English 11

PRACTICE TEST No. 23

Read the following and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 1 to 7.
It is estimated that by 2050 more than two-thirds of the world's population will live in cities, up from
about 54 percent today. While the many benefits of organized and efficient cities are well understood, we
need to recognize that this rapid, often unplanned urbanization brings risks of profound social instability,
risks to critical infrastructure, potential water crises and the potential for devastating spread of disease.
These risks can only be further exacerbated as this unprecedented transition from rural to urban areas
continues.
How effectively these risks can be addressed will increasingly be determined by how well cities are
governed. The increased concentration of people, physical assets, infrastructure and economic activities
mean that the risks materializing at the city level will have far greater potential to disrupt society than ever
before.
Urbanization is by no means bad by itself. It brings important benefits for economic, cultural and societal
development. Well managed cities are both efficient and effective, enabling economies of scale and network
effects while reducing the impact on the climate of transportation. As such, an urban model can make
economic activity more environmentally-friendly. Further, the proximity and diversity of people can spark
innovation and create employment as exchanging ideas breeds new ideas.
But these utopian concepts are threatened by some of the factors driving rapid urbanization. For example,
one of the main factors is rural-urban migration, driven by the prospect of greater employment opportunities
and the hope of a better life in cities. But rapidly increasing population density can create severe problems,
especially if planning efforts are not sufficient to cope with the influx of new inhabitants. The result may, in
extreme cases, be widespread poverty. Estimates suggest that 40% of the world's urban expansion is taking
place in slums, exacerbating socio-economic disparities and creating unsanitary conditions that facilitate the
spread of disease.
The Global Risks 2015 Report looks at four areas that face particularly daunting challenges in the face of
rapid and unplanned urbanization: infrastructure, health, climate change, and social instability. In each of
these areas we find new risks that can best be managed or, in some cases, transferred through the mechanism
of insurance.
Question 1. Which is the most suitable title for the passage?
A. The Risks of Rapid Urbanization in Developing Countries
B. Infrastructure and Economic Activities in Cities
C. The Global Risks 2015 Report on Developing Urban Areas
D. Rapid Urbanization Put Cities in Jeopardy
Question 2. The word “addressed” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. aimed at B. dealt with C. added to D. agreed on
Question 3. According to paragraph 3, what is one of the advantages of urbanization?
A. It minimizes risks for economic, cultural and societal development.
B. It makes water supply system both efficient and effective.
C. Weather and climate in the city will be much improved.
D. People may come up with new ideas for innovation.
Question 4. The word “spark” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. need B. start C. encourage D. design
Question 5. The word "that" in paragraph 4 refers to _______.
A. urban expansion B. unsanitary conditions
C. disease D. socio-economic disparities
Question 6. Which statement is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Urbanization brings important benefits for development as well.
B. 54% of the world's population will live in cities by 2050.
C. Risks cannot be addressed effectively no matter how well cities are governed.
D. Rapidly increasing population density can help solve poverty.
Question 7. What can be inferred from the passage?
A. Poverty may be a foregone conclusion of unplanned urbanization.
B. Diseases are caused by people migrating to cities.
C. Urbanization can solve the problem of environmental pollution in cities.
D. The increasing number of people in cities can create more employment.
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions
Question 8. A. wasted B. produced C. indicated D. arrested
Question 9. A. remind B. children C. flight D. widen
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 10. What makes the problem worse is that Howard and Tina are not on the same wavelength
about how to deal with it.
A. behave in the same way B. share their opinions
C. want the same wave D. have their length in common
Question 11. My parents always disapproved of my smoking. They even told me once it would stop me
growing taller.
A. refused B. objected to C. supported D. denied
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions
Question 12. A. normal B. friendship C. humour D. attract
Question 13. A. contractual B. addition C. candidate D. appointment
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions
Question 14. He is a great sports _______. He rarely misses any sport games although he was busy.
A. player B. enthusiast C. energy D. programmer
Question 15. While I _______ at the bus stop, three buses went by in the opposite direction.
A. was waiting B. waited C. had waited. D. were waiting
Question 16. All nations should _______ hands to work out a plan to solve the problem of global warming.
A. shake B. join C. lend D. hold
Question 17. Your sister used to visit you quite often, _______?
A. didn't she B. doesn't she C. wouldn't she D. hadn't she
Question 18. If we ______ the plans carefully, we would not have had so many serious mistakes.
A. study B. had studied C. studied D. were studying
Question 19. Lionel Messi _______ as one of the best football players of all times.
A. regards B. is regarded C. has regarded D. regard
Question 20. Candidates are advised to dress formally to make a good ______ on job interviewers.
A. impressive B. impression C. impress D. impressively
Question 21. ______ for 4 hours, they decided to stop to have lunch at a cheap restaurant.
A. Having been walked B. Having walked
C. Walking D. Walked
Question 22. With greatly increased workloads, everyone is _______ pressure now.
A. upon B. out of C. above opinion D. under for
Question 23. I'm looking for a ______ clock for my bedside table.
A. small white Swiss B. Swiss small white
C. white small Swiss D. Swiss white small
Question 24. She _______ her mother for many years up to the time of her death.
A. looked after B. start over C. set up D. go over
Question 25. I had all the information at my _______ before attending the meeting.
A. fingertips B. thumbs C. hands D. fingers
Question 26: I have been saving money _______ I would like to buy a new computer.
A. despite B. because of C. although D. because
Question 27: The larger the apartment, _______ the rent is.
A. expensive B. the more expensive
C. more expensively D. the most expensive
Question 28: It is alleged that mothers and grandmothers spoil the children by _______ their mistakes.
A. neglecting B. overlooking C. avoiding D. passing
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 29. We are having a surprise party for Susan next Saturday, so don't give the secret away by
saying anything to her.

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A. ask anyone to come B. tell her the secret

C. go to the party D. find out the secret
Question 30. There are many TV commercials distracting viewers from watching their favorite films.
A. economics B. businesses C. contests D. advertisements
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
The PBT is a pencil and paper test that is offered for two purposes. One purpose of the PBT is for
placement and process evaluation. (31) ______ colleges or institutions use the PBT to test their students.
The scores are not valid outside of the place where they are administered, but the college or institution
accepts the PBT that they administered as an official score. This PBT is also (32) ______ an Intitution
TOEFL. The main purpose of the PBT is to supplement the official Computer-Based TOEFL in areas where
computer-based testing is not possible. The scores are usually valid outside of the place where they are
administered. This PBT is also called a Supplement TOEFL.
The Paper-Based TOEFL has three parts: Listening Comprehension, Structure and Written Expression,
and Reading. (33) ______, the TEST of Written English (TWE) is an essay that is required to provide a
writing score. The PBT is a (34) _______test, which means that everyone (35) ______ takes the TOEFL
during the same administration will see and answer the same questions. The final score is based on a scale of
310-677.
Question 31. A. Each B. Every C. Many D. Much
Question 32. A. called B. seemed C. considered D. appeared
Question 33. A. In other words B. On the other hand C. Besides D. In addition
Question 34. A. style B. form C. standard D. linear
Question 35. A. who B. whom C. which D. where
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 36. The last time she saw her elder sister was in 2019.
A. She didn't see her elder sister from 2019.
B. She has seen her elder sister since 2019.
C. It was not until 2019 that she saw her elder sister.
D. She hasn't seen her elder sister since 2019.
Question 37. Perhaps Susan knows the name of every kid in the school
A. Susan needn't know the name of every kid in the school.
B. Susan may know the name of every kid in the school.
C. Susan should know the name of every kid in the school.
D. Susan mustn't know the name of every kid in the school.
Question 38. “I'm sorry I gave you the wrong number”, said Paul to Susan
A. Paul apologized to Susan for having given the wrong number
B. Paul denied giving Susan the wrong number.
C. Paul thanked to Susan for giving the wrong number
D. Paul accused Susan of having given him the wrong number
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 39. Harry is talking to Judy over the phone.
Harry: “Thank you for helping me prepare for my birthday party, Judy.”
Judy: “________.”
A. You're welcome B. That's out of this world
C. Never mention me D. Of course not
Question 40. Catherine and Laura are talking about their school rules.
Catherine: “I think that all students must wear uniforms at school.”
Laura: “________. Wearing uniforms helps students feel equal in many ways.”
A. I'm sorry, but I disagree B. I refuse to believe that
C. I couldn't agree more D. You must be kidding.
Read the following and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 41 to 45.

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Some doctors think that you should drink a glass of water each morning. You should drink this water first
thing, before doing anything else. The temperature of the water should be similar to body temperature;
neither too hot nor too cold.
Why should you drink this water? Water helps your body in many ways. It helps clean out your kidneys.
It prepares your stomach for digestion. Water can also help your intestines work better. After drinking
water, the intestines can more easily take out nutrients from our food. Water also helps us go to the
bathroom more easily. Scientists suggest that people take in 1,600 milliliters of water each day. But don't
drink all of that water in one sitting. If you do, your kidneys will have to work much harder to eliminate it.
It's better to drink some in the morning and some in the afternoon. Some people think it's better to drink
between meals and not during meals. They think water dilutes the juices produced in our stomachs. This can
interfere with normal digestion.
Are you drinking enough water every day? Check the color of your urine. If it is light yellow, you are
probably drinking enough. If your urine is very dark yellow, you probably need to drink more water. A little
more water each day could make you much healthier.
(Adapted from Reading Challenge 1 by Casey Malarcher and Andrea Janzen)
Question 41. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. The importance of water B. The advice of the doctors
C. How to drink water correctly? D. The best amount of water to drink
Question 42. The pronoun “it” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. your body B. your kidney C. water D. your stomach
Question 43. The word “eliminate” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. preserve B. remove C. absorb D. process
Question 44. Which of the following is NOT true?
A. The first thing you should do every morning is to drink water.
B. You shouldn't drink too much water at the same time.
C. Drinking water while having meals may interfere with normal digestion.
D. You need to drink more water if your urine is light yellow.
Question 45. According to the passage, water is good for the following organs of the body, EXCEPT
_______.
A. kidneys B. stomach C. intestines D. livers
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 46. In just a few weeks since its discovery, Omicron has turned out to be highly transmissible
and less susceptible to vaccines than other variations.
A. discovery B. transmissible C. susceptible D. variations
Question 47. You can remember those words easily if you write it down in your notebook.
A. those B. easily C. write D. it
Question 48. Many students takes part in the entrance examination at university every year.
A. students B. takes C. entrance D. every year
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. He was able to finish his book. It was because his wife helped him.
A. If it weren't for his wife's help, he couldn't have finished his book.
B. If only he had been able to finish his book.
C. If his wife hadn't helped him, he couldn't have finished his book.
D. But for his wife's help, he couldn't finish his book.
Question 50. The Prime Minister set up a committee of financial experts. They were to help him discuss and
formulate new policies.
A. The Prime Minister, who is a financial expert, set up a committee to discuss and formulate new
policies.
B. A committee consisting of financial experts was set up by the Prime Minister to help him discuss and
formulate new policies.
C. The Prime Minister, who was helped by financial experts, set up a committee to discuss and formulate
new policies.
D. A committee consisting of financial experts who were helped by the Prime Minister discussed and
formulated new policies.

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