13/10/2021 RM-G2 CODE-A2 Comporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456 MM : 720 FORTNIGHTLY TEST SERIES Time : 3.00 Hrs. (for NEET-2022) Test - 4 Topics covere Physics: System of Particles & Rotational Motion, Gravitation, Mechanical Properties of Solids Chemistry : Thermodynamics, Equilibrium Botany: Anatomy of Flowering Plants, Plant Kingdom Zoology : Breathing & exchange of Gases, Body Fluids & Circulation Instructions (There are two sections in each subject, ,e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15. (i) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score. Unanswered / unattempted questions wil be given no marks (ill) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle. (iv) Mark should be dark and completely fil the circle. (v)_ Dark only one circle for each entry. (vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only. (vil) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on the Answer sheet. PHYSICS Choose the correct answer: (1) 24) SECTION -A (2) (4,1) 1. The centre of mass of a body @) (0.1) (1) Always lies at geometrical centre 4) (1.9) 3, Three point masses 4, 8 and C have masses 1 kg, 2 kg and 4 kg respectively and are situated (3) Always lies where there is some mass at locations (1m, 2 m), (2 m, 3 m) and (0 m, 0 m) (4) May lie within or outside the body respectively. The location of centre of mass of system (in m)is (2) Always lies inside the body 2. Mass is distributed uniformly over a thin rectangular sheet. If the co-ordinates of two end wy (4) w (23) points of a diagonal are (-2, 0) and (2, 2). The a) co-ordinates of centre of mass of plate are @ 8) @ @o (ayFortnightly Test-4 (RMG2_Code-A2) 4 Two thin rods OA and OB of equal length (/) and mass (m) are lying in xy plane as shown in the figure. The moment of inertia of the system about x-axis is B mi? me On Os mit me 8) oy a ‘A uniform body is rolling without slipping on a horizontal surface and its rotational kinetic eneray is equal to the translational kinetic energy. The body is (1) Disc (2) Ring (3) Solid cylinder (4) Sphere ABC Is an equilateral triangle with © as its centroid. F:,F, and F; are three forces acting along the sides AB, CB and AC respectively as shown in the figure. For net torque to be zero about 0, magnitude of Fa is A Fy F c B Oa (2) Fit Fe (3) Fi-Fa (4) Fe A rigid body rotates about a fixed axis with variable angular velocity which varies with time ¢, as @= (a Bt) where a and f are constant. The angle through which body rotates before coming torestis, 0? —p Qe a0) (4) 10. " 12 Regular Medical-2022 Ifa gymnast sitting on a rotating platform with his arms outstretched, suddenly lowers his arms then (1) Angular speed decreases (2) Moment of inertia increases (3) Rotational kinetic energy increases (4) Angular momentum decreases ‘A wheel of radius 20 cm has forces applied to it as shown in figure, The net torque produced by the forces about centre O is 4N 6N (1) 1.8.Nm clockwise (2) 1.2 Nm clockwise (3) 0.8Nm clockwise (4) Zero ‘The magnitude of average torque of weight about point of projection of a projectile of mass m, projected with initial speed wat an angle 8, with horizontal, between point P and Q is P mu? cos 1 mut sin20 2 > a) @) rma 60828 (4) mu?cos20 When a body rolls up without sliding on an inclined plane, the frictional force acting on the body is (1) Directed up the plane (2) Directed down the plane (3) Zero (4) Depends on velocity A particle of mass 5 kg moves with velocity 52 mis, along the line y = - x. The angular momentum of particle about origin is (1) 2502 ka (2) 50 kgx (3) 75 kgx (4) Zero (2)Regular Medical-2022 Fortnightly Test-4 (RMG2_Code-A2) 13. 14. 16. 16. 417. A particle of mass m is revolving in a horizontal circle of radius r with constant angular speed o.The areal velocity of particle is (1) Pot (2) ro Peo oS ® 2 A solid sphere rolls down without slipping, on an inclined plane of inclination 60°. The linear acceleration of cylinder is ov3 Sgv3 m & @) ov Sgv3 @ (a) 2S The torque of force F=2i-3)+4K acting at a 31-42] + 3k, about the origin is (2) (4) -a7i +6] +198 point 7 (1) ef -6js12k si +6) —12k (3) 177-6j-13% ‘A solid sphere, a disc and a ring, released from the same height on an inclined plane, rolls down without slipping. Which one will reach the bottom atlast? (1) Time taken depends on mass and radius (2) Solid sphere (3) Disk (4) Ring ‘The potential energy of a planet in an elliptical orbit about the sun at point P, Q and R are Us, Uo and Up respectively. S is the position of sun Then R (1) Up> Up> Uo (3) Up> Ug> Ur (2) Uo> Ur> Un (@) Uo= Ur= Us 18. 19. 20. 24 22. 23, ‘A body weighs 500 N at the surface of earth. How much will it weigh at a height equal to the radius of earth? (1) 125N (2) 250N (3) 375N (4) 500 N ‘The work done to raise a mass m slowly from the surface of earth to a height (from surface) equal to twice the radius of earth (Re) is 1 1 (1) maRe (2) 5 maRe 2 (3) ZmaRe (4) mgRe If the gravitational force between two objects 1 varies as Fx, where ris distance between the objects, then orbital speed of an object in a circular path, of radius R around other mass, under the influence of such a force will be proportional to MR (2) 1 1 a) A a) 4 @ ae OF If energy of a satellite planet system is zero, then satelite wil (2) Move around the planetin circular orbit (2) Move around the planet i ellitcal orbit (3) Escape such that its speed at infinity is zero (4) Escape such that it has some speed at infinity Due to rotation of earth the change in value of ‘g! is (1) Same atall places (2) Maximum at equator (3) Maximum at poles (4) Maximum at angle of latitude 45° A body is projected from surface of the earth, seraiyupwae win 2 set ot 2am (where Re is radius of earth). The body will attain a height (from the surface) of () Re 2) (4) a|> wip R oF (3)Fortnightly Test-4 (RMG2_Code-A2) Regular Medical-2022 24. 28. 26. 27. 28. 29. Ifa mass Mis split into two parts m and (M— m) which are then separated by some distance, the \ that maximises the gravitational ratio of | 77 Cm) force between two part is (1) 4:2 (24:4 (3) 1:4 (4) 2:4 The time period of earth's satellite in circular orbit is independent of (1) Mass of earth (2) Mass of satellite (3) Height of satellite above earth surface (4) Both (1) and (3) Two identical point masses of mass m, both are released from rest such that initial separation between them is d. The speed of any mass, when th toparton teen an acre i fa ws oF os [Gm [3Gm (3) Vg (4) va Two concentric spherical shells have masses ‘Mand m and their radii are R and r respectively, where R > r. Then gravitational potential at distance x from centre (R > x >) is 0 ete] welt" 0 ff-2] wo oft) A uniform thin rod of length L and mass Mis bent to form a circle of radius R. The gravitational field intensity at centre will be 46M 2x'GM ) E @ = GM @ (4) Zero Two planets have radii Ri and Re and densities di and de respectively, The ratio of acceleration due to gravity at their surfaces will be (1) Reds: Re? (2) Rids : Rede (3) Ride: Redh (4) Rech : Rite 30. 31 32 33 34, 36, Ifthe radius of orbit of a satellite becomes 4 times of its initial value. Then the time period of satellite becomes (1) 4times (2) 6 times (3) 8times (4) 16 times A satellite with kinetic energy E is revolving around the earth in a circular orbit. The minimum additional kinetic energy required for it to escape is (1) 2E (2) E E E oF @ = Ifthe polar ice caps of the earth melt Then the length of day will (1) Increase (2) Decrease (3) Remains same (4) Earth stops to rotate It the radius of wire of a given material is doubled then its breaking stress will (1) Become halt (2) Become double (3) Become four times (4) Remain same A force F makes the length of wire, 1.001 times the original length of wire of cross-section A. The Young's modulus of material of wire is ms 100F A S00F (gy S00F A (2) A structural steel rod has radius of cross section 20 mm and length 4 m. When a force of 314 kN is. applied, it stretches the rod along the length Young's modulus of steel is 2 x 10°" Nim2. The clastic energy density of rod is (1) 1.56 * 108 Jim? (2) 1.56 « 10" Jim? (3) 3.12 « 108 Jim? (4) 3.42 * 108 Jim? (4)Regular Medical-2022 Fortnightly Test-4 (RMG2_Code-A2) 36. 37. 38, 39, 40. SECTION -B ‘The load versus elongation graph for four wires of same length and the same material is as shown in figure. The thickest wire is represented by line Elongation (1) 0 (aye (3) B A ‘A cube of side 50 mm has ils upper face displaced by 0.1 mm wrt lower face by applying a tangential force of 5 kN. The shear modulus of cube is (1) 3 108 Nim? (2) 2 108 Nime (3) 1% 10° Nim? (4) 0.5 x 10° Nim? Isothermal Buk modulus of gases is equal to (1) Temperature of gas. (2) Pressure of gas (3) Zero (4) Infinity When a mass M is suspended from a rigid support with the help of wire of length L, it increases its length by /. If the same arrangement: is suspended in an elevator accelerating upwards with an acceleration 7, then inerease in length willbe aay qu “ “ 7 a a) (2) ar mr @F 21 (3) 2I (4) 3 A rope of diameter 1 cm breaks if the tension in it exceeds 500 N. The maximum tension that a rope of twice the diameter and double the length made up of same material can bear is 44 42, 43, 44 45, 46. (1) 500.N (2) 1000N (3) 2000 N (4) 4000 N If the density of water at the surface of sea is 1000 kgim? and bulk modulus of water is 2 x 109 Nim®. Then the change in density of water in ocean at a depth of 500 m from surface is (g= 10 mis?) (1) 3 kglm? (2) 25 kgim? (3) 5.0 kgim? (4) 1.5 kgim? The length of a metal wire is /h when the tension in itis Ts and is le when tension is Tz. The original length of wire is WT, IT+h 4) Meh py Mithh OT ODT ITNT, yA, 9) Mas ay Maat @ att (One end of a uniform wire of length L and weight W is suspended from rigid support and a weight 2W is suspended from its lower end. If A is the area of cross-section, and Y is Young's modulus. Then elongation in wire is we 3WL ) ay @) Ay 5 WL WL. ®@) day 4) ay ‘The moment of inertia, of a solid cylinder of mass Mand radius R about an axis, parallel to axis of cylinder and passing through surface is 1 () uRe (2) MR 3 ype (3) Sur’ (4) 2MRe If radius of earth shrinks by 2%, then percentage change in value of gis (1) -2% (2) +2% (3) +4% (4) -4% ‘Aire breaks when a mass of 20 kg is hung with it vertically. If radius of the wire is made doubled then the wire will break when it is loaded with a mass of (1) 20kg (3) 80 kg (2) 40 kg (4) 10 kg (5)Fortnightly Test-4 (RMG2_Code-A2) Regular Medical-2022 47. Due to rotation of earth the acceleration due to gravity ‘gis (1) Maximum at the equator and minimum at the poles (2) Minimum at the equator and maximum at the poles (3) Equal at both places (4) Neither maximum at equator nor atthe poles Consider the following two statements ‘A. Escape speed from earth doesn't depend on the direction in which an object is projected B. Escape speed depends on the mass of the object projected (1) Both statements A and B are correct (2) Both statements A and B are incorrect (3) Statoment A is correct while statement B is, incorrect (4) Statement B is correct while statement A is incorrect AA square frame is made up from four identical rods each of mass m and length L. Moment of inertia of the square frame about an axis passing through the centre of the square frame and perpendicular to its plane will be 48, 49. (1) Sa (a) aml @) (4) Sm? 50. A uniform sphere is rolling purely over a horizontal surface as shown in the figure. Velocity of centre of the sphere is vo A Velocity of topmost point ‘A’ ofthe sphere is (1) vo (2) 2vo (2) 3v0 (4) Zero CHEMISTRY SECTION -A ‘At 298 K, the pH of 10° M solution of KOH is. aya (2) 12 (3) 8 (4) 10 If the solubility of CaF2 in pure water is y mol/L, then its solubility product will be (1) 28 2) 4 (3) By ay ‘The relation between Kp and Ke for the following reaction is 280s(g) <2 2502(g) + O2(9) (1) Kp =Ke (RT) (2) Ko = Ke (3) Ke=Ko(RT) (4) Ky = Ke (RT) For the reaction, (8) + CO-{g) = 2C0(a) The partial pressures of carbon dioxide and 51 52. 53, 54, carbon monoxide are 4.0 and 8.0 atm respectively at equilbrium, Kp for the reaction is (1) 2atm (2) 8 atm (3) 16 atm (4) 4atm 55. An equilibrium constant of 10% for a reaction implies that (1) The reaction proceeds nearly to completion (2) The reaction proceeds rarely (3) Appreciable concentrations of reactants as well as products are present at equilibrium (4) Product first increase and then decreases immediately If at 25°C, Ke (HX) is 1 * 10-4, the hydrolysis constant of NaX will be (1) 5x 107 (2) 1108 (3) 5x 108 (4) 4108 Which of the following will undergo hydrolysis in water? (1) (NHi)2S0« (2) Nac (3) KeSO« (4) NaNOs Buffer solution is prepared by mixing (1) NaCl (0.01 M, 100 mL) + KCI (0.1 M, 100 mL) (2) KoS04(0.1 M, 300 mL) + HsSOx(0.2 M,100 mL) (3) CHsCOOH (0.2 M, 200 mL) + NaOH (0.2 M, 50 mL) (4) NaCl (0.1 M, 300 mL) + HCI (0.2 M, 100 mL) 56. 57. 58, (6)Regular Medical-2022 59, 60. 61. 62. 63, 64, Consider the following equilibrium HCOOH(aq) = HCOO{aq) + H"(aq) At equilibrium, the addition of HCOONa will (1) Decrease HCOOH(aq) concentration (2) Reduce the H*(aq) ion concentration (3) Increase the equilibrium constant (4) Decrease the equilibrium constant For the equilibrium, 2A(g) = Ac(g), AH =—18 kcal, with increase in temperature (1) Equilibrium constant increases (2) Equilibrium is not affected (3) Formation of As is favoured (4) Decomposition of Ac is favoured Which of the following is not acid-base conjugate pair? (1) HNO,,NO3 (2) NHj,NH; (3) CHsCOOH, CHsCOO- (4) oF, Her e-D-glucose = p-D-glucose The equilibrium constant of given equilibrium reaction is 2. The percentage of f-D-dlucase at equilibrium is (1) 33.33% (2) 55.6% (3) 44.4% (4) 66.67% Which of the following equilibrium is not affected by change in pressure? (1) 2C(8) + Ox(g) = 2C0(9) (2) He(g) + 1) = 2HI(9) (3) 2S02(g) + O2(9) = 2S0s(g) (4) PCls(g) + Cla{g) = PCle(9) If an aqueous solution of 0.2 MNHsOH and 0.2 M NH:Cl has pOH 4.7 then pK of NH AB(g) at 298 K and 1 atm is “10 kcal. The AE for the above conversion would be (1) 9404 cal (2) 9404 cal (3) 10596 cal (4) ~10596 cal The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 10 g of iron from 30°C to 100°C is (The specific heat of iron is 0.45 J g-"K-!) (1) 2905 (2) 2005 (3) 3155 (4) 4104 Under what conditions, the reaction is spontaneous at all temperature range? (1) AH = negative, AS = negative (2) AH= positive, AS = positive (3) AH= negative, AS = postive (4) AH= positive, aS = negative Calculate the value of enthalpy of formation of OF: at 25°C from given data 81 82, 83, 84, 85, 86. Regular Medical-2022 H20(1) -> H* + OH- (aq); AH = 87 ki H, +10, I+ 50, PH, O(); AH = -284 kd (1) ~148 kJ/mot (3) -227 kJ/mol (48); (entropy of formation) for Az, Be and ABs ‘are 60, 40 and 50 Jk mol* for the reaction (2) -342 ksimol (4) -275 ksimol Tay Sa, 9 AByaHl--ADK. What 6 he ternperature at uit? (1) 480K (2) 750K (@) 20K 192K Frem the folowing equalon caleuete the enthalpy of formation of carbon monoxide Os) +0, -> CO, AH = -399 kstmol coo, +60, 4-268 ie (1) +110 ksimol (2) ~243 ksimol (3) =110 kJ/mo! (4) 42.38 kJimot What is the molar heat capacities of isothermal and adiabatic process respectively? (1) 2.0 (2) 0,0 @) at (4) 0,20 Calculate the heat involved when 0.75 mol of ideal gas expanded isothermally and reversibly at 300 K from 15 L to 25 L (1) 17205 (2) 8974 (3) 955 (4) 10725 Calculate the amount of heat release when 0.5 L (0.1 M) HCI mixed with 0.2 L (0.2 M) NaOH solution (1) 4.16 ks (3) 5.58 kJ (2) 228K) (4) 9.20 SECTION -B Combustion of glucose is represented as Celts + 602 -> 6COz + 6H:O AH = 2840 kJ ‘Amount of energy released on combustion of 0.36 g glucose is, (1) 3.28 ks (3) 5.68 ks (2) 1.86 kJ (4) 12.7 kd (8)Regular Medical-2022 Fortnightly Test-4 (RMG2_Code-A2) 87. 88. 89, 90. 1 92. For reaction, Hag) ~> 2H(g), enthalpy of reaction is equal to (x is bond enthalpy of Hz) (1) 2x x (3) x2 (4) 4x Consider the following (AHi)"; Benzene (I) = 46 kJ mot (aH); Cyclohexane ()) = -156 kJ mol The standard enthalpy of hydrogenation of cyclohexene is -119 kJ mol’. Calculate the resonance energy of benzene. (1) -208 ks/mot (2) #142 ksimol (2) ~155 ksimol (4) 88 kuimol What is possible work done in two separate path AB and B > C in cyclic process respectively (1) -2PVv, 0 (2) PV, -2PV (3) 0, PV (4) 2PV,-3PV Mixing of ideal gases at constant pressure and constant temperature involves (1) au>o (2) aH>o (3) as>0 (4) aG>o. From the given thermodynamic data calculate the enthalpy of transition from Rhombic to monoclinic sulphur Seunbe + O2-» SO2; AH = -298 ki/mol Svonscne + O2-» SO2; AHs = ~303 ks/mol (1) 10 kml (2) #7 ksimol (3) +8 kslmol (4) +17.2 kalmol Hydrolysis constant (Kn) for CHsCOOK(aq) is (Given Ke(CHsCOOH) = 2 10°) (1) 1408 (2) 5x 105 (3) 5x 10-0 (4) 5x 108 93, 94, 95, 96. 97, 98. 99, 100. If solubility of ABs(s) salt is s mol/L then its solubility product will be as (2) 2784 (3) 4s (4) 28 Enthalpy of solution of SrClz.2H20 and SrCle are 8.2 and -21.2 kJ/mol respectively; calculate the heat of hydration of SrCl to SrC.2H20 (1) -29.4 ksimo! (2) -26.4 kJ/mol (3) ~15.8 kimol (4) ~13 kuimot When an ideal gas expanded reversibly from 10 L to 100 L at 27°C then enthalpy change of the process is (1) 51 Latm (2) 102 atm (3) 10.2 Latm (4) Zero 0.5 mol He gas heated and their temperature changes by 50 K; calculate the enthalpy change during this process (1) 418.24 (2) 519.64 (3) 317.74 (4) 248.34 Which of the following has non-zero enthalpy of formation? (1) Graphite (2) White phosphorus (3) Brot) (4) Ozone Calculate the enthalpy of ionization of NHOH if it undergo following neutralisation process NHcOH + HCI > NHsCl + HzO (AH)eutatesion = 54.2 kd (1) 1.8kd (2) 29k (3) 3.9kJ (4) 4.2ks Calculate the entropy change for 2 mol Oz gas which on expansion changes its pressure from atm to 1 alm at 300K, (1) 9.58 «+ (2) 21.28 3K" (3) 11.504 (4) 17.8 0K Aqueous solution of which of the following is most acidic in nature? (Ka(CHsCOOH) > Ka(HCN)) (1) 0.1 MCHsCOOH (2) 0.1 MHON (3) 0.1 MHer (4) 0.1 MHSO« (9)Fortnightly Test-4 (RMG2_Code-A2) Regular Medical-2022 101 102. 103. 104. 108. 108. SECTION-A Living mechanical tissue is. (1) Sclerenchyma (2) Collenchyma (3) Xylem parenchyma (4) Phloem fibres A “Protoxylem lies towards the A_ in stem. Such arrangement of xylem is called _B Select the correct option for A and B. A B (1) Centre Exarch (2) Periphery Exarch (3) Centre Endarch (4) Periphery Endarch Al of the following structures constitute stele, except (1) Pericycle (3) Pith (4) Vascular bundle How many of the following features are correct regarding bulliform cells of grass leaves? (a) Large size (b) Presence of chlorophyll (©) Curl leaves inwards to minimise water loss (6) Present on adaxial epidermis (1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four Trichomes differ from root hairs in (2) Endodermis (1) Being unicellular (2) Being unbranched always (3) Being epidermal appendage (4) Being helpful to prevent water loss Sclerelds are present in all the given structures, except (1) Fruit pulp of guava (2) Seed coat of legumes (3) Petiole of the leaves of most dicots, (4) Leaves of tea 107. 108. 109. 110. 1 112 113. Which of the following is not 2 component of ground tissue system? (1) Hypodermis (3) Cortex Monocot roots have (2) Medullary rays (4) Vascular bundles (1) Water containing cavities in their xylem (2) Sclerenchymatous hypodermis (3) Well developed pith (4) Ring arrangement bundles of collateral vascular In dicot leaves, guard cells (1) Contain chloroplasts (2) Have thicker outer wall (3) Are dumb-bell shaped (4) Enclose subsidiary cells Identify the tissue which is of primary origin (1), Interfascicular cambium (2) Intercalary meristem (3) Phetlogen (4) Cork cambium Select the mismatched pair (1) Parenchyma - Thin cellulosic cell wall (2) Tracheids — Absent in gymnosperms (3) Vessels = Lack protoplasm at maturity (4) Xylem fibres - Obliterated central lumen Mesophyll cells are divided into palisade and spongy parenchyma in (1) Grass leat (2) Monocot leaf (3) Isobilateralleaf (4) Dicot leaf Phloem parenchyma is usually absent in (1) Monocot plants (2) Dicot plants (3) All seed plants (4) All vascular plants (10)Regular Medical-2022 Fortnightly Test-4 (RMG2_Code-A2) 114. 116. 116. 417. 118, 119. 120. Casparian strips are (1) Water permeable structure (2) Composed of lignin only (8) Present in root endodermis (4) Formed due to deposition of non-waxy materials Read the following statements and select the correct option Statement A : Cambium is present between xylem and phloem in conjoint collateral, open vascular bundles. Statement B : Polyarch radial vascular bundles are present in monocot stem (1) Only Ais incorrect (2) Only Bis incorrect (3) Both A and B are correct (4) Both A and B are incorrect Which of the following layer does not constitute the bark? (1) Perigerm (3) Secondary cortex ‘Autumn wood (2) Cork (4) Secondary xylem (1) Is also called early wood (2) Has large number of xylary elements (3) Has vessels with narrow lumen (4) Is lighter in colour Lenticels (1) Are formed by rupture of endodermis (2) Block the exchange of gases (3) Are tons shaped opening (4) Are absent in woody trees. In monocots, lateral roots originate from (1) Hypodermis (2) Pericycle (3) Cortex (4) Conjunetive tissue Peripheral region of secondary xylem isihas (1) Called heartwood (2) Involved in conduction of water (3) Deposition of organic compounds (4) Resistant to attacks of microorganisms 121 122 123. 124. 125, 126. 127. In___chemical constituents of the plant are used to resolve confusions. (1) Classical taxonomy (2) Cytotaxonomy (3) Karyotaxonomy Classification system based superficial morphological characters (4) Chemotaxonomy upon gross (1) Was given by Bentham and Hooker (2) Was an artificial classification (3) Consider various internal features also for Classification of organisms (4) Was mainly based upon relationships among organisms evolutionary Agar is a commercial product obtained from (1) Sphagnum (2) Ulothrix (3) Gelidium (4) Sargassum Spirogyra (1) Is @uniceluar alga (2) Produce flagellated gametes (3) Shows isogamous reproduction (4) Has motile female gamete Select the mismatched pair (1) Fucus Rich source of iodine (2) Chioretta Food supplement for space travellers (3) Volvox - Colonial alga (4) Chara - Presence of hydrocolloids in cell wall Green algae tack (1) Coll wall (2) Chlorophyll molecules (3) Motite spores (4) Coating of algin in cell wall Pyriform gametes with laterally attached flagella are present in (1) Red algae (2) Brown algae (3) Green algae (4) Blue green algae (11)Fortnightly Test-4 (RMG2_Code-A2) Regular Medical-2022 128. 129. 130, 131 132. 133. 134. 136. Select the feature which is not present in red algae (1) Biflagellated zoospores (2) Floridean starch as stored food (3) Complex post fertilisation development (4) Carrageen in cell wall Which of the following organisms provide ‘peat’ which can be used as fuel? (1) Marchantia (2) Sphagnum (8) Funaria (4) Riccia How many of the following features is/are associated with mosses? (a) Haploid plant body (b) Non-jacketed sex organs (©) Unicellular rhizoids (6) Zygote undergoes meiosis (1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four Gemmae are (1) Non-green (2) Unicellular structures (3) Asexual buds (4) Present on sporophyte Ha capsule cell of Funaria has 10 chromosomes then number of chromosomes in its zygote and @ thizoid call are respectively (1) 10,5 (2) 5,10 @) 5.5 (4) 10,10 Al ofthe following have elaborate mechanism of spore dispersal, except (1) Riccia (3) Sphagnum Pteridophytes differ from bryophytes in (1) Lacking true root, stem and leaves (2) Being non-photosynthetic (3) Having vascular tissues. (4) Requiring water for fertiisation Fealures related to Selaginela is/are (a) Heterospory (b) Presence of strobili (6) Macrophyilous leaves (1) Only (a) (2) Only (c) (3) (@) and (b) (4) (b) and (e) (2) Polytrichum (4) Funaria 136. 137. 138. 139. 140. 141 142 143. SECTION -B Prothallus is (1) Monoecious (2) Mostly non-photosynthetic (3) Dependent on sporophyte (4) Large in size The pteriodophyte which does not belong to Proropsida is (1) Adiantum (2) Pteris (3) Equisetum (4) Dryopteris Leaves of conifers do not have (1) Needle ike shape (2) Very thin cuticle (3) Sunken stomata (4) Adaptation to withstand extreme temperature Gymnosperms lack (1) Seeds (2) Ovary (3) Megasporangia (4) Female gametophyte Pinus (1) Isa dioecious plant (2) Has unbranched stem (3) Has symbiotic association of fungi with its roots (4) Does not form female strobili Read the following statements and select the correct option Statement A : Pollen grains of gymnosperms are carried by air currents. Statement B: ‘gymnosperm, (1) Only Ais correct, (2) Only Bis correct, (3) Both A and B are correct, (4) Both A and B are incorrect (Organism which lack archegonia is Sequoia is the tallest (1) Satvinia (2) Cycas (3) Cedrus (4) Wotfia Embryo sac (1) Is a diploid structure (2) Has 3 celled egg apparatus (3) Is not involved in double fertilisation (4) Is the male gametophyte of angiosperms (12)Regular Medical-2022 Fortnightly Test-4 (RMG2_Code-A2) 144. 145. 146. 147. 151. 152 All of the following show haplontic life cycle pattern, except (1) Chlamydomonas (2) Volvox (3) Ectocarpus (4) Spirogyra Diplontic life cycle does not found in (1) Gymnosperms —_(2) Bryophytes (3) Angiosperms. (4) Fucus Which of the following is not correct w.rt isobilateral leaf? (1) Stomata are present on both the surfaces of epidermis (2) Bullform cells are present on adaxial epidermis (3) Generally parallel venation is present (4) Vascular bundles are absent Radial vascular bundles are seen in (1) Dicot leaves, (2) Dicot and monocot roots (3) Monocot stem (4) Dicot stem 148. Allthe given are characteristics of phaeophyceae except (1) Gametes are pyriform and have two laterally attached flagella (2) They possess chlorophyll‘a’ and ‘c! (3) Stored food is floridean starch (4) Fucoxanthin and xanthophyll are also present 149. First terrestrial plants to possess vascular tissues are (1) Liverworts, (2) Moses (3) Pteridophytes (4) Gymnosperms Read the following statements and select the correct option. A 150. Selaginella and Salvinia are heterosporous plants Event precursor to the seed habit is seen in pteridophytes. Both A and B are correct Both A and B are incorrect, Only Ais correct Only 8 is correct B. a (2) (3) (4) SECTION -A When we breathe, our lungs do not collapse: between breaths and some amount of air always remain in lungs because (1) Pressure within lungs than ‘atmospheric pressure is higher (2) Positive intrapleural pressure pushes in the lung wall (3) Negative intrapleural pressure pulls at the lung wall (4) Pressure within lungs atmospheric pressure is lower than Read statements A and B and choose the correct option. Statement A: The partial pressure of COz in oxygenated blood than in actively metabolising tissues. Statement B: Gases like Oz and CO2 are exchanged in our body by simple diffusion, based on partial pressure gradient. (1) Both statements are incorrect (2) Statement A is correct but B is incorrect (8) Both statements are correct, (4) Statement A is incorrect but B is correct 153. Maximum amount of COs is transported in blood as (1) Dissolved in plasma (2) Carboxyhaemogiobin (3) Carbaminohaemogiobin (4) Bicarbonate ions 154. Choose the incorrect statement (1) Fe2*combines with porphyrin to form heme (2) Iron deficiency leads to anaemia (3) Mammalian skin is highly permeable to gases when moist (4) 02 solubility in blood plasma is lower at sea level pressure than CO2 (13)Fortnightly Test-4 (RMG2_Code-A2) 165. 158. 197. 168. 159. 160. 161. 162. The respiratory disorder characterized by destruction of the walls of the alveoli producing abnormally large air spaces that remain filed with air during exhalation is called (1) Asthma (2) Asbestosis (3) Emphysema (4) Pneumonia The factor which differentiates serum from blood is that the former lacks___. Choose the option which fils the blank correctly. (1) Globulins (2) Antibodies (3) Albumins (4) Clotting factors Reduction in the number of which formed element would impact clotting and excessive loss of blood from the body? (1) Lymphocytes (2) Erythrocytes (3) Thrombocytes (4) Monocytes The second heart sound can be heard when (1) Atrio-ventricular valves open (2) Semilunar valves open (3) Atrio-ventricular valves close (4) Semitunar valves close Maximum blood pressure in the aorta of humans and apes is observed during (1) Systole of left atrium (2) Diastole of right ventricle (3) Systole of eft ventricle (4) Diastole of right atrium Which of the following cells are mainly involved in inflammatory reactions? (1) Basophits (2) Neutrophils (3) Eosinophils (4) Lymphocytes The thread like tendons of papillary muscles inserted upon the flaps of tricuspid and bicuspid valves are (1) Reticulate fibres (3) Chordae tendinae Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency is associated with haemolysis of (1) Erythrocytes (2) Thrombocytes (3) Lymphocytes (4) Leucooytes (2) Ligaments (4) Yellow olastic fibres 163. 164. 165. 166 167. 168. 169. Regular Medical-2022 Globulins present in human blood plasma are primarily involved in (1) Clotting of blood (2) Maintaining osmolarity of blood (3) Transport of gases in blood (4) Defence mechanism of the body Population which has migrated from the plains to an area adjoining Shivalik hills about eight months ago will now (1) Suffer from altitude sickness with symptoms like nausea, dizziness, etc (2) Have decreased RBC count and very high binding affinity to Os, (3) Have higher count of RBCs and relatively lower binding affinity for Oo. (4) Are not physically fit to perform strenuous exercises. The fraction of most active phagocytic white blood cells in the human body is constituted by (1) Neutrophils and monocytes (2) Neutrophils and eosinophils (3) Lymphocytes and macrophages (4) Eosinophils and lymphocytes Parameter that does not change in an athlete during @ short and fast race is (1) Sequence of events in the cardiac cycle (2) Cardiac output (3) Duration of cardiac cycle (4) Heart rate If viotim of a road traffic accident with unknown blood group requires immediate blood transfusion, the best option is to use blood group (1) AB (2) aB~* (3) Or (4) O-* Deficiency of clotting factor Vl resuts in (1) Haemorthagic anaemia (2) Haemophilia (3) Leukemia (4) Sickle call anaemia Slowing down of heart rate to below 60 beats per minute in man is called (1) Tachycardia (3) Dextrocardia (2) Bradycardia (4) Laevocardia (14)Regular Medical-2022 Fortnightly Test-4 (RMG2_Code-A2) 170. im. 172. 173, 174. 175. The instrument used to record changes in action potentials produced by the heart muscle fibres during each heartbeat is (1) Electroencephalogram (2) Electroencephalograph (3) Electrocardiogram (4) Electrocardiograph 70 mil is the volume of blood pumped by each ventricle per beat under normal resting conditions in humans. This volume is called (1) Cardiac output (2) Stroke volume (3) End diastolic volume (4) End systolic volume Match column | and column ll and select the correct option. Column | Column Ii ‘A. Inspiratory capacity (i) §100-5800 ml Expiratory capacity (ji) 2100-2300 mi C. Functional Residual (ii) 1500-1600 mi Capacity D. Total lung capacity (iv) 3000 ~ 3500 mi A B oc D (1) (iv) i) il) a (2) (iv) iil) il) iO (3) iv) (ii) (i) (4) i) iy) il) (i) The nodal tissue located in the lower left comer of right atrium close to inter-atrial septum is (1) SAnode (2) AV node (3) AV bundle (4) Purkinje fibres (One can determine the heart rate of an individual by determining the number of____that occur in a given time. Choose the option that fil the blank correctly (2) ORS complexes (4) S-T segments (1) P waves (3) Flattened T waves All of the following —_will_ prevent clotting! coagulation except (1) Antithrombin (2) Heparin (3) Fibrinogen (4) Streptokinase 176. 177 178. 179. 180. 181. 182, 183. 184, Partial pressure of oxygen in oxygenated blood under normal physiological conditions is (1) 40 mmHg (2) 95 mmHg (3) 45 mmHg (4) 159 mmHg Increase in all of the following factors will shift the oxygen dissociation curve to the right except (1) pcoe (2) Temperature (3) 2,3 (8PG) (4) pH The causative agent of SARS (Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome) is a variant of (1) Polio virus (2) Mycobacterium (3) Corona virus (4) Pneumococcus ‘The mammalian cells incapable of metabolising glucose to carbon dioxide aerobically are (1) WBCs (2) RBCs (3) Hepatocytes (4) Muscle cells Structure in lungs which is directly involved in exchange of O2 and COz between air and blood in humans is (1) Bronchi (3) Alveot The pneumotaxie centre regulating respiration is located in the (1) Medulla (2) Cerebellum: (2) Pons (4) Cerebrum Hamburger's phenomenon is related to transport or exchange of (1) Phosphate ions (2) Chloride ions (3) Calcium ions (4) Sodium ions Blood vessel which delivers deoxygenated blood from the head and neck to the heart is (2) Trachea (4) Nasal chambers (1) Pulmonary vein (2) Superior vena cava (3) Inferior vena cava (4) Thoracic aorta In a human, the atmospheric air passes from ‘outside into the lungs in the order represented as (1) Nasal cavity > Larynx > Pharynx > Trachea -» Bronchi -> Bronchioles -» Alveol (2) Nasal cavity > Pharynx > Larynx —> Trachea -» Bronchi -> Bronchioles -» Alveol (3) Nasal cavity -» Pharynx -» Larynx -> Bronchi — Trachea — Bronchioles — Alveoli (4) Nasal cavity -> Larynx -» Pharynx -> Bronchi — Trachea — Bronchioles > Alveoli (15)Fortnightly Test-4 (RMG2_Code-A2) 186. 186. 187. 188. 189, 190. 191. ‘A specialized system of blood vessels which is exclusively available for circulation of blood to the cardiac musculature is called (1) Portal system (2) Coronary system (3) Systemic circulation (4) Pulmonary circulation SECTION -B The chamber of the heart which has the thickest muscular layer is (1) Left atrium (2) Right atrium (3) Left ventricle (4) Right ventricle The first bom baby of a mother is Rh" Haemolytic disease of new born (HDN) is likely to ‘occur in second pregnancy or subsequent pregnancies when blood group of the (1) Mother is Rh-and foetus is Rh (2) Mother is Rh~* and foetus is Rh~® (3) Mother is Rh and foetus is Rh! (4) Mother is Rh and foetus is Rh” The middle layer of the heart wall is called (1) Pericardium (2) Epicardium (3) Myocardium (4) Endocardium What would be the cardiac output of a person if his heart rate is 100 beats/min and stroke volume is 85 mi? (1) 8990 mi (2) 9000 mi (3) 8500 mi (4) 8000 mi Read statements A and B carefully and choose the correct option Statement A: ECG does not record heart sounds and blood pressure. Statement B: Blood pressure is evaluated using sphygmomanometer. (1) Statement A is correct but B is incorrect (2) Statement A is incorrect but B is correct (3) Both statements A and B are correct (4) Both statements A and B are incorrect The ductus arteriosus normally closes after birth leaving a remnant called (1) Trabecular canal (2) Ligamentum arteriosum (3) Ligamentum venosum (4) Foramen ovale 192 193. 194. 195. 196. Regular Medical-2022 Complete the analogy by selecting correct option. Platelets : Thrombocytosis (1) Leukemia (2) Polycythemia (3) Leucocytosis (4) Thrombocytopenia RBCs The sequence of responses that stops bleeding after blood vessels have been damaged is termed (1) Agglutination (2) Haemorthage (3) Hemostasis (4) Clumping A diagrammatic view of human respiratory system with labels A, 8, C and D is given below. Choose the incorrect match w.r. identification and main function and/or characteristic. Bronchus—_ Cut end of rib Lung (1) Atrachea — divides at the level of 5! thoracic vertebra (2) B — pleural membranes — reduces friction on the lung surface (3) C-alveoli — vascularised bag like structures for exchange of gases (4) D - diaphragm — remains contracted during expiration Neural regulation of the heart rate originates in the cardiovascular centre located in (2) Medulla oblongata (4) Limbie system (1) Cerebral cortex (3) Hypothalamus Cutaneous respiration is shown by (2) Fishes (4) Felis (1) Frogs (3) Canis (16)Regular Medical-2022 197. 198, __ is a special connective tissue consisting of a fluid matrix, plasma and formed elements, Fill the blank with a suitable option (1) Blood (2) Bone (3) Adipose (4) Areolar Read the following statements and choose the correct option. Statement A: O2 is utlized by the organisms to indirectly breakdown simple molecules like glucose, amino acids etc., to derive energy to perform various activities. Statement B: CO: is non-harmful and released during the catabolic and anabolic reactions. is (1) Both statements are incorrect (2) Both statements are correct (3) Only statement Ais correct (4) Only statement B is correct 199. 200. a Fortnightly Test-4 (RMG2_Code-A2) Select the incorrect statement (1) Fishes have a 2-chambered heart with an atrium and a ventricle (2) Amphibians have a 3-chambered heart with two atria and a ventricle (3) Crocodiles have a 3-chambered heart with two atria and a ventricle (4) Birds have a 4-chambered heart with two atria and two ventricles Match columne| correctly with column-!I Column Column4ti a, P-wave (Ventricular repolarization b. QRS complex (ji) Ventricular depolarization c. T-wave (ii) Atria! depolarization (1) ati, bq), e() (2) ati), bi), c(i) (3) ati), b(), c(i) (4) aii, b(), et) (17)ALL RIGHTS RESERVED All rights including copyright and translation rights etc, reserved and vests ‘exclusively with AESL. 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