13/04/2022 RM-G6 CODE-A6 Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623456 MM: 720 FORTNIGHTLY TEST SERIES time: 3tirs. 20 min (for NEET-2022) Test-6 Topics covered : Physics: Alternating Current, Electromagnetic Waves, Ray Optics and Optical Instruments, Wave Optics, Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter, Atoms, Nuclei and Semiconductor Chemistry : The p-Block Elements, Hydrogen, General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements, Biomolecules, Polymers, Environmental Chemistry, Chemistry in Everyday Life Botany = Organisms and Populations, Ecosystem, Biodiversity and Conservation, Environmental Issues Zoology : Human Health and Disease, Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production - Animal Husbandry, Biotechnology-Principles and Processes, Biotechnology and its Applications Instructions ()) There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15. (i) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score. Unanswered / unattempted questions wil be given no marks. (ii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle. (iv) Mark should be dark and completely fl the circle. (v)__ Dark only one circle for each entry. (vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only (vil) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material Choose the correct answer on the Answer sheet. SECTION-A 1. A series LCR circuit, has equal resistance capacitive reactance and inductive reactance et L ‘What is the phase angle between voltage across generator and resistor? ao (2) 45° (3) 60° (4) 90° E 2. Switch is in position A for a long time. At time 0, it is switched to position B. Find the maximum charge which wil accumulate on @) E [ce capacitor CR n= (ayFortnightly Test-6 (RMG6_Code-A6) Regular Medical-2022 3 Which of the following have different dimensions. than other? og @) 1 (3) (4) Flo ria A 16 uF capacitor is charged to a 20 volt potential. Battery is then disconnected and an Inductor of inductance 40 mH is connected across the capacitor so that LC oscillation are step up. Maximum current in the coil is (1) 04.4, (2) 28 (3) 08.0 (4) 024 A capacitor in LC oscillatory circuit has a maximum potential of V volts and maximum energy E. When the capacitor has potential Vi volts and energy E:, what is the emf across the inductor and energy stored in the magnetic field? () V-V, E-E: (2) V-V, (3) Vi, Es (4) Vs, E-Es ‘ (1) (MOLTAy (2) [MLeT°A] (3) IMLET#A] (4) IML“T#A] ‘An EM wave propagating through vacuum is characterised by B = Busin(kx— af). Which of the {following is/are independent of frequency? (yk Qe (@) ko (4) © ‘An EM wave consist of oscillating electric field and magnetic field. Phase difference between the two oscillating field is Ma (2) 2 OF (4) Zero How far must an object be placed in front of a convex mirror of focal length 20 cm to form an image (t |" ofthe size of the object? (1) 40cm (3) 20cm (2) 60 cm (4) 106m 10. 1" 12, 8. 14. 45. 16. ‘Two thin lenses are placed in contact. f the focal lengths of the lenses are f and f, then the power of the composite lens will be fish () hth @ + fith fhe oe oo A light ray falling at 30° angle with the surface of glass slab of thickness 1 m and is refracted at angle 60° with the surface, The time taken by the light to cross the slab if incident normally, will be B40 2108 (1) 5x10" (2) Fx10%s Lxto? s 4) a 5 408 210+ O43 s (3) A tht ray i incident rom gass {u=2) to ar (w3] interface, The. angle of inidonca at whieh doviaion angle of ght wil bocomos 80" (1 45" @ eo" 0" (90° A biconex ens has focal length $0 em and the fads of curvature of ene surface Is double to that of other. The radius of curvature, if refractive index of lens material is 2, can be (1) 50em (2) 40m (3) 150 em (4) 100 em What will be the minimum deviation of thin prism of prism angle A and refractive index y? (1) A-1)e (2) A (3) (= 1)A (4) (ut tA angle 90°. Find the minimum deviation produced by the prism. (1) 40° (2) 45° (3) 30° @) 53° Two incoherent sources of light have intensities Js and 3 at a point. Then the resultant intensity at point will be (1) 2(2+V3)p (3) 2h (2) 4b 4) b (2)Regular Medical-2022 Fortnightly Test-6 (RMG8_Code-A6) 17. 18, 19. 20. 24 22. 23, Width of two sls in YDSE set up are in ratio 4:1, What is ratio of the amplitude of light waves from them? (ast (2434 @ 4st (4) 16:1 A plane polarized light with intensity Is is incident on a polaroid with electric field vector making an angle of 60° with transmission axis of polaroid The intensity of the transmitted light will be (1) b 2) 2b 4 4 6 a) 2 @ 4 4 For what distance is ray oplics @ good approximation when a plane light wave is incident on a circular aperture of width 2. mm having wavelength 600 nm? (1) 33m (2) 6.7m (3) 166m (4) 10m In an experiment tungsten cathode which has a threshold wavelength 2300 A is itradiated. by ultraviolet light of wavelength 1800 A. Calculate maximum energy of emitted photoelectron. (1) 150 (2) 3ev (3) 45ev (4) 0.75 ev Electrons with maximum kinetic energy 3 eV are ejected from a metal surface by UV radiation of wavelength 1500 A. The stopping potential difference is (av @) 3Vv @ av @ tv The saturation photoelectric current in a photoelectric cell depends upon (1) The nature of the metal used as the emitter (2) The wavelength of the incident light (3) The intensity of the incident light (4) Allthe above parameters In an ac series R-L circuit, if R = 100 © and power factor is 0.5, then value of inductance (L) will be (Given F= 50 Hz) a) By (3) nH 3h a 2h aa ot (Ben (on) time period of an electron orbiting in 2"4 and 34 (1) 2:3 (2) 8:27 eas wae (ser @ tasev Gey tase a we @)4 4) 8 of stable orbit of H-atom? A 3a 0 2 a m7 2n @) 4n s @ (2) n(n) 29, What is nuclear radius of 'Te, if that of 77Al is (3m «2 6im 4mm i 8m (2) They are short range forces (Thorp copondon cos (4) They are charge independent forces 38 days? (1) 14.6 mg (2) 14.6 pg (3) 1.4mg (4) 0.14 mg @)Fortnightly Test-6 (RMG6_Code-A6) Regular Medical-2022 32. 33, 34, 36. 36. a7. ICs, &2 and fy are the length of the emitter, base and collector regions of a transistor, then () 62856 Q) & Hee (4) Bh ACE amplifier gives an output of 3 V for an input 0.01 V. If current gain of the transistor is 100 and the input resistance is 1 kA, then the collector resistance is (1) 300 (2) 3ka (3) 1ka (4) 6ka In the igure given voltage of point Ais A5a v (1) ov (2) -3v (@) -23v (4) -2.7V Inthe Boolean algebra A.B is equalto (Ase (2) AB @ mB (4) AB SECTION -B The mean value of the current for half cycle for current variation shown by the graph is T2 T 372 a) (2) io ‘ (3) Ms If EandB represents the electric field and magnetic field vectors, then the direction of propagation of the EM wave is in the direction of Mme @ 6 (3) Ex8 (4) BxE 38. 39. 40, a 42, 43, ‘A shor sighted person cannot see objects situated beyond 2 m from him. What should be the power of the lenses which he should use for seeing distant objects clearly? (1) 05D (20 (3) 20 (4) 05D Radi of curvature of a equiconvex lens are 20 om and refractive index of the material of the lens is 15. Rays parallel to the axis of lens will converge at (1) 106m (3) 30m (2) 200m (4) 400m What is the approximate radius of the central bright diffraction spot of light of wavelength 2. = 0.5 jum, if focal length of the lens is 20 cm and radius of aperture of the lens is 5 cm? (1) 0.5 pm (2) 1.22 xm (3) 3.3 um ‘The stopping potential for photoelectrons emitted from surface illuminated by light of wavelength 5896 As 0.36 voll. The threshold frequency is. (1) 21x10%Hz (2) 42x 10% He (3) 3.6 x 10'4 Hz (4) 1,05 x 10 Hz (4) 422m ‘An o-particle and a proton are moving through the same magnetic fields which is perpendicular to their velocity vectors. The a-particle and the proton move such that the radius of curvature of their path is same. The ratio of their de-Broglie wavelength is 1 (1) V2 A> 1 ay (4) 22 Monochromatic radiation of wavelength i is incident on H-sample in ground state. H-atoms absorb the light and subsequently emit a radiation of six different wavelengths. The value of A is nearly (1) 972A (9) 1025 (2) 6561 A (4) 875A (4)Regular Medical-2022 Fortnightly Test-6 (RMG8_Code-A6) 44. A double ionized lithium atom is H-like with atomic number 3. Find the wavelength of radiation required to excite the electron in Li** ion from the first to the third orbit Bohr 48. What is the value of output voltage Vo in the circuit shown in the figure? Wh 2kQ 20V Sia La Pes (1) 6V (2) 14V (3) 20V, (4) 26V 49. Which of the folowing logic gate is a universal gate? (1) OR (2) NOT. (3) AND. (4) NOR 50. In a CE amplifier when a signal of 40 mV is added to the input voltage, the base current changes by 100 yA and emitter current changes by 2.1 mA, the transconductance of the amplifier is « dot a do (3) 50.07) (4) 15.04 (1) 1148 (2) 1025 A (3) 972A (ay tA 45. An isolated H-atom emit a photon of 10.2 eV. Determine the momentum of photon emitted in kg ms. (1) 2644 x 10-° (2) 6.44 x 10-19 (3) 8.44 « 1027 (4) 2.44 1027 48. The isotopes '{C has a half life of 5730 years, if at some time a sample contains 1.00 x 102 carbon-14 nuclei, then what is the activity of the sample at that instant? (1) 1.83 * 10° decayls (2) 3.83 * 10° decay/s (3) 102 decayis (4) 3.83 « 10" decayis 47. The atoms of same element having same atomic number but difference masses called (1) Isomers (2) Isotones: (3) Isotopes (4) Isobars SECTION-A 51. The metal which is refined by van Arkel method is ay Ni Qin @)T (4) Zn 52. Which among the following is a sulphide ore? (1) Calamine (2) Copper glance (3) Bauxite (4) Zincite 53. Which metal is absent in German silver? (Ni 2) cu @) cr (4) 2n 54. Copper maite is a mixture of (1) FeO and CuO (2) CuO and Fes (3) CS and Fes (4) C20 and Fes 55. In metallurgy of gold, the leaching reagent used (1) HaS04 (2) NaOH (3) Nacn (4) Nacl '56. Incorrect statement among the following is. (1) Froth floatation method is used for removing gangue from sulphide ores (2) Alumina solution is leached by aqueous NaOH (3) Iron obtained from blast furnace is called pig Iron (4) Cast iron is the purest form of commercial 57. The metal which is not extracted by carbon reduction is (1) Fe (2) Zn (3) Ca (4) Cu 58, Which among the following is a froth stabiliser in froth floatation method? (1) Pine oit (3) Xanthates (2) Aniline (4) Fatty acids (6)Fortnightly Test-6 (RMG6_Code-A6) Regular Medical-2022 59, 60. 61. 62. 63, 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. The metal which is used for galvanising iron is (1) Gu (2) zn (3) Co (4) Ni Neutral oxide among the following is (1) Nas (2) NO (3) N2Oa (4) N2Os ‘White phosphorous on reaction with aqueous NaOH, gives which compound(s) of phosphorous? (1) PHs and NaHPOs (2) PHs and NaH2PO: (3) NazHPOs only (4) PHs only (Oxidation state of P in pyrophosphorous acid is. (yt (2) +3 (3) +4 (4) +5 Correct order of boiling point of the given compounds is (1) HeTe > HeSe> HS > HO (2) H20 > HaTe > HaSe > HeS. (3) HiO > HaS > HeTe > H2Se (4) HaTe > Hi0 > HaSe > HaS Negative electron gain enthalpy of which of the given elements is minimum? (jo (2s (3) Se (4) Te ‘Which hydrogen halide has lowest value of bond dissociation enthalpy? (1) HE (2) Hel (3) HBr (4) HI Consider the following statements a, SFe is tetrahedral in shape b. SQz is reducing while TeOe is an oxidising agent ©. HO is stronger acid than HaS The incorrect statements are (1) aandb only (2) aand c only (3) band c only (4) a, bande Brown ring testis applicable to which ion? (1) NOS. (2) SOF (3) Cr (4) Bre Strongest acid among the following is (1) HOC! (2) HCIOz (3) HCIOs (4) HClO. 69. 70, 1 72, 73, 74, 75, 76. 77. XeFs on complete hydrolysis gives (1) Xe + XeOs + HF only (2) Xe + Xe0s + HF + O2 (8) Xe0s + HF only (4) Xe+ HF + Oz only Producer gas is a mixture of (1) CO + Ha (2) CO + No (3) CO+CO2 (4) CO2+ He Incorrect statement among the folowing is of silicon is (1) Melting point than germanium (2) SiCl.on complete hydrolysis given silicic acid (3) Tin decomposes steam to form tin dioxide and He gas (A) [SiCk}* is a stable species Non-essential amino acid among the following is (1) Lysine: (2) Proline (3) Histidine (4) Valine ‘The compound which does not reduce Tollens’ reagentis (1) Glucose (3) Maltose Number of chiral carbons in open chain structure of glucose is ae (2)3 (3) 4 (4) 2 Incorrect statement among the following is, (2) Fructose (4) Sucrose (1) Lactose is composed of -D-galactose and B-D-glucose units (2) Amylose and amylopectin are components of starch (3) Cellulose is composed of a-D-glucose units (4) Glycogen is known as animal starch Deficiency of vitamin By causes (1) Convulsions (2) Scurvy (3) Beri beri (4) Cheilosis The base which is absent in RNA molecule is (1) Thymine (2) Uracil (3) Adenine (4) Guanine (6)Regular Medical-2022 Fortnightly Test-6 (RMG8_Code-A6) 78. 79, 80. 81 82. 83, 84. 86. 86. Which among the following is an addition polymer? (1) Nylon 6, 6 (2) Buna-s (3) Bakelite (4) Terylene Monomer of neoprene is, (1) 2-methy!1,3-butadiene (2) 2-chloro-1,3-butadiene (3) 1,3-butadiene (4) Acrylonitrile Biodegradable polymer among the following is (1) PHBV (2) Buna-N. (3) Teton (4) Nylon 6: Consider the following statements a. Polythene is an example of homopolymer b. Polyacrylonitrile is used as a substitute for wool in making commercial fibres. . High density polythene has highly branched structure. ‘The correct statements are (1) aandb only (2) band c only (3) aand c only (4) a, bande Which among the following is a tranquilizer? (1) Meprobamate (2) Dimetapp (3) Cimetidine (4) Aspirin ‘Sweetest compound among the following is. (1) Saccharin (2) Aspartame (3) Sucralose (4) Sucrose Which among the following is used as an antiseptic? (1) Bithional (2) Novestrol (3) Penicitin (4) Veronat Bactericidal antibiotic among the following is (1) Erythromycin (2) Tetracycline (8) Offoxacin (4) Chloramphenicol SECTION -B Incorrect statement among the following is (1) DNA\s the chemical basis of heredity (2) Hormones are produced by endocrine glands inthe body (8) Thyroxine is produced in the thyroid gland (4) Abnormally low level of thyroxine causes hyperthyroidism 87, 88, 89, 90, 91 92, 93, 94, 965, Molecular hydride among the following is (1) CHa (2) Lit (3) Cr (4) MgHe The chemical species which can cause temporary hardness of water is (1) Cacos (2) Mg(HCOs)2 (3) MgSox (4) CaCh If volume strength of H2O2 solution is 22.4 v, then molarity of H2O2 will be (1) 4M (2) 3M (3) 1M (4) 2M Calcium carbide on reaction with heavy water gives (1) cds (2) CDs (3) C2D« (4) Cad. Number of protons and neutrons present in trilum respectively are (1) tan 3 (3) 1and4 (2) 1 and 2 (4) 2and 1 Maximum permissible limit of lead in drinking water is (1) 50 ppm (2) 10 ppb (3) 50 ppb (4) 100 ppm Consider the following statements a. Classical smog is a mixture of smoke, fog and SO. . Classical smog is oxidising in nature. €. Photochemical smog occurs in warm, dry and sunny climate. The correct statements are (1) and b only (2) aandc only (3) band c only (4) a,bande Which of the following is refined by liquation? (1) Tin (2) Indium (3) Gatium (4) Sticon In Mond's process the impure metal is heated with Mk (3) Bro (2) co (4) Cor 7Fortnightly Test-6 (RMG6_Code-A6) Regular Medical-2022 96 The products obtained by the reaction of phosphorous with sulphuryl chloride are (1) PCls and SOs (2) POCIs and SCle (3) PCls and SOz (4) POC! and SOx 97. Deep blue colour species among the following is (1) Zn(OH)2 (2) Fe2OsxH20 (3) [Ag(NHs)2]" (4) [Cu(NHs)4)* 98. Incorrect statement among the following is (1) Ozone oxidises PbS to PoSOs (2) The two oxygen-oxygen bond lengths in the ‘ozone molecule are identical (3) SO2 decolourises acidified KMnO. solution (4) 80> is pale blue gas 99. Water soluble vitamin among the folowing is (1) Vitamin C (2) Vitamin O (3) Vitamin A. (4) Vitamin 400. Norethindrone is an (1) Antifertility drug (2) Antimicrobial (3) Analgesic (4) Artificial sweetener SECTION -A 101. The inherent maximum capacity of an organism to reproduce or increase in number is termed (1) Extrinsic rate of increase (2) Carrying capacity (3) Environmental resistance (4) Biotic potential 102. The niche of a population is the (1) Habitat (2) Geographical area it covers (3) Set of conditions and resources it tolerates and uses (4) Physical factors it interacts with 103. The carrying capacity of a population is determined by its (1) Natality (2) Mortality (3) Limiting resources (4) Both (1) and (2) 104. Two closely related species competing for same resources cannot live for long duration in the same niche or habitat. This is stated by (1) Aller’s rule (2) Gause’s competitive exclusion principle (3) Bergman's rule (4) Jordan’s rule 105. If small number of pre-reproductive individuals. are followed by a large number of reproductive individuals in population age pyramid, then it is showing/called (1) Mature population (2) Stable population (3) Negative growth (4) Growing population 106. Select the odd statement w.r-t regulators. (1) Possess a constant internal environment (2) Their body temperature changes with ambient temperature (3) They consume a large amount of energy to maintain homeostasis (4) Body fluids have fixed osmotic concentration 107. The biome which possesses the highest standing ccrop but low nutrient storage in soil is (1) Grassland (2) Desert (3) Tropical rainforest (4) Coniferous forest 108, Verhulst-Pear| logistic growth equation is dN_A(K-N) dN ay(K=N) 1) NemfSEN) (ay Ney KN Oe (ZS) aN! aN _(K-N) at (Nom) 3) SN. 4 ® a wn) NKRegular Medical-2022 Fortnightly Test-6 (RMG8_Code-A6) 109. 110. 1 112. 118. 114, The success of mammals on earth is largely because they (1) Have the ability to maintain constant body temperature Can reduce metabolic activity and go into a state of dormancy during unfavourable condition 2) (8) Change the osmotic concentration of the body fluids with ambient, water osmotic ‘concentration Change their body temperature with ambient conditions The association of sedentary sea-anemone with the hermit crab by attaching to its shell lining is an example of, (1) Amensalism (4) (2) Commensalism (8) Proto-cooperation (4) Parasitism Which of the following is incorrect w.rt. pond ecosystem? (1) Autotrophic component includes zooplanktons, some algae and aquatic plants ‘The decomposers are bacteria and fungi ‘especially abundant in the bottom of the pond Itis an example of fresh water ecosystem Light, temperature, day-length and other climatic factors regulate the rate of functions of pond 2) 3) (4) The rate of formation of new organic matter by consumers is known as (1) Primary productivity (2) Secondary productivity (3) Net primary productivity (4) Gross primary productivity ‘What is the correct relation among GPP, NPP and R? (1) NPP PP +R NPP 3) R= NEP (9) R= Gp Select the incorrect statement. (1) DFC begins with dead organic matter (2) Standing crop is measured as the mass or number of living organisms in a unit area Ecological pyramids accommodate food web (2) (GPP — R)NPP = 1 (4) NPP = GPP-R @) (4) GFC is the major conduit for energy flow in ‘an aquatic ecosystem 115. 116. 117. 118. 119. 120. 121 Pyramid of energy is (1) Always upright (2) Inverted (3) Urn-shaped (4) May be upright or inverted depending on ecosystem ‘The species that invade a bare area are called (1) Climax species _(2) Key stone species (3) Pioneer species _(4) Sacred species Read the following statements and select the correct option. Statement-A : Organisms occupy a specific place in the food chain that is known as their trophic level Statement-B : Detritus food chain is also known as auxiliary food chain (1) Only statement Ais correct (2) Only statement B is correct (3) Both statements are incorrect (4) Both statements are correct Which of the following feature is incorrect w.rt artificial ecosystem? (1) High productivity (2) Less biodiversity (3) Self sustained (4) Simple food chain Mark the incorrect statement. o) (2) (3) Ten percent law was proposed by Lindeman Decomposers are mainly autotrophic Most limiting nutrient of marine ecosystem is nitrogen (4) Pyramid of biomass may be inverted in aquatic ecosystem ‘Standing state in ecosystem represents (1) Organic matter (2) Amount of nutrients present in soil at any given time (3) Fresh weight of organisms (4) Vertical stratification What percent of solar energy is trapped by producer during photosynthesis? (1) 1% (2) 10% (3) 45% (4) 50% (@)Fortnightly Test-6 (RMG6_Code-A6) 122. 123. 124. 126. 126. 127. ‘Species diversity as we move away from the equator toward the poles, Fill in the blank. (1) Increases (2) Decreases (3) First increases then decreases (4) First decreases then increases Match the following column! with column-il and select the correct option Column Column ja. Pode ) PMaurtius jb. Jauagga iy [arica le. [Thytacine ci) Prustatia ja [steters Sea cow — [(w) Russia (1) a(i), BC, ell), dfiv) (2) ativ), BG), eC), dt) (3) ai), b(iv), eli), 4) (4) adi, BG, c(i), ativ) The ‘evil quartet’ is the term used to describe (1) Population growth (2) Causes of biodiversity losses (3) Water pollutants (4) Ozone depletion Which of the following statements is wrong? (1) A stable community should show much variations in productivity from year to year (2) Stable community must be invasion by alien species resistant to (3) Stable communities are resistant to natural disturbances (4) Increased diversity contributes to higher productivity Presently, which of the following groups are facing maximum threat of extinction? (1) Birds (2) Amphibians (3) Mammals (4) Gymnosperms Since the origin and diversification of fe on earth, how many episodes of mass extinction of species have occurred til date? 2 @3 3) 4 (4) 5 128. 129. 130. 131 132 133. 134, Regular Medical-2022 Which of the following is the most important cause of loss of biodiversity (animals and plants)? (1) Habitat loss and fragmentation (2) Over-exploitation (3) Alien species invasion (4) Go-extinetion A keystone species is one that (1) Has higher chances of extinction than other species (2) Exerts a strong influence on an ecosystem (3) Causes other species to become extinct (4) Has a weak influence on an ecosystem Co-extineion means (1) Introduction of alien species leading to decline or extinction of indigenous species (2) Extinction due to over exploitation (3) Extinction due to habitat loss (4) Extinction due to obligatory association ‘among species Which one of the following substances are primary constituents of photochemical smog? (1) C02 and O2 (2) Ox and PAN (3) S02 and CO (4) NOz and hydrocarbons Ecosanitation is a sustainable system for the handling of (1) Electronic waste (2) Human excreta (3) Radioactive waste (4) Waste water hum cultivation (1) Holps in reforestation (2) Is also called as slash and burn agriculture (2) Is associated wth chipko movernent (4) Is a part of green revolution Which of the following uses platinum palladium and rhodium to control automobile exhaust? (1) Electrostatic precipitator (2) CNG (3) Catalytic converters (4) Scrubbers: (10)Regular Medical-2022 136. 136. 137. 138, 139. Which among the following is the major air pollutant? (1) Oz (2) He (3) NOz (4) Carbon monoxide SECTION -B ‘A population biologist studied the population of rats in an abandoned farm house. He found that average natality was 500, average mortality was 480, immigration was 40 and emigration was 60, then the net increase in population will be (1) 10 (2) Zero (3) 20 (4) 30 Match column-| with column-ll and select the ‘most appropriate option. Column Column-il la. [Diapause [Cryptic appearance lof an organism lsimilar to objects in lsurroundings lb. [Migration i) [A stage of lsuspended \development by lzooplankton lc. |Mimicry Gi) [Migratory birds lirom Sibera to [Rajasthan IResemblance of fone organism to lanother ld. [Camouflage iv) (1) ai), Béi), fv), A) (2) ali), B«i, ei), ativ) (3) a(iv), BU), efi), i) (4) alii, BG), etiv). Ai) Select the odd one w.r.t., the exponential growth (1) Itis also called as geometric growth (2) ttoccurs when resources are unlimited (3) ‘1 in equation is the initial population density (4) Itforms a J-shaped curve Read the following statements and mark true(T) or false(F). ‘A. Pacific salmon fish breeds only once in their life time, B. Asymptote is reached when population density is greater than carrying capacity. 140. 1 142 143. 144, 145. Fortnightly Test-6 (RMG8_Code-A6) A B aT T (2) 7 F (3) F T (4) F F Select the incorrect statement w.r, predation, (1) A prudent predator exterminate its prey by over exploitation (2) Predators help to maintain species diversity (3) Predation keep prey population under check (4) Predation helps transfer the energy across trophic levels Which of the following statement is not true for humus? (1) tts highly resistant to microbial activity (2) Decomposed at an extremely slow rate (3) fis light coloured substance (4) Itis slightly acidic Decomposition is inhibited by (1) Warm temperature (2) Anacrobiosis (3) Moist environment (4) Optimum aeration Select the factors affecting primary productivity Solar radiation availabilty b. Soil moisture ©. Temperature (1) Only ande (3) Oniya Decomposition takes place at slower rate, it dead matter has high amount of (1) Lignin (2) Cellulose (3) Proteins (4) Carbohydrates Which zone of biosphere reserve is managed to accommodate a greater research and educational activities? (2) Only b and (4) Alla, b and (1) Natural zone (2) Core zone (3) Buffer zone (4) Transition zone (11)Fortnightly Test-6 (RMG6_Code-A6) Regular Medical-2022 146. Earth summit at Rio-de-Janeiro was related to (1) Global warming (2) EINino effect (3) Conservation of environment (4) Ozone depletion 147. Consider the equation loge + ZlogA logs Large value of Z lies in range 0.6 to 1.2 for (1) Large entire continent (2) Britain (3) California (4) New York 148. According to the Central Pollution Control Board particles that are responsible for causing great harm to human health are of diameter (1) 7.5 micrometers (2) 6.00 micrometers or more (3) 10.00 micrometers (4) 2.50 micrometers or less 149. Which of the following is a secondary pollutant? (1) S02 (2) co (3) PAN (4) DDT 150. Montreal protocol aimed at _protecting stratospheric ozone became effective in the year. (1) 1987 (2) 1985 (3) 1989 (4) 1980 SECTION -A Read the given statements and choose the correct option. Statement-A : More than 80% of the world livestock population is in India and China. Statement-B : Their contribution to the world farm produce Is only 15 percent 151. (1) Both statements are correct (2) Both statements are incorrect (3) Only statement A is correct (4) Only statement B is correct, Choose the correct statement w.r. MOET. (1) Superovulation is induced in a cow by administering LH hormone (2) Cow produces 6-8 eggs instead of one egg per cycle 162. (3) Fertiised ogg at 64 cell stage are recovered and transferred to surrogate mother (4) High quality meat-yielding bulls, ie., lean meat with more lipid is obtained 153. Read the given statements and select the correct one. (1) Fishery is an industry devoted to the catching, processing or selling of only fish and shellfish (2) Bee keeping is an age-old cottage industry and is labour-intensive. (3) Enhancement of fish production is called ‘Blue Revolution’ (4) Keeping beehives in crop fields during flowering period increases pollination but decreases crop yield, The correct set of edible fresh water fishes are (1) Labeo, Hilsa and Catla (2) Hilsa, Clarias and Mystus (3) Labeo, Catla and Common carp (4) Sardines, Pomfrets and Clarias % 154. 156. is the new breed of sheep developed in Y’ z Punjab by crossing with Select the option that correctly identifies X, Y and Z. x Y Zz (1) |Bikaneri ewes [Hisardale [Marino rams (2) |Bikaneri ewes |Marino rams. |Hisardale (3)|Marino rams |Hisardale —_|Bikaneri ewes (4) |Hisardale | Bikaneri ewes [Marino rams. 156. Which of the following set includes bacterial diseases only? (1) Pneumonia, Common cold, Potio (2) Typhoid, Plague, Diphtheria (3) Malaria, Common cold, Typhoid (4) Typhoid, Malaria, Ringworm (12)Regular Medical-2022 Fortnightly Test-6 (RMG8_Code-A6) 157. 168. 159. 160. 161 162. The sporozoites of Plasmodium that infects new human host are formed/develops in (1) Gut wall of mosquito Anopheles (2) Lumen of salivary glands of mosquito (3) Liver of human (4) RBCs of human People who are at high risk of getting HIV infection include al, except (1) Individual who have multiple sexual partners (2) Children born to an HIV infected father and HIV negative mother (8) Individuals who requires transfusion repeated blood (4) Intravenous drug abusers Biological response modifiers which activate immune system of cancer patients and helps in destroying the tumor are (1) Morphine (2) Azidothymidine (3) oxinterferons (4) MHC Match columnt with column-Il and choose the correct option. Columne! Columnat a. Cytokine barrier (i) Mucous lining b. Physical barrier (i) Tears of eye ©. Cellular barrier (fl) PMNL-neutrophils 4. Physiological barriers (v) Interferons (1) ali), b(i, efi), dfiv) (2) ati), B«i), efiv), ait) (3) ali), B(), e(v), ai) (4) ativ), Bf), efi), di) Larvicidal fish used as biological agent against malaria and filariasis is (1) Exocoetus (3) Pristis Complete the analogy. (2) Scoliodon (4) Gambusia ‘Salmonella typhimurium : Typhoid :: Haemophilus Choose the correct option. (1) Plague (2) Pneumonia (3) Diphtheria (4) Rabies 163. 164. 165. 166. 167 Levels of which hormones get elevated by intake of nicotine? (1) Epinephrine, norepinephrine (2) ADH, oxytocin (3) Estrogen, progesterone (4) FSH, LH Read the following statements. a ». Itis a large bean shaped organ. Also a large reservoir for RBCs and considered as graveyard for RBCs. 4 Can trap blood borne microorganisms. itis a secondary lymphoid organ. Above characters are related to (1) Liver (2) Tonsits (3) Appendix (4) Spleen Which one of the following is not related to neoplastic transformation? (1) X-rays (2) UV rays (3) Gamma rays (4) Infrared rays Transplantation of either tissues or organs often fails due to rejection of such tissues/organs by patients. Which of the following is responsible for this graft rejection? (1) Auto-immune response (2) Humoral immune response (3) Cel-mediated immune response (4) Hypersensitivity Which ofthe folowing is not true about restriction endonucleases? (1) Restriction enzymes work in presence of Mg (2) Each restriction enzyme recognises the specific palindromic sequence regardless of the source of DNA (3) They are present in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes (4) The first restriction endonuclease was Hind II (13)Fortnightly Test-6 (RMG6_Code-A6) 168. 169. 170. in Choose the correct sequence of steps involved in recombinant DNA technology. a. Transform bacteria with recombinant DNA molecule b, Cut the plasmid DNA and foreign DNA using same restriction enzyme at specific point c. Extract plasmid DNA from bacterial cell d._Ligase join foreign DNA to plasmid e. Formation of recombinant DNA molecule (1) a,b,dcande (2) be, danda (3) c.b,deanda (4) ,d,e, aandb Match the following and select the correct option Column Column-tI la. [Biolistics (Short electrical limpulses lb. [Agrobacterium |i) [Gold coated with IDNA Jc. Electroporation (ii) [Direct transfer of IDNA into nucleus lof an animal cell Jd. [Microinjection liv) [Teplasmia (1) afi), bliv), efi), dCi) (2) ati), BG), cfiv), ait) (3) a(i), BG), efi), dfiv) (4) aQiv), BG), ef), di) Ifa gene of interest was inserted at Sal | site in pBR322, then the resulting plasmid will confer resistance to (1) Ampicilin (2) Tetracycline (3) Kanamycin (4) Both ampicillin and tetracycline The recognition sequence with correct cutting site of EcoRI is (y “SANTOS, S-Cco“GeG" 3-CTT,AAGS' 34GGG,CCC5" @ SSAATT C3 s'GATC C3 3°C TTAA,GS" 3iC CTAG,GS" 172 173. 174, 175. 176. 17. 178. Regular Medical-2022 The role of chilled ethanol in biotechnology is to (1) Preciptate out the DNA (2) Dissolves the DNA (3) Visualize DNA (4) Digest DNA How many copies of a dsDNA molecule are produced in PCR technique after 6-cycles? (1) 4 (2) 64 (3) 92 (4) 16 ‘The most commonly used bioreactor is of stirring type. The stirer mainly facilitates (1) Temperature control (2) pH control (3) Oxygen availability (4) Product removal In construction of first recombinant DNA, the plasmid as a vector was taken from (1) E coli (2) S. typhimurium (3) ¥. pestis (4) H. influenzae In EcoRI, the letter R is derived from the (1) Name of strain (2) First letter of genus (3) First letter of species (4) Scientist who isolated it Protein encoded by gene ‘cry/Ac’ controls ‘while that of ‘cryllAb’ controls Choose the correct option to fl the blanks respectively. (1) Cotton bollworm, com borer (2) Com borer, cotton bollworm (3) Cotton bollworm, cotton bollworm (4) Com borer, com borer In the figure given below which of the labellings , 'Y’ or 'Z’ represent C-peptide of insulin x QY (3) 2 (4) Information provided is insufficient (14)Regular Medical-2022 Fortnightly Test-6 (RMG8_Code-A6) 179. 180. 181 182 183. 184. Bacillus thuringiensis. produce proteins that kil organisms like a. Lepidopterans and fungi b, Fungi and beetles ¢. Dipterans and lepidopterans 4. Coleopterans and bacteria e. Beetles Choose the correct option. (1) a, bande (2) ¢,dande (3) aandb (4) cande Organisation which will make decisions regarding the validity of GM research and the safety of introducing GMO for public services is (1) Genes Enhancement Approval Committee (2) Genetic Engineering Approval Committee (3) Genes Enhancement Applied Chemistry (4) Genetic Enhancement Approved Committee The vector used in gone therapy to treat ADA deficiency is (1) Ecol (2) Agrobacterium (3) Retrovirus (4) pBR322 Estimated varieties of rice in India are (1) 200 (2) 27 (3) 2000 (4) 200,000 Which of the following combinations are conventional method used for detection of diseases? (1) Serum anaiysis and PCR (2) ROT and ELISA (3) X-ray and autoradiography (4) Serum analysis and urine analysis Read the given statements and choose the correct option, Statement-A : Transgenic animals used for testing toxicity of drugs, are made more sensitive to toxic substances. Statement-B : Only 85% transgenic animals are mice. (1) Only statement A is correct (2) Only statement B is correct (3) Both statements are correct (4) Both statements are incorrect of all existing 185. 186. 187 188. 189. 190. Insulin has 51 amino acids arranged as (1) Single peptide molecule (2) Two peptides with 21 and 30 amino acids linked with disulphide linkages (3) Three polypeptides having linkages (4) Two polypeptides with a connecting chain of 33 amino acids disulphide SECTION -B Bird flu is an avian influenza which is caused by (1) Hens (2) Hans (3) Has (4) HaNs Choose the correct number of exotic breeds of caltle from the box given below. Jersey, Holstein-Friesian, Ayrshire, Haryana, Brown swiss, Nageri, Kankrej, Hallikar as (2)2 (3) 3 (4) 4 AIDS was first reported in the year and in the last 25 years, it has killed more than persons. Choose the option that correctly fils the blank respectively, (1) 1986, 25 million (2) 1981, 26 million (3) 1981, 45 million (4) 1986, 45 million The side-effects of use of anabolic steroids in males do not include (1) Increased aggressiveness (2) Mood swings (3) Increase in size of testicles (4) Breast enlargement Read the following statements and choose the option that correctly states them as true(T) or false(F), a. Crack is usually snorted b. Receptors for cannabinoids are present in brain Morphine is an effective stimulant. Barbiturates are depressants abed qT Tor T QreT TT @T TF F @e FOF OT (15)Fortnightly Test-6 (RMG6_Code-A6) Regular Medical-2022 191 192, 193. 194, 198. Read the given statements. Statement-A : IgE type of antibodies play an important role during allergy. Statement-8 : Use of drugs like histamine, antiadrenaline and steroids quickly reduce the symptoms of allergy. Choose the correct option, (1) Statement A is correct but statement 8 is incorrect (2) Both statements A and B are correct (3) Statement A is incorrect but statement B is correct (4) Both statements A and B are incorrect Diseases are broadly grouped into infectious and nor-infectious. Select the option representing infectious diseases from the list below. a. Cancer b. Influenza Allergy d. Smallpox fe. Heart attack f. Corona (1) b,dandt (2) a,cande (3) ae and (4) bee and f Agrobacterium tumefaciens naturally causes crown gall tumor in (1) Com (2) Rice (3) Wheat (4) Apple Choose the correct statement w.rt, agarose gel electrophoresis. (1) DNA migrates towards cathode (2) Smaller DNA fragments migrate slower than larger fragments (3) The separated bands of DNA are cut out from agarose gel and extracted, this step is known as spooling (4) Ethidium bromide can be used to visualise the DNA under UV light Production of human proteins in bacteria by genetic engineering is possible because (1) Bacterial coll can carry out the RNA splicing reaction (2) The human chromosome can bacterial cel! replicate a a 196. 197. 198, 199. 200, a (3) The mechanism of gene regulation is identical in humans and bacteria (4) The genetic code is universal Bacterial cell (most) is made competent to take up DNA. This is done by (1) Treating them with Cl- ions (2) Treating them with divalent cations (Ca‘2) (3) Centrifugation and precipitation (4) Treating them with K° ions The step not processing is (1) Expression of protein (2) Purification (3) Extraction included under downstream (4) Separation Transgenic variety of rice i.e. golden rice was made to combat vitamin A deficiency as it contains good quantities of (1) o-carotene and niacin (2) B-carotene (3) Cholecalciferol (4) Niacin Rosie, a transgenic cow produced human protein enriched milk. Which of the following statement is false w.rt. it? (1) Rosie is the first transgenic cow (2) The milk lactalbumin contained the human alpha (3) The milk of transgenic cow contains about 2.4 grams of human protein per 100 ml of milk (4) Production of nutritionally enriched and more balanced product for human babies than cow-milk GM plants have been useful in many ways Genetic modification has not (1) Made crops intolerant to abiotic stresses (2) Reduced reliance on pesticides (3) Reduced post-harvest losses (4) Increased efficiency of mineral usage by plants (16)