsible to Executive
(d) Legislature is responsible to Executive
35. Under which Article of the Constitution are the Cultural and Educational
Rights granted?
(a) Article 29 and 31
(b) Article 29 and 32
(c) Article 29 and 30
(d) Article 30 and 31
36. Which of the following is not specifically mentioned in Article 19 of the
Constitution?
(a) Freedom of speech and expression
(b) Freedom to assemble peacefully without arms
(c) Freedom to move freely
(d) Freedom of the press
37. Fundamental Freedoms under Article 19 are suspended during emergency
caused by:
(a) war or external aggression
(b) failure of constitutional machinery of a State
(c) internal armed rebellion
(d) financial crisis
38. Which of the following is/are included in the Directive Principles of State
Policy?
1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
2. Prohibition of consumption except for medicinal purposes of intoxicating
drinks and of other drugs which are injurious to health.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
39. Indian Constitution recognises minorities on the basis of:
(a) religion
(b) caste
(c) population
(d) colour
40. As far as Armed Forces are concerned, the fundamental rights· granted under
Articles 14 and 19 of the Constitution are:
(a) not available at all
(b) available to armed forces but not to other forces
(c) available only at the discretion of the chief of army staff
(d) available only according to law made by Parliament
41. The Constitution provides that Hindi shall be:
(a) the national language of India
(b) the language of communication between the State Governments
(c) the official language of the Union of India
(d) the language of communication between the Union Government and the State
Governments
42. What is the minimum permissible age for employment in any factory or mine?
(a) 12 years
(b) 14 years
(c) 16 years
(d) 18 years
43. Which of the following is not a condition for becoming a citizen of India?
(a) Birth
(b) Acquiring property
(c) Descent
(d) Naturalisation
44. Who is competent to prescribe conditions as for acquiring Indian citizenship?
(a) Parliament
(b) State Legislatures
(c) President
(d) Attorney General
45. Fundamental duties enacted in Part IV A of the Constitution are:
(a) enforceable duties and Parliament can impose penalties or punishments for the
non- compliance
(b) like Directive Principles that are mandates to people
(c) like Fundamental Rights that are enforceable
(d) no more than meant to create psychological consciousness among the citizens
and of education value
46. Which of the following are among the Fundamental Duties as listed in the
Constitution?
I. To preserve the heritage of our composite culture.
II. To abide by the Constitution.
III. To strive for excellence in scientific research to win international fame.
IV. To render national service when called upon to do so.
(a) I, II and III
(b) l and II
(c) I, II and IV
(d) II, III and IV
47. In India the right to "freedom of speech and expression" is restricted on the
grounds of
1. the sovereignty and integrity of India.
2. contempt of court.
3. friendly relation with foreign states.
4. protection of minorities.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 4
48. Which among the following conditions are necessary for the issue of writ of
quo warranto?
1. The office must be public and must be created by a Statute or by the
Constitution itself.
2. The office must be a substantive one and not merely the function or
employment of a servant at the will and during the pleasure of another.
3. There has been a contravention of the constitution or a Statutory Instrument, in
appointing such person to that office.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Code:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
49. Which of the following are envisaged as being part of the 'Right against
Exploitation' in the Constitution of India?
1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour.
2. Abolition of untouchability.
3. Protection of the interests of the minorities.
4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines. Select the correct
answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
50. In which case did the Supreme Court restore the primacy of the Fundamental
Rights over the Directive Principles of State Policy?
(a) Golaknath Case
(b) Keshavananda Bharti Case
(c) Minerva Mills Case
(d) All the above cases
51. Which of the following cannot be termed 'Gandhian' among the Directive
Principles?
(a) Prevention of cow slaughter
(b) Promotion of cottage industries
(c) Establishment of village panchayats
(d) Uniform civil code for the country
52. The Twelfth Schedule of the Constitution:
(a) contains provisions relating to elections to Panchayats
(b) contains subjects over which Municipalities may have control
(c) contains recommendations relating to establishment of State Finance
Commission
(d) was added by the 73rd Amendment Act
53. The Ninth Schedule was added by the ____Amendment.
(a) First
(b) Ninth
(c) Thirty-fifth
(d) Thirty-sixth
54. In the Constitution of India, promotion of international peace and security is
mentioned in the:
(a) Preamble to the Constitution
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Fundamental Duties
(d) Ninth Schedule
55. Match the following:
A. Xth Schedule 1: Provision as to the disqualifications on the grounds of
defection
B. VIIIth Schedule 2. Union, State and Concurrent Lists
C. VIIth Schedule 3. Languages
D. Vlth Schedule 4. Related to tribal areas
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 3 2 1 4
(c)1 3 2 4
(d) 4 2 3 1
56. Consider the following statements:
1. There are twelve Fundamental Duties laid down in the Constitution of India for
every citizen of India.
2. There is no provision in the Constitution of India for direct enforcement of the
Fundamental Duties.
3. One of the Fundamental Duties of every citizen of India is to cast his/her vote
in general or State elections so as to maintain a vibrant democracy in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
57. A proclamation of emergency issued under Article 352 must be approved by
the
Parliament within:
(a) 1 month
(b) 6 weeks
(c) 2 months
(d) 3 months
58. The President's rule can be proclaimed in a State:
(a) when a bill introduced by the State Government in the State Legislature is
defeated
(b) if the President, on receipt of report from the Governor of the State is satisfied
that a situation is likely to arise in which the Government of the State cannot be
carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution
(c) if the President, on receipt of a report from the Governor of the State, or
otherwise, is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the Government of the State
cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution
(d) when the Governor and the Chief Minister of a State differ on many matters
59. The rule of passing resolution by 2/3rd majority of total number of members of the
House of Parliament is applicable in the case of:
(a) amendment of the Constitution
(b) approval of proclamation of emergency
(c) impeachment of President
(d) disapproval of proclamation of emergency
60. While a proclamation of emergency is in operation in the country, the
State Government:
(a) cannot legislate
(b) can legislate only on subjects in the Concurrent List
(c) can legislate on the subject in the State List
(d) is suspended
61. While a proclamation of emergency is in operation in the country under Article
352:
(a) the Parliament is empowered under Article 250 to legislate with respect to any
matter in the State List
(b) the power of the State Legislature to make a law which is entitled to make a
law under the Constitution is suspended
(c) a law passed by the Parliament may be amended by a State Legislature with
prior permission of the President
(d) Parliament can delegate some of its powers to the State Legislatures
62. Which is not a correct statement regarding financial emergency?
(a) President can ask States to follow a certain canon of financial propriety
(b) The States may be asked to reserve the money bills for the consideration of the
President
(c) President can suspend the normal allocation of revenues
(d) President can reduce the salaries of civil servants and not judges
63. According to Article 164(1) of the Constitution of India, in three States there
shall be a Minister in charge of tribal welfare who may in addition be in charge of the
welfare of the Scheduled Castes and Backward Classes. Which one of the following
States is not covered by the Article? [CDS 2009]
(a) Jharkhand
(b) Punjab
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Orissa
64. Which Article of Indian Constitution prescribes Hindi in Devanagari script as
the official language of the Union?
(a) 341
(b) 342
(c) 343
(d) 346
65. Article 340 of the Constitution of India provides for the appointment of a
Commission to investigate the conditions for the improvement of:
(a) Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
(b) Socially and educationally backward classes
(c) Socially and economically backward classes
(d) Educationally and economically backward classes
66. The President can issue proclamation of emergency:
(a) on the advice of Prime Minister
(b) on the advice of Council of Ministers
(c) in his own decision
(d) when the decision of Union Cabinet for the issuance of such proclamation has
been communicated to him in writing
67. Which of the following statements is correct ?
(a) The President may continue to be a member of Parliament even after assuming
charge of the Presidential office
(b) The President is not barred from holding any other office of profit even after
assuming charge of Presidential office
(c) The President is entitled to use his official residence only on payment of rent
fixed
(d) The emolument and allowances of the President shall not be diminished during
his term of office
68. The President can be removed by the way of impeachment which can be made
only:
(a) by the Supreme Court
(b) by the Rajya Sabha
(c) by the Members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha through impeachment
(d) cannot be impeached
69. Who administers the oath of office to the President?
(a) Chief Justice of India
(b) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Vice-President
70. Which one of the following does not constitute the electoral college for electing
the President of India?
(a) Elected members of Rajya Sabha
(b) Elected members of Lok Sabha
(c) Elected members of the Legislative Assembly of each State
(d) Elected members of the Legislative Council
71. In which of the following situations does the President act in his own discretion?
(a) In appointing the Prime Minister
(b) In returning a proposal to the Council of Ministers for reconsideration
(c) Both of the above
(d) None of the above
72. The minimum age required for becoming the Prime Minister of India is :
(a) 25 years
(b) 30 years
(c) 40 years
(d) 35 years
73. Which of the following appointments is not made by the President of India?
(a) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(b) Chief Justice of India
(c) Chief of the Air Force
(d) Chief of the Army
74. Which one of the following statements is most appropriate?
(a) The President shall be bound by the advice of the Prime Minister
(b) The President shall be bound by the advice given by the Council of Ministers
(c) The President shall act on the advice of the Prime Minister who shall tender
such advice in consultation with his cabinet
(d) The President shall act in accordance with the advice of the Council of
Ministers and he may return such advice for reconsideration
75. The power to grant pardons, reprieve or remissions of punishment under
Article 72 is exercised by the President of India:
(a) on the advice of the Prime Minister
(b) on his own as Head of the Union
(c) on the advice of Council of Ministers
(d) in consultation with the Prime Minister who tenders his opinion on the advice
of his cabinet
76. Who among the following' are appointed by the President of India?
I. Chairman, Finance Commission
II. Deputy Chairman, Planning Commission
III. Chief Minister of a Union Territory
(a) I only
(b) I and II
(c) I and III
(d) II and III
77. An ordinance promulgated by the President:
(a) will lapse automatically after 2months
(b) will lapse on the expiration of 6 weeks from the meeting of the Parliament
(c) will automatically become a law after 6 months
(d) will continue to be in force till it is superseded by an Act of the Parliament
78. Appointment of the members of the Council of Ministers is made by the
President:
(a) on the advice of the Prime Minister
(b) in his own discretion
(c) on the advice of the Vice- President
(d) on the basis of election results
79. Who among the following are appointed by the President of India?
I. Governors of States.
II. The Chief Justice and Judges of High Courts.
III. The Chief Justice and the Judges of the Supreme Court.
IV. The Vice-President.
(a) I and II
(b) I, II and III
(c) II, III and IV
(d) I, III and IV
80. Which of the following is correct ?
(a) If both the President and Vice-President resign, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
will act as President till a new President is elected
(b) The Constitution of India prescribes both the minimum and maximum age
limits for contesting the Presidential election
(c) In the event of resignation of the President, the Vice-President will act as
President for the residual period of the President's tenure
(d) In India, the President is part of the Parliament
81. An election to fill a vacancy in the office of Vice-President occurring by reason
of his death, resignation or removal, has to be held:
(a) within six months of the occurrence of the vacancy
(b) within a year of the occurrence of the vacancy
(c) as soon as possible after the occurrence of the vacancy
(d) after the expiration of the term if the remaining period is less than three months
82. Who elects the Vice-President?
(a) The same electoral college which elects the President
(b) Members of the Rajya Sabha
(c) An electoral college consisting of members of Parliament
(d) Members of Parliament at a joint Meeting
83. Consider the following statements regarding the Vice-President of India:
1. The Vice-President is elected by an electoral college consisting of all the
members of the both Houses of Parliament.
2. The Constitution is silent about a person who is to discharge the duties of the
Vice- President during the period of vacancy.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
84. The Constitution:
(a) is silent on the President's re-election to the office
(b) allows re-election of a person to the President's post
(c) restricts a person to remain President for only two terms
(d) has been amended to allow a person only one term as President
85. The legislative powers of the President include all the following but:
(a) the power-to summon or prorogue the Houses of Parliament
(b) the power to summon a joint sitting of the Houses to resolve a deadlock
(c) the power of nominating 12 members to the Lok Sabha
(d) the right to address either House at any time and it requires the attendance of
members for this purpose
86. Which of the following statements regarding the pardoning powers of the
President is/are not correct?
1. He has the pardoning power in respect of sentence by court martial.
2. He can grant reprieve and respite in case of punishment for an offence against
any law of the land, Union or State.
3. He alone can pardon a sentence of death.
4. His exercise of the power of pardon is open to judicial review.
(a) I and III
(b) II and III
(c) I and IV
(d) II and IV
87. Mark the correct response:
(a) It is the duty of the Prime Minister to communicate all decisions of the Council
of Ministers to the President, whenever he requires
(b) The Prime Minister need not communicate all decisions to the President
(c) It is not obligatory on the part of Prime Minister to communicate the decision
to the President
(d) The President cannot compel the Prime Minister to give the information he has
88. Mark the correct response:
(a) The President has power to remove the Prime Minister but not any of his
ministers unless so advised by the Prime Minister
(b) The President has power neither to remove the Prime Minister nor any of his
ministers unless the Prime Minister loses the support of majority in Lok Sabha and
tenders his resignation
(c) The President can remove Prime Minister the moment he loses his majority in
the Lok Sabha
(d) The President has a power to remove any of the ministers at his pleasure
89. Which one of the following statements is correct?
The Speaker of Lok Sabha can be removed by a resolution passed by:
(a) a majority of all the then members of Lok Sabha
(b) a majority of the then members of both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(c) two-thirds majority of the total members of the Lok Sabha
(d) two-thirds majority of the Lok Sabha members present and voting
90. Consider the following statements about the powers of the President of India:
1. The President can direct that any matter on which decision has been taken by a
Minister should be placed before the Council of Ministers.
2. The President can call all information relating to proposals for legislation.
3. The President has the right to address and send messages to either House of the
Parliament.
4. All decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration fo the
Union must be communicated to the President.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
91. The authorization for the withdrawal of funds from the Consolidated Fund of
India must come from
(a) The President of India
(b) The Parliament of India
(c) The Prime Minister of India
(d) The Union Finance Minister
92. In the matter of State legislation the President may:
(a) exercise only suspensive veto power
(b) may withhold assent to any bill reserved for his consideration except money
bills
(c) withhold his assent to any bill reserved for his consideration
(d) directly disallow any bill which he considers anti national
93. Which one of the following powers can be exercised by both the President and
the Governor?
(a) Power to pardon a sentence by court martial
(b) Power to remit a sentence in an offence relating to a matter on the State List
(c) Power to commute a sentence of death in certain circumstances
(d) Power to remit a sentence by court martial
94. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Chief Election Commissioner of India holds his office during the pleasure of
the President
(b) The Governor of the State holds his office during the pleasure of the President
(c) The Prime Minister' can only be removed by a resolution passed by both
Houses of Parliament
(d) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha can be, removed at the pleasure of the President
95. Though the President is not a Member of Parliament, he performs certain
functions as an integral part of the Parliament. Which are these?
I. He can dissolve the Lok Sabha.
II. He accords assent to the bills passed by Parliament.
III. He summons both Houses of Parliament.
IV. He orders elections to the Parliament when its term is over.
(a) I, II, III and IV
(b) I, II and III
(c) I and II
(d) II, III and IV
96. Which of the following statements is/are True?
I. Disputes related to election of a President are decided by the Supreme Court.
II. Disputes related to vacancy in the electoral college are settled by the Election
Commission.
III. In case the election of a President is declared void by the Supreme Court, the
acts performed by a President before the data of such decision of the court get
invalidated.
(a) I, II and III
(b) I and III
(c) I only
(d) III only
97. The President may appoint all the following except:
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Governor
(c) High Court judges
(d) Rajya Sabha Chairman
98. Which one of the following statements regarding the office of the Speaker is
correct?
(a) He holds office during the pleasure of the President
(b) He needs not be a member of the House at the time of his election but has to
become a member of the House within 6 months from the date of his election
(c) He loses his office if the House is dissolved before the expiry of its term
(d) If he intends to resign, the letter of his resignation is to be addressed to the
Deputy Speaker
99. Amongst the following, for whose removal Parliament's resolution is not needed?
(a) Chief Election Commissioner
(b) Governor of a State
(c) Judge of Supreme Court
(d) Comptroller and Auditor General
100. The Annual Financial Statement is caused to be laid before both Houses of
Parliament by the:
(a) President
(b) Speaker
(c) Vice-President
(d) Finance Minister
Answer Key
1. d. 52nd Amendment Act and 44th Amendment Act
2. a. -
3. c. -
4. b. –
5. a. -
6. a. -
7. d. -
8. b. -
9. a. -
10. c. -
11. c. -
12. a. -
13. c. -
14. c. -
15. b. -
16. b. -
17. a. -
18. c. -
19. a. -
20. c. -
21. d. -
22. c. -
23. d. -
24. c. -
25. a. -
26. c Article 51A
27. a-
28. c. -
29. b. -
30. d. -
31. d. -
32. a. -
33. a. -
34. b. -
35. c. -
36. d. -
37. a. Article 358
38. b. Article 23 and 47
39. a. Article 30
40. d. Article 33
41. c. Article 343
42. b. Article 24
43. b. -
44. a. Article 11
45. d. -
46. c. Article 51A
47. a. Article 19(2)
48. d. -
49. c. Article 23 and 24
50. a. -
51. d. Article 44
52. b. -
53. a-
54. b. Article 51
55. c. -
56. b. -
57. a. Article 352(4)
58. c. Article 356
59. c. Article 61
60. a. Article 353
61. a. Article 250
62. c. Article 360
63. b. Article 164(5)
64. c. Article 343
65. a. Article 340
66. d. Article 352(3)
67. c. -
68. c. Article 61
69. a. Article 60
70. d. Article 54
71. b. -
72. a. -
73. a. Article 93
74. b. Article 74
75. c. -
76. b. -
77. b. Article 123
78. a. Article 75
79. b. -
80. d. -
81. c. Article 68
82. c. Article 66
83. c. Article 66 and 70
84. b. Article 57
85. c. -
86. b. Article 72
87. a. Article 78
88. b. -
89. a. Article 94
90. d. Article 78, 86 etc.
91. b Article 114
92. c. Article 201
93. c. Article 72 and 161
94. b. Article 156
95. b. -
96. c. Article 71
97. d. -
98. d. Article 94(b)
99. c. Article 124(4)
100. a. Article 112