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Contents of SBI Clerk Prelims 2021 Capsule
Contents of SBI Clerk Prelims 2021 Capsule
SBI Clerk Prelims 2020| Memory Based Paper | Questions & Solutions ................................................ 13
SBI Clerk Prelims 2019| Memory Based Paper | Questions & Solutions ............................................... 24
SBI Clerk Prelims 2018| Memory Based Paper | Questions & Solutions ................................................ 36
SBI Clerk Prelims 2016| Memory Based Paper | Questions & Solutions ............................................... 49
Most Important Questions | Quantitative Aptitude | SBI Clerk Prelims 2021 ...................................... 59
Most Important Questions | English Language | SBI Clerk Prelims 2021 ............................................... 73
Most Important Questions | Reasoning Ability | SBI Clerk Prelims 2021 .............................................. 93
After analyzing the cut-off of all the states from the past 3 years, we can clearly see that the Cut off for SBI Clerk
Prelims was lower in the year 2020 with respect to SBI Clerk Prelims in 2018 & 2019.
One of the major reason is the SBI Clerk 2020 exam which was Moderate as compare to the exams of 2018 &
2019 that were on the easier side. In some states, the cut off for SBI Clerk 2020 was on a higher side & in Some
States cut off was moderate due to the number of vacancies.
Out of 200
Name of the State 2018 2019 2020
Andhra Pradesh - 99.75 88.75
Bihar 96 98 -
Chandigarh - - 96.75
Delhi 104.8 99.75 98.75
Gujarat 85 91.25 82.75
Himachal Pradesh 98.25 101.25 87.25
Karnataka 83.9 85.75 80.5
Madhya Pradesh 92.6 94.75 89.25
Maharashtra 85.65 89.75 84
Punjab 100.65 102.75 96.25
Rajasthan 96.75 97 90.25
Tamil Nadu 93.75 98 92.75
Telangana - - 86.75
Uttar Pradesh 96 97.5 90.25
Uttarakhand - 96.5 91
West Bengal 95.3 97.25 86.75
Jharkhand 86 97.5 -
Haryana 99 103.25 -
Odisha 88.8 94.75 87.75
Chhattisgarh 91.5 87.75 -
Kerala - 96.25 -
Assam - 85 -
19. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and Direction (28-32): Study the following information
hence they form a group. Which one of the following carefully and answer the questions given below:
does not belong to that group? Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are buying some
(a) C-P (b) A-E (c) A-C products one after another but not necessarily in the same
(d) P-D (e) F-E order.
20. If point X is 20m south of point C, then what is the total At most two persons are buying products before F. Only
distance between point X and point D? one person is buying between D and F. C is buying just
(a) 40m (b) 35m (c) 55m before H. One person is buying between C and D. A is
(d) 65m (e) 85m buying just before E. B is buying before G and after E.
Directions (21-25): Following questions are based on the 28. How many persons are buying their products after D?
(a) None
five numbers given below, Study the given information and
(b) Two
answer the following questions.
(c) More than three
625 427 189 258 469
(d) One
21. What is the sum of the 3rd digit of second number from (e) None of these
left and 2nd digit of third number from right?
29. Who among the following is buying just after G?
(a) 10 (b) 15 (c) 14
(a) E (b) F (c) B
(d) 12 (e) None of these
(d) C (e) None of these
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SBI Clerk 2021 Prelims Capsule
30. If all the persons are arranged in alphabetical order Directions (33-35): In each of the question, relationships
from left to right starting from A, then find how many between some elements are shown in the statements.
These statements are followed by conclusions numbered I
persons remains at the same position (excluding A)?
and II. Read the statements and give the answer.
(a) One (b) None (c) Two (a) If only conclusion I follows.
(d) Four (e) More than Four (b) If only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows.
31. Who among the following is buying exactly between D (d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
and F? (e) If both conclusion I and II follows.
(a) E (b) B (c) A 33. Statements: P > Q ≥ R = S < T = U
(d) H (e) None of these Conclusions: I. Q > S II. S = Q
34. Statements: J < D = L ≤ K ≤ Q ≥ R
32. How many persons are buying between E and C?
Conclusions: I. J < Q II. L ≤ R
(a) Five (b) Four (c) Three
35. Statements: O > P = G > B ≥ X = M ≤ H
(d) None (e) Two
Conclusions: I. G > X II. O > M
Quantitative Aptitude
Directions (36-40): Table given below shows the number 40. Find total number of male students participated from
of male and female participated in an event from five all the five schools together.
different schools (A, B, C, D & E). Study the table carefully (a) 2860 (b) 3150 (c) 2940
and answer the following questions. (d) 3200 (e) 3020
Schools Male Female Direction (41–45): What will come in the place of
A 650 450 question (?) mark in following number series:
B 540 420 41. ?, 100, 150, 375, 1312.5
C 720 500 (a) 100 (b) 200 (c) 150
D 560 450 (d) 400 (e) 50
E 680 320 42. 104, ?, 96, 120, 88, 128
36. Find average number of female participated from (a) 112 (b) 110 (c) 114
(d) 118 (e) 108
school – A, B & D.
(a) 400 (b) 380 (c) 350 43. 15, 8, 9, 15, 32, ?
(d) 440 (e) 450 (a) 66 (b) 99 (c) 80
(d) 82.5 (e) 80.5
37. Total male participated from school – B & D together
are how much more or less than total female 44. 6, 8, 14, 26, 46, ?
participated from school – A & C together? (a) 72 (b) 84 (c) 96
(a) 150 (b) 110 (c) 170 (d) 80 (e) 76
(d) 120 (e) 240 45. 72000, 36000, 12000, 3000, 600, ?
38. Total male participated from school – B & C together (a) 120 (b) 200 (c) 300
(d) 150 (e) 100
are what percent more or less than total female
participated from school – A & D together? 46. 12 men can do a work in 10 days while 10 women can
(a) 20% (b) 60% (c) 50% do the same work in 18 days. In how many days 4 men
(d) 40% (e) 30% & 6 women together can do the same work?
120 180
39. If total male participated from school – F are 40% more (a) 7 days (b) 24 days (c) 13 days
than that of from school – A and ratio of female (d) 15 days (e) 18 days
participated from school – B to that of from school – F 47. A car can cover a distance in 4 hour at speed 60 kmph
is 21:32, then find total students participated from then by what percent should the speed of car be
school – F. increased to cover the same distance in 2.5 hr?
(a) 1420 (b) 1550 (c) 1580 (a) 60% (b) 40% (c) 50%
(d) 1460 (e) 1490 (d) 100% (e) 75%
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SBI Clerk 2021 Prelims Capsule
48. The ratio of the ages of Ram and Rahim 10 years ago 59. A & B entered into a business by investing total capital
was 1 : 3. The ratio of their ages five years hence will of Rs 17000. B withdraws Rs 1500 after 6 months and
be 2 : 3. Then, the ratio of their present ages is : gets Rs 8100 as profit out of total profit of Rs 19500 at
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 3 : 5 (c) 3 : 4 the end of year. Find capital of B after 6 months from
(d) 2 : 5 (e) None of these starting.
(a) Rs 7000 (b) Rs 9500 (c) Rs 7500
49. Two trains of length 140m & 120m are running in same
(d) Rs 6000 (e) Rs 6500
direction on parallel tracks with speeds 132 kmph &
80 kmph respectively. How much time will they take to 60. If length of a rectangle increases by 40% while keeping
cross each other? breadth constant then area of rectangle increased by
(a) 7.09 sec (b) 18 sec (c) 11.7 sec 24 m2 and perimeter of original rectangle is 32 m. find
(d) 4.42 sec (e) Cannot be determined breadth of rectangle.
(a) 8.4 m (b) 10 m (c) 6 m
50. A person sold a book at 20% profit. If he had bought it
(d) 14 m (e) 8 m
at 10% less cost and sold for Rs 90 more then he would
have gained 40% profit. Find cost price of book. Direction (61–70): What will come in the place of (?)
(a) Rs 800 (b) Rs 1600 (c) Rs 1500 mark in following question.
(d) None of these (e) Rs 1200 61. 280 ÷ 4 ÷ 2 = 170 – ?
Direction (51–55): In each question two equations (a) 105 (b) 115 (c) 125
numbered (I) and (II) are given. You have to solve both the (d) 135 (e) 145
equations and mark appropriate answer. ?
62. (√144 + √169 ) × 3 = 5
(a) If x = y or no relation can be established
(b) If x > y (a) 375 (b) 325 (c) 350
(c) If x < y (d) 275 (e) 475
(d) If x ≥ y 63. (12 × 5 ÷ 4) × 8 = ?
(e) If x ≤ y (a) 100 (b) 140 (c) 120
51. I. 𝑥 = √25 II. y3 = 125 (d) 80 (e) 90
64. (120% of 750) ÷ ? = 25
52. I. x2 + 2x – 35 = 0 II. y2 + 15y + 56 = 0
(a) 30 (b) 36 (c) 24
53. I. x2 = 81 II. y2 = 64 (d) 18 (e) 48
54. I. 17x2 – 14x – 83 = - 80 II. y2 = 2y + 35 1 5
65. 8 2 − 4 6 =? −3 12
7
58. A boat can cover 28 km downstream in 42 min. ratio of 69. 12.5% of (120 + ?) = 45
speed of boat in still water to speed of stream is 7 : 3. (a) 160 (b) 180 (c) 360
Find difference between time taken by boat to cover 60 (d) 240 (e) 120
km downstream & 40 km upstream. 70. 572 ÷ 13 × 12 – 16 = (8)?
(a) 2.25 hr (b) 1 hr (c) 1.5 hr (a) 4 (b) 2 (c) 3
(d) 0.4 hr (e) 0.9 hr (d) 5 (e) None of these
Directions (71-77) Read the given passage carefully and their host-insect interactions. These are hypothetical risks
answer the following questions. Certain parts have been that have been raised by scientists, and reflect the need for
highlighted to help answer the questions. further study.
Every year, around one million people die of mosquito- 71. Why are mosquitoes considered as one of the deadliest
borne diseases according to the World Health Organization living creatures on earth?
(WHO). This is why mosquitoes are considered one of the (a) Capability to transmit life threatening diseases.
deadliest living creatures on the planet — not because (b) Mosquito bites cause fatal reactions in human
they are lethal themselves, but because many of the viruses beings
and parasites they transmit are. (c) Mosquitoes cannot be killed easily
In the absence of an effective vaccine for dengue fever, Zika (d) Both (a) and (c)
fever, chikungunya and other mosquito-borne diseases, (e) None of the above
researchers have developed genetic strategies to reduce
mosquito populations. One such strategy involves the 72. What is one of the methods being developed to control
release into the wild of genetically modified (GM) population of mosquitoes?
mosquitoes that express a lethal gene — a strategy (a) Spraying of pesticides using established
believed to have little impact on the overall DNA of wild procedures.
populations of mosquitoes. (b) Introduction of a lethal gene into wild populations
The transfer of new genes from GM organisms to wild or of mosquitoes using genetically modified ones.
domesticated non-GM populations is a key criticism of GM (c) Not letting any stagnant water build-up near
crops like soybean and corn. There are concerns that the homes
introduction of GM genes into non-target species could
(d) Both (a) and (b)
have negative consequences for both human and
(e) None of the above
environmental health.
Oxitec, a company that spun out of research at Oxford 73. What can be the potential side effect(s) of genetically
University in the early 2000s, developed and trademarked modified mosquito offspring?
GM Friendly™ mosquitoes (also known as strain OX513A (a) Evolution of a breed of mosquitoes which are more
of Aedes aegypti). These male GM mosquitoes have what difficult to control
the company describes as a “self-limiting” gene, which (b) Increase in the severity of diseases being currently
means that when these so-called friendly mosquitoes’ transmitted by mosquitoes.
mate, their offspring inherit the self-limiting gene which is (c) Change in host-insect interactions.
supposed to prevent them surviving into adulthood.
(d) Loss of natural populations of mosquitoes
In theory, when these mosquitoes are released in high
(e) (a), (b) and (c)
numbers, a dramatic reduction in the mosquito population
should follow. According to research published by Oxitec 74. Which of the statements can be considered as true with
researchers in 2015, field trials involving recurring respect to the passage given?
releases of Friendly™ mosquitoes demonstrated a (a) Field trials on Genetically modified mosquitoes
reduction of nearly 95 per cent of target populations in showed reduction of 96% target populations.
Brazil. In these field trials, experiments were not (b) Oxitec trademarked the GM Friendly mosquitoes
performed to assess whether GM mosquitoes might persist in 2015.
in the wild.
(c) The female GM mosquito has a self-limiting gene
A recent study from the Powell lab at Yale University has
(d) Both (a) and (b)
since confirmed that some of the offspring of the GM
(e) None of the above
mosquitoes didn’t succumb to the self-limiting lethal gene
and survived to adulthood. They were able to breed with 75. What is the desired effect of releasing GM mosquitoes
native mosquitoes and thereby introduce some of their containing the ‘Self-limiting Gene’?
genes into the wild population. (a) A substantial reduction in the population of
Meanwhile, the impact of mosquitoes carrying these new mosquitoes.
genes remains largely unknown. One significant worry is (b) Birth of mosquitoes without a biting mechanism
that a new breed of mosquito might emerge that is more (c) Decrease in the number of diseases caused due to
difficult to control. These new genes could also potentially
mosquitoes
alter evolutionary pressures on viruses carried by
(d) Increase in the number of male mosquitoes.
mosquitoes, like dengue fever, in unpredictable ways. This
includes potentially increasing their virulence or changing (e) Both (b) and (c)
Solutions
REASONING ABILITY
Solutions (1-5): 8. (e);
Designation Persons
Chairman F
CFO A
GM B Solutions (9-12):
Word Code
DGM C
Club Ox
AGM G
Near Ot
Manager D House/Located Ol/gp
Junior manager H Both Mt
Clerk E Make Nk
Area Tm
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (c)
View Sq
4. (a) 5. (c)
9. (c)
6. (b); 10. (d)
11. (a)
12. (a)
Solutions (78-82):
7. (d);
18. (a);
19. (c);
20. (c); 28. (e);
29. (d);
30. (a);
31. (b);
32. (b);
33. (c); I. Q > S (False) II. S = Q (False)
34. (a); I. J < Q (True) II. L ≤ R (False)
35. (e); I. G > X (True) II. O > M(True)
Quantitative Aptitude
English Language
71. (a); Reading the first paragraph of the passage it can mosquitoes’ mate, their offspring inherit the self-
be deduced that the correct answer is option(a). limiting gene which is supposed to prevent them
The relevant sentences of the mentioned surviving into adulthood In theory, when these
sentences have been quoted below: mosquitoes are released in high numbers, a
“This is why mosquitoes are considered one of the dramatic reduction in the mosquito population
deadliest living creatures on the planet — not should follow.”
because they are lethal themselves, but because
76. (a); Among the given words, ‘fatal’ is the synonym of
many of the viruses and parasites they transmit
‘deadliest’. Hence, option (a) is the
are.”
most suitable answer choice.
72. (b); Reading the second paragraph of the passage it Fatal: causing death.
can be deduced that the correct answer is Demeaning: causing someone to lose their dignity
option(b). The sentences of the passage which and the respect of others.
substantiate this are given below: 77. (d); Reading the above passage it can be seen that the
“One such strategy involves the release into the correct statements are (a) and (c). The sentences
wild of genetically modified (GM) mosquitoes that have been quoted below for your reference-
express a lethal gene — a strategy believed to “According to research published by Oxitec
have little impact on the overall DNA of wild researchers in 2015, field trials involving
populations of mosquitoes.” recurring releases of Friendly™ mosquitoes
73. (e); Reading the last paragraph of the passage it can be demonstrated a reduction of nearly 95 per
deduced that the correct answer is cent of target populations in Brazil. A recent
option(e). The relevant sentences of the study from the Powell lab at Yale University has
mentioned sentences have been quoted below: since confirmed that some of the offspring of the
“One significant worry is that a new breed of GM mosquitoes didn’t succumb to the self-limiting
mosquito might emerge that is more difficult to lethal gene and survived to adulthood. They were
control. These new genes could also potentially able to breed with native mosquitoes and
alter evolutionary pressures on viruses carried by thereby introduce some of their genes into the
wild population.”
mosquitoes, like dengue fever, in unpredictable
ways. This includes potentially increasing their 78. (c); Hostile means showing or feeling opposition or
virulence or changing their host-insect dislike; unfriendly. Therefore, sentence (ii) and
interactions.” (iii) depict the correct usage of the given word.
Hence, option (c) is the most suitable answer
74. (e); Reading the passage carefully we can see that
choice.
none of the sentences given above are factually
correct hence the correct answer will be option 79. (a); Vague means thinking or communicating in an
(e). unfocused or imprecise way. Therefore, only
sentence (i) depicts the correct usage of the given
75. (a); Reading the fourth and fifth paras of the passage word. Hence, option (a) is the most suitable
it can be deduced that the correct answer is answer choice.
option(a). The relevant sentences of the
mentioned sentences have been quoted below: 80. (d); Escalate means increase rapidly. Therefore, only
“These male GM mosquitoes have what the sentence (iii) depicts the correct usage of the
company describes as a “self-limiting” gene, which given word. Hence, option (d) is the most suitable
means that when these so-called friendly answer choice.
Direction (1-5): Study the following information carefully 6. Who among the following faces Q?
and answer the questions given below: (a) B (b) D (c) A
Eight persons are sitting around a circular table facing to (d) C (e) None of these
the center but not necessarily in the same order. 7. Who among the following sits at the extreme end of the
Two persons sit between Q and P (either from left or right). row?
R sits immediate to the right of Q. One person sits between (a) E (b) T (c) C
R and S, who faces to T. Q and T are not immediate (d) R (e) P
neighbors of each other. W sits 2nd to the left of V. Three 8. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and
persons sit between U and V. hence they form a group. Which one of the following
1. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and does not belong to that group?
hence they form a group. Which one of the following (a) Q (b) A (c) T
does not belong to that group? (d) D (e) P
(a) Q-W (b) P-U (c) S-W
9. Who among the following sits 2nd to the right of P?
(d) V-T (e) Q-P
(a) S (b) R (c) Q
2. Who among the following sits immediate right of U? (d) T (e) None of these
(a) W (b) R (c) T
(d) S (e) V 10. What is the position of A with respect to E?
(a) 3rd to the left
3. The number of persons sit between Q and T , when (b) Immediate to the left
counted to right of Q is same as the number of persons (c) 2nd to the left
sit between W and ___, when counted to the left of ___? (d) 3rd to the right
(a) P (b) S (c) T
(e) 2nd to the right
(d) U (e) None of these
11. In the word ‘PRODUCE’, how many pairs of the letters
4. Who among the following faces R?
have the same number of letters between them in the
(a) U (b) V (c) P
(d) W (e) Q given word as they have in the English alphabet series?
(a) Four (b) Two (c) One
5. Who among the following sits 3rd to the right of S? (d) Three (e) More than four
(a) P (b) U (c) Q
(d) T (e) None of these Direction (12-15): In each of the questions below are
given some statements followed by some conclusions. You
Direction (6-10): Study the following information have to take the given statements to be true even if they
carefully and answer the questions given below: seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read
all the conclusions and then decide which of the given
Ten persons are sitting in two parallel rows containing five
conclusions logically follows from the given statements
persons in each row such a way that there is an equal
disregarding commonly known facts.
distance between adjacent persons. In the first row, A, B, C,
D and E are seated and all of them are facing north. In the 12. Statements: All Chocolate are Toffee. No Toffee is
second row, P, Q, R, S and T are seated and all of them are Muffin. Only a few Muffin are Dark.
facing south. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement, Conclusions: I. No Chocolate is Muffin.
each member seated in a row faces another member of the II. Some Toffee can never be Dark.
other row. (a) If only conclusion II follows.
E sits 2nd from one of the extreme end of the row. P faces (b) If only conclusion I follows.
the one who sits 2nd to the right of E. D sits 2nd to the left of (c) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
B, who does not sit at the extreme end. Two persons sit (d) If either conclusion I or II follows.
between S and Q. R sits immediate left of S. C sits next to B. (e) If both conclusions I and II follow.
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SBI Clerk 2021 Prelims Capsule
13. Statements: No Party is Gathering. All Summary are 20. As many as persons are buying things before D as
Gathering. Only a few Gathering are Committee. after___?
Conclusions: I. Some Committee can be Summary. (a) E (b) B (c) F
II. Some Party can be Committee. (d) A (e) G
(a) If either conclusion I or II follows.
Direction (21-23): Study the following information
(b) If only conclusion I follows.
carefully and answer the questions given below:
(c) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(d) If only conclusion II follows. Point S is 15m west of point R. Point R is 30m south of
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow. point Q. Point P is 20m west of point Q. Point U is 15m
south of point P. Point T is 35 north of point S.
14. Statements: No Market is Home. Only a few Home are
Room. Only a few Room is Vance. 21. If point V is exactly between point Q and R, then how
Conclusions: I. Some Home are Vance. far and in which direction is point U with respect to V?
II. Some Market can never be Room. (a)15m, North-East
(a) If only conclusion I follows. (b) 15m, East
(b) If neither conclusion I nor II follows. (c) 10m, North-west
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows. (d) 20m, West
(d) If only conclusion II follows. (e) 20m, North-East
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow.
22. Four of the following are alike in a certain way, so form
15. Statements: Some Ball are Garden. All Garden are a group. Which of the following does not belong to that
Trade. Only a few Trade are Pump. group?
Conclusions: I. Some Ball are Pump. (a) P, T (b) U, Q (c)R, P
II. Some Garden can be Pump. (d) S, Q (e) U, T
(a) If only conclusion II follows.
23. If point W is in 5m east of point U, then what is the
(b) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows. distance between point W and Point S?
(d) If only conclusion I follows. (a) 5m (b) 15m (c) 25m
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow. (d) 10m (e) 20m
Direction (16-20): Study the following information Direction (24-26): Study the following information
carefully and answer the questions given below: carefully and answer the questions given below:
Seven persons are buying different things. Only one person A certain number of persons are sitting in the row. All of
buy thing between C and A. B is buying thing immediately them are facing towards north. Q sits sixth from the right
before C. Two persons buy things between C and D. C buy of S. T sits forth to left of Q. Only two persons sit between
things after D. E buys thing immediately before D. More Q and P. R sits forth to the left of S. U sits between S and T.
than three persons buy things between E and F. Only three V sits second to the right of U. W is third from any of the
persons buy things between D and G. end. S is eight from the left end of the row. Six persons sit
16. How many persons buy things between A and F? between W and V.
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three 24. How many numbers of persons could sit in the row?
(d) Four (e) More than four (a) 14 (b) 18 (c) 23
17. Who among the following buy thing immediately after (d) 15 (e) 20
F? 25. What is the position of ‘W’ with respect to Q?
(a) D (b) B (c) G (a) Fourth to the right
(d) A (e) No one (b) Fifth to the right
18. Who among the following buy thing immediately (c) Fourth to the left
before G? (d) Eighth to the right
(a) D (b) B (c) C (e) Sixth to the left
(d) A (e) No one 26. If X sits immediate right of V then how many persons
19. How many person buy things before A? sit between X and P?
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (a) Five (b) Six (c) Four
(d) Four (e)More than four (d) Three (e) None of these
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
Directions (36-40): What will come in the place of 38. 4, 3, 4, 9, 32, ?
question mark (?) in the following number series: (a) 75 (b) 155 (c) 125
(d) 175 (e) 165
36. 11, ?, 16, 21, 29, 41
(a) 12 (b) 14 (c) 15 39. ?, 100, 150, 375, 1312.5
(d) 13 (e) 11 (a) 50 (b) 100 (c) 75
(d) 25 (e) 200
37. 1800, ?, 60, 15, 5, 2.5
40. 0, 6, 24, 60, ?, 210
(a) 300 (b) 600 (c) 120 (a) 130 (b) 170 (c) 90
(d) 240 (e) 360 (d) 120 (e) 150
Directions (41-45): Study the bar chart given below and answer the following questions.
Bar chart shows the number of books read by 4 different persons (A, B, C & D) in 2005 and 2006.
100
90
80
70
60
50 2005
40 2006
30
20
10
0
A B C D
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions (71-78): Read the following passage and they are deployed - along with enhanced security through
answer the following questions based on the given the use of multiple server locations. With all this
passage. Some of the words are highlighted which would considered, it is no surprise that 42% of UK businesses
help you to answer some of the questions given. leverage some kind of cloud service, according to Eurostat.
However, all the perceived benefits of leveraging the cloud
For years, world-wide organisations have become are redundant if organisations come up against barriers to
increasingly excited about the prospect of a cloud-based accessing cloud services. Cloud-based data pipelines still
future. As the dream becomes an ever closer reality for suffer from complexity challenges at the moment, along
many kinds of business and, Forrester predicted that with the lack of visibility into cost and resource usage at
enterprise spending on cloud services is set to surge. IDC the application and user level. The answer to this is
also predicted that global spending on public cloud automation fueled by robust Machine learning training
services and infrastructure would reach $210bn in 2019, models and artificial intelligence. These concepts and the
an increase of 24% from 2018. But one obstacle stands tools that enable them can determine the prerequisites of
create friction and introduce risk: the process of migration. cloud infrastructure, application dependencies,the
As all indications point to a massive shift in data appropriate target cloud instance profiles, and provide
deployments to the cloud, it is more important than ever troubleshooting in real-time.
that the transition from on-premises to Cloud is as risk free
To summarise, the promise of the cloud has created a sense
as possible. In today's climate any loss or disruption to data
can have a huge business impact. It’s a complex process, is of excitement amongst enterprises, however, they have
frequently underestimated and many organisations have proceeded to go full steam ahead into adopting a cloud
found there’s lots that can go wrong that can impact the service, without sufficient data to ensure performance
business. service level agreements (SLAs).
Organisations across the globe have found the cloud to be 71. How can we tackle the risks associated with the
an ideal place to run modern data applications due to big process of migration?
data’s elastic resource requirements. Furthermore, with (a) By ensuring that organisations only migrate the
the lack of data talent an ever-looming issue for most apps to the cloud that will thrive in the cloud.
companies today they have been determined to adopt a (b) The surge in the investment in the cloud
cloud-first strategy to ensure business operations are technology.
accessible for a range of employees. (c) The use of predictive power of Artificial
Intelligence.
The cloud offers great promise for developers especially, as
(d) The transition from on-premises to Cloud
it can increase the speed at which they develop software
features and increase the resilience of applications once (e) None of these
74. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct in 82. FATF strongly urges (a)/ Pakistan to swiftly complete
context of the passage? its action plan (b)/ by October 2019 to stop (c)/ terror
funding in the country (d)/ No error.(e)
(1) The cloud technology can help in increasing the
speed at which the software features are 83. Elon musk is determined (a)/ to be success (b)/ in
developed. whatever field (c)/ he chooses. (d)/ No error.(e)
(2) There is no risk associated with the cloud 84. New purchasing power will increasingly (a)/ come
technology. from Asia and Africa where (b)/ the demographics are
(3) Cloud technology is not a very complex process. still favorable (c)/ for high income growth. (d)/ No
(a) Only (2) error (e).
(b) Both (1) and (2) 85. Not only the (a)/ students but also (b)/ the principal
(c) Only (3) were(c)/ laughing at the joke he cracked.(d)/No error
(d) Only (1) (e).
(d) All are correct
Directions (86-90): In each of the following sentences,
75. What is the meaning of the phrase “full steam ahead” ? there is a blank space. Below in each sentence, there are
(a) Interrupting an activity five words out of which one can be used to fill the blank to
(b) Acting cautiously make the sentence grammatically and coherently correct.
(c) Great increase Find the most appropriate word that fit into the blank
(d) Progressing quickly. contextually.
(e) Prudent progression 86. There is nothing to indicate the building's past, _______
the fireplace.
76. Which of the following words is most similar to the
(a) except (b) included (c) belonged
word “ADOPT” as given in the passage? (d) barred (e) Foster
(a) mold (b) deduce (c) Embrace
(d) Creative (e) Fluster 87. Two circus elephants that performed together _______
when crossing paths 23 years later
77. Which of the following words is most similar to the (a) happy (b) believe (c) angered
word “ENSURE” as given in the passage? (d) rejoiced (e) greater
(a) Confirm 88. The law _______ farmers not only to save and resow
(b) Paced (multiply) seeds, but also to sell them to other farmers,
(c) Redundant no matter what the original source of the seed is.
(d) Weaken (a) coverts (b) implements (c) emits
(e) Reject (d) permits (e) deserts
Direction (16-20):
Persons
1. (a); 2. (c); 3. (b); E
4. (c); 5. (b); D
A
Direction (6-10): B
C
G
F
16. (c); 17. (e); 18. (c);
19. (b); 20. (e);
11. (c);
Direction (12-15):
12. (b);
22. (c);
13. (e);
14. (b);
Direction (31-35):
31. (d); M
24. (e); 25. (a); 26. (c); 34. (a); One – 2U&
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
72+90+48 0.3125
41. (b); Required average = 50. (b); ? =
3 2.5
= 70 ? = 0.125
60+90
42. (a); Required ratio = 90+70 51. (b);
1496
=
?
× 220
17 100
150
= 160= 15: 16 ? = 40
x² - 5x – 8x + 40 = 0 x=23
x (x -5) – 8 (x - 5) = 0 67. (a); Ratio of their profit sharing
x = 5, 8 A: B: C = 7 × 3 ∶ 8 × 12 ∶ 5 × 7 = 21 ∶ 96 ∶ 35
II. 2y² - y – 15 = 0 Annual profit = 136800
2y² - 6y + 5y – 15 = 0 Difference b/w A and C’s share of profit
2y (y - 3) + 5 (y - 3) = 0 14
y=3, -5/2 = × 136800
152
x>y = Rs 12,600
Profit % =
16x−10x
× 100 = 60% 70. (b); Let age of Shivam and Deepak 4 years ago be ‘2x
10x years’ and ‘3x years’ respectively.
69. (a); Let initial quantity of milk and water in the ATQ,
2x 8
mixture be ‘40x liters’ and ‘10x liters’ =
3x+4+5 15
respectively. 2x 8
= 15
ATQ, 3x+9
(40x× )
1
1
30x = 24x + 72
2
1
10x× +24
=
1 6x = 72
20x
2
1 x = 12
= So, present age of Shivam = 2x + 4
5x+24 1
20x = 5x + 24 = 28 years
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
71. (c); Refer the last few lines of the 5th paragraph of the 81. (d); Use “hanged” in place of “hung”
passage, “The answer to this is automation fueled
82. (e); There is no error in the sentence.
by robust Machine learning training models and
artificial intelligence……………. provide 83. (b); There is an error in part (b) of the sentence. Use
troubleshooting in real-time.” “to succeed” in place of “to be success” because
72. (a); Refer the 3rd paragraph of the passage, after “determined” we use “to infinitive”.
“Furthermore, with the lack of data talent an 84. (e); There is no error in the sentence.
ensure business operations are accessible for a
range of employees.” 85. (c); Replace 'were' with was'.
When two subjects are joined by 'not only...but
73. (d); Refer to the 2nd line of the 2nd paragraph of the also', the verb must agree with the second subject.
passage, “In today's climate any loss or disruption The correct sentence should be: “Not only the
to data can have a huge business impact.”
students but also the principal was laughing at the
74. (d); Statement (1) is correct. Refer the 4th paragraph joke he cracked.
of the passage, “The cloud offers great promise for The same rule applies when two subjects are
developers the use of multiple server locations” joined by 'or', the verb must agree with the second
75. (c); If something such as a plan or a project goes full subject.
steam ahead, it progresses quickly. For e.g. Krish and his brothers were there.
(Second subject is 'plural') Mohan or Sohan is
76. (c); Embrace means accept (a belief, theory, or responsible for this. (Second subject is 'singular')
change) willingly and enthusiastically hence it is
similar in meaning to adopt. 86. (a); “Except” which means “not including” is the word
which should fit the
77. (a); Ensure means make certain that (something) will
blank.
occur or be the case hence confirm is the word
which is most similar in meaning. 87. (d); “Rejoiced” which means feel or show great joy or
78. (b); Massive means exceptionally large hence delight will fit the blank most appropriately.
insignificant is the word which is most opposite in 88. (d); Here, “permits” which means “officially allow
meaning. (someone) to do something” perfectly fits in the
79. (a); There is an error in part (a) of the sentence in given blank making the sentence grammatically
place of “believe” we will use “believed”. correct and contextually meaningful. Hence,
option (d) is the most suitable answer choice.
80. (c); There is an error in part (c) of the sentence. Coverts: a thicket in which game can hide.
In place of “am” we will use “was” because the Implements: put (a decision, plan, agreement,
events of the sentences are in past.
etc.) into effect.
Direction (1–3): Read the information carefully and Direction (7 – 8): Read the information given below and
answer the questions: answer the questions.
All the given members belong to the same the family. J is
A company ABC printed different number of books in the brother of L. J is the only son of R. W is the father-in-
different years 1947, 1956, 1987, 1998, 2002 such that law of L. D is the maternal grandfather of P, who is a male.
number of books printed are not same in any year. 66 Q is the only son of W. W is the grandfather of N and C is
books were printed in an odd numbered year which is not the daughter of N.
1947.The number of books printed in 1947 is 10 less than
that printed in 1987. 59 books were printed in an year 7. How L is related to C?
before the year in which 61 books are printed but not (a) Mother (b) Son (c) Brother
(d) Father (e) None of these
immediate before. The number of books printed in 2002 is
2 more than that printed in 1998. 8. How is P related to N?
(a) Mother (b) Son (c) Brother
1. How many books were printed in 1947?
(d) Father (e) None of these
(a) 56 (b) 66 (c) 63
(d) 61 (e) none of these Direction (9 – 11): Read the information carefully and
answer the question:
2. What is the difference between the number of books Point U is 10m north of point Q. Point T is 10m east of point
printed in 1956 and 2002? U. Point S is 15m south of point T. Point P is 20m south of
(a) 7 (b) 10 (c) 8 point Q. Point R is 25m east of point P. Point L is 15m east
(d) 4 (e) none of these of point S. Point M is the midpoint of point U and P.
3. In how many years the number of books printed are 9. What is the distance between point L and R?
more than that printed in 1998? (a) 10m (b) 15m (c) 5m
(a) two (b) one (c) none (d) 20m (e) 25m
(d) three (e) four 10. In which direction is point T with respect to P?
4. How many words can be formed from the 1st, 6th, 8th (a) north-west
and 9th letter of a word ‘EMANICIPATE’ by using each (b) south-west
letter once in the word? (c) south-east
(a) two (b) one (c) none (d) north-east
(d) three (e) more than three (e) none of these
11. Which of the following points are inline?
5. If all the letters in the word FIGURES are arranged in
(a) P, R, S (b) Q, M, L (c) U, S, T
alphabetical order from left to right in such a way that
(d) M, S, L (e) Q, S, L
vowels are arranged first followed by consonants, then
how many letters are there in between U and R after Directions (12–16): Read the following information
the arrangement? carefully and answer the given questions.
(a) two (b) one (c) none Twelve persons sitting in two rows. D, E, F, K, L and M
(d) three (e) four sitting in row-1 and facing north. S, T, U, X, Y and Z sitting
in row-2 and facing south direction. E sits third from one of
6. If in the number 39682147, 1 is added to each of the the extreme ends. S sits second to the left of the one who
digit which is less than five and 1 is subtracted from faces E. Only three persons sit between S and T. K sits
each of the digit which is greater than five then how somewhere right of M. More than three persons sit
many digits are repeating in the number thus formed? between X and T. F faces one of the immediate neighbours
(a) two (b) one (c) none of T. Z sits second to the right of Y. The one who faces L sits
(d) three (e) four third to the left of U. D faces S.
Quantitative Aptitude
36. Value A is three times of value B. If value of C is 62.5% 39. In a mixture the ratio of milk and water is 7 : 5. When
of difference between value of A and B, then value C is 56 litres of water is added to this mixture the ratio of
what percent of B? milk and water in mixture becomes 7 : 3. Find the
(a) 120% (b) 125% (c) 115%
initial quantity of milk and water?
(d) 110% (e) 105%
(a) 144 liters (b) 120 liters (c) 116 liters
37. A is 40% more efficient than B and both can complete (d) 140 liters (e) 160 liters
a work in 20 days. A and B start work and do it for eight
day. If remaining work is complete by C in 24 days, 40. A man invested Rs 8400 at the rate R% on SI for two
then find in how many days C will complete work years and gets a total interest of Rs. 2016. If he invested
alone? Rs. 600 more amount on half of the previous rate of
(a) 30 days (b) 24 day (c) 20 days interest for two years, then find the interest get by
(d) 16 days (e) 40 days
man?
38. The length of rectangle is thrice the side of square. (a) 960 Rs. (b) 840 Rs. (c) 1080 Rs.
Difference between perimeter of rectangle and square (d) 1020 Rs. (e) 1040 Rs.
is 40 cm. If breadth of rectangle is 8 cm, then find area
of square? Directions (41-45): Data given about total number of
(a) 169 cm2 (b) 121 cm2 (c) 196 cm2 students visited three towns, read the data carefully and
(d) 144 cm2 (e) 256 cm2 answer the question:
44. Total students visited only town C is what percent less 54. Four years ago, Tina is 18 years younger than Ruchi. If
than total students visited only town A? present total age of Ruchi and Tina is 50 years, then
(a) 10% (b) 12% (c) 15% find the ratio between present age of Tina to present
(d) 8% (e) 18% age of Ruchi?
45. Find the ratio between total students visited only town (a) 9 : 17 (b) 17 : 8 (c) 17 : 9
B & only town C together to students visited only town (d) 6 : 17 (e) 8 : 17
A?
55. A shopkeeper marked up an article 40% above its cost
(a) 4 : 5 (b) 7 : 4 (c) 7 : 2
price and gave two successive discounts of 25% and
(d) 7 : 5 (e) 7 : 3
10% respectively. If he made a loss of Rs. 352, then find
Direction (46 – 50): What will approximate value come at the cost price of the article?
the place of question mark: (a) 5600 Rs. (b) 5000 Rs. (c) 6400 Rs.
11.98 ×15.89 + ∛215.98 ? (d) 6800 Rs. (e) 7200 Rs.
46. √288.98
- 51.98 ×2 −52.98 = 0
(a) 485 (b) 459 (c) 559
(d) 594 (e) 694
1.98
47. 12.98 % of 399.98 + √? = 2.93 of 125.98
(a) 1024 (b) 1296 (c) 961
(d) 900 (e) 848
48. 567.93 + 455.97 - ? = (27.98)2
(a) 120 (b) 180 (c) 160
(d) 220 (e) 240
3
√?
49. 124.99 × 24.99 + 6.02 × 8.98 = (7.99)2
(a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 4
(d) 5 (e) 7
56. If ratio between books sold by store R on 15 April, (a) 21 (b) 23 (c) 24
2015 and on 15 May, 2015 is 15 : 21. 75% of total books (d) 19 (e) 27
sold on 15 May, 2015 are comic books, then find total
62. (12)2 + (15)2 + ? % of 200 = (22)2 - 5
books sold on 15 May,2015 which are not comic (a) 55 (b) 45 (c) 35
books? (d) 30 (e) 65
(a) 36 (b) 42 (c) 48
(d) 52 (e) 56 63. 145 % of 180 + ? % of 320 = 741
(a) 180 (b) 130 (c) 120
57. Total books sold by store T on 15 April, 2015 is what (d) 140 (e) 150
percent more than total books sold by store U on 15
April, 2015? 64. 46 ÷ 162 × √16 = ?
(a) 80% (b) 60% (c) 40% (a) 56 (b) 60 (c) 64
(d) 70% (e) 80% (d) 72 (e) 68
58. Find difference between average number of books sold 65. (√529 − √289) × 12 = 136 − ?2
by store R & S on 15 April, 2015 and average number (a) 8 (b) 10 (c) 12
of books sold by store Q & U on 15 April, 2015? (d) 16 (e) 20
(a) 40 (b) 25 (c) 35 66. 45% of 160 + ? % of 180 = 19 % of 900
(d) 56 (e) 60 (a) 50 (b) 55 (c) 65
59. Total books sold by store R on 15 April,2015 is what (d) 45 (e) 35
percent less than total book sold by store T on 15 April, 2
67. 13 − 7 = ? +1
1 1
2015? 3
11
4 2
11 11
1
(a) 22 %
1
(b) 20 %
1
(c) 25 % (a) 5 12 (b) 7 12 (c) 4 12
3 3 3 11 11
1
(d) 28 %
1
(e) 33 % (d) 9 12 (e) 11 12
3 3
18×11+232.5
60. Total books sold by store T on 15 May, 2015 are 20% 𝟔𝟖. 17×9−30
=?
more than total books sold by same store on 15 April, (a) 2.4 (b) 4.5 (c) 2.5
2015, then find total number of books sold by T on 15 (d) 3.5 (e) 6.5
May, 2015?
69. 8.4% of 300 + 4. 8% of ? = 102
(a)332 (b) 216 (c) 244
(a) 1200 (b) 800 (c) 600
(d) 264 (e) 316
(d) 1800 (e) 1600
Directions (61-70): What will come at the place of 70. 734 + ? = 12.8 × 64
question mark: (a) 80.2 (b) 85.2 (c) 84.8
61. 40% of 50% of 60% of 1200 = ? + 53 (d) 89.5 (e) 78.2
Directions (71-75): In the question given below, some off from cultural and political-economic processes
sentences/phrases are given out of which one maybe or involved in most conceptualizations of globalization, the
may not be grammatically correct. Find the grammatically impacts of globalization processes upon education are
correct sentence/phrase out of the given options. If all of often considered wide-ranging, though many are also
the given sentences/phrases are correct, mark option (e) controversial.
i.e. “All are correct” as your answer. Major trends: From a functionalist perspective, the
globalization of educational systems has been influenced
71. (a) Do I knows you?
by new demands and desires for educational
(b) He gets tough at times.
transferability, of students and educators. In place of
(c) You must has acknowledged.
dichotomous systems in terms of academic levels and
(d) We didn’t knew. credentialing, curriculum, and assessment, increasing
(e) All are correct convergence can be observed today, as it is recognized that
72. (a) Do you know what time it is in Boston? standardization makes movement of people in education
(b) Won't somebody please help me? across societies more readily feasible, and that such
(c) I quit a long time ago. movement of people can __________ education in a number
(d) I had to work hard when I was young. of ways (to achieve diversity, to increase specialization and
(e) All are correct the promotion of dedicated research centers, to enhance
global employability, and so on). Thus, the mobility and
73. (a) She agreed in him that I should go to the meeting. paths of movement of students and academics, for
(b) To tell the truth, I used to smoking two packs a day. education and better life opportunities, have been a rapidly
(c) We agrees to leave soon. expanding area of research.
(d) I hope my last mail didn't sound too harsh.
(e) All are correct 76. Which of the following words is similar in meaning to
associated?
74. (a) Neither her friends nor Mary were in a talkative (a) chisel (b) innate (c) equivocal
mood. (d) eclectic (e) None of these
(b) None of the story he tells is true.
(c) He is a cut above the average college student. 77. Choose the word that appropriately fits in blank given
(d) I don't wanted to play this game anymore. in the passage.
(e) All are correct (a) distinct (b) channelize (c) create
75. (a) Two against one is not a fair fight. (d) enhance (e) influence
(b) She accepts criticism from anyone but her parents. 78. Which of the following is the most appropriate title of
(c) Lend him as much money as he needs. the passage?
(d) Do you think I should go alone? (a) Aspects of contemporary education
(e) All are correct (b) Political affairs affecting education
Directions (76 – 80): Read the following passage carefully (c) Modern Education
and answer the questions given below them. Certain (d) Globalization’s Impact on Education
words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you (e) Achieving diversity among nations
locate them while answering some of the questions. 79. Which of the following sentences is in accordance with
Global and transnational processes and practices have the theme of the passage?
been observed to influence and impact various aspects of (a) Globalization is understood as a process or
contemporary education within many geographical condition of contemporary human life, at the
contexts, and thus the fields of research related to broadest level, rather than a single event or
education and globalization are vast: they are not activity.
contained simply within one field or subfield, but can be (b) Globalization in education cannot be merely
seen to cross sub-disciplinary borders, in policy studies, described as harmful or beneficial, but depends on
curriculum, pedagogy, higher education studies, one’s position, perspective, values, and priorities.
assessment, and more. (c) Global citizenship education has been conceived
As mentioned previously, modern education can itself be by political theorists and educational
seen as one most basic instance of globalization, connected philosophers.
to increased interdependency of communities around the (d) Education held by scholars and political leaders is
world in economic and political affairs first associated a key to enhance the modern human condition.
with imperialism and colonialism, and more recently with (e) Globalization as a contemporary condition or
the capitalist world economy. And as the modern process clearly shapes education around the globe,
educational system cannot be seen as removed or sealed in terms of policies and values.
Solutions
REASONING ABILITY
Solutions (1–3)
6. (b);The given number is- 39682147
Years Books After applied operation- 48573256
1947 56 So, only digit 5 is repeated in the number thus
1956 59 formed.
Solutions (7–8)
1987 66
1998 61
2002 63
English Language
71. (b);Out of all the given sentences/phrases only the 73. (d);Out of all the given sentences/phrases only the
second sentence is grammatically correct. Hence, fourth sentence is grammatically correct. Hence,
option (b) is the correct answer. option (d) is the correct answer.
72. (e); All of the given sentences/phrases are 74. (c); Out of all the given sentences/phrases only the
grammatically correct. Hence, option (e) is the third sentence is grammatically correct. Hence,
correct answer. option (c) is the correct answer.
75. (e); All of the given sentences/phrases are
grammatically correct. Hence, option (e) is the
correct answer.
19. Who among the following is an immediate neighbor of 29. In a certain coding system, PAPER is written as PERPA
Sonty and Sonu? and SUBJECT is written as JECTSUB, what should be
(a) Dhondu (b) Chintu (c) Titu the code for COUNCIL?
(d) Bittu (e) None of these (a) NCILCOU (b) LICNOUC (c)NCOUCIL
(d) NLICUOC (e) NILCCOU
20. In which of the following pairs the second person is
sitting on the immediate right of the first person? 30. In a certain code language ‘lu ja ka hu’ means ‘will you
(a) Dhondu, Sonty (b) Titu, Chiku meet us’, ‘lu ka hu pa means ‘will you sold us’. Then
(c) Bittu, Sonty (d) Sonu, Sonty What is the code of ‘meet’ in this code language?
(e) Monu, Titu (a) ja (b) lu (c) ka
21. Who among the following is second to the left of (d) hu (e) cannot be determined
Chintu? 31. In a certain code language COMBINE is written as
(a) Titu (b) Sonty (c) Monu XLNYRMV. How will TOWARDS be written in that code
(d) Dhondu (e) None of these language?
22. Who among the following is opposite Chiku? (a) FLDZIWJ (b) GLDZIWH (c) GLEZJWH
(a) Dhondu (b) Bittu (c) Sonty (d) FLEZIWH (e) None of these
(d) Sonu (e) None of these
32. 37 girls are standing in a row facing the school building
Directions (23-27): Study the following information Ayesha is fifteenth from the left end. If she is shifted six
carefully to answer the given questions: places to the right what is her position from the right
Seven neighbours S, P, L, Q, R, M and I live on different end?
floors in the same building having seven floors numbered (a) 16th (b) 21st (c) 20th
one to seven. (The first floor is numbered one, the floor (d) 18 th (e) None of these
above it is numbered two and so on and the topmost floor
is numbered as seven.) 33. X's mother is the mother-in-law of the father of Z. Z is
Three persons live between I and M. M lives on the floor the brother of Y while X is the father of M. How is X
immediately above S, who does not live on an odd- related to Z?
numbered floor. P is neither live on odd number nor (a) Paternal uncle (b) Maternal uncle
topmost floor. I does not live on the first floor. (c) Cousin (d) Grandfather
Two persons live between R and S. Q lives neither on the (e) Brother-in-law
first floor nor on the fourth floor.
34. If A is a brother of B, C is the sister of A, D is the brother
23. Who lives on the floor just above M? of E, E is the daughter of B, F is the father of C. than who
(a) L (b) P (c) Q is the uncle of D?
(d) R (e) None of these (a) A (b) C (c) B
24. How many persons live between L and P? (d) None of these (e) Can’t be determined
(a) None (b) One (c)Two
35. A said to B that B’s mother was the mother-in-law of
(d) Three (e) Can’t be determined
25. Which of the following pairs live on the first floor and A’s mother. How is A’s mother related to B’s mother?
the topmost floor respectively? (a) Daughter-in-law (b) Mother-in-law
(a) L, Q (b) Q, P (c) I, Q (c) Sister (d) Aunt
(d) L, I (e) Can’t be determined (e) Sister-in-law
Directions (36-40): What should come in the place of 44. The total number of Assaults and Murders together in
question mark (?) in the following questions? Bihar is what per cent of the total number of crimes in
7 3 that state?
36. 5 of 58 + 8 of 139.2 =? (a) 29.82% (b) 39.82% (c) 25%
(a) 133.4 (b) 137.2 (c) 127.8 (d) 21.82% (e) 25.5%
(d) 131.6 (e) None of these 45. Find the difference between the number of various
crimes committed in Bihar and that in Rajasthan.
37. 12% of 555 + 15% of 666 =?
(a) 105 (b) 98 (c) 145
(a) 166.5 (b) 167.5 (c) 168.5
(d) 139 (e) 104
(d) 169.5 (e) None of these
Directions (46-50): What should come in the place of
38. 84368 + 65466 − 72009 − 13964 =?
question mark (?) in the following questions?
(a) 61481 (b) 62921 (c) 63861
(d) 64241 (e) None of these 46. 4376 + 3209 – 1784 + 97 = 3125 + ?
(a) 2713 (b) 2743 (c) 2773
39. 337.8 × 331.2 ÷ 335 = 33 × 33? (d) 2793 (e) 2737
(a) 2.8 (b) 3 (c) 3.2
(d) 4 (e) 6 47. √? + 14 = √2601
? 324
(a) 1521 (b) 1369 (c) 1225
40. 529
= ? (d) 961 (e) 1296
(a) 404 (b) 408 (c) 410
48. 85% of 420 + ?% of 1080 = 735
(d) 414 (e) 416
(a) 25 (b) 30 (c) 35
Directions (41-45): Study the following table carefully (d) 40 (e) 45
and answer the given questions: 7 5 1
49. of of of 3024 = ?
The number of various crimes, as supplied by national 3 4 9
crime record, reported in different states in the year (a) 920 (b) 940 (c) 960
2012-13. (d) 980 (e) 840
50. 30% of 1225 – 64% of 555 = ?
(a) 10.7 (b) 12.3 (c) 13.4
(d) 17.5 (e) None of these
51. How many litres of water should be added to a 30 litre
mixture of milk and water containing milk and water
in the ratio of 7 : 3 such that the resultant mixture has
40% water in it?
(a)5 (b)2 (c)3
(d)8 (e) 7
41. The total number of various crimes in HP is
(a) 37803 (b) 38903 (c) 37903 52. The S.I on certain sum of money for 15 months at rate
(d) 36903 (e) 37003 of 7.5% per annum exceed the S.I on same sum at
12.5% per annum for 8 months by Rs 3250 find sum?
42. Find the ratio of Stalking and Assault in UP to Theft and (a)160000 (b)20000 (c)170000
Criminal Trespass in Haryana. (d) 18000 (e) 312000
(a) 28 : 51 (b) 21 : 52 (c) 52 : 21
(d) 14 : 55 (e) 55 : 14 53. 4 men and 3 women finish a job in 6 days, and 5 men
and 7 women can do the same job in 4 days. How long
43. Find the approximate average of Murder and Theft in will 1 man and 1 woman take to do the work?
all the eight states together. 2
(a) 22( ) days
1
(b) 25( ) days
1
(c)5 ( ) days
(a) 1141 (b) 1132 (c) 1311 7
7
2 7
(d) 941 (e) 1021 (d) 12(22) days (e) None of these
Directions (71-80): Read the passage carefully and (a) Never trust anyone without confirming it yourself.
answer the questions given below it. Certain words/ (b) One who is not hard working is not loved by the
phrases have been given in bold to help you locate them employees.
(c) Good relation with your employees is most
while answering some of the questions.
important in your life.
One day all the employees reached the office and they saw
(d) Your relationship with your friend is the most
a big advice on the door on which it was written: important one that can influence your happiness.
“Yesterday the person who has been hindering your (e) The most important relationship you can have is
growth in this company passed away. We invite you to join the one you have with yourself.
the funeral in the room that has been prepared in the 73. What was inside the coffin?
gym”. In the beginning, they all got sad for the death of one (a) The corpse of the employee who died.
of their colleagues, but after a while they started getting (b) The coffin was empty.
curious to know who was that man who hindered the (c) A note on which there were instructions.
growth of his colleagues and the company itself. (d) There was a mirror inside the coffin.
(e) Photos of every employee.
The excitement in the gym was such that security agents
74. What was the reason of employee’s excitement?
were ordered to control the crowd within the room. The (a) As they were expecting a bonus or promotion.
more people reached the coffin, the more the excitement (b) Because the employee who hindered their growth
heated up. Everyone thought: “Who is this guy who was died.
hindering my progress? Well, at least he died!” One by one (c) As they were happy they will succeed now since no
the thrilled employees got closer to the coffin, and when one will hinder their growth now.
they looked inside it they suddenly became speechless. (d) They were excited because what they found inside
the box was completely opposite of what they
They stood nearby the coffin, shocked and in silence, as if
expected.
someone had touched the deepest part of their soul. There (e) They were curious to know the identity of the man
was a mirror inside the coffin: everyone who looked inside who hindered the growth of his colleagues.
it could see himself.
75. Why everyone was speechless and shocked?
There was also a sign next to the mirror that said: “There is (a) They were shocked as the employee who died was
only one person who is capable to set limits to your the most hardworking one.
growth: it is YOU.” You are the only person who can (b) As they never expected that their growth was
revolutionize your life. You are the only person who can actually hindered by one of their own.
influence your happiness, your realization and your (c) As they found a mirror inside the coffin.
success. You are the only person who can help yourself. (d) As one of the employees died.
(e) They were shocked to find that coffin was empty.
Your life does not change when your boss changes, when
your friends change, when your partner changes, when Directions (76-78): Choose the word/group of words
your company changes. Your life changes when YOU which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word / group of
words printed in bold as used in the passage.
change, when you go beyond your limiting beliefs, when
you realize that you are the only one responsible for your 76. THRILLED
life. “The most important relationship you can have is the (a) Tedious (b) Monotonous (c)Delight
(d) Dull (e) Boring
one you have with yourself.’’
77. INFLUENCE
71. Which of the following is true in context of the passage? (a) Insignificance (b) Domination
(a) The crowd gathered in the office for the funeral. (c) Underwhelming (d) Triviality
(b) The coffin was empty. (e) Weakness
(c) The employee who died was hindering everybody’ 78. REVOLUTIONIZE
growth. (a) Harmony (b) Calm (c) Uprising
(d) Only a person is responsible for his own success. (d) Stagnation (e) Obedience
(e) The crowd loved the employee who died.
72. What can we learn from this passage?
80. HINDERED 88. The nation should (a)/ be grateful to (b) the armed
(a) Hamper (b) Inhibit (c) Impede forces for (c)/ protecting it. (d)/No error (e).
(d) Retard (e) Expedite 89. For so many years(a)/it is almost his habit (b)/ to go to
the bed (c)/ at 10 pm daily. (d)/No error (e).
Directions (81-85): Rearrange the following six sentence
(A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form 90. To the men (a)/ who worked so hard (b)/ in the project
a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions the news was(c)/ profound disappointing. (d)/No
given below. error (e).
A. The man who bought it immediately put it up for Directions (91-95): In each sentence below four words
auction. have been printed in bold which are numbered (a), (b), (c)
B. And he went on to list the many qualities of the animal. and (d) One of these words may be misspelt or
At the end of his sales talk a man said he would give 40 inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the
dinars for it. wrongly spelt or inappropriate word. The number of that
C. "Look at this fine animal!" he shouted to passersby. word is the answer. If all the words are correctly spelt and
"Have you ever seen a better specimen of a donkey? are appropriate the answer is (e) i.e. ‘All correct.'
See how clean and strong it is!"
91. Rising (a)/prices (b)/of food grains will have an
D. Nasruddin Hodja took his donkey to the market place adverse impac (c)/on developing countries. (d)/ All
and sold it for 30 dinars. correct (e)
E. Another man offered 50. A third offered 55.
F. Hodja who was watching was amazed at the interest 92. To deal effectively (a)/with a crisis (b)/quick
everyone was showing in the donkey. decisions (c)/are requited. (d)/All correct (e)
81. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence 93. The IT Company has succeeded (a)/in achieving high
after rearrangement? growth rate despite (b)/facing (c)/several
(a)F (b)E (c)B (d)/problems. All correct (e)
(d) A (e)D 94. On an average (a)/there are very fern persons
willingly (b)/to take on (c)/such responsibility.
82. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence
(d)/All correct (e)
after rearrangement?
(a)A (b)B (c)C 95. More than halve (a)/the budget (b)/has been spent
(d)E (e) D (c)/on modernizing (d)/the factory/All correct (e)
83. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence Directions (96-100): In the following passage, some of the
after rearrangement? words have been left out, each of which is indicated by a
(a)E (b)F (c)D number. Find the suitable word from the options given
(d)C (e)B against each number and fill up the blanks with
appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningfully
84. Which of the following should be the FOURTH complete.
sentence after rearrangement? Jack went to work for a Farmer and (96) a penny. But
(a) B (b) G (c)F while returning home, he dropped it in a brook. At home,
(d) E (e) C his mother (97) him and told him to put his earnings in his
85. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) pocket the next time.
sentence after rearrangement? The next day, he worked for a cow keeper, who (98) him a
(a)C (b)A (c)B jar of milk. Jack tried to put the jar of milk in his pocket and
(d)D (e)F spilled it everywhere. Once again, his mother rebuked him.
She told him that he
Directions (86-90): Read each sentence to find out should have carried it on his shoulders. The next day, Jack
whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. was given a donkey. He carried the donkey on
The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The his shoulders. Now, the king had a daughter who never
number of that part is the answer. If there is ‘No error’, the laughed. (99) Jack carrying the donkey on his shoulders,
answer is 5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.) she (100) laughing for the first time.
Solutions
REASONING ABILITY
Direction (1-5): 17. (b);
1. (a): M 7, Y 3, H 5 Direction (18-22)
2. (b):7 Σ , 2 =, 9 ©
3. (b):4th to the Left - 17th from the left=13th from the
left=E
4. (c): 2E….4©G
5. (d):5th to the right – 13th from the right= 8th from the
right=T
Direction (6-10):
6. (a);D > C = E(True) B ≥ C = E(False)
7. (b);S=Q≥P(False) S=Q>M≥N(True)
18. (b); 19. (a); 20. (c);
8. (d);V = S(False) Q > M(False) 21. (d); 22. (c);
9. (a);S ≥ V = U > T(True) V ≥ Q(False) Directions (23-27)
10. (a); E = J > L≥ W(True) M ≥ N > R > W≤ L(False) Floor Person
Direction (11-15): 7 I
6 Q
11. (b);Only 385 will be divisible by 3 when added 2 on
5 R
first digit of each number.
4 P
12. (c); 864 521 743 853 962
3 M
13. (a); 8÷4=2 2 S
14. (e); 786 614 539 487 398 1 L
15. (a); 864 152 347 845 926 23. (b); 24. (c); 25. (d);
Direction (16-17): 26. (a); 27. (c);
28. (a);
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
71. (d);Refer to the last paragraph, ''you are the only 75. (c); Refer to the second paragraph it is explained there
person who can influence your happiness, your that they were shocked to see the mirror.
realization and your success.''
76. (c); Thrill means cause (someone) to have a sudden
72. (e); Refer to the last paragraph, “the most important feeling of excitement and pleasure hence delight is
relationship you can have is the one you have with
most similar in meaning.
yourself.''
73. (d);Refer to second paragraph, ''there was a mirror 77. (b);influence means the capacity to have an effect on
inside the coffin: everyone who looked inside it the character, development, or behaviour of
could see himself''. someone or something, or the effect itself hence
74. (e); they were excited about the identity. domination is the word most similar in meaning.
79. (a); Funeral means a ceremony or service held shortly 89. (c); Remove 'the'
after a person's death, usually including the 90. (d);Use ‘profoundly’ in place of ‘profound’.
person's burial or cremation hence nativity is the
91. (c); Change ‘impac’ into ‘impact’
word most opposite in meaning.
80. (e); hindered means make it difficult for (someone) to 92. (d); Change ‘requited’ into ‘required’
do something or for (something) to happen hence 93. (e);
expedite is the word most opposite in meaning.
94. (b); Change ‘willingly’ into ‘willing’
Directions (81-85);The correct sequence is
DACBEF 95. (a); Change ‘halve’ into ‘half’
81. (e); D 96. (b);
82. (a); A 97. (c);
83. (d);C 98. (d);
84. (a); B 99. (b);
85. (e); F 100.(e);
2. √? of 6 + 20% of 95 = 2 of 62
1 14. 389, 380, 370, 359, ?, 334
(a) 347 (b) 345 (c) 351
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5
(d) 350 (e) 348
(d) 6 (e) 7
5 3 9 15. 1, 3, 6, ?, 18, 29
3. (3 of 6 5 of 11) +?2 = 45 (a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 9
(a) 5 (b) 7 (c) 4 (d) 12 (e) 8
(d) 8 (e) 6
16. 280, 295, 325, 370, 430, ?
4 14 3 4
4. ( × ÷ 2) − ( of ? ) = − 3 (a) 515 (b) 525 (c) 505
7 5 10 5
(a) 10 (b) 8 (c) 9 (d) 490 (e) 520
(d) 11 (e) 12 17. 4, 2, 3, 7.5, ?, 118.125
4
5. 4 5 + 2 15 −
1 27 1
= 2 5 ÷ 3 ×? (a) 24.25 (b) 28.25 (c) 27.25
2
5 (d) 25.25 (e) 26.25
(a) 9 (b) 1 (c) 2
1 18. 18, 25, 30, ?, 42, 49
(d) 3 (e) 9 (a) 37 (b) 35 (c) 39
4
of25
(d) 41 (e) 43
3 1
6. (5 ) ÷ (432 − 202 + of 21) × (82) =? of
64 7 64 19. 1, 2, 4, 8, ?, 32
(a) 50 (b) 45 (c) 35 (a) 32 (b) 24 (c) 12
(d) 30 (e) 40 (d) 16 (e) 20
7. 55% of 900 + 70% of 1050 = ? % of 3000 20. 121, ?, 169, 196, 225, 256
(a) 41 (b) 42 (c) 43 (a) 148 (b) 144 (c) 140
(d) 44 (e) 45 (d) 136 (e) 132
8. 73823 − 34156 + 4756 + 6758 − 9849 = 41499 − Directions (21-25): What approximate value will come in
160−? place of question mark (?) in the following questions. (You
(a) 5 (b) 7 (c) 4 are not expected to calculate the exact value)
(d) 8 (e) 6
21. 40.02% of 601 – 249.97 = ? – 69.98% of 910
5599 3773 88
9. × 2036 × 49 =? −6 2 (a) 607 (b) 627 (c) 637
1331
(a) 44 (b) 46 (c) 48 (d) 617 (e) 647
(d) 50 (e) 52 22. 42001 ÷ 60 × 29.95 = ? × 41.99
1
10. 84 × 4 ÷ 21 +? = 147 × 21 − 21
2 7 20 (a) 540 (b) 520 (c) 500
(d) 460 (e) 480
(a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 0
(d) 3 (e) 4 23. (42.02)2 + (6.98)2 − (27.02)2 = (33.01)2 −?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3
Directions (11-20): What should come in place of
(d) 4 (e) 5
question mark (?) in the following questions.
699.97 11 121
11. 0.5, 1, 1.5, ?, 0.75, 0 24. 52
÷ 207.99 × 77.02 = ?
(a) 2 (b) 1.5 (c) 1.25 (a) 400 (b) 410 (c) 390
(d) 1 (e) 0.75 (d) 420 (e) 380
Jan
Jun 8%
Feb
24%
12%
Mar
16%
May
20%
Apr
20%
41. Income of Sandeep in the month of Jan and April 42. Income of Sandeep in May and Jun together is how
together is what percent less than income of Sandeep much more than the income of Sandeep in Feb and
in the month of Mar and Jun together? March together? (in Rs.)
(a) 20% (b) 30% (c) 40% (a) 1500 (b) 1800 (c) 1200
(d) 50% (e) 70% (d) 2400 (e) 2700
600
550
500
450
P
400
Q
350 R
300
250
200
Jan Feb Mar Apr May
46. Total cars sold by showroom Q in February and March 50. If in june, numbers of cars sold by showrooms P, Q and
together is what percent of cars sold by showroom R in R is 20% , 25% and 30% respectively more than that of
February and March together? cars sold in march by all the respective showrooms,
(a) 72.5% (b) 76.25% (c) 81.25% then find total cars sold by all the 3 showrooms
(d) 84.75% (e) 77.5% together in june ?
47. Find the difference between average numbers of cars (a) 1644 (b) 1686 (c) 1584
sold by the showroom P in all months together to the (d) 1728 (e) 1782
average number of cars sold by the showroom Q in all
Directions (51-55): Deepak, Dharam and Shivam invested
the months together ?
in partnership for one year. Ratio of investment of Deepak,
(a) 38 (b) 32 (c) 34
(d) 28 (e) 24 Dharam and Shivam for first 6 months, next four month
and for remaining time is 3:2:3, 2:5:3 and 4:3:3
48. Find the average number of cars sold by all the 3 respectively. Amount invested by Deepak in first 6 months,
showrooms in march month? Dharam in next four month and by Shivam in remaining
(a) 460 (b) 440 (c) 480
time is Rs.1500, Rs. 2000 and Rs. 900 respectively. Total
(d) 420 (e) 490
difference between profit share of Dharam and Shivam
49. Find the respective ratio of total numbers of cars sold together and Deepak and Dharam together is Rs. 450.
by showroom P in March, April and May together to the
total number of cars sold by showroom R in January, 51. Total investment of Deepak is approximately what
February and march together? percent of total investment of Shivam in one year?
(a) 7 : 8 (b) 8 : 9 (c) 8 : 7 (a) 96% (b) 95% (c) 97%
(d) 9 : 8 (e) 9 : 7 (d) 92% (e) 99%
5000
4500
4000
3500
3000
2500
2000
1500
1000
500
A B C D E
56. What is the ratio between no. of boys of school B and Directions (61-65): The table given below shows the no.
no. of girls of school C? of books published by 4 different publishers in 4 months.
(a) 4 ∶ 3 (b) 1 ∶ 1 (c) 5 ∶ 4 Study the data and answer the following questions.
(d) 3 ∶ 4 (e) 4 ∶ 5
Month
57. No. of girls of school B and C together is what percent February March April May
Publisher
of total students of school A?
A 2000 2400 1800 2500
(a) 150% (b) 125% (c) 100%
(d) 66.67% (e) 75% B 1500 1850 2000 2100
C 1750 2000 2250 2400
58. What is the average no. of boys in school A, B, C and E?
D 1200 1350 800 1250
(a) 1800 (b) 2250 (c) 2300
(d) 1950 (e) 2875 61. What is the average no. of books published by A in all
59. Girls in school A and B together are what percent the given months?
more/less than girls of school B and D together? (a) 1740 (b) 2275 (c) 2050
(a) 60% (b) 50% (c) 40% (d) 2175 (e) 2250
(d) 70% (e) 80%
62. Books published by B in February and March together
60. No. of boys in school B and E together are how much is what percent more/less than that by C in March and
more/less than girls in school A, C and D together? April? (approximate)
(a) 500 (b) 1000 (c) 1500 (a) 21% (b) 24% (c) 16%
(d) 2000 (e) 0 (d) 12% (e) 27%
81. A, B and C invest in a partnership in ratio 5:3:7 and 88. A boat cover 11.2 km distance in downstream in 48
minutes. If ratio between speed of boat in still water to
investment of A is Rs. 200 less than investment of C.
1 speed of stream is 3 : 1, then find in what time boat will
Partner B invests for 5
th and A and C invest for cover 42 km of distance in downstream and in
1 1
th and 15 th respectively of total time of investment. upstream?
12
If profit of B is Rs. 800 more than that of C than find (a) 7 hours (b) 5 hours (c) 9 hours
profit of A. (d) 10hours (e) 3 hours
(a) Rs. 1000 (b) Rs. 2500 (c) Rs. 2800 89. Ratio between age of Veer and Sameer six years ago
(d) Rs. 1400 (e) Rs. 3600 was 3 : 7 and six years hence will be 5 : 9. Find the ratio
between present age of Veer and Sameer?
82. Average of first three no. out of seven no. is 11 more
(a) 2 : 3 (b) 1 : 4 (c) 1 : 3
than average of seven no. and 5th , 6th and 7th no. are 8, (d) 1 : 2 (e) 1 : 5
5 and 29 less than average of seven number
respectively. If 4th no. is 89, then find average of initial 90. Present population of two town A and B is in ratio 8 :
three no. 7. Present population of town B is 7000 and it
2
(a) 80 (b) 70 (c) 81 increased by 20% and 14 % in next two year. Now
7
(d) 91 (e) 61 ratio of population of town B to A is 24 : 25. Find
increment in population of town A.
83. A bag Contain 10 two-rupee coins, 5 ten-rupee coins
(a) 2500 (b) 2000 (c) 3500
and 7 one-rupee coins, If 3 Coins are withdraw at
(d) 3000 (e) 4500
random find the probability of getting minimum
amount. 91. Average age of a group of 30 people is 24 years. If two
(a)
1
(b)
1
(c)
1 persons of age 20 year and 30 year left the group.
50
1
22
1
66 When a new person joins the group and average age of
(d) 44 (e) 33 group becomes 25 year. Find age of person.
(a) 32 yrs (b) 45 yrs (c) 55 yrs
84. Manoj invested a sum at x% per annum at C.I. If first (d) 50 yrs (e) 70 yrs
year and second year C.I on that sum is Rs. 845 and Rs.
910 Find Amount invested? 92. When 30% of a no. y is subtracted from x it become 310
(a) Rs. 10985 (b) Rs. 10000 (c) Rs. 13000 and when 50% of y is added to x it becomes 550. Find
(d) Rs. 10900 (e) Rs. 13985 ratio of x to y.
(a) 5 : 3 (b) 4 : 3 (c) 2 : 1
85. In an examination, a candidate obtains 20% marks and (d) 7 : 6 (e) 6 : 5
fails by 75marks while another candidate obtains 55%
93. The total surface area of a right circular cylinder of
marks and passed by 20% of the maximum marks
base radius R and height h is obtained by dividing its
marks. What are the passing marks?
volume by
(a) 275 (b) 175 (c) 225 R Rh R
(a) (b) (c)
(d) 500 (e) 125 4 2(R+h) 2
(R+h) Rh
86. The average age of Amit, Dharam and Ankit at the time (d) 2Rh
(e) 4(R+h)
of the marriage of Dharam was 40 years. After one year
94. Shivam’s expense is 25% more than Dharam’s expense
a child was born to Dharam and after 5 years of and Dharam’s expense is 15% less than Harish’s
marriage the average of all of them is 36 years. What expense. If the sum of the their expense is Rs 4660,
was the age of the bride at the time of marriage? then what would be the Shivam’s expense?
(a) 30 (b) 40 (c) 36 (a) Rs 1360 (b) Rs 1700 (c) Rs 1600
(d) 42 (e) 32 (d) Rs 1156 (e) Rs 1165
Solutions
4 4
4 of25 5 3 1 of25 3 1
1. (c): ( 5
48
) ÷ (4 of32 + 7 of 21) =? of 49 6. (e): (5 64 ) ÷ (432 − 202 + 7 of 21) × (82) =? of 64
24 25 1 5 1
( 5 × 48) ÷ (40 + 9) =?× 49 (16) ÷ (432 − 400 + 9) × (82) =?× 64
5 5 5 1
? = 49 × = = 2.5 ? = 16 × 41 × 82 × 64 = 40
98 2
2. (b): √? of 6 + 20% of 95 = of 62
1 7. (a): 55% of 900 + 70% of 1050 = ? % of 3000
2 55 70 ?
62 20 × 900 + × 1050 = × 3000
√? of 6 = 2
−
100
× 95 = 12 100 100 100
2 495 + 735 = 30 ×?
?= 2 = 4
30 ×? = 1230
5 3 9 ? = 41
3. (e): (3 of 6 5 of 11) +?2 = 45
5 33 9
( × × ) +?2 = 45
3 5 11
2
? = 36
? = ±6
4 14 3 4
4. (a): (7 × 5
÷ 2) − (10 of ? ) = 5 − 3
4 14 1 3 11
(7 × 5
× 2) − (10 ×? ) = − 5
4 3 11
− ?= −
5 10 5
? = 10
4 1 27 1
5. (c): 4 5 + 2 15 − 5
= 2 5 ÷ 3 ×?
24 31 27 11 1
5
+ 15 − 5
= 5
× 3 ×?
22 11
= ×?
15 15
?= 2
599 − (9 + 0) = 590
II. 4y 2 – 15y = 4
590 − (9 + 1) = 580
4y 2 − 16y + y − 4 = 0
580 − (9 + 2) = 569
(4y + 1)(y − 4) = 0
569 − (9 + 3) = 557 1
557 − (9 + 4) = 544 y = −4,4
544 − (9 + 5) = 530 Clearly, x < y
wrong number is 591 which should be replaced
35. (c): I. x 2 + 3x = 0
with 590
x(x + 3) = 0
30. (b): Pattern is x = 0, −3
700 + 10 = 710 II. x 2 + y = 10
710 − 30 = 680 y = 10 − x 2
680 + 10 = 690 if x = 0, y = 10
690 − 30 = 660 if x = −3, y = 10 − (−3)2 = 1
660 + 10 = 670 Clearly, x < y
670 − 30 = 640
(alternate addition of 10 and subtraction of 30 36. (c): I. x 2 − 25x + 156 = 0
is followed in the given pattern) x2 -12x -13x +156=0
wrong number is 675 which should be replaced x(x-12)-13(x-12)=0
with 680 (x-12)(x-13)=0
x =12,13
31. (e): I. x 2 + 5x + 6 = 0 II. y 2 − 29y + 210 = 0
x 2 + 3x + 2x + 6 = 0 y2-14y -15y +210=0
(x + 3)(x + 2) = 0 y(y-14) -15(y-14)=0
x = −2, −3 (y-14)(y-15)=0
II. y 2 + 9y + 14 = 0 y=14,15
y 2 + 7y + 2y + 14 = 0 So,x<y
(y + 2)(y + 7) = 0
y = −2, −7 37. (d): I. x 2 = 196
Clearly, no relation can be established x =√196
x =±14
32. (b): I. x 2 − 18x + 45 = 0
II. y = √196
x 2 − 15x − 3x + 45 = 0
y =14
(x − 3)(x − 15) = 0
So,x ≤ y
x = 3,15
53. (d): required ratio = 800: 900 = 8:9 66. (b): Let speed of bus and car be 6x km/hr and 7x
km/hr respectively
54. (b): required difference So,
= (1500 + 1200 + 900) − (1000 + 2000) (7x – 6x) × 4 = 28
= Rs. 600 x=7
196
1500−1200 Required time = 7×7 = 4 hours
55. (d): Required percentage = × 100
1500
= 20% less
2000 2000
56. (a): required ratio = (4000−2500) = 1500
4
=3
(2500−2000)+(4000−2500)
57. (d): required % = × 100
3000
2000
= 3000 × 100
= 66.67%
2000+2000+2500+2500 9000
58. (b): required average = 4
= 4
= 2250
77. (b): let speed of trains – A & B are x m/s and y m/s
70. (c): Let length of train A = length of train B = ℓ m respectively.
ATQ, ATQ
ℓ+98 ℓ 120 5x + 5y = 850
⇒ = ×
24 12 100 x + y = 170 ……. (i)
ℓ = 70 m And
[(49+57)–(45+52)] 850
71. (d): Required average = 53 – x − y = 85
45 3
9
= 53 – 45 x − y = 30 …….. (ii)
= 52.80 kg From (i) and (ii)
x = 100 m/s and y = 70 m/s
72. (a): Let speed of boat in still water = 11x Required ratio =
5×100
= 10: 7
Speed of stream = x 5×70
Directions (18): In each question below a sentence are Directions (24-28): In each of the questions given
given which is divided into five parts. The first part of below a sentence is given with one blank. Below each
the sentence (1) is correct and is given in bold followed sentence FOUR words are given out of which two can
by four parts named A, B, C and D. Rearrange the four fit the sentence. Five options are given with various
parts to make a coherent sentence. The rearranged combinations of these words. You must choose the
combination with the correct set of words which can
sequence of the parts will be your answer.
fit in the given sentence.
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24. At 6.30 everyone gathered for drinks and 29. (I) Minimalist theorists believe that democracy is
__________ in the lounge. valuable
(A) Titbit (II) Democracy enables the peaceful transfer of
(B) Bite power through free and fair elections.
(C) Appetizer (i) Because democracy enables….
(D) Sweetness (ii) Though democracy enables ….
(a) A-B (b) B-C (c) A-D (iii) Whether minimalist theorists …..
(d) A-C (e) B-D (a) Only (i)
(b) Only (iii)
25. They took her resignation from TCS as (c) Both (i) and (iii)
___________ of their suspicions. (d) Both (ii) and (iii)
(A) Flaying (B) Confirmation (C) (e) All of these
Testimony 30. (1) The subjective interpretive reasoning cannot be
(D) Drubbing formulated in mathematical ways.
(a) C-D (b) B-C (c) A-D (2) It seems to me that logic should be unique and
(d) A-C (e) B-D hence quantifiable.
(I) While the subjective interpretive…
26. The situation in Syria, where so many proxies of
(II) The formulation of mathematical and…
so many nations are fighting each other, is very (III) That logic of mathematical ways…
__________. (a) Only (I)
(A) Incessant (B) Complicated (C) Constant (b) Only (II)
(D) Perplexing (c) Both (I) and (III)
(a) B-D (b) A-D (c) A-B (d) Both (I) and (II)
(d) A-C (e) B-C (e) All (I), (II) and (III)
27. Earlier, people used to think that clearing the Directions (31-37): In the following passage there are
English section of the SSC CGL Mains exam was blanks, each of which has been numbered. These
__________, but it isn’t as confirmed by the low numbers are printed below the passage and against
cut-off marks for the English section. each, five options are given. Find the word which fits
(A) Easy (B) Exacting (C) Formidable the blank most appropriately.
(D) Facile Last Saturday, as _________(31) _________ explosions
(a) A-B (b) B-C (c) A-D went off at Aramco’s Khurais oilfield and Abqaiq
(d) A-C (e) B-D processing facility in Saudi Arabia, an all-too-familiar
sense of dread swept over Indian markets and
Direction (28-30): Select the phrase/connector
consumers. At the pump the spectre of rising oil prices
(STARTERS) from the given three options which can came back to ________(32) __________ people while
be used to form a single sentence from the two RBI governor Shaktikanta Das told CNBC-TV18 that
sentences given below, implying the same meaning as India’s current account and fiscal _________(33)
expressed in the statement sentences. _________ could take a hit if oil prices continued to
28. (I) Many of economy’s revival measures are rise.
sensible. Just how long will India allow itself to be held
(II) A wider discussion on the matter would serve _________(34) _________ by the global oil mafia?
That 10 automated drones could disrupt 5% of the
the country well.
global oil supply is a cautionary note on their
(i) Subjected to a wider…..
_________(35) _________ powers but is also about how
(ii) While many of….
oil continues to be the lynchpin around which global
(iii) A wider discussion… business revolves. In the immediate aftermath of the
(a) Only (i) attack, US oil futures spiked 14.7%, the biggest spike
(b) Only (ii) in the last 10 years. It forced US President Donald
(c) Both (i) and (iii) Trump to authorize release of oil from the country’s
(d) Both (ii) and (iii) 645 million barrels of Strategic Petroleum Reserves.
(e) All of these With analysts now saying that even a disruption of a
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few weeks could increase the risk premium in oil 38. (a) hiring
prices, the _________(36) _________ is/are grim for (b) virtualization
India whose dependence on oil imports for meeting its (c) collapse
energy needs is at an alarmingly high 84% and whose (d) affiliation
strategic reserves are the lowest among the countries (e) No replacement required
most ________(37) __________.
39. (a) included
31. (a) vibrant (b) fetter (c) simultaneous (b) dominated
(d) exorcist (e) None of these (c) demonstrated
32. (a) haunt (b) excerpt (c) diatribe (d) departed
(d) invective (e) None of these (e) No replacement required
40. (a) tailored (b) legitimated (c) sequenced
33. (a) deficient (b) deficit (c) defiant
(d) shuffled (e) No replacement required
(d) dispel (e) None of these
41. (a) obligatory (b) dividend (c) zealous
34. (a) detente (b) exhort (c) docile
(d) liability (e) No replacement required
(d) hostage (e) None of these
42. (a) immediate (b) deduction (c) pious
35. (a) conspicuous (b) bristle (c) assiduous
(d) dearth (e) No replacement required
(d) destructive (e) None of these
Directions (43-52): In each of the questions given
36. (a) grudge (b) portents (c) fiasco below four words are given in bold. These four words
(d) enigma (e) None of these may or may not be in their correct position. The
37. (a) grilled (b) impacted (c) frisked sentence is then followed by options with the correct
(d) garbled (e) None of these combination of words that should replace each other
in order to make the sentence grammatically and
Directions (38-42): In the following questions, a
contextually correct. Find the correct combination of
paragraph is given. There are several words which are
the words that replace each other. If the sentence is
highlighted following numbers. These words may or
correct as it is then select option (e) as your choice.
may not be used in their correct sense in the given
paragraph. The numbers provided with these words are 43. Senator Van Hollen was requested (A) when
then followed by five options. These options contain rebuffed (B) permission to visit Srinagar in an
words that can replace the words in the paragraph. You effort (C) to assess the situation (D) on the
need to find the words that can replace the highlighted ground.
words and mark them as your answers. If the word (a) A-B (b) B-C (c) C-D
highlighted is used correctly then mark option (e) i.e. (d) A-C (e) None of these
“No replacement required” as your answer.
44. After the Wuhan changed (A), many things have
The major news story of 23 September 2019 was the (38) Summit (B), altering the circumstances (C)
stiffen of the 178 year old Thomas Cook UK. While surrounding India-China relations(D).
newspaper headlines were (39) authored by the story of (a) A-B (b) B-C (c) C-D
this unexpected collapse, there were smaller articles (d) A-C (e) None of these
tucked in on the side highlighting that Thomas Cook
45. China and India continue(A) to compete and have
India Ltd (TCIL) is not part of Thomas Cook UK and is
a contradictory(B) outlook on many issues (C)
not affected by the collapse.
and civilisational strategic (D).
Now TCIL is at pains to highlight through public notices
and press articles that it is (40) owned by Fairfax of
(a) A-B (b) B-C (c) C-D
Canada since 2012. The brand name, for which they were (d) A-C (e) None of these
reportedly paying a fee of ₹2 crore per year, overnight 46. It has to be acknowledged (A) that since the
turned into a (41) department for TCIL. Even while TCIL Wuhan Summit (B), little has concerned (C) as far
has issued press releases sharing its healthy financials, as India-China relations are changed (D).
its stocks fell by 2.68% at the end of the day’s trading in (a) A-B (b) B-C (c) C-D
the (42) transitive aftermath of the news. (d) A-C (e) None of these
89. Which of the following should be the FIRST 94. In the current knowledge-driven economy, the
sentence after the rearrangement? higher education system playing a major role in
(a) A (b) B (c) C social development and national economic
(d) D (e) E competitiveness.
90. Which of the following should be the FIFTH (I) plays a major role
sentence after the rearrangement? (II) has played a major role
(a) A (b) B (c) C (III) may play a major role
(d) D (e) E (a) Only (I) is correct
Directions (91-93): In the questions given below, there (b) Both (I) and (II) are correct
is a sentence in which one part is given in bold. The (c) Both (II) and (III) are correct
part given in bold may or may not be grammatically (d) All are correct
correct. Choose the best alternative among the four (e) No correction required
given which can replace the part in bold to make the
sentence grammatically correct. If the part given in 95. India is in transition towards a knowledge-based
bold is already correct and does not require any economy and its competitive edge determined
replacement, choose option (e), i.e. “No replacement from the abilities of its people to create, share and
required” as your answer. use knowledge more effectively.
91. To overlook the strides India has made since 1947 (I) will be determined by the abilities
for miss the lessons of history. (II) can be determined by the abilities
(a) is to miss the lessons (III) have to be determined from the abilities
(b) on miss the lessons (a) Only (I) is correct
(c) to miss the lessons (b) Both (I) and (II) are correct
(d) about miss the lessons (c) Both (I) and (III) are correct
(e) No replacement required (d) All are correct
92. Atal Bihari Vajpayee was a poet for a pluralist (e) No correction required
approach to politics.
96. The success of the cadets from the Boys Sports
(a) poet with a pluralist approach
(b) poet and had a pluralist approach Company of the Army Sports Institute, Pune, at
(c) poet who possessed a pluralist approach the recent ‘Khelo India’ school games has indeed
(d) Options (a), (b) and (c) a welcome.
(e) No replacement required (I) will be indeed a welcome
(II) is indeed welcomed
93. When he went out he left the radio on so that his
parents shall think that he was still in the house. (III) should be welcomed
(a) might think that (a) Only (I) is correct
(b) will thought that (b) Both (I) and (II) are correct
(c) should have been thought that (c) Both (II) and (III) are correct
(d) would thought that (d) All are correct
(e) No correction required (e) No correction required
Solutions
1. (a): There is a grammatical error in (B) part of the 5. (b): There is a grammatical error in (C) part of the
sentence. Here, use of “which” is incorrect sentence. Here, past perfect tense must have
because “where” is the pronoun which is used been used. When two actions take place in past
for a place not “which”. one after the other, the subsequent action is
Hence, option (a) is correct answer choice. written in past perfect tense.
2. (b): There is a grammatical error in (C) part of the Hence, replace “wrote” with “had written” to
sentence. “Is” must be replaced with “are” to make the sentence grammatically correct.
make the sentence grammatically correct Hence, option (b) is correct answer choice.
because subject of the sentence is “The meeting” 6. (d): 'a centre of attraction' should be replaced with
which is singular. 'the centre of attraction'. Since, 'the' follows the
Hence, option (b) is correct answer choice.
former noun in sentence with the structure
3. (e): There is no error in the given sentence. 'none + of + noun'. For eg: 'The art of living.'
Hence, option (e) is correct answer choice.
7. (d): In place of ‘a’, ‘the’ is used as ‘with the naked eye’
4. (d): There is a grammatical error in (A) part of the is the correct expression.
sentence. In a conditional sentence both the
8. (a): Use ‘among’ in place of ‘between’ because
clauses cannot be in future tense. In this case “if”
clause must be in simple present tense. Hence ‘between’ is used for the comparison of only two
“will agree” has to be replaced with “agrees”. while ‘among’ is used for the comparison of
Hence, option (d) is correct answer choice. more than two.
72. (b): Only B-F can make a contextually correct and 77. (b): In phrase ‘inadequate reciprocated imports’
grammatically meaningful sentence. Rest of ‘imports’ which is a noun qualified by
the phrases fail to do so either because they are reciprocated (an adjective). To qualify an
part of some other sentence or because they are adjective an adverb is required so inadequate
independent sentence. must be replaced by inadequately.
Sentence thus formed by combining B-F is: 78. (c): Past perfect tense cannot be used without
The protesters were against a recent circular by reference to past time. Hence, option (c) is the
the university which allows only guest correct option.
appointments against full-time regular
vacancies. 79. (c): Past and past participle form of cast is cast
only. Hence, option (c) would be the correct
73. (d): All of the options can make a contextually answer.
correct and grammatically meaningful
sentence.
Sentences thus formed are:
A-E: Now every working professional here
who has a child at home and wants to spend
quality time with him or her can do so.
B-F: I am happy that from now on the officials
working here will be able to stay closer to their
children, visit them, feed them and play with
them.
C-D: The initiative will ensure working
women spend quality time with the children
which will create a favourable atmosphere for
both.
17. Which of the following box is placed just below box M? Six persons U, V, W, X, Y and Z are of different age. W is
(a) Q (b) C (c) D older than X and younger than Z. Y is younger than U.
(d) H (e) None of these Neither U nor Z is oldest. Y is second youngest. Z is not
second oldest. U is older than W. The one who is oldest is
18. Which of the following box is placed just above box H? 65years.
(a) D (b) M (c) C
(d) P (e) None of these 26. Who among the following is second oldest?
(a) V (b) Z (c) W
19. How many boxes are placed above box D?
(d) U (e) None of these
(a) One (b) Two (c) Five
(d) Three (e) Four 27. Who among the following is youngest?
(a) X (b) W (c) U
20. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way
(d)Z (e) None of these
based and from a group, find the one that does not
belong to that group? 28. If Z’s age is 55years, then what may be the age of U?
(a) F-C (b) P-Q (c) J-D (a) 61 years (b) 60 years (c) 51 years
(d) O-D (e) H-P (d) 68 years (e) Either (a) or (b)
Directions (21-25): Study the following information 29. Rakhi is 22nd from the left end of a row of 36 students
carefully and answer the question given below: and Preet is 24th from the right end in the same row.
Eight persons i.e. A, B, C, D, E, F, G and P are sitting in a row How many students are there between them in the
at equidistant. Some of them are facing north while others row?
are facing south but not necessary in same order. (a) 9 (b) 7 (c) 8
(d) 5 (e) None of these
E sits 2nd from one of the end. A sits third to the left of E. No
one sits to the right of F. B is not the immediate neighbor of 30. Doctor Rahul ranked 14th from the top and 19th from
A and E and faces north. Two persons sit between P and B. the bottom of the total doctors in the batch. How many
G sits second to the right of D. G doesn’t sit at any extreme doctors are there in the batch?
end. D faces north and is not immediate neighbor of B. (a) 32 (b) 33 (c) 31
immediate neighbor of C faces same direction. G, P and C (d) 30 (e) None of these
faces same direction but opposite of A. C does not sit
Directions (31-35): In each of the questions below are
immediate left of A.
given some statements followed by some Conclusions. You
21. Who among the following is third to the right of G? have to take the given statements to be true even, if they
(a) D (b) C (c) A seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read
(d) B (e) no one all the conclusions and then decide which of the given
22. The immediate neighbours of E are: conclusions logically follows from the given statements
(a) F and G (b) G and P (c) D and G disregarding commonly known facts.
(d) G and A (e) C and A (a) If both conclusions I and II follow.
(b) If either conclusion I or II follows.
23. How many persons are sitting exactly between B and
(c) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
P?
(d) If only conclusion II follows.
(a) Three (b) Four (c) One
(e) If only conclusion I follows.
(d) Two (e) None
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31. Statements: Directions (36-38): In each of the questions below are
Some Star are moon given some statements followed by some Conclusions. You
Some moon are sun have to take the given statements to be true even, if they
All sun is Helium seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read
Conclusion: all the conclusions and then decide which of the given
I: Some star are helium conclusions logically follows from the given statements
II: All sun can never be star disregarding commonly known facts.
32. Statements: (a) If only conclusion I follows.
Only a few Noise are Train (b) If only conclusion II follows.
All Train are Eye (c) If either conclusion I or II follows.
Only a few Eye are Music (d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
Conclusion: (e) If both conclusions I and II follow.
I: All Music can be Train
36. Statements:
II: No Noise is music
All Petrol is Diesel
33. Statements: No Diesel is CNG
All Thief are Good No CNG is LPG
Only a few Good are bad Conclusion:
No bad is Brave I: All LPG can be Petrol
Conclusions: II: Some Diesel are not LPG
I. Some Good are not Brave
II. All Thief can be Bad 37. Statements:
Only a few wood are glass
34. Statements: All wood are iron
Some black are swan All glass is steel
All swan are red Conclusion:
No swan are green I: All steel can be Iron
Conclusions:
II: All iron can be glass
I. All green can never be red
II. Some black are not green 38. Statements:
Only tags are subject
35. Statements:
Only a few tags are ear
Some May are April
Some ear are nose
No April is July
Conclusions:
All July are June
I. Some nose can be tags
Conclusions:
I: Some May are June II. All nose can be ear
II: No June is May 39. In a row Ram sits 23rd from the left end of the row and
Aman sits 25th from the right end of the row. If there
are 7 people sit in between Ram and Aman then find
out how many people sit in the row?
(a) 54 (b) 47 (c) 52
(d) 60 (e) Can’t be determined
Directions (46-49): Study the following questions and 52. How many employees are older than F?
answering the questions referring to the word sequence (a) Four (b) Two (c) Three
given below: (d) Five (e) No one
MEF, THY, JFG, KSY, NOE, RXB 53. If G’s born month is interchanged with A’s born month,
46. When first and second letter of each word is then G is older than which among the following
interchanged, then how many meaning full word will employees?
be formed ? (a) H (b) B (c) E
(a) Three (b) Two (c) One (d) F (e) D
(d) Five (e) None of these
54. How many employees born between B and G?
47. If each Consonant is changed to previous letter in the
(a) No one (b) One (c) Two
alphabetical series and each vowel is changed to next
letter in the alphabetical series, then How many word (d) Three (e) Four
contains at least one vowel? 55. Which of the following month D is born?
(a) None (b) One (c) Two (a) August (b) June (c) May
(d) Three (e) None of these
(d) March (e) None of these
56. Who among the following is the 4th youngest? 64. Statements: S>W=E≥R, F<C<V=N, W>K≥V>L
(a) A (b) K (c) C Conclusion I: F<S II: E>N
(d) S (e) X 65. Statements: Q=V>B≥N>I, G<H=B<M, S<V<K=L
57. What is the age of M? Conclusion I: L>Q II: H>I
(a) 36 (b) 64 (c) 25 Directions (66-70): Study the following alphanumeric
(d) 30 (e) Can’t be determined series carefully and answer the questions given below:
58. What could be the possible age of C?
(a) 28 (b) 30 (c) 15 9O2$NDU%M8E45*A76#R©WD&B3F¥
(d) 22 (e) None of the above 66. How many vowels are present in the above series
Directions (59-60): Read the following information which are immediately followed or preceded by a
carefully to answer the questions that follow: perfect square?
(a) None (b) One (c) Two
Sameer starts from city E travels 25km in East direction to (d) Three (e) More than three
reach city G. He then turns left and travels 22 km to city L.
He then turns left and travels 13 km to city S and stop in 67. Which element is exactly between the elements which
city M after turning left and travelling 13km. are 14th from the left and 16th from the right end?
(a) E (b) A (c) 5
59. In which direction is city M with respect to city G? (d) 6 (e) none of these
(a) North-west (b) South-east (c) North-east
(d) South-west (e) North 68. How many consonants are present in the above series
which are immediately followed by an odd number and
60. What is the shortest distance between city M and city immediately preceded by a symbol?
E? (a) None (b) One (c) Two
(a) 9km (b) 13km (c) 25km (d) Three (e) More than three
(d) 15 km (e) None of these
69. If all the consonants are removed from the above
Direction (61-63): Study the given information and series, then which element is 10th to the right of the
answer the following question. element which is 8th from the left end?
Point T is 5m west of point G. Point G is 7m north of point (a) 3 (b) © (c) #
D. Point D is 5m south of M. Point M is 3m east of point B. (d) 6 (e) None of these
Point B is 8m west of point O. Point O is 9m North of point
H.
61. What is the shortest distance between Point M and
Point H?
(a) √107m (b) 10m (c) 12m
(d) √106m (e) 11m
62. Point D is in which direction with respect to point B?
(a) North-west (b) South (c) East
(d) West (e) South-East
63. What is the shortest distance between Point B and
Point G?
(a) 5m (b) 4m (c) √13m
(d) 13m (e) None of these