Biology Paper 1 Hkdse Mock Exam Ii: New Senior Secondary Mastering Biology (Second Edition)

DSE
New Senior Secondary

BIO MASTERING BIOLOGY
Mock Exam II
(Second Edition)
PAPER 1A
BIOLOGY PAPER 1
HKDSE MOCK EXAM II
Time allowed: 2 hours 30 minutes

This paper must be answered in English
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1 There are TWO sections, A and B, in this Paper. You are advised to finish Section A in about 35 minutes.
2 Section A consists of multiple-choice questions in this question paper. Section B contains conventional
questions printed separately in Question-Answer Book B.
3 Answers to Section A should be marked on the Multiple-choice Answer Sheet while answers to Section B
should be written in the spaces provided in Question-Answer Book B. The Answer Sheet for Section A and
the Question-Answer Book B for Section B will be collected separately at the end of the examination.
INSTRUCTIONS FOR SECTION A (MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS)
1 Read carefully the instructions on the Answer Sheet. After the announcement of the start of the examination,
you should first stick a barcode label and insert the information required in the spaces provided. No extra time
will be given for sticking on the barcode label after the ‘Time is up’ announcement.
2 When told to open this book, you should check that all the questions are there. Look for the words ‘END OF
SECTION A’ after the last question.
3 All questions carry equal marks.
4 ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS. You are advised to use an HB pencil to mark all the answers on the Answer
Sheet, so that wrong marks can be completely erased with a clean rubber. You must mark the answers clearly;
otherwise you will lose marks if the answers cannot be captured.
5 You should mark only ONE answer for each question. If you mark more than one answer, you will receive
NO MARKS for that question.
6 No marks will be deducted for wrong answers.
Not to be taken away before

the end of the examination
session
New Senior Secondary Mastering Biology (Second Edition)
Mock Exam II Biology Paper 1 Section A -1-
 Oxford University Press 2014
There are 36 questions in this section.
The diagrams in this section are NOT necessarily drawn to scale.
1 A scientist discovered a new species of organism and classified it as a bacterium. Which of the
following cell structures is most likely to be present in this new species?
A cell wall
B nucleus
C endoplasmic reticulum
D mitochondrion
2 Which of the following types of cells probably contain the smallest number of mitochondria?
A muscle cells
B phagocytes
C epithelial cells of ileum
D epithelial cells of air sacs
3 Which of the following diagrams best represents the movement of molecules in osmosis?
A B
C D

4 Sports drinks often contain a lot of glucose. Glucose but not starch is added to these drinks
because
A glucose has a higher energy value.
B glucose is a reducing sugar.
C drinks with glucose added can be stored for a longer time.
D glucose can be absorbed directly without digestion.
5 The graph below shows the relative amount of starch in food as the food moves along the
alimentary canal.
Which of the following correctly explains the change in the relative amount of starch in region X?
A Amylase is used up before the food reaches region X.

B The temperature of region X is not suitable for amylase to work.
C The pH of region X is not suitable for amylase to work.
D Amylase is killed by proteases in region X.
6 The graph below shows the changes in blood pressure in the aorta.
At which of the following time are the atria relaxing and the ventricles contracting?
A P B Q
C R D S

7 When blood reaches the air sacs of the lungs, carbon dioxide diffuses from the red blood cells into
the air sacs. How many layers of cell membranes does carbon dioxide need to pass through before
it can be exhaled?
A 2 layers B 3 layers
C 4 layers D 5 layers
8 Which of the following contribute to the increase in blood supply to some organs during exercise?
(1) increase in heart rate

(2) dilation of arterioles
(3) dilation of capillaries
A (1) and (2) only B (1) and (3) only

C (2) and (3) only D (1), (2) and (3)
9 Which of the following processes in plants does not involve osmosis?
A absorption of water from the soil into the root hairs

B movement of water from the epidermal cells to the cortex cells
C passage of water across the cortex of the root
D movement of water in the xylem vessels
10 The graph below shows the rate of water absorption by the roots and the rate of transpiration of a
plant in a 12-hour period.
The cells of the plant began to plasmolyse at
A time zero. B the 2nd hour.

C the 8th hour. D the 10th hour.

Directions: Questions 11 and 12 refer to the photomicrographs below, which show cells of a plant at
different stages of meiotic cell division.
11 Which of the following shows the correct order of these stages?
A Q→P→R→S
B Q→R→S→P
C S→Q→R→P
D S→R→P→Q
12 If the DNA content of a palisade mesophyll cell of this plant is 2X, what would be the DNA content
of cells M and N?
M N
A 1X 2X
B 1X 4X
C 2X 2X
D 2X 4X
13 After a meal, the blood glucose level of a healthy person would increase due to the absorption of
glucose. It would then fall back to the normal level as the pancreas secretes more insulin. Which of
the following statements correctly describe(s) the effect(s) of insulin?
(1) Insulin catalyses the breakdown of glucose.

(2) Insulin stimulates the uptake of glucose into the body cells.
(3) Insulin stimulates the production of urine so that excess glucose is excreted.
A (1) only B (2) only

C (3) only D (1) and (2) only

14 The diagram below shows the female reproductive system in humans.
Which of the following statements about X is/are correct?
(1) Fertilization occurs in X.

(2) The wall of X contracts during labour.
(3) The wall of X breaks down during menstruation.

C (3) only D (2) and (3) only
Directions: Questions 15 and 16 refer to the diagrams below, which show an experiment to study the
effect of unilateral light on the growth of coleoptiles.
15 Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from the above experiment?
A The tip of a coleoptile detects light.

B Growth occurs at the tip of a coleoptile.
C Auxin is produced at the tip of a coleoptile.
D Unilateral light causes uneven distribution of auxin.
16 Which of the following correctly explains the growth of X?
A Auxin diffused from the left side to the right side. The high auxin concentration on the right
side stimulated the growth of the shoot.
B Auxin diffused from the left side to the right side. The high auxin concentration on the right
side inhibited the growth of the shoot.
C Auxin diffused from the right side to the left side. The high auxin concentration on the left
side stimulated the growth of the shoot.
D Auxin diffused from the right side to the left side. The high auxin concentration on the left
side inhibited the growth of the shoot.
17 The photographs below show a seal and a dolphin.
They are classified into the same group of vertebrates because
A both of them live in water.

B both of them are covered with moist naked skin.
C both of them have mammary glands.
D both of them eat fish.
18 The diagram below shows the structure of the human brain.
Which is the function of X?
A coordinates muscular movement

B controls the heart rate
C maintains body balance
D gives the sensation of sight
19 A farmer grew leguminous plants in a field and then buried them under the soil. After that, he
started to grow crops. The number of which of the following bacteria in the soil would increase?
(1) nitrifying bacteria

(2) denitrifying bacteria
(3) nitrogen fixing bacteria
A (1) and (2) only

B (1) and (3) only
C (2) and (3) only
D (1), (2) and (3)

20 The table below shows the number of organisms of species W, X, Y and Z in an ecosystem and the
average dry mass per organism. The feeding relationship of these four species can be represented
by a single food chain.
Species Number of organisms Average dry mass per organism (g)

W 10 3
X 4000 1
Y 100 000 0.003
Z 1000 40
Which of the above species are likely a producer, a herbivore and a carnivore?
Producer Herbivore Carnivore

A Y W X
B Y X Z
C Z X W
D Z Y X
21 The diagram below shows the flow of energy between four species.
Some energy stored in the rabbits cannot be transferred to the wolves and bacteria. This energy
A is used for the growth of rabbits.

B is lost as rabbits carry out respiration.
C is lost as some rabbits are not eaten by the wolves.
D is lost as some body parts of the rabbits cannot be digested by the wolves.
22 Scarlet fever (猩紅熱) is a disease caused by bacteria. It mainly affects children. The bacteria enter
the body through the mucous membranes of the eyes, nose or mouth. Which of the following are
effective ways to prevent the spread of scarlet fever in schools?
(1) suspension of classes

(2) avoid sharing eating utensils
(3) wear a surgical mask

C (2) and (3) only D (1), (2) and (3)

Directions: Questions 23 and 24 refer to the pedigree below, which shows the inheritance of a
genetic disease in a family. Whether a person has this disease is controlled by a pair of
alleles.
23 The allele for this disease is
A dominant and sex-linked.

B recessive and sex-linked.
C dominant and not sex-linked.
D recessive and not sex-linked.
24 Individual 2 may be
(1) homozygous dominant.

(2) homozygous recessive.
(3) heterozygous.

C (3) only D (2) or (3) only
25 The table below shows the number of deaths from cardiovascular diseases per 100 000 people in
two countries.
Country Number of deaths per 100 000 people

X 95
Y 238
Which of the following are the possible explanations for the difference?
(1) There are more smokers in country Y.

(2) There are more obese people in country Y.
(3) There are more alcohol drinkers in country Y.

C (2) and (3) only D (1), (2) and (3)

26 The photograph below shows an avocado (牛油果) that is cut open.
Which of the following statements about part X is incorrect?
A It protects the seed.

B It helps the dispersal of the seed.
C It is developed from the ovary wall of the flower.
D It provides food for the growth of the embryo during germination.
27 Which of the following statements about pollen grains in plants and sperm in humans is/are
correct?
(1) Both of them are male gametes.

(2) Both of them are produced in large number.
(3) Both of them can move by themselves.
A (1) only
B (2) only
C (3) only
D (1) and (2) only
28 The elderly are more likely to suffer from knee pain than the young. Which of the following are the
possible reasons?
(1) Secretion of synovial fluid in the knee joint is reduced in the elderly.
(2) The cartilage in the elderly is worn out.
(3) The tendon in the elderly is damaged.
A (1) and (2) only

B (1) and (3) only
C (2) and (3) only
D (1), (2) and (3)

Mock Exam II Biology Paper 1 Section A - 10 -
29 The diagram below shows two set-ups used to study the conditions required for the germination of
seeds. The set-ups were kept at 25°C under light for a week.
One week later, the seeds in both set-ups did not germinate. What can be concluded from the
results of this experiment?
A Light is not required for the germination of seeds.

B The temperature is not suitable for the germination of seeds.
C Besides water and light, some other factors are also required for the germination of seeds.
D No conclusion can be drawn.
30 In anaerobic respiration of skeletal muscles, pyruvate is converted to lactic acid. Which of the
following statements about this reaction is correct?
A Two ATP are produced.

B Carbon dioxide is produced.
C NADH is oxidized to NAD.
D The reaction occurs in the mitochondrial matrix.
31 Which of the following does not occur in a wounded area?
A Fibrinogen is turned into insoluble fibrin.

B The amount of blood flowing to the wounded area is reduced to stop bleeding.
C Tissue fluid accumulates in the wounded area.
D Phagocytes digest pathogens and pus is formed.
32 People suffering from severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID) cannot produce T
lymphocytes. Which of the following is a possible cure for this disease?
A transfusion of blood
B injection of antibodies
C use of antibiotics
D bone marrow transplantation

Directions: Questions 33 and 34 refer to the diagram below, which represents a stage of aerobic
respiration.
33 Which of the following correctly identifies X and Y?
X Y
A water oxygen
B NADP water
C NAD oxygen
D FAD NAD
34 One of the stages of photosynthesis also involves a series of carriers. Where does this stage occur?
A cytoplasm
B stroma
C thylakoid membrane
D thylakoid space
35 A gene mutation occurred in a section of DNA. The table below shows the amino acid sequence of
the protein synthesized before and after the mutation.
Before mutation Met – Thr – Gln – Asn – Trp – Asp – Pro – Thr –…
After mutation Met – Thr – Arg – Ile – Gly – Ile – Leu – Arg –…
Which of the following may have occurred in this section of DNA?
(1) deletion of a base

(2) addition of a base
(3) substitution of a base
A (1) only
B (3) only
C (1) or (2) only
D (2) or (3) only

36 Wolves, dogs, foxes and jackals (豺) are believed to evolve from a common ancestor.
Wolf Dog
Fox Jackal
Which of the following contributed to the formation of various species from a common ancestor?
(1) genetic variation between individuals

(2) inheritance of the acquired characters
(3) change in the environments
A (2) only
B (3) only
C (1) and (2) only
D (1) and (3) only
– END OF SECTION A –
Go on to Question-Answer Book B for questions in Section B.

DSE
BIO
Mock Exam II
B Please stick the barcode label here.
Candidate Number
PAPER 1B

MASTERING BIOLOGY
(Second Edition)
BIOLOGY PAPER 1
HKDSE MOCK EXAM II
SECTION B: Question-Answer Book B
This paper must be answered in English
INSTRUCTIONS FOR SECTION B
1 After the announcement of the start of the examination, you

should first write your Candidate Number in the space
provided on Page 15 and stick barcode labels in the spaces
provided on Pages 15, 17, 19, 21, 23, 25, 27, 29, 31 and 33.
2 Refer to the general instructions on the cover of the Question

Paper for Section A.
3 Answer ALL questions.
4 Write your answers in the spaces provided in this Question-

Answer Book. Do not write in the margins. Answers written in
the margins will not be marked.
5 Supplementary answer sheets will be supplied on request.

Write your Candidate Number, mark the question number box
and stick a barcode label on each sheet, and fasten them with
string INSIDE this Question-Answer Book.
6 Present your answers in paragraphs wherever appropriate.
7 The diagrams in this section are NOT necessarily drawn to

scale.
8 No extra time will be given to candidates for sticking on the

barcode labels or filling in the question number boxes after the

Mock Exam II Biology Paper 1 Section B - 15 -
Answers written in the margins will not be marked.

SECTION B
Answer ALL questions. Put your answers in the spaces provided.
1 Complete the following paragraph with suitable words. (3

marks)
Yeast is classified as fungi but not plants because its structure is quite different from
that of plants. Its cell wall is not composed of a . Also, it
has no chlorophyll and cannot carry out photosynthesis. It carries out parasitic or
b nutrition. Yeast is useful in the making of bread because c
is produced when it carries out anaerobic respiration.
2 Problems in the maturation process of sperm may cause infertility. Intracytoplasmic

sperm injection (ICSI) may help the men with these problems to have children.
Immature sperm are collected from the testes of the men and one of them is injected
into a mature ovum in vitro.
Suggest two possible structural defects in the immature sperm. Explain how each
defect hinders the immature sperm from fertilizing an ovum in the normal
reproduction process.
(4 marks)

New Senior Secondary Mastering Biology
Please stick the barcode label here.
Answers written in the magins will not be marked.

3 Ethylene glycol is an organic compound widely used as antifreeze in cars. If it enters
the human body, it will be quickly converted into oxalic acid, which is toxic. Alcohol
dehydrogenase is one of the enzymes involved in this conversion.
Ethanol can be used to treat the people who have accidentally taken in ethylene glycol.
The diagrams below show the structure of ethylene glycol and ethanol.
Explain why ethanol can reduce the harmful effect of ethylene glycol. (3
marks)


4 The diagrams below show part of the eye of a student when he left a room and entered
another room.
a State how the environments of the two rooms were different. Give one reason to
explain your answer.
(2 marks)
b Describe how different structures of the eye brought about the change shown in
the diagrams.
(2 marks)
c State the importance of this change in the eye. (2

marks)



5 In the early 20th century, scientists were in search of a cure for diabetes mellitus.
Below are some of the events that took place.
a Why did the extract of fresh pancreases have no effect on curing diabetes
mellitus?
(1 mark)


b Explain why blocking or tying off the pancreatic duct leads to degeneration of the
pancreatic cells which secrete digestive enzymes, but not the islets of
Langerhans.
(4 marks)
c With reference to these events, describe how scientists build on the prior work of
other scientists.
(2 marks)


6 Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.
Recently, there has been an outbreak of enterohaemorrhagic E.coli (EHEC) in

Europe. Hundreds of people have been infected.
E. coli is a bacterium normally found in the intestines of homoiotherms. Most
strains of E. coli are harmless, but some strains, like EHEC, can produce toxins and
cause serious illness. EHEC may be transmitted from the cattle to humans when humans
consume food contaminated with the faeces of cattle.
Sprouts are the suspected source of the bacterial outbreak. They are easily
contaminated with E. coli because they are usually cultivated at a relatively high
temperature, which is suitable for the growth of the bacteria.
Sprouts
Some populations of EHEC are resistant to multiple kinds of antibiotics. The

development of antibiotic resistance in EHEC increases the difficulty in treating EHEC
infection.
a Besides sprouts, suggest two other kinds of food that are easily contaminated
with EHEC.
(2 marks)


b Suggest two things we can do when handling food to prevent EHEC infection.
(2 marks)
c Describe briefly how a population of antibiotic resistant bacteria arises from a

population of non-resistant bacteria. (3
marks)


7 A student carried out an experiment to study the effect of different salt solutions on
plant tissues. He cut seven strips out of a potato using a cork borer. He weighed each
potato strip and put it into a test tube containing salt solution of a different
concentration.
One hour later, the weight of the potato strip in each test tube was measured. The
results are shown in the table below.
Concentration of salt solution Initial weight of potato Final weight of potato

(M) strip (g) strip (g)
0 4.3 5.2
0.05 3.8 4.6
0.1 4 4.8
0.15 4.4 5.1
0.2 4.2 4.5
0.25 4.5 4.6
0.3 3.6 3.5
a Plot a graph of the percentage change in the weight of potato strips against the
concentration of salt solutions to show the effect of different salt solutions on the
potato strips.
(3 marks)


b Using the graph in a, determine the concentration of the cytoplasm of the potato
cells.
(1 mark)
c Explain why there is no further increase in the weight of potato strips with the
decrease in the concentration of the salt solution when the concentration is lower
than 0.05 M.
(2 marks)
d The student took some cells from the potato strip in the 0.3 M salt solution, added
a drop of iodine solution to the cells and observed them under a light microscope.
Draw a labelled diagram to show the possible appearance of one of the potato
cells.
(3 marks)



8 Cystic fibrosis is a disease caused by a mutated allele. A normal couple have a son
suffering from cystic fibrosis. DNA test is carried out to help determine the chance of
their next child having cystic fibrosis. In the test, DNA fragments that contain the gene
controlling this trait are obtained by cutting the chromosomes at the two positions as
shown.
Gel electrophoresis is performed to separate such DNA fragments coming from the
couple and their son. The diagram below shows the gel used in gel electrophoresis.
a Which side of the gel, X or Y, should be connected to the positive terminal of

the power supply?
(1 mark)
b Explain why DNA fragments move after the power supply is turned on. (1
mark)



The diagram below shows the results of the DNA test.
c Explain why two bands appear in the DNA samples of the father and mother, but
only one band can be observed in the DNA sample of the son.
(2 marks)
d With reference to the diagram above, state one difference between the allele
for cystic fibrosis and the normal allele. Explain your answer.
(2 marks)


e Draw a genetic diagram to determine the chance of the couple’s next child having
cystic fibrosis.
(4 marks)


9 In the process of photosynthesis, some molecules produced in photochemical reactions
are used in the Calvin cycle.
a Give two such molecules as examples. (1

mark)
b Describe precisely how the molecules stated in a are used in the reactions of the
Calvin cycle to synthesize glucose.
(4 marks)
c Simazine is a herbicide. It can bind to a protein that accepts excited electrons

from chlorophyll. Suggest how simazine kills the weeds.
(4 marks)



10 To study the growth of seedlings, a student soaked 20 seeds for several days and put
them in a Petri dish with wet cotton wool. The Petri dish was then placed near the
window for 50 days. He weighed the seedlings every 10 days to record their growth.
The table below shows the results.
Day Average weight of the seedlings (g)
0 12
10 9
20 5
30 14
40 40
50 95
a Seeds have to be soaked in water before they can germinate. State one function
of water during seed germination.
(1 mark)
b Explain why the average weight of the seedlings decreased from day 0 to day 20.
(3 marks)


c How would the results change if the Petri dish is put in a dark room instead of
near the window? Explain briefly.
(3 marks)


11 The diagram below shows an instant during the process of protein synthesis.
a Circle an anticodon in the diagram. (1

mark)
(Mark your answer in the diagram)
b Using the information in the diagram, state a triplet code in DNA that codes for
the amino acid glutamine (Gln). (1
mark)
c Suggest how anticodons help ensure the correct amino acids are added to the
polypeptide chain. (3
marks)



d State four events that will happen after the instant shown in the diagram so that
the fifth amino acid can be added to the polypeptide chain.
(4 marks)

Answers written in the margins will not be marked. Please stick the barcode label here.

12 Heart disease is the second killer disease in Hong Kong. High blood pressure and obesity may
increase the risk of having heart disease.
Discuss how poor lifestyle contributes to the high incidence of heart disease. (10 marks)
– END OF PAPER –

New Senior Secondary Mastering Biology
DSE
BIO
Mock Exam II
PAPER 2 MASTERING BIOLOGY
(Second Edition)
BIOLOGY PAPER 2
HKDSE MOCK EXAM II
Time allowed: 1 hour

This paper must be answered in English.
INSTRUCTIONS
1 There are FOUR sections, A, B, C and D in this Paper. Attempt ALL questions in any TWO sections.
2 Write your answers in the Answer Book. Start each question (not part of a question) on a new page.
3 Present your answers in paragraphs wherever appropriate.
4 Illustrate your answers with diagrams wherever appropriate.
5 The diagrams in this Paper are NOT necessarily drawn to scale.
Not to be taken away before

the end of the examination
session

Mock Exam II Biology Paper 2 - 39 -
SECTION A Human Physiology: Regulation and Control
Answer ALL parts of the question. Put your answers in ONE of the answer books.
1 a The diagram below shows two nerves connecting the heart and the cardiovascular centre of
the medulla oblongata. The cardiovascular centre controls the cardiac output by changing
the number of nerve impulses sent to the heart along the two nerves.
i Name the group of cardiac muscle cells to which the two nerves from the
cardiovascular centre are connected. (1 mark)
ii Name the receptors that detect changes in blood pressure. State where they are
located. (2 marks)
iii State how the two nerves work together to cause the change in cardiac output when
the blood pressure is high. (2 marks)
Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) is a protein hormone released by the heart when the blood
pressure is high. ANP stimulates dilation of the afferent arteriole and constriction of the
efferent arteriole in the kidneys.
iv Describe how ANP affects the volume of urine produced. (3 marks)
v Suggest how ANP causes a decrease in blood pressure. (2 marks)

1 b The photograph below shows a pregnancy test kit. It works by detecting the presence of
human chorionic gonadotrophin (HCG) in urine.
i Explain why HCG is excreted in urine. (2 marks)
ii Name the organ that secretes HCG. Hence, explain why the presence of HCG in urine
can be taken as a sign of pregnancy. (2 marks)
The graph below shows the changes in the levels of oestrogen and progesterone in the
blood of a woman during one of her menstrual cycles.
iii Describe how the levels of oestrogen and progesterone would be different if the
woman becomes pregnant in this menstrual cycle. (2 marks)
iv Describe how the production of HCG during pregnancy causes the differences stated
in iii. (2 marks)
v State one importance of maintaining high levels of oestrogen and progesterone during
pregnancy. (2 marks)

SECTION B Applied Ecology
2 a Read the article below and answer the questions.
Scientists found that the numbers of some native species of fish in the North
Sea are decreasing. It is suspected that an increase in water temperature, which
is a result of global warming, is the cause of the change. The high water
temperature drives some plankton in the North Sea to the more northern areas.
However, the numbers of some species of fish that are not normally found in the
North Sea are increasing.
i Suggest how the migration of plankton causes a decrease in the numbers of native
species of fish in the North Sea. (2 marks)
ii Explain why the numbers of some species of fish that are not normally found in the
North Sea are increasing. (2 marks)
iii What is global warming? (1 mark)
iv Deforestation is one of the human activities that contribute to global warming.

Describe how deforestation contributes to global warming. (3 marks)
v State one other effect of global warming on the environment that is not mentioned in
the article. (1 mark)
vi As the effects of global warming on different plant species are still unknown, some
scientists suggest keeping different varieties of seeds of the same species for future
use. Explain why. (2 marks)

2 b The photograph below shows the monoculture of wheat.
i In order to get a large area for growing crops, trees between small pieces of land were
chopped down. Describe and explain how this would affect the biodiversity of
animals in that area. (2
marks)
ii Several years later, the crop yield decreased. An increase in pest population was one
of the causes. Explain why monoculture often leads to an increase in pest population.
(2
marks)
iii The farmer applied pesticides to control the pests. Describe how this may lead to the
death of waterbirds living in the seashore several hundred miles away. (4 marks)
iv Another cause of the decrease in crop yield was the depletion of certain minerals in
the soil. Suggest one method to solve this problem. (1 mark)

SECTION C Microorganisms and Humans
3 a A student wanted to estimate the number of bacteria in a carton of fresh milk (236 mL). She
withdrew 1 mL of milk from the carton. Different diluted samples were prepared by serial
dilution. 0.1 mL of each diluted sample was spread on an agar plate and incubated. The
number of colonies on the agar plate spread with 10–3 diluted sample was 204.
i Describe how a 10–3 diluted sample can be obtained from 1 mL of milk.

(2 marks)
ii The teacher reminded the student to seal the Petri dish immediately after spreading the
sample on the agar plate. Explain why this is important. (1 mark)
iii Calculate the number of bacteria in the carton of milk. (2 marks)
The student then carried out another investigation into the growth of bacteria in the milk.
She left the carton of milk at room temperature for 6 days. She withdrew 1 mL of milk each
day and used the above dilution plate method to determine the number of bacteria in it. The
table below shows the results.
Day Number of bacteria in 1 mL of undiluted milk

1 9.6 × 106
2 5.6 × 107
3 1.3 × 108
4 3.1 × 108
5 4.3 × 108
6 1.8 × 108
iv State two reasons for the decrease in the number of bacteria in the milk on day 6.
(2 marks)
v Another student also studied the growth of bacteria in the milk during the 6 days by
performing total cell count instead of using the dilution plate method. How would his
results be different from those shown in the table? Explain your answer. (3 marks)
vi A student suggested using the spectrophotometer to monitor the growth of bacteria

in the milk. Do you think it is practicable? Explain briefly. (2
marks)

3 b Diseases caused by viruses are difficult to treat. Vaccines have been developed for the
prevention of some of these viral diseases.
i Why are viral diseases difficult to treat? (2 marks)
The diagrams below show an intact virus and a weakened virus. The latter is used in the
production of vaccines.
ii State the role of surface proteins in the multiplication of a virus. (1 mark)
iii Which part of the weakened virus stimulates the human body to develop enhanced
immunity? (1 mark)
iv After entering the human body, the weakened viruses in the vaccine do not cause a
disease. Explain why. (2 marks)
v Using recombinant DNA technology, vaccines can be produced by yeast. State one
advantage of using recombinant vaccines produced by yeast over the use of vaccines
containing weakened viruses. (2 marks)

SECTION D Biotechnology
4 a Human proteins like human growth hormone can be produced by recombinant DNA
technology. A section of human DNA containing the gene of interest is obtained and
plasmids are extracted from bacteria. They are then cut with the same restriction enzyme.
DNA ligase is added to the mixture of the DNA fragments. The diagrams below show two
kinds of plasmids produced after the ligation of the DNA fragments. Ampicillin and
tetracycline are two different antibiotics.
i Explain why different plasmids are produced. (2 marks)
Bacteria are mixed with the plasmids and cultured on an agar plate with ampicillin (X).
Using the following method, some bacteria from each colony are transferred to identical
positions on another agar plate with tetracycline (Y).
The agar plate with tetracycline (Y) is then incubated. The diagrams below show the
bacterial colonies on the two agar plates after incubation.

ii What is the purpose of growing the bacteria in an agar plate with ampicillin?
(1
mark)
iii Compare the bacterial colonies on agar plates X and Y after incubation. Which
bacterial colony/colonies contain(s) the gene of interest? (1 mark)
iv Explain your answer to iii. (2 marks)
v Describe how the bacteria carrying the gene of interest can be used to produce large
amounts of the human protein product. (3 marks)
vi The use of antibiotic resistance genes in the recombinant DNA technology is often
criticized by environmental concern groups. State one agrument against the use of
antibiotic resistance genes. (2 marks)
4 b The flow chart below shows how short single-stranded DNA can be used to test whether a
person is carrying a defective gene related to a certain genetic disease.
i State one feature of the short single-stranded DNA that allows it to attach to the
defective gene. (1 mark)
ii Why must the DNA sample be heated before the short single-stranded DNA is added?
(2
marks)
iii Suggest how the short single-stranded DNA can be modified so that it can be easily
detected. (1 mark)
Gene therapy is a method to treat genetic diseases. In somatic cell gene therapy, a normal
gene is transferred into the somatic cells of patients.
iv ‘A genetic disease is easier to treat if the normal allele is dominant to the defective
allele.’
Comment on the above statement. (2 marks)
v Explain why somatic cell gene therapy does not have a long-term therapeutic effect on
the patients. (2 marks)
vi State one potential hazard of somatic cell gene therapy. (1 mark)
– END OF PAPER –

Biology
HKDSE Mock Exam II
Answers
Paper 1 Section A
Question no. Answer Question no. Answer Question no. Answer

1 A 13 B 25 D
2 D 14 B 26 D
3 C 15 A 27 B
4 D 16 A 28 A
5 C 17 C 29 D
6 C 18 B 30 C
7 D 19 B 31 B
8 A 20 C 32 D
9 D 21 B 33 C
10 B 22 D 34 C
11 C 23 C 35 C
12 B 24 D 36 D
Paper 1 Section B
1 a cellulose 1m
b saprophytic 1m
c carbon dioxide 1m
2 Tail may be absent in the sperm. The sperm cannot swim to the ovum. /
The sperm may have no / only a few mitochondria. They do not have enough energy for swimming. /
Acrosome may not be developed. Enzymes are not released for the sperm to penetrate into the ovum.
(any 2) 2m × 2
3 The structure of ethanol is similar to that of ethylene glycol. 1m
Ethanol competes with ethylene glycol for the active site of alcohol dehydrogenase. 1m
This lowers the rate at which toxic oxalic acid is formed. 1m
4 a The second room was brighter than the first room. 1m
The pupil constricted when the student entered the second room. 1m
b Circular muscles of the iris contracted. 1m
Radial muscles of the iris relaxed. 1m
c This reduces the amount of light entering the eye, 1m
thus preventing the retina from damaging by an excess amount of light. 1m
5 a The hormone was a protein which was digested by the digestive enzymes / proteases present in the
extract. 1m
b The pancreatic juice containing digestive enzymes cannot pass into the duodenum via the pancreatic duct.
1m
It accumulates in the pancreas. 1m
Proteases in the pancreatic juice digest the cells which secrete digestive enzymes. / Lipases in the
pancreatic juice digest the cell membrane of the cells which secrete digestive enzymes. 1m
Since the islets of Langerhans are not connected to the exocrine duct system of the pancreas, they remain
unaffected. 1m

Mock Exam II Biology Answers - 49 -
c From the work of other scientists, Banting and Best knew that diabetes mellitus was caused by the lack of
a hormone secreted by the pancreas. 1m
They therefore tried to cure diabetes mellitus by supplying the missing hormone. 1m
OR
From an article written by Baron, Banting learnt that blocking the pancreatic duct led to degeneration of
the pancreatic cells which secrete digestive enzymes, but not the islets of Langerhans. 1m
This gave Banting the idea of obtaining an extract of the islets of Langerhans free from the destroying
influence of digestive enzymes. 1m
6 a Undercooked meat / pre-cooked meat products / dairy products (any 2) 1m × 2
b Wash our hands properly before handling food. / Cook food thoroughly. / Keep meat and dairy products
refrigerated. (any 2) 1m × 2
c One bacterium in a population of non-resistant bacteria becomes resistant to antibiotics as a result of
mutation. 1m
In an environment of heavy antibiotic use, non-resistant bacteria are killed. Only the antibiotic resistant
bacterium is selected to survive. 1m
Without competition, the antibiotic resistant bacterium reproduces rapidly. The whole population of
bacteria becomes resistant to the antibiotics. 1m
7 a Percentage change in the weight of potato strips
immersed in salt solutions of different concentrations
Correct title, axes and scale 1m

Correct points 1m
Use a smooth curve to join the points 1m
b 0.27 M 1m
c The potato cells become fully turgid. 1m
The rigid cell wall of the potato cells restricts further entry of water. 1m
d
3m
8 a Y 1m
b DNA fragments are negatively charged, therefore they are driven by the electric field to the positive
terminal. 1m

c The father and mother are heterozygous for cystic fibrosis while the son is homozygous for cystic
fibrosis. 1m
The father and mother have different alleles on their homologous chromosomes, while the son has the
same allele on both homologous chromosomes. 1m
d The allele for cystic fibrosis is shorter than the normal allele. 1m
This is because the allele for cystic fibrosis moves faster than the normal allele during gel electrophoresis.
1m
e Let C represent the normal allele and c represent the allele for cystic fibrosis. 1m
2m
The chance of the couple’s next child having cystic fibrosis is 25%. 1m
9 a ATP and NADPH 1m
b ATP provides energy 1m
for the conversion of the 3-C compound to triose phosphate and the regeneration of carbon dioxide
acceptor from triose phosphate. 1m
NADPH acts as a reducing agent / donates hydrogen / provides reducing power 1m
for the reduction of the 3-C compound into triose phosphate. 1m
c Simazine binds to the protein that accepts excited electrons from chlorophyll, thus no excited electrons
can pass through the electron transport chain. 1m
Consequently, no ATP and NADPH can be generated. 1m
As the Calvin cycle cannot operate, no glucose can be produced. 1m
Without glucose which provides energy and raw materials for growth, the weeds die. 1m
10 a Water softens the seed coat / makes the cotyledons swell. This breaks the seed coat to allow the
emergence of the radicle. /
Water activates enzymes in the seed, which help convert insoluble food reserves into simpler and soluble
forms for utilization. /
Water acts as a solvent to transport soluble food to the growing regions of the embryo. (any 1) 1m
b From day 0 to day 20, the stored food in the seeds was used in respiration / was broken down to provide
energy. 1m
The rate of photosynthesis was low because the seedlings had no or only a few leaves. 1m
The rate of breakdown of food by respiration was higher than the rate of production of food by
photosynthesis. 1m
c The average weight of the seedlings would not increase / would keep decreasing. 1m
Light is needed for photosynthesis, by which the seedlings produce raw materials for growth. 1m
When the stored food in the seeds is used up and the seedlings cannot carry out photosynthesis to produce
new materials, the seedlings die. 1m
11 a Circle the three letters on one of the tRNA: CCU or GUC 1m
b GTC 1m
c Each tRNA has an anticodon which is specific to the amino acid it carries. 1m
This anticodon is complementary to the codon on the mRNA that codes for that amino acid. 1m
During translation, anticodon on the tRNA binds to the codon on the mRNA to ensure the correct amino
acid is added to the polypeptide chain. 1m

d The ribosome moves to the right / the next codon on the mRNA. 1m
tRNA on the left leaves the mRNA. 1m
Another tRNA carrying an amino acid binds to the next codon on the mRNA. 1m
A peptide bond is formed between the fourth and the fifth amino acids. 1m
12 Poor diet: (any 2) 1m × 2
Diet with excess cholesterol may cause the blockage of arteries to the cardiac muscles, leading to heart
disease. /
Diet with a high salt content may cause high blood pressure, which in turn causes heart disease. /
Overeating / Diet with high energy value may lead to obesity, which increases the risk of heart disease.
Too little exercise:
Too little exercise may lead to obesity, which increases the risk of heart disease. 1m
Insufficient rest / poor sleep:
High blood pressure and obesity are related to insufficient sleep or poor sleep. 1m
Smoking:
Nicotine in cigarettes increases heart rate and causes constriction of blood vessels. 1m
Carbon monoxide reduces the ability of red blood cells to carry oxygen. Both of them increase the risk of
heart disease. 1m
Alcohol abuse:
Drinking large quantities of alcohol may lead to heart disease. 1m
Effective communication 3m
Paper 2
1 a i Sinoatrial (SA) node / pacemaker 1m

ii Stretch receptors 1m
They are located on the walls of the aorta and carotid arteries. 1m
iii More nerve impulses are sent along the vagus nerve and fewer nerve impulses are sent along the
sympathetic nerve. 1m
This causes the cardiac muscles to contract slower and less strongly. 1m
iv As the afferent arteriole dilates and the efferent arteriole constricts, the hydrostatic pressure inside the
glomerulus increases. 1m
A larger volume of glomerular filtrate is formed because high pressure forces more water and other
small molecules into the Bowman’s capsule. 1m
As the volume of glomerular filtrate increases, a larger volume of urine is formed. 1m
v More water is excreted in urine. 1m
The volume of blood decreases, thus the blood pressure decreases. 1m
b i The molecules of HCG are small enough 1m
to pass through the thin walls of the glomerulus and the Bowman’s capsule during ultrafiltration.
1m
ii Placenta 1m
The placenta is formed in the female body only when a woman becomes pregnant. 1m
iii The levels of oestrogen and progesterone would not decrease / would remain high / would increase
1m
after day 25 of the menstrual cycle. 1m
iv HCG prevents the degeneration of the yellow body. 1m
The yellow body continues to secrete oestrogen and progesterone. 1m
v High levels of oestrogen and progesterone maintain the thickness of the uterine lining. 1m
This allows the development of the embryo during the period of pregnancy. 1m
2 a i The native species of fish feed on plankton. 1m
As some plankton migrates to the more northern areas, the fish do not have enough food and therefore
some of them die. 1m
ii The non-native fish normally live in warmer areas. As water temperature increases, they are able to
live in the North Sea. 1m
The non-native fish reproduce rapidly because they face less competition and predation in the North
Sea. 1m
iii Global warming is the increase in the atmospheric temperature on earth. 1m
iv As the number of trees decreases, the amount of carbon dioxide absorbed by the trees for
photosynthesis is reduced. 1m
Burning of forests during deforestation releases a large amount of carbon dioxide. 1m
The increase in carbon dioxide level in the atmosphere enhances the greenhouse effect and
contributes to global warming. 1m
v Increased melting of icebergs / rise in sea level / flooding of low-lying areas / unusual weather
patterns (or other reasonable answers) 1m
vi The genetic variations between different varieties of seeds are greater. 1m
It is more likely that a certain variety may possess characteristics that allow it to survive in the future
environment. 1m
b i The biodiversity of animals would decrease. 1m
Chopping down of trees would destroy the natural habitats and decrease the food source of some
animals. 1m
ii As the same crop is grown continuously, the pests that feed on the crop are readily provided with
food. 1m
The pests reproduce rapidly to a large number. 1m
iii Pesticides may contain stable toxic chemicals that cannot be broken down or excreted by organisms.
1m
When pesticides are washed into the nearby rivers and carried by the rivers to the sea, these toxic
chemicals diffuse into the microscopic algae and remain in their body. 1m
The concentrations of the toxic chemicals accumulated in the organisms increase up the food chain.
1m
Eventually, the concentrations of the toxic chemicals become so high that kill the waterbirds. 1m
iv Apply chemical fertilizers / apply organic fertilizers / grow leguminous plants 1m
3 a i Add 9 mL of sterile culture solution to 1 mL of milk. Mix well and transfer 1 mL of the 10 diluted
–1
solution to another 9 mL of sterile culture solution. 1m

Mix well and transfer 1 mL of the 10 diluted solution to another 9 ml of sterile solution to obtain a
–2
10–3 diluted solution. 1m

ii This is to prevent the bacteria in the air from entering the agar plate. 1m
iii Number of bacteria in 1 mL of 10–3 diluted sample: 204 × 10 = 2040 1m
Number of bacteria in the carton of milk: 2040 × 10 × 236 = 4.81 × 10
3 8
1m
iv The nutrients in the milk were used up. 1m
Acid produced by the bacteria accumulated and killed the bacteria. 1m
v Before day 5, the number of bacteria would be slightly higher than that shown in the table. 1m
The number of bacteria would not drop but increase slightly on day 6. 1m
In total cell count, both the living bacteria and the dead bacteria were counted. Only the living
bacteria were counted using the dilution plate method. 1m
vi It is not practicable. 1m
A turbid solution is formed when the milk is added to the culture solution. The change in optical
density due to the difference in number of bacteria may not be noticeable. 1m
b i Many metabolic functions of viruses depend upon the cellular machinery of the host. 1m
Thus, drugs that work against the metabolism of the viruses may also affect the metabolism of the
host cells. 1m
ii A virus recognizes and attaches to a host cell by binding its surface proteins to the receptors on the
cell membrane of the host cell. 1m
iii The surface proteins 1m

iv The DNA of the weakened viruses is damaged / fragmented. 1m
The viruses cannot replicate / multiply after entering the human body. 1m
v The weakened viruses in vaccines may become active and infectious after entering the human body.
1m
Recombinant vaccines contain only the viral surface proteins and are thus safer to use. 1m
4 a i The sticky ends of the plasmid and the human DNA are the same. 1m
The sticky ends join randomly when DNA ligase is added to the mixture. 1m
ii To select the bacteria that have taken up a plasmid. 1m
iii S and T 1m
iv Insertion of the gene of interest disrupts the tetracycline resistance gene. 1m
Bacteria carrying a plasmid with the gene of interest successfully inserted are killed by tetracycline in
Y. 1m
v The bacteria carrying the gene of interest are cultured in industrial fermenters. 1m
Gene expression is induced for protein synthesis in the bacteria. 1m
The human protein is collected from the medium or by lysing the cells and then further processed to
produce pure and functional products. 1m
vi The antibiotic resistance genes may be transferred to pathogens accidentally to produce superbugs.
1m
Superbugs may cause outbreaks of incurable diseases. 1m
b i The base sequence of the short single-stranded DNA is complementary to (part of) the defective gene.
1m
ii Heating separates the double helix of DNA into two pieces of single-stranded DNA. 1m
The bases are exposed for the binding of the short single-stranded DNA. 1m
iii The short single-stranded DNA can be labelled with a radioactive or fluorescent marker. 1m
iv The statement is correct. 1m
Dominant normal allele is not masked by the recessive defective allele. / Removal / inactivation of
the defective allele is not required.
1m
v The therapeutic effect of somatic cell gene therapy is lost when the normal gene degrades 1m
or when the cells with the normal gene die. 1m
vi Viral vectors may gain the ability to cause diseases during modification. /
Viral vectors may cause severe immune reactions. /
The insertion of new genes may affect the expression of existing genes / cause cancer. /
The new genes may be wrongly transported into non-target cells. (any 1) 1m


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Biology Paper 1 Hkdse Mock Exam Ii: New Senior Secondary Mastering Biology (Second Edition)

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DSE

New Senior Secondary

Time allowed: 2 hours 30 minutes

INSTRUCTIONS FOR SECTION A (MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS)

3 All questions carry equal marks.

6 No marks will be deducted for wrong answers.

Not to be taken away before

The diagrams in this section are NOT necessarily drawn to scale.

New Senior Secondary Mastering Biology (Second Edition)

A Amylase is used up before the food reaches region X.

New Senior Secondary Mastering Biology (Second Edition)

(1) increase in heart rate

A (1) and (2) only B (1) and (3) only

9 Which of the following processes in plants does not involve osmosis?

A absorption of water from the soil into the root hairs

The cells of the plant began to plasmolyse at

A time zero. B the 2nd hour.

New Senior Secondary Mastering Biology (Second Edition)

11 Which of the following shows the correct order of these stages?

(1) Insulin catalyses the breakdown of glucose.

A (1) only B (2) only

New Senior Secondary Mastering Biology (Second Edition)

Which of the following statements about X is/are correct?

(1) Fertilization occurs in X.

A (1) only B (2) only

A The tip of a coleoptile detects light.

16 Which of the following correctly explains the growth of X?

They are classified into the same group of vertebrates because

A both of them live in water.

18 The diagram below shows the structure of the human brain.

Which is the function of X?

A coordinates muscular movement

(1) nitrifying bacteria

A (1) and (2) only

New Senior Secondary Mastering Biology (Second Edition)

Species Number of organisms Average dry mass per organism (g)

Producer Herbivore Carnivore

A is used for the growth of rabbits.

(1) suspension of classes

A (1) and (2) only B (1) and (3) only

New Senior Secondary Mastering Biology (Second Edition)

23 The allele for this disease is

A dominant and sex-linked.

(1) homozygous dominant.

A (1) only B (2) only

Country Number of deaths per 100 000 people

(1) There are more smokers in country Y.

A (1) and (2) only B (1) and (3) only

New Senior Secondary Mastering Biology (Second Edition)

Which of the following statements about part X is incorrect?

A It protects the seed.

(1) Both of them are male gametes.

A (1) and (2) only

New Senior Secondary Mastering Biology (Second Edition)

A Light is not required for the germination of seeds.

A Two ATP are produced.

31 Which of the following does not occur in a wounded area?

A Fibrinogen is turned into insoluble fibrin.

New Senior Secondary Mastering Biology (Second Edition)

33 Which of the following correctly identifies X and Y?

Which of the following may have occurred in this section of DNA?

(1) deletion of a base