BIOCHEMISTRY

1. Which of these is the key regulatory enzyme in heme a. gout

biosynthesis? b. adenosine deaminase deficiency
a. Pyrollase c. orotic aciduria
b. Uroporphyrin decarboxylase d. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
c. Ferrochelatase
d. ALA synthase 10. A general class of enzymes that join molecules by creating
a new chemical bond at the expense of ATP hydrolysis
2. Clinical manifestation of lactose intolerance is due to: a. hydrolase
a. Lactase over secretion of the small intestines b. Ivase
b. Lactose presence in the large intestines c. ligase
c. Bacterial fermentation of galactose d. isomerase
d. Bacterial fermentation of glucose
11. Which eicosanoids promote bronchoconstriction and play
3. VLDLs are synthesized in the liver for transport of which of a part in asthma?
the following to the peripheral tissues? a. leukotrienes
a. LDL receptors b. prostaglandins
b. triacylglycerols c. Prostacyclin
c. apoproteins for HDL synthesis d. Thromboxanes
d. apo B-100
12. Which of the following is NOT TRUE of the beta-oxidation
4. Unlike other vitamins, niacin is a semi-essential vitamin of palmitic acid?
because it can be synthesized from this amino acid: a. two oxidation steps generate 5 mols of ATP per cycle
a. Tryptophan b. occurs in the matrix of mitochondria
b. Histidine c. the cell conserves 129 moles ATP per mole of palmitic acid
c. Phenylalanine d. cleavage reaction occurs between the beta and gamma
d. Proline carbons

5. A drug used as an adjunct in the treatment of obesity 13. Which vitamin is essential in the synthesis of purine
inhibits pancreatic lipase. Following its intake, which of nucleotides?
the following is expected to be excreted in great amount a. ascorbic acid
in the feces? b. thiamin
a. Cholesterol c. niacin
b. Free fatty acids d. folic acid
c. Bile salts
d. Triacylglycerols 14. Enzyme that catalyzes hydrolysis of starch:
a. Lipase
6. Sugar with glycemic index less than 1: b. HCL
a. Galactose c. protease
b. Glucose d. Amylase
c. Lactose
d. Fructose 15. The protein that stores iron in the cells is called
a. transferrin
7. This is a correct statement regarding hemoglobin: b. ferritin
a. A stores C02 c. hemochromatin
b. A non-heme protein d. hemosiderin
c. Stores oxygen
d. Exhibits cooperativity 16. Which of the following is a nucleotide?
a. adenylic acid
8. The color of heme is due to its: b. uracil
a. Conjugated ring structure c. guanosine
b. Cyclic Structure d. cytidine
c. Iron group
d. Substituent side chains 17. Transamidation reactions include which of the following?
a. formation of liver asparagine from aspartate
9. Which clinical condition does not involve a defect in b. formation of liver oxaloacetate from alanine
purine metabolism? c. formation of liver glutamine from glutamate

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d. formation of liver glutamate from a-ketoglutarate a. Pentose Phosphate Pathway
b. Embden Meyerhof Pathway
18. Enzymes, as biological catalysts accelerate velocity of c. Uronic Acid Pathway
reactions by: d. Citric Acid Cycle
a. increasing transition state of reactants and products
b. lowering the free energy of activation of reactions 26. In the Lineweaver Burk plot, the slope of the line is equal
c. lowering the net energy change between initial and final to:
states of the reaction a. 1/S
d. increasing the equilibrium constant (Keg) of the reaction b. 1/Vmax
c. Km/Vmax
19. Which sugar derivatives polymerize to form structural d. -1/Km
polysaccharide?
a. Sugar phosphate and sugar acid 27. The oxygen carrier of muscle is the globular protein
b. Sugar amino and sugar acid myoglobin. Which of the following amino acids is highly
c. Sugar acid and sugar sulfate likely to be localized within the interior of the molecule?
d. Sugar amino acid and sugar sulfate a. Glutamic acid
b. Aspartic acid
20. Cyanide poisoning is very fatal. This is because cyanide has c. Arginine
this effect of the Electron Transport Chain: d. Valine
a. enhance the transport of electrons
b. uncouples oxidative phosphorylation 28. Glycerol phosphate, the backbone of TAG, is synthesized
c. inhibits cytochrome oxidase in adipose tissue by:
d. inhibits complex Ill a. phosphorylation of diacylglycerol
b. phosphorylation of glycerol by glycerol kinase
21. A deficiency in the ability to secrete enterokinase leads to c. glycerol dehydrogenase
which of the following? d. reduction of dihydroxyacetone phosphate
a. abnormally low levels of intestinal zymogens
b. abnormally low levels of undigested proteins in lower GIT 29. In Bioenergetics, the amount of energy available for the
c. abnormally low levels of active intestinal proteases performance of useful work is termed:
d. increase plasma levels of serum amylase a. enthalpy
b. equilibrium energy
22. In the capillaries, hemoglobin releases oxygen and accepts c. Free energy
carbon dioxide. The process generates protons e which d. entropy
can then lower the blood ph. The buffering action of
hemoglobin will prevent this from taking place. What 30. Anticancer drugs like 5-fluorouracil and 6-mercaptopurine
amino acid residues in hemoglobin are most important in act against malignant cells by:
this shift in ph buffering effect at normal blood ph? a. causing the denaturation of DNA in cancer cells
a. Arginine b. being incorporated into DNA before replication
b. Histidine c. inhibiting the enzymes that synthesize thymidylic acid
c. Lysine d. inactivating protein synthesis
d. Glutamate
31. Which is TRUE about methemoglobinemias?
23. Amino acids that are strictly ketogenic: a. There is increased activity of methemoglobin reductase.
a. lysine and leucine b. There is absence of the Bohr effect.
b. leucine and isoleucine c. Increased reduction of Fe3+ of methemoglobin to Fe2+
c. valine and isoleucine occurs
d. tyrosine and tryptophan d. It can result as a side-effect of sulfonamides.

24. The major product of nitrogen catabolism in humans is: 32. The site of action of the NSAIDS is:
a. Creatinine a. prostaglandin cyclooxygenase
b. Urea b. thromboxan synthase
c. Ammonia c. prostacyclin synthase
d. Uric acid d. lipoxygenase

25. The major pathway of glucose metabolism that exists in all 33. Which statement is true about competitive inhibition?
cells is the a. Km is constant while Vmax decreases

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b. Both the Km and Vmax decrease 41. The metabolic function of the pentose phosphate
c. Usually the inhibitor structurally resembles the normal pathway is to:
substrate a. generate NADPH and pentoses for the biosynthesis of
d. Inhibitor binds to the allosteric site of the enzyme fatty acids and nucleic acids.
b. act as a source of ADP biosynthesis.
34. Nearly all products of digestion of carbohydrates, fats and c. provide intermediates for the citric acid cycle.
proteins are metabolized to what common metabolite? d. participate in oxidation-reduction reactions during the
a. Glucose-6-phosphate formation of H20
b. pyruvate
c. lactate 42. Activity exhibited by enzymes when fully saturated:
d. Acetyl COA a. VO
b. Vmax
35. An enzyme catalyzing the reaction: lecithin + cholesterol - c. ½ Vmax
fatty acid cholesterol ester + lysolecithin is classified as: d. 1 Km
a. transferase
b. hydrolase 43. The production of alanine by peripheral tissue, especially
c. lipase by the muscle, is primarily dependent on:
d. oxidoreductase a. intracellular levels of glutamate
b. intracellular levels of pyruvate
36. Thiamine deficiency can result in Wernicke-Korsakoff's c. intracellular levels of NADH
syndrome. The absence of the vitamin prevents the d. allosteric effectors of ALT
conversion of pyruvate to acetyl coa on a high
carbohydrate diet. Which compound would be found to 44. Sulfur for cysteine synthesis is derived from:
be high in concentration in the plasma? a. Coenzyme A
a. Lactate & pyruvate b. sulfites
b. Alcohol c. H2S
c. Glucose d. Methionine
d. Acetyl coa
45. The kinetic parameter that reflects the affinity of the
37. A non competitive inhibitor of an enzyme: enzyme for its substrate is called:
a. Decreases Vmax a. Km
b. Decreases Km and decreases Vmax b. Q10
c. Increases Vmax c. Vmax
d. Increases Km with no or little change in Vmax d. Games
e. Kcat
38. The Michaelis Menten constant is equal to substrate
concentration when: 46. The globin chains in hemoglobin and myoglobin functions
a. initial velocity is ½ Vmax as/to:
b. Km= ½ substrate concentration a. inhibits allosteric modulators
c. max is doubled b. oxygen transporter
d. Km/Vmax = 1 c. suit the proteins physiologic roles
d. Provides hindered environment for the heme iron
39. Which of the following is NOT TRUE of the beta-oxidation
of palmitic acid? 47. Several of the enzymes of cholesterol biosynthesis require
a. two oxidation steps generate 5 mols of ATP per cycle which of the following cofactors?
b. the cell conserves 129 moles ATP per mole of palmitic acid a. TPP
c. occurs in the matrix of mitochondria b. biotin
d. cleavage reaction occurs between the beta and gamma c. FADH2
carbons d. NADPH

40. The initial step in the TCA Cycle is catalyzed by: 48. Glycolysis, glycogenesis and lipogenesis are stimulated by
a. pyruvate dehydrogenase this hormone:
b. lactate dehydrogenase a. glucagons
c. citrate synthase b. epinephrine
d. alpha-keto-glutarate dehydrogenase c. cortisol
d. insulin

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49. Nearly all products of digestion of carbohydrates, fats and b. ammonia
proteins are metabolized to what common metabolite? c. urea
a. lactate d. uric acid
b. pyruvate
c. Acetyl COA 58. Which of the metabolites below is a precursor of tyrosine?
d. Glucose-6-phosphate a. L-dihydroxyphenylalanine(DOPA)
b. Norepinephrine
50. It is referred to as the final common pathway for the c. Phenylalanine
oxidation of carbohydrates, lipids and proteins: d. Dopamine
a. Embden-Meyerhof pathway
b. Glucuronic acid pathway 59. Which of the following enzymes is common to both
c. Citric acid cycle glycolysis and gluconeogenesis?
d. Hexose monophosphate shunt a. Hexokinase
b. Pyruvate carboxylase
51. The important cofactor for the transaminases: c. Fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase
a. tetrahydrofolate d. Phosphotriose isomerase
b. tetrahydrobiopterin
c. pyridoxal phosphate 60. This is the process of forming glucose from
d. biocytin noncarbohydrate precursors like lactate, amino acids and
glycerol:
52. An example of an aromatic amino acid is: a. cori cycle
a. Serine b. glycolysis
b. Glutamic c. glycogenesis
c. Tryptophan d. gluconeogenesis
d. Aspartic
61. DNA is distinguished from RNA by:
53. This mineral helps guard against DNA damage as a a. its single stranded structure
cofactor of glutathione: b. its component sugar, ribose
a. selenium c. a high content of modified bases
b. iron d. the presence of thymine instead of uracil
c. Zinc
d. manganese 62. This hormone is synthesized and released immediately in
its final form:
54. The principal plasma carrier of dietary triacylglycerols is a. T3
a. serum albumin b. aldosterone
b. LDLS c. DHT
c. Chylomicrons d. insulin
d. HDLS
63. The most important positive regulator of the committed
55. Foods with low glycemic index: step of glycolysis is the availability of
a. cause less fluctuation in insulin secretion a. Citrate
b. Glucose have glycemic index more than 1 b. ATP
c. Not ideal in treating diabetes mellitus c. fructose 1,6 bisphosphate
d. examples are starch d. fructose 2,6 bisphosphate

56. Fatty acids enter the mitochondrial matrix for oxidation in 64. The number of reduced electron carriers generated when
what form? one mole of palmitate is subjected to oxidation:
a. complexed with carnitine as acyl-carnitine a. 2 FADH2 and 3 NADH + H+
b. as free fatty acids b. 7 FADH2 and 7 NADH + H+
c. following conversion to carnitine c. 5 FADH2 and 5 NADH + H+
d. acyl-CoAs through active transport d. 3 FADH2 and 2 NADH + H+

57. In the management of gout, allopurinol is given to inhibit 65. The final acceptor of electrons in the Respiratory Chain is:
xanthine oxidase, the enzyme that catalyzes the synthesis a. Oxygen
of: b. iron sulfur center
a. allantoate c. coenzyme O

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d. cytochrome oxidase e. None of the above

66. Which of the following reactions generates ATP 74. Aside from urea, the main circulatory system carrier of
a. Glucose to Glucose 6-Phosphate nitrogen atoms destined for excretion by the kidney is:
b. Phosphoenolpyruvate to pyruvate a. Glutamine
c. Fructose 6-phosphate to Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate b. alanine
d. Glucose 6-phosphate to Fructose 6-phosphate c. glutamate
d. asparagine
67. Activation of lipoprotein lipase requires which
apoprotein? 75. The correct flow of genetic information according to the
a. Apo B-100 Central Dogma of Molecular Biology is:
b. Apo E a. replication-> translation --> transcription
c. Apo C-ll b. translation -> replication -> transcription
d. Apo B-48 c. transcription -> replication -> transcription
d. replication-> transcription-›translation
68. Hormone derived from cholesterol
a. Tyroxine 76. Which of the following disaccharides is best suited to
b. GH provide the structural sugars?
c. 1,25(0H)2-D3 a. Cellobiose
d. TSH b. Sucrose
c. Mannose
69. Metabolic screening was requested for a week-old d. Lactose
newborn because the grandmother had noticed the dark
stains on the wet diaper whenever she attended the 77. Glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency is
infant. Tests identified the condition as alkaptonuria. characterized by which one of the following?
What urinary metabolic should the physician request in a. accumulation of glucose -6-phosphate in the tissue
the laboratory tests? b. decreased formation of NADPH
a. Tryptophan c. increased synthesis of reduced glutathione
b. Melanin d. may manifest as hemorrhagic anemia
c. Homogentisic acid
d. Tyrosine 78. How many moles of NADPH + H+ can be derived from the
pathway utilized in the transport of acetyl CoA out of the
70. The key regulatory enzyme in heme biosynthesis is: mitochondria?
a. ALA synthase a. 10 moles
b. UDP-glucuronyltransferase b. 14 moles
c. none of the above c. 8 moles
d. ALA dehydratase d. 12 moles

71. What is the cause of polyuria in diabetes mellitus? 79. Newborn infants can generate more heat needed by the
a. decreased ADH activity body because they contain. Thermogenin, an uncoupling
b. decreased aldosterone activity protein. This protein exerts its effect by:
c. osmotic diuresis a. Increasing the amount of substrate oxidized
d. overdrinking of water because of polydipsia b. Dissociating respiratory chain oxidation from ATP
synthesis (phosphorylation)
72. Which of the following coenzymes is involved in electron c. Preventing heat loss
transfer? d. Activating respiratory chain enzymes
a. tetrahydrofolic acid
b. pyridoxal phosphate 80. Which of the following affects biological oxidation by
c. biotin dissociating mitochondrial respiration from
d. NAD phosphorylation?
a. rotenone
73. The active form of Vitamin B12 coenzyme: b. 2,4 dinitrophenol
a. Cobamide c. Cyanide
b. aquocobalamin d. antimycin
c. 5'-deoxyadenosylcobalamin
d. hydrocobalamin 81. A sugar that is absorbed in the small intestine by active

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transport: b. oxygen
a. Glucose c. hydrogen
b. Maltose d. water
c. Lactose
d. Fructose 89. Which vitamin is a purine derivative?
a. Carotene
82. A protein rich in which of the following amino acids will b. Niacin
provide the greatest buffering capacity at physiologic pH? c. Cyanocobalamin
a. Aspartic acid d. Inositol
b. Lysine
c. Histidine 90. Double reciprocal plot of the Michaelis Menten equation
d. Valine is called:
a. Lineweaver Burk
83. Digestability of sugar depends on the presence of this b. Eadie Hofstee
glycosidic linkage: c. Briggs-Haldane
a. Alpha d. Hanes-Wolf
b. Theta
c. Gamma 91. Allosteric properties of hemoglobin is a result if its:
d. Beta a. Quaternary structure
b. Primary structure
84. Serum enzymes are elevated following tissue injury and c. Tertiary structure
death due to: d. Heme moiety
a. proteolytic activation of proenzymes or zymogens
b. allosteric enzyme activation by positive activators 92. When tested, a young woman, complaining of fatigability
c. increased cell membrane permeability and leakage of and poor exercise tolerance was found to have only one
enzymes into blood sixth the amount of carnitine found in others who had no
d. enzyme induction secondary to stimulation of protein muscle disease. This means that the above symptoms she
synthesizing machinery of the cell is experiencing is due to:
a. Inability of the body to synthesize lipids
85. of the following coenzymes is not appropriately paired b. Failure of fatty acids to enter B- oxidation
with the enzymatic reaction it is associated with? c. Impairment of the mitochondria
a. NAD-dehydrogenation d. Inhibition of ATP production
b. tetrahydrofolate-transamination
c. biocytin-carboxylation 93. Tests done on a two month-old baby showed deficiency in
d. Coenzyme A- transacylation enzymes of the Uronic Acid Pathway.
a. Yellow coloration of the skin
86. Which of these is an essential amino acid? b. Elevated urinary glucuronic acid
a. Isoleucine c. Accumulation of heme
b. Tyrosine d. High direct-reacting bilirubin in plasma
c. Serine
d. Glutamine 94. A 15-year-old girl has been under a physician's care for
the past year after diagnosis of anorexia nervosa. Her BMI
87. A patient was tested for transketolase activity of the is now 18. On physical examination she has cheilosis.
erythrocyte lysate. Results showed markedly low activity Laboratory studies show hemoglobin 13.7 g/dL,
of the enzyme, consistent with the physicians impression hematocrit 41.0%, MCV 88 fL, platelet count
of deficiency of this vitamin: 191,055/microliter, and WBC count 4930/microliter. Her
a. Vitamin B6 serum glucose is 66 mg/dL. Which of the following
b. Vitamin B5 nutrient deficiencies is most likely to cause this patient's
c. Vitamin B3 findings?
d. Vitamin B12 a. Riboflavin
e. Vitamin B1 b. Iron
f. Vitamin B2 c. Folic Acid
d. Vitamin C
88. The final electron acceptor in the Electron Transport Chain
is: 95. A 41-year-old man has had increasing dyspnea for the
a. carbon dioxide past year. On physical examination he has diffuse crackles

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at lung bases. A chest ×-ray shows pulmonary edema and b. Pyridoxine
cardiomegaly. Echocardiography shows an ejection c. Vitamin A
fraction of 40%. Laboratory studies show hemoglobin 14 d. Niacin
g/dL, hematocrit 42%, and WBC count 8320/microliter. A
deficiency in which of the following vitamins is most likely 100. A tourist from the Maldives fell ill and was diagnosed to
to produce these findings? have malaria. He was given primaquine admission to the
a. B2 hospital and was thought to be recuperating when he showed
b. A signs of hemolytic anemia. Tests showed he had glucose 6-
c. B1 phosphatase deficiency. What is the biochemical explanation
d. K for the hemolysis?
a. Absence of G6PD initiated release of peroxides
96. 7-year-old child has complained of pain in his legs for the b. Inactivity of the Hexose Monophosphate Shunt prevented
past year. On physical examination, there is bowing the NADPH - reduction of membrane glutathione
deformity of his lower extremities. Plain film radiographs c. The drug oxidized membrane proteins
of his lower legs shows widened epiphyses and bowing of d. The malarial parasite had invaded the rbc
tibiae. Bone mineral density appears normal, consistent
with failure of osteoid matrix formation. Which of the
following vitamin deficiencies is this child most likely to
have?
a. C
b. D
c. E
d. B3

97. A 6-year-old child was born at term, with no congenital

anomalies. She is now only 70% of normal body weight,
though she shows dependent edema of the lower
extremities as well as an enlarged abdomen. Her flaking
skin shows irregular areas of depigmentation,
hyperpigmentation, and desquamation. These findings are
most suggestive of which of the following nutritional
problems?
a. Marasmus
b. Vitamin A Deficiency
c. Kwashiorkor
d. Niacin deficiency

98. 28-year-old man has a history of multiple and recurrent

pulmonary infections since childhood. He also has noted
foul smelling stools for the past 10 years. Laboratory
studies show an elevated sweat chloride test. He has a
quantitative stool fat of 10 g/day. A deficiency state
involving which of the following nutrients is most likely to
develop in this patient?
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin B1
c. Vitamin D
d. Calcium

99. A 60-year-old woman has developed red, roughened skin

in sun-exposed areas over the past 2 years. She also has a
chronic, watery diarrhea. On physical examination she
exhibits memory loss with confusion. These findings are
most consistent with which of the following vitamin
deficiencies?
a. Thiamine

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1. Which one of the following amino acids may be considered 7. Which of the following is involved in the simultaneous
a hydrophobic amino acid at physiological ph of 7.4? transport of 2 different molecules across a membrane in the
A. Arginine same direction at the same time?
D. Isoleucine A. Antiporter
B. Aspartic acid B. A-channel
E. Threonine D. Symporter
C. Glycine E. Uniporter
C. Na+/K+-atpase
2. The greatest buffering capacity at physiological ph would
be provided by a protein rich in which of the following amino 8. GLUT4 is the glucose transporter involved in insulin-
acids? stimulated glucose uptake into adipose tissue and skeletal
A. Alanine muscle. The mechanism of glucose transport by GLUT4 is of
D. Proline which of the following types?
B. Cysteine A. Active transporter
E. Tyrosine C. Gated ion channel
C. Histidine B. Facilitated diffusion
D. Simple diffusion
3. A deficiency in the hepatic enzyme aldolase B would result
in a reduced ability to metabolize which of the following 9. Which of the following proteins uses the sodium
carbohydrates? electrochemical gradient to actively transport a solute into
A. Dihydroxyacetone the cell?
D. Glyceraldehyde A. Calcium-atpase
B. Fructose D. Na+/Ca2+ counter transport protein
E. Sucrose B. GLUT2
C. Glucose E. SGLT1
C. Na+/K+-atpase
4. The "Bohr effect" is best described by which of the
following statements? 10. Acetylcholine exerts effects on several cell types. On
A. Binding of 02 certain cells, such as muscle, the activity of acetylcholine
B. Covalent attachment of CO2 forming hemoglobin results in the opening of which of the following types of
carbamate membrane channels?
C. Release of 02 from hemoglobin in response to the A. Ca2+-activated K+ channel
buffering of Cl-by hemoglobin D. Voltage-gated Ca2+ channel
D. Release of CO2 from erythrocytes when they enter the B. Transmitter-gated cation channel
high 02 concentration of the alveoli E. Voltage-gated Na+ channel
E. Release of 02 from hemoglobin in response to the C. Transmitter-gated C|- channel
buffering of H+ by
11. Deficiency in which of the following vitamins is associated
5. Hemoglobin and myoglobin are proteins composed with progressive keratinization of the cornea?
primarily of which of the following types of secondary A. A
structures? B. C
A. Amide bond C. D
D. B-pleated sheet D. E
B. Disulfide bond E. K
E. Triple helix
C. A-helix 12. The vitamin involved in biochemical reactions concerned
with the transfer of methyl, methylene, or formyl groups is a
6. Aquaporins are a class of transporters that are involved in derivative of which of the following vitamins?
the transport of water across membranes. The aquaporins A. A-lipoic acid
belong to which type of transporter family? B. Biotin
A. Active D. Pyridoxine
B. -barrel channels (porins) E. Riboflavin
D. Facilitated C. Folic acid
E. Passive
C. A-channels 13. Wernicke encephalopathy syndrome is caused by a
deficiency of which of the following?

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A. Biotin
B. Cobalamin 20. Patients with scurvy are most likely to have a defect in
D. Riboflavin which of the following reactions?
E. Thiamine A. Carboxylation
C. Pyridoxal phosphate B. Decarboxylation
D. Methyl group transfer
14. Which of the following represents a significant E. Transamination
biochemical role of vitamin C? C. Hydroxylation
A. Blood coagulation
B. Calcium homeostasis 21. Kinases are a class of enzymes that incorporate a
D. Metabolic functions of copper phosphate onto their substrates. The catalytic activity of
E. Steroid hydroxylation kinases classifies them as members of which of the following
C. Connective tissue production enzyme families?
A. Hydrolases
15. When vitamin D is deficient, what 2 disorders occur most D. Oxidoreductases
readily? B. Alsomerase
A. Kidney failure and bent bones E. Transferases
B. Megaloblastic anemia and Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome C. Ligases
C. Osteoporosis and diverticulosis
D. Osteomalacia and xerophthalmia 22. In the production of ATP during glucose metabolism in
E. Rickets and osteomalacia erythrocytes, which of the ff is the immediate donor of the
phosphoryl group to ADP?
16. The activity of aspartate aminotransferase (AST) requires A. 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate
which of the following vitamins as a coenzyme? D. Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate
A. Folate B. Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate
D. Vitamin B6 E. Phosphoenolpyruvate
B. Vitamin B1
E. Vitamin B12 23. Which of the following represents the enzyme deficiency
C. Vitamin B2 that leads to "essential fructosuria"?
A. Fructose-1-phosphate aldolase (aldolase B)
17. As an essential component of the nucleotide analog, FAD, B. Fructose-1,6-bisphosphate aldolase (aldolase A)
which of the ff vitamins plays a major role in the transfer of C. Fructokinase
reducing equivalents? D. Hexokinase
A. Folate E. 6-Phosphofructo-1 kinase, PFK1
D. Vitamin B6
B. Vitamin B1 24. Acetyl-coa enhances the rate of gluconeogenesis by acting
E. Vitamin B12 as an obligate activator of which of the following enzymes?
C. Vitamin B2 A. Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase
D. Pyruvate carboxylase
18. The activity of which of the following enzymes in the B. Phosphoglycerate kinase
erythrocyte will be decreased in patients with a deficiency of E. Pyruvate kinase
thiamin? C. Phosphoglycerate mutase
A. Adenosine deaminase
D. Transaldolase 25. The purpose of the Cori cycle is to shift the metabolic
B. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) burden in which of the following directions?
E. Transketolase A. Brain to liver
C. Pyruvate kinase D. Liver to muscle
B. Cardiac to skeletal muscle
19. Which of the following laboratory findings is most likely in E. Muscle to liver
a 37yo woman with a thiamin deficiency? C. Liver to brain
A. Decreased plasma concentration of alanine
B. Increased erythrocyte transketolase activity 26. When pyruvate is the substrate for gluconeogenesis,
C. Increased leukocyte a-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase which of the following is the fate of oxaloacetate prior to
activity traversing the mitochondrial membrane?
D. Increased plasma concentration of glucose A. Conversion to phosphoenolpyruvate
E. Increased plasma concentrations of pyruvate and lactate B. Oxidation to malate

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D. Transamination to aspartate A. Adipose tissue
E. Transamination to glutamate D. Lactating mammary tissue
C. Reduction to malate B. Adrenal gland
E. Skeletal muscle
27. Which of the ff compounds would be utilized by a person C. Erythrocytes
on a carbohydrate-free diet as a source of carbon atoms for
de novo glucose synthesis? 34. Which of the following enzymes represents a key
A. Palmitate regulated enzyme of the PPP?
B. B-hydroxybutyrate A. Gluconolactone hydrolase
D. Cholesterol B. G6PDH
E. Acetoacetate C. 6-phosphogluconate dehydrogenase
C. Glycerol D. Transaldolase
E. Transketolase
28. Which of the following enzymes is activated by
dephosphorylation? 35. Which of the following vitamins is needed for the
A. Glucose 6-phosphatase synthesis of a cofactor required for the conversion of
D. Glycogen synthase succinate to fumarate?
B. UDP-glucose pyrophosphorylase A. Lipoic acid
E. Phosphoglucomutase D. Riboflavin
C. Glycogen phosphorylase B. Niacin
E. Thiamine
29. Which of the following is most likely to result from an C. Pantothenic acid
increased concentration of intracellular camp in skeletal
muscle? 36. In the TCA cycle, GTP is produced via a process referred to
A. Decreased activity of the TCA cycle as substrate-level phosphorylation. Which of the following
B. Increased rate of glycogenolysis enzymes is involved in this process of formation of GTP from
C. Increased synthesis of glycogen GDP?
D. Inhibition of phosphofructokinase (PFK1) A. Citrate synthase
E. Rapid gluconeogenesis D. Succinate-coa synthetase
B. Isocitrate dehydrogenase
30. When glucose is incorporated into liver glycogen, which of E. Succinate dehydrogenase
the following is required as the direct glucosyl donor? C. Malate dehydrogenase
A. ADP glucose
D. Sucrose 37. Regeneration of which of the following participants in the
B. CDP glucose TCA cycle is dependent on the presence of oxygen?
E. UDP glucose A. ADP
C. Glucose 1-phosphate D. NAD+
B. Citrate
31. A healthy subject who fasts for 24 hours is most likely to E, succinate
have a decrease in which of the following? C. A-ketoglutarate
A. Hepatic glycogenesis
B. Ketone body formation 38. Reduced ubiquinone, generated during the oxidation of
D. Plasma glucagon concentration NADH, passes its electrons to which of the following?
E. Renal gluconeogenesis A. ATP synthase
C. Plasma cortisol concentration B. Cytochrome c oxidase (complex IV)
D. Cytochrome c
32. The transketolase enzyme of the pentose phosphate E. Molecular oxygen
pathway requires which of the following for maximal activity? C. Cytochrome b
A. Biotin
D. Tetrahydrofolate 39. In cases of acute cyanide poisoning, cyanide binds to the
B. Calcium ions Fe3+ of a cytochrome. Which statement best describes this
E. TPP cytochrome?
C. Coenzyme A A. Binds carbon monoxide
D. Found in the mitochondrial matrix
33. In which of the following tissues would pentose B. Directly oxidized by cytochrome c
phosphate pathway be expected to be the least active? E. Reduces cytochrome c

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C. Directly oxidizes cytochrome b acids derived from chylomicrons requires glycolysis for the
synthesis of which of the ff?
40. Biological oxidation-reduction reactions always involve A. Acetyl-coa
which of the following? D. NADP+
A. Direct participation of oxygen B. Citrate
B. Formation of water E. NADPH
D. Transfer of electron(s) C. Glycerol 3-phosphate
E. Transfer of hydrogens
C. Mitochondria 47. Platelet-activating factor (PAF) causes release of
arachidonic acid from membrane lipids. Which of the
41. Which of the following chronic effects of alcohol following enzymes is most likely responsible for this effect?
consumption is irreversible? A. Cyclooxygenase
A. Activation of triglyceride synthesis B. Lipoprotein lipase
D. Lactic acidosis D. Phospholipase A2
B. Inhibition of fatty acid oxidation E. Thromboxane synthase
E. Liver cirrhosis C. Lipoxygenase
C. Ketoacidosis
48. Very-long-chain fatty acids (VLCFA) are oxidized in the
42. Which of the following is the primary mode of metabolism peroxisomes. The process of oxidation of these fats is
of ethanol? referred to as which of the following?
A. Excretion through the kidneys A. A-oxidation
B. Exhalation from the lungs B. B-oxidation
C. Oxidation in the kidneys D. Y-oxidation
D. Oxidation in the liver E. W-oxidation
E. Oxidation in the lungs C. 6-oxidation

43. Which of the following exerts a positive allosteric effect 49. Hepatocytes deliver ketone bodies to the circulation
on de novo fatty acid synthesis at the level of acetyl-coa because they lack which of the following enzymes?
carboxylase? A. B-hydroxybutyrate dehydrogenase
A. Acetvl-coa B. Hydroxymethylglutaryl-coalyase
D. Biotin C. Hydroxymethylglutaryl-coa synthetase
B. AMPK D. Succinyl-coa: 3-oxoacid-coa transferase
E. Citrate E. The form of B-ketothiolase necessary to hydrolyze
C. ATP acetoacetyl-COA

44. The initial step toward the synthesis of triglycerides from 50. During a period of fasting, the principal precursor of
free fatty acids and glycerol within hepatocytes requires ketone bodies in the blood is most likely to be which of the
which of the following enzymes? following?
A. Glycerol kinase A. Alanine
D. Lipoprotein lipase D. Glycerol
B. Glycerol-3-phosphate dehydrogenase B. Glucose
E. Hormone-sensitive lipase E. Palmitate
C. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase C. Glutamate

45. Hypersensitive individuals have ige to specific antigens on 51. During prolonged starvation, the brain increases its use of
the surface of their leukocytes. When these individuals are which of the following substrates in blood as an energy
challenged with antigen, the antigen- ige complexes induce source?
synthesis and release of which of the following physiologically A. Arachidonic acid
potent lipids? D. B-hydroxybutyrate
A. Arachidonic acid B. Glucose
D. Prostaglandin E2 E. Palmitic acid
B. Leukotriene B4 C. Glycerol
E. Thromboxane A2
C. Platelet-activating factor 52. Which of the following compounds is required for
intracellular transport of longchain fatty acids into
46. In adipose tissue, synthesis of triglycerides from fatty mitochondria for oxidation?

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A. Carnitine
D. Citrate 59. An increase in which of the following apolipoproteins
B. Ceramide would most likely be associated with a reduced risk for the
E. Cytidine development of atherosclerosis?
C. Ceruloplasmin A. Apo(a)
B. Apoa-I
53. Transport of fatty acids from adipose tissue to other D. Apoc-Il
tissues for metabolism is primarily a function of which of the E. Apoe
following compounds? C. Apoc-l
A. Chylomicrons
D. Plasmalogens 60. Which of the following apoproteins is found exclusively
B. A-lipoprotein associated with chylomicrons?
E. Serum albumin A. Apoa
C. B-lipoprotein B. Apob-48
D. Apod
54. Activation of which of the following enzymes, involved in E. Apoe
the regulation of cholesterol biogenesis, occurs in response to C. Apoc-ll
an altered ATP:ADP ratio?
A. AMP-activated kinase (AMPK) 61. Plasma triglyceride derived from dietary fats is
D. Protein phosphatase inhibitor-1 transported in the plasma as which of the following?
B. HMG-coa reductase phosphatase A. Albumin complexes
E. Protein kinase A (PKA) B. Chylomicrons
C. Protein phosphatase 2C D. LDL
E. VLDL
55. Which of the following enzymes would be expected to C. HDL
exert the greatest negative effect on the rate of cholesterol
biosynthesis? 62. An increased plasma concentration of cholesterol is most
A. Acetyl-coa carboxylase (ACC) likely to be caused by a deficiency of which of the following?
D. HMG-coa reductase (HMGR) A. Bile acid synthetic enzymes
B. AMP-regulated kinase (AMPK) B. HDL receptors
E. Malonyl-coa decarboxylase (MCD) C.3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl-coa (HMG-coa) reductase
C. CGMP-dependent protein kinase (PKG) D. Insulin receptors
E. LDL receptors
56. Which of the following vitamins can be used in high doses
to treat hypercholesterolemia? 63. A 23yo man is found to be incapable of producing
A. Folic acid chylomicrons. Which of the following is the most likely
B. Niacin consequence of this disorder?
D. Riboflavin A. Fasting hyperglycemia
E. Thiamine B. Impaired absorption of dietary lipids
C. Pyridoxine C. Increased risk of hypertriglyceridemia
D. Increased risk of lactic acidosis
57. Which of the following compounds directly inhibits the E. Increased serum urea nitrogen concentration
expression of the hmgcoa reductase gene?
A. Cholesterol 64.The primary function of LDL is to transport which of the
B. HMG-coa following?
C. Isopentenyl pyrophosphate A. Cholesterol to peripheral tissues
D. Lanosterol D. Free fatty acids from adipocytes
E. Squalene B. Cholesterol from tissues to the liver
E. Triglycerides to adipocytes
58. Which of the following modifications increases the C. Dietary-derived lipid to the liver
working ph range and amphipathic nature of bile acids?
A. Conjugation to taurine or glycine 65. The waste nitrogen from skeletal amino acid catabolism is
B. Dehydroxylation by intestinal bacteria diverted to the liver for incorporation into urea in which of
C. Esterification the following compounds?
D. Formation of sodium or potassium salts A. Alanine
E. 7a-hydroxylation D. Glutamate

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B. Asparagine nitrogen per molecule from other tissues to the liver and
E. Phenylalanine kidney via the blood?
C. Aspartate A. Acetoacetate
D. Oxaloacetate
66. Which of the following represents the major compound of B. A-ketoglutarate
the circulation responsible for transport of nitrogen? E. Pyruvate
A. Alanine C. A-ketoisocaproic acid
D. Glutamine
B. Asparagine 73. Which of the following enzymes plays a key role in the
E. Uric acid formation of ammonium ions in the proximal renal tubule?
C. Glutamate A. Carbonic anhydrase
D. Na+/K+-atpase
67. Under acidotic conditions the liver will divert which of the B. Glucokinase
following compounds to the kidneys as a means to increase E. PKA
the ph? C. Glutaminase
A. Ammonia
D. Glutamine 74. A 9yo boy is stung on the arm by a wasp and very rapidly
B. Asparagine develops redness and swelling at the site of the sting. Which
E. Urea of the following substances is most responsible for these
C. Glutamate early changes?
A. Bradykinin
68. Neonatal urea cycle defects are usually misdiagnosed D. Leukotriene B4
because of a failure to assess which of the following? B. Complement 3a
A. Level of ammonia in the blood E. Thromboxane A2
B. Level of arginosuccinate in the blood C. Histamine
C. Level of citrulline in the blood
D. Level of orotic acid in the urine 75. A male infant is diagnosed with phenylketonuria (PKU) on
E. Odor of acetone on the breath newborn screening. Which of the following amino acids must
be present in his diet to prevent a negative nitrogen balance?
69. Which of the following would most likely be associated A. Alanine
with a negative nitrogen balance? D. Serine
A. Consuming a high-protein diet B. Cysteine
B. Neonatal development E. Tyrosine
D. Pregnancy C. Glutamine
E. Surgical recovery
C. Post-starvation feeding 76. The primary source of urinary ammonia (NH3 or NH4 +) is
which of the following?
70. Which of the following vitamins is critically important in A. Catabolism of glutamine within renal cells
the overall process of nitrogen transfer from a-amino acids to B. Catabolism of polyamines within renal cells
a-keto acids? C. Filtered ammonia
A. Riboflavin D. Filtered glutamine
D. Vitamin B12 E. Synthesis of alanine within renal cells
B. Thiamine
E. Vitamin C 77. Which of the following is the amino acid in proteins that is
C. Vitamin B6 most sensitive to air oxidation?
A. Arginine
71. The most abundant end product of nitrogen metabolism B. Cysteine
in humans is which of the following? D. Methionine
A. Allantoin E. Serine
B. Ammonium ion C. Histidine
D. Urea
E. Uric acid 78. Creatine phosphate is a critically important molecule for
C. Glutamine the storage of readily available energy in skeletal muscle. The
synthesis of creatine phosphate requires the input of which of
72. Which of the following ketoacids provides the carbon the following amino acids?
skeleton for an amino acid capable of carrying 2 atoms of A. Arginine

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D. Glutamate 85. A 37yo woman visits her primary care physician after
B. Asparagine developing jaundice and scleral icterus. She is diagnosed with
E. Glutamine paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria. Which of the following
C. Aspartate metabolites would you expect to be increased in her urine?
A. Bile
79. Overproduction of which of the following hormones by a B. Conjugated bilirubin
neoplasm is best diagnosed by an increase in urinary D. Unconjugated bilirubin
excretion of vanillylmandelic acid? E. Urobilinogen
A. ACTH C. Stercobilin
D. Epinephrine
B. Aldosterone 86. Which of the following represents the most common form
E. Glucocorticoids of hepatic porphyria?
C. Calcitonin A. Acute intermittent porphyria
D. Porphyria cutanea tarda type I
80. Methotrexate is an inhibitor of which of the following B. AL dehydratase-deficient porphyria E. Variegate porphyria
enzymes? C. Hereditary coproporphyria
A. Dihydrofolate reductase
D. Thymidylate synthase 87. The rate-limiting step in the biosynthesis of heme is
B. 5-methyl-tetrahydrofolate transferase catalyzed by the mitochondrial enzyme 8-aminolevulinic acid
E. Xanthine oxidase synthase (ALAS) from which of the following substrates?
C. Ribonucleotide reductase A. Acetyl-coa and alanine
B. Acetyl-coa and glycine
81. Which of the following groups of amino acids are nitrogen D. Succinyl-coa and glycine
donors in purine ring biosynthesis? E. Succinyl-coa and GTP
A. Arginine, lysine, histidine C. Adenine and glycine
B. Asparagine, lysine, histidine
D. Glutamine, glycine, aspartate 88. Which of the following is a product of heme degradation?
E. Glycine, proline, lysine A. Hemin
C. Glutamate, histidine, aspartate D. Urobilinogen
B. Porphobilinogen
82. Ribose-5-phosphate is activated for participation in E. Uroporphyrinogen Ill
nucleotide biosynthesis by conversion to which of the C. Protoporphyrin
following derivatives?
A. ADP ribose 89. Bilirubin, the degradation product of heme, is only mildly
D. UDP ribose water-soluble. The solubility of bilirubin in water is increased
B. CDP ribose by forming a
E. 5-phosphoribosy1-1-pyrophosphate conjugate with which of the following?
C. GDP ribose A. Bile acids
D. Sialic acid
83. In the synthesis of pyrimidines, which of the following B. Glucuronic acid
molecules is a direct precursor of the pyrimidine ring? E. Taurine
A. Aspartate C. Glycine
D. Glycine
B. Fumarate 90. Which of the following statements concerning total body
E. 5-phosphoribosy|-1-pyrophosphate energy storage is correct?
C. Glutamate A. Most of the body's energy store is held as carbohydrate
B. Most of the body's energy store is held as lipid
84. The gouty arthritis in patients with Lesch Nyhan syndrome C. Most of the body's energy store is held as plasma glucose
results from a genetic defect in which of the following D. Most of the body's energy store is held as protein
enzymes? E. Total body energy storage approximately equals resting
A. Adenosine phosphoribosyltransferase metabolic rate
B. Glutathione reductase
C. Hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyltransferase 91. Which of the following represents the correct
D. Phosphoribosylpyrophosphate amidotransferase composition of a eukaryotic nucleosome core?
E. Xanthine oxidase A. Histone H1
B. One copy each of histone H2A, H3, and H4

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C. One copy each of histone H1, H2A, and H2B A. Aminoacyl-trna
D. Two copies each of histone H2A, H2B, H3, and H4 D. Mrna
E. Two copies each of histone H1, H2A, H3, and H4 B. Aminoacyl-trna synthetase
E. Peptidyitransferase
92. Which of the following class of compounds is known to C. Elongation factor 1 (eef-1)
inhibit topisomerse Il and thus have shown utility as cancer
chemotherapeutics? 99. The migration of cancer cells from a solid tumor to
A. Anthracyclins another location in the body is referred to metastasis. This
D. Taxanes process requires the activity of which of the following
B. Antimetabolites enzymes?
E. Vinca alkaloids A. Glycosylhydrolases
C. Camptothecins B. Glycosyltransferases
D. Lysyl hydroxylases
93. A transcriptional promoter is required for which of the E. Matrix metalloproteinases
following processes? C. Lysosomal hydrolases
A. Cleavage and polyadenylation of mrna
B. Initiation of RNA synthesis 100. Which of the following intracellular signal molecules
C. Recognition of the 3' boundary for mrna splicing regulates the catalysis of the conversion of GTP to cgmp?
D. Recognition of the 5' boundary for mrna splicing A. Camp
E. Termination of RNA synthesis D. Inositol trisphosphate
B. Ceramide
94. Which of the following is a function of codons in E. Nitric oxide
eukaryotic cells? C. Diacy|glycerol
A. Initiation of gene expression
B. Recognition of complementary sequences in mrna 101. Which of the following techniques is the most accurate
C. Recognition of specific mrna sequences in showing that 2 rnas are identical?
D. Specification of individual amino acids A. Hybridization
E. Used for directing the cap-binding complex to an mrna B. Nucleotide sequencing
D. Restriction endonuclease analysis
95. At which of the following sites on a eukaryotic mrna is E. Western blotting
translation most likely to begin? C. Polymerase chain reaction
A. At the cap
B. At the 3'-end of the mrna 102. Transport of iron from within intestinal enterocytes to
C. At the 5'-end of the mrna the circulation requires that it be oxidized from the ferrous to
D. First AUG codon the ferric form. This oxidation is catalyzed by which of the
E. Within 5 nucleotides of the Shine-Delgarno sequence following proteins?
A. Ceruloplasmin
96. Which of the following proteins or complexes involved in B. DMT1
protein synthesis exhibits peptidyltransferase activity? C. Ferroportin
A. Elongating peptide D. Heme oxygenase
D. Ribosome E. Hephaestin
B. Elongation factor 2 (eef-2)
E. Trna 103. The primary iron storage molecule in cells is which of the
C. Mrna ff?
A. Albumin
97. The synthesis of all proteins in both prokaryotic and D. Haptoglobin
eukaryotic cells begins with which of the following amino B. Ferredoxin
acids? E. Transferrin
A. Alanine C. Ferritin
D. Methionine
B. Glycine 104. Which of the following hormones is responsible for the
E. Tryptophan stimulation of bile secretions from the gallbladder?
C. Leucine A. Cholecystokinin (CCK)
D. Glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1)
98. Which of the following determines the sequence of a B. Gastrin
polypeptide synthesized by the polyribosome complex? E. Protein tyrosine tyrosine (PYY)

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C. Gastrin-releasing hormone of food intake?
A. Cholecystokinin, CCK
105. Digestion of starch can occur even in the absence of D. Neuropeptide Y, NPY
pancreatic secretions. Which of the ff digestive enzymes B. Ghrelin
could best account for this? E, protein tyrosine tyrosine, Pyy
A. Biliary amylase C. GLP-1
D. Intestinal brush border sucrase
B. Brunner gland amylase 112. The activity of which of the following adipocyte proteins
E. Salivary amylase is associated with increased insulin sensitivity and fatty acid
C. Intestinal brush border amylase oxidation?
A. Adiponectin
106. Pancreatic amylase in the intestine cleaves starch D. Resistin
primarily into which of the following? B. Adipsin
A. Disaccharides and trisaccharide of glucose E. Vaspin
D. Glucose 6-phosphate C. Leptin
B. Fucose monomers
E. Linear polymers of glucose 113. Which of the following, associated with obesity, is most
C. Fucose 1-phosphate highly correlated to the development of the metabolic
syndrome?
107. Which of the following gut hormones is known to bind to A. Elevated serum HDL
one of the cholecystokinin receptors resulting in activation of D. Insulin resistance
the oxyntic glands of the stomach? B. Elevated serum total cholesterol
A. Cholecystokinin, CCK E. Proteinuria
B. Gastrin C. Hyperglycemia
D. GLP-I
E. Protein tyrosine tyrosine, Pyy 114. Which of the following represents a major target tissue
C. Ghrelin for the action of insulin reflecting its ability to regulate
circulating levels of blood glucose?
108. Blocking the actions of which of the following hormones A. Brain
would be expected to lead to the greatest level of appetite B. Heart
suppression? C. Kidney
A. Adiponectin D. Skeletal muscle
D. Obestatin E. Testis
B. Ghrelin
E. Peptide tyrosine tyrosine, PYY 115. All of the ff are essential amino acids, EXCEPT:
C. GLP-1 a. Methionine
c. Alanine
109. A defect in activity of which of the following hormones b. Lysine
has been associated with the sleep disorder known as d. Leucine
narcolepsy?
A. Agouti-related peptide, agrp 116. Sulfur containing amino acid is:
B. Cocaine- and amphetamine-regulated transcript, CART A. Cysteine
C. Galanin-like peptide, GALP C. Arginine
D. Melanin-concentrating hormone, MCH B. Leucine
E. Orexin A D. Threonine

110. Which of the following gut hormones is responsible for 117. Guanidinium group is associated with:
the feeding phenomenon referred to as the ileal brake? A. Tyrosine
A. CCK D. Lysine
D. Oxyntomodulin, OXM B. Arginine
B. Ghrelin E. Tryptophan
E. Protein tyrosine tyrosine, PYY C. Histidine
C. GIP
118. Which of the ff is a nonaromatic amino acid with a
111. Which of the following hormones is expressed and hydroxyl R-group:
released from the stomach and is involved in the stimulation A. Phenylalanine

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C. Threonine B. Passive transport
B. Lysine D. Pinocytosis
D. Methionine
128. Urea cycle occurs in:
119. Which of the ff is NOT an aromatic amino acid: A. Cytoplasm
A. Phenylalanine B. Mitochondria
C. Tryptophan C. Cytoplasm & Mitochondria
B. Tyrosine D. Endoplasmic reticulum
D. Valine
129. Urea cycle occurs in:
120. Which of the ff side chains is LEAST polar: A. Liver
A. Methyl C. Spleen
C. Amino B. GIT
B. Carboxyl D. Kidney
D. Phosphate
130. Glutamate dehydrogenase in mitochondria is activated
121. Amide group containing amino acid is: by:
A. Glutamate A. ATP
C. Glutamine B. GTP
B. Glutamic acid C. NADH
D. Aspartate D. ADP

122. Aminoacyl t-RNA is required for all, EXCEPT: 131. Enzyme involved in nonoxidative deamination is:
A. Hydroxyproline A. L-amino acid Oxidase
C. Cysteine B. Glutamate Dehydrogenase
B. Methionine C. Glutaminase
D. Lysine D. Amino acid Dehydrases

123. All biologically active amino acids are: 132. Dopamine is synthesized from:
A. L-forms A. Tryptophan
C. Mostly D-forms C. Tyrosine
B. D-forms B. Threonine
D. D- and L- forms D. Lysine

124. Flexibility of protein depends on: 133. Mousy body odor is due to:
A. Glycine A. Phenylalanine
C. Phenylalanine B. Phenylacetate
B. Tryptophan C. Phenylbutazone
D. Histidine D. Phenylacetylglutamine

125. Which amino acid can protonate and deprotonate at 134. The amino acid that can be converted into a vitamin:
neutral ph: A. Glycine
A. Histidine C. Phenylalanine
C. Glycine B. Tryptophan
B. Leucine D. Lysine
D. Arginine
135. N-Methyl Glycine is known as:
126. Glutamine in blood acts as: A. Ergothionine
A. Ammonia transporter C. Carnosine
C. Stored energy B. Sarcosine
B. Toxic element D. Betaine
D. Abnormal metabolite
136.What is the metabolic defect in Primary Oxaluria Type Il:
127. Amino acid absorption is by: A. Glycine cleavage system
A. Facilitated transport B. Alanine Glyoxalate Amino Transferase
C. Active transport C. D Glycerate Dehydrogenase

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D. Excess Vit. C D. Tetramer

137. N-acety|-cysteine replenishes: 146. Denaturation is resisted by which of the ff bond:

A. Glutathione A. Peptide bond
C. Glutamate C. Disulfide bond
B. Glycine B. Hydrogen bond
D. GABA D. Electrstatic bond

138. In glutathione, which amino acid is reducing agent: 147. What type of protein is Casein:
A. Glutamic acid A. Lipoprotein
C. Cysteine C.. Glycoprotein
B. Glycine B. Phosphoprotein
D. Alanine D. Flavoprotein

139. Histidine is converted to Histamine by which reaction: 148. Major type of collagen in basement membrane:
A. Carboxylation A. Type 1
C. Decarboxylation C. Type Ill
B. Oxidation B. Type Il
D. Amination D. Type IV

140. Which of the ff amino acid is excreted in urine in maple 149. Not a function of endoplasmic reticulum:
syrup urine A. Protein synthesis
disease: C. Protein sorting
A. Tryptophan B. Muscle contraction
B. Phenylalanine D. Glycoproteins
C. Leucine
D. Arginine 150. Which of the ff groups of proteins assist in the folding of
other proteins:
141. Smell of sweaty feet is seen in: A. Proteases
A. MSUD B. Templates
C. Homocystinuria C. Proteosomes
B. Phenylketonuria D. Chaperones
D. Glutaric acidemia

142. Succinyl coa is formed by:

A. Histidine
C. Valine
B. Leucine
D. Lysine

143. Biuret test is used for detection of:

A. Protein
C. Steroid
B. Cholesterol
D. Sugar

144. Polypeptide formation in amino acid is by:

A. Primary structure
C. Tertiary structure
B. Secondary structure
D. Quaternary structure

145. Which of the ff is the structure of Myoglobin;

A. Monomer
C. Heterodimer
B. Homodimer

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