Professional Documents
Culture Documents
TEST 1
PART 1: PHONETICS
I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.
1. A. design B. please C. pleasant D. house
2. A. killing B. kneel C. queue D. cucumber
3. A. shopping B. wish C. machine D. reaching
4. A. genuine B. geneticist C. guarantee D. generation
5. A. challenge B. architecture C. chemistry D. scholarship
II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the other words in each
group.
1. A. advertise B. advertisement C. machine D. surrounding
2. A. economic B. introduce C. religion D. souvenir
3. A. earthquake B. waterfall C. disappear D. generous
4. A. preference B. disappointed C. unpolluted D. documentary
5. A. recommend B. spectator C. individual D. unexpected
PART 2: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY
III. Choose the word or phrase that best fits the space in each sentence.
1. Of course, she can lift that. She is as ________ as a horse.
A. tough B. strong C. heavy D. big
2. ________ to the invention of the steam engine, most forms of transport were horse-drawn.
A. Akin B. In addition C. With reference D. Prior
3. The amount she earned was ________ on how much she sold.
A. related B. dependent C. secured D. connected
4. The saguaro, ________ in desert regions in the southwestern United States, ________ cactus in
the world.
A. finds/ the largest B. finding/ is the largest
C. found/ that is the largest D. found/ is the largest
5. You may borrow as many books as you like, provided you show them to ______is at the desk.
A. whoever B. who C. whom D. anyone
6. The bank will require three ________ signatures when you open an account.
A. trial B. natural C. sample D. specimen
7. Here is an example of an ancient ________ Chinese vase.
A. beautiful B. tiny C. patterned D. exotic
8. All the way along the winding street ________.
A. he came B. came he C. did he come D. come he
9. The World Health Organization has stated that smallpox has been almost completely _______.
A. uprooted B. eradicated C. obliterated D. extinguished
10. As a result of the recent rise in the divorce rate, there are far more ________ parents than there
used to be.
A. single B. only C. unique D. separate
IV. Find out and correct the 10 mistakes in the following passage.
Although party invitations no longer frightened to me, I found myself making carefully
preparations for this particularly party. I got a haircut, laid out my best suit, selected a special shirt,
a colorful tie, and cufflinks. I had recently went on a diet, but because I didn't want I looked too
thin, I discontinued it. What should I bring my hosts? Flowers? Wine? What kind of the wine? Port?
Sherry? Or possibly even champagne? Meeting new people was still a major undertaking. It was
schedule for this Saturday and I decided to take a cab to the suburb where it was being hold. It was
early autumn and the weather was mild, but that morning it turned cold and rainy, and as I listened
to the steam hissing in my radiator, it already fell like midwinter. From my newspaper, I learned
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that a hurricane which had already struck another state was in its way to New York, though it might
veer out to sea.
E.g. frightened to me → frightened me
V. Fill in the blank with the correct form of the words given in parentheses.
1. We go to the restaurant for ________ whenever we ‘re tired of eating meat. (vegestable)
2. Don’t worry. I ‘ll be waiting for you at the ________ to the pagoda . (enter)
3. The old theater of our city is being enlarged and ________. (modern)
4. Advertisements acount for three fourths of the ________ of the newspaper. (come)
5. What is the ________ of the adjective “solid”. ( oppose)
6. ________ should complain if they are not satisfied with the service they recieve. (Consume)
7. If your work is ________ you won’t get a raise. (satisfy)
8. ________ are alarmed by the rate at which tropical rainforest are being destroyed.(Conserve)
9. The athletes take part in the Olympic Games in the true spirit of ________. (sport)
10. You can never be sure what he is going to do. He is so ________. (predict)
PART 3. Reading
VI. Read the text and choose the best answer.
Bats are not the dirty, bloodthirsty monsters that they are portrayed to be in vampire
films. These animals groom themselves carefully like cats and only rarely carry rabies. Of the
hundreds of species of bats, only three rely on blood meals. In fact, the majority eat fruit,
insects, spiders, or small animals. They consume an enormous number of pests, pollinate
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many varieties of plant life, and help reforest barren land by excreting millions of undigested seeds.
Almost all bats use echolocation to navigate, especially at night. As they fly, they emit a
series of high-pitched squeaks at the rate of about fifty per minute. As these signals bounce
off objects in their path, an echo is detected by the bats' sensitive ears which informs them of
the direction and distance of obstacles so that they can undertake corrective or evasive action.
10 But bats are not blind as widely assumed. In fact, all species of bats can see, probably about
as well as human beings.
It is also a little-known fact that bats are highly social creatures. Thousands or even
millions of individual bats may belong to a colony, hanging upside down in caves or in trees.
Within their social systems, bats assume specialized roles. Some may guard the entrance to
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their caves, others may scout for food, and still others may warn the colony of approaching
danger. A nursery colony may be part of a larger colony to provide mother bats with a safe,
supportive environment in which to rear their young.
1. What is the author's opinion of bats?
A. They are dirty and they carry rabies.
B. They are like the monsters in vampire films.
C. They are clean, helpful members of the animal world.
D. They are not very important in the animal world.
2. According to the passage, how are bats like cats?
A. They both carry rabies. B. Cats groom themselves, and so do bats.
C. Both cats and bats eat pests. D. Bats use echolocation, and cats do, too.
3. What do most bats eat?
A. Blood meals B. Fruit and insects C. Leaves and trees D. Large animals
4. The word “enormous” in line 4 could best be replaced by ________.
A. very heavy B. very regular C. very large D. very necessary
5. Which of the following are NOT characteristics of most bats?
A. They pollinate plants. B. They have specialized roles in their colony.
C. They use echolocation. D. They eat blood.
6. How do bats help reforest the land?
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A. By eating pests. B. By hanging upside down in trees at night
C. By excreting seeds D. By taking evasive action
7. The word “emit” in line 6 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. send B. continue C. find D. stop
8. According to the passage, how do bats navigate?
A. By responding to the echoes of their signals bouncing off objects
B. By warning the colony of approaching danger with high squeaks
C. By beating their wings fifty times per minute
D. By using their sensitive ears to hear the noises in their environment
9. Where in the passage does the author refer to the visual range of bats?
A. Lines 4-5 B. Lines 6-7 C. Lines 7-9 D. Lines 10-11
10. The word “Some” in line 13 refers to ________.
A. social systems B. specialized roles C. bats D. colonies
VII. Fill each blank in the following passage with ONE suitable word.
Albert Einstein
Best known (1) _________ his Theory of Relativity, Albert Einstein has been
acknowledged (2) _________ one of the greatest scientists in human society. Born in Germany in
1879, Einstein did (3) _________ in all his school subjects, with the (4) _________of
mathematics, which was his (5) _________ subject.
While (6) _________as a clerk in Switzerland, Einstein produced the Special Theory of
Relativity. This theory states that mass, length and time change depending on (7) _________ a
person looks at them. In 1915, Einstein published his General Theory of Relativity. This new
theory created a controversy (8) _________ many scientists did not agree with him. In the end,
simple experiments (9) _________ Einstein to be correct. Einstein was (10) _________the Nobel
Prize for his work in physics.
VIII. Read the passage and choose the best option for each space.
The last two decades have seen enormous changes in the way people’s (1) _________ are
affected by IT. Twenty years ago, few people had access to a computer whilst today (2) _________
people use them at work, home or school and use of e-mail and the Internet is an everyday event.
These developments have brought many (3) _________ to our lives. E-mail makes
communication much easier and more immediate. This has numerous benefits for business,
commerce, and education. The World Wide Web means that information on every conceivable
subject is now (4) _________ to us. Clearly, for many people this has made life much easier and
more convenient.
However, not all the effects of the new technology have been beneficial. Many people feel
that the (5) _________ use of e-mail is destroying traditional forms of communication such
as letter writing, telephone and face -to –face conversation. With ever increasing use of information
technology these (6) _________ elements are likely to increase in the future.
In addition, the huge size of the Web means it is almost (7) _________ to control and
regulate. This has led to many concerns regarding children (8) _________ unsuitable websites. Yet
perhaps the biggest threat to IT in years to come will be the computer (9) _________ more
sophisticated or more destructive strains are almost inevitable.
In conclusion, developments in IT have brought many benefits, (10) _________ I believe
developments relating to new technology in the future are likely to produce many negative effects
that will need to be addressed very carefully.
1. A. live B. lives C. living D. life
2. A. most B. most of C. most of the D. almost
3. A. services B. uses C. benefits D. effects
4. A. free B. convenient C. unused D. available
5. A. widespread B. immediate C. particular D. continued
6. A. positive B. negative C. careless D. trivial
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7. A. possible B. impractical C. likely D. impossible
8. A. accessing B. approaching C. entering D. getting
9. A. disease B. program C. virus D. software
10. A. so B. moreover C. therefore D. yet
IX. Arrange these sentences to make a complete passage (10 points).
a. As they built bigger and bigger ships, they were able to sail further and further away.
b. They don’t really mean that the world is getting smaller, of course.
c. They found that as they sailed further away from their home countries, the world became bigger.
d. Then men began to use ships to explore the world.
e. Today there are no undiscovered countries left to put on the map, but there are many new
worlds to discover out in space.
f. But 2,300 years ago the Egyptians and the Greek thought that the world was very small and flat
that around it was the ocean.
g. We often hear people saying that the world is getting smaller.
h. So they had to make new maps to show the countries that they found.
i. And they discovered new countries that they didn’t know about.
j. What they mean is that with modern means of transport, we can now reach every part of the
world very quickly.
PART 4. WRITING
X. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using
the word given. Do not change the word given. You must use between two and five words,
including the word given.
1. I would love to learn different languages. keen
I ________________________________________ different languages.
2. I'm sorry I was late for the meeting. apology
Please ________________________________________ late for the meeting.
3. “You borrowed my watch, didn't you?” Tom's sister said. accused
Tom's sister ________________________________________ her watch.
4. Most people hope they will have enough money to buy a house or a flat. afford
Most people hope they _______________________________________ to buy a house or a flat.
5. I wish I had not lied to my parents. truth
If only ________________________________________ to my parents.
Question I: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the
rest in the same line. (3 pts)
1. A. please B. measure C. rise D. pause
2. A. model B. hobby C. solid D. solar
3. A. puppy B. ready C. occupy D. study
Question II: Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three
words in each question. (2 pts)
4. A. linguistics B. experience C. dormitory D. community
5. A. institute B. festival C. deposit D. resident
PART B: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (30 pts)
Question I: Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. (10 pts)
6. She tries to set ________ an hour a week for practice.
A. about B. down C. aside D. in
7. Jane said she ________18 years old the next week.
A. was B. is C. will be D. would be
8. If I _________ you, I’d take some rest before the game tomorrow.
A. am B. could be C. were D. would be
9. - “Do you think the book is expensive? - “Yes, it’s not _________ what we paid for it.”
A. worthy B. worth of C. worth D. valuable
10. Stop that nonsense, _________?
A. don’t you B. do you C. will you D. aren’t you
11. If you don’t want this pen, take _________. There are some left in the box.
A. the other B. others C. one other D. another
12. Will you empty the basket for me, please?
A. Yes, certainly B. Yes, pleaseC. No, thanks D. No, I don’t
13. Several important methods were_______for preserving food in the nineteenth century.
A. seen B. covered C. prepared D. invented
14. The smaller the room is, the _________ furniture it needs.
A. fewer B. small C. more D. less
15. You will have to _________ your holiday if you feel too tired.
A. put down B. put out C. put off D. put up
Question II: Put each verb in brackets into an appropriate form. (10 pts)
16. You’d better have that rubbish ( take) _________ away.
17-18. He resented (ask) ___(wait) _______. He had expected the minister to see him at once.
19. Present day problems demand that we (be) _________ready for any emergency.
20.21. Suppose everyword of this (be)___ true , what action the committee (wish)_____ to take ?
22. He (not go) _________ there because they did not expect him.
23. You always (complain) _________ about my cooking.
24-25. Tom: “It is time we (do) _________something to protect our environment.”
David: “Yes, Ok. I think it (destroy) _________seriously in the last ten years.”
Question III: Supply the correct form of the word in capital letters. (10 pts)
26. She studied ________ at university. ECONOMY
27. In particular, parents are afraid of changes in their children’s _______ PERSON
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28. These clothes are attractive but entirely ________ . PRACTICE
29. I couldn’t help it. The accident was ________ . AVOID
30.Because they are ________ durable and portable, books have
long been used to preserve and ditribute information. RELATE
31. The boy was very violent and his parents found him ________ . MANAGE
32. Jim is one of the most ________ members of the committee. SPEAK
33.We are interested in the _________ of rainforests. PRESERVE
34. Some designers have ____the Ao dai by printing lines of poetry on it. MODERN
35. ________ fruit juice contains no extra sugar. SWEET
PART C: READING COMPREHENSION (25 pts)
Question I: Fill in each of the blanks with one suitable word. (10 pts)
DEALING WITH WAST PLASTIC
Every year people throw away miliions of tonnes of plastic bottles, boxes and wrapping. These
create huge mountains of waste that are extremely hard to get (36) _______ of. Now a new
recycling process promises to reduce this problem by turning old plastic into (37) _____.
Scientists have (38) ______ a long time to develop their ideas because waste plastic has always
been a bigger problem than (39) ______ like waste paper. You can bury plastic but it takes many
years to break down. If you (40) ______ it, it just becomes another form of pollution. A few
products, for example bottles, can be reused, but it is (41) _____ or difficult to do this with a lot of
plastic products.
Now a group of companies has developed a new method of (42) _____ that could save almost any
plastic (43) __________. Nearly every type of waste plastic can be used: it does
(44) ______ have to be sorted. In addition, labels and ink may be left on the products. (45)
______ is simply mixed together and heated to more than 400 degrees centigrades so that it melts.
It is then cooled, producing a waxy substance that can be used to make new plastic products.
Question II: Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D to fill in the gaps in the following
passage.(10 pts)
In the age (46) ______ highly-developed telephoned networks and electronic mail, it seems that
fewer and fewer people are (47) _____time to sit down and write letters to friends and relatives.
For hundreds of years, letters were the only way to (48) _____ in contact with people who were
any distance away and letter- writing was (49)______as an important skill for all learned people
to master.
Gradually, (50)______, the importance of witing letters is descreasing to a point that the majority
of us (51)______make a special effort to turn out something worthwhile when we are apply for a
job or make a complaint. In business circles the (52)____is for routine communications to become
shorter. Even though clients may appriciate a detailed letter, an employee who sends out long
letter is often regarded as (53)_____.Many people prefer the telephone in all circumstances and its
(54)_____is essential in many situations but how often have you put the telephone down,
(55)_____with what you have managed to say? I don’t think. I’ll throw my pen away yet.
46. A. in B. at C. of D. on
47. A. using B. spending C. putting D. taking
48. A. keep B. connect C. maintain D. hold
49. A. noticed B. considered C. heard D. seen
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50. A. therefore B. however C. furthermore D. thus
51. A. may B. would C. have to D. dare to
52. A. tendency B. intention C. fashion D. inclination
53. A. unusual B. inefficient C. unimportant D. impossible
54. A. rate B. pace C. tempo D. speed
55. A. dissatisfied B. pleased C. disturbed D. contented
Question III: Read the passage and choose the best answers to questions below.(10 pts)
MICKEY MANTLE
Mickey Mantle was one of the greatest baseball players of all time. He played for
the New York Yankees in their years of glory. From the time Mantle began to play
professionally in 1951 to his last year in 1968, baseball was the most popular game
in the United States. For many people, Mantle symbolized the hope, prosperity, and
Line 5 confidence of America at that time.
Mantle was a fast and powerful player, a “switch-hitter” who could bat both right-
handed and left-handed. He won game after game, one Would Series championship
after another, for his team. He was a wonderful athlete, but this alone cannot explain
America’s fascination with him.
Line 10 Perhaps it was because he was a handsome, red-haired country boy, the son of a
poor miner from Oklahoma. His career, from the lead mines of the West to the
heights of success and fame, was a fairy-tale version of the American dream. Or
perhaps it was because America always loves a “natural”, a person who wins
without seeming to try, whose talent appears to come from an inner grace. That was
Line 15 Mickey Mantle.
But like many celebrities, Mickey Mantle had a private life that was full of
problems. He played without complaint despite constant pain from injuries. He
lived to fulfill his father’s dreams and drank to forget his father’s early death.
It was a terrible addiction that finally destroyed his body. It gave him cirrhosis of
Line 20 the liver and accelerated the advance of liver cancer. Even when Mickey Mantle
had turned away from his old life and warned young people not to follow his
example, the destructive process could not be stopped recovery, Mickey Mantle
died of cancer at the age of 63.
56. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Mickey Mantle as the greatest baseball player of all time
B. Mickey Mantle’s success and private life full of problems
C. Mickey Mantle and his career as a baseball player
D. Mickey Mantle and the history of baseball
57. It can be inferred from the passage that for most Americans ______________ .
A. success in Mantle’s career was unnatural
B. success in Mantle’s career was difficult to believe
C. Mantle had to be trained hard to become a good player
D. Mantle had a lot of difficulty achieving fame and success
58. The word “fulfill” in paragraph 4 mostly means ______________.
A. do something in the way that you have been told
B. do what you have promised or agreed to do
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C. achieve what is hoped for, wished for, or expected
D. get closer to something that you are chasing
59. The word “accelerated” in paragraph 5 is closet in meaning to ______________.
A. quickened B. bettered C. delayed D. worsen
60. Which of the following is mentioned as the main cause of the destruction of Mantle’s body?
A. His loneliness B. His way of life
C. His liver transplant operation D. His own dream
Question III: Write a paragraph (120 – 150 words) about the advantages and disadvantages of
using facebook. (10 pts)
d. Put the verbs given in the brackets into their appropriate tenses or forms. (10 pts)
1. Peter did not get used to (get) ........................ up early when he first came to Vietnam.
2. By the time your brother (return) ........................ here next year, the city will have changed a lot.
3. What tune (play) ........................ when we came in?
4. I wish I (know) ........................ her address now.
5. They (learn) ........................ English from nine to ten in this room. Don’t let anyone disturb
them then.
6. The prisoner is thought (escape) ........................ by climbing over the wall yesterday.
7. Five kilometres (be) ........................ a long way for a little boy to walk.
8. He stepped down from the bench on which he (stand) ................... and walked out of the room.
9. He (serve) ........................ in the army in the last war.
10. She regrets (not/ buy) ........................ that house. It is much more expensive now.
e. In each of the following sentences, the 4 words or phrases are marked A, B, C or D.
Identify the one underlined expression that is not correct and correct it. (5 pt)
1. The police has not decided whether or not to charge the four young men.
A B C D
2. Without transportation, our modern society could not be existed.
A B C D
3. She left the room with not saying a word.
A B C D
4. The more careful you drive, the fewer accidents you will have .
A B C D
5. The price of crude oil used to be a great deal lower than now, wasn’t it?
A B C D
III. READING:
a.Read the passage and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) which best fits each space. (10
pts)
Asia is the biggest (1)…………in the world. From east to west, it (2)…………almost half way
around the globe, from north to south it spreads from the frozen Arcticto the sweltering, tropical
heat of Southeast Asia. All 17 of the world’s mountains over 8,000 m (26,246 ft) can (3)……in
Asia, as well as the largest and (4)………lakes-the Caspian Sea and the Lake Baikal.The world’s
first civilizations (5)………here, many of the most important inventions were made here, and all the
world’s major religions began here. Much of Asian (6)……….uninhabited, yet its 48 countries are
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(7)…………to 3,672,342,000 people- more than half the world’s population. The (8)………of oil
in countries such as Saudi Arabia has made some people very rich, while many of those (9)……live
on the Indian subcontinent live in rural areas and are (10)……poor.
1. A. place B. country C. continent D. area
2. A. widens B. stretches C. lengthens D. reaches
3. A. be examined B. be found C. be seen D. be watched
4. A. the shortest B. the deepest C. the hugest D. the vastest
5. A. started B. was started C. start D. starting
6. A. is B. are C. were D. have been
7. A. land B. house C. countryside D. home
8. A. discovery B. invention C. development D. search
9. A. which B. people C. who D. whom
10. A. extremely B. greatly C. quietly D. deeply
b. Read the passage and choose the best answers to the questions that follow (5pts).
Earth Day
We celebrated Earth Day in my city last week. The idea of this special day began in the
1960s when life was very different. Few people talked, or even thought, about the environment.
Most people had no idea how dirty our air and water were. This attitude bothered Gaylord Nelson,
who was a senator in the US government, and he had an idea. If people around the world knew the
planet was in danger, they might work harder to save it, so he just needed to get their attention. The
first Earth Day was just in the United States but it led to events every year all around the world on
April 22 or the nearest weekend, depending on where you are.
In my town, last Saturday afternoon lots of people rode their bikes from the park, around the
town together and back to the park, taking as much time as they possibly could, so that the cars had
to wait. Then we talked to all the drivers in cars which just had one person in them, to explain how
wasteful that is and how much pollution it causes. The idea was to make people think about how
much they use their cars. In other places, people collected plastic bags for a week and then made a
pile of them in the town square. You can do anything as long as it makes people of all ages come
together for a few hours and talk about the environment. Last year we had a big music event for
young people. Some people said it was a waste of time, but there was information for people to read
and announcements between the bands about how to help protect the environment.
1. What is the writer trying to do in this text?
A. compare the success of different events on Earth Day.
B. encourage people to take part in this year’s Earth Day.
C. offer advice to people arranging an Earth Day event.
D. explain why Earth Day happens every year.
2. Earth Day began because _____________.
A. one man wanted people to know about the planet’s problem.
B. all people had started to worry about damage to the environment.
C. people were looking hard to make the air and water cleaner.
D. different governments decided it was a good idea.
3. What happened on Earth Day this year in the writer’s city?
A. People cycled slowly through the streets.
B. Cars were not allowed in the city centre.
C. Cars had to have more than one person in them.
D. There was a talk about the pollution made by cars.
4. What does the writer think is the most important thing about Earth Day events?
A. That they should attract young people B. That people should become involved in them
C. That they should be some music D. That they should last all day.
5. Which of the following sentences appeared in a newspaper article about Earth Day?
A. Many more countries take part in Earth Day now than when it first began.
B. Gaylord Nelson travelled around the world to persuade people to arrange events on the
first Earth Day.
C. The first Earth Day was a disappointment to the organizers.
D. Earth Day events are on the same day in countries around the world.
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c. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word
in each space. (10 pts)
People have always dreamed of living forever, and although we all know this will (1)
........................ happen, we still want to live as long as possible. Naturally, there are advantages and
disadvantages to a long (2) ........................
In the first place, people (3) ........................ live longer can spend more time with their
family and friends. Secondly, people who have busy working lives look forward to a long, relaxing
time when they can do the things they have never had time for.
(4) ........................ the other hand, there are some serious disadvantages. Firstly, many
people become ill and consequently have to (5) ........................ time in hospital or become (6)
........................ on their children and friends. Many of them (7) ........................ this dependence
annoying or embarrassing. In addition to this, the (8) ........................ people get, the fewer friends
they seem to have because old friends die or become ill and it's often (9) ........................ to make
new friends.
To sum up, it seems that living to a very old age is worthwhile for people who stay healthy
(10) ........................ to remain independent and enjoy life.
IV. WRITING:
a. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in
meaning to the sentence printed before it. (5 pts)
1. I haven't seen this film before.
→ This is…..……………………………………………………
2. “I was not there at the time,” he said.
→ He denied……………………………………………………
3. The bus takes longer than the train.
→ The train does……………….……………………………
4. I have never seen such a mess in my life!
→ Never in … ………………………………………………
5. It was wrong of you to allow a 4-year-old child to walk home alone.
→You should ........................................................................................
b. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using
the word given. Do not change the word given. You must use between two and five words,
including the word given. (5 pts)
1. Susan regrets not going to the airport to say goodbye to her friend. (WISHES)
→ Susan ................................. the airport to say goodbye to her friend.
2. Despite his age, he’s still working. (RETIRED)
→ He still ………………………….…… despite his age.
3. Despite knowing the area well, I got lost. (EVEN)
→ I got lost ………………………………..the area well.
4. I do not intend to tell you my plans. (OF)
→ I have.................................................... you my plans.
5. Graham spends all his time doing research. (DEVOTED)
→ Graham has …………………………… doing research.
c. Composition (10 pts)
Write an essay at least 150 words about “Life skill is very important and useful for
students nowadays ”
TEST 4
PART 1: PHONETICS
I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.
1. A. parachute B. mechanic C. Christmas D. scheme
2. A. southern B. northern C. mouths D. months
3. A. shadow B. vanish C. Danish D. Spanish
4. A. have B. many C. shadow D. thank
5. A. exhibition B. exhaust C. exhibit D. exist
II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the other words in each
group.
1. A. advertise B. advertisement C. teenager D. surrounding
2. A. economic B. introduce C. religion D. souvenir
3. A. earthquake B. literature C. disappear D. generous
PART 2: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY
III. Choose the word or phrase that best fits the space in each sentence.
1. I can't make ________ what is happening.
A. away B. over C. out D. on
2. A ________ is being offered for information leading to the arrest of the bank robber.
A. prize B. reward C. notice D. repayment
3. This dish ________. Is it spicy?
A. smells well B. is smelling good C. is smelled well D. smells good
4. Who was the first American person ________ on the moon?
A. walking B. who walked C. walked D. to
walk
5. She is one of the few people ________.
A. to whom I look up B. I look up
C. who look up to D. to who I look up
6. I live in Dalat, ________ is one of the most beautiful cities of Vietnam.
A. in which B. that C. which D. where
7. Neither the students nor the teacher ________ come.
A. has B have C. is D. are
8. On the way to the town, they stop ________a rest.
A. taking B. to take C. to have D. having
9. It costs about fifty dollars to have a tooth ________.
A. filling B. to fill C. filled D. being filled
10. The roof was damaged and water ________ from the ceiling in wet weather.
A. spilled B. dripped C. drained D. dropped
11. ________little we may like it, old age comes to most of us.
A. In spite of B. So C. As D. However
12. The newspaper did not mention the ________ of the damage caused by the fire.
A. range B. amount C quantity D. extent
13. The judge ________ him fifty dollars for parking his car illegally.
A. charged B. fined C. punished D. prohibited
14. You can take a taxi ________ you don't mind waiting.
A. except B. unless C. provided D. apart
15. They live in a large ________ house on the edge of London.
A. detached B. single C. separated D. divided
IV.Complete the following sentences with the correct form of the phrasal verbs given in the
box. (10 pts)
go off(1) go off(2) turn off turn on set off
cut off come off get off see off take off
1. You can………………………..your jacket if you like.
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2. We forgot to pay the bill and our electricity was……………………
3. Monica didn’t want to………………………..the bus because it was raining.
4.…………………………….the machine and give it time to heat up.
5. You don’t need to come to the station to ……………….me ………….. I’ll be fine on my own
6. You must drink it up within two weeks or it will……………………….
7. Oh brother! One of my buttons has……………………….
8. I set the alarm for 7a.m before going to bed last night, but this morning it didn’t…………….
9. Remember to…………………..the lights before leaving for work.
10. We decided to…………………..early the next day to avoid the rush hour traffic.
V. Fill in the blank with the correct form of the words given in parentheses.
1. This form must have the ……………… of the writer. (sign)
2. You should write a letter of …………… to that institute. (inquire)
3. When I first came here I was really impressed by the ................of the local residents. ( friend )
4. Jeans made in China are sometimes ................ cheap. (surprise)
5. The cross …… …... Christianity. ( symbol )
6. Being caught in the act, the thief had no ……………. but to admit stealing the money. (alter )
7. He didn’t appear to like to see us. He greeted us with a …………… smile. ( constrain )
8. This is an informal meeting, therefore, everyone is ………… …dressed. ( casual )
9. He used all his ………….. to force the door open. ( strong )
10. The wind moved …………….. through the trees all the night. ( rest )
VI.
a.There is a mistake in the underlined parts of each sentence. Find the mistake and write your
correction in the space provided below: (5 points)
1. So far Linda has been writing 5 novels on the problems teenagers have to cope with in the new
world.
A B C D
2. Pele, from Brazil, is considered one of the greatest football player of all time.
A B C D
3. Is it important that the secretary finishes the typing today?
A B C D
4. Preserving natural resources means reserved them for our future.
A B C D
5. There has been quite a few objections to the new policy.
A B C D
PART 3. READING
VII. Read the text and choose the best answer.
Man discovered fire many thousands years ago. The first time he saw fire was probably when
a tree was struck by lightning. He soon learned how to make fire for himself. However, man
probably made his fire by rubbing two sticks together.
Fire was very important to man. He needed fire to keep himself warm at night. He used fire to
cook his food. He used fire to frighten away enemies and wild animals. In some parts of the world
he used fire to signal messages. Red Indians, for example, used fire to make smoke signals. In some
other countries people lit fires to warn their friends of danger.
Fire was very also used to give light. Before the invention of oil lamp, men used burning sticks
as torches. And before man discovered gas and electricity, he hung small fires in wire baskets from
posts to light the streets.
One man even used fire to tell the time. He invented a candle clock. He made a candle that took
exactly twelve hours to burn. Then he marked this candle in twelve equal parts. He lit the candle
and could tell the time by counting the number of parts left of the burning candle. But the candle
clock did not always work well. If there was a wind blowing on the candle, the flame burned too
quickly.
VIII. Fill each blank in the following passage with ONE suitable word.
Most students, in their own countries have had little opportunity to practise using English.
When foreign learners first have the ( 1 ) ………. to speak to an English-speaking person they may
have a shock: they often ( 2 ) ………… great difficulty in understanding. I’ll just mention three of
the possible reasons for this.
First, it seems to students that English people speak very quickly. ( 3 ) ………, they speak
with a variety of accents. Third, different styles of speech are used. For all of these reasons ( 4 )
……….. will have difficulty, mainly because they lack everyday practice in listening to English
people speaking English.
( 5 ) ………….. can a student do then to overcome these difficulties? Obviously, attend
English classes and if a language laboratory is available, use it as ( 6 ) ………… as possible. He
should listen to programs in English on the radio and TV. Perhaps, most important of ( 7 )
……………… , he should take every opportunity to meet and speak with native English-speaking
people.
In addition, the student probably has difficulty in speaking English fluently. The advice here
will seem ( 8 ) ………. to follow but it’s necessary. Firstly, he must simplify what he wants to say
so that he can express himself reasonably and clearly. Secondly, he must try to think in English,
( 9 ) ………… translate from his mother tongue. This will only begin to take place when his use of
English become automatic; using a language laboratory
( 10 ) ………. listening to as much English as possible will help.
IX. Read the passage and choose the best option for each space.
THE FIRST WOMAN SCIENTIST
Hypatia was born in Alexandria, in Egypt, in 370 A.D. For many centuries she was(1)……………
only woman scientist to have a place in the history books.
Hypatia’s father was a director of Alexandria university, and he(2)…………….. sure his daughter
had the best education available. This was unusual, as the most woman then had few(3)
……………..to study.
After studying in Athens and Rome, Hypatia returned to Alexandria(4)………………she began
teaching mathematics. She soon became famous(5)……………..her knowledge of new ideas.
We have no copies of her books,(6)…………….we know that she wrote several important
mathematical works. Hypatia was also interested in technology and (7)……………..several
scientific tools to help with her work.
At the(8)…………….many rulers were afraid of science, and(9)……………connected with it was
in danger. One day in March, 415, Hypatia(10)………………attacked in the street and killed.
1. A. one B. the C. a D. an
2. A. could B. made C. said D. put
3. A. classes B. customs C. opportunities D. teachers
4. A. where B. how C. there D. which
5. A. from B. by C. for D. in
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6. A. because B. but C. or D. as
7. A. did B. experimented C. invented D. learnt
8. A. day B. period C. year D. time
9. A. anyone B. nobody C. all D. something
10. A. was B. had C. has D. is
PART 4. WRITING
X. Rewrite each sentence so that it contains the word in capital and so that the meaning stays
the same: ( 5pt).
1. Nobody expected her to lose, but she did. (against)
...............................................................................................................
2. You must concentrate on your work more. (apply)
...............................................................................................................
3. She will probably be elected. (stands)
...............................................................................................................
4. The boss was annoyed because his secretary came to work late. (objected)
...............................................................................................................
5. The demand for tickets was so great that people queued day and night. (such)
...............................................................................................................
XI. Rewrite the sentences so that it means the same as the first one, beginning with the given words
1. She went out, but she didn’t say a word.
=> She went out without ………………………………………………………………
2. It’s such a difficult question that I can’t find the answer.
=> The question is so …………………………………………………………………
3. People say that these cattles were built in the 19th century.
=> These cattles ………………………………………………………………………
4. Under no circumstances should you phone the police.
=> The last thing..……………………………………………………………………
5. In spite of not speaking Vietnamese, Mr. Anderson decided to settle in Ha Noi.
=> Although ………………………………………………………………………….
XII. Paragraph writing: Write a composition (120 – 150 words) about the best ways to protect
the environment (10 pts)
TEST 5
PART 1: PHONETICS
I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the
others.
1. A. nets B. kicks C. coughs D. scissors
2. A. king B. know C. knock D. kneel
3. A. honour B.house C. hand D. hat
4. A. pulish B.surf C. plumber D. summer
5. A. garbage B. age C. damage D. advantage
II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the other words in each group.
1. A. cinema B. celebrate C. generous D. discover
2. A. endanger B. natural C. habitat D. industry
3. A. compose B. return C. forget D. forecast
PART 2: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY
III. Choose the word or phrase that best fits the space in each sentence.
1. She ____________ him of lying to her.
A. accused B. blamed C. threatened D. criticized
2. Losing my job was a great shock, but I think I’m ______________it.
A. seeing to B. putting up with C. getting over D. standing for
3. No one has to stay late this evening, ______________?
A. haven’t they B. do they C. have they D. don’t they
4. My hands were so cold that I couldn’t______________ my coat buttons.
A. open B. remove C. put out D. undo
5. Judo was __________developed in Japan in the late 19 century.
th
2. Pele, from Brazil, is considered one of the greatest football player of all time.
A B C D
3. Is it important that the secretary finishes the typing today?
A B C D
4. Preserving natural resources means reserved them for our future.
A B C D
5. There has been quite a few objections to the new policy.
A B C D
PART 3. READING
VII. Read the text and choose the best answer.
Reading to oneself is a modern activity which was almost unknown to the scholars of the
classical and medieval worlds, while during the fifteenth century the term “reading” undoubtedly meant
reading aloud. Only during the nineteenth century did silent reading become commonplace.
One should be wary, however, of assuming that silent reading came about simply because reading aloud
is a distraction to others. Examination of factors related to the historical development of silent reading
reveals that it became the usual mode of reading for most adult reading tasks mainly because the tasks
themselves changed in character.
The last century saw a steady gradual increase in literacy, and thus in the number of readers. As readers
increased, so the number of potential listeners declined, and thus there was some reduction in the need
to read aloud. As reading for the benefit of listeners grew less common, so came the flourishing of
reading as a private activity in such public places as libraries, railway carriages and offices, where
reading aloud would cause distraction to other readers.
Towards the end of the century there was still considerable argument over whether books should be
used for information or treated respectfully, and over whether the reading of material such as
newspapers was in some way mentally weakening. Indeed this argument remains with us still in
education. However, whatever its virtues, the old shared literacy culture had gone and was replaced by
the printed mass media on the one hand and by books and periodicals for a specialized readership on the
other.
By the end of the century students were being recommended to adopt attitudes to books and to use skills
in reading them which were inappropriate, if not impossible, for the oral reader. The social, cultural, and
technological changes in the century had greatly altered what the term “reading” implied.
1. Why was reading aloud common before the nineteenth century?
A. Silent reading had not been discovered.
B. There was few places available for private reading.
C. Few people could read for themselves.
D. People relied on reading for entertainment.
2. The development of silent reading during the nineteenth century indicated
A. a change in the status of literate people. B. a change in the nature of reading.
C. an increase in the number of books. D. an increase in the average age of readers.
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3. Educationalists are still arguing about.
A. the importance of silent reading.
B. the amount of information yielded by books and newspapers.
C. the effects of reading on health.
D. the value of different types of reading material.
4. The emergence of the mass media and of specialized periodical showed that
A. standards of literacy had declined. B. readers’ interests had diversified.
C. printing techniques had improved. D. educationalists’ attitudes had changed.
5. What is the writer of this passage attempting to do?
A. explain how present- day reading habits developed B. change people’s attitudes to reading
C. show how reading methods have improved D. encourage the growth of reading
VIII. Fill each blank in the following passage with ONE suitable word.
Children are (1) _______ up with love and (2) ______ in the Socialist Republic of Vietnam.
They enjoy every (3) ______ to get a good education and to acquire a useful trade. Our country is now
(4) ______ its way to Socialist construction. We need people with fully-developed (5) ______ and
mental abilities. It is for this reason (6) ______ labour training is introduced in all Vietnamese schools.
The development of good working habits (7) ______ our children will undoubtedly help them (8)
______ life as useful members of a socialist society. (9) ______, while still at school, they learn a useful
trade and upon graduation they may effectively work in (10) ______ and agriculture.
IX. Read the passage and choose the best option for each space.
WHALING
Rock carving suggest that Stone Age people were hunting whales for food as early as 2200 B.C.
Such (1) ________ hunting is still practiced today in a number of (2) ________ including the Inuit
people of Greenland and North America. Whaling became big business from the seventh century as the
(3) ________ for whalebone and whale oil rose, and humpback and sperm whales were hunted in (4)
________ large numbers. But just as stocks of these species began to fall, the explosive harpoon-gun
was (5) ________. This weapon, together with the development of steam-power ships, (6) ________ the
whalers to hunt the fast-moving fin and blue whales.
In 1905 the whaling (7) ________ moved to the waters of Antarctica. The introduction of massive
factory ships enabled the whales to be processed at sea. As a result, the blue whale had (8) ________
disappeared by the 1950s. In 1946 the International Whaling Commission was established to maintain
the declining whale populations. Quotas were (9) ________ but these were often (10)________ and
numbers continued to fall. Hunting of many species continued until 1986 when the IWC finally
responded to international pressure and a ban on commercial whaling was introduced.
1. A. survival B. essential C. basic D. subsistence
2. A. groups B. societies C. races D. nationalities
3. A. demand B. desire C. request D. reliance
4. A. repeatedly B. frequently C. continually D. increasingly
5. A. invented B. discovered C. assembled D. applied
6. A. managed B. employed C. enabled D. empowered
7. A. lines B. troops C. staff D. fleets
8. A. virtually B. possibly C. uniquely D. commonly
9. A. made B. set C. placed D. done
10. A. refused B. denied C. ignored D. exempted
X. Read the article about Freddy Adu. Choose the most suitable heading from the box (A-F) for each
part of the article (1-5). There is one extra heading which you do not need to use. Write your answers
in the numbered box. (5 points)
TEST 6
PART 1: PHONETICS (8 pts)
I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.
1.A. faced B. fixed C. wicked D. raised
2.A.enough B although C. cough D. rough
3.A. teenage B. manage C. damage D. luggage
4.A. watches B. oranges C. figures D. classes
5.A. plays B. stays C. says D. rays
II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the other words in each
group.
6. A. Saturday B. favorite C. interested D. eleven
7. A. good-looking B. afternoon C. engineer D. understand
8. A. develop B. cinema C. movement D. history
PART 2: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY
III. Choose the word or phrase that best fits the space in each sentence (10 pts)
1. We don’t think the white shirt ………..him.
A. matches B. suits C. agrees D. gets on
2. The dentist told him to open this mouth ……….
A. wide B. broad C. greatly D. large
3. Hardly ………the door when the telephone rang.
A. he had opened B. did he open C. had he opened D. has he opened
4. I’m sorry. I have forgotten ………the letter for you.
A. to send B. sending C. having sent D. to be sent
5. She prefers ……..TV ……..to music.
A. to watch/ to listen B. watch/ listen
C. watching/ to listening D. watching/ to listen
6. Mai and Hung were ill, so ……went to school today.
A. neither them B. either one of them C. both of them D. neither of them
7. No longer ……….their housework as they used to.
A. the housewives do B. had the housewives do
C. do the housewives do D. have the housewives done
8. Fortunately I arrived ……….to save the boy.
A. on time B. in time C. by time D. before time
9. They don’t have their own houses. They are the ………
A. housekeepersB. housewives C. homeless D. conductors
10. My father ……….me to lock the door before going to bed.
A. remembered B. warned C. threatened D. reminded
IV. Give the correct form or tense of the verbs in brackets. (10 pts)
1. Whenever we met, Jack avoided (look).............at me.
2. By this time next year I (save)..............500 dollars.
3. The children were frightened because it (get) ......... dark.
4. It (rain) ............ very much in this part of the country every spring.
5. Had you asked me earlier, I (tell) ............. you the news.
6. Only yesterday I (realise) .......... what was going on.
7. We are going (have) ........... our house (repaint) .......... next month.
8. She looks as if he (be) .......... from another planet.
9. I remember (take) ............ to that park
V. Fill in the blank with the correct form of the words given in parentheses(10pts).
HOMEWORK
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School inspectors have found that, contrary to all (0)______ children EXPECT
don’t (1)______ homework at all. In fact, many do more than their LIKE
teachers suggest, either because of (2)_____ about their marks or ANXIOUS
simply for (3)______. The inspectors’ findings add to the evidence of ENJOY
the powerful (4)______ effects of homework on pupils’ achievement. BENEFIT
The inspectors also recommend the (5)______ of “homework charters”. INTRODUCE
These tell parents and children how much (6)______ work is expected ADD
and provide encouragement to schools to form links with parents who can
check that tasks are (7)______ completed. PROPER
International (8)______ suggest that a typical 14-year-old does six hours COMPARE
homework in Britain, eight hours in Italy, and almost nine hours in Hungary,
Japan and Poland.
VI. Supply each space with a suitable preposition to complete sentences. (5pt)
1. He sent a copy of his will to his bank _______ safe keeping.
2. Although I practise quite a lot, I never seem to win very often _______ tennis.
3. Nam's brothers are very fond _______ team sports.
4. Most people think the government is to blame _______ rising unemployment.
5. There has been a sharp increase _______ house prices in recent months.
PART 3. READING
VII. Read the text and choose the best answer.
When I injured my back I had to take a break from my running career. I decided to
introduce more women to the sport, to show them how much fun it can be and to give them the
confidence to get out and run. I decided to start a running club for women in my area because I was
annoyed by the attitude of many race organizers. They complain about the lack of women in the
sport but also use this as an excuse for not providing separate changing facilities.
I put up posters and 40 women, young and old, fit and unfit, joined. All of them were
attracted by the idea of losing weight but I don’t think they had really thought about running before.
When or if they did, they had a picture of painful training. They didn’t think of chatting and smiling
while running in beautiful places, like by a river.
At first they ran for only a minute - now they can run for thirty minutes. They’ve also
learned from other runners about diet and keeping fit in general. I want to do something for
women’s running and I have had so much pleasure watching their progress – almost as much as
they’ve had themselves.
1 What is the writer’s main aim in writing the text?
A. to describe her own running career B. to complain about race organizers
C. to talk about women runners D. to describe good running method
2 What would a reader find out from the text?
A. the best kind of places for running
B. how runners can avoid injuring themselves
C. the teaching skills of the writer
D. the progress made by the women in the club
3 What is the writer’s opinion of the runners she trained?
A. They were too serious B. They needed encouraging
C. They couldn’t develop their skills D. They were difficult to train
4 Why did the women join the running club?
A. to have a good time B. to meet other people
C. to help them lose weight D. to become top runners
5 Which of the following would be the best title for the club poster?
A. Discover the Pleasures of Running B. Riverside Running Club for Women
C. Athletics Competition: How to Win D. Keep Fit by Training Hard
VIII. Fill each blank in the following passage with ONE suitable word.
(1) ………………. I have a car, I prefer to travel by train, especially if I have to make a long
(2) ………………… As the train travels at speed (3) ………………….the countryside, I can (4)
…………………….., drink a cup of coffee, read a book or just gaze out (5) ……………………the
window. Sometimes, the movement of the train makes me fall (6) …………………, something you
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couldn’t do (7) ……………………..driving a car.The(8) …………………….is that I hate waiting
on cold (9) ……………………….and I get angry when I have to waste time (10)
…………………..for a taxi or a bus at the beginning or end of my journey.
IX. Read the passage and choose the best option for each space.
HOW WE READ
Why did you decide to read this, and will you keep reading to the end? Do you expect to
understand every (0)_____ part of it and will you remember anything about it in a fortnight’s
(1)_____? Common sense suggests that the answers to these questions depend on “readability” -
whether the (2)_____ matter is interesting, the argument clear and the (3)_____ attractive. But
psychologists are discovering that to (4)_____ why people read - and often don’t read - technical
information, they have to examine not so much the writing as the reader.
Even the most technically confident people often (5)_____ instructions for the video or
home computer in favor of hands-on experience. And people frequently (6)_____ little notice of
consumer information, whether on nutritional labels or in the small print of contracts.
Psychologists researching reading tend to assume that both beginners and (7)_____ readers
read everything put in front of them from start to finish. There are (8)_____ among them about the
role of eyes, memory and brain during the process. Some believe that fluent readers take (9)_____
every letter or word they see; others (10)_____ that readers rely on memory or context to carry them
from one phrase to another. But they have always assumed that the reading process is the same:
reading starts, comprehension occurs, then reading stops.
0. A. simple B. single C. separated D. sole
1. A. term B. period C. time D. gap
2. A. subject B. topic C. content D. text
3. A. pattern B. formation C. layout D. assembly
4. A. ensure B. determine C. value D. rate
5. A. miss B. omit C. pass D. ignore
6. A. get B. pay C. take D. make
7. A. competent B. sufficient C. considerable D. valid
8. A. objections B. arguments C. contests D. separations
9. A. up B. over C. out D. in
10. A. insist B. direct C. urge D. press
X. Seven phrases/clauses have been removed from the following passage. Read the passage and
choose from the phrases/clauses A–H the one which fits each gap (1 – 6). There is one extra
phrase/clause which you do not need to use. Write your answer in the numbered boxes. There is
an example (0).
TEST 7
PART 1: PHONETICS (6pts)
I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.
1. A. rose B. disclose C. chosen D. whose
2. A. monkey B. donkey C. grey D. key
3. A. ocean B. decision C. cushion D. patient
II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the other words in each group.
1. A pattern B. conserve C. revise D. correct
2. A institute B. distinctive C. defensive D. division
3. A presidential B. foundation C. confidential D. recreation
PART 2: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY
III. Choose the word or phrase that best fits the space in each sentence. (16pts)
1. John gave you the book yesterday, ……………….?
A. did he B. didn’t he C. did John D. didn’t it
2. My brother has just bought a new …….............. near the shopping center.
A. accommodation B. housing C. flat D. rental
3. He said that he ....……….. badly sick since he returned from abroad.
A. had been B. has been C. was D. would be
4. We began early ............... to miss the worst of the traffic.
A. so that B. in so far C. in order D. as long as
5. That novel was written by a well-known writer. It is worth ............. .
A. to read B. reading C. read D. have read
6. The earth ............. on the sun for its heat and light.
A. depends B. depending C. has depend D. is depend
7. The accident ................. while he was driving on the highway.
A. was happening B. happened C. happening D. were happening
8. He has adopted three orphans ........ his own six children so that, all together, he has nine children to
provide for.
A. except B. beside C. besides D. in place of
9. You should take regular exercise ......... sitting in front of the television all day.
A. in spite of B. instead of C. without D. even
10. I don’t want to go out tonight .......... Anna phones.
A. so that B. even though C. when D. in case
11. I object to ....... like this.
A. be treating B. treating C. being treated D. have been treated
12. Since ........ to a warmer and less humid climate, I’ve had no trouble with my asthma.
A. I move B. I moving C. upon moving D. moving
13. Shy people often find it difficult to ....... group discussions.
A. take place in B. take part in C. get on with D. get in touch with
14. Our soccer team lost ........ three goals to nil.
A. with B. by C. to D. in
15. Don’t forget to ........ the alarm clock for six o’clock tomorrow morning.
A. set B. put C. ring D. wind
16. Which do you want, this pen or that one? – I want……..
A. both B. all C. them D. other
IV. Give the correct form or tense of the verbs in brackets. (10 pts)
1. The bell is ringing. I must stop (do) ..….......… my homework (answer) …..........…… the phone.
2. Don’t worry. We (finish) ....…….......… the report by 11 am.
TEST 9
PART ONE: PHONETICS: (6pts)
I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest in each group.
(3pts)
1. A. took B. school C. food D. choose
2. A. southern B. northern C. with D. breath
3. A. massage B. voyage C. marriage D. carriage
II. Choose the word that has the stress pattern different from that of the other words. (3pts )
1. A. children B. decorate C. fortunate D. technique
2. A. generally B. particularly C. readily D. lately
3. A. thunderstorm B. temperature C. consolidate D. spacecraft
PART TWO: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (34pts)
I. Choose the best answer to complete the following sentences. (10pts)
1.The children won’t go to sleep……………..we leave a light on outside their bedroom.
A. except B. otherwise C. unless D. but
2. I hope you don’t mind me………………so late at night.
A. telephoningB. to telephone C. telephone D. to have telephoned
3. The bus ………………from my house to school is 10,000 dong.
A. cost B. fare C. payment D. charge
4. Let’s go out now,……………….? The weather is so nice!
A. won’t you B. shan’t we C. will you D. shall we
5. I read an interesting…………………in the paper the other day.
A. article B. information C. news D. reporting
6. If I had more time, I would…………………….golf as a hobby.
A. take to B. take on C. take over D. take up
7.We must make……………our mind about where to go out for our picnic.
A. out B. up C. off D. on
8. A ________ is being offered for information leading to the arrest of the bank robber.
A. prize B. reward C. notice D. repayment
9. Who was the first American person ________ on the moon?
A. walking B. who walked C. walked D. to walk
10. Neither the students nor the teacher ________ come.
A. has B have C. is D. are
II. Give the correct forms of the words given in brackets. (10pts)
1. She has.....................................of her bad behaviour at the party. SHAME
2. ......................................makes you tired all day. SLEEP
3. Don't be..............for what you do. RESPONSIBILITY
4. She has a lot of........................................living in Hanoi Capital. RELATION
5. It was....................................of him to force her to type the letter. REASON
6. She bought me an ..................................dictionary last week. INFORM
7. I'm sure you will overcome your....................problems soon. FINANCE
8. The .........................could answer my question but I refused to accept her.INTERVIEW
9. The necklace is not valuable, in fact it is almost................................... WORTH
10. Thousands of................................have been homeless for five days. INHABIT
III. Give the correct forms of the verbs given in brackets. (10pt)
1. Quick! There(be) an accident. Phone the hospital. The accident (happen) when that red car
(shoot) out of the side street without warning.
2. I (do) everything you (ask). What should I do now?
3. We had to go on holiday because our house (decorate).
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4. They had a big party. They (sing) all night last night.
5. We (cook) all day for the party that evening and by 8 o'clock we still weren't ready.
6. If the train ( mountain) this speed, by this time tomorrow we (be) in Hue for two hours.
IV: Complete the sentences with the correct prepositions (4pts)
1. She was very conscious (1).................. her lack of experience on her first day at work.
2. He has a new solution (2).................. the problem.
3. Nobody helped him. He managed it (3).................. his own.
4. Her small garden looks very beautiful in spring because all the flowers are (4) .................... full
bloom.
PART THREE: READING: ( 35pts)
I.Read the text carefully and choose the correct answerA,B,C or D:(10 pts)
National Health Service (NHS) (1)____ ambulances are available and free for cases of
sudden (2)____ or collapse, for accidents and for doctors' urgent call. Special (3) ___ _ services,
such as free dental treatment and ( 4)____ and immunization of children against certain (5) ___
diseases, are provided under the NHS to safeguard the health of (6)___ women and young children.
Free family planning advice and (7) is available from general practices (GPs) and family planning
clinics .. Nation-wide screening rogrammes for breast canner and cervical cancer are available to
the most (8) age groups among women. Improvements in the provision and (9) ___ of cancer
services are a major priority. The blood (10) services collect over 2.5 million donations a year from
voluntary unpaid donors.
1. A. emergent B. emergency C. urgent D. urgency
2. A. illness B. disease C. pain D. sore
3. A. prevent B. preventing C. preventive D. prevention
4. A. vaccine B. vaccinate C. vaccinating D. vaccination
5. A. infect B. infecting C. infection D. infectious
6. A. pregnan B. pregnancy C. expecting D. expectant
7. A. treat B. treatment C. treating D. maltreatment
8. A. unsuspecting B. susceptible C. susceptibility D. susceptibly
9. A. avail B. available C. availability D. unavailable
10. A. transfuse B. transfused C. transfusing D. transfusion
II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word in
each space. (10pts)
John Lennon was born in Livepool in 1940. He was always (1)............. on music and played
in pop groups (2)...............school and Art College. John got married (3).................... Cynthia in
1962 and they had a son, (4).............name was Julian. At that (5)..........., John was member of a
group (6) .............."The Beatles". Many beautiful songs (7)........... written by John and wherever the
group went, crowds of fans gathered to see them. They (8) ................ scream and faint when "The
Beatles" played, and lot of people (9)...........their hair cut in a Beatles styles. Soon everyone had
heard of "The Beatles" and John was (10) ..............richer than he had ever been.
III.Read the following passage and choose the correct answer for each of the questions: (5 pts)
For most people, the distinction between vegetables and fruits is fairly clearly. Scientists,
however, have varied opinions in this regard. For example, horticulturists categorise a watermelon
as a vegetable despite its general acceptance as a fruit. Botanists identify a tomato as a fruit even
though it is commonly used as a vegetables.
These differences stem from the ways in which fruits and vegetables are classified. For a
botanist, a fruit is a seed – bearing portion of flowering plant or tree. According to this definition, a
tomato is a fruit. For a horticulturist, a vegetable is the edible portion of a plant that must be
replanted annually. According to this view, a tomato is a vegetable. A horticulturist sees a fruit as
coming from a plat or tree that lives at least two years. In the case of fruits and vegetables that meet
the criteria of both groupd of scientists, such as apples or potatoes, there is no conflict.
1. What does this passage mainly discuss?
a. The work of botanists and horicuturists.
b. Common types of fruits and vegetables
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c. Scientific differences between fruits and vegetables.
d. The seed – bearing nature of fruit.
2. According to the passage, the scientific classification of a watermelon by horicuturists.
a. Differs from its popular discription as a fruit.
b. remains a major area of disagreement between scientists.
c. places it within the categories of both fruit and vegetable.
d. is no longer open to debate among members of the scientific community.
3. The underlined pronoun it in the first paragraph refers to .
a. a fruit b. a vegetable
c. a watermelon d. a tomato
4. In the last line, the underlined word conflict could best replaced by
a. consenus b. disagreement
c. classification d. solution
5. Which of the following conclusions about fruits can be drawn from the passage?
a. Some fruits are not edible.
b. Fruits develop from the flowers of plants and trees
c. Some fruits do not develop seeds.
d. d. Botanists have studied fruits more carefully than horticulturists have.
IV . The following sentences belong to two passage but they are mixed up. The passage A is
about “ Mother’s day”. The pasaage B is about “ Compassion”. Sort the sentences out and put
them in the correct order of each paragraph. (10pts)
A. She looked up in his face and said with tears in her eyes : “Are you an angel?”
B. The man took her into the store . He bought her some socks and a pair of shoes.
C. At the flower shop, he saw a girl who was crying as she did not have enough money for a
rose.
D. The girl said she was asking God to give her a pair of shoes.
E. A man intended to send some flowers to his mother who lived far away.
F. Shocked by the girl’s behavior, the man canceled the wire order, bought some flowers, and
drove two hundred miles to his mother.
G. A man came by and asked her why she was looking into the store.
H. He bought her a rose and offered her a ride to her mother.
I. A small girl was standing before a shoe store.She had no shoes on her feet, and she was
shivering with cold
J. The girl directed him to a cemetery and put the rose on a fresly – dug grave.
* Your answers:
+ Passage A : 1……… 2…….. 3. …….. 4. ……… 5. ………
+ Passage B : 1……… 2…….. 3. …….. 4. ……… 5. ………
PART FOUR: WRITING: (25 pts)
I. Rewrite the following sentences, beginning each sentences with the cues(10pts)
1. We couldn't relax until all the guests had gone home.
Only ........................................................................................ ..
2. House prices have risen sharply this year.
There has ..................................................................................................................... .
3. The only reason the party was a success was that a famous film star attended.
Had it not ........................................................ .
4. Would you mind not smoking in my house?
I'd rather ................................................. -
5. His second attempt on the world record was successful.
He broke .............. , ......................................................... .
6. I write to him almost every day.
Hardly .............................................................................................
7. Experts think that all dogs evolved from wolves.
All dogs are ................................................................................................ .
8. Don't go to lunch until you have typed all these letters.
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Make sure you finish .............................................................. .
9. The northwest of Britain has more rain each year than the southeast.
The annual .................................................................................................... .
10. Henry regretted buying the second-hand car.
Henry wishes ....................................................................................... ..
II. Use the given word to write the second sentence in such a way that it is as similar as possible
in meaning to the original sentence. Do not change the form of the given word. (5pts)
1. The two theories appear to be completely different. COMMON
................................................................................................................................
2. His rude behaviour is too much for me. PUT
.................................................................................................................................... .
3. I find his handwriting very hard to read. DIFFICULTY
............................................................................................................................... .
4. He doesn't have money to go on holiday. He doesn't have time, either. NEITHER
.................................................................................................................. ..
5. You'd feel better if you had a quiet holiday. DO
................................................................................................................ ..
III. Write a paragraph (of about 150 words) in which you suggest several ways to protect the
environment of your neighbourhood (10 pts)
TEST 10
I. PHONETICS:
a. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word pronounced differently from the rest:
(3pts)
1. A. dump B. bulb C. plumber D. consumer
2. A. conserve B. consider C. convention D.conversation
3. A. moustache B. machinery C. champagne D. championship
b. Choose the word (A, B, C or D) whose main stress pattern is not the same as
that of the others. (3 pts)
4. A. deposit B. festival C. institute D. resident
5. A. interview B. industry C. essential D. difficult
6. A. friendly B. extra C. along D. orphanage
II. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR:
a. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (15 pts)
1. If you hurry, you might get there ……………..…..to catch the early train.
A. right B. in time C. on time D. before time
2. The flight to Ho Chi Minh was cancelled……………..…..the dense fog.
A. because B. because of C. although D. despite
3. Keep silent, please! My baby……………..….in the next room.
A. sleeps B. has slept C. is sleeping D. was sleeping
4. Each of the guests ……………..…..a bunch of flowers.
A. are given B. is given C. were given D. give
5. Watching television……………..…..to widen our knowledge.
A. help B. helps C. helped D. helping
6. Huy: “Thank you very much for a lovely party.” Trang: “……………..….”
A. Cheers B. Thanks C. Have a good day D. You are welcome
7. One problem for teachers is that each student has his/ her own ……………..….needs.
A. separate B. divided C. individual D. distinctive
8. I will give my son a ring ……………..…..we get back from our holiday.
A. since B. and C. as soon as D. as long
9. Thom and Hue failed the test ……………..….they studied very hard.
A. as B. despite C. in spite of D. although
10. I had no ……………..….of selling the clock – it had belonged to my grandparents.
A. intend B. intention C. meaning D. interest
11. The new musical was great success. The ……………..…. loved it.
A. crowd B. supporters C. spectators D. audience
12. All the students in these classes were made……………..….very hard.
A. learn B. learning C. having learnt D. to learn
13. Mr. Quang decided to continue with his studies for another ten months.
A. carry out B. turn off C. get on D. go up
14. What beautiful weather ……………..….!
A. is it B. it is C. it to be D. being it
15. It is raining dogs and cats outside. Don’t go out, please!
A. hardly B. slightly C. heavily D. slowly
b. Read the text below. Use the word given in capitals at the end of each line to form a word
that fits in the space in the same line. There is an example at the beginning (O).(7pts)
LOOKING AFTER YOUR HOME
Residents in quiet (o) neighbourhoods are sometimes so confident that NEIGHBOUR
their houses will not be burgled, that they often leave their door LOCK
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(1)..............................
Statistics show that in two (2)............................out of ten, the thief does not
BURGLAR
have to force his way in, as the door or window has been left open.
An initiative for the (3) ..............................of this type of crime has now been
PREVENT
launched by the police.
They wanted us to pay more attention to the (4) ..............................of our
SECURE
homes and take some simple precautions.
First, we should strengthen any weak spots in our homes where a thief could
BREAK
get in. For example, (5) ..............................windows and old garage
doors must be replaced. It is worth the (6)............................ of a sum of money,
INVEST
however large, as it will buy us piece of mind.
Secondly, it is advisable never to leave spare keys in (7)............................
HIDE
places such as flower-pots because a thief will always look their first.
c. Use the verbs in brackets in the correct tense or form. (10 pts)
1. Jack (1-be) ................... ready in a moment. He (2-just finish) ................... his breakfast.
2. None of the people (3-invite) ................... to the party could come.
3. I was terribly disappointed (discover) ................... that he (lie) ..................to me.
4. Nothing (give) ................... to you if you (not study) ................... hard.
5. We (tell) ...................not to go out at night recently.
6. There is smoke and I smell something (burn) ................... . There (be)
d. Match the two halves of the sentences. Write your answer on the answer sheet (7 pts)
0. When you rang, I was in G A. fun, and I don’t want to do it as a job.
1. I waited outside the tennis club for ......... B. charge of the whole department.
2. We finally got to the stadium just in ......... C. time to see the match start.
3. I was so nervous the first time I was in ......... D. duty for about 8 hours every night.
4. I just play football for ......... E. a long time but Peter didn’t appear.
5. Your salary depends on ......... F. on DVD, I’ll definitely get it.
6. I love that film and when it comes out ......... G. the middle of cleaning my shoes.
7. Tom works as a policeman and he’s on ......... H. how long you’ve been working here.
III. READING:
a. Read the passage and circle the best option A, B, C or D to complete the passage:(10 pts)
HOAN KIEM LAKE
Right in the middle of the city of Hanoi, Hoan Kiem Lake, or locally (1)…………………as Bo
Ho that means ‘the shore of the lake’ is (2)…………………the place for morning exercises, leisure
and recreation activities. It is the heart and the beats of the city – thousands of local folks (3)
…………………together on the Liberation Day and the photographers snap photos of brides and
grooms (4)…………………the wedding season.
The lake has the legend way back in the mid-15th century (5)…………………Emperor Le Loi
got a magical sword from heaven to fight (6)…………………the Chinese, the Minh aggressors, out
of Vietnam. After that one day when he was out (7)…………………in the lake, a giant golden
tortoise suddenly grabbed the sword and (8)………………… into the water. The lake is also known
as ‘Ho Hoan Kiem’, the Lake of the Restored Sword, (9)…………………it is believed the sword
was taken to its original divine owners.
On an islet in the middle of the lake towards its south (10)…………………the Tortoise Tower or
the Thap Rua on the top of which a red star is often held as an emblem of Hanoi.
TEST 11
A. PHONETICS:
I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others (2 points):
1. A. architect B. parachute C. choir D. psychology
2. A. paragraphed B. coughed C. ploughed D. faced
II. Choose the word that has a different stress pattern from the others (3.0 points):
1. A. congratulate B. celebrate C. compulsory D. communicate
2. A. enjoyment B. pagoda C. collection D. business
3. A. national B. newspaper C. dormitory D. biology
B. GRAMMAR – VOCABULARY – LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS:
I. Choose the word, phrase, or expression that best completes each sentence below (15 points):
1. “Don’t be late for the interview, ………………..people will think you are a disorganized person,
Tom,” the mother said.
A. otherwise B. unless C. if not D. or so
2. Mary seldom does morning exercise, ………………..?
A. does she B. doesn’t she C. is she D. isn’t she
3. The old man persisted ……………….. believing that his son was still somewhere in the city.
A. on B. in C. for D. with
4. ……………….. on the ice, he wouldn’t have broken his arm.
A. If he didn’t slip B. If he hasn’t slipped C. If he had slipped D. Had he not slipped
5. You will have to ……………….. your holiday if you feel too tired.
A. put down B. put out C. put off D. put up
6. Neither Lilly nor her classmates ……………….. the National Museum so far.
A. visit B. visited C. has visited D. have visited
7. “Could you please cut the cake into five ……………….. pieces?”, Henry said to Jane.
A. like B. same C. alike D. equal
8. The environment is ……………….. almost everywhere.
A. threatening seriously B. seriously threatening
C. seriously threatened D. serious threat
9. When in the army, we were made……………….. to bed at 10 p.m.
A. go B. to go C. going D. to going
10. The police stated that the car accident would be ………………..soon.
A. investigate B. investigated C. investigating D. investigation
11. This cooker,………………..looks beautiful, doesn’t work properly.
A. who B. that C. it D. which
12. Sarah said that if her boyfriend ………………..his promise, she ……………….. to him again.
A. broke / would never speak B. breaks / will never speak
C. broke / will never speak D. broken / would never speak
13. The older my grandpa gets, ………………..he becomes.
A. the weakestB. the weaker C. weaker D. the weak
14. Last night when I ………………..along the river, I ………………..my old teacher.
A. walked / met B. was walking / was meeting
C. walked / was meeting D. was walking / met
15. Yesterday I went to the garage near my house to ………………..
A. have my car serviced B. servicing my car
C. get my car to service D. get my car service
A. Anyone can try to make a drink which tastes similar to Coca-Cola. Chemists say that it
consists almost entirely of carbonated water and sugar.
B. In only a few years Coca-Cola became the national drink of the United States. The shape of
the famous bottle was invented in 1961. During the Second World War, American soldiers
drank three million bottles of Coca-Cola a day.
TEST 12
II. PHONETICS
a-Pick out the word (A, B, C or D) whose underlined part is pronounced differently from those
of the other words. (5 pts)
1. A. pleased B. punished C. practiced D. promised
2. A. beds B. doors C. students D. plays
3. A. tour B. course C. court D. pour
4. A. cell B. center C. cube D. ceiling
5. A. boot B. root C. shoot D. foot
b-Choose the words that has a different stress pattern from the others. (1.0p)
1.A. practical B. designer C. minority D. occasion
2.A. consist B. fashion C. design D. collect
3.A. enjoyment B. pagoda C. collection D. business
4.A. economical B. federation C. itinerary D. complication
5.A. advertise B. deposit C. candidate D. institute
III. LEXICO-GRAMMAR
Part 1. Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best completes each sentence. (10 pts)
1. Her marriage has been arranged by her parents. She is marrying a man ........................ .
A. she hardly knows him B. whom she hardly know him
C. she hardly knows D. All are correct
2. "Can I give you a little more coffee?" - “ ........................ ”
A. No, you're welcome. B. No. Thanks.
C. Yes, you're right. D. Yes, I'm OK.
3. It was ........................ serious accident that he was kept in hospital for a month.
A. such B. such a C. so D. so a
4. A fire must have a readily available supply of oxygen. ........................, it will stop burning.
A. Consequently B. Furthermore C. Otherwise D. However
5. I enjoy doing things on my own, and I don’t need company ........................ the time.
A. all B. most C. much D. whole
6. Harrods, in London, is probably one of the best-known ........................ in the world.
A. departmental stores B. department shops
C. department stores D. stores department
7. Robert does not have ....................... Peter does.
A. money more than B. as many money as C. more money as D. as much money as
8. In ........................ 22nd SEA Games, Vietnam won ........................ 158 gold medals.
A. Ø/ the B. the/ Ø C. a/ the D. the/ the
9. You haven’t eaten anything since yesterday. You ........................ be really hungry.
A. might B. will C. can D. must
10. This ring is only made of plastic so it’s quite ........................ .
A. valuable B. invaluable C. worthless D. Priceless
11.Nam didn’t know ___________ to find more information about the course.
A.what B.why C.where D.while
12..He asked ___________ it was too early to apply for the course.
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A.if B.for C.when D.that
13.I couldn’t sleep last night ___________ the bar nearby played music so loudly.
A.although B.so that C.while D.because
14.___________ they moved to the city five years ago, they still remember living in a small town.
A.Although B.Whereas C.While D.In order that
15.The students didn’t know ___________ to do to deal with the problem.
A.where B.when C.why D.what
16.Lots of people choose to buy houses in the suburbs ___________ they can avoid the noise and
pollution in the city.
A.although B.when C.so that D.so as
17.Minh is ___________ the most successful student in my class.
A.so long B.by how C.by far D.so now
18.My grandfather is the _________ oldest artisan in the village; Ngoc’s grandfather is the oldest.
A.first B.second C.most D.one
19.___________ I was talking to my teacher, my friends were waiting outside the classroom.
A.In order that B.While C.Although D.So that
20.Lan couldn’t decide ___________ to work with on the project.
A.who B.what C.how D.when
Part 2. Fill in each blank with one suitable preposition. (5 pts)
1. Most American men earn ........................ average about $110 a week.
2. He is married ........................ my friend.
3. You’d better not drink that milk, Joe. It’s gone ........................ .
4. Are you aware........................ the regulations concerning the use of guns?
5. I used to watch ........................ the postman's arrival to seize unwanted envelopes and tear off the
corner with the stamp stuck on it.
Part 3. Complete the sentences with appropriate form of the word in block capitals. (5 pts)
1. ........................ are trying to find out new stars. SCIENCE
2. He was turned down for the job because he wasn’t........................ . QUALIFY
3. My colleagues are very pleasant but the manager is a little ........................ . FRIEND
4. Teenagers are now ........................ dressed. FASHION
5. Some people claim to be able to ........................ the future. TELL
Part 4. Put the verbs given in the brackets into their appropriate tenses or forms. (10 pts)
1. Peter did not get used to (get) ........................ up early when he first came to Vietnam.
2. By the time your brother (return) ........................ here next year, the city will have changed a lot.
3. What tune (play) ........................ when we came in?
4. I wish I (know) ........................ her address now.
5. They (learn) ........................ English from nine to ten in this room. Don’t let anyone
disturb them then.
6. The prisoner is thought (escape) ........................ by climbing over the wall yesterday.
7. Five kilometres (be) ........................ a long way for a little boy to walk.
8. He stepped down from the bench on which he (stand) ................... and walked out of the room.
9. He (serve) ........................ in the army in the last war.
10. She regrets (not/ buy) ........................ that house. It is much more expensive now.
Part 5. In each of the following sentences, the 4 words or phrases are marked A, B, C or D.
Identify the one underlined expression that is not correct and correct it. (5 pts)
1. The police has not decided whether or not to charge the four young men.
A B C D
2. Without transportation, our modern society could not be existed.
A B C D
3. She left the room with not saying a word.
A B C D
4. The more careful you drive, the fewer accidents you will have .
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A B C D
5. The price of crude oil used to be a great deal lower than now, wasn’t it?
A B C D
IV. READING COMPREHENSION
Part 1. Read the passage and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) which best fits each space.
(10 pts)
What is money? The pound, the dollar or the franc are actually just like a gram or a
kilometre. The difference is that you can exchange money for something (1) ........................ . A
five pound note may buy a book, a huge bag of sweets, or a (2) ........................ of cinema
tickets. But the note itself is only a printed (3) ........................ of paper which costs almost
nothing to make.
Thousands of years (4) ........................ people didn't have money as we know
(5) ........................ . There were no banks (6) ........................ even shops. In those days, Mr.
Green, the farmer exchanged the corn he (7) ........................ grown for Mr. Hive's honey. This
was an exchange arranged between the two (8) ........................, each of whom had something
that the other wanted. But in time, most societies invented their own "currencies" (9)
........................ that people could exchange more. The different currencies began to join
together, which is why (10) ........................ everyone uses a national currency.
1. A. other B. else C. another D. apart
2. A. couple B. double C. few D. several
3. A. slice B. part C. side D. piece
4. A. since B. past C. before D. ago
5. A. them B. it C. some D. that
6. A. or B. neither C. and D. but
7. A. did B. was C. had D. has
8. A. jobs B. people C. things D. goods
9. A. for B. by C. before D. so
10. A. tomorrow B. today C. recently D. soon
Part 2. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE
word in each space. (10 pts)
People have always dreamed of living forever, and although we all know this will (1)
........................ happen, we still want to live as long as possible. Naturally, there are advantages and
disadvantages to a long (2) ........................
In the first place, people (3) ........................ live longer can spend more time with their
family and friends. Secondly, people who have busy working lives look forward to a long, relaxing
time when they can do the things they have never had time for.
(4) ........................ the other hand, there are some serious disadvantages. Firstly, many
people become ill and consequently have to (5) ........................ time in hospital or become (6)
........................ on their children and friends. Many of them (7) ........................ this dependence
annoying or embarrassing. In addition to this, the (8) ........................ people get, the fewer friends
they seem to have because old friends die or become ill and it's often (9) ........................ to make
new friends.
To sum up, it seems that living to a very old age is worthwhile for people who stay healthy
(10) ........................ to remain independent and enjoy life.
Part 3. Read the following passage and choose the correct answers (A, B, C, or D). (5 pts)
After inventing dynamite, Swedish-born Alfred Nobel became a very rich man. However,
he foresaw its universally destructive powers too late. Nobel preferred not to be remembered
as the inventor of dynamite, so in 1895, just two weeks before his death, he created a fund to be
used for awarding prizes to people who had made worthwhile contributions to mankind.
Originally there were five awards literature, physics, chemistry, medicine and peace.
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Economics was added in 1968, just sixty-seven years after the first awards ceremony.
Nobel's original legacy of nine million dollars was invested, and the interest on this
sum is used for the awards which vary from $30,000 to $125,000.
Every year on December 10, the anniversary of Nobel's death, the awards are
presented to the winners. Sometimes politics plays an important role in the judges' decisions.
Americans have won numerous science awards, but relatively few literature prizes.
No awards were presented from 1940 to 1942 at the beginning of World War II. Some
people have won two prizes, but this is rare; others have shared their prizes.
1. The word "foresaw" is nearest in meaning to ................
A. prevailed B. postponed
C. prevented D. predicted
2. All of the following statements are true EXCEPT:
A. awards vary in monetary value.
B. ceremonies are held on December 10 to commemorate Nobel's invention.
C. politics plays an important role in selecting the winners.
D. a few individuals have won two awards.
3. The passage implies that Nobel's profession was in ...............
A. economics B. medicine
C. literature D. science
4. The word "worthwhile" is closest in meaning to ...............
A. economic B. prestigious C. trivial D. valuable
5. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Alfred Nobel became very rich when he invented dynamite.
B. Alfred Nobel created awards in six categories for contributions to humanity.
C. Alfred Nobel left all his money to science.
D. Alfred Nobel made lasting contribution to humanity.
V. WRITING
Part 1. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in
meaning to the sentence printed before it. (5 pts)
1. I haven't seen this film before.
→ This is…..……………………………………………………
2. “I was not there at the time,” he said.
→ He denied……………………………………………………
3. The bus takes longer than the train.
→ The train does……………….……………………………
4. I have never seen such a mess in my life!
→ Never in … ………………………………………………
5. My father is the owner of that car.
→ That car ……………………………………………………
Part 2. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence,
using the word given. Do not change the word given. You must use between two and five
words, including the word given. (5 pts)
1. Susan regrets not going to the airport to say goodbye to her friend. (WISHES)
→ Susan ................................. the airport to say goodbye to her friend.
2. Despite his age, he’s still working. (RETIRED)
→ He still ………………………….…… despite his age.
3. Despite knowing the area well, I got lost. (EVEN)
→ I got lost ………………………………..the area well.
4. I do not intend to tell you my plans. (OF)
→ I have.................................................... you my plans.
5. Graham spends all his time doing research. (DEVOTED)
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→ Graham has …………………………… doing research.
Part 3. Composition (10 pts)
Write an essay at least 150 words about “The importance of technology in modern life”.
TEST 13
PART B: PHONETICS
a-Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others.
1. A. communicate B. experience C. embroidery D. inspiration
2. A. banyan B. blanket C. gather D. exchange
3. A. behave B. decorate C. expect D. describe
4. A. realize B. product C. mechanic D. separate
5 A. comment B. garment C. even D. cement
b-Choose the word (A, B, C, or D) whose main stress is in the position which is different from
that of the others. (1 pt).
1. A. collect B. summer C. postcard D. modern
2. A. vacation B. arrival C. picture D. tradition
3. A. competition B. television C. information D. destination
4. A. secretary B. necessary C. classify D. vocabulary
5. A. arrange B. easy C. distance D. person
PART C: LEXICO-GRAMMAR
I. Choose the right word or phrase A-D to complete the sentences.
1. _______ my friends were unsuccessful at the job interviews.
A. Most B. The most of C. Most of D. Most out of
2. _______ hard it is, we’ll finish solving it before you come back.
A. No matter what B. How far C. No matter how D. Whichever
3. It was clear that the young couple were _______ of taking charge of the restaurant.
A. responsible B. reliable C. capable D. able
4. Have you ever been to Da Lat City? I remember _______ to the city by my teacher.
A. taking B. to take C. to be taken D. being taken
5. _______ he loved her, he didn’t forgive her for what she had done.
A. Much as B. Because C. No matter D. However
6. Can you give me the _______ for tomato soup?
A. formula B. recipe C. order D. method
7. I must go to the dentist and _______.
A. get my teeth to take care of B. take care of my teeth
C. my teeth be taken care of D. get my teeth taken care of
8. I didn’t get home until after midnight last night. Otherwise, I _______ your call.
A. would return B. returned C. would have returned D. had returned
9. By next year, we _______ here for ten years.
A. lived B. have lived C. will live D. will have lived
10. _______ for the intolerable heat in the hall, we would have stayed much longer.
A. If it weren’t B. Unless it were C. Hadn’t it been D. Had it not been
11. She was _______ as anyone could have had.
A. as patient teacher B. a patient a teacher
C. as patient as teacher D. as patient a teacher
12. _______ parrots are native to tropical regions is untrue.
A. All B. That all C. Since all D. Why all
13. I am sorry I opened your handbag but I _______ it for mine.
A. mistook B. confused C. recognized D. imagined
14. English is used as an access _______ world scholarship and world trade.
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A. into B. for C. to D. toward
15. If you come to the cinema, _______ your friend with you.
A. bring B. get C. invite D. take
II. Read the text below. Use the word given in capitals to form a word that fits in the spaces.
There is an example at the beginning.
Example: 0. amusement
The days when people would go to a zoo simply for (0. AMUSE) _______ are long ago.
Today, when we place greater (1. IMPORT) _______ on the survival of animals in the wild, zoos
have duty to inform the public and improve our (2. KNOW) _______ of the environment and the
problems faced (3. WORLD) _______ by large numbers of animals. Today's zoos also play a role
in the (4. PROTECT) _______ of threatened species, breeding animals for release in the wild.
Many zoos also fund (5. SCIENCE) _______ research into animals and their behavior. The way
animals are treated in zoos has changed, too. Many intelligent animals suffer from (6. BORE)
_______ in captivity and their keepers now try to improve the (7. PSYCHOLOGY) _______ state
of the animals in their care. They do this by, for example, providing the animals with a (8. VARY)
_______ of different food or by changing the animals' (9. DAY) _______ routine. Although some
critics of zoos remain (10. CONVINCE) _______ , there can be no doubt that animals in zoos today
enjoy a more comfortable existence than in the past.
III. Read the text below and look carefully at each line. Some of the lines are correct, and
some have a word which should not be there. If a line is correct, put a tick () by the number
on your answer sheet. If a line has a word which should not be there, write the word on your
answer sheet. There are two examples at the beginning.
I. There is a mistake in the four underlined parts of each sentence (A, B, C or D). Find the
mistake and correct it.
1. Look at the two dictionarys and you will see they are the same in some ways.
A B C D
2. Nam enjoys to be encouraged if he gets good marks.
A B C D
3. He walked very slowly as if he worked hard the whole day.
A B C D
4. Hoang has felt much better when he took the pill.
A B C D
5. After living in London for 2 months, my sister got used to drive on the left.
A B C D
II. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the
sentence printed before it.
1. Nam keeps forgetting his homework.
- > Ba is………………………………………………………………………….
2. Please don’t make any noise, I am very tired.
- > I’d rather………………………………………………………………………
3. We couldn’t go to the school this morning because of the heavy rain.
- > Because……………………………………………………………………….
4. He couldn’t afford to buy the car.
- > The car……………………………………………………………………….
5. It took us 3 hours to open the door.
- > We…………………………………………………………………………….
6. If I had much time, I would go to the beach with you this weekend..
- > Unless…………………………………………………………………………
7. Walking in the rain gives my younger brother a pleasure.
- > My younger brother enjoys…………………………………………………..
8. Mark is too young to get married.
- > Mark isn’t……………………………………………………………………
9. Minh began to collect stamps in 1999.
- > Minh has……………………………………………………………………
10. Nobody has watered the flowers in the garden for many weeks.
-> The flowers…………………………………………………………………….
III. Complete the second sentence so that it has the similar meaning to the first one, by using
the word given. (Do not change the word given).
1. It's possible Karen didn't hear her name being called. might
→ Karen .…………………………………… her name being called.
2. “Don’t forget to lock the house when you go out, William,” his mother said. reminded
→ William’s mother ………………………… when he went out.
3. Nobody expected her to lose, but she did. against
→ Against .………………………………………….. she lost
4. There weren't many guests at the wedding. only
→ There were ……………………………… guests at the wedding.
5. Promise to look after it and you can borrow my tennis racquet. long
→ You can borrow my tennis racquet, ……………………………. to look after it.
II. You borrowed some books from your school library. Unfortunately you have to go away to
visit a sick relative and cannot return the book in time.
Write a letter to the library. Explain what has happened and tell them what you want to do
about it.
You should write at least 150 words. You do NOT need to write your own address. Begin and end
your letter as followed:
Dear Sir/Madam,
__________________________________________________
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__________________________________________________
__________________________________________________
Yours sincerely,
Reader
TEST 14
I. PHONETICS:
a. Choose one word that has the unđerhned part pronounced differently from tbe others by
circling A, B, C, or D: (3 pts)
1. A. sleeveless B. media C. Internet D. designer
2. A. deposit B. respond C. documentary D. wonderful
3. A. guess B. teenager C. diadvanntage D. stage
b. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others by circling A, B, C, or D: (3 pts)
4. A. inspiration B. experience C. communicate D. embroidery
5. A. commentator B. economic C. banyan D. businessman
6. A. disadvantage B. documentary C. exploration D. communicate
II VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR:
a. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (20 pts)
7. I had to get up early, ……………..….I would miss the train.
A. otherwise B. if not C. so that D. but
8. Those police questioned my brother at some length and he didn’t
enjoy……………..….
A. questioning B. to be questioned C. to question D. D. being questioned
9. My parents are going to take three days…… ….next month to help my brother move his
house.
A. at B. over C. off D. out
10. English is used as an access ……………..….a world scholarship and world trade.
A. into B. to C. for D. towards
11. I remembered the correct address only ……………..…. I had posted the letter.
A. since B. afterwards C. following D. after
12. Our parents have never allowed us……………..….
A. smoke B. to smoke C. smoking D. smoked
13. I turned down the job ……………..….the attractive salary.
A. despite B. because C. although D. because of
14. Parents love and support their children ……… ….the children misbehave or do foolish
things.
A. if B. since C. only if D. even if
15. The Historical Museum is becoming ……………..…. crowded.
A. much and more B. more and more C. much and much D. more and much
16. She never let you cook the meals, ……………..….?
A. didn’t she B. doesn’t she C. did she D. was she
17. In my class, Trung was responsible ……………..…. the teacher ……………..
…. keeping the class in order while she went out.
A. to/ for B. to/ in C. with/ for D. for/ for
18. The scheme allows students from many countries to communicate……………..….
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A. with other B. themselves C. each other D. with one another
19. Have you ever read anything……………..….Earnest Hengmingway?
A. by B. of C. from D. for
20. Not a good movie,……………..….?
A. did it B. didn’t it C. was it D. wasn’t it
21. These days, our shop was always crowded ……………..….last-minute shoppers.
A. in B. to C. of D. with
22. Some of my relatives have come to stay……………..….me ……………..
….Christmas.
A. to/ in B. to/ at C. with/ in D. with/ at
23. The party, at ….. I was the guest honor, was extremely enjoyable.
A. that B. who C. which D. where
24. Hurry up! They have only got……………..….seats left.
A. a lot of B. plenty of C. a little D. a few
25. We should talk to a person ……………..….we can trust. We’ll feel better we do
so.
A. which B. whose C. whom D. Ø
26. Hoi An is……………..….for its old, small and tile-roofed houses.
A. well-done B. well-dressed C. well-organised D. well-known
b. Fill in each numbered blank with a suitable word: (7 pts)
Up to now, there are still many people thinking (27)…………….……..…. are things that are
made to (28)…………….……..…. shown on screen for entertainment. It is not right. There are
many other kinds of films that are made for other purposes. For examples, educational films are
made (29)…………….……..…. schools. They are about the certain subjects that students are
learning. Especially, when a person who learns a foreign language, educational films in the target
language are very useful. Industry needs training films (30)…………….……..…. introduce about
machinery and equipment, and how to operate and work on them. (31)…………….……..…. films
present factual events and circumstances of a social, political, or historical nature. It is films that
help us widen our knowledge of countries, cultures and people. Sitting on the arm chair in front of a
TV set, a (32)…………….……..…. can enjoy the beauty of nature all over the world, see many
historic spots, and meet a lot of interesting people. A film, (33)…………….……..…. good or bad,
is the result of the collaboration of many individuals with many different specific skills and talents.
And we, the viewers, should choose only suitable films to enjoy.
c. Complete the following passage with an appropriate form of the word in BLOCK
CAPITAL. (0) has been done as an example. (7 pts)
Let me make a suggestion to help you deal with difficult situations. If,
COMPETE
for example, you are taking part in a sports (0) …....competition…....., meeting
someone important, or giving a ...(34) ................................... in front of a large PERFORM
audience, you will probably be quiet, ..(35) .............................., and worry that NERVE
you will not be as ..(36) ................................ as you would like to be. SUCCEED
What you need to do is to prepare yourself thoroughly by running through the
whole activity over and over again in your mind, (37)............................. going CARE
through every detail. For example, a famous pianist, (38)............................. for PRISON
seven years for (39)................................ reasons, could still play magnificently POLITICS
on his release. When he was asked how he managed to play so well, his EXPLAIN
41. A lot of people are still unaware about environmental pollution around us.
A B C D
42. Lang said that he knows how the procedures for doing the experiment, but when he
A
began to work in the laboratory, he found that he was mistaken.
B C D
43. When I came to the store to purchase the printer advertise on television, we found
A B
that all the printers had been sold.
C D
44. My company is not only raising his prices but also decreasing the production of his
A B C
product as well.
D
45. The harder her sister tried, the worst he danced before the large audience.
A B C D
46. Ba said if he had to do another homework, he’d not be able to attend the performance.
A B C D
47. The Greens have two sons, neither of them lives with them.
A B C D
48. I went to the United States six months ago because mine cousin is out there.
A B C D
49. It’s high time people pay much attention to education.
A B C D
50. John, I think you should stop playing computer games and concentrate in your study.
A B C D
III. READING:
a. Read the passage and circle the best option A, B, C or D to complete the passage: (10 pts)
ANIMALS IN DANGERS
Nowadays people are more aware that wildlife all over the world is in (51)…………………
Many species of animals are threatened, and could easily become extinct if we do not (52)
…………………an effort to protect them. There are many seasons for this. In some cases, animals
are hunted (53) ………………… their fur or for other valuable parts of their bodies. Some birds,
such as parrots, are caught alive, and sold (54)…………………pets. For many animals and birds,
the problem is that their (55)……………….- the place where they live – is disappearing. More land
is (56)…………………for farms, houses or industry, and there are fewer open spaces (57)
…………………there once were. Farmers use powerful chemicals to help them grow better crops,
(58) …………………these chemicals polute the environment and harm wildlife. The most
successful animals on earth – human (59) …………………- will soon be the only ones left, unless
we can (60) …………………this problem.
In these days of high (0) unemployment, it is often difficult for young people to find a job. If
they are lucky enough to be asked to go for a(n) (66)…………………….………… , they may find
that there are at least 20 other (67) ………………………..……for the job. If a company is thinking
of offering you a job, they will ask you for at least one (68) ………………………....……from
either your previous employer or someone who knows you well. Before taking up your job, you
may have to sign a (69) …………………………. You will probably have to do some (70)
………………………… , which help you to do the job more successfully. Once you have decided
that this is your chosen (71)…………………………, you will then have to work hard to try and get
(72) …………………………, which usually brings more responsibility and more money! If you
are unlucky, you may be made (73)…………………………, and not be able to find another job. It
is also a good idea to pay some money into a (74) …………………………scheme, which will help
you to look after yourself and your family when you are (75) ………………. Finally, good luck!
IV WRITING:
a. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning. (5 pt)
76. It’s difficult for older people to learn a language.
-> Older people have …………………………………………………………………………
77. Martin may not be very well but he still manages to enjoy life.
-> Martin’s poor health.…………………………………….………………………………..
78. “What you have cooked is the best in the world!”, John said to his girlfriend.
-> John congratulated ……………………………………………………………..…………
79. “Don’t swim just after you have eaten”, she said to them.
-> She warned …………………………………………………………………….…………
80. The last storm destroyed Lan’s house.
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-> It’s high time ………………………………………………………………………………
b. Write complete sentence using the suggested words. (5 pt)
81. I / write / Jim / last week / but / so far / receive / no reply / my letter//
-> …………………………………………………………………………………
82. last night/ concert hall / so crowded / I / see / and/ hear / nothing.
-> ………………………………………………………………………………
83. I / invite / party / occasion / her birthday / last week
-> ………………………………………………………………………………
84. Tet / time / Vietnamese people / celebrate / beginning / spring.
-> ……………………………………………………………………………
85. Although/ he/ be/ injured, continued/ play until/ match/ finished.
-> ……………………………………………………………………………
c. Many students say that it’s difficult to learn “Speak” at school. Do you agree? Why? or
Why not? Write about 200 words.
TEST 15
PART A: PHONETICS (5 pts)
Question I: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the
rest in the same line. (2 pts)
1. A. heir B. honesty C. historic D. exhibition
2. A. consider B. century C. cigarette D. celebrate
Question II: Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three words in
each question. (3 pts)
3. A. advisable B. admirable C. reliable D. desirable
4. A. interesting B. magazine C.documentary D. entertain
5. A. favorite B. influence C.government D. identify
PART B: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (30 pts)
Question I: Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. (10 pts)
6. It's a good idea to see your doctor regularly for ................... .
A. a check-up B. a control C. an investiagation D. a revision
7. The math problem was............difficult for him.............work out.
A. so / to B. too / that C. so / that D. too / to
8. How beautiful she is ! She is wearing a ........................................... .
A. pretty purple silk dress. B. dress silk pretty purple.
C. purple pretty silk dress. D. pretty silk purple dress.
9. It's no use..........children.......... quiet. They are always noisy.
A. to ask / to keep B. asking /keeping
C. to ask / keeping D. asking /to keep
10. He manages to visit his parents…………Sunday.
A. another every B. every other C. every the other D. other every
11. The new film has good audience figures ……………… poor reviews in the press.
A.despite B. because of C. although D. nevertheless
12. I have very ……………….. hope of having the chance to meet her again.
A. few B. a few C. little D. a little
13. We’ve done ………the old system of issuing tickets. It’s all done by computers nowadays.
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A. down B. without C. over D. away with
14. I like spending time with Jack’s father as I find him ……………….. person.
A. quite an amused B. quite an amusing
C. a very amused D. a very amusing
15. John: “ Bye for now. See you again ”. Tom: ........................
A. I hope so B.We will C. Take care. Bye. D. I’m very sad.
Question II: Supply the correct form of the word in capital letters. (10 pts)
16. He is not afraid to take action . He’s very .................. (DECIDE)
17. With all the modern facilities, doing housework is still very ............... (CONSUME)
18. They were brought up to behave in a …….....way in public. (CIVILIZATION)
19. It was….................................of me to mislead you like that. (FORGIVE)
20. Jenny has sent me a very......letter explaining why she didn’t do what she promised.
(APOLOGY)
21. The ............of this document is wrong! There’s no page 13. (PAGE)
22. His work brought him fame, but little ……............. reward. (MONEY)
23. An .........................................man has stolen all our money. (KNOW)
24. She divorced him because of his .................to the children. (KIND)
25. It is usually forbidden to destroy...........................buildings. (HISTORY)
Question III: Put each verb in brackets into an appropriate form. (10 pts)
26. At no time before I accepted the job I (tell) ......................that I would have to do so much
travelling around the country.
27. It is highly desirable that every effort (be)................... made to reduce expenditure.
28. It was a great party last night. You (come) ......................................why didn’t you?
29. I (start) .......................................................work last week, but I changed my mind.
30. There are some guests (wait)......................................................... for you outdoors.
31. If you ( not study)........., I would have brought my friends over to your house this evening to
watch TV, but I didn’t want to bother you.
32. Are you having your house (paint)........ .........................................at the moment ?
33. Linda has lost her passport again. It's the second time this (happen).......................
34. The police officer stopped us and asked us where we (go).......................................
35. If you don’t hurry, all the tickets (sell) .............................by the time we get there.
PART C: READING COMPREHENSION (25 pts)
Question I: Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE
word in each space (10pts) (Questions 36 - 45)
Man has always depended on plants (36) ……food and many other useful products. For this
reason, farming is one of the world's most important industries. At first, (37) ……man did not know
how to plant seeds and raise crops. He (38)…………wild fruits and vegetables where he found
them. Then man discovered how to grow his own food. He (39)………seeds and waited for the crop
to grow. For the first time, he could be reasonably sure of his food supply. He could settle down and
set up shelters in the places (40) ……he grew food.
As populations began to increase, the (41) ………for food became greater. Old-fashioned tools
and farming methods were inefficient in (42)………… the demand, so man cultivated more and
more land and invented complicated machines to make his work easier. Tractors replaced horses
and other farm animals. Scientists studied and (43) ......... with plants. They told farmers how to
TEST 16
I. PHONETICS:
a. Choose one word that has the unđerhned part pronounced differently from tbe others by
circling A, B, C, or D:
1. A. sleeveless B. depend C. design D. deposit
2. A. campus B. relax C. documentary D. fashion
3. A. exchange B. gather C. encourage D. stage
b. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others by circling A, B, C, or D:
4. A. compulsory B. optional C. logical D. wonderful
5. A. friendlyness B. separate C. poetry D. pagodar
6. A. disadvantage B. documentary C. communicate D. exploration
II VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR:
a. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences:
7. I am ………………go fishing with his brother when he was young.
A. used to B. is used to C. has used to D. was used to
8. I don't like doing the . ……………. , especially cleaning the windows.
A. homework B. housework C. job D. occupation.
9. She. ……………. a letter when the telephone rang.
A. writes B. wrote C. has written D. was writing
10. He has just got an interesting . ……………. in a textile company.
A. work B. job C. occupation D. employment
11. William suggested . ……………. at home for a change.
A. staying B. to stay C. stay D. stayed
12. What will happen if the pollution ....................... on.
A. puts B. goes C, keeps D. takes
13. I’m afraid this article is ........................ date.
A. over B. pass C. behind D. out of
14. I had to get up early, .................... I would miss the train.
A. otherwise B. if not C. but D. so that
15. " Does Jack know about your project". "Yes, I told him…………….to do"
A.what was I planning B. what I have planned C. what did I plan D. what I was planning
16. I wish you……………… me how to do this exercise.
A. can help B. will help C. could help D. should help
17. The children…………………..to the zoo.
A.were enjoyed taken B. enjoyed being taken C. were enjoyed taking D.enjoyed taking
18. Since the Tet holiday the cost of living ........................ considerably.
A. rises B. rose C. was rising D. has risen
19. I don’t notice that you are still working : I’ll turn ................... the volume.
c. Fill in each blank in these sentences with the suitable form of the words in brackets : 7pts
34.Tourists are pleased with________food of the South. ( region )
35.These films are not good for children. There are lots of_______.( violent )
36. Her uncle is a famous_________.( music )
37.The ________monument was built in the center of the city.( impress )
38.These works have been________for many centuries.( collection )
39.It is very easy for us to understand his explanation. It is________( logical )
40.Presents were divided _______to all children. One bag of toys to every child. ( equal )
41. John, I think you should stop playing computer games and concentrate in your study.
A B C D
42. I suggested that you taking his advice to treat your cough.
A B C D
43. If today is Sunday, we would have a lot of fun at the camping.
A B C D
44. I haven’t seen my grandparents since four months
A B C D
45.A new restaurant was opening on Main Street last week.
A B C D
46.The bridge was hitting by a large ship during a sudden storm last week.
A B C D
47. They asked me what did happen , but I was unable to tell them.
A B C D
48. Many people believe that New York is the most great city in America.
A B C D
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49. Each year people around the world spending billions of dollars buying goods on the Internet
A B C D
50.My family is used to have dinner at 7 o’clock in the evening
A B C D
III. READING:
a. Read the passage and circle the best option A, B, C or D to complete the passage: (10pts)
An increasing number of people are now going on....(51)....... to Egypt. Last year, for example,
about one and a half million.....(52)........visited Egypt. The ......(53)........of Egypt is about fifty
million and the.....(54)..........is El Qahira (Cairo), a busy city of just under nine million people.
Although the.........(55)............is hot and dry and most of the country is desert, the average......
(56).......from October to March is not too high. The most.....(57).......places are the pyramids at
Giza. However, it is also pleasant to...........(58)...........Alexandria, Port Said and several other places
and do as much........(59)..........as possible in the time available. A......(60).........to Luxor is an
unforgettable experience.
51. A. visit B. holiday C. trip D. excursion
52. A. tourists B. passengers C. voyagers D. explorers
53. A. people B. citizenship C. nation D. population
54. A. town B. head C. state D. capital
55. A. temperature B. climate C. condition D. position
56. A. weather B. measurement C. temperature D. climate
57. A. famous B. known C. visited D. requested
58. A. search B. inspect C. examine D. visit
59. A. sightseeing B. looking C. inspecting D. viewing
60. A. pinic B. trip C. guide D. entertainment
Every year people in many countries learn English. Some of them are young children. Others
are teenagers. Many are adults. Some learn at school. Others study by themselves. A few learn
English just by hearing the language in films, on television, in the office or among their friends. But
not many are lucky enough to do that. Most people must work hard to learn English.
Why do all these people learn English ? It's not difficult to answer this question. Many boys and
girls learn English at school because it is one of their subjects. Many adults learn English because it
is useful for their work. Teenagers often learn English for their higher studies because some of their
books are in English at the college or university. Other people learn English because they want to
read newspapers or magazines in English.
61.According to the writer,...................................................................................
A. only young people learn English B. English is useful only for university students
C. all people learn English at school D. English is popular all over the world
62. Most people learn English by ........................................................................
A. watching films B. hearing the language on television
C. working hard on the lessons D. speaking English to their friends
63.Many boys and girls learn English because ..................................................
A. it is included in their study courses B. it's useful for their higher studies
C. it's their own language D. they are forced to learn it
64 .Many adults learn English ............................................................................
A. in order to be able to read newspapers in English B. because it helps them in their work
C. because of their higher studies D. to communicate with their colleagues in the office
65. Which of the following isn't mentioned ?
A. English is widely used B. English is a compulsory subject
C. English is spoken in the office D. English is spoken in the college or university.
c. Use one of these words in its correct form to complete the text. (10 pts)
86. He left the letter on the table. He wanted me to be sure seeing it when I came in.(so that)
-> ………………... ……………………………………………………………………….
87. The book consists of four parts. One of them has been translated into English. (which).
-> ………………... ……………………………………………………………………….
88. “You shouldn’t get up until you feel better”, the doctor said (advised)
-> ………………... ……………………………………………………………………….
89. John hasn’t been back to his native village for nearly thirty years now. (since)
-> ………………... ……………………………………………………………………….
90. Williamson, the policeman, lived next door. (whose)
-> The policeman…………………………………….………………….……next door.
TEST 17
SECTION I: PHONETICS
I.Choose the word (A, B, C or D) that has the underlined part pronunced differently from the
others in each group. (5 points)
1. A. food B. school C. tool D. book
2. A. compose B. emotion C. symphony D. concern
3. A. erased B. preserved C. attacked D. arrived
4. A. species B. pollute C. accept D. receipt
5. A. loves B. laughs C. crops D. earthquakes
II. Choose the word (A, B, C or D) whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others.
(2 points)
1. A medical B convention C majority D humanity
2. A begin B tradition C ethnic D expect
SECTION II: VOCABULARY, GRAMMAR AND STRUCTURES
I. Choose the word or phrase that best complete each sentence.(20 points)
1. I find the time of English meals very strange – I’m not used……...dinner at 6.00 pm.
A. to have B. to having C. having D. have
2. I suggest…………….. outside the movie theater tomorrow at 8:30.
A. meeting B. to meet C. meet D. should meet
3. She finally decided ……………. her children alone in the house.
A. not leaving B. do not leave C. not leave D. not to leave
4. He seldom goes to the market,……………..?
A. doesn’t he B. does he C. is he D. isn’t he
5. Everyone looks …………….. today than yesterday.
A. happy B. happily C. more happily D. happier
6. + Would you like some bread ?
- ________. I’m rather hungry.
A. No, I wouldn’t B. No, thanks C. Yes, I like D. Yes, please
7. There are_______________good programms on TV that I rarely watch it.
A. such few B. such little C. so few D. so little
8. The fish tastes_____________. I won’t eat it.
A. awful B. awfully C. more awfully D. as awful
9. Either I or Tom ………….beef.
A. doesn’t like B. don’t like C. like D. likes
II. You are studying in Australia and you have just had an interesting trip to the countryside of
Australia. Write a letter to your Mom to tell about that trip (within 120 – 150 words) (10 points).
........................................................................................................................................................
TEST 18
SECTION I: PHONETICS
I. Choose the word (A, B, C or D) that has the underlined part pronunced differently from the
others in each group. (5 points)
1. A. addition B. nation C. attention D. question
2. A. grew B. threw C. knew D. flew
3. A. leaf B. knife C. café D. of
4. A. kids B. roofs C. banks D. hats
5. A. looked B. moved C. gained D. prepared
II. Choose the word (A, B, C or D) whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others.
(2 points)
1. A. congratulate B. celebrate C. compulsory D. communicate
2. A. enjoyment B. pagoda C. collection D. business
II. Supply the correct form of the verbs in brackets (10 points)
1. A modern hospital should (build) ….....……. in this town soon.
2. Rebecca (wear) ….....…….a new dress today because it is her birthday.
3. I (do)….....…….the washing up when the phone rang.
4. They (study)… ….....……... English for seven years up to now.
5. If we keep our environment cleaner, we (live)….....……. … a happier and healthier life.
6. We (not/ make) .............. our decision yet.
7. Peter did not get used to (get) ............. up early when he first came to Vietnam.
8. By the time your brother (return) ............. here next year, the city will have changed a lot.
9. I wish I (know) ............. her address now.
10. Peter: Where is Paul? Nam: I ( not see) .............him today.
III. Complete the following sentences with the new word formed from the ones in CAPITAL at
the end of each sentence. (8 points)
1. You will get a good …………… ………. at this school. EDUCATE
2. We should turn off the lights when going out to save …… ………. . ELECTRIC
3. .............. are trying to find out new stars. SCIENCE
4. Thousands of people were made .............. by the earthquake in Japan. HOME
5. The love for books is helpful in .............. the pupils’ knowledge. DEVELOP
6. Since its .............. , television has attracted millions of viewers. INVENT
7. My favorite form of .............. is playing the guitar. ENTERTAIN
8. I really don’t think he has the .............. to do this job. ABLE
IV.Fill in each blank with a suitable preposition(5 points).
1. The problem is becoming serious. We have to do something .............. it.
2. The river divides the city .............. two parts.
3. What have you done with the money you had? What did you spend it .............. ?
4. What do you think the best solution .............. the problem.
5. He doesn’t have much contact .............. other people.
II: Read the text and choose the best answer ( A, B, C or D) to fill in each gap.(10 pts)
There has been a revolution in the world of newspapers. Not many years (1) ...........,
newspapers were still being produced using techniques unchanged for (2).......... hundred years. The
journalists gave their stories to a typist, who prepared them for an editor, who passed them on
(3) ............ the printer. The printer, who was a (4) ............ skilled man, set up the type. (5) ............
was then collected to make the pages. When the pages were completed, the printing machines could
be (6) ............. Nowadays what (7) ............? The journalist types their stories into a computer. The
(8) ............ checks their spelling, plans the pages, shape the articles. When the pages are ready,
another computer may control the spelling. (9) ............ can be no doubt about it, producing a
newspaper is an entiderely different (10)............... now.
1. A. before B.after C. ago D. yet
2. A. a B. some C. an D. over
3. A. to B.by C.through D. with
4. A. hardly B. mostly C. partly D. very
5. A. They B. Which C. This D. All
6. A. swiched B. started C. stopped D. moved
7. A. gives B. occurs C. goes D. happens
8. A. computer B. editor C. typist D. priter
9. A. It B. There C. You D. We
10. A. skill B. work C. business D. management
III. Fill in each numbered blank with a suitable word. (10pts)
The country is (1).............beautiful than a town and more pleasant to live in. Many people
think so, and go to the country (2) .......... the summer holiday though they can't live (3) ............. all
the year round. Some have cottage built in a village (4) .......... that they can go there whenever they
(5) ..........find the time.
English villages are not alike, but (6)............. some ways they are not very different from
(7) ...................other. Almost every village (8) ...........a church, the round or square tower of which
III. It is said that Engish is a useful language. Do you think so?Write a passage about 130-150
words about your idea (10 points).
TEST 19
I. PHONETICS: ( 6 pts)
a. Choose one word that has the unđerhned part pronounced differently from tbe others by
circling A, B, C, or D: (4 pt)
1. A. design B. please C. pleasant D. house
2. A. killing B. kneel C. queue D. cucumber
3. A. shopping B. wish C. machine D. reaching
4. A. challenge B. architecture C. chemistry D. scholarship
b. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others by circling A, B, C, or D:
(2 pt)
1. A.creativity B.immature C.negative D.nationality
2. A.impossible B.importantly C.stability D.connectivity
II VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR:
a. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (20pts)
21. _____ cross-word puzzles is his hobby.
A. doing B. making C. producing D. writing
22. Many rare species of animals are now _____ of extinction.
A. on the verge B. in dangers C. on the side D. at risk
23. As children, we were _____ to respect our elders.
A. grown up B. kept up C. brought up D. held up
24. When I returned the wallet I found on the street to its owner, he gave me a big _____.
A. reward B. present C. prize D. gift
25. We didn't _____ to the station in time to catch the early train.
A. reach B. get C. arrive D. go
26. Let’s _____ a coin to decide which team will kick the ball first.
A. spin B. turn C. twist D. toss
27. This new law will take _____ from the beginning of next month.
A. influence B. power C. effect D. force
28. I don’t mind when you go on holiday. It doesn’t really ______ me.
A. effect B. affect C. matter D. suit
29. The concert received good _____ from the critics.
A. reports B. opinions C. viewpoints D. reviews
30. My passport _____ last month, so I will have to get a new one.
A. expired B. passed C. ended D. terminated
31. I know for _____ that he was away from home last month.
A. correct B. true C. fact D. certain
32. Mr. Jones has _____ painting since he retired.
A. taken up B. taken of C. taken over D. taken in
33. We have bought extra food _____ our friends stay to dinner.
A. if B. in case C. provided D. as long as
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34. As the car is small, it's much more _____ on petrol.
A. expensive B. pool C. economical D. economic
35. Jill isn't on the phone, _____ makes it difficult to contact her.
A. which B. that C. who D. it
36. I shall do the job to the best of my _____.
A. capacity B. ability C. knowledge D. talent
37. Only at weekend _____ my kids to the Water Park.
A. I don't take B. do I take C. I take D. I do take
38. "Excuse me, but there is something about _____ immediately."
A. that I must speak to you B. that I must speak to you about
C. which I must speak to you D. which I must speak to you about it
39. The blue whale _____ the largest creature on earth.
A. generally classified as is B. is generally classified as
C. as generally classified D. is classified generally as
40. John remembered his parents' wedding anniversary and _____.
A. sent them some flowers B. sent to them some flowers
C. to them sent some flowers D. some flowers to them sent
b. Choose the half sentences in column A with endings in column B . (6 pts)
A B
1. That’s enough for today – let’s go a. the foreign visitors around his family’s
workshop.
2. Tam had a good opportunity to show b. on well with the people she works with.
3. Our class are really looking c. on with it tomorrow.
4. He’d like to have more time to think d. up with the others any more.
5.Janet is very friendly and generally gets e. forward to having a trip to the National Park.
6. Halfway through the race, Phong found that f. over everything before he makes a decision.
he couldn't keep
c. Complete the sentences with appropriate form of the word in block capitals. (8 pts)
1.This hill is the ................... home of King Arthur. LEGEND
2. My colleagues are very pleasant but the manager is a little ...................... FRIEND
3.He has carried out extensive research into ................................energy sources (such as the
water or wind energy). RENEW
4.My brother works as a lab ............................... at a large company. TEACHNIQUE
5.Our city has some fashionable shops, but they are not very .............................. AFFORD
6.Do you know what is the most ................................... town in this region? POPULATION
7.Remember to visit the Ancient Tower as it’s the only .......... building in our area. HISTORY
8.I feel so ........................ because I can’t run as fast as my friends. EMBARRASS
d. Put the verbs given in the brackets into their appropriate tenses or forms. (10 pts)
1. I (try)………………. to phone you all day. Where (you be)……………………….?
2. She proposed (give)…………. a party (celebrate)………… the success.
3. I (never read) …………a book (write)………….. by a Japanese author..
4. It's time we (start)…………... Otherwise, we (miss)…………….. the last train home.
5. I can't bear (sit) ………….at home all day (do)…………. nothing.
6. When we (get)…………. downstairs, the burglar (disappear)………………….
7. I (cycle)………….. to school yesterday when suddenly I (see)…………… John.
8. Listen. I (think)……………… I can hear someone (shout)………….. over there.
9. By the time he (return)……………. next week, we (finish)…………. all the work.
10. Today you (look) ……………….as if you (be) ……………an actress.
e. Identify the mistake in each sentence and correct it. (5 pts)
1.Mai went to the Student Support Office although she wanted to get some advice.
2.I don’t know which one is most ancient: Bat Trang pottery village or Bau Truc pottery village?
3.Are you sure you can get on your new classmates?
Today the school is still located in the same area, and has maintained its prestige, as well as its
reputation as one of the top schools in Ha Noi. It is very difficult to be admitted to the school. Every
year, there are around three thousand applicants but only about five hundred are admitted. Those
applicants have to take an entrance examination conducted by the Department of Education and
Training of Ha Noi.
1.The passage mainly discusses ___________.
A.Chu Van An, the teacher B.Chu Van An School in the future
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C.Chu Van An School over time D.the difficulty of being admitted to Chu Van An School
2.All of the following are true about the school EXCEPT ___________.
A.the school was originally named after the location it is in
B.the school admits three thousand students every year.
C.the school has a view of the West Lake
D.the school is large
3.The word ‛principal’ is closest in meaning to ___________.
A.teacher B.head teacher C.founder D.supporter
4.The word ‛prestige’ in the passage mostly means ___________.
A.respect B.fame C.status D.position
5.It can be understood from the passage that ___________.
A.students of the school are very smart
B.the school fees are very high
C.only children from prestigious families can enter the school
D.the teachers at the school earn a lot of money
c. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word
in each space. (10 pts)
I still remember how we celebrated Tet when I was small. We used to live in
an (1)________ family, with our grandparents and our uncle’s family.
Our family (2)___________ to make banh chung when Tet came. It was a busy, but wonderful,
time for all of us. My aunt used to be the one to clean dong leaves, the (3)________ we used to
wrap the cakes with. My uncle was the one to get water from the well for (4)________ to do the
cleaning. My mum was always (5)_________ for the preparation of the filling, which was made of
green beans, and pork flavoured with onion and pepper. Normally, my grandfather did the
wrapping, and we sat around watching him do it excitedly. We (6)_________ also happy to be
asked to fetch anything my grandpa needed. When the night fell, we started boiling the cakes,
which (7)_________ about eight hours. It was hard to wait so long for them! We stayed
up (8)_________ the night, grilling sweet potatoes, listening to our grandpa’s (9)___________ ,
and playing chess or cards. Now we have grown up, and are often too busy to make banh chung.
But it remains a really sweet (10)________ for us all.
IV. WRITING:
a. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in
meaning to the sentence printed before it. (5 pts)
1. I haven't seen this film before.
→ This is…..……………………………………………………
2. “I was not there at the time,” he said.
→ He denied……………………………………………………
3. The bus takes longer than the train.
→ The train does……………….……………………………
4. I have never seen such a mess in my life!
→ Never in … ………………………………………………
5. It was wrong of you to allow a 4-year-old child to walk home alone.
→You should ........................................................................................
b. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using
the word given. Do not change the word given. (5 pts)
1.It's not a good idea to use the village's land to build new roads. (wouldn't)
→ I ................................................................
2.You should visit the historical places of the area. (worth)
→ It is ................................................................................
3.He suggested seeing Trang An, a natural wonder of our area. (visit)
→ What about........................................................................ ?
4.The sleepy villages are expected to mushroom into crowded towns within two years. (supposed)
TEST 20
Question 1:
a. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest in the same
line. ( 3p)
1. A. divided B. prayed C. designed D. lived
2. A. campus B. relax C. documentary D. fashion
3. A. exchange B. gather C. encourage D. stage
b. Pick out the word that has the tress syllable differently from that of the other words. (3p)
1. A. region B. religion C. fashion D. subject
2. A. friendlyness B. separate C. poetry D. pagodar
3. A. disadvantage B. documentary C. communicate D. exploration
Question 2: Choose the correct word or phrase to complete each sentence (25p)
1. I can't make ________ what is happening.
A. away B. over C. out D. on
2. A ________ is being offered for information leading to the arrest of the bank robber.
A. prize B. reward C. notice D. repayment
3. This dish ________. Is it spicy?
A. smells well B. is smelling good C. is smelled well D. smells good
4. Who was the first American person ________ on the moon?
A. walking B. who walked C. walked D. to walk
5. She is one of the few people ________.
A. to whom I look up B. I look up
C. who look up to D. to who I look up
6. I live in Dalat, ________ is one of the most beautiful cities of Vietnam.
A. in which B. that C. which D. where
7. Neither the students nor the teacher ________ come.
A. has B have C. is D. are
8. On the way to the town, they stop ________a rest.
A. taking B. to take C. to have D. having
9. It costs about fifty dollars to have a tooth ________.
A. filling B. to fill C. filled D. being filled
10. The roof was damaged and water ________ from the ceiling in wet weather.
A. spilled B. dripped C. drained D. dropped
11. ________little we may like it, old age comes to most of us.
A. In spite of B. So C. As D. However
12. The newspaper did not mention the ________ of the damage caused by the fire.
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A. range B. amount C quantity D. extent
13. The judge ________ him fifty dollars for parking his car illegally.
A. charged B. fined C. punished D. prohibited
14. You can take a taxi ________ you don't mind waiting.
A. except B. unless C. provided D. apart
15. They live in a large ________ house on the edge of London.
A. detached B. single C. separated D. divided
16. The country’s annual_______ of coffee beans has increased each year since 1977
A. produce B. growth C. outcome D. production
17. he kept his marriage a secret for years ,but eventually the truth_______ .
A came out B. came through C. went out D turned out
18. Jane was shocked when I disagreed with her . She’s so used to getting her own_______ .
A. mind B. way C. opinion D. views
19. When he sings, he has the _______ ability to make songs sound good.
A. sparse B. rare C. infrequent D. scarce
20. The management are making _______ to increase the company's efficiency.
A. measures B. steps C. moves D. deeds
21. Before he turned 14, Mozart ________ a few lesser piece for the piano.
A. has composed B. had composed C. was composed D. would composed
22. Rarely________ succeed in ballet if they start after the age of 12.
A. do children B. children have C. children D. are children
23. Have something to eat before you________.
A. leave B. left C. will leave D. had left
24.What made you more interested ________ learning English?
A. on B. in C. with D. to
25.When they get together, all they talk _______ is football.
A. to B. with C. about D. on
d. In about 200 words write about your mother - the one you love most of all: (9pts)
TEST 21
SECTION I: PHONETICS
I. Choose the word whose part underlined is pronounced differently from the others in each
group (5 points).
1. A. look B. cook C. book D. roof
2. A. danger B. angry C. language D. passage
3. A. though B. enough C. cough D. rough
4. A. manure B. measure C. pasture D. adventure
5. A. sociable B. ocean C. receive D. special
II. Choose a word on each line that has different stress pattern. (2 points).
1. A. sociable B. volunteer C. photograph D. beautiful
2. A. recycle B. protect C. instead D. natural
III. The following sentences belong to a passage about CPU FUNCTION, but they are not in the
correct order. Put them in their correct order to make a full passage. There are examples for you.
Write your answers in the spaces below. ( 5 pts )
CPU FUNCTION
A. The main function of the CPU is to perform arithmetic and logical operations on data taken
from memory or on information entered through some device, such as a keyboard , scanner, or
joystick.
B. These instructions then pass into the computer’s main random access memory (RAM),
where each instruction is given a unique address, or memory location.
C. Software instructions entering the CPU originate in some form of memory storage device
such as a hard disk, floppy disk, CD-ROM, or magnetic tape.
D. The CPU can access specific pieces of data in RAM by specifying the address of the data
that it wants.
E. A CPU is similar to a calculatior, only much more powerful.
F. The CPU is controlled by a list of software instructions, called a computer program.
ANSWERS:
1….E…… 2. ……….. 3. ……….. 4. ………. 5. ………… 6. ………..
SECTION IV: WRITING
I. There is one mistake in each sentence. Find and correct it. (4points)
1. Hung is 5 years old. He is not enough old to ride a bike.
2. Smoking cigarettes aren’t allowed in this hospital.
3. I’m used to drink coffee with cream, but now I drink it black.
4. It’s dangerous to drive fastly in busy streets.
II. Complete the second sentence with the same meaning(8points)
1. I would like you to help me to put the chair away
Do you mind ...................................................................................
2. Unless he phones her immediately,he won’t get any information
If .......................................................................................................
3. The only way you can become a good athlete is by training hard everyday.
Only by…………………………………………………………
4. It was such bad news that Helen burst into tears.
The news ........................................................................
5. In spite of his intelligence, he doesn’t do well at school.
Although ……………………………………………………………….. .
6. Keeping the environment clean is very important.
It’s ………………………………………………………………………
7. It’s three years since I last spoke to her.
I haven’t …………………………………………………………………
8. “I wouldn’t cook the fish for too long, Bill, if I were you,” said Jean.
Jean advised.................................................................................................................
III. Write a short paragraph ( 8points)
“Do you like living in the city or in the country? Why?”
Write a composition to express your idea on this. (You should write within 130 – 150 words)
TEST 22
SECTION A: PHONETICS & SPEAKING ( 2 MKS )
I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others.
(1 mark)
1. A. where B. winter C. warm D. wrong
2. A. naked B. punished C. forced D. fixed
3. A. government B. moment C. comment D. development
4. A. whether B. ethnic C. clothing D. these
5. A. third B. fire C. first D. sir
II. Choose the word whose stressed pattern is different from the others. (1 mark)
1. A. comic B. police C. fashion D. cotton
2. A. remote B. amount C. purpose D. museum
3. A. correspond B. convenient C. compulsory D. communicate
4. A. community B. minority C. biology D. dormitory
5. A. generous B. humorous C. enormous D. dangerous
SECTION B : VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR( 6 MKS )
III. Choose the best answer from A, B, C, or D. (3 marks)
1. - Andrew: What would you like for dinner?
- Laura: ______ we’re both so tired, why don’t we order a pizza?
A. Since B. Moreover C. However D. Although
2. When the headmaster ______ the room, all the pupils stood up.
A. came B. arrived C. appeared D. entered
3. She asked me if I would like half an apple or ______.
A. whole one B. the whole one C. a one whole D. a whole one
4. - Peter: Is our breakfast OK?
- Mary: Yeah, mom is ______ it ready.
A. doing B. getting C. cooking D. All are correct
5. All the boys are good at cooking, but ______ is as good as the girls.
A. either B. neither C. every D. none
6. I couldn’t ______her, she is one of the fastest runners in my school.
A. come up with B. catch up with C. put up with D. get away
7. Tuan is ______ good results in his final exam.
A. expecting B. wishing C. looking after D. waiting
8. What a ______ car!
A. new small nice B. new nice small C. nice new small D. nice small new
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9. Our children are looking forward to ______ to the circus this weekend.
A. be taken B. taking C. being taken D. take
10. Time is short, so the secretaries are typing the documents ______.
A. with a pressure B. under pressure C. under the pressure D. to pressure
11. He’s a ______ drinker and can nearly always be found in the hotel bar.
A. full B. strong C. high D. heavy
12. - Mrs. Smith: You made a lot of noise last night!
- David: ______
A. Really? B. What a pity! C. Oh! I’m really sorry!D. It’s kind of you to say so.
13. Everybody has known the day I return, ______?
A. haven’t they B. have they C. don’t I D. won’t I
14. The Smiths bought a very beautiful house ______ a fairly good price.
A. by B. of C. with D. at
15. My mother often gives me advice ______ water.
A. to save B. how to save C. on how to save D. with how to save
IV. Supply the correct forms of the words in brackets. (1 mark)
1.Fifty years ago, my home twon was very small. Now it has turned in to an ......... city.
( INDUSTRY )
2. Islam is the ...................... religion of Malaysia. ( OFFICE )
3. Do you have to pay any ............ charge for the use of the swimming pool? ( ADD )
4. The old theatre of our city is being .............. and .............. ( LARGE/ MODERN )
V. There is one mistake in each of the following sentences. Find and correct it. (2 marks)
1. During The Second World War, almost a third of a million people was killed.
2. It was raining heavy when I woke up yesterday morning.
3. Doctors have known for a long time that loud noises can cause hear damage or loss.
4. Streets of Bangkok are usually crowding with people selling food, clothing, flowers and souvenirs.
5. It often takes my mom half an hour getting to work by underground every morning.
6. Found in the 12th century, Oxford University ranks among the world’s oldest ones.
7. Mr. Brown isn’t in his own car, he is driving someone else car.
8. The homeworks that your teacher assigned is due on Tuesday unless you have made prior
arrangements to turn it in late.
9. He started working as an editor 10 years ago but now he knows as a famous MC.
10. In icy winter days, I prefer being driven to driving myself.
SECTION C: READING COMPREHENSION ( 6 MKS )
VI. Read the passage below and choose the best answer from A, B, C, or D. (2 marks)
If we took a look at how people in Europe communicated just one hundred years ago, we
would be very surprised to find out that English was hardly used outside the United Kingdom. The
language most commonly used between people of different nationalities, and particularly the
aristocracy, was French. In fact, French was the language of diplomacy, culture and education.
However, that is not the case nowadays. English has replaced French as the international language
of communication. Today, there are more people who speak English as a second language than
people who speak it as a first language.
There are many reasons why English has become the language of international
communication. Britain’s colonization of many parts of the world had something to do with it, but it
is mainly due to America’s rise to the position of major world power. This helped spread popular
American culture throughout the world bringing the language with it.
But is it good that English has spread to all parts of the world so quickly? Language
specialists seem to be divided over this issue. There are those who claim that it is important to have
a language that the people in our increasingly globalized world have in common. According to
others, English is associated with a particular culture and therefore promotes that culture at the
expense of others. Linguists have suggested “Esperanto”, an artificially put-together language, as a
solution to international communication problems but without success. So English will continue
being the world language until some other language, maybe Chinese, which is the most widely-
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spoken native language in the world, takes over as the world’s international language instead of
English.
1. According to the passage, a century ago ___________ .
A. educated people throughout Europe spoke English. B. foreign travelers to England spoke
only French.
C. French was much more popular than English. D. only the French aristocracy
could speak English.
2. What is chiefly responsible for the growth in popularity of English?
A. Britain’s becoming an international power. B. The French losing many colonies.
C. American’s becoming powerful. D. The development of
American culture.
3. What is meant by “the language of diplomacy” (line 4)
A. The language used by ordinary people. B. The language used by the English
and the French.
C. The language used by the aristocracy. D. The language used by governments.
4. What is true according to the passage?
A. The linguists don’t like Esperanto. B. Esperanto is difficult to learn.
C. Esperanto is not a natural language. D. Esperanto is becoming more and
more popular.
5. The linguists’ opinion on the spread of English is___________ .
A. split B. positive C. negative D. undecided
6. The author believes that ___________ .
A. English is easier to learn than Chinese.
B. English will probably be replaced as an international language.
C. Chinese is going to be the next language of international communication.
D. Chinese is growing in popularity among non-native speakers.
7. These days ___________ .
A. French is the language of diplomacy. B. more non-natives speak English than
natives.
C. more people speak French than English. D. French is a dying language.
8. What would be a good title for this passage?
A. English in the future. B. English as an international language.
C. English language means English culture. D. English - a difficult language to learn.
VII. Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word. (2 marks)
TRAVELING
A hundred years ago, most people traveled on foot, by train, or on horseback. Railways made
(1) ______ possible to travel rapidly over long distances. (2) _____ were also becoming popular,
after the invention of the air - filled tire, which made cycling a lot more comfortable. Buses, trams
and underground railways (3) _____ invented, and cities all over the (4) _____ already had traffic
jams. There were very (5) ______ private cars and city streets were still full of horses.
What a difference a hundred years have made? Nowadays we have got used (6) _____ the
problem of private cars, and some cities are (7) _____ noisy and polluted that in many places
vehicles have been banned from the city center. (8) _____ will we travel in a hundred years’ time?
Perhaps by then there will be only personal helicopters. (9) ______may be no need to travel to work
or school in the future, since everyone will have a computer at home. There might even be more (10)
_____ walking and horse - riding, for pleasure and exercise.
VIII. Seven phrases/clauses have been removed from the following passage. Read the passage
and choose from the phrases/clauses A–H the one which fits each gap (1 – 6). There is one extra
phrase/clause which you do not need to use. Write your answer in the numbered boxes. There is
an example (0) ( 2 marks ).
TEST 23
SECTION I: PHONETICS
I. Choose the word (A, B, C or D) that has the underlined part pronunced differently from the
others in each group. (5 points)
1. A. oranges B. figures C. classes D. watches
2. A. garbage B. garage C. sewage D. carriage
3. A. now B. flow C. row D. know
4. A. missed B. closed C. called D. planned
5. A. fat B. any C. gas D. hat
II. Choose the word (A, B, C or D) whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others.
(2 points)
1. A. scissors B. object C. wardrobe D. transmit
2. A. answer B. begin C. refuse D. complain
SECTION II: VOCABULARY, GRAMMAR AND STRUCTURES
I. Choose the word or phrase that best complete each sentence.(15 points)
1. These flowers......................
A. smell good B. smells good C. smell well D. smells well
2. She ………..getting up early now.
A. didn’t use to B. is used to C. is using to D. used to
3. ______ he is rich and famous, he lives in a modest house in the village.
A. Because B. However C. Therefore D. Although
4. Bill Gates is probably the best known and most successful ______in computer software.
A. pioneer B. volunteer C. generator D. inventor
5. If you are a student, you can get 20 percent _______ in this shop.
A. discount B. effect C. selection D. resident
6. One hundred dollars ______________ an big amount of money for her.
A. is B. are C. were D. is being
7. Would you mind putting out your cigarette? ~ _____________
A. No, thanks. B. No, of course not C. No, I wouldn’t. D. No, I don’t.
8. Only one of ................ girls prefers ................ classical music to popular music.
A.the/X B.X/X C.the/the D.the/a
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9. I never eat ................ cheese. I don't like it!
A. a B. X C. some D. the
10. Staying in a hotel costs ................ renting a room in a domitory.
A. twice more thanB. twice as much as C. as much twice as D. as much as twice
11. Deaf-mutes can_______ speak_______ hear.
A. both/ and B. either/ or C. neither/ nor D. not only/ but also
12. The road _______ to the sea is very rough.
A. goes B. to go C. going D. is going
13. You _______ forget what I told you. It’s very important.
A. mustn’t B. needn’t C. don’t have to D. can’t
14. - Mary: “Is 11 o’clock alright?” - Tom: “______.”
A. Yes, that’s fine B. No, I don’t want to go
C. Wait a minute D. Sounds interesting
15. Mrs. Thanh: “______ you give the book to me, please?” - Mai: “Of course.” .
A. Will B. Shall C. Do D. Should
II. Supply the correct form of the verbs in brackets (10 points)
1. I ................. (read) the book you lent me, so you can have it back now.
2. My room ..................... (not clean) yet.
3. Neither my husband nor my children................. (meet) my uncle yet.
4. On the left ................(be) three paintings by Picasso.
5. Henry ...................(do) his homework when I came ?
6. I will never forget,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,, (see) the King.
7. People always........................ (blame) their circumstances for what they are.
8. "Where is Jane?" "Down stairs sir" ."She ...........(greet) the guests."
9. Two miles ...................(be) enough for her to go jogging every morning.
10. Fred would like .....................(admit) to the college.
III. Complete the following sentences with the new word formed from the ones in CAPITAL at
the end of each sentence. (8 points)
1. Vietnam declared its ________ on September 2nd, 1945. DEPEND
2. He cycled _________ and had an accident. CARE)
3. It is a good book because it is very _________ INFORM
4. In my city, there is always a serious ________ of water in summer. SHORT
5. Mr Huy is a very strict _______________. EXAM
6. My friend is very ______________. HELP
7. He is the most ____________ person in my family. SUCCESS
8. My brother often does experiments about electricity for…………….. PLEASE
IV.Fill in each blank with a suitable preposition(5 points).
1. She is thinking ................... importing flowers from Viet Nam ?
2. The canoe overturned and everyone fell ................. the deep water.
3. He accused me ....................stealing the money.
4. I write letters ....................... my right hand.
5.Because of the heavy storm, the ship moved up and ……………….….. the water.
SECTION III: READING
I. Read the following text then choose from the list A-F the best sentence to fill each of the
spaces. There is one extra sentence which you do not need. (5 pts)
I have recently become very worried about my 15-year-old son, Nick. Although he was
never brilliant at school, he used to get reasonable good marks. (1) ______.
He used to be such a good swimmer that he won several prizes. But now he has given up
training. And instead of neat clothes he used to wear, all he ever puts on is the same pair of shabby
of old jeans and a dirty sweatshirt.
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(2) ______. Nick was in the kitchen. The radio was so loud that he didn’t hear me come
behind him. My handbag was on the table. (3) ______.
We had a terrible row. Finally, he broke down and confessed everything. He has been going
every day to a big amusement arcade near his school and playing electronics games with nick
names like Space Warrior and Alien Invaders. I had always thought they were harmless. (4)
______.
He has promised he won’t go there again, but I think he’s too addicted to stop.
(5) ______. What can I do to help him?
A. But now I realize that he’s so hooked on them, he’ll even steal from his own mother in
order to pay for the habit.
B. Even if he wanted to, he couldn’t - and he doesn’t .
C. I often leave it there so that I won’t forget it when I go out.
D. He had taken some money out of it and was just about to put it in his pocket.
E. But that isn’t all. Last Sunday, I got up earlier than usual.
F. But now his work has become so bad that his teachers say he is just wasting his time
there.
answers: 1. _______ 2. _______ 3. _______ 4. _______ 5. ________
II: Read the text and choose the best answer ( A, B, C or D) to fill in each gap.(10 pts)
Can you imagine the world without colors? The world around us ( 1)…………..very
colorful. Life ( 2)……….. be very dull and grey if there were no color. People like to be surrounded
with colorful things. Many years ago, people (3)……………..to make themselves as colorful as the
things they ( 4)…………….. They did this by ( 5)……………patterns on their bodies and ( 6)
……………themselves. When they learned to make cloth to cover their bodies, they ( 7)
…………..to find ways and means of coloring it brightly. In time, they discovered the method of
( 8) their clothes. People (9)……………………..how to dye their clothes even before they knew
how to read or write. During that time, men did not know how to make dye, so they got their colors
from what they ( 10)…………….around them.
1. A. was B. has been C. is D. are
2. A. will B. should C. could D. would
3. A. wanted B. were wanted C. have wanted D. wanting
4. A. see B. have seen C. saw D. were seeing
5. A. make B. making C. made D. have made
6. A. paint B. to paint C. painted D. painting
7. A. try B. tried C. trying D. to try
8. A. dyed B. dye C. being dye D. dyeing
9. A. have known B. were knowing C. knew D. are known
10. A. could find B. can find C. should find D. must find.
III. Fill in each numbered blank with a suitable word. (10pts)
The city of Nha Trang is becoming ……..(1)…… popular .with the tourists in recent years.
Yet , with a population ……..(2)……. 300,000, Nha Trang still retains its small town atmosphere .
This resort town is ……..(3)……… for its miles of beach and the friendliness of its ……..(4)…… .
The city is flanked by nearly ten kilometers of prime beach ……..(5)……… the water is warm year
round. The ……..(6)……… temperature in Nha Trang is 260 C. Nha Trang has also lowest level of
humidity in all of Viet Nam. Today, Nha Trang ranks among the ……..(7)………. of all beaches
in Viet Nam. Nha Trang is 1,287km south ……..(8)………Ha Noi, 624km south of Hue and 442
km from Ho Chi Minh city (Saigon). Nha Trang ……..(9)……… several famous islands. The most
notable are Hon Tre, Hon Yen, Hon Rua ……..(10)……… the Spratly islands...
TEST 24
Section I: Pronunciation
I. Choose the word (A, B, C or D) that has the underlined part pronunced differently from the
others in each group. (3 points)
1. A. massage B. carriage C. voyage D. dosage
2. A. understand B. untill C. unusual D. underwater
3. A. angle B. face C. page D. angel
II. Choose the word (A, B, C or D) whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the
others. (2 points)
1. A. understand B. engineer C. benefit D. Vietnamese
2. A. money B. army C. afraid D. people
Section II: Vocabulary and Grammar
I: (15 points) Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best fits the blank space in each
sentence.
1. ……………the weather, …………..the rice grows.
A. The warm …the better B. The warmer …the better
C. Warm …better D. Warmer …better
2. It is a..........................from the hotel to the beach.
A. 5 minutes walk B. 5- minute walk
C. 5 minutes's walk D. all are correct.
3. We couldn’t help …………..when he told us what had happened.
A. laugh B. to laugh C. to be laughing D. laughing
4. When David came to Britain, he had to get used …………on the left.
A. driving B. to drive C. to driving D. drive
5. Paul didn't mind.............by his fortieth birthday party held by his friends.
A. surprising B. being surprised C. to surprise D. to be surprised
6. Peter hardly ever goes to parties, .................?
A. does he B. doesn't he C. has he D. hasn't he
7. Something funny...................in my class yesterday.
A. happened B. was happened C. happens D. is happened
8. If no one ……….to the plan, we will start work next week.
A. objects B. avoids C. minds D. argues
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9. The boy insisted ……………..seeing the horror film last night.
A. in B. at C. on D. for
10. He .............. have committed the crime because he was with me that day.
A. mustn't B. shouldn't C. won't D. couldn't
11. Nick, close the door, ………..?
A. will you B. won’t you C. do you D. don’t
12. It’s no use ………….a language if you don’t try to speak it too.
A. to learn B. learned C. learning D. learn
13. The woman ............... you saw last week is my secretary.
A. who B. whose C. whom D. the
14. Cuba is …………sugar-growing areas in the world.
A. one of the lager B. one of largest C. largest D. one of the largest
15. Don't forget ............... home as soon as you arrive at your.
A. to call B. calling C. having called D. to be called
II: Complete the sentences ( or exchanges) by supplying the correct form of the verbs in brackets (10
points).
1. Laura wishes that she (not live)........................in a small flat.
2. Don’t let him play with scissors in case he (cut) ………………..himself.
3. His parents never allowed him (smoke) …………………
4. Hardly I (arrive) ………..………..when a quarrel broke out.
5. When I got to the station, my pen pal (wait) ...................... for me.
6. We (make) .....................to work hard last week by the teacher.
7. Had he followed my advice before, he (not be) ………………..in danger now.
8. It’s high time that you (get) ………………..down to more serious work.
9. “Your guest already (come) …………………”. – “I know”.
10. I’m sure the letter won’t arrive in time unless it (send) ………….…….by air.
V: Use the correct form of the words in the brackets to complete the following sentences(10 points).
IV. Within 120-150 words, write about one of the memories in your childhood which you’ll
never forget(8 points).
TEST 25
A. PHONETICS
I. Choose one word whose underlined part is pronounced differently. ( 5 x 0,2 = 1,0pt)
1. A. campus B. lunar C. Buddhism D. ruler
2. A. raised B. coughed C. closed D. ploughed
3. A. although B. enough C. cough D. laugh
4. A. hour B. honor C. honesty D. history
5. A. types B. writes C. misses D. likes
II. Choose one word that has main stress is different from the other. ( 3 x 0,2 = 0,6pt)
6. A. directory B. assistant C. tradition D. demonstrate
7. A. arrange B. countless C. conduct D. device
8. A. socket B. scissors C. safety D. include
C. READING
I. Fill in each numbered blank with a suitable word.
We move into our new house ( 46)…… a warm September day. It is not really a new house; it
was a hundred and four years ( 47)……………, but it was new to us. The house had running
( 48)…………….., gas and electricity, but for ( 49)………….reasons there was no electric light in
the kitchen. We had not noticed this shortage ( 50)……….. we had first looked over the house. It
was something quite unexpected: a house with electricity but ( 51 )……….a kitchen light. It was
especially puzzling because our ( 52)………….was a large room, perhaps (53)……lagest in the
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house. I telephoned for an ( 54)……………… He came and fixed it for us. And he charged $85 for
(55)………………… the job.
II. Choose the word or phrase which best fits each gap of the passage. (10 x 0,2 = 2,0 pts)
Asia is the biggest (56)…………in the world. From east to west, it (57)…………almost half way
around the globe, from north to south it spreads from the frozen Arcticto the sweltering, tropical
heat of Southeast Asia. All 17 of the world’s mountains over 8,000 m (26,246 ft) can (58)……in
Asia, as well as the largest and (59)………lakes-the Caspian Sea and the Lake Baikal.The world’s
first civilizations (60)………here, many of the most important inventions were made here, and all
the world’s major religions began here. Much of Asian (61)……….uninhabited, yet its 48 countries
are (62)…………to 3,672,342,000 people- more than half the world’s population. The (63)………
of oil in countries such as Saudi Arabia has made some people very rich, while many of those (64)
……live on the Indian subcontinent live in rural areas and are (65)……poor.
III.The people below all want to visit a museum. There are description of eight museums.
Decide which museum would be the most suitable for the following people. Write the correct
answer (A-F) next to the number.
66……………Cristina wants to visit a museum with her daughter to see how people used to live.
They want to have lunch there and buy some presents to take home. They will go by car.
67……………Joanne wants to visit a museum and see people making things. She has no car and
would like to have lunch there.
68……………Carl’s hobby is painting pictures, so he would like to see the work of other
painters who live in the area. He wants to have a snack at the museum. He travels by public
transport.
69……………Duncan wants to find out where local people worked in the past and what they did
in their spare time. He wants to buy a book about the exhibition. He travels by bus.
70……………The Cannavaro family want to walk around a site which offers opportunities for
the whole family to take part in activities. They want some where pleasant to eat their own
sandwiches. They have a car.
MUSEUM IN THE AREA
A. Charberth Museum is near the main bus station and has a rich collection of objects, 19th –
century paintings and photographs showings life in the town over the centuries- the jobs
people did and how they entertained themselves. An accompanying book showing the works
on display is available from the Museum Shop as well as some attractive gifts. There is no
café.
B. Fairley Museum is arranged like an old – fashioned village. You can see people working at
their trades to produce tools, pots and even boats using traditional skills. There is a small
picnic area in the car park but most people eat in the excellent café. The museum is on a bus
route.
C. Westerleigh Museum is near the bus station, and contains exhibitions showing the town’s
development. In a separate room there are works by some well- known artists as well as
changing exhibitions of work by local artists. Sandwiches, cakes and hot drinks are on sale
in the cafe.
C. WRITING
I. Rewrite each sentence so that it contains the word in capital and so that the meaning stays
the same:
71. I haven’t decided whether to move or not yet. ( MADE)
……………………………………………………………………………………..
72. Study hard or you can’t pass the exam. ( IF )
……………………………………………………………………………………………..
73. Although the team played well, they lost. ( IN SPITE OF)
……………………………………………………………………………………………
74.It was a two – hour flight from Hanoi to Ho Chi Minh city. ( FLY)
………………………………………………………………………………..
75. It is not a habit of mine to sleeping in the afternoon. ( SLEEPING)
…………………………………………………………………………………………
People do many different things to stay healthy. What do you do for good health? Use
specific reasons and examples to support your answer.
TEST 26
SECTION I: PHONETICS
I. Choose the word (A, B, C or D) that has the underlined part pronunced differently from the
others in each group. (5 points)
1. A. breath B. bathe C. mouths D. clothes
2. A. sacred B. crooked C. cursed D. stopped
3. A. longer B. singer C. younger D. stronger
4. A. rhinoceros B. ghost C. exhaust D. household
5. A. compulsory B. bus C. subject D. bury
II. Choose the word (A, B, C or D) whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others.
(2 points)
1. A. computer B. guarantee C. university D. education
2. A. lemonade B. picturesque C. Vietnamese D. Hinduism
SECTION II: VOCABULARY, GRAMMAR AND STRUCTURES
I. Choose the word or phrase that best complete each sentence.(16 points)
1. _________a famous personality has its advantages and its disadvantages.
A. To be B. Been C. Be D. Being
2. My father hasn’t had much_________with my family since he moved to New York.
A. connection B. contact C. business D. meeting
3. Would you mind not using your phone here? - _____________________
A. No, of course not. B. No, I’m afraid not.
C. No, I can’t. D. I’d rather you didn’t.
4. My neighbors made_________noise last night that I couldn’t get to sleep.
A. so many B. so much C. such D. so
5. Do you need any help? - _________
A. You’re welcome. B. Thanks, I don't need.
C. Yes, I need. D. That's very kind of you.
6. I like my uncle’s house. It is a _________ .
A. new beautiful house B. beautiful new house
C. beautiful house new D. new house beautiful
7. The team ________ by an experienced rice cook won the rice – cooking contest.
A. led B. leads C. leading D. lead
8. You will become ill_________ you stop working hard.
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A. if B.until C.when D. unless
9. Mary, as well as, David and Jane, ________ ready for the exam tomorrow.
A. is B. are C. will D. being
10.Nick, close the door, _____?
A. do you B. won’t you C. will you D. don’t
11.That's a nice coat, and the colour _____ you well.
A. matches B. fits C. agrees D. suits
12.A good student must know _____.
A. to study hard B. to be a good student
C. how to study effectively D. the way of efficiency in study
13. Yesterday, he told me _____________ this box until he came back.
A. didn’t open B. not to open C. to not open D. don’t open
14. Tuan said he ___________ Hoi An the following vacation.
A. would visit B. visited C. visits D. must visit
15. Can you deliver this letter _________hand?
A. by B. with C. in D. to
16. Jane and Jack stood in front of the mirror and looked at ___________.
A. themselves B. himself C. themself D. herself
II. Supply the correct form of the verbs in brackets (10 points)
1. My children enjoy_______ (allow)to stay up late when there is something special on TV.
2. The television ________(repair). It’s working now.
3. She _____(read) the book for over three days, and she_____(read) more than two hundred
pages.
4. A: "You (know) ______the man for many years?" B: Yes, we (be) _______ at school together.
5. She said that she_____ (phone) me this morning, but it’s now 12.00 and she ___(not phone) yet.
6. I was reading a newspaper while I (wait)_________ for the bus this morning.
7. You should practice (speak) _____________English every day.
III. Complete the following sentences with the new word formed from the ones in CAPITAL at
the end of each sentence. (8 points)
1.We were shocked at the news of his ______________ DIE
2. David Copperfield is a famous ________________ MAGIC
3. Minh’s listening skill is _________and she really needs to improve it. SATISFY
4._______is very important because it helps you practice the words more times. REVISE
5.Taxi drivers should have a very good __________ on the street names. KNOW
6. I think ………………….games are good for our health. DOOR
7. I am bored. I need some _______________ in my life. EXCITE
8. Are you a ____________ or are you living here? TOUR
SECTION III: READING
I: You are going to read a passage about The Battle of Dien Bien Phu. Five sentences or phrases
have been from the passage. Choose from the sentences A- G the one which fits each gap 1-5.
Remember that there are more sentences or phrases than needed. (5 points).
A. tourists can enjoy the beautiful scenery
B. You can see historical evidences here.
C. and share the hospitability of the local people.
D. Today Dien Bien Phu is a tourist destination.
E. there are many more interesting things in Dien Bien Phu.
F. an important trading center
G. who live in the area members
The Battle of Dien Bien Phu ended the Indochina War. ……(1) ….. . Many visitors are battle
veterans or members of their families. As well as visiting the battle site, …(2) ……. of the Muong
Thanh valley, visit the neighboring villages, …(3)….
Most of the people …….(4) …….of the Thai or H’Mong ethnic minorities. However, they do
not depend on tourism alone to live. As Dien Bien Phu is only 30 kilometers from Laos border, it is
……(5)…….. Food leaves here for Laos and Thailand and goods arrive back to provide for the
northern provinces of Vietnam.
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II. Read the following passage carefully and then choose the words (A, B, C or D) that best
answer each of the questions about it. (5points)
THE BEATLES
In the 1960s, the Beatles were probably the most famous pop group in the whole world.
Since then, there have been a great many groups that have achieved enormous fame, so it is perhaps
difficult now to imagine how sensational The Beatles were at that time. They were four boys from
the north of England and none of them had any training in music. They started by performing and
recording songs by black Americans and they had some success with these songs. Then they started
writing their own songs and that was when they became really popular. The Beatles changed pop
music. They were the first pop group to achieve great success from songs they had written
themselves. After that it became common for groups and singers to write their own songs. The
Beatles did not have a long career. Their first hit record was in 1963 and they split up in 1970. They
stopped doing live performances in 1966 because it had become too dangerous for them - their fans
were so excited that they surrounded them and tried to take their clothes as souvenirs! However,
today some of their songs remain as famous as they were when they first came out. Throughout the
world many people can sing part of a Beatles song if you ask them.
1. The passage is mainly about
A. How the Beatles became more B. Why the Beatles split up after 7 years
successful than other groups
C. The Beatles’ fame and success D. Many people’s ability to sing a Beatles song
2. The four boys of the Beatles
A. Came from the same family B. Were at the same age
C. Came from a town in the north of England D. Received good training in music
3. The word “sensational” is closest in meaning to
A. Notorious B. Bad C. Shocking D. Popular
4. The first songs of the Beatles were
A. Written by themselves B. Broadcast on the radio
C. Paid a lot of money D. Written by black American
5. What is not true about the Beatles?
A. The members had no training in music B. They had a long stable career
C. They became famous when they wrote D. They were afraid of being hurt by fans
their own songs
III: Read the text and choose the best answer ( A, B, C or D) to fill in each gap.(10 pts)
Dear Nga,
I’ve just returned from a four-day trip to Da Lat. It’s my parents’ reward for my __1__
result in the last school year. The trip was very interesting and I’m eager __2__ you about it.
My parents and I stayed in a small hotel __3__ Xuan Huong lake. Walking around the lake and
enjoying the __ 4__ cool air, we felt very comfortable. Da Lat has __ 5 __ interesting places such as
Cam Ly fall, Bao Dai palace and Cu hill. The weather was rather cold __6__ night and in the early
morning, but it was cool during the day. The __7__ was excellent there and we enjoyed a lot of
vegetables and fruits. Returning home from Da Lat, we all felt very __8__.
Did you go anywhere during this summer holiday? Write to me __9__ you have time. It would be
nice to __10__ about what you have been doing.
Love.
Huyen
1. A. bad B. good C. dangerous D. simple
2. A. tell B. telling C. to tell D. told
3. A. near B. next to C. by D. all are correct
4. A. fresh B. bad C. polluted D. dirty
5. A. many B. much C. a lot D. a little
6. A. in B. on C. at D. for
7. A. people B. restaurants C. food D. cinemas
8. A. health B. healthily C. healthiness D. healthy
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9. A. where B. when C. what D. which
10. A. listen B. meet C. watch D. hear
IV. Fill in each numbered blank with a suitable word. (8points)
Clothes can tell a lot about a person. Some people like very colorful clothes (1)__________
they want everyone to look at them and they want to (2)__________ the center of things. Other
people like to wear nice clothes, but their clothes are not colorful or fancy. They do not like people
to look (3)____________ them. Clothes today are very (4)__________from the clothes of the
1800s. One difference is the way they look. For (5)__________, in the 1800s, women wore dresses.
The dresses all had long skirts. But today, women do not always wear dresses (6)____________
long skirts. Sometimes they wear short skirts. Sometimes they wear pants. Another difference
(7)_______ 1800s and today is the cloth. In the 1800s, the clothes (8)___________made only from
natural kinds of cloth. They were made from cotton, wool, silk or linen. But today, there are many
kinds of manmade cloth. A lot of clothes are now made from nylon or polyester.
V: Each of the following sentence is the first sentence for one of the given paragraphs. Decide
which paragraph belongs with each sentence. Write the letter of the paragraph in the space
below.(3 points)
____(1)_____. Edison began to work at an early age and continued to work until his death. During
his career, Edison had more than 1,000 inventions including the electric light, the phonograph, and
the motion- picture camera. People called the period from 1879 to 1900, when Edison produced and
perfected most of his devices, the Age of Edison.
___(2)______. The telephone that Alexander G. Bell invented in 1876 could not work over
distances of more than 3 to 5 kilometers. After hundreds of experiments, Edison improved the
telephone so that it could carry speech clearly over long distances. In March 1878 Edison’s
telephone system connected New York city to Philadelphia, Penylvania, a distance of 172 km.
___(3)______. He focused on his work so much that he spent little time with his family. He avoided
most social situations, and often wore dirty and working clothes.
A. Thomas Alva Edison (1847 – 1931) is one of the greatest inventors of all time.
B. Throughout his career as an inventor, Edison was well- known for his focus and
determination.
C. One of Edison’s achievements was the improvement on the telephone.
SECTION IV: WRITING
I. There is ONE mistake in each sentence. Find and correct it: (8 points)
1. Hoa is a hard-work student who always gets good grades
2. Mr. Hung said you could reach him by 3 864 123.
3. Mr. Ha asked me if I can play volleyball.
4. She used to live here since she was twelve.
5. We will have a seven-days trip to the country next vacation.
6. He was boring when he heard the news.
7. The house will be decorating for the New Year.
8. Would you mind if I borrow your pen?
I. Use given words to rewrite the second sentence that has the meaning unchanged(5 points)
1. I got up early this morning so that I could catch the first bus.
I got ________________________________________________________.
2. “Shut the door”, he said to me.
He _________________________________________________________.
3. Nobody in my class is as intelligent as Margret.
Margret is ___________________________________________________.
4. The only way you can become a good athlete is by training hard every day.
Only by _____________________________________________________.
5.It’s a long time since I last spoke to her.
I have _______________________________________________________.
II. Use the words to write the second sentence in such a way that it is as similar as possible in
meaning to the original sentence. Do not change the form of the given words(5points)
1. I started studying English three years ago.(for)
……………………………………………………………………….......................
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2. He wrote the letter in two hours. (took)
..............................................................................................................................
3. If I don’t leave now, I’ll miss the train. (unless)
...............................................................................................................................
4. It’s a pity he doesn’t take the docter’s advice. (wish)
...............................................................................................................................
5. “How can I operate this machine?” asked the man. (wanted)
................................................................................................................................
III. Nowadays, our environment is being polluted seriously. Please write a passage of more than
120 words to show the main reasons that polluting the environment and suggest some solutions
to keep our environment unpolluted.
TEST 27
A. PHONETICS:
I. Find out and circle the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from those
of the others.
1. A. of B. coffee C. off D. wife
2. A. relaxes B. watches C. misses D. lives
3. A. opened B. closed C. contained D. finished
II. Pick out and circle the word whose main stress is different from those of the others.
41. Children should not be allowed to watch the lately film on TV when they have to get up early
for school. ->………..............
42. They who arrive early will get the best selection of seats. ->…….……...….
43. Either my sister or the neighbors is looking after the dog. ->……….……….
44. The progress made in space travel for the early 1960s was remarkable. -> ………………
45. There was a very interesting news on the radio this morning about the earthquake in Italy.
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->……….………
46. The person sits next to me is someone I’ve never met. ->………………
47. This is our new employee. Will you show him how sending a fax? ->…..………….
48. They asked me what did happen last night, but I was unable to tell them. ->…………...…
49. Each student studying chemistry have to spend at least three hours per week in the laboratory.
->…………….…
50. The little boy’s mother bought him a five speeds racing bicycle for his birthday.
->……...
V. Put the verbs in brackets in the correct forms.
51. The door to this room (shut)……………………………………..……..since Monday.
52. Terance and Alice (water)………………….when they suddently heard an alarm going off.
53. You shouldn’t get Jack (type)………………………………..this letter, he’s a careless man.
54. The money (steal)……………………………..in the robbery was never found.
55. My boss is angry with me. I didn’t do all the work that I (do)……………………last week.
C. READING COMPREHENSION
I. Choose the word or phrase to fill each of the blanks to make a meaningful passage.
A TRADITIONAL WEDDING
Everybody loves a good wedding and I’m no exception. I’ve been to a load of them in my native
Britain and I must say that I usually have a great time. I’ve also been to a few abroad, including the
Caribbean and Spain, and most recently (last week in fact) to one in the mountains of Sardinia. No
two weddings are ever the same and I really enloyed this one for one or two of the differences from
those in the UK.
First, the two families spent at least three weeks before the big day preparing all the food, from
wonderful home-made delicacies to simple traditional breads and pastas. In my experience, in the
UK that onerous task is left to the caterers! In the week leading up to the wedding there is a dinner
or some forms of celebration every day- training for stomach I guess. I know that we have the
traditional Bachelor party and Bachelorette party, but this is more family orientated and certainly a
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little less rowdy. This particular ceremony was in a beautiful country church and afterwards the
couple were driven to the reception in a wonderfully decorated classic Fiat 500, which was really
similar to what happens in the UK, even down to the string of tin cans trailing behind the car!
The reception itself was also very similar until I realized that the seven tables in the hall each sat
sixty guests (that’s four hundred and twenty, for those of you who didn’t study Math), an average
number for Sardinia but would be considered a very large wedding where I’m from.
The wine flowed, as did the chatter – the famous Italian exuberance showing itself to the full. There
were the five or six courses of wonderful food, screaming kids running wild, the ceremonial cutting
of the cake by the bride and groom – but no speeches! Not one. In the Uk it’s traditional for the
father of the bride to propose a toast. Followed by the groom and finishing up with that of the best
man. His is meant to be the highlight of the lunch/ dinner, generally having a good laugh at the
groom’s expense, but here the groom was spared that particular discomfort.
Instead there was a delightful custom which I’d never seen before, in which six or seven of the male
guests pass round the hall banging trays, drums, pots, pans or basically anything that makes a
horrendous noise, selling pieces of the groom’s tie which has been cut into tiny bits. The money
raised is then given to the happy (!)couple to help them set up their new life together. Really nice.
Finally, the evening saw a lot of traditional dancing, a little disco dancing and some karaoke. Pretty
much the part I like best, and again I wasn’t disappointed. Can’t wait for the next one.
II. Rewrite each sentence so that it contains the word in capitals and so that the meaning
stays the same.
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1. People say that the couple are living in London. (SAID)
-> ……………………………………………………………………………………….……..
2. “Can I borrow your calculator?” Mandy said. (IF)
-> ……………………………………………………………………………………………..
3. It is difficult for me to read without my glasses. (FIND)
->………………………………………………………………………………………………
4. Unless he changes his way of living, he’ll meet a lot of troubles. (IF)
-> …………………………………………………………………………………………….
5. It’s over six months since Long last had his hair cut. (FOR)
-> ……………………………………………………………………………………………..
III. In about 200 words, write about advantages and disadvantages of television.
TEST 28
SECTION I: PHONETICS
I. Choose the word (A, B, C or D) that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the
others in each group. (5 points)
1. A. artificial B. distance C. centre D. cells
2. A. many B. lamb C. handle D. camera
3. A. houses B. classes C. sentences D. faces
4. A. nurse B. bury C. hurt D. curly
5. A. teenage B. luggage C. image D. damage
II. Choose the word (A, B, C or D) whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others.
(2 points)
1. A. suggest B. freedom C. recent D. sticky
2. A. predict B. cover C. resource D. replace
SECTION II: VOCABULARY, GRAMMAR AND STRUCTURES
I. Choose the word or phrase that best complete each sentence.(20 points)
1. Buy me a dozen of eggs on the way back, __________?
A. will you B. may you C. do you D. can you
2. “Who has brothers and sisters?”“Everyone ________Virginia who’s an only child.”
A. except to B. with C. from D. but
3. Florida, ________ the Sunshine State, attracts many tourists every year.
A. is B. is known as C. known as D. that is known as
4. We wish you both- health and longevity.
A. long life B. happy life C. easy life D. exciting life
5. The whole family usually tries to get together at Christmas.
A. contact B. gather C. relate D. communicate
6. I always get to work before ________ else.
A. anyone B. someone C. everyone D. no one
7. I hope _______ will be comfortable here. We try to make each guest feel at home.
A. anyone B. someone C. everyone D. no one
8. –“Do you think you’ll get the job? –“____________.”
A. Yes, that’s right B. I think not C. I know so D. Well, I hope so
9. –“Happy Christmas!” –“____________.”
A. The same to you! B. Happy Christmas with you!
C. You are the same! D. Same for you!
10. –“Thank you very much for a lovely party.” –“______________.”
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A. Cheers B. Thanks C. Have a good day
D. You are welcome
11. It's a good idea to see your doctor regularly for _____.
A. a revision B. a control C. an investigation D. a check-up
12. The crowd at a football match are often _____.
A. excite B. excited C. exciting D. excitement
13. If it's raining tomorrow, we shall have to_____ the match till Sunday.
A. put off B. cancel C. play D. put away
14. Although they are twins, they don’t look __________.
A. similarly B. after C. like D. alike
15. It won’t ________ matter if you arrive a few minutes late.
A. greatly B. largely C. grandly D. considerably
16. ________ I am aware, there were no problems during the first six months.
A. So much as B. As far as C. Much more than D. Except that
17. We usually write to each other ………
A. every two weeks B. every week twice C. two every week D. none is correct
18. ……… interested in that subject, I would try to learn more about it.
A. Should I B. I was C. If I am D. Were I
19. She ______ her difficulties to graduate.
A. overcame B. got C. passed D. saw
20. I’m really angry with her. She is always ________ so to me.
A. says B. saying C. to say D. says
II. Supply the correct form of the verbs in brackets (6 points)
1. Peter: Where is Paul? Nam: I (not see) .................him today.
2. He died of cancer last year. He must (smoke) ...................a lot.
3. By the time you receive this letter, I (leave) ..................for Japan.
4. The man (sit)............... next to me was nervous because he (not fly).................... before.
5. Were I to know the answer, I (tell) .....................you right away.
III. Complete the following sentences with the new word formed from the ones in CAPITAL at
the end of each sentence. (8 points)
1.Tim is one of the ............................ on a boat trip on Lake Michigan. PARTICIPATE
2. It is............................ to eat too much sugar and fat. HEALTH
3. If she can make up such stories, she is certainly a very ................................girl. IMAGINE
4. Tell me some ................................. between these two pictures. SIMILAR
5. The consumers want products that will work .................and save money. EFFECT
6. Stop, Nam! It’s .......................to be near the stove. DANGER
7. He took the job to be ..................independent. FINANCE
8. Some people claim to be able to .............................. the future. TELL
IV.Fill in each blank with a suitable preposition(6 points).
1. He has a new solution .................. the problem.
2. Nobody helped him. He managed it ..................his own.
3 The drivers ..................London kept their cars ..................the left.
4. The children were amazed ..................the lion show at the circus.
5. Her small garden looks very beautiful in spring because all the flowers are ..........full bloom.
SECTION III: READING
I. Read the following passage and choose the best answer from A, B, C or D.( 5 points)
Most people would agree that, although our age exceeds all previous ages in knowledge,
there has been no corresponding increase in wisdom. But agreement ceases as soon as we attempt to
define “wisdom” and consider means of promoting it.
There are several factors that contribute to wisdom. Of there I should put first a sense of
proportion: the capacity to take account of all the important factors in a problem and to attach to
each its due weight. This has become more difficult than it used to be owing to the extent and
complexity of the special knowledge required of various kinds of technicians. Suppose, for
example, that you are engaged in research in scientific medicine. The work is difficult and is likely
to absorb the whole of your mind. You have no time to consider the effect which your discoveries
or inventions may have outside the field of medicine. You succeed (let us say) as modern medicine
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has succeeded, in enormously lowering the infant death-rate, not only in Europe and America, but
also in Asia and Africa. This has the entirely unintended result of making the food supply
inadequate and lowering the standard of life in the parts of the world that have the greatest
populations. To take an even more dramatic example, which is in everybody's mind at the present
time; you study the makeup of the atom from a disinterested desire for knowledge, and by chance
place in the hands of a powerful mad man the means of destroying the human race.
Therefore, with every increase of knowledge and skill, wisdom becomes more necessary, for
every such increase augments our capacity for realizing our purposes, and therefore augments our
capacity for evil, if our purposes are unwise.
1. Disagreement arises when people try to decide ______.
A. how much more wisdom we have now than before
B. what wisdom is and how to develop it
C. if there is a great increase of wisdom in our age
D. whether wisdom can be developed or not
2. According to the author, “wisdom” is the ability to ______.
A. carefully consider the bad effects of any kind of research work
B. give each important problem some careful consideration
C. acquire a great deal of complex and special knowledge
D. give suitable consideration to all the possible elements in a problem
3. Lowering the infant death-rate may ______.
A. prove to be helpful everywhere in the world
B. give rise to an increase in population in Europe
C. cause food shortages in Asia and Africa
D. raise the living standard of the people in Africa
4. The author uses the examples in the passage to illustrate his point that ______.
A. it's extremely difficult to consider all the important elements in problem
B. success in medical research has its negative effects
C. scientists may unknowingly cause destruction to the human race
D. it's unwise to be totally absorbed in research in scientific medicine
5. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. It is unwise to place the results of scientific research in the hands of a powerful mad man.
B. The more knowledge one has, the wiser one becomes.
C. Any increase of knowledge could lead to disastrous results without the guidance of
wisdom.
D. Wisdom increases in proportion to one's age.
II: Read the text and choose the best answer ( A, B, C or D) to fill in each gap.(10 pts)
SCHOOL LUNCH
Research has shown that over half the children in Britain who take their own lunches to
school do not eat (1) ......... in the middle of the day. In Britain schools have to (2) ......... meals at
lunchtime. Children can (3) ......... to bring their own food or have lunch at the school canteen.
One shocking finding of this research is that school meals are (4) ......... healthier than
lunches prepared by parents. There are strict standards for the preparation of school meals, which
have to include one portion of fruit and one of vegetables, as well as meat, a dairy item and starchy
food like bread or pasta. Lunchboxes (5) ......... by researchers contained sweet drinks, crisps and
chocolate bars. Children consume twice as much sugar (6) ......... they should at lunchtime.
The research will provide a better understanding of why the percentage of overweight
students in Britain has (7) ....... in the last decade. Unfortunately, the government cannot criticize
parents, but it can remind them of the (8) ....... value of milk, fruit and vegetables. Small changes in
their children’s diet can (9) ...... their future health. Children can easily develop bad eating (10) ......
at this age, and parents are the only ones who can prevent it.
1. A. appropriately B. properly C. probably D. possibly
2. A. give B. provide C. make D. do
3. A. prefer B. manage C. want D. choose
4. A. many B. much C. more D. less
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5. A. examined B. found C. taken D. investigated
6. A. so B. than C. as D. such
7. A. increased B. expanded C. extended D. added
8. A. positive B. healthy C. nutritional D. good
9. A. damage B. predict C. destroy D. affect
10. A. behaviors B. styles C. attitudes D. habits
III. Fill in each numbered blank with a suitable word. (10pts)
Are some people born clever and others born stupid? Or is intelligence developed by
environment or by experiences? Strangely enough the answer is that (1) ____ is given at birth, and
no amount of special education can make a genius out of a child born with low intelligence.
On the other (2)____ a child who lives in a boring environment will develop his intelligence less
than the (3) ____ who lives in rich and varied surroundings. Thus the limits (4) ____ a person’s
intelligence are fixed at birth, but (5) ____ or not he reaches those limits will depend (6) _______
his environment. This view now helped by most experts, can be supported in a number of ways.
It is easy to show that intelligence is something we are (7) ____ with. If we take two
unrelated people at random in the population, it is likely that (8) ______degrees of intelligence will
be completely (9) ____________. If on the other hand, we take two identical twins, they will very
likely be as (10) __________ as each other. This clearly suggests that intelligence depends on birth.
IV.These paragraphs or sentences ( A – H ) are not in a good order. Rearrange them into a good
order ( 1 – 8 ) to make it a logical meaningful passage( 8 points)
I. Anyone can try to make a drink which tastes similar to Coca-Cola. Chemists say that it
consists almost entirely of carbonated water and sugar.
J. In only a few years Coca-Cola became the national drink of the United States. The shape of
the famous bottle was invented in 1961. During the Second World War, American soldiers
drank three million bottles of Coca-Cola a day.
K. Coca-Cola was originally invented by John Pemberton, a pharmacist in Atlanta, Georgia. In
1886, he created a new kind of medicine to cure tiredness and headaches.
L. This helped spread the name and flavour of ‘ Coke’ all over the world .
M. Then a businessman bought Pemberton’s recipe for his creation. He did something to the
recipe and made a really refreshing drink that appealed to many people. Demand for the drink
grew.
N. But no one outside the Coca-Cola company has yet discovered what the ‘magic’ combination
of ingredients is, and a very few people- only seven, have ever known the secrete formula of
Coca-Cola. Only two of them are still alive today, so they never travel on the same aeroplane.
O. Today, nearly a hundred million bottles or cans are drunk every day, in one hundred and fifty-
five different countries.
P. It tasted so revolting that just about no one wanted to buy it. In the first year, Pemberton only
made $50 from his creation.
SECTION IV: WRITING
I. Use given words to rewrite the second sentence that has the meaning unchanged(5 points)
1. Susan was too excited to sleep.
Susan was ........................................................................
2. I’ve never met such a famous person before.
It’s .....................................................................................................
3. "Is Phong Nha cave in Quang Binh province?”, Jane said to her friend.
Jane asked ......................................................................................................
4. Hung’s friends gave him a lot of gifts on his last birthday.
Hung was ......................................................................................................
5. He started working as an actor ten years ago.
He has .....................................................................................................
II. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the
word given. You must use between 2 and 5 words, including the word given.(5 points)
1. The salesman said she was sorry she was late for the meeting. APOLOGIZED
The salesman ................................late for the meeting.
2. It will take us 3 years to complete the project. COMPLETED
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In three years’ time ................................the project.
3. The company felt sufficiently confident to take on over 100 new employees. ENOUGH
The company felt ................................over 100 new employees.
4. It is not necessary for you to carry the book – I’ll lend you mine. NEED
You ................................the book – I’ll lend you mine.
5. It is their duty to carry the luggage to the cabins. RESPONSIBLE
They ................................the luggage to the cabins.
III. It is said that television brings us both advantages and disadvantages. What do you think
about this statement? Write a passage of about 130 - 150 words to support your opinion (10
points).
TEST 29
SECTION I: PHONETICS
I. Choose the word (A, B, C or D) that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the
others in each group. (5 points)
1. A. tone B. shone C. bone D. alone
2. A. cholera B. character C. mechanic D. charity
3. A. houses B. horses C. rises D. closes
4. A. gift B. get C. game D. gentle
5. A. cough B. though C. laugh D. rough
II. Choose the word (A, B, C or D) whose main stress pattern is not the same as that
of the others. (2 points)
1. A. cartoon B. western C. teacher D. theatre
2. A. eleven B. yesterday C. attitude D. evening
SECTION II: VOCABULARY, GRAMMAR AND STRUCTURES
I. Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best complete each sentence.(20 points)
1. Tom is ...................younger than Jane.
A. very B. many C. quite D. much
2. Of the two drivers, Mr Blake is very experienced and .................
A. the others are not B. the other is not C. another is not D. other is not
3. Either you or Daisy ................. the vase.
A. has broken B. have broken C. has been broken D. have been broken
4. Nobody will go there, …... ?
A. will he B. won’t he C. will they D. won’t they
5. I don’t remember ...................... this machine. Can you show me how?
A. however B. to operate C. how to operate D. whatever
6. You can stay here ……… you don’t make a loud noise.
A. as much as B. as long as C. as soon as D. as far as
7. ……… interested in that subject, I would try to learn more about it.
A. Should I B. I was C. If I am D. Were I
8. Jack’s shoes are very dirty . They need ..............
A. cleaning B. cleaner C. to clean D. clean
9. We lived in that ................ on the corner.
A. old house brick small C. small old brick house
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B. brick small old house D. house brick small old
10. The government should do something to help.....................
A. the poors B. the poor ones C. poor D. the poor
11. Ellen: “....................?” ~ Tom: “He’s tall and thin with blue eyes.”
A. How is John doing B. What does John like
C. What does John look like D. Who does John look like
12. His house looks very large and beautiful. It is ...................house.
A. a seven-room B. a seven-rooms C. seven room D. seven rooms
13. Her marriage has been arranged by her parents. She is marrying a man ........................ .
A. she hardly knows him B. whom she hardly know him
C. she hardly knows D. All are correct
14. In ........................ 22nd SEA Games, Vietnam won ........................ 158 gold medals.
A. Ø/ the B. the/ Ø C. a/ the D. the/ the
15. ............. Paul brings the money for lunch, we’ll go right down to the cafeteria.
A. Since B. As soon as C. Now that D. Until
16. I have to be present at eight o’ clock and so ...................... .
A. are you B. have you C. do you D. you do
17. Would you please …………………… write on the test book.
A. don’t B. not to C.not D. to not
18. The number of the cars……………risen.
A. is B. are C.have D.has
19. I slept badly last night. The noise of the traffic kept me……………..
A. awake B. wake C. waken D. awaken
20. We hire our bicycle……………………
A. by hours B. by an hour C. by the hour D. for hours
II. Supply the correct form of the verbs in brackets (10 points)
1. He (not finish)............... his work yet. He only started an hour ago.
2. A lot of people (kill) ............by AIDS recently, and I wish nobody would die any more.
3. George as well as his brothers (not go)............... to the cinema very often.
4. Listen! I think someone (knock) ..................... at the door.
5. You shouldn’t get John (type) ....................this report, he’s a careless man.
6. When I met him at the bookstore, he ( talk)…………… to his friends
7. I remembered (lock)……………….. the door last night before I went to bed
8. People always (blame) ……………………….their circumstances for what they are.
9. She locked the door so as (not disturb) ……… ...................………………………..
10. I was just about (leave) ……………………...………the office when the phone rang.
III. Complete the following sentences with the new word formed from the ones in CAPITAL at
the end of each sentence. (8 points)
1. Our school has a lot of ………………………….. ……teachers. QUALIFY
2. We could see some strange……………………………….. on her face. EXPRESS
3. There are many people living in …………………………..now in the world. POOR
4. Environmental…………………………....is everybody’s responsibility. PROTECT
5. The scientists have ................................ predicted the direction of the storm. SUCCESS
6. His ............................. words were whispered into his wife’s ear. DIE
7. Mai was a much less …………….student than her sister . INDUSTRY
8. She,s got a job as a ………….of a dress shop. MANAGE
IV. Fill in each blank with a suitable preposition(5 points).
1. “Have you ever been ………… Borle?” “No, I’ve never heard ...........it?”
2. There has been a big increase ……………. the price of land recently.
3. Is Nurse Smith ................ duty tonight?
4. It’s typical .............Jim to forget his keys.
SECTION III: READING
TEST 30
Part A: PHONETICS
I. Choose the underlined part is pronounced differently from of the others.
1. A. environment B . recycle C . dynamite D . littering
2. A. provide B . fork C . faucet D . shore
3. A. scheme B . mechanic C . machine D . chemistry
4. A. beach B . instead C . clean D . leave
5. A. mixed B . raised C . realized D . widened
II. Choose the words whose stress pattern isn’t the same as that of the others.
1. A. environment B . pollution C . recycle D . volunteer
2. A. treasure B . pesticide C . provide D . valuable
3. A. precious B . conservation C . unpolluted D . disappointed
4. A. ordinary B . require C . attitude D . suitable
5. A. intelligent B . influential C . traditional D . available
II. Fill in the blank with the correct form of the word in capitals.
1. He is a top ……………… working on our space project. SCIENCE
2. In some areas water has to be boiled to ………………. PURE
3. Reading a newspaper is an ………………… way of keeping informed. EFFECT
4. It’s very important to get a good …………….. in order to find a job. EDUCATE
5. She became a ………................ singer after many years of hand work. SUCCESS
6. He couldn’t give a ………………… explanation for his actions. SATISFY
7. Have you got some kind of ……………….. on you. IDENTIFY
8. It was very ………………… of him to steal that money. HONEST
9. We have a lot of ………. from customers today. COMPLAIN
10. Traveling in big city is becoming more ………. everyday. ATTRACT
III. Find and correct the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correcting.
1. Most Americans would not be happy without a color television, two cars, and
A B C
working at an extra job.
D
2. The leader emphasized the need for justice and equality between his people.
A B C D
3. John is one of the most intelligent boys of the science class.
A B C D
4. When harder she tried, the worst she danced before the large audience.
A B C D
5. It is difficult to get used to sleep in a tent after having a soft, comfortable bed to lie on.
A B C D
IV. Give the correct tense/form of the verbs in brackets to complete these sentences.(20 points)
Last week I (1.walk) ............ home after playing tennis when it (2. start)................ raining
very heavily. "Oh, no. I (3.get) ................ soaked before I (4. reach).................home." I thought " I
wish I (5. remember) ................ to bring my raincoat." But unfortunately I (6. leave) .................... it
at home. " How stupid of me! I always (7. get) ............... to bring it with me." Luckily just then a
friend of mine passed in her car and offered me a lift. "(8. You go) .................. home? she asked
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me, "or (9. you want) ................... to go for a drink?" " I think I'd rather you (10. take) ................
me home." I said.
Part C: READING
I. Read the following passage and choose the best answer from A, B, C or D in order to fill
into blanks.
When you are driving abroad you should make sure that you have all your documents with
you. These (1) ………. your passport, your driving license and insurance papers. It (2) ………. be
very inconvenient if you (3) …………. any of these or if you can not find (4) ………… quickly.
You must also make sure that your car has a nationality plate which shows the country where the
car is registered; for (5) ………. , GB for Great Britain, F for France, N for Norway and so on.
In some (6) ……….. you have to pay if you don’t (7)……….. motoring laws and this can
sometimes cost you a lot of money. For instance, you may have to pay immediately if are stopped
by a police officer for taking no notice of traffic lights, speech (8) ……… or of you allow children
(9) ………. the age of twelve to (10) …………. in front seat of a vehicle.
1. A. include B . make C . mean D . contain
2. A. should B . can C . is D . has
3. A. miss B . hide C . lose D . pass
4. A. that B . those C . their D . them
5. A. once B . example C . general D . fact
6. A. countries B . positions C . ways D . route
7. A. do B . allow C . obey D . continue
8. A. marks B . spots C . limits D . numbers
9. A. under B . lower C . over D . behind
10. A. follow B . pass C . wait D . travel
II. Find a suitable word to complete the following passage.
The British Museum library is (1)………. of the largest libraries in the world. It has a copy
of every book (2)……… is printed in the English language, so that there are more than six million
books (3) ………… . They receive nearly two thousands books and papers every day. The British
Museum library has a very big (4) ……….. of printed books and manuscripts (5) ………… they
keep in glass cases. You can also find there some of the first books printed by Caxton. Caxton was
the printer (6) ……… lived in the fifteenth century. He made the first press in England. In the
reading room of the British Museum library many famous great men have read and studied. You
know that V.I Lenin visited London several times (7) ……….. he lived in London. He spent a lot of
time in the British Museum library. Another great man was Karl Max who (8) ………. works which
have had the greatest influence (9) ………….the politics of the modern world. Charles Dickens, a
very popular English writer and the (10) ……… of many interesting books spent a lot of time in
the British Museum library.
III. Read the following passage and choose the best option to finish each of the sentences
below.
Rice is a kind of grass. There are more than seven kinds of rice. Most kinds are water plants.
Farmers grow rice in many countries even in the southern part of the United States and in Eastern
Australia. No one really knows where rice comes from. Some scientists think it started to grow in
two places. They think that one kind of rice grew in Southern Asia thousands of years ago.
Someone in China wrote about it almost five thousand years ago. Another kind probably grew in
West Africa. Other scientists think rice came from India, and India travelers took it to other parts of
the world. There are two main ways to grow rice. Upland rice grows in dry soil. Most rice grows in
wet soil. People in many countries do all of the work by hand. This is the same way farmers worked
hundreds of years ago. Some countries now use machines on their rice farm. The farmers all use
fertilizer. Some insects are enemies of rice. Farmers poison them.
Questions:
1. Rice is a kind of …………….
A . tree B . plant C . flower D . animal
2. Some scientists think that rice started to grow in two places: ………………..
A . Southern Asia and B . China and West C . India and China D . Southern Asia and
America Africa West Africa
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3. Down land rice grows in …………………………..
a . dry land B . hard soil C . wet soil D . soft soil
4. Enemies of rice are ……………………..
A . fertilizer B . machine C . insects D . poison
5. “ Farmer poison them” means …………………..
A . they kill insects B . they feed insects C . they die of insects D . they help insects
Part D: WRITING
I. Rewrite each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the
sentence printed before it.
1. He was always late, so he lost his job.
He lost ………………………………………………………………………………….
2. Driving fast is dangerous, whether you are an experience driver.
However …………………………………………………………………………………
3. She doesn’t usually stay up late.
She is not …………………………………………………………………………………..
4. He tried to escape but the police stopped him.
The police prevented ………………………………………………………………………
5. They last visited me five years ago.
They haven’t ……………………………………………………………………………….
6. I would love to live in Paris for a year.
If only ………………………………………………………………………………………
7. “ It certainly wasn’t me who took your car.” said Bob.
Bob denied …………………………………………………………………………………
8. The last time it rained was a fortnight ago.
It ……………………………………………………………………………………………
9. He speaks more persuasively than her brother.
He is a …………………………………………………………………………………
10. Mary told the police about the burglary.
Mary reported ………………………………………………………………………………
II. Use the following word and phrases to make meaningful sentences.
1..His father/ work/ an engineer/ since 1990.
………………………………………………………………………………………………
2. My aunt/ go/ theater/ every week/ because she/ fond / play.
……………………………………………………………………………………………..
3. He wishes/ pass/ examination/ last year.
…………………………………………………………………………………………….
4. If you/ learn/ your lesson carefully yesterday/ not get bad marks.
……………………………………………………………………………………………..
5. What/ you often/ do/ you/ have/ nothing/ do?
………………………………………………………………………………………………
III. The ao dai is the traditional dress of Vietnamese women. Describe the ao dai and write why
you think Vietnamese women should wear it on special occasions. (over 120 - 150words)
TEST 31
A. PHONETICS
I. Select A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose bold and underlined part is pronounced
differently from the rest.
1. A. good B. mood C. noon D. pool
2. A. music B. student C. use D. study
3. A. thank B. month C. within D. eigth
4. A. whisper B. whistle C. who D. why
5. A. chapter B. chemist C. cheese D. rich
6. A. feather B. heat C. meat D. seat
7. A. missed B. worked C. hated D. watched
8. A. cow B. brown C. how D. grow
9. A. third B. fire C. first D. sir
10. A. relaxes B. watches C. misses D. lives
II. Select A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose stress position is different from
the rest. (1m)
11. A. morning B. college C. arrive D. famous
12. A. writer B. teacher C. builder D. career
13. A. attend B. option C. rely D. become
14. A. television B. environment C. activity D. geography
15. A. eleven B. yesterday C. attitude D. demomstrate
B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR
I. Choose the best option A, B, C or D to complete the following sentences.(2ms)
16. You have plenty of time to finish your breakfast. There _________ any school
today.
A. doesn’t be B. aren’t C. not being D. isn’t
17. They told me that he _________ a lot of money in his job the year before.
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A. had earned B. is earning C. earns D. would earn
18. It is no good _______ him to see you off.
A. to expect B. expecting C. of expecting D. for him to expect
19. Please go on to the _______ exercise when you have finished this one.
A. all B. other C. either D. every
20.The weather is very cold during our vacation now. I wish it _________ warmer.
A. is B. were C. will be D. had been
21. The shops are always ____________ of people at Christmas time.
A. full B. stuffed C. busy D. crowded
22. How many photographs of the Sydney Opera House _________ every year?
A. are taken B. take C. takes D. is taken
23. Miss Anna, as well as some of her friends, __________working in this school
for ten years .
A. have started B. has started C. has been D. have been
24. Jennifer lives in a small apartment _________ the ground floor.
A. under B. by C. in D. on
25. When ________ the last time Mr. and Mrs. Green __________ you?
A. were / visited B. was/ visited C. did /visit D. has /visited
II. Complete the following sentences with a suitable preposition for each. (1m)
26. The problem is becoming serious. We have to do something ______ it.
27. I prefer this chair ________ the other one. It’s more comfortable.
28. “Have you ever been ______ Borle?” “No. I’ve never heard about it?”
29. What have you done with the money you had? What did you spend it _________?
30. Don’t ask me to decide anything. I’m not very good __________ making a decision.
III. Fill the blanks with the right form of the CAPITAL words provided. (2ms)
31. You must not be _____________ when you open that glass door. CARE
32. ______________claim that the virus among seals was caused by pollution. ENVIRONMENT
33. Luckily, Jame received a lot of ________ from her teachers and friends. COURAGE
34. Using electricity is not an __________ way of cooking. Gas is much cheaper. ECONOMY
35. Thousands of people were made ________ by the earthquake in Japan. HOME
36. The love for books is helpful in _______ the pupils’knowledge. DEVELOP
37. Since its ___________, television has attracted millions of viewers. INVENT
38. My favorite form of _________ is playing the guitar. ENTERTAIN
39. I really think he has enough ___________ to do this job. CAPABLE
40. This professor explained his ideas with great _______ CLEAR
IV. Complete the sentences with the right form of the verbs given in brackets. (1m)
41. Her youngest brother (offer) ______________ a new job a year ago.
42. You won’t know what to do unless you (listen)__________ to these instructions carefully.
43. I am having my car (repair)____________at the garage at the moment.
44. You shouldn’t get John (type) _________ this report because he’s a careless man.
45. London is said (have) ____________ a good underground train system.
C. READING COMPREHENSION
I. Complete the following passage by choosing A, B, C or D. (2ms)
We don’t only choose clothes to make us look ……..(46), we also use them to tell the world
……..(47) our personality. The clothes we wear and our ……..(48) as a whole give other people
useful information about what we think and……..(49) we feel. If we feel cheerful, we usually wear
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……..(50) clothes and if we feel ……..(51) we sometimes put on dark clothes. But why do
teenagers wear black so……..(52)? Is it because they feel miserable all ……..(53)? This is unlikely
to be the case. It is probably just because it is ……..(54) to wear black, and young people are real
fans of ……..(55).
46- A. attract B. attractive C. attractively D. attraction
47- A. of B. with C. by D. about
48- A. appear B. appearance C. appeared D. appearing
49- A. which B. what C. how D. when
50- A. colorful B. colors C. colorfully D. colorless
51- A. depress B. depressed C. depressing D. depression
52- A. frequent B. frequency C. frequently D. frequents
53- A. the time B. the day C. the week D. the month
54- A. fashion B. fashionable C. fashioner D. fashioned
55- A. fashion B. fashionable C. fashioner D. fashioned
II. Read the following passage and fill in the blank with one suitable word. (2ms)
Fire was very important to man. He needed fire to keep (56)………. warm at night. He used fire
to (57)……….. his food. He used fire to frighten (58)……… enemies and wild animals. In some
parts of the world he used fire to (59)………… messages. Red Indians, for example, used fire to
(60)………. smoke signals. In some other countries people lit fire to warm their friends of danger.
Fire was (61)……… used to give light. Before the invention of the oil lamp, men used burning
sticks as torches. And before man discovered gas (62)……….electricity, he hung small fires in wire
baskets from posts to light the streets. One man even used fire to tell the time. He (63)……….. a
candle clock. He made a candle that took exactly twelve hours to burn. Then he marked this candle
in twelve (64)…………… parts. He lit the candle and could tell the time by counting the number of
parts left of the burning candle. But the candle clock did not always work well. If there was a wind
(65)…………… on the candle, the flame burned too quickly.
III. Read the following passage and answer the questions by choosing A, B, C or D.
The countryside is more beautiful than a town and more pleasant to live in. Many people think
so, and go to the countryside for their summer holidays though they cannot live there all the year
round. Some have a cottage built in a village so that they can go there whenever they can find the
time.
English villages are not all alike, but in some ways they are not very different from one another.
Almost every village has a church, the round or square tower of which can be seen from many miles
away. Surrounding the church is the churchyard, where people are buried.
Moreover, each English village usually has its village green, which is a wide stretch of grass.
There are houses or cottages built around it. Country life is now fairly comfortable and many
villages have water pipes brought into each house. Most villages are so close to some small towns
that people can go there to buy what they can’t find in their village shops.
66. When do city people often go to the countryside?
A. at the weekends B. all the year round
C. at Christmas D. in summers
67. What is the advantage of city people when they have a cottage built in the
village?
A. They can have their houses rented.
B. They can go to the countryside at weekends.
C. They can go to the countryside whenever they can find the time.
D. All are correct.
68. What do most English villages have in common?
A. Most English villages have a church.
B. Most English villages have a village green.
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C. Most English villages have a village green and a church with a tall tower.
D. Most English villages have a wide stretch of grass and a church with a very short
tower.
69. What is NOT mentioned in the life of English villages?
A. The village green B. The church
C. The water pipes into each house D. The internet
70. What can villagers do when their villages are close to small towns?
A. They can go there to buy only furniture.
B. They can go there to buy cheaper things.
C. They can go there to buy what is not found in their village shops.
D. They can go there to buy some luxurious goods.
D. WRITING
I. Choose the underlined part that needs correcting by circling A, B, C or D. (2ms)
71. The exercises were such difficult that we couldn’t do them.
A B C D
72. I wish you can help me with that difficult problem.
A B C D
73. She was so lazy that she punished by her teacher.
A B C D
74. In the afternoon we went to boat in the river.
A B C D
75. I got up late this morning, that I didn’t have time for breakfast.
A B C D
76. Uncle John said that he went to Nha Trang the day after.
A B C D
77. A stranger asked me how far was it from my house to the school.
A B C D
78. The mother asked her son what did he want for his birthday.
A B C D
79. Barbara never listens to music on the radio, doesn’t she?
A B C D
80. I would rather you reading the story about the invention of the telephone.
A B C D
II. Rewrite each of the sentences so that it has the same meaning as the first given.
(2ms)
81. “You’d better not lend them any more money, Tom,” said John
->John advised Tom ______________________________________________________
82. You will catch a cold if you don’t keep your feet dry.
->Unless _______________________________________________________________
83. Mai is too young to see the horror film.
->Mai is such ___________________________________________________________
84. That factory is producing more and more pollution.
-> More and more pollution ________________________________________________
85. Nam is sorry now that he didn’t accept the job.
-> Nam now wishes that ___________________________________________________
86. He gets up early in the morning and he’s used to it.
-> He’s used to __________________________________________________________
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87.They believe the students were educated in Canada.
-> The students __________________________________________________________
88. Is smoking permitted in Vietnamese cinemas?
-> Are we ____________________________________________________________?
89. He failed to win the race.
-> He didn’t _____________________________________________________________
90. “They won’t give you these papers before Friday,” he said.
-> He said I ____________________________________________________________
III. Write an essay about 120-150 words, supporting that secondary school students should
try their best to learn English well .
TEST 32
SECTION I: PHONETICS
I. Choose the word (A, B, C or D) that has the underlined part pronunced differently from the
others in each group. (5 points)
1. A. climate B. comic C. hike D. website
2. A. worked B. laughed C. hoped D. naked
3. A. cover B. category C. ancient D. decorate
4. A. erupt B. humor C. UFO D. communicate
5. A. Buddhish B. bomb C. viable D. bulb
II. Choose the word (A, B, C or D) whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others.
(2 points)
1. A. comprise B. depend C. design D. novel
2. A. tropical B. collection C. tendency D. charity
TEST 33
I. PHONETICS: ( 6 pts)
a. Choose one word that has the unđerhned part pronounced differently from tbe others by
circling A, B, C, or D: (4 pt)
1. A. design B. please C. pleasant D. house
2. A. killing B. kneel C. queue D. cucumber
3. A. shopping B. wish C. machine D. reaching
4. A. challenge B. architecture C. chemistry D. scholarship
b. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others by circling A, B, C, or D:
(2 pt)
1. A.creativity B.immature C.negative D.nationality
2. A.impossible B.importantly C.stability D.connectivity
II VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR:
a. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (20pts)
1. _____ cross-word puzzles is his hobby.
A. doing B. making C. producing D. writing
2. Many rare species of animals are now _____ of extinction.
A. on the verge B. in dangers C. on the side D. at risk
3. As children, we were _____ to respect our elders.
A. grown up B. kept up C. brought up D. held up
4. When I returned the wallet I found on the street to its owner, he gave me a big _____.
A. reward B. present C. prize D. gift
5. We didn't _____ to the station in time to catch the early train.
A. reach B. get C. arrive D. go
6. Let’s _____ a coin to decide which team will kick the ball first.
A. spin B. turn C. twist D. toss
7. This new law will take _____ from the beginning of next month.
A. influence B. power C. effect D. force
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8. I don’t mind when you go on holiday. It doesn’t really ______ me.
A. effect B. affect C. matter D. suit
9. The concert received good _____ from the critics.
A. reports B. opinions C. viewpoints D. reviews
10. My passport _____ last month, so I will have to get a new one.
A. expired B. passed C. ended D. terminated
11. I know for _____ that he was away from home last month.
A. correct B. true C. fact D. certain
12. Mr. Jones has _____ painting since he retired.
A. taken up B. taken of C. taken over D. taken in
13. We have bought extra food _____ our friends stay to dinner.
A. if B. in case C. provided D. as long as
14. As the car is small, it's much more _____ on petrol.
A. expensive B. pool C. economical D. economic
15. Jill isn't on the phone, _____ makes it difficult to contact her.
A. which B. that C. who D. it
16. I shall do the job to the best of my _____.
A. capacity B. ability C. knowledge D. talent
17. Only at weekend _____ my kids to the Water Park.
A. I don't take B. do I take C. I take D. I do take
18. "Excuse me, but there is something about _____ immediately."
A. that I must speak to you B. that I must speak to you about
C. which I must speak to you D. which I must speak to you about it
19. The blue whale _____ the largest creature on earth.
A. generally classified as is B. is generally classified as
C. as generally classified D. is classified generally as
20. John remembered his parents' wedding anniversary and _____.
A. sent them some flowers B. sent to them some flowers
C. to them sent some flowers D. some flowers to them sent
b. Choose the half sentences in column A with endings in column B . (6 pts)
A B
1. That’s enough for today – let’s go a. the foreign visitors around his family’s
workshop.
2. Tam had a good opportunity to show b. on well with the people she works with.
3. Our class are really looking c. on with it tomorrow.
4. He’d like to have more time to think d. up with the others any more.
5.Janet is very friendly and generally gets e. forward to having a trip to the National Park.
6. Halfway through the race, Phong found that f. over everything before he makes a decision.
he couldn't keep
c. Complete the sentences with appropriate form of the word in block capitals. (8 pts)
1.This hill is the ................... home of King Arthur. LEGEND
2. My colleagues are very pleasant but the manager is a little ...................... FRIEND
3.He has carried out extensive research into ..................energy sources (such as the water or
wind energy). RENEW
4.My brother works as a lab ............................... at a large company. TEACHNIQUE
5.Our city has some fashionable shops, but they are not very .............................. AFFORD
6.Do you know what is the most ................................... town in this region? POPULATION
7.Remember to visit the Ancient Tower as it’s the only .......... building in our area. HISTORY
8.I feel so ........................ because I can’t run as fast as my friends. EMBARRASS
d. Put the verbs given in the brackets into their appropriate tenses or forms. (10 pts)
1. I (try)………………. to phone you all day. Where (you be)……………………….?
2. She proposed (give)…………. a party (celebrate)………… the success.
3. I (never read) …………a book (write)………….. by a Japanese author..
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4. It's time we (start)…………... Otherwise, we (miss)…………….. the last train home.
5. I can't bear (sit) ………….at home all day (do)…………. nothing.
6. When we (get)…………. downstairs, the burglar (disappear)………………….
7. I (cycle)………….. to school yesterday when suddenly I (see)…………… John.
8. Listen. I (think)……………… I can hear someone (shout)………….. over there.
9. By the time he (return)……………. next week, we (finish)…………. all the work.
10. Today you (look) ……………….as if you (be) ……………an actress.
III. READING:
a.Read the passage and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) which best fits each space. (10
pts)
The last two decades have seen enormous changes in the way people’s (1) _________ are
affected by IT. Twenty years ago, few people had access to a computer whilst today (2) _________
people use them at work, home or school and use of e-mail and the Internet is an everyday event.
These developments have brought many (3) _________ to our lives. E-mail makes
communication much easier and more immediate. This has numerous benefits for business,
commerce, and education. The World Wide Web means that information on every conceivable
subject is now (4) _________ to us. Clearly, for many people this has made life much easier and
more convenient.
However, not all the effects of the new technology have been beneficial. Many people feel
that the (5) _________ use of e-mail is destroying traditional forms of communication such
as letter writing, telephone and face -to –face conversation. With ever increasing use of information
technology these (6) _________ elements are likely to increase in the future.
In addition, the huge size of the Web means it is almost (7) _________ to control and
regulate. This has led to many concerns regarding children (8) _________ unsuitable websites. Yet
perhaps the biggest threat to IT in years to come will be the computer (9) _________ more
sophisticated or more destructive strains are almost inevitable.
In conclusion, developments in IT have brought many benefits, (10) _________ I believe
developments relating to new technology in the future are likely to produce many negative effects
that will need to be addressed very carefully.
1. A. live B. lives C. living D. life
2. A. most B. most of C. most of the D. almost
3. A. services B. uses C. benefits D. effects
4. A. free B. convenient C. unused D. available
5. A. widespread B. immediate C. particular D. continued
6. A. positive B. negative C. careless D. trivial
7. A. possible B. impractical C. likely D. impossible
8. A. accessing B. approaching C. entering D. getting
9. A. disease B. program C. virus D. software
10. A. so B. moreover C. therefore D. yet
b. Read the passage and choose the best answers to the questions that follow (5pts).
Chu Van An High School is one of the oldest and most prestigious state schools in Viet Nam.
Established in 1908 by the French, the school was located beside the West Lake, and was originally
named after the location it was in. It is a very pleasant, spacious school with great views of the lake
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from the classroom windows.
In 1943, the school was moved to Ninh Binh, and was not moved back to Ha Noi until 1945. In that
year, the school was renamed Chu Van An, after a famous Vietnamese Confucianism teacher of the
Tran Dynasty. Professor Nguyen Gia Tuong became the first Vietnamese principal of the school.
Many famous people like ex-Prime Minister Pham Van Dong, Doctor Ton That Tung, and poet
Xuan Dieu used to be the school’s students.
Today the school is still located in the same area, and has maintained its prestige, as well as its
reputation as one of the top schools in Ha Noi. It is very difficult to be admitted to the school. Every
year, there are around three thousand applicants but only about five hundred are admitted. Those
applicants have to take an entrance examination conducted by the Department of Education and
Training of Ha Noi.
1.The passage mainly discusses ___________.
A.Chu Van An, the teacher B.Chu Van An School in the future
C.Chu Van An School over time D.the difficulty of being admitted to Chu Van An
School
2.All of the following are true about the school EXCEPT ___________.
A.the school was originally named after the location it is in
B.the school admits three thousand students every year.
C.the school has a view of the West Lake
D.the school is large
3.The word ‛principal’ is closest in meaning to ___________.
A.teacher B.head teacher C.founder D.supporter
4.The word ‛prestige’ in the passage mostly means ___________.
A.respect B.fame C.status D.position
5.It can be understood from the passage that ___________.
A.students of the school are very smart
B.the school fees are very high
C.only children from prestigious families can enter the school
D.the teachers at the school earn a lot of money
c. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word
in each space. (10 pts)
I still remember how we celebrated Tet when I was small. We used to live in
an (1)________ family, with our grandparents and our uncle’s family.
Our family (2)___________ to make banh chung when Tet came. It was a busy, but wonderful,
time for all of us. My aunt used to be the one to clean dong leaves, the (3)________ we used to
wrap the cakes with. My uncle was the one to get water from the well for (4)________ to do the
cleaning. My mum was always (5)_________ for the preparation of the filling, which was made of
green beans, and pork flavoured with onion and pepper. Normally, my grandfather did the
wrapping, and we sat around watching him do it excitedly. We (6)_________ also happy to be
asked to fetch anything my grandpa needed. When the night fell, we started boiling the cakes,
which (7)_________ about eight hours. It was hard to wait so long for them! We stayed
up (8)_________ the night, grilling sweet potatoes, listening to our grandpa’s (9)___________ ,
and playing chess or cards. Now we have grown up, and are often too busy to make banh chung.
But it remains a really sweet (10)________ for us all.
IV. WRITING:
a. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in
meaning to the sentence printed before it. (5 pts)
1. I haven't seen this film before.
→ This is…..……………………………………………………
2. “I was not there at the time,” he said.
→ He denied……………………………………………………
3. The bus takes longer than the train.
→ The train does……………….……………………………
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4. I have never seen such a mess in my life!
→ Never in … ………………………………………………
5. It was wrong of you to allow a 4-year-old child to walk home alone.
→You should ........................................................................................
b. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using
the word given. Do not change the word given. (5 pts)
1.It's not a good idea to use the village's land to build new roads. (wouldn't)
→ I ................................................................
2.You should visit the historical places of the area. (worth)
→ It is ................................................................................
3.He suggested seeing Trang An, a natural wonder of our area. (visit)
→ What about........................................................................ ?
4.The sleepy villages are expected to mushroom into crowded towns within two years. (supposed)
→ The sleepy villages .......................................................................................
5.It is important to educate children to preserve traditional values. (necessary)
→ It is ...................................................................................................................
c. Write a composition on the following topic. (within 120 – 150 words) (10 points).
“ Do you think English is useful for your job in the future ?. Give the reasons”
ĐỀ 2
PART A: PHONETICS (5 điểm – Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
1.B 2.D 3.C 4.A 5.C
PART B: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (30 ®iÓm)
Question I.
6.C 7.D 8.C 9.B 10.C
11.D 12.A 13.D 14.D 15.C
Question II.
16.taken 21. would .....wish
17. being asked 22. shouldn’t have gone
18. to wait 23. are always complaining
19.(should) be 24. did
20.were 25. has been destroyed
Question III.
26. economics 31.unmanageable
27. personality 32. outspoken
28. impractical 33. preservation
29. unavoidable 34. modernized (_sed)
30. relatively 35. unsweetened
PART C: READING COMPREHENSION (25 pts) - Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm
Question I.
36. rid 37. new 38. taken 39. substances 40. burn
41.costly/expensive 42. recycling 43. waste 44. not 4. 45. Everything
Question II.
46.C 47.D 48.A 49.D 50.B
51.C 52.A 53.B 54.D 55.A
Question II
56.B 57.B 58.C 59.A 60.B
PART D: WRITING (20 pts)
Question I (5 điểm- Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
61. What I am really impressed by is her ability to run a company
62. The Prime Minister’s resignation resulted from his sudden illness
63. John advised Jane to try her best to learn English well.
64. Having nothing else to do, we decided to go for a walk.
65. The more popular television programmes become, the worse they seem to get.
Question II (5 điểm- Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
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66. It’s possible that we may soon run out of oil
67. No sooner had the plane left the airport than the accident happened
68. In spite of a pain in her leg, Jill finished the race
69. They might not have noticed ( that) the tyre was flat.
70. The director began by explaining the reason for the meeting.
Question III. Essay: (10 điểm)
Marking criteria:
+ Task completion (4 điểm)
Tuỳ theo khả năng hoàn thành về bố cục và những yêu cầu nội dung cho mỗi phần ( mở bài,thân bài,kết luận)
giám khảo có thể chấm từ 1-4 điểm.
+ Grammatical accuracy and spelling 3 điểm: bài viết không có lỗi chính tả và từ ba lỗi ngữ pháp trở
xuống được cho 3 điểm tối đa. Cứ 4 lỗi chính tả hoặc ngữ pháp trừ 1 điểm (Trừ không quá 3 điểm).
- Coherence and cohesion (tính mạch lạc và sự liên kết câu, đoạn) – 3 điểm:
Tùy mức độ mạch lạc, liên kết câu, liên kết đoạn của bài viết, giám khảo có thể chấm 1-3 điểm.
ĐỀ 3
I. PHONETICS: (7pts)
a. Choose one word that has the unđerhned part pronounced differently from tbe others by
circling A, B, C, or D. (5 pt)
1. A 2. C 3. B 4. B 5. A
b. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others by circling A, B, C, or D. (2
pt)
6. A 7. B
b. Read the passage and choose the best answers to the questions that follow.(5 pt)
1. D 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. E
c. (10 pt)
1. not/ never 2. life 3. who/that 4. On 5. spend
6. dependent 7. find 8. older 9. hard/difficult 10. enough
IV. WRITING: (20pts)
a. (5 point)
1. This is the first time I have seen this film.
2. He denied being/ having been there/ (that) he had been there at the/ that time.
3. The train does not take as long as the bus (does).
4. Never in my life have I seen such a mess!
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5. You should not have allowed a four-year-old child to walk home alone.
b. (5 point)
1. wishes she had gone to
2. has not retired
3. even though I knew
4. no intention of telling
5. devoted all his time to
c. (10 points)
Notes: The mark given to this part is based on the following scheme:
- Content: (50% of the total mark)
- Organization and presentation: (20% of the total mark)
- Language: (20% of the total mark)
- Handwriting, punctuation and spelling: (10% of the total mark)
ĐỀ 4
PART 1: PHONETICS
I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the
others.
1. A 2. D 3. C 4. B 5. A
II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the other words in each group.
1. A 2. C 3. C
PART 2: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY
III. Choose the word or phrase that best fits the space in each sentence.
1. C 2. B 3. D 4. D 5. A
6. C 7. A 8. B 9. C 10. B
11. D 12. D 13. B 14. C 15. A
IV.Complete the following sentences with the correct form of the phrasal verbs given
in the box. (10 pts)
1. take off 2. cut off 3. get off 4. turn on 5. see…off
6. go off 7. come off 8. go off 9. turn off 10. set off
V. Fill in the blank with the correct form of the words given in parentheses.
1. signature 6. alterative
2. inquiry 7. constrained
3. friendliness 8. casually
4. surprisingly 9. strength
5. symbolizes 10. restlessly
VI. There is a mistake in the underlined parts of each sentence. Find the mistake and
write your correction in the space provided below: (5 points)
1 2 3 4 5
Mistake A D C C A
Correction
has written players (should) finish reserving have been
PART 3. READING
VII. Read the text and choose the best answer.
1. B 2. D 3. C 4. B 5. A
VIII. Fill each blank in the following passage with ONE suitable word.
1. opportunity 2. have 3. Second(ly) 4. students 5. What
6. much 7. all 8. difficult 9. not 10. not
IX. Read the passage and choose the best option for each space.
1. B 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. C
6. B 7. C 8. D 9. A 10. A
PART 4. WRITING
X. Rewrite each sentence so that it contains the word in capital and so that the meaning stays the
same: ( 5pt).
1. Against everybody’s expectation, she lost
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2. You must apply yourself to your work more.
3. She stands a good chance of being elected.
4. The boss objected to his secretary(‘s) coming to work late.
The boss objected to the fact that his secretary came to work late.
5. It was such a great demand for tickets that people queued day and night.
XI. Rewrite the sentences so that it means the same as the first one, beginning with the given words
1. She went out without saying a word.
2. The question is so difficult that I can’t find the answer.
3. These cattles are said to have been built in the 19 th century.
4. The last thing you should/ must/ ought to do is to phone the police.
5. Although he didn’t / couldn’t speak Vietnamese, Mr. Anderson decided to settle in Ha Noi.
XII. Writing a paragraph: XII. Paragraph writing: Write a composition (120 – 150 words) about the
best ways to protect the environment (10 pts)
Content: accounts for 50% of the total mark. To be given the maximum of 50% for the content, the
candidates should provide all main ideas and details as appropriate.
Language: accounts for 30% of the total mark. To be given the maximum of 30% for language, the
candidates should use variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English
language secondary school students.
Presentation: accounts for 20% of the total mark. To be given the maximum of 20% for
presentation, the candidates should write with coherence, cohesion and can use appropriate styles
and linking devices appropriate to the level of English language secondary school students.
ĐỀ 5
PART 1: PHONETICS
I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.
1. D. scissors 2. A. king 3. A. honour 4. B.surf 5. B. age
II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the other words in each group.
1. D 2. A 3. D
PART 2: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY
III. Choose the word or phrase that best fits the space in each sentence.
1. A 2. C 3. B 4.D 5. C
6. D 7. A 8. B 9. C 10. A
IV. Give the correct form or tense of the verbs in brackets. (10 pts)
1. have been 2. had 3. have stopped 4. am waiting 5. have changed
7. has become/ 9. will be staying / am staying / am 10. will be going /
6. decided 8. moved
is becoming going to stay am going
V. Fill in the blank with the correct form of the words given in parentheses.
1. dangerous 2. popularity 3. breath 4. carefully 5. fitness
6. pressure 7. emotional 8. ability 9. competitors 10. encourage
VI. There is a mistake in the underlined parts of each sentence. Find the mistake and write your
correction in the space provided below: (5 points)
PART 3. READING
VII. Read the text and choose the best answer.
1. C 2. B 3. D 4. B 5. A
VIII. Fill each blank in the following passage with ONE suitable word.
1. brought 3. opportunity/ chance 5. physical 7. In 9. So/ Thus/ Therefore
2. care 4. On 6. that 8. enter 10. industry
IX. Read the passage and choose the best option for each space.
1. D 2. B 3. A 4. D 5. A
6. C 7. D 8. A 9. B 10. C
X. Choose which of the paragraphs A-F fit into the numbered gaps. ( 5 pts)
1. F 2. B 3. A 4. E 5. D
PART 4. WRITING
XI. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one. Use the word given in
brackets. You must use between three and five words, including the word given. Don’t change the form of
the word given.(8pts)
1. Can I ask you a few questions? (IF)
XII. Rewrite the sentences so that it means the same as the first one, beginning with the given words
1. My brother didn't use to study as/ so hard as he does now/ used to study more lazily than he does now.
2. I’d rather you didn’t ask me that question.
3. I haven’t seen Bob since I was in Ho Chi Minh City.
4. John could hardly understand what the teacher said.
5. It's Tom's twentieth birthday next week.
XIII. Writing a paragraph. (10 pts)
Content: accounts for 50% of the total mark. To be given the maximum of 50% for the content, the
candidates should provide all main ideas and details as appropriate.
Language: accounts for 30% of the total mark. To be given the maximum of 30% for language, the
candidates should use variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English
language secondary school students.
Presentation: accounts for 20% of the total mark. To be given the maximum of 20% for
presentation, the candidates should write with coherence, cohesion and can use appropriate styles
and linking devices appropriate to the level of English language secondary school students.
ĐỀ 6
PART 1: PHONETICS
I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.
1.D.raised 2.B. although 3.A. teenage 4.C. figures 5.C. says
II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the other words in each group.
6.D. eleven 7. A. good-looking 8. A. develop
PART 2: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY
III. Choose the word or phrase that best fits the space in each sentence.
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B A C A C D C B C D
IV. Give the correct form or tense of the verbs in brackets. (10 pts)
1. looking 2. will have saved 3. was getting 4. Rains 5. would have told
6. did I realise 7. to have / repainted 8. Were 9. being taken
V. Fill in the blank with the correct form of the words given in parentheses.
0. expectations
1. dislike 2. anxiety 3. enjoyment 4. beneficial
5. introduction 6. additional 7. properly 8. comparisons
VI. Supply each space with a suitable preposition to complete sentences. (5pt)
1. for 2. at 3. of 4. for 5. in
PART 3. READING
VII. Read the text and choose the best answer.
1. C 2. D 3. B 4. C 5. A
VIII. Fill each blank in the following passage with ONE suitable word.
1. B. other 6. A. central
2. A. light 7. C. discovery
3. D. later 8. D. own
4. D. budget 9. C. beyond
ĐỀ 7
PART 1: PHONETICS
I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the
others.
1. D 2. C 3. B
II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the other words in each group.
1. D 2. C 3. A
PART 2: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY
III. Choose the word or phrase that best fits the space in each sentence.
1. D 2. A 3. B 4. D 5. D
6. A 7. C 8. A 9. A 10. B
11. B 12. D 13. C 14. B 15. A
16.A
IV. Give the correct form or tense of the verbs in brackets. (10 pts)
1. doing – to answer 2. will have finished 3.hadn’t come – will be
4. was televised 5. had gotten 6. have been driving
7. are _____ permitted; to bring
V. Fill in the blank with the correct form of the words given in parentheses. (8pts)
1. independence 2. disconnected 3. failure 4. anxiety
5. retirement 6. misunderstood 7. death 8.unemployed
VI. There is a mistake in the underlined parts of each sentence. Find the mistake and write your
correction in the space provided below: (5 points)
1. be -> would be 2. buy -> was bought 3. stop -> will be stopped
4. not see -> haven’t seen 5. repair -> repaired
IV. Complete the following sentences from 1 to 10 with the correct preposition.
( 10ptS)
1.on 2. to 3. off 4.of 5.for
6.to 7.on 8.at 9.since 10.for
V. Complete the following passage with an appropriate form of the word in BRACKETS. (10 pts)
1. infectious 2. resistance 3. monetary 4. unable
5. unsinkable 6. illeglal 7. unidentified 8. processing
9. stainless 10. colonialists.
VI. Complete the sentences from 1 to 8 with the right form of the verbs given in brackets.( 10 pts)
1. have read 2. written 3. do we go 4. will be 5. likes
6. was getting 7. To operate 8.can be bought 9. Lying 10.sitting
ĐỀ 9
PART ONE: PHONETICS: (6pts)
I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest in
each group. (3pts)
1. A 2. D 3. A
took breath massage
II. Choose the word that has the stress pattern different from that of the other words. (3pt )
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1. D 2. B 3.C
technique particularly consolidate
PART TWO: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR:
I. Choose the best answer to complete the following sentences. (10pts)
1. C 2. A 3. B 4. D 5. A
unless telephoning fare shall we article
6. D 7. B 8. B 9. D 10. A
take up up reward to walk has
II. Give the correct forms of the words given in brackets. 10pts)
III.Read the following passage and choose the correct answer for each of the
questions: (5pt)
1. c 2. a 3. d 4. b
5. b
IV . The following sentences belong to two passage but they are mixed up. The passage A is about “
Mother’s day”. The pasaage B is about “ Compassion”. Sort the sentences out and put them in the
correct order of each paragraph. (10pts)
+ Passage A : E- C- H- J- F
+ Passage B : I - G- D- B- A
PART FOUR: WRITING:
I. 10 pts:
1. Only after/ when all the guests had gone (home) could we/ were we able to relax.
2. There has been a sharp increase/ rise in (the) house prices this year.
3. Had it not been for the attendance I presence/ appearance of a famous film star the
party would not have been a success/ would have been a failure.
4. I'd rather you didn't smoke in my house.
5. He broke the world record at/ on his second attempt.
6. Hardly a day passes/ goes by without me/ my writing to him/ but I write to him/
when I don't write to him.
7. All dogs are thought to have evolved from wolves.
8. Make sure you finish (typing) all these letters before going/ you go to lunch.
9. -The annual rainfall in/ for the northwest of Britain is higher/ greater than (that in)
the southeast.
-The annual rainfall in/ for the southeast of Britain is lower/ less than (that in) the
north west.
10. Henry wishes (that) he hadn't bought the second -hand car.
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II. {5pts):
1. The two theories ( appear to) have (got) nothing in common.
2. I can't/ won't put up with his rude behaviour.
3. I have (considerable) difficulty (in) reading his hand writing
4. He has neither money nor time to go on holiday.
5. A quiet holiday would do you good.
III.
Bài viết phải đảm bảo có được những phần và chi tiết sau:
1- Organization: (Bố cục bài luận rõ ràng, đầy đủ 3 phần: mở bài, thân bài, kết luận) (2 pts)
2- Discourse: (Thể hiện khả năng viết mạch lạc, chặt chẽ; nối kết câu, chuyển mạch) (2 pts)
3- Sentence structure (morphology, vocabulary, spelling): Cấu trúc câu, ngữ pháp, từ vựng; câu linh hoạt
(đơn, phức..) (2 pts)
4- Ideas: (Ý hay, phong phú, nội dung liên quan chặt chẽ với chủ đề của đề thi) (2 pts)
5- Length: (Đảm bảo đủ số lượng từ qui định: không quá dài hoặc quá ngắn, viết đúng chính tả, chấm câu
phù hợp. (2 pts)
ĐỀ 10
I. PHONETICS:
a. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word pronounced differently from
the rest: (3pt)
1. D. consumer 2. D - conversation 3. D. championship
b. Choose the word (A, B, C or D) whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others.
4. A deposit 5. C - essential 6. C - along
II VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR:
a. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences. (15 pts)
1. B. in time 2. B. because of 3. C. is sleeping 4. B. is given
5. B. helps 6. D. You are welcome 7. C. individual 8. C. as soon as
9. D. although 10. B. intention 11. D. audience 12. D. to learn
13. A. carry out 15. B. it is 15. C. heavily
b. (7 pts)
1. unlocked 2. burglaries 3. prevention 4. security
5. broken 6. investment 7. hiding
c. 10 pts
1. will be 2. is just finishing 3. invited 4. to discover
5. had lied / had been lying 6. will be given 7. do not study 8. have been told
9. burning 10. must be
d. Match the two halves of the sentences. Write your answer on the answer sheet (7 pts)
0. G 1.E 2.C 3.B 4.A 5.H 6.F 7.D
III. READING:
a. Read the passage and circle the best option A, B, C or D to complete the passage (10 pts)
1. B. known 2. C. more than 3. A. gather 4. A. during 5. B. when
6. D. against 7. C. sailing 8.A. disappeared 9. D. because 10. B. stands
b. Read the following passage and choose the best answer to each question (5 points)
1. D. Speech
2. D. That it is the most advanced form of communication.
3. C. a symbol
4. B. Because people wanted to communicate across long distances.
5. A. signals, signs, symbols, and gestures are forms of communication.
c. Seven phrases/clauses have been removed from the following passage. Read the passage and choose
from the phrases/clauses A–H the one which fits each gap (1 – 6). There is one extra phrase/clause which
you do not need to use. Write your answer in the numbered boxes. There is an example (0). ( 6 pts)
0. G 1.H 2.F 3.D 4.A 5.C 6.B
d. Fill in blanks
1. as 2. fellow 3. whether 4. at 5. information 6. signaling 7. only
8. between 9. but 10. Were
IV WRITING:
a. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning. (10pts)
1. They bought me two laptops, but neither of which worked satisfactorily.
2. Jane has been a television presenter for five years.
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(Jane has worked as a television presenter for five years.
Jane has been working as a television presenter for five years.)
3. I don’t mind looking after the baby for you.
4. It took 3 hours to fly to Paris.
5. He is said to have sold his house to pay the debt.
6. Little do the passengers realize how lucky they have been.
7. You shouldn’t drive away without fastening your seatbelt.
8. If he had not worked too/so much, he would not have been ill.
9. Anyone who understands this book is cleverer than I am.
10. Peter invited Ann to go to the concert with him that night.
b.
1. If we / go on / litter, / environment / serious / pollute.
- If we go on littering/dropping litter, the environment will become / be seriously polluted.
2. Ba’s parents / often / him / not / waste / time / play / computer games.
- Ba’s parents often ask (tell/advise/want/...) him not to waste time playing computer games.
3. She / ask / what aspect / learn / English / I / most difficult.
- She asked (me) what aspect of learning English I found (thought) most difficult.
- She asks (me) what aspect of learning English I find (think) most difficult.
4. Although / he / severe / disabled / take part / variety / sports activities.
- Although he is/(was) severely disabled, he takes part/has taken part/(took part) in a variety
of sports activities.
c. Write about 200 words. (10pts)
Bài viết phải đảm bảo có được những phần và chi tiết sau:
1. Mở bài: Nêu được chủ đề của bài viết
(VD: Ngày quan trọng nhất trong đời tôi là ngày ….). ( 02pts)
2. Thân bài: Nêu được tên hoạt động gì trong ngày đó, thời gian và địa điểm diễn ra hoạt động đó, dẫn
chứng minh họa cho việc nó quan trọng, vv…(4pts)
3. Kết luận: Tóm tắt, khẳng định lại tất cả lý do đã trình bày ở phần Thân bài.
ĐỀ 11
A. PHONETICS:
I. (2.0 points): One point for each correct answer:
1. B 2. C
II. (3.0 points): One point for each correct answer:
3. B 4. D 5. D
B. GRAMMAR – VOCABULARY – LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS:
I. (15 points): One point for each correct answer:
1. A 2. A 3. B 4. D 5. C
6. D 7. D 8. C 9. B 10. B
11. D 12. A 13. B 14. D 15. A
II. (10 points): One point for each correct answer:
1. AUTHORIZED 2. PRECISION / PRECISENESS 3. SURPRISINGLY
4. APPLICANTS 5. UNRECOGNIZABLE 6. expectation
7. variety 8. selflessness/unselfishness 9. illogical 10. unfortunate
III. (5.0 points): One point for each correct answer:
1. B 2. D 3. D 4. D 5. C
IV. Verb form (10 pts)
1. had left 2. will be waiting 3. was being moved
4. will have forgotten 5. (should) be 6. to be taken
7. have done/have been doing 8. turns 9. wash 10. letting
C. READING:
I. (10 points): One point for each correct answer:
1. B 2. D 3. D 4. A 5.D
6. C 7. A 8. C 9. B 10. A
II. (10 points): One point for each correct answer:
1. RANGE 2. IN 3. THE /THIS 4. PARTICIPANTS
5. GIVEN / MADE 6. ENVIRONMENT 7. WHAT 8. CHILDREN
9. WERE 10. BECAUSE
III. (5.0 points): One point for each correct answer:
1. D. 2. A 3. A 4. B 5. D
IV: Sắp xếp thứ tự các đoạn văn: 2.0 điểm, mỗi đoạn xếp đúng: 0.25 đ
Tài liệu lưu hành nội bộ 144
Bộ đề thi HSG lớp 9
1. C 2. H 3. E 4. B
5. D 6. G 7. A 8. F
D. WRITING:
I. (7.0 points): One point for each correct answer:
1. Hardly had she arrived when things started to go wrong.
2. Lama's illness prevented / stopped him from going to the beach with his friends.
3. If he hadn't encouraged / had discouraged them, they wouldn't have been successful.
If it hadn't been for his encouragement, they wouldn't have been successful.
4. I wish I could speak Japanese well.
5. In spite of being / feeling tired, Peter managed to walk home.
In spite of Peter's tiredness, he managed to walk home.
In spite of the fact that Peter was / felt tired, he managed to walk home.
6. Only after a twelve-hour wait/ delay of twelve hours did the flight leave.
7. Taking all the costs into account, they estimated the price.
II. (5 points)
1. Jo’s training accident prevented her from taking part in the race.
2. You do not need to/need not book tickets for the show in advance.
3. She reminds me of my cousin Mary.
4. She came across the photographs when she was cleaning her room.
5. You should not have deleted that file.
III. (10 points).
1. Task fulfillment: 6.0 points
+ Complete the task with relevant information
+ Well-organized
2. Language: 4.0 points
+ Appropriate vocabulary
+ Correct grammar
+ Punctual / Spelling
ĐỀ 12
II. PHONETICS (5 points)
a- 1. A 2. C 3. A 4. C 5. D
b-Choose the words that has a different stress pattern from the others. (1.0p)
1. A 2. B 3. D 4. C 5. B
III. LEXICO - GRAMMAR
Part 1. (10 points)
1. C 2. B 3. B 4. C 5. A
6. C 7. D 8. B 9. D 10. C
11.C 12.A 13.D 14.A 15.D
16.C 17.C 18.B 19.B 20.A
Part 2. (5 points)
1. on 2. to 3. off 4. of 5. for
Part 3. (5 points)
1. scientists 2. qualified 3. unfriendly 4. fashionably 5. foretell
Part 4. (10 points)
1. getting 2. returns 3. was being played 4. knew 5. will be learning
6. to have escaped 7. is 8. had been standing 9. served
10. not buying
Part 5. (5 points) (Chọn đúng 50%, sửa đúng 50%)
1. A. has have
2. D. be existed exist
3. C. with not without
4. A. careful carefully
5. D. wasn’t didn’t
IV. READING COMPREHENSION
Part 1. (10 points)
1. B 2. A 3. D 4. D 5.B
6. A 7. C 8.B 9. D 10. B
Part 2. (10 points)
1. not/ never 2. life 3. who/that 4. On 5. spend
6. dependent 7. find 8. older 9. hard/difficult 10. enough
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Part 3. (5 points)
1. D 2. B 3. D 4. D 5. D
V. WRITING
Part 1. (5 points)
1. This is the first time I have seen this film.
2. He denied being/ having been there/ (that) he had been there at the/ that time.
3. The train does not take as long as the bus (does).
4. Never in my life have I seen such a mess!
5. That car belongs to my father.
Part 2. (5 points)
1. wishes she had gone to
2. has not retired
3. even though I knew
4. no intention of telling
5. devoted all his time to
Part 3. (10 points)
Notes: The mark given to part 3 is based on the following scheme:
- Content: (50% of the total mark)
- Organization and presentation: (20% of the total mark)
- Language: (20% of the total mark)
- Handwriting, punctuation and spelling: (10% of the total mark)
ĐỀ 13
PART B: PHONETICS
a- 1. D 2. D 3. B 4. C 5. D
b-Choose the word (A, B, C, or D) whose main stress is in the position which is different from that of
the others. (1 pt).
1. A 2. C 3. B 4. D 5. A
PART C: LEXICO-GRAMMAR
I. Choose the right word or phrase A-D to complete the sentences.
1. C 2. C 3. C 4. D 5. A
6. B 7. D 8. C 9. D 10. D
11. D 12. B 13. A 14. C 15. A
II. Read the text below. Use the word given in capitals to form a word that fits in the
spaces.
1. importance 6. boredom
2. knowledge 7. psychological
3. worldwide 8. variety
4. protection 9. daily
5. scientific 10. unconvinced
III. Read the text and choose the odd words.
1. with 2. on 3. 4. so 5. of
6. to 7. the 8. 9. was 10. her
PART D: READING
I. Choose the word or phrase
1. A 2. C 3. A 4. C 5. D
6. D 7. C 8. B 9. C 10. C
II. Fill in each space.
1. born 2. in 3. invent 4. telephone 5. spread
6. made 7. the 8. imagined 9. death 10. for
III. Read the passage and choose the best answer.
1. A 2. D 3. D 4. C 5. C
PART E: WRITING
I.
1. B. dictionarys - > dictionaries
2. A. to be - > being
3. B. worked - > had worked
4. C. when - > since
5. D. drive - > driving
II.
a. Choose one word that has the unđerhned part pronounced differently from tbe others by
circling A, B, C, or D.
ĐỀ 16
I. PHONETICS:
a. Choose one word that has the unđerhned part pronounced differently from tbe others by
circling A, B, C, or D. (
1. B. sleeveless 2. C.documentary 3. B.gather
b. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others by circling A,
B, C, or D.
4. A. compulsory 5. B. friendlyness 6. D. communicate
II VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR:
a. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences.
7. A. used to 8. B.housework 9. D.was writing 10. A.work
11. A.staying 12. B.goes 13. D.out of 14. A.otherwise
15.D.what I was 16. C. could help 17.B.enjoyed being taken 18. D. has risen
planning
19. D.donw 20. D. fine 21. C.being arrested 22. C .listened
23. B.on 24. A.if 25. B.didn’t 26. D. with/at
b. Fill in each numbered blank with a suitable word:
27. was 28. life 29.joined 30. and 31. music 32. world 33. in
c. Complete the following passage with an appropriate form of the word in BLOCK CAPITAL. (0) has
been done as an example. (
34. regional 35. violence 36. musican 37. impressive
38. collected 39. logical 40. equally
d. Identify the error in the following sentences.
41. C 42. A 43. B 44. D 45. B
46. B 47. C 48. C 49. B 50. C
III. READING:
a. Read the passage and circle the best option A, B, C or D to complete the passage
51. B 52. A 53. D 54. D 55. B
56. C 57. A 58.D 59. A 60. B
b. Read the passage, and do the task below:
61.D 62.C 63.A 64.B 65.A
c. Use one of these words in its correct form to complete the text.
66. is 67. in 68. the 69. richest 70. because
71. which 72. carry 73. to 74. so 75. earn
IV WRITING:
a. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning.
76. I wish your friend were at the party.
77. John advised Mary not to lend that man any more money.
78. Herry suggested that Anne should go to the doctor if she has a pain in her back .
79. They used to wear Jeans when they were young .
80.If I were free today,I would go on a picnic with you.
ĐỀ 17
SECTION I: PHONETICS
I. Choose the word (A, B, C or D) that has the underlined part pronunced differently from the others in each
group. (5 points)
1. D 2. B 3. C 4. D 5. A
II. Choose the word (A, B, C or D) whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others. (2 points)
1. A 2.C
SECTION II: VOCABULARY, GRAMMAR AND STRUCTURES
I. Choose the word or phrase that best complete each sentence.(20 points)
1. B 5.D 9.D 13.B 17.A
2. A 6.D 10.D 14.D 18.D
3. D 7.C 11.A 15.D 19.A
4. B 8.A 12.A 16.B 20.B
II.(10 points) Supply the correct form of the verb in brackets.
1. Haven’t seen 6. Haven’t finished
2. Would tell 7. Spent – repairing
3. Has given 8. Was talking
4. Getting 9. Hadn’t eaten
5. Being taken
III.( 8 points)Use the correct form of the words in brackets to complete sentences
1. Dangerous 3. boredom 5.speech 7.polluted
2. advertisements 4. typical 6.attractive 8. compulsory
IV.Fill in each blank with a suitable preposition(5 points)
1. in 2. at 3. on 4. with 5. for
SECTION III: READING
I. Read the following passage and choose the best answer from A, B, C or D.( 5 points)
1. C 2. C 3. D 4. C 5. B
II: Read the text and choose the best answer to fill in each gap.(10 pts)
Q# 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6 7 8 9 10
Key B C A B D A B A D C
III. Use one of these words in its correct form to complete the text. (10 points)
1. is 2. in 3. the 4. richest 5. because
6. which 7. carry 8. to 9. so 10. earn
IV. Read the following text then choose from the list A-H the best sentence to fill each of the spaces. There
are three extra sentences which you do not need. (5 points)
1. E 2. F 3. C 4. D 5. H
SECTION IV: WRITING
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I. Use given words to rewrite the second sentence that has the meaning unchanged(10 points)
1. She advised me not to spend my weekend in the city
2. He asked his friend to give him a ride to school
3. I haven’t seen him since I was a student.
4. Betty said,”Don’t forget your tennis jacket”
5.Unless you are a student, you can’t always get special reduced prices.
6. Jim was the worst player in the fields.
7. Only in a situation like this do children learn a lot about how to behave.
8. No matter how long you use it, it will not wear out.
9. Be sure not to leave without saying goodbye to your grandmother.
10. He refused to come to Mai’s party.
II. You are studying in Australia and you have just had an interesting trip to the countryside of Australia.
Write a letter to your Mom to tell about that trip (within 120 – 150 words) (10 points).
Bµi viÕt tÝnh 10 points
ĐỀ 18
SECTION I: PHONETICS
I. Choose the word (A, B, C or D) that has the underlined part pronunced differently from the others in each
group. (5 points)
1. D 2.C 3.D 4.A 5.A
II. Choose the word (A, B, C or D) whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others. (2 points)
1. B 2.D
SECTION II: VOCABULARY, GRAMMAR AND STRUCTURES
I. Choose the word or phrase that best complete each sentence.(20 points)
1. A 5. A 9. B 13. B 17. B
2. D 6. D 10. A 14. C 18.B
3. C 7. B 11. A 15. C 19.B
4. B 8. C 12. A 16. A 20.B
II.(10 points) Supply the correct form of the verb in brackets.
1. should be built 6. haven’t made
2. is wearing 7. getting
3. was doing 8. returns
4. have studied OR have been studying 9. knew
5. will live 10. haven’t seen
III.( 8 points)Use the correct form of the words in brackets to complete sentences
1. education 3. scientists 5. developing 7. entertainment
2. electricity 4. homeless 6. invention 8. ability
IV.Fill in each blank with a suitable preposition(5 points)
1.about 2.into 3.on 4.to 5. with
SECTION III: READING
I. Read the following passage and choose the best answer from A, B, C or D.( 5 points)
1.A 2.C 3.C 4.B 5.D
II: Read the text and choose the best answer to fill in each gap.(10 pts)
1. C 2. D 3. A 4. D 5. C
6. B 7. D 8. A 9. B 10. D
III.Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word(10 points) .
1. more 2.for 3.there 4.so 5.can
6. in 7. the 8. has 9.be 10. church
SECTION IV: WRITING
I. In each of the following sentences, the 4 words or phrases are marked A, B, C or D. Identify the one
underlined expression that is not correct and correct it. (5 pts)
1. A: has --> have
2. D: be existed --> exist
3. C: with not --> without
4. A: more careful --> carefully
5. D: wasn’t --> didn’t
II. Use given words to rewrite the second sentence that has the meaning unchanged(5 points)
1. The teacher told me that she/he was really happy about my improvement in English.
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2. Tom invited Mary (to have / to drink) some coffee
3. They were lazy so they had bad marks.
4. She has lived in that house since 1973.
5. The date of the meeting will have to be changed.
6. Lama's illness prevented/ stopped him from going to the beach with his friends
7. I wish I could speak Japanese well
8. This is the first time I have seen this film
9. The train does not take as long as the bus (does).
10. Never in my life have I seen such a mess!
III. It is said that Engish is a useful language. Do you think so? Write a passage about 130-150 words
about your idea (10 points).
ĐỀ 19
I. PHONETICS: (6pts)
a. Choose one word that has the unđerhned part pronounced differently from tbe others by
circling A, B, C, or D. (4 pt)
1. D 2. B 3. D 4. A
b. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others by circling A, B, C, or D. (2
pt)
6.C 7. D
II VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR:
a. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences. (20 pts)
1. A 2. A 3. C 4. A 5. B 6. D 7. C 8. C 9. D 10. A
11. D 12. A 13. B 14. C 15. A 16. B 17. B 18. C 19. B 20. A
b. (6 pt)
1. c 2.a 3.e 4.f 5.b 6.d
c. (8 pt)
1.legendary 2. unfriendly 3. renewable 4. technician
5. affordable. 6. populous / populated 7. historic 8. embarrassed
d. (10 pts)
1. have been trying – have you been 6. got – had disappeared
2. giving – to celebrate 7. was cycling - saw
3. have never read – written 8. think - shouting
4. started – will miss 9. returns – will have finished
5. sitting – doing 10. look – were
e. (5 pt)
1. although → because / since / as
2. most → more
3. get on → get on with
4. what → how
5. stressful → stressed
III. READING: (25pts)
a. Choose the word or phrase which best fits each gap of the passage. (10 pts)
1. B 2. A 3. C 4. D 5. A 6. B 7. D 8. A 9. C 10. D
b. Read the passage and choose the best answers to the questions that follow.(5 pt)
1. C 2. B 3. B 4. C 5. A
c. (10 pt)
1. extended 2. used 3. leaves 4. her 5. responsible
6. were 7. took 8. throughout 9.stories 10. memory
IV. WRITING: (20pts)
a. (5 point)
1. This is the first time I have seen this film.
2. He denied being/ having been there/ (that) he had been there at the/ that time.
3. The train does not take as long as the bus (does).
4. Never in my life have I seen such a mess!
5. You should not have allowed a four-year-old child to walk home alone.
b. (5 point)
1.I wouldn’t use the village's land to build new roads.
2. It is worth visiting the historical places of the area.
1. C 2. B 3. D 4. D 5. A
6. C 7. A 8. B 9. C 10. B
1. A 2. B 3. B 4. D 5. C
6. D 7. A 8. D 9. C 10. C
c. Read the following passage and then choose the correct answer A, B, C or D. (5
pts)
1. B 2. D 3. A 4. C 5. D
Question 6:
a. There is one mistake in each of the following sentences. Find and correct it. (5p)
1. B was 2. D known 3. C teeth
4. B populated 5. C more efficient
b. Complete each of the following sentence in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence
printed before it.( 5p )
1. Despite my strong disapproval of your behavior, I will help you this time.
2. It is over three years since he last went back to his home village.
3. He apologized for being/having been late.
4. Pupils must wear school uniforms at all times.
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5. I used to live in Nha Trang.
c. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one, using the word given
in brackets. Do not change the words in any way. (5 pt)
1. This is the first time I have eaten this sort of food.
2. Harry still lives in Spain, doesn’t he?
3. I don’t mind lending you my bike if you are in a hurry.
4. The film isn’t as/so good as the one I saw last week.
5. I am not used to going to the countryside
d. In about 200 words write about your mother - the one you love most of all: (9p)
ĐỀ 21
SECTION I: PHONETICS
I. Choose the word whose part underlined is pronounced differently from the others in each group (5 points)
1.D. roof 3. A. though 5.C. receive
2. A. danger 4. A. manure
II. Choose a word on each line that has different stress pattern. (2 points).
1.B. volunteer 2. D. natural
SECTION II: VOCABULARY, GRAMMAR AND STRUCTURES
I. Choose the word or phrase that best complete each sentence.(15 points)
1. D. getting darker 6. D. many 11. C. so well as
2. B. hold on 7. C. leaves 12. B. She not only plays
3. B. so snowy a 8. C. on 13. B. Drought
4. A. long curly black 9. C. Ann doesn’t work 14. C. dangerous
5. D. sociable here any more. 15. A. the most complex
10. A. precaution
II.(10 points) Supply the correct form of the verb in brackets.
1. has been thought 5. have you seen ? 9. haven’t seen
2. use 6. will miss
3. to buy – to ask 7. is ringing
4. have caught 8. being laughed
III. (8 points)Use the correct form of the words in brackets to complete sentences
1. anxiety 2. pressure 3. participants 4. excited
5. appearance 6. connector 7. scientists 8. magician
IV. ( 20 points)
a) Fill in each blank with a suitable preposition(5 points)
1. into 2. between 3. on 4. with 5. into
b) (5 points) Change these sentences in to indirect speech.
1. Linh asked Lan if/whether she knew that man’s name.
2. The speaker asked the audience not to make so much noise.
3. Mr. Pike invited Ben to come to their party that night.
4. The foreigner remarked that boy spoke English very well.
5. The man said that he thought it wouldn’t rain that night.
c) (5 points) Change these sentences into passive voice.
1. I have never been asked that question before.
2. This watch must have been dropped by someone in his hurry.
3. A committee has been set up to investigate the matter.
4. Our house is painted (by us) every three years.
5. Several new schools are being built in our town.
d)(5 points) Combine the sentences below, using the words in brackets.
1. Mr. Pike is learning Vietnamese so that he can read Kim Van Kieu.
2. Hoa ate bread with milk for breakfast and so did Hoa’s uncle.
3. The woman isn’t young enough to have more children.
4. The water is too cold for us to swim in.
5. We moved to the front row so as to hear the speaker better.
SECTION III: READING
I. Choose the word in the box that best fits each of the blank space(10 points).
1. B 2. A 3. C 4. C 5. B
6. A 7. C 8. C 9. A 10. A
Identify your answer
II. Read the following passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question.
by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet(5 points)
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1. C 2. D 3. B 4. A 5. A
III. The following sentences belong to a passage about CPU FUNCTION, but they are not in the correct
order. Put them in their correct order to make a full passage. There are examples for you. Write your
answers in the spaces below. ( 5 pts )
1.E 2. A 3. F 4. C 5. B 6. D
SECTION IV: WRITING
I. There is one mistake in each sentence. Find and correct it. (5points)
1. enough old old enough
2. aren’t allowed isn’t allowed
3. to drink to drinking
4. fastly fast
II. Complete the second sentence with the same meaning(8points)
1. Do you mind putting the chair away?
2. If he doesn’t phone her immediately, he won’t get any information.
3. Only by training hard everyday can you become a good athlete.
4. The news was so bad that Helen burst into tears.
5. Although he is intelligent, he doesn’t do well at schoo.
6. It’s very important to keep environment clean.
7. I haven’t spoken to her for three years.
8. Jean advised Bill not to cook the fish for too long.
III. Write a short paragraph ( 8points)
“Do you like living in the city or in the country? Why?”
Write a composition to express your idea on this. (You should write within 130 – 150 words)
ĐỀ 22
SECTION A: PHONETICS & SPEAKING (2mks)
I. Choose the words whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others. (5*0,2=1 mark)
1. D 2. A 3. C 4. B 5. A
II. Choose the word whose stressed pattern is different from that of the others. (5*0,2 = 1 mark )
1. B 2. C 3. A 4. D 5. C
SECTION B: VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR(6mks)
III. Choose the best answer from A, B, C, or D. (15*0,2 = 3 marks )
1. A 2. D 3. D 4. B 5. D 6. B 7. A 8. D 9. C 10.B 11.D 12.C 13.A 14.D 15.C
IV. Supply the correct forms of the words in brackets. ( 5*0,2=1 mark)
1-Industry- Industrial 2-Office- Official 3-Add- Additional 4-Large- Enlarged
Modern- Modernized
V. There is one mistake in each of the following sentences. Find and correct it. (10*0,2 = 2
marks )
Mistake Correction Mistake Correction
1. was were 6. Found Founded
2. heavy heavily 7. someone else car someone else’s car
3. hear hearing 8. homeworks homework
4. crowding crowded 9. knows is known
5. getting to get 10. In On
ECTION C: READING(6mks)
VI. Read the passage and choose the best answer from A, B, C, or D: (8*0,25 = 2 marks )
1. C 2. C 3. D 4. C 5. A 6. B 7. B 8. B
VII. Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word. (10*0,2 = 2marks )
1. it 2. bicycles/ bikes 3. were 4. world 5. few
6. to 7. so 8. How 9. There 10. people
VIII. Seven phrases/clauses have been removed from the following passage. Read the passage and choose
from the phrases/clauses A–H the one which fits each gap (1 – 6). There is one extra phrase/clause which
you do not need to use. Write your answer in the numbered boxes. There is an example (0) (6*0,33 = 2
marks ).
0. G 1.H 2.F 3.D 4.A 5.C 6.B
SECTION D: WRITING(6mks)
IX. Complete the second sentence so that it has similar meaning to the first one. (10*0,2 = 2 marks )
1. The manager asked me to close the office door but not to lock it.
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C D A C B D B D C A
III.Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word(10 points) .
1. more 2. of 3. well –known/ famous 4. people 5. where
6. average 7. top 8. of 9. has 10. and
IV. Put the sentences in the right order to complete the text. Number 1 has been done for you as an example.
(10 points)
1. G 2. I 3.H 4. A 5.F 6. B 7. J 8. D 9. C 10. E 11. K
ĐỀ 24
Section I: Pronunciation
I. Choose the word (A, B, C or D) that has the underlined part pronunced differently
from the others in each group. (5 points)
1. A 2. b 3.A
II. Choose the word (A, B, C or D) whose main stress pattern is not the same as th at of the others.
(2 points)
1. C 2. C
Section II: Vocabulary and Grammar
I. Choose the best answers to completes each sentence. (10 points)
1. B 2. B 3. D 4. C 5. B
6. A 7. B 8. A 9. C 10. D
11. A 12. C 13. C 14. D 15. A
II. Supply the correct form of the verb in brackets(10 points).
1. didn't live 6. were made
2. cuts 7. wouldn’t be
3. to smoke 8. got
4. had I arrived 9. has already come
5. was waiting 10. is sent
III.Use the correct form of the words in brackets to complete sentences(10points)
1. sharpening 2. flight
3. faulty 4. complaints
5. payment 6. outlook
7. conclusion 8. comparison
9. threatened 10. applicable
VI. 5 points, one for each right sentence:
1. like 2. on 3. for 4.for 5. for
Section IV: Reading
I. Choose the correct answer to complete the passage
1. B 2. D 3. A 4. C 5. A
6. C 7. D 8. A 9. B 10. C
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II. Fill in each gap with one suitable word. 1M x 10 = 10M
1. by 2. for / in
3. Although/Though/While 4. worth
5. the 6. only / just
7. in / on / at 8. had
9. else 10. silence
III. Read the following passage and choose the correct answers. 1M x 10 = 10M
1. D 2. A 3. B 4. C 5. D
Section IV: Writing
I. Choose the underlined words or phrases (A, B, C or D) that are incorrect in standard English. (5
points)
1A 2C 3B 4A 5D
II. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one. Use the words or
phrases given. (5pts)
1. Mrs Scott takes pride in her cooking.
2. Hoa wishes she had watched that film last night.
3. In spite of a pain in her leg, Jill finished the race.
4.There was not enough time to go back home by bike.
5.I don’t enjoy doing the same things every day.
III. Finish the second sentence in such a way that it means exactly the same as the first one.(10 points)
1. I am having / am going to have my hair cut this afternoon.
2. Mary told me/us not to open the door.
3. I'd rather stay at home than go out tonight.
4. It hasn’t rained here for a fortnight.
5. My neighbors, whose three small children make a lot of noise, never apologize me.
6. Mr Tuan was said to be a good teacher.
7. My french friend isn't used to driving on the left.
8. I think Paris is the most beautiful city in the world.
9. It took three and half hours to fly to Moscow.
10. No matter how rich he was, he never helped the poor.
IV. Within 120-150 words, write about one of the memories in your childhood which you’ll never
forget(8 points).
ĐỀ 25
A. PHONETICS.
I. Choose one word whose underlined part is pronounced differently. ( 5 x 0,2 =
1,0pt)
1.A. campus 2. B. coughed 3. A.although 4. D. history 5. C. misses
II. Choose one word that has main stress is different from the other. ( 3 x 0,2 = 0,6pt)
6. D. demonstrate 7. B. countless 8. D. include
B. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR
I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: ( 12 x 0,2 = 2,4 pts)
9. A 10. B 11. A 12. C 13. D 14. A
send Having to live won’t electricity has awake
15. C 16. D 17. A 18. D 19. B 20. A
by the hour all of them was snowing Has been teaching oneself earn
III.( 8 points)Use the correct form of the words in brackets to complete sentences
1. death 3.unsatisfactory 5. knowledge 7. excitement
2. magician 4.revision 6. outdoor 8. tourist
SECTION III: READING
I. Read the following text then choose from the list A-F the best sentence to fill each of the spaces. There is
one extra sentence which you do not need. (5 pts)
1. D 2. A 3. C 4. G 5. F
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II. Read the following passage carefully and then choose the words (A, B, C or D) that best answer each of
the questions about it. (5points)
1. C 2. B 3. C 4. D 5. B
III: Read the text and choose the best answer to fill in each gap.(10 pts)
1. B 2. C 3. D 4. A 5. A
6. C 7. C 8. D 9. B 10. D
IV.Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word(8 points) .
1. because 2. be 3. at 4.different
5. example/ instance 6. with 7. between 8. were
V: Each of the following sentence is the first sentence for one of the given paragraphs. Decide which
paragraph belongs with each sentence. Write the letter of the paragraph in the space below.(3 points)
1 - B 2 - C 3 - A
SECTION IV: WRITING
I. There is ONE mistake in each sentence. Find and correct it: (8 points)
1. hard-work hard-working 5. days day
2. by at 6. boring bored
3. can could 7. decorating decorated
4. since when 8. borrow borrowed
II. Use given words to rewrite the second sentence that has the meaning unchanged(5 points)
1. I got up early this morning so as to/ in order to/ to / to be able to catch the first bus.
2. He asked/ told me to shut the door.
3. Margret is the most intelligent (girl/ student/ person) in my class.
4. Only by training hard every day can you become a good athlete
5. I have not spoken to her for a long time.
III. Use the words to write the second sentence in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to
the original sentence. Do not change the form of the given words(5points)
1. I have studied /been studying English for 3 years.
2. It took him 2 hours to write the letter.
3. I’ll miss the train unless I leave now.
4. I wish he took the docter’s advice.
5. The man wanted to know how he could operate that machine.
IV. Nowadays, our environment is being polluted seriously. Please write a passage of more than 120 words
to show the main reasons that polluting the environment and suggest some solutions to keep our environment
unpolluted. ( 10 POINTS)
ĐỀ 27
A. PHONETICS
I. (3 × 0,2 = 0,6 pt)
1. A 2. D 3. D
II. (3 × 0,2 = 0,6 pt)
4. A 5. C 6. B
B. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR
I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences. (20 × 0,2 = 4,0 pts)
7. B 8. A 9. D 10. C 11. D 12. A 13. A
14. A 15. D 16. B 17. A 18. D 19. A 20. C
21. C 22. 23. A 24. D 25. C 26. A
II. Fill in each numbered blank with a suitable word. (7× 0,2 = 1,4 pts)
27. used 28. for 29. his 30. was 31. who 32. and 33. street
III. Give the correct form of the words in brackets. (7× 0,2 = 1,4 pts)
34. youth 35. comparatively 36. unable 37. poor
38. flight 39. satisfied 40. alive
IV. There is a mistake in each of the following sentences. Find and correct it.
(10× 0,2 = 2,0 pts)
41. lately -> late 46. sits -> sitting
42. they -> those 47. sending -> to send
43. is -> are 48. did happen -> happened
44. for -> in 49. have to -> has to
45. a -> Ø 50. speeds -> speed
V. Put the verbs in brackets in the correct forms. (5× 0,2 = 1,0 pt)
51. has been shut 54. stolen
52. were watering 55. should have done
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53. to type / type
C. READING COMPREHENSION
I. Choose the word or phrase to fill each of the blanks to make a meaningful passage.
(10× 0,2 = 2,0 pts)
56. D 57. A 58. D 59. C 60. C
61. D 62. A 63. A 64. A 65. B
II. Read the text and decide whether the following is true (T) or false (F).
(10× 0,2 = 2,0 pts)
66. True 67. False 68. False 69. True 70. False
71. True 72. False 73. False 74. False 75. False
D. WRITING
I. Rewrite the following sentences without changing the meaning. (5× 0,2 = 1,0 pt)
1. Unless you pass your exam, you won’t get into university.
2. Neither Jean nor my sister can do anything to help him.
3. People say that he was in the French Foreign Legion.
4. I wish I hadn’t sold my car.
5. George can’t swim as well as Bob (can)
6. It took him only one year to learn to speak English well.
7. Not only did he spend all his money but also borrowed some from me.
8. I’d rather go out for a meal than stay at home.
9. If it hadn’t been for his help, we wouldn’t have finished the project on time.
10. The man is believed to have escaped in a stolen car.
II. Rewrite each sentence so that it contains the word in capitals and so that the meaning stays the
same. (5× 0,2 = 1,0 pt)
1. It is said that the couple are living in london.
Or The couple are said to be living in London.
2. Mandy asked if she could borrow my calculator.
3. I find it difficult to read without my glasses.
4. If he doesn’t change his way of living, he’ll meet a lot of troubles.
5. Long hasn’t had his hair cut for over six months.
III. In about 200 words, write about advantages and disadvantages of television. (3,0 pts)
ĐỀ 28
SECTION I: PHONETICS
I. Choose the word (A, B, C or D) that has the underlined part pronunced differently from the others in each
group. (5 points)
1. A 2.A 3.A 4.B 5.A
II. Choose the word (A, B, C or D) whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others. (2 points)
1. A 2.B
SECTION II: VOCABULARY, GRAMMAR AND STRUCTURES
I. Choose the word or phrase that best complete each sentence.(20 points)
1. A 5. B 9. A 13. A 17. A
2. D 6. A 10. D 14. D 18.D
3. C 7. C 11. D 15. A 19.A
4. A 8. D 12. B 16. B 20.B
II.(6 points) Supply the correct form of the verb in brackets.
1. haven’t seen 4. sitting - had not flown(or hadn’t flown)
2. have smoked 5. would/could tell
3. will have left
III.( 8 points)Use the correct form of the words in brackets to complete sentences
1. participants 3. imaginative 5. effectively 7. financially
2. unhealthy 4. similarities 6. dangerous 8. foretell
b. Read the passage and choose the best answers to the questions that follow.(5 pt)
1. C 2. B 3. B 4. C 5. A
c. (10 pt)
a. (5 point)
1. This is the first time I have seen this film.
2. He denied being/ having been there/ (that) he had been there at the/ that time.
3. The train does not take as long as the bus (does).
4. Never in my life have I seen such a mess!
5. You should not have allowed a four-year-old child to walk home alone.
b. (5 point)
1.I wouldn’t use the village's land to build new roads.
2. It is worth visiting the historical places of the area.
3. What about visiting Trang An, a natural wonder of our area?
4.The sleepy villages are supposed to mushroom into crowded towns within two years.
5.It is necessary to educate children to preserve traditional values.
c. (10 points)