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A -o1

Time : 2,00 Hours Maximum Marks : 100

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO.

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Series Code A, B, C or D carefully and rvithout any omissiori or iJiscrepancy at the appropriate places tn
the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will render the OMR Ansrver Sheet liable for rcjectton
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the
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DO NOT wite anything else on the Test
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items item is printed in English only. Each item
comprises four responses (ansrvers). YOu will sele t.the
.tlie response rvhich you want to mark on the UMK
which OMR
Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one corrcct rcsponse, mark the rcsponsc \hich
you consider the best. In any case, choose ONI,I ONE response for each item'
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate OMR Answer Shect providcd. See dircctions
in the OMR Ansrver Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to thelOMR Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet.
you have to fill rn s in the OMR Ansrver Sheet as per instructions mentioned on the
OMR Answer .Sheet.
After you have filling in all your responses on the OMR Ansrver Sheet and the exanrination
has concluded, you ihould handlver to'the Invigilator only the OMR Answer Sheet' You are permitted
to take away rvith 1'ou the Test Booklet, along with candidate copy of OMR Ansu'er Sheet'
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
l0.Penalty for wrong answ€rs :
THEREWILLBEPENALTYFoRwRoNGANSWERSMARKEDBYACANDIDATEAS
UNDER.
(i) There are four altematives for the answer to every question. For each question for rvhtch a }rong
answcr has bccn givcn by thc candidatc, 0.25 of thc marks assigncd to that qucstion riill bc
deducted as penaltv.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the
-hupp.r,
given unr*"r, to be correct and there rvill be same penalt.v as above to that question
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e.. no ansuer is given b1, the candidate, there rvill be no pcnaltl tbr
that question.
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Choose the correct statement from the following :
(A) Pleadings can be verified only by the advocate who holds a vakalathnama for the pany.
(B) Pleadings can be verified by any advocate.
(C) Pleadings are verified only by a solicitor.

Choose the correct statemenr from the following :

(A) The defendant in a suit can never seek an interlocutory injunction as against the
plaintiff in that suit.
against the plaintiff in
that suit.
(c) The defendant in a suit can in exceptional circumstances seek an interlocutory injunction
as against the plaintiff in rhat suit.
(D) Only the plaintiff is permitted to seek interlocutory injunctions.

Choose the correct statement from the following :


(A) A pteading can never be amended after the i
(B) A inq can sometimes be amended after
the leave of the coun.
(D) A pleading can never be amended.

Where there is a non-joinder of


(A) The suit will be dismissed.
(B) The suit will be dismissed ol a proper party.

of a necessary party.

If a civil court a delay in filing an appeal, the same can be challenged


by way of :

(B) as an appeal against an order.


(c) By ion petition to the High Court.
(D) By petition to invoke the Supervisory jurisdiction of the High Courr.

Which of the following is not a "decree" ?


(A) An order of rejection of plaint. (B) An ex-parte decree.
(D) Both (A) and (B)

7 Choose the correct statement from the following


1A; e ptea of res judicaia cannot be waived.
(C) A plea of res judicam can be raised even if it is not pleaded.
(D) A plea of res judicata does not require any proof

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of a certified copy of a the court shall :

appears on
@) Draw an irrebuttable presuniption that it was pronounced by a court of competent
jurisdiction, unless the contrary appears on the record.
(C) First examine whether the judgment is lrom a country recognized by the Government
of India.
@) Examine whether it is a forged document.

A suit seeking damages for defamation can be filed :

(A) At the place where the defamatory statements were published.


(B) At the place where the defendant resides, works for gain or carries on business.
(C) At the place the plaintiff resides, works for gain or carries on business.

l0 Wher'e a witness is examined through a commission and a to the witness is


objected to on the grounds of privilege :
The commissioner can rule on whether the privilege

same to the court


(c) The commissioner must record the as well as the answer to
the question and the court will decide of privilege.
(D) The commissioner must record the in secret and submit the same
to the court in a sealed cover.

Choose the correct statement from


(A) A force majeure event ed by the parties to the co ntract,
outside

(C) Force majeure are acts of God.


(D) In the absence for force majeure in the contract, a party cannot be
exempted under any circumstances.

Choose the from the following :


(A) The a contract may be assigned without the consent of the counter

@) The the contract cannot be assigned without the consent of the counter

to the contract.
(D) Contracts to be performed by the promisor himsell can be assigned.

Choose the correct statement from the following :


(A) The sub-agent is always responsible to the principal, and not the agent in carrying out
her responsibilities.

wrong.
(c) The sub-agent is never responsible to the agent.
(D) The agent has no responsibility for the sub-agent.

PD-OI-CAD O
Llslq,
14 The Indian Contract Act, 1872 defines consent as:
(A) Two or more persons are said to consent when they set out the terms of consent in
iting in the form of an agreement.

same sense.
(c) An exchange ofletters, telex, telegrams or other means of telecommunication, including
communication through electronic means, which provide a record of the consent.
(D) such terms are found in a document signed by the parties.

l5 Under Section 7l of the Indian Contract Acl, 1872, a finder of goods belonging to another:
(A) Is entitled to keep the goods for herself

(C) Must locate the owner of the goods and hand over the
@) Must never take the custody of such goods.

16 Consent to an agreement is said not to be free consent Contract Act, 1872:-

fraud, mi
(B) When it would not have been given but of threats, undue influence,
fraud, misstatement or mistake as set 14 of the Act
(c) it
When in a contract between two adults.
has been given
(D) When it has been given in a contract between two adults of sound mind at the time
of the execution of the contract.

17 A person is competent to
and who
is of sound he is
subject.
(B) Who is of owning propeny according to the law to which he is subject, and
who and is not disquatified from contracting by any law to which he
IS

(c) Who mind and is not disqualified from contracting by any law to which
he is
(D) Who is twenty-one years of age and who is of sound mind and is not disqualified from
contracting by any law to which he is subject.

18 The Indian Contract Act, 1872, defines a voidable contract as:

An agreement which is enforceable by law at the option of one or more of the panies
thereto, but not at the option of the other or others.
(C) A contract that can be terminated by both parties.
(D) A contract which is in its nature determinable.
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19 An Order by the Central Government imposed limits on the maximum number of pages that
a newspaper could publish. As per Government, the Order is issued to control the import of
newsprint and to conserve foreign exchange. Examine the validity of this Order.
of
pages ls a
(B) Article 19 (l)
(a) though includes freedom of the press, restriction on the number of
pages relates to the business aspect ofthe press and as such not covered under this right.
(c) It is a reasonable restriotion to conserve foreign exchange and hence valid.
(D) The Order is issued to protect public order and is a reasonable restriction under
Article 19 (2).

20 The prohibition contained in Article 20 (1) is not applicable :


(A) Where at the time of commission, the act was not an offence it was made an
offence by e retrospective law.
(B) At the time of the commission of the offence, t prescribed was
three years imprisonment, but by a retrospective punishment was

imprisonment, but by an amendment it was rupees fine.


@) None of the above,

2l The police without obtaining the consent him to undergo a lie detector
test. Is this a violation of that person' right?
(A) No. There is no fundamental an accused.
(B).- No, Article 20 (3) is not giving evidence during the trial ol an
offence.'
Yes. It i under Article 20 (3 ).
@) Yes. It is a 4 of the International Covenant on Civil and Polirical
Rights.

The contractor Highway project is not paying minimum wages prescribed by


the Is it a violation of Part III of the Constitution?
(A) No. Rights are available only against the'State'and not against a privare

(B) No. There is no fundamental right to minimum wages under part III of the Constitutron.
Anicle
a duty its projects.
(D) No. Payment of minimum wages is only a statutory obligation.

23 A "landlord" under the Haryana Urban (Control ol Rent and Eviction) Act, 1973. is
(A) Any person for the time being entitled to receive rent.
(B) The owner of the land that has been let out.
(C) Every person from time to time deriving title under an owner.

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24 A "non-residential building", under the Haryana Urban (Control of Rent and Eviction) Act,
1973 means a
and partly
fbr the purpose of resides in the
building.
(B) Mainly for business or trade & partly for the purpose of business or trade and partly
for the purpose of residence and the landlord who carries on business resides in the
building.
(C) Used only for business or trade.
(D) Used only for commercial activities.

25 A "residential building" under the Haryana Urban (Control ofRent and Eviction) Act, 1973, is"
(A) Any building used only for residential purposes.
(B) furv building used mainly for residential purposes.
(C) Any building used mainly for residential purposes or partly for
or trade and pafily lor the purpose ol residence and the person
resides in the building
Any building which is not a non-residential buil.diif

The fair rent fixed by the rent controller (Control of Rent and
Eviction) Act, 1973 will be operative from:
(A) The date of order.
(B) The date of commencement of
(D) The date from which the possession of the property.

27 Urban ( Eviction) Act, 1973 prohibits :

ffi buildings.
(B)
(c)
(D)

(B) Can review his orders.


to the

(D) Can review his orders only to the extent of correcting any clerical or arithmetic errors.

29 Choose the correct statement from the following :


(A) A plea of Limitation cannot be raised unless it is specifically pleaded.
if it is not pleaded.
(C) Section 5 of the Limitation Act applies to proceedings under Order 21.
(D) A court can condone a delay in instituting a suit if there is "sufficient cause".
\
PD.O1.CAD-O L!qr4--.,
A plea of
adverse possession can be raised:
(A) Both by the plaintiff and the defendant.

(D) The defendant as well as the plaintiff who was an innocent purchaser

3l In case ofa suit for injunction to restrain passing ofl, the period ofLimitation begins to run:
(A) From the date on which the passing off occurred for the first time.
(B) Afresh, from every day the passing off continues.f;
(C) From the day on which the plaintiff came to know about the passing off
(D) From the day the plaintiff sends a "cease and desist" notice to the defendant.
32 Choose the correct statement from the following :

33 Where ol a debt is barred by Limitation, the


pursue any other
legal avenues to recover

(D) Neither (A) nor (B)

34 ln computing the period of suit, appeal or application,


such period is to be reckoned
(A) the ciay from which (B) the previous day from which
(c) the Sunday from @) None of the above.

35 The of Performance of a contract is ;

(B) Twelve date fixed for


(c) Three the date of breach.
(D)

The for executing a decree of a prohibitory injunction is :


(A) Three from the date of decree.
(B) Twelve years from the date of decree.
(c) Three years from the date on which a certified copy ol the decree was served on the
defendant.

37 For the purposes of Section 4 ofthe Limitation Act, the relevant event to determine whether
the Courts are closed is
(A) Whether the concerned Court is in session.
who hears the suit is sitting or not.

(D) Whether the Court is on or not.


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"A" and "B" are co-owners of a parcel of land and A alone has been enjoying actual physical
possession of the land for the last l3 years as B has been living abroad. Choose the correct
statement out of the following:
(A) A cannot in any circumstances claim adverse possession against B as As possession
is also on behalf of B.

and exercises ol openly and to the knowledge of B.


(C) A cannot in any circumstances claim adverse possession against B as an owner cannot
claim a right to adverse possession.
(D) None of the above.

39 "A" had taken certain premises on rent for running a restaurant and lrad installed a diesel
generator (attached to the ground) with the objective ofusing that for riinning the restaurant,
as long.as they had the use of the premises and taking it apart whe,n. th€ir lease terminated.
A security bond pledging the diesel generator is:
(A) A transaction relating to "immovable property" that attracts the provisions ofthe Transfer
of Property Act, 1882.
(B) Not a transaction relating to "immovable the provisions of the
Transfer of Property Act, 1882.
(C) A transaction relating to "movable the provisions ofthe Transfer
of Property Act, 1882.
of the
Act, 1

40 "A" errjoys a right to use a is the only access available to his plot of land.
A can:
(A) Independently (i. his rights in the plot of land) transfer his right
in use of that
(B) Can i his right in the use of that road, provided the owner of that
road
(c) Can transfer his right in the use of that road, provided that he does not
use longer.

4l "A" and "8"


are co-owners of a two storied residential house, where A has 50% share each.
The property has not been partitioned till date. B wishes to sell of his interest in the property.
Choose the correct statement from below :

(A) B cannot sell-off his share without partitioning the property.


(B) -B can sell his share, however the registration cannot be effected without a partition
t

the property.
(D) A can sell the property and the purchaser can start enjoying possession of one of the
floors ol the house.

PD-O1.CAD O @)
"A'and "B" had entered into a contract for sale of a certain parcel of land belonging to A
However, A did not complete the transaction and B instituted a suit for specific performance
Meanwhile, A had sold of the property to "C". Choose the correct statement from the
lollowing:
(A) The transler to C is illegal and void ab initio.
(B) The transfer to C is in all circumstances a valid one and the most that B is entitled to
AandB
All the statements above are incorrect.

43 The difference between a lease and a license is that :

a license is only a
to use the property.
(B) A license involves a transfer of an inlerest in the property and a lease is only a
permission granted to use the property.
(c) There is no difference between the two.
(D) None of the above.

"A'wish to lease out a residential building to "B"


(A) The lease can be made only by way of a
@) The lease can be made only by way of a instrument.
(C) The lease may be oral or written, but if to be registered.

45 To effect a mortgage by deposit of


A) The must be si

(c) The person must be a resident of a notified town


(D) The person must be a resident of a notified town

on the pattern of:


(B) United States of America

47 Which of Acts introduced the Principle of Election in India :

(A) Act of 1861


(C) Indian Act of 1909 (D) Indian Council Act of 1919

Which of the following statements about President ordinance making power is not correct :

(A) It is co-extensive with legislative power of Parliament


@) Laid down in Article 123
(C) Shall cease to operate on expiry of six weeks from. reassembly of the Parliament
,flffi#E*,.B.'*emllt
J[e,Dir.ective Principles of State Policy in Constitution of India is borrowed from the:
c4!r_
(C) United States of America @) None of above

PD-OI-CAD_O
50 The world socialist and secular were added to the Preamble of Constitution by:
(A) 41st amendment (B) ++tt antendment
(C) 46th amendment @) +Zna amendment
5l Which of the following Writs are not provided in the Constitution of India:
(A) Prohibition @) Mandamus
(C) Quo warranto
52 Which Schedule of Indian Constitution provides provision relating to disqualification of
members of Parliament and State Legislatures on the ground of defection :

(A) Ninth Schedule (B) Eleventh Schedule


((.) tentn Scneoule (D) Seventh Schedule

(C) Article 32

54 A money bill can be introduced in


(A) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha both
(C) Only in Rajya Sabha above statement is correct

55 Under the Indian Constitution power ofj examine constitutional validity of


legislative enactment is vested with of courts:
Court of India

(C) Supreme Court ol


(D) 'suprerie Court of India,
56 By which Constitutional
(A) +Zna
(C) 44th (D) +0o amendment 1982

57 ln land mark V/s State of Madras, the Preventive Detention Act 1950, was
found
(A)
(c) (D) Article 23 and 32

Which provision of Constitution provides that President of India shalt not be answerable to
any court of India for exercise of power of his ofiice:
A) Article 53 (B) Article 74
(D) Article 363
59 The term cabinet is mentioned in which of the following Article of Constitution:
(A) Article 74 (B) Article 75
(C) Article 352 (D) Not mentioned in the Constitution
60 The Fundamental duties were incorporated in the Constitution on the recommendation of:
(A) Shah Commission (B) Administrative Reform Commission
(C) Santhanam Committee
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6l The Indian Penal Code is divided into :

(A) )AXIII chapter and 512 section (B) )OCKr and 511 section
(C) )AIXU chapter and 501 section
The maxim 'actus non facitrea nisi mens sit rea' means

(D) criminal mind leads to crime

63 Section 84 of lndian Penal Code provides for


(A) medical insanity
(C) moral insanity @) unsoundness of mind of any kind

Intoxication as defense is contained in :

(A) Section 85 of Indian Penal Code (B) Section 86 of Penal Code


(C) Section 87 of Indian Penal Code
Right of Private defense is contained in:
(A) Section 94 of Indian Penal Code (B) Indian Penal Code
(D) Penal Code

The right guaranteed under Article 32 can be


(A) by Parliament
(B) by State legislature
(C) by Supreme Court of India

67 Petitions to Supreme Court of India und 32 are subject to the rule of Res-judicata
except
(A) Quo warranto (B) Habeas Corpus
(C) Certiorari (D) Prohibition
68
(B) Section 372 Indian Penal Code
(C) Section Code (D) Section 374 Indian Penal Code

In which death sentence is awarded :


(A) Government of India @) abetting mutiny actually committed
(c)
70 Which of the following section of Indian Penal Code deals with solitary confinement :

(A) Section 71 (B) Section 72


@) Section 74

Conspiring to commit offence against the State is dealt under:


. ra?r otil,lru, lzurt ut l,urarr rE'ar LU,E E
' (C) Section l22A oflndian Penal Code (D) Section 123 A of Indian Penal Code
Assaulting or obstructing Public Servant when suppressing riot is delt under:
(A) Section 150 of Indian Penal Code (B) Section l5l of Indian Penal Code
(D) Section 153 of Indian Penal Code
PD-o1-CAD_O La!q,
13 Evidence obtained by way of illegal search and seizure is :

(A) Admissibte in evidencd


(B) Not admissible in evidence
(C) Admissible in evidence if the illegality is not a severe one
(D) Admissible in evidence if it was done in good faith
74 A person is accused of having committed murder. The fact that he absconded from his house
a little while after the time of murder is :

(A) A relevant fact. (B) An irrelevant fact.


(C) Relevant but not admissible fact. @) Irrelevant and inadmissible fact.
15 A confession made while in the custody of a customs officer is:
(A) Inadmissible in evidence.
ffi
(C) Admisslble as long as there were officers other than the i officer present.
(D) Admissible as long as it is video recorded.
76

all cases a person cannot which


inlormation" is stored to Court.
(B) It is mandatory to frle a certificate as per the Evidence Act
in all cases irrespective of whether a person bring the computer
device upon which "original information"
(c) It is sufficient to provide an affidavit contents ol the record are
true.
(D) It is sufficient to provide a that the contents of the
record are true.
'7i A confession under Scction 164 Criminal Procedure can be recorded :

(A) By a Judicial Magistrate.


(B) By any Executive
(C) Either by a Magistrate.
(D) By any is video recorded.
In the course of of a murder case, the investigating ofiicer found that there
has been in that case by the accused. To investigate the case of
destruction ol the investigating officer must :
(A) a fresh FIR relating to that offence before proceeding with
the

(c) notice ot a permission before proceeding


with the investigation.
(D) None of the above.
79 According to the Code of Criminal Procedure:
(A) A Court can review its orders il there is an error apparent on the face of the
record.
(B) A Court can review its orders if there is an error apparent on the face of the
record and it causes prejudice to the accused.
(C) A Coun cannot review its orders, except to the extent of correcting arithmetical
or clerical errors.
review its orders, except to
the extent of correcting arit etical or clerical errors.

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Where a sanction has been sought for prosecution under the Prevention ofCom:ption Act, 1988
of a public servant and no decision has been taken thereon :
(A) At the expiry ol three months sanction is deemed to have been given.
(B) At the expiry of six months sanction is deemed to have been given.
(C) The applicant can apply for sanction again and at the expiry of 15 days from the
second application sanction is deemed to be given.
(D) None of the above.

8l Which section of Indian Evidence Act deals with the burden of proof as to ownership:
(A) Section 100 (B) Section I 0l
@) Section 105

(B) Section

requirement for starting a criminal trial

(D) an administrative action to criminal trial is required

85 Power of High Court to conviction is provided under which


section of Criminal Procedure
(A) Section 350 (B) Section 368
(C) Section 365 (D) Section 289

Order for
Criminal
(A) Section
(c) @) Section 197

87 Power to under Criminal Procedure Code is vested with:


(A) Magistrate
(B) Metropolitan Magistrate
(c) Magistrate of First Class especially empowered in this behalf by High Court

Which of the following statement is/are correct as per the provision of Criminal Procedure
Code:
(A; Court may alter or add to any charge at the time before judgment is pronounced
(B) Trial of summons case may commence even without filling of charge sheet in the court
(C) Compounding ofoffence by authorized person as per section 320 of Criminal Procedure
Court have the effect of acquittal of accused

PD-OI-CAD_O 13
89 Limitation for taking cognizance of offences is provided under which section of Criminal
Procedure Code
(A) Section 468 (B) Section 368
(C) Section388 @) Section 288
90 The Special Judge appointed under Prevention of Comrption Act 1988, isoftherankof .......
under the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973:
(A) Session Judge (B Additional Session Judge
(C) Assistant Session Judge
SI unit of Heat is
(A) Yol! (B) Kelvin
(D) Celcius

92 Plants rvhich grow in dry habitat is


(A) Xerophytes (B) Mesophytes
(C) Hydrophyes (D) Bryophytes

93 Liquified Petroleum Gas (LPG) is a mixture of


(A) Methane and Ethane (B) Ethane
(D)

94 The smallest bone in our body is present inside the

(C) Incus )F
Direction : (Q. No. 95 to 100) Passage Related
So there is an urgent need to stop oment and think about when we are actually
heading - is it development or destruction ? e haye to wait untill people have grown so much
apart from each other that we cannot ring of our own spices due to our mindless greed,
or can we still mend our ways ?
To answer this question, I help of that most magnificent of human leelings
hope. I sincerely wish that intelligent spices on earth, would take our fair share
of responsibility and si the path we should lollow Though mankind will
possibility last lor a to its determination and sheer ingenuity, we have to make
sure we do not somewhere along the way.
We live in wonders and miracles. It has been called the 'Age of Science', and
difi'erent changed in the preceding centuries have been attributed to science.
This is true, it is only one side of the coin. The filp side is that as we have advanced
more in the field , something fundamental to humanity has been left behind. Values
such as empathy and concern for our, fellow human beings are gradually being ended due to the
onslaught ofour ever - evolving lifestyles, aided by the marvels oftechnologies and advancements.
Take the example ofthe Internet. On one hand, access to information and knowledge at the
click of a button is a veritable boon to everyone (especially students) and this has made our lives
much simpler. On the other hand, it has severely limited actual contact with teachers, friends and
elders. Thus, the learning that a person gains is incomplete as he or she cannot easily take the
advice ,hat-another person can give on the basis of knowledge and practical experience that is at
his or her disposal.
Today, a small child can access and navigate the internet with an ease that still astounds
those from the older generation. But what is even more astounding is the neglect of the basic
human traits of friendship, relationships and family values. Owing to all the technological

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advancements and the gadgets available today, children often miss out on the most enriching
childhood experimences such as playing outdoor games with friends, which apart lrom being
immensely enjoyable and physically exhilarating, also develop traits such as teamwork and discipline
at an early age.
But now when the concept of friends is gradually being limited to virtual friends on social
networking sites, one shudder to think of the implications for the personality development of a
child because the time spent with computers or mobile phones for entartainment can never really
substitute for the holistic benefits of outdoor play. Such examples can found aplenty.
Now if we compare the hustle and bustle of modern city and the peace and calm of a rustic
village life, we can see that in cities, life is a race with a variety offactors. It is a race that everyone
tries their level best to win, but nobody actually win as it never ends.
As for me, I think this age of repaid development has created at least as many problems as
it has solved, if not more. The reason is that the basic goal of life, which should be the pursuit
ofhappiness has now been replaced by the pursuit ofmoney. Money and Happiness are considered
analogus in our present society, but they €ctually are not so. In this mindless pursuit of money,
nobody has time now to appreciate the beauty of life, which consists not of multi-billion dollar
skyscrapers but a single act ol kindness to someone in a time of need.

On the basis ofyour understanding ofthe passage ans\,yer Q. 95 to 100 by choosing the most
appropriate option.

95 According to the passage, it is like one side ol that lile has changed owing
to science as
(A) of science has brought wonders and

(c) there is another side


(D) this side of coin is true
96 Which of the following is not internet ?
(A) Its an easy access to knowledge.
(B) It has made our
(C) It has limited with teachers and friends.

97 Internet growth of a child by


(A) traits of friendship, society and family.
outdoor games.

teamwork and discipline.


98 According to the passage, tnre happiness lies in
(A) Simple acts of kindness (B) Rapid development
(C) Multi-billion dolar skyscrapers (D) Pursuit of money
The word "veritable" in para 2 means :

(A) Actual (B) Big


(C) Latest (D) Perfect

100 Antonym of holistic is :

(A) Agonistic
(C) Optimistic (D) Pessimistic
\
PD-OI.CAD O 15 L!r!r{nf

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