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05-02-2022

05-FEBRUARY-2022

The Hindu News Analysis – 05th February 2022 – Shankar IAS Academy
S. Page Number*
News Articles
No. C B D H T

1 RS debates use of private Bills to amend Preamble to Constitution 12 12 8 10 8

2 PM10 emissions could see 15% rise by 2024 - 2 - - -

3 Interrogating the false merit-reservation binary (Editorial) 10 10 6 8 6

4 Wildlife migration to Wayanad sanctuary begins - - - - 4

5 Now, a self-disinfecting, biodegradable face mask - - - 2 -

6 Prelims Practice Questions


@ end of the video
7 Mains Practice Question
*C – Chennai; B – Bengaluru; D – Delhi; H – Hyderabad; T – Thiruvananthapuram

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05-02-2022

Pg: 12 – C, B;
Pg: 10 – Hyderabad Edition
Pg: 8 – T, D

Previous year Question – Prelims 2020


Previous year Question – Prelims 2017
Q. The Preamble to the Constitution of India is
Q. Which one of the following objectives is not
a) A part of the Constitution but has no
embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution
legal effect
of India?
b) Not a part of the Constitution and has no
a) Liberty of thought
legal effect either
b) Economic liberty
c) A part of the Constitution and has the
c) Liberty of expression same legal effect as any other part
d) Liberty of belief d) A part of the Constitution but has no
legal effect independently of other parts

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05-02-2022

Preamble

• Introduction to the Constitution of India.

• Precedes the Constitution.

• Outlines the aims and objectives of the Constitution.

• Sets out the purpose, principles, and philosophy of the


country.

• A Guide to the nation.

• Enacted after the entire Constitution was already


enacted.

• Modified version of ‘Objectives Resolution’ of the


Constituent Assembly.

• Declared part of the Constitution - News


Keshavananda Bharati Case, 1973.
• Amended once by the 42nd Constitutional
 Restricted the amending the power of the Amendment Act, 1976.
Parliament under the Article 368 of the
 Added - Socialist, Secular and Integrity.
Constitution.
• Private member bill sought to amend the
 “Basic element of the Preamble cannot be
Preamble – replacing “socialist” with
amended under Article 368”.
“equitable”.
 Preamble is part of the Constitution and
can be amended - but not its basic
feature or the basic elements.

 Objectives specified in the preamble


constitute the basic structure of the
Indian Constitution.

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05-02-2022

Practice Question – Prelims


Q. Which of the following statements is/are
correct with reference to the Preamble to Previous Year Question – Prelims 2021
the Constitution?
Q. What was the exact constitutional status
1. It is non-justiciable. of India on 26th January, 1950?
2. Words have been added and (a) A democratic Republic
eliminated from the Preamble before.
(b) A Sovereign Democratic Republic
3. Previously, it was called ‘Objectives
Resolution’. (c) A Sovereign Secular Democratic
Republic
Select the correct answer from the code
given below. (d) A Sovereign Socialist Secular
Democratic Republic
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 2 only

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05-02-2022

Pg: 2 – Bengaluru Edition

News Suggestions for mitigating PM pollution


 For transportation:
• Studies on Particulate matter pollution in
 Deployment of electric vehicles with charging stations at
Bengaluru city:
regular distances.

 15% increase in PM10 emission from the  Proper implementation of the vehicle-scrapping policy.

2019 levels.  Regular servicing of public transport vehicles (shared


autos, buses, and heavy vehicles).
 PM10 mass concentration - 1.3 times  For road:
higher than the CPCB limit.  Vacuum sweeping dust from paved roads.

 Biggest contributors to air pollution -  Laying end-to-end pavements.


 Covering barren areas on the roadside with green cover
transportation, road dust, construction
 Deploying mechanical sweepers.
dust, domestic fuel, and diesel
 Construction dust:
generators.
 Covering construction material while in transit.
 Covering construction buildings with fine screens.
 Providing last-mile connectivity for transporting debris to
processing plants.

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05-02-2022

Particulate matter (PM)

• Mixture of solid particles and liquid droplets found in the air.

• can only be detected using an


electron microscope.

• PM10 - inhalable particles.

 diameters - 10 micrometers
and smaller.

• PM2.5 - fine inhalable


particles.

 diameters - 2.5
micrometers and smaller.

• Made up of hundreds of different chemicals.

• Source:

 Construction sites, unpaved roads, fields, smokestacks or fires.

 Form in the atmosphere as a result of complex reactions of chemicals (sulfur dioxide and
nitrogen oxides) - power plants, industries and automobiles.

• Health impacts
- asthma,
chronic
obstructive
pulmonary
disease and
any type of
bronchitis.

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05-02-2022

National Clean Air Programme


(NCAP)

• Launched by the Ministry of


Environment, Forest and Climate
Change with the intention to cut
the concentration of coarse and
fine particles of particulate matter
in the atmosphere.

• Comprehensive initiative in
partnership with various Ministries
and States.

Initiatives
• Non-attainment cities - polluted cities where
1. Augmenting Air Quality Monitoring Network
National Ambient Air Quality Standards
2. Air Quality Management Plan for 100 Non-Attainment
(NAAQS) are violated. Cities
3. Indoor Air Pollution Monitoring & Management
 City Action Plans - strengthening the
4. National Emission Inventory
monitoring network, reducing
5. Network of Technical Institutions
vehicular/industrial emissions, increasing
6. Technology Assessment Cell
public awareness etc.
7. Extending source apportionment studies to all non-
attainment cities, Etc.

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05-02-2022

Practice Question – Prelims


Q. Consider the following statements:
1. Particulate matter can be seen with the
naked eye.
2. A tentative national level target of
20%–30% reduction of PM2.5
concentration by 2030, is set under the
National Clean Air Programme (NCAP).
Which of the statements given above
is/are incorrect?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Pg: 10 – C, B;
Pg: 8 – Hyderabad Edition
Pg: 6 – T, D

Part A—Preliminary Examination The issue


Paper I - (200 marks)
• Govt decision to extent Scheduled Caste and
 Current events of national and international
Scheduled Tribe reservations within the AIQ
importance.
category.
Part B—Main Examination
PAPER-III • AIQ – All India Quota, domicile free.

General Studies‐ II: Governance, Constitution, • Writ petitions challenged


Polity, Social Justice and International relations.
 Implementation of OBC reservation – affect
 Welfare schemes for vulnerable sections of the
merit and cause reverse discrimination.
population by the Centre and States and the
performance of these schemes; mechanisms, laws,  Notification of EWS reservation.
institutions and Bodies constituted for the
protection and betterment of these vulnerable  Acceptability of ₹8 lakh as the income
sections. limit for EWS.

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05-02-2022

Cause of the issue  Substantive equality - laws/policies/practices


alleviate the inherent disadvantage
• Debate – merit vs reservations
experienced by particular groups.
• Critics of reservation
 Constitution – formal equality
 Affirmative action is against merit
 Art 15 – prohibition of discrimination
 Policy aimed at increasing opportunities for
underrepresented sections of society  Art 16 – equality of opportunity

 Constitution - Govt. to correct the historical


• Defenders of reservation
inequalities, through affirmative actions that
 Social representation
provides substantial equality

SC judgement – different dimensions  Relied on the debate of Constituent Assembly

• Principle of substantive equality, rather than  To remedy real structural barriers that
formal equality prevented the realisation of equality of

 Formal equality – treated equally at all times opportunity

 SC – earlier judgements  Reservations

 State of Kerala vs N.M. Thomas, K.C. Vasanth  To achieve the aspirational goal of
Kumar (1985), and Indra Sawhney vs Union of genuine equality of opportunity and
India (1992). status.

 Article 16(4) of the Constitution is not an  employed to overcome the barriers.


exception to but an extension of the principle
 To remedy the structural disadvantage
of equality mentioned in Article 16(1).
that certain groups suffer.

• Economic understanding of the claims of


reservation.

 Rigid nature of the socio-cultural


institution of caste.

 Resource accumulation impact the


performance of candidates.

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 Cultural capital • Social prejudices

 Assets that give us social mobility.


 Prevails as concerns about ‘efficiency of
 Both tangible and intangible.
administration’ and the dilution of merit.
 Categories
 B.K. Pavitra vs State of Karnataka -
1. Institutionalized
efficiency of administration
2. Embodied
 Not some ideal measured by the
3. Objectified
performance of a qualified open category
 Disadvantage to
candidate
1. First-generation learners.

2. Communities whose traditional occupations  Defined in an inclusive sense - diverse


do not result in the transmission of skills.
segments of society find representation

• Examinations as a matter of merit.

 Ashwini Deshpande’s study - separation


Conclusion
between what examinations claim to measure,
• Judgement - reverse discrimination- justified
and what they actually do.
• Judicial review of the constitutionality of EWS
 Satish Deshpande’s research - indirect and reservations.

weak link to the tasks the candidate is • Policy wise - way for designing examinations

supposed to perform. that are free of linguistic, class, school


boards, and regional bias.
 Exams - reflect the current competence of

an individual and not the potential,

capabilities or excellence.

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05-02-2022

Practice Question – Mains


GS – II
Q. Giving reservations to underrepresented
sections of the society is needed to ensure
substantive equality. Justify
(150 Words, 10 Marks)

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05-02-2022

Pg: 4 – Thiruvananthapuram Edition

Previous year Question – Prelims 2019


Q. Which of the following are in Agasthyamala
Biosphere Reserve?
a) Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife
Sancturies and Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger
Reserve
b) Mudumalai, Sathyamagalam and Wayanad
Wildlife Sanctuaries and Silent Valley
National Park
c) Kaundinya, Gundla Brahme-swaram and
papikonda Wildlife Sancturies and Mukurthi
National park
d) Kawal and Sri Venkateswara Wildlife
Sanctuaries and Nagarjunasagar- Srisailam
Tiger Reserve

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05-02-2022

Biosphere Reserves
Biosphere Reserve
• Introduced and established under UNESCO’s
Man and Biosphere Programme (MAB) - 1971.

• Biosphere Reserve is voluntary, co-operative,


conservation area.

• Created to protect the biological and cultural


diversity of a region while promoting
sustainable economic development. Opportunity
to scientists and managers to experiment
and co-operate - man’s impact on nature.
Source: https://en.unesco.org/biosphere/about
• Local people, government officials and
environmental groups work together.

The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve • Consists of

• First Biosphere reserve in India - 1986.  The Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary

• Located in the Western Ghats  Wyanaad Wildlife Sanctuary

• Includes 2 of the 10 biogeographical  Bandipur National Park


provinces of India.  Nagarhole National Park
• 5,520 sq. km.  Mukurthi National Park and

• Tamilnadu, Kerala and Karnataka.  Silent Valley National Park.

• Annual rainfall - 500 mm to 7000 mm

• Temperature - 0 °C (winter) to 41°C


(summer)

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05-02-2022

Pg: 2 – Hyderabad Edition

Copper-based nanoparticle-coated antiviral


face mask

• Novel invention by the scientists of

 International Advanced Research Centre


for Powder Metallurgy and New Materials
(ARCI).

 CSIR- Centre for Cellular & Molecular


Biology (CSIR-CCMB).

 Resil Chemicals.

• Invented under Nano-Mission project –


sponsored by DST.

• Uses copper-based nanoparticles of around


20 nanometres.

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05-02-2022

• Uses ‘Flame Spray Pyrolysis’ (FSP) processing facility.

 FSP - Manufacturing technique to mass produce engineered nanoparticles.

 Aqueous metal salt solution (precursor


solution) is sprayed as a fine mist
through a capillary and into a flame.

 Precursor decomposes and the organic


compounds undergo complete combustion.

 Formation of primary particles of pure


metals or oxides.

 Nanoparticles collected.

• Uniform layer of copper-based nanoparticle is


 Biodegradable, highly breathable and
coated on the cotton fabric using a suitable
washable.
binder.
 High performance not only against several
• Need:
viral and bacterial infections.
 Conventional face masks do not exhibit
antiviral or antibacterial properties -
difficult to control the virus transmission.

• Advantages:

 Filters and kills the virus - coated fabric


exhibited an efficacy of more than 99.9%
against bacteria.

 Prevents further transmission of the virus.

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05-02-2022

Practice Question – Prelims


Q. Consider the following :
1. Biodegradable.
2. Highly breathable.
3. Single Use.
4. Kills the virus.
Which of the above is/are the advantages of the
Copper-based nanoparticle-coated antiviral face
mask, developed by International Advanced
Research Centre for Powder Metallurgy and New
Materials (ARCI) in collaboration with CSIR-Centre
for Cellular & Molecular Biology?
a) 3 and 4 only
b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2 and 4 only

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05-02-2022

Previous Year Question – Prelims 2021


Q1.What was the exact constitutional status
of India on 26th January, 1950?
(a) A democratic Republic
(b) A Sovereign Democratic Republic
(c) A Sovereign Secular Democratic
Republic
(d) A Sovereign Socialist Secular
Democratic Republic

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05-02-2022

Practice Question – Prelims


Q2. Which of the following statements is/are
correct with reference to the Preamble
to the Constitution?
1. It is non-justiciable.
2. Words have been added and
eliminated from the Preamble before.
3. Previously, it was called ‘Objectives
Resolution’.
Select the correct answer from the code
given below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 2 only

Previous year Question – Prelims 2020


Previous year Question – Prelims 2017
Q4. The Preamble to the Constitution of India is
Q3. Which one of the following objectives is not
a) A part of the Constitution but has no
embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution
legal effect
of India?
b) Not a part of the Constitution and has no
a) Liberty of thought
legal effect either
b) Economic liberty
c) A part of the Constitution and has the
c) Liberty of expression same legal effect as any other part
d) Liberty of belief d) A part of the Constitution but has no
legal effect independently of other parts

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05-02-2022

Practice Question – Prelims


Q5. Consider the following :
1. Biodegradable.
2. Highly breathable.
3. Single Use.
4. Kills the virus.
Which of the above is/are the advantages of the
Copper-based nanoparticle-coated antiviral face
mask, developed by International Advanced
Research Centre for Powder Metallurgy and New
Materials (ARCI) in collaboration with CSIR-Centre
for Cellular & Molecular Biology?
a) 3 and 4 only
b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2 and 4 only

Previous year Question – Prelims 2019


Q6. Which of the following are in Agasthyamala
Biosphere Reserve?
a) Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife
Sancturies and Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger
Reserve
b) Mudumalai, Sathyamagalam and Wayanad
Wildlife Sanctuaries and Silent Valley
National Park
c) Kaundinya, Gundla Brahme-swaram and
papikonda Wildlife Sancturies and Mukurthi
National park
d) Kawal and Sri Venkateswara Wildlife
Sanctuaries and Nagarjunasagar- Srisailam
Tiger Reserve

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05-02-2022

Practice Question – Prelims


Q7. Consider the following statements:
1. Particulate matter can be seen with the
naked eye.
2. A tentative national level target of
20%–30% reduction of PM2.5
concentration by 2030, is set under the
National Clean Air Programme (NCAP).
Which of the statements given above
is/are incorrect?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Prelims Question Answers


Q1.Option(b)
Q2.Option(b) – 1 only
Q3.Option(b)
Q4.Option(d)
Q5.Option(d) – 1,2 and 4 only
Q6.Option(a)
Q7.Option (c) – Both 1 and 2.

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Practice Question – Mains


GS – II
Q. Giving reservations to underrepresented
sections of the society is needed to ensure
substantive equality. Justify
(150 Words, 10 Marks)

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