SA

KVPY MOCK PAPER-STREAM SA

MOCK TEST # 1

INSTRUCTIONS
1. The duration of the paper is three hours.
2. 25 percent of the marks will be deducted for wrong answer.
3. Non-programable calculator is allowed.

Corporate Office
CAREER INSTITUTE
“SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005
+91-744-2757575 info@allen.ac.in

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 CLASS-XI
PART-I
[One Mark Questions]

MATHEMATICS

1. If p > q > 0 are two real numbers, then the value of pq (p q) pq (p q) pq (p q) pq ....... is -

(A) independent of q (B) independent of p

(C) independent of both p and q (D) dependent on both p and q.
2. A belt drive system is given in the figure. Such that distance between centres (OO') = 120 cm and radii
are 20 cm and 80 cm respectively. Length of the belt PQRS is equal to -

S
P
B A'
20 cm 80 cm

O O'
A B'
Q
driver pulley R
driven pulley

(A) 120( 3)cm (B) 120( 3)cm (C) 60(2 3)cm (D) 60(2 3)cm
3. 1% of 2% of 3% of 4% .... of 99% of the number 100. Which of these answer choices represent the value
of number as described above ? Please chosse the most simplifed form.

99! 99! 100! 99!

(A) (B) (C) (D)
100 99 100 98 100100 100100
4. In the figure below two equal circles S1, S 2 of radii 2 units each touch each other. AB is the common
diameter. The tangent at B meets the tangent from A to the circle S2 at C as shown. If BC = k 2 then the
value of K is.

C
P

90°

A B
O

S1 S2

(A) 2 (B) 2.2 (C) 3 (D) 4

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 KVPY MOCK TEST-1/Paper

b c a2
5. In ABC if 1 , then angle A is-
c b bc

(A) 15º (B) 30º (C) 45º (D) 60º

r
6. Let Tr 4
, then 4 Tr is
(4r 1) r 1

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

7. Number of 5 digit even numbers having digits in descending order (i.e. digit at unit place is smallest) is
equal k such that 3a < k < 3b (where a, b N), then minimum value of |b – a| is equal to
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

8. The least positive integral value of 'K' for which (x + k – 1) (x – 2k – 7) < 0 x 1, 2 is

(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 1
9. If (a – b) : (a + b) = 1 : 11, then the ratio of (5a + 4b + 15) : (5a – 4b + 3) is
(A) 1 : 5 (B) 5 : 1 (C) 5 : 4 (D) 3 : 4
10. A manufacturer purchase a second hand machine for Rs 60000 and spends some amount towards repairs
then its value goes upto Rs 90000. If depreciation is 10% p.a, what will be the value of the machine
after two years?
(A) Rs 48600 (B) Rs 81000 (C) Rs 67200 (D) Rs 72900
11. Let P(x) = x4 + ax3 + bx2 + cx + d be a polynomial such that P(A) = 1, P(B) = 8, P(C) = 27, P(D) = 64,

P 10
then the value of , is-
2012

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

12. If hexagons are fromed by joining the vertices of a 20 sided convex polygon such that no side of

a 15
hexagon is common with side of the polygon then total possible ways are C7 (where a and b are
b
coprime), then a + b is equal to
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6

10
3 ( r . r 1)
13. is equal to
110 r 1 ( r 2 r 1)

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

x
14. If a function ƒ(x) is defined by ƒ x x n and let the value of the sum
1 x

1 2 3 208 N
ƒ ƒ ƒ ..... ƒ is N, then is equal to
209 209 209 209 13
(A) 8 (B) 13 (C) 209 (D) 9

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 CLASS-XI
15. The side of square ABCD is 20% longer than the side of square PQRS. By what percentage is the area of
ABCD more than the area of PQRS ?
(A) 20% (B) 24% (D) 40% (D) 44%

PHYSICS

16. A vessel of height 2 d is half filled with a liquid of refractive index 2 and the other half with a liquid
of refractive index n. (The given liquids are immiscible). Then the apparent depth of the inner surface of
the bottom of the vessel (neglecting the thickness of the bottom of the vessel) will be

nd 2n d n 2 n
(A) (B) d n 2 (C) (D) d n 2
d 2n n 2

17. Two thin equiconvex lenses each of the focal length 0.2 m are placed coaxially with their optic centres
0.5m apart. Then the focal length of the combination is :
(A) 0.1 m (B) –0.1 m (C) 0.4 m (D) –0.4 m
18. The potential of the electric field produced by a point charge at any point (x, y, z) is given by V = 3x2 + 5,
where x, y, z are in metres and V is in volts. The intensity of the electric field at (–2, 1, 0) is :
(A) –12 Vm–1 (B) +12 Vm–1 (C) –17Vm–1 (D) +17 Vm–1
19. A current of 5 A is passing through a metallic wire of cross-sectional area 4 × 10–6 m2. If the density of
charge carriers of the wire is 5 × 1026 m–3, the drift velocity of the electrons will be :
(A) 1 × 10–2 ms–1 (B) 1.56 × 10–3 ms–1 (C) 1.56 × 10–2 ms–1 (D) 1 × 102 ms–1
20. A charged particle is moving in a magnetic field of strength B perpendicular to the direction of the field.
If q and m denote the charge and mass of the particle respectively. Then the frequency of rotation of the
particle is :

2 m 2 2m qB qB
(A) f (B) f (C) f (D) f
qB qB 2 m2 2 m

21. Current in a coil changes from 4A to zero in 0.1 second and the emf induced is 100 V. The self inductance
of the coil is :
(A) 4 H (B) 2.5 H (C) 0.4 H (D) 0.25 H
22. A and B are two metals with threshold frequencies 1.8 × 1014 Hz and 2.2 × 1014 Hz. Two identical
photons of energy 0.825 eV each are incident on them. Then photoelectrons are emitted in :
(Take : h = 6.6 × 10–34 Js)
(A) A alone (B) B alone (C) in both A and B (D) in neither A nor B
23. Electrons in a certain energy level n = n1, can emit 3 spectral lines. When they are in another energy level
n = n2. They can emit 6 spectral lines. The orbital speeds of the electrons in the two orbits are in the ratio:
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 2 : 1 (C) 3 : 4 (D) 4 : 3
24. The de-Broglie wavelength of a proton (charge = 1.6 × 10 –19 C, mass = 1.6 × 10–27 kg) accelerated
through a potential difference of 1 kV is :
(A) 0.9 nm (B) 7 Å (C) 0.9 × 10–12 m (D) 600 Å

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 KVPY MOCK TEST-1/Paper
25. A radio active element forms its own isotope after 3 consecutive disintegrations. The particles emitted
are :

(A) 2 particles and 1 particle

(B) 2 particles and 1 particle
(C) 2 particles and 1 particle
(D) 3 particles

26. The maximum height attained by a projectile when thrown at an angle with the horizontal is found to
be half the horizontal range. Then =

1 1
(A) tan (B) (C) (D) tan–1 2
2 4 6

27. A shell of mass 20 kg at rest explodes into two fragments whose masses are in the ratio 2 : 3. The smaller
fragment moves with a velocity of 6 ms–1. The kinetic energy of the larger fragment is :

(A) 360 J (B) 144 J (C) 216 J (D) 96 J

28. The cylindrical tube of a spray pump has a cross-section of 8 cm2 , one end of which has 40 fine holes
each of area 10–8 m2. If the liquid flows inside the tube with a speed of 0.15 m. min–1, the speed with
which the liquid is ejected through the holes is :

(A) 0.5 ms–1 (B) 0.05 ms–1 (C) 5 ms–1 (D) 50 ms–1

29. During an adiabatic process, the cube of the pressure is found to be inversely proportional to the fourth
power of the volume. Then the ratio of specific heats (CP/Cv) is :

(A) 1.4 (B) 1.67 (C) 1.33 (D) 1

30. Two identical rods AC and CB made of two different metals having thermal conductivities in the ratio
2 : 3 are kept in contact with each other at the end C as shown in the figure. A is at 100°C and B is at
25°C. Then the junction C is at

A C B

100°C 25°C

(A) 50°C (B) 75°C (C) 60°C (D) 55°C

CHEMISTRY

31. The molar mass of a sample of CH4 is found to be 16.5 gm mol–1 . If all the hydrogen atoms in the
sample are 1 H1 atoms but carbon atoms are 6 C12 and 6C 14 atoms only, the atomic ratio of 6 C12 and
6
C14 atoms is -

(A) 1 : 1 (B) 2 : 1 (C) 3 : 1 (D) 5 : 1

32. The ratio of radius of 2 nd orbit of H-atom and 4th orbit of He+ ion is -

(A) 1 : 1 (B) 1 : 2 (C) 2 : 1 (D) 32 : 1

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 CLASS-XI
33. Choose the reaction that is incorrectly shown :

(A) + SOCl2 Cl + SO2 + HCl

CO2H
O

(1) LiAlH4
(B)
CO2 H (2) H3O CH2OH

(1) NaBH4
(C)
CO2H (2) H3O CH2OH

(1) CO2
(D)
MgBr (2) H3O+ CO2H

34. O–O bond length in ozone is very close to :-

(A) O2 molecule (B) O 2 – ion (C) O 2 2– ion (D) O2 + ion
35. An aqueous solution contains 0.2M-CH3COOH and 0.1M-HCl. The degree of dissociation of CH3COOH
is - (Ka of CH3 COOH = 1.8 × 10–5 )
(A) 3.0 × 10–2.5 (B) 4.5 × 10–5 (C) 3.6 × 10–5 (D) 1.8 × 10 –4

Cl Cl
Cl
Cl excess of NaOH in H2O
36. Cl major product is ?
Cl Cl
Cl
Cl

O O
HO Cl
HO Cl
(A) O (B) O
OH Cl
HO Cl
OH OH

O O
Cl
Cl O
(C) O (D) O
Cl
Cl HO
Cl OH

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 KVPY MOCK TEST-1/Paper
37. The acidity of the protons H in each of the following :

O O O O
C H3C C H3C C C O CH3
H3C H O CH3 O CH2
(i) (ii) (iii)

(A) i > ii > iii (B) ii > iii > i (C) i > iii > ii (D) iii > i> ii
38. Identify diastereo isomeric pairs :

COOH
COOH OH OH

(A) and (B) and

Cl Cl

(C) HO OH and HO OH (D) All of these

Cl Cl

39. Ore which contain oxide and hydroxide both ions :-

(A) Malachite (B) Bauxite (C) Dolomite (D) Sphelerite
40. For a radionucleide, the following graph is observed -

50
loge (Nt)
40

10 20
T(min)

Half -life of the radionucleide is -

0.693
(A) 0.693 min (B) min
2.303
(C) 0.693 × 2.303 min (D) 1.0 min

41. In the equilibrium mixture : N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g), some Ne gas is added at constant temperature

and pressure. It will result -

(A) Increase in moles of NH3
(B) Increase in moles of N2
(C) Increase in molar concentration of all gases
(D) no effect on equilibrium

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 CLASS-XI
42. The relative rate of hydrolysis using dilute aq. NaOH of the following :

O O O O

(i) H3C Cl (ii) H3CO CH3 (iii) H3C O CH3

(A) i > ii > iii (B) ii > iii > i (C) i > iii > ii (D) iii > i> ii
43. H2 gas is produced when :-
(I) NaH react with water (II) NaOH react with water (III) Na react with water
(A) I, II ,III (B) I, II (C) II, III (D) I, III
44. Select isoelectronic triad :-
(A) NH4 + , CH4 , BH4 – (B) NO3 – , BO33– , CO3 2–
(C) ClO4– , PO4 3– , SO42– (D) All of the above
45. Which of the following option is INCORRECT for negative electron gain enthalpy:-
(A) N < C (B) Mg < Na (C) Si < P (D) F < Cl

BIOLOGY
46. Which one of the following is an example of natural acquired passive immunity :-
(A) Antivenom (B) Natural fever (C) Colustrum (D) Vaccination
47. Antibody mediated immune response is provided by:-
(A) TH cell (B) TS cell (C) B cell (D) TK cell
48. A neurodegenerative disease related to memory loss is :-
(A) Perkinson (B) Multiple sclerosis (C) Alzheimer (D) Huntington chorea
49. The respiratory rhythum centre is located in :-
(A) Cerebrum (B) Cerebellum
(C) Medula oblongata (D) Pons
50. Similarity in charecteristic traits from common ancestory is called:-
(A) Analogy (B) Homology
(C) Vastigial organ (D) Convergent evolution
51. Haversian canal is charecteristics features of :-
(A) Amphibian bone (B) Reptilian bone (C) Avian bone (D) Mammalian bone
52. Digestion of protein starts from which part of the alimentary canal:-
(A) Buccal cavity (B) Small intestine (C) Stomach (D) Large intestine
53. Which one of the following is not a functional unit of an Ecosystem?
(A) Productivity (B) Nutrient Cycling (C) Decomposition (D) Stratification
54. Geometric representation of age structure is a characteristic of : -
(A) Landscape (B) Population (C) Ecosystem (D) community
55. Pyramid of Energy in forest ecosystem considering GFC is :-
(A) Bell shaped (B) Urn shaped (C) Upright (D) Spindle shaped
56. If a plant having genotype RRIIAA is crossed with a plant having genotype rriiaa to get f1. If F1 It self
fertilized what would be the frequency of a plant progenay having genotype RrIiAA

1 1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 16 8 64

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 KVPY MOCK TEST-1/Paper
57. Which of the following cell organelles posses DNA like prokaryotic cell and also known as
semiautonomous cell organelle?
(A) Only mitochondria (B) Nucleus
(C) Mitochondria & Chloroplast (D) Ribosome
58. Cambium activity is highest in
(A) Autumn (B) Spring (C) winter (D) Rain
59. Root Hairs are found in
(A) Zone of Elongation (B) Adventitious roots
(C) Zone of Maturation (D) Apical Meristem
60. The layer of cells outside the phloem means for giving rise to the root branches is
(A) cambium (B) Endodermis (C) Pericycle (D) Radicle

PART-II
[Two Marks Questions]

MATHEMATICS
61. ABC is an equilateral triangle with side length 9 cm. P, Q, R, S trisect respectively the sides AC and AB.
PR2Q, ST2R are equilateral triangles. Again P1, Q1: Q2, P2: S1, R1; S2 , R2 trisect the respective sides. All
the small triangles with vertices R1 , R2, R3, T1, T2, T3 are equilateral. The total perimeter of the figure is

T1 R1
S P R2
T2 R1 S 1 P1 Q1
S2 Q2
P2
T3 R2 R3
R Q

B C

(A) 40 (B) 37 (C) 44 (D) 64

3
abc a b c
62. If a, b, c are in continued proportion, then 3 =?
ab bc ca

(A) 3 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 1/3

63. In trinagle ABC, BAC = 45º. D is a point on BC such that AD is perpendicular to BC, if BD = 3 and
DC = 2, and the area of the triangle ABC is x, find the value of x.
(A) 20 (B) 16 (C) 15 (D) 25
64. If a2+b2+c2=1 and p=ab+bc+ca, then

1 1 1 1 1
(A) p 2 (B) p (C) p 1 (D) 1 p
2 2 2 2 2

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 CLASS-XI
65. By drawing 10 lines of which 4 are horizontal and 6 are vertical crossing each other as in the figure, one
can get 15 cells. With the same 10 lines of which 3 are vertical and 7 horizontal we get 12 cells.
The maximum number of cells that could be got by drawing 20 lines (some horizontal and some vertical)
is

(A) 80 (B) 81 (C) 82 (D) 83

PHYSICS
66. The maximum particle velocity in a wavemotion is half the wave velocity. Then the amplitude of the
wave is equal to :

2
(A) l (B) (C) (D)
2 4

67. An engine is moving towards a wall with a velocity 50 ms–1 emits a note of 1.2 kHz. Speed of sound in
air is 350 ms–1. The frequency of the note after reflection from the wall as heard by the driver of the
engine is :
(A) 1.2 kHz (B) 1.6 kHz (C) 0.24 kHz (D) 2.4 kHz
68. The surface temperature of the Sun which has maximum energy emission at 500 nm is 6000 K. The
temperature of a star which has maximum energy emission at 400 nm will be :
(A) 6500 K (B) 7500 K (C) 4500 K (D) 8500 K
69. The current passing through the ideal ammeter in the circuit given below is :

2
1 4V 2
+ – 2

(A) 0.5 A (B) 0.75 A (C) 1 A (D) 1.25 A

70. A circular coil carrying a certain current produces a magnetic field B0 at its centre. The coil is now
rewound so as to have 3 turns and the same current is passed through it. The new magnetic field at the
centre is :

B0 B0
(A) 3 B0 (B) (C) 9 B0 (D)
3 9

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 KVPY MOCK TEST-1/Paper
CHEMSTRY

CH3

HO dil. H2SO4
71. Major Product is?

O
Me
HO HO
HO HO
(A) (B)

O O

HO
(C) (D)

72. Identify reaction incorrectly match with its product?

OH
(A) HO + Ph N2Cl HO N N
T < 5°C

OH
(B) H2N + Ph N2Cl H2N N N
T < 5°C

Me OH Me
(C) N + Ph N2Cl N N N
T < 5°C
Me Me

OH OH
N N
OH
(D) + Ph N2Cl
T < 5°C

(Major product)

73. None of the following electron energy diagram describes the ground state of sulphur atom. Which is
NOT CORRECT due to violation of the rule of maximum multiplicity in sulphur atom.
(A) 3p (B) 3p (C) 3p (D) 3p
3s 3s 3s 3s
2p 2p 2p 2p
2s 2s 2s 2s
1s 1s 1s 1s

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 CLASS-XI
74. 2.6 gm of a metal is dissolved completely in excess of dil.H2SO4 solution, by which 1.68 litre H2 gas
is produced at 273K and 1 atm. The equilivalent weight of metal is -
(A) 52 (B) 26 (C) 17.33 (D) 5.2
75. Gº values of some reactions are given at 1200K.
–1
A(g) B(g) ; G10 = – 158.72 kcal mol

–1
B(g) C(g) ; G02 = – 20.54 kcal mol

The value of equilibrium constant for the reaction : A(g) + C(g) 2B(g), at 1200K is

(A) 1025 (B) e25 (C) 10 58 (D) 10–25

BIOLOGY
76. "Injection of a weak strain of a specific baterium in order to secure immunity against the corresponding
disease" :-
(a) Immunisation
(b) Artificial active acquired immunity
(c) Antevenom injection
(d) Natural active acquired immunity
Which one is correct for the above statements
(A) a & b (B) a & c (C) a & d (D) b, c & d
77. Out of following how many animals are cold blooded and having scales on their body :
frog, Fish, Snakes, Lizard, Crocodile, Tortoise, Birds and Monkey
(A) 5 (B) 7 (C) 6 (D) 8
78. Sugar solution is given to a student to test sugar by Benedictis test after adding Benedict's solution he
heat the solution and he found brick red colour. By this test we can conclude that all of the following
sugar present in this solution except one, identif it :-
(A) Glucose (B) Fructose (C) Maltose (D) Sucrose
79. Choose the correct sequence of stages of growth curve for bacteria :
(A) Lag, log, stationary phase
(B) Decline, lag, log phase
(C) Lag, log, stationary, decline phase
(D) Stationary, lag, log, decline phase
80. Study the given Pedigree carefully, the trait indicated is

(A) X - linked dominant (B) X - linked recessive

(C) Maternal inheritance (D) Paternal inheritance

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