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Reasoning
Direction (1-5) Study the following information carefully and answer
the questions given below:
In a certain code language
‘Activity Ground Nothing’ is written as ‘O#21 U#21 O@16’,
‘Worker Street Report’ is written as ‘F@19 S@17 F@19’,
‘Announced largest Erupted’ is written as ‘F#15 T#19 F@22’.

1. What is the code for ‘Contempt’?

a) P@14
b) Q@15
c) P#15
d) Q#14
e) None of these

2. What is the code for ‘Efficiency’?


a) D@7
b) Z#9
c) M#12
d) E@8
e) None of these

3. What is the code for ‘Tribunals’?

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a) N#11
b) T@9
c) M#9
d) M@11
e) None of these

4. What is the code for ‘Inquiry’?

a) S@18
b) T#20
c) R#18
d) S#20
e) None of these

5. What is the code for ‘Debate Dialogue’?

a) U#3 T#2
b) T#2 V#3
c) R@3 T#2
d) V#2 U#3
e) None of these

Direction (6-10) Study the following information carefully and answer


the questions given below.
M%N (10)- M is 7m in north of N
M$N (25)- M is 22m in south of N
M#N (17)- M is 14m in east of N
M&N (13)- M is 10m in west of N
A%C (29), D#C (15), G%D (23), E&G (9), B$E (21)
Solution (1-5)

Explanation

Logic Of Word : Next Letter Of Second last Latter of word


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Logic Of Number : Place Value of third letter + 1

Logic of symbol : No. of consonant in the word if


Odd = #
Even = @

Example :

1. Answer : B

2. Answer : A

3. Answer : E

4. Answer : A

5. Answer : D

Aptitude
Direction (1-5) The following questions are accompanied by two statements (I)
and (II). You have to determine which statements(s) is/are sufficient/necessary to
answer the questions.

a) Statement (I) alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement (II) alone
is not sufficient to answer the questions.

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b) Statement (II) alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement (I) alone
is not sufficient to answer the question.

c) Both the statements taken together are necessary to answer the questions,
but neither of the statements alone is sufficient to answer the question.

d) Either statement (I) or statement (II) is sufficient to answer the question.

e) Statements (I) and (II) together are not sufficient to answer the question.

1. Find Veer’s age four years hence from present?


(I) Ratio between Veer’s age and Rahul’s age, three years ago was 8 : 9, while
Veer is two years younger than Rahul.
(II) Ratio between present age of Rahul and Veer is 21: 19, while five year hence
average age of Rahul and Veer will be 25 years.

2. What will be profit share of Ankit out of total profit?


(I) Ankit Invest Rs. 1600 for 8 months and Satish joined him after third month with
capital of Rs. 1200.
(II) Satish got Rs. 630 as profit share.

3. How many men and women working on this task if efficiency of man and
women is same?
(I) (x – 4) men work for first (x – 8) days, after that (x+2) women complete the
remaining work in (x – 8) days.
(II) Ratio between work did by men to work did by women is 2 : 3.

4. Find the cost price of laptop if cost price of laptop on both shops is same?
(I) Marked price of laptop on two shops A and B is same. Shops ‘A’ allows 20%
discount and shop B allows 25% discount on laptop. A man purchased laptop
from shop B, if man spend Rs. 640 more, he could purchase the same laptop from
shop A.

(II) Marked price of laptop is more than its cost price on both shops. If
both shopkeepers gave a discount of 30% on M.P. of laptop, he made a profit of
Rs. 560.

5. There are some red and some blue balls in a bag. Find how many blue balls in
the bag.
(I) Total number of balls in bag is ten. If selecting two balls at random probability
of being at least one ball red is 14/15.

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(II) Total number of balls in bag is ten. Selecting two balls from out of total balls at
random, probability of being both ball blue is 1/15 .

Answers

1. Answer : D

2. Answer : E

From I
Ankit Investment share = 1600 Rs.
Time on which Ankit Invest = 8 months
Satish investment share = 1200 Rs.
From II
Given, profit share of Satish = 630 Rs.
So, from both sentence we could not made answer, time period on
which Satish invest his capital not given, so we could not determine
profit ratio of Ankit and Satish.

3. Answer : C

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4. Answer : B

5. Answer : D

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English
Directions (1-5) Select the phrase/connector (STARTERS) from the given three
options which can be used to form a single sentence from the two sentences
given below, implying the same meaning as expressed in the statement
sentences.

1.

(A) Increased co-operation is not necessarily indicative of integration.


(B) Increased co-operation is significant as a response to globalization.
(i) While Increased co-operation is ……
(ii) Increased co-operation being not necessarily….

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(iii) As a response to globalization……

a) Only (i) is correct


b) Only (ii) is correct
c) Only (iii) is correct
d) Both (i) and (ii) are correct
e) None is correct

2.

(A) Indian democracy was preceded by a relatively modern state


(B)Indian democracy was hindered by the very same state.
(i)Though Indian democracy was preceded…………
(ii)Although Indian democracy was preceded………
(iii)Nevertheless Indian democracy was hindered…..

a) Only (i) is correct


b) Only (ii) is correct
c) Only (iii) is correct
d) Both (i) and (ii) are correct
e) All are correct

3.
(A)The castaway was fed intravenously at first.
(B)The castaway was deprived of food for over twenty days.
(i)Having been deprived of food for over …..
(ii) Depriving of food for over twenty days….
(iii) Since the castaway was fed intravenously ….

a) Only (i) is correct


b) Only (ii) is correct
c) Only (iii) is correct
d) Both (i) and (ii) are correct
e) None are correct

4.

(A) He told supporters not to ease up.


(B) He's leading in the presidential race.
(i)Despite of leading in the presidential ……
(ii)Nevertheless he’s leading in the ….

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(iii)Even though he’s leading in the….

a) Only (i) is correct


b) Only (ii) is correct
c) Only (iii) is correct
d) Both (i) and (ii) are correct
e) All are correct

5.

(A)We see ourselves repeating our ordinary routine.


(B)We realize how much wealth surrounds our life.
(i) When we see ourselves ……………
(ii) Our ordinary routine……….
(iii) Realizing how much wealth……………

a) Only (i)
b) Both (ii) and (iii)
c) Only (iii)
d) Only (ii)
e) None of these

1. Answer : A

Only option (a) is correct. The sentence will be as follows “While Increased co-
operation is significant as a response to globalization, it is not necessarily
indicative of integration.”

2. Answer : D
The correct option is (d). The statements will be as : (i) “Though Indian
democracy was preceded by a relatively modern state, it was hindered by the
very same state.”
(ii) “Although Indian democracy was preceded by a relatively modern state, it was
hindered by the very same state.”

3. Answer : A
The correct choice for the given statement is only option (a).The statement will be
as follows :
(i)Having been deprived of food for over twenty days, the castaway was fed
intravenously at first.

4. Answer : C

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The correct choice for the given statement is option (c).The statement will be
written as a whole as :
“Even though he’s leading in the presidential race, he told supporters not to ease
up”.

5. Answer : A

(i) When we see ourselves repeating our ordinary routine, we realize how much
wealth surrounds our life.

General Awareness
1. What is the rank of India in the Global Innovation Index 2020?

Ans. India has been ranked at 48th position in the Global Innovation Index 2020.

2. When is the National Small Industry Day observed in India?

Ans. In India, the National Small Industry Day is celebrated on 30 August every
year, to support and promote small Industries for their overall growth potential
and opportunities received for their development in the year

3. Who has been appointed as the first-ever Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of the
Railway Board?

Ans. The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet has approved the appointment
of VK Yadav as the Chairman and Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of the Railway
Board. He will be the first to hold such a post in the railway’s history.

4. Which University has topped the “THE World University Rankings 2021”?

Ans. University of Oxford, UK has been ranked 1st in the “THE World University
Rankings 2021”. It has retained the top spot for the fifth consecutive year.

5. What is the rank of India in the list of the largest solar market globally, as per
the 2019 Mercer Global listing?

Ans. Explanation: India has been ranked third in terms of the largest solar market
in 2019 as per Mercer Global listing for 2019. India had 9% of world’s installed
capacity.

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Computer
1. Fence register is used for ___.

Ans. The main goal of fence protection is to prevent a user program from
destroying any of the operating system code that is resident is the main memory.
In order to achieve protection a hardware register called the fence register.

2. Communication circuits that transmit data in both directions but not at the
same time are operating in _______.

Ans. Half-duplex data transmission means that data can be transmitted in both
directions on a signal carrier, but not at the same time.

3. With _____ , the computer’s modem uses a standard telephone line to connect
to the Internet.

Ans. Dial-up Internet access is a form of Internet access that uses the facilities of
the public switched telephone network (PSTN) to establish a connection to an
Internet service provider (ISP) by dialing a telephone number on a conventional
telephone line.

4. VSAT means _____.

Ans. VSAT (Very Small Aperture Terminal) is a two way satellite ground station
with a dish antenna that is smaller than 3 meters. It serves home and business
users.

5. Storing same data in many places is called ______.

Ans. Storing data at many places is probably called redundancy,that is storing


mirror image of the data.

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Reasoning
Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given
below.

In a certain code of language,

'incidents some educational institutions' is coded as 'M9H M36D L25H


L4T'

'personal data rightly powers' is coded as 'M9Q V4Q Z4E G1S

'technically government individuals spied' is coded as '09U V9H Z25H


R4T'

'enforce provisions landmark authority' is coded as '19D L16Q Z4M


R16B'

1) What is the code of “information”?

a) R30H
b) I12H
c) R70T
d) T16Y
e) R25H

2) What is the code of “Office Meeting”?

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a) R15N R21Y
b) R9N R9N
c) R12N R21N
d) N21R N21B
e) None of these

3) The code “L4T” represents which of the following word?

a) Right
b) Tubelight
c) Smackdown
d) Survivor
e) None of these

4) What is the code of “Team Leader”?

a) V4U W9M
b) V21Y F32B
c) G34T P89E
d) V56T J65Y
e) None of these

5) What is the code of ‘incidents’?

a) M9H
b) M36D
c) L25H
d) L4T
e) O9U

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Answers

1-5)
For the numbers : square of the sum of the total number of vowels.

For the letters : The first letter of the code is calculated as the reverse
of third letter of the word from the right end (in alphabetical series)
and the second letter of the code represents as:

a. If the word starts with a vowel then its immediate previous letter in
English alphabetical series be considered as the code of that word.

b. If the word starts with consonant then its immediate succeeding


letter in English alphabetical series be considered as the code of that
word.

For example, in a word 'Government' as the word starts with


consonant than its succeeding alphabet i.e. H and opposite of 3rd
letter of the word i.e. E-V, be the code of the word.

Word Code Word Code


Incidents M9H Technically O9U
Some L4T Government V9H
Educational M36D Individuals Z25H
Institutions L25H Spied R4T
Personal M9Q Enforce I9D
Data V4Q Provisions L16Q
Rightly G1S Landmark Z4M
Powers Z4E Authority R16B

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1) (E)

2) (B)

3) (C)

4) (A)

5) (A)

Aptitude
1-5)
Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given
below.
The given bar graph shows the cost price of five different articles. If
the cost price is less than Rs. 1500, then it is marked up by 20% and if
the cost price is more than Rs. 1500 then it is marked up by 25%. If the
marked price of the item is less than Rs. 3500, then the discount
offered is 15% and if the marked price is more than Rs. 3500 then the
discount offered is 20%. The sum of the cost price of all the articles is
Rs. 12100.

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1)
If the cost price of the article ‘D’ had been 80% less then find the
difference between the original selling price and the new selling price
of the article.

a) Rs. 2432.8
b) Rs. 2642.4
c) Rs. 2839.6
d) Rs. 2547.2
e) Rs. 2748.6

2)
If the selling price of the article ‘B’ had been Rs. 680 more and the
discount percentage remained the same, then find the amount by
which article ‘B’ is marked up provided the article is sold at 75%
profit.

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a) Rs. 1324
b) Rs. 1260
c) Rs. 1152
d) Rs. 1458
e) Rs. 1032

3)
If the article ‘A’ has been marked up by 30% and same discount
amount was offered on it as before, then find the difference between
the new selling price and the original selling price.
a) Rs. 135
b) Rs. 120
c) Rs. 180
d) Rs. 175
e) Rs. 200

4)
Due to some breakage, the shopkeeper had to spent Rs. 250 on article
‘C’ and then marked it up above its effective cost price and provided
discount, by same percentages. The new selling price is how much
percent more/less than the original selling price.
a) 31.25%
b) 42.75%
c) 28.45%
d) 30.15%
e) 25.85%

5)
If the article ‘E’ had been sold at a loss of 20%, then find the discount
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percentage offered on it, given the article is marked up above its cost
price by the same percentage.
a) 52%
b) 24%
c) 42%
d) 36%
e) 32%

Answers

1-5)
According to the question,
96x + 48x + 32x + 128x + 180x = 12100
Or, 484x = 12100
Or, x = 12100/484 = Rs. 25

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1) (D)
New cost price of the article = 0.2 × 3200 = Rs. 640
Therefore, marked price of the article = 1.2 × 640 = Rs. 768
New selling price of the article = 0.85 × 768 = Rs. 652.8
Required difference = 3200 – 652.8 = Rs. 2547.2
2) (C)
New selling price of article ‘B’ = 1224 + 680 = Rs. 1904
New marked price of the article ‘B’ = 1904/0.85 = Rs. 2240
New cost price of the article ‘B’ = 1904/1.75 = Rs. 1088
Amount by which article ‘B’ is marked up = 2240 – 1088 = Rs. 1152

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3) (B)
New marked price of the article ‘A’ = 1.3 × 2400 = Rs. 3120
New selling price = 3120 – 450 = Rs. 2670
Required difference = 2670 – 2550 = Rs. 120
4) (A)
New cost price of the article = Rs. (800 + 250) = Rs. 1050
New marked price = 1.2 × 1050 = Rs. 1260
New selling price = 0.85 × 1260 = Rs. 1071
Required percentage change = {(1071 – 816)/816} × 100 = 31.25%
5) (D)
New selling price = 0.8 × 4500 = Rs. 3600
Required discount percentage = {(5625 – 3600)/5625} × 100 = 36%

English

Directions: Read the following passage carefully and answer the


questions that follow.

The Parker Solar Probe is on a mission towards the sun. The


spacecraft (A)……………… to scorching temperatures and intense
sunlight as it draws closer with every loop around. Eventually, Parker
will glide through the star's outer atmosphere and feel the toastiness
of nearly 2 million degrees Fahrenheit (more than 1 million degrees
Celsius). Parker is dressed appropriately for the journey. It wears a
thick, custom-made shield to protect its scientific instruments and

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systems, and tubes with flowing water to cool itself down. Inside, it is
a cozy 78 degrees Fahrenheit (26 degrees Celsius). (B) Since it set out
last summer, (1)/ Parker has made three sweltering passes (2)/ of the
sun, with much more (3)/ still to come in the next five years. (4) And
its findings are already surprising scientists back home.

(C) One of the early scientific discoveries about the sun was also the
most significant: The Earth was not the centre of the universe, but
orbited the sun. In the centuries since Copernicus redrew the cosmic
map, scientists have travelled closer to the heart of the solar system,
first with telescopes, then with satellites and spacecraft. (D) They
learned about the nuclear fusion that powers our star and dauntless
others and, with the discovery of exoplanets, realized that many stars
could be someone else's sun. Today, our understanding of the sun and
its subtle mechanisms is more sophisticated than ever before, but it
remains incomplete. At every close approach, the Parker probe will
also get closer to (E)…………... one of the toughest feats of robotic
space exploration. It sounds counterintuitive, but it's actually harder
to reach the sun than it is to leave the solar system altogether. The
sun's gravity is always tugging at everything around it, from giant
planets to tiny moons however those objects are also looping around
the sun at great speeds, which keeps them from falling towards it.

1) (A) Which of the following connectors can fit in the blank?

a) has been expose


b) has exposed
c) has been exposed
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d) as an exposure of
e) is posing as a

2) (B) Which of the following parts of statement (B) contains an error?

a) Only 1
b) Only 3
c) Only 1 and 2
d) Only 2 and 4
e) Only 1 and 3

3) (C) Which of the following phrases will replace the highlighted part
to make the sentence correct?

a) One of earlier
b) One of the earliest
c) One earliest
d) Early, one of the
e) No improvement

4) (D) Which of the following words is contextually inapt in the


sentence?

a) Powers
b) dauntless
c) discovery
d) realized
e) All are correct

5) (E) which of the following phrasal verbs can fit in the blank?
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a) Pulling off
b) Pulling up
c) Pulling in
d) Pulling apart
e) Pulling out

Answers

1) (C)
The sentence tells us how the spacecraft has been vulnerable to
intense temperatures. Since the sentence is in passive voice, (c) will fit
here, which makes it the right answer.

B is incorrect as it is in the active voice form.

2) (B)
In part 3 of (D), replace Many (Used to modify uncountable nouns)
with Much (Used to modify uncountable nouns). Here, Passes refers
to revolutions and is countable. Thus, (b) is the right answer.

3) (B)
In the question, The positive EARLY degrees of comparison, which
cannot follow the definite article THE. Therefore, it is wrong.
(E) is incorrect.
Similarly A is also wrong.
The sentence tells us of one of the first scientific discoveries about the
sun. “One of the earliest” will fit here, which makes (B) the right
answer.

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4) (B)
The sentence tells us how they learned about nuclear fusion that
powers (fuels) out star and many others, and with the discovery
(finding) of exoplanets, realised (concluded) that many stars could be
someone else’s sun. Thus, (b) is the right answer.
Dauntless means undefeated or powerful.

5) (A)
Pulling off – to do something successfully
Pulling up – hoisting
Pulling in – to haul something inwards
pulling apart – detaching from a whole
Pulling out – to haul something outwards
The sentence tells us how the Parker probe will get closer to achieving
a feat of robotic space exploration. Making (a) the right answer.

General Awareness
1) The e-foundation stone of Arun Jaitley Memorial Sports Complex
has been laid down in which town of Jammu & Kashmir?

Ans. Hiranagar in Kathua district in J&K

2) My family – My responsibility’ campaign has been launched in


which state?

Ans. Maharashtra

3) ‘End of an Era, India Exits Tibet’ book is written by

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Ans. Claude Arpi

4) who has won the men’s singles title of the US Open 2020?

Ans. Dominic Thiem


Naomi Osaka (women’s singles title)

5) Union Minister Prahlad Patel informed the formation of 16-


members expert committee for conducting a study on what ?

Ans. Origin and evolution of Indian culture


Damoh is the constituency of Prahlad Patel

Computer
1) A program either talk or music that is made available in digital
format for automatic download over the internet is called a _______.

a) Broadcast
b) Vodcast
c) Podcast
d) Wiki
e) None of these

2) Decreasing the amount of space required to store data and programs


is accomplished by _______

a) Minimise
b) Miniature
c) Compression
d) Encryption
e) None of these

3) A system call of OS which is used to create a new process is known


as______

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a) Kernel
b) Shell
c) Fork
d) All of these
e) None of these

4) A coding language that is compatible with windows servers which is


used for increased functionality on a website or to work with a
database is known as _______

a) HTML
b) ASP
c) XML
d) All of these
e) None of these

5) ______ is used by public & private enterprises to publish and share


financial information with each other and industry analysts across all
computer platforms & the Internet

a) Extensible Markup Language (XML)


b) Extensible Business Reporting Language (XBRL)
c) Enterprise Application Integration (EAI)
d) All of these
e) None of these

Answers

1) Answer: c)

A program either talk or music that is made available in digital format for
automatic download over the internet is called a podcast.

2) Answer: c)

Decreasing the amount of space required to store data and programs is


accomplished by Compression.

3) Answer: c)

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A system call of OS which is used to create a new process is known as Fork.

4) Answer: b)

A coding language that is compatible with windows servers which is used for
increased functionality on a website or to work with a database is known as
ASP.

5) Answer: b)

Extensible Business Reporting Language (XBRL) is used by public & private


enterprises to publish and share financial information with each other and
industry analysts across all computer platforms & the Internet

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Reasoning And Computer Aptitude

Directions: Read the information carefully and answer the questions.


In a certain code of language
“contention saturn attention person” is coded as, “P#5, P@15, P*20,
S#1”
“bottle health presumption monitor” is coded as “P#15, U#5, M#15,
P&18”

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“certain activated particular absorbs” is coded as “B@1, F*3, C*2, J#5”


“mobile internet must follow” is coded as “P#15, F*14, M%15, T%21”
1)
What is the code of “Current”?
a) C#4
b) O*21
c) D#6
d) V&3
e) None of these

2)
What is the code of the word “TIMING”?
a) K*5
b) K$5
c) U&1
d) O#9
e) E@4

3)
The code “I*15” represents which of the following word?
a) Biscuit
b) Ruin
c) Tonight
d) Pattern
e) Together

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4)
What will be the code of “SCHOOLMATES”?
a) F&3
b) H$7
c) J*2
d) W@1
e) None of these

5)
Which of the following is correctly matched?
a) Gather - G@2
b) Never – T#9
c) Visit - J#4
d) Joined - F%15
e) Better - D#6

Answers

Solution (1-5)
For the symbols- If number of consonants in a word
are 6 consonants are used - @
are 5 consonants are used - *
are 4 consonants are used - #
are 3 consonants are used - %
are 7 consonants are used - &

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For the number- The number representing the second letter of the
word according to the alphabetical series.
For the letter- The succeeding letter of the second last alphabet of the
word.
1) (B)

2) (D)

3) (C)

4) (A)

5) (D)

Aptitude

Direction (01-05): Study the following information carefully and


answer the given questions:

The given chart shows the number of students in three different


schools in three different years.

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1) What is the difference between the total number of students from


A in all the three years together and the number of boys from A in
three years together?

Statement I:The ratio of the number of boys to girls from A in 2015 is


3:2 and the number of girls from A in 2014 is 20 more than that of the
number of boys from A in 2016.

Statement II: If the total number of students from A in 2014, 2015 and
2016 60%, 40% and 50% respectively are girls.

A) Only I

B) Only II

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C) Either I or II sufficient

D) All I and II necessary to the answer the question

E) The question can’t be answered even with all I and II

2) What is the ratio of the boys to girls from C in 2014?

Which of the following statement is sufficient to answer the question?

A) Ratio of the boys to girls from A and B in 2014 is 1:3 and 2:1
respectively and total students in 2014 from all the schools together
60% are girls.

B) The number of girls from C in 2014 is half of the number of boys


from B in 2015.

C) Ratio of the number of boys to girls from C in all the years together
is 3:2 and the 50% of the students from C in 2015 is girls.

D) 40% of the students from C in 2014 is left and in this 80% of the
students is girl.

E) Cannot be determine

3) Number of girls from B in all the years together is what percent of


the total number of students from B in all the years together?

Statement I: Total number of students from B in 2017 is 280 and the


ratio of the number of girls to boys from B in 2017 is 4:3.

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Statement II: 60% of the total number of students from B in 2014 to


2017 is boys.

A) Only I

B) Only II

C) Either I or II sufficient

D) All I and II necessary to the answer the question

E) The question can’t be answered even with all I and II

4) Ratio of the boys to girls from A, B and C in 2016 is 7:8, 4:3 and 2:3
respectively and the ratio of total number of boys from A, B and C in
2017 to the number of boys from A, B and C in 2016 is 1:2. Total
number of students from A, B and C in 2017 is 360.

From the statement given in the above question which of the


following can be determined.

A) Number of girls from A, B and C in 2017

B) Average number of boys from C in 2014 to 2017

C) Ratio of number of boys to girls from A, B and C in 2017

D) Difference between the number of girls and boys from all the three
schools in all the years together(2014, 2015, 2016 and 2017)

A) Only A
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B) Only A and D

C) Only A, C and D

D) Only A and C

E) All A, B, C and D

5) 40% of the students from C in all the years together is girls and the
number of boys from C in 2015 and 2016 is 180 and 80 respectively.
What is the ratio of the number of girls from C in 2014, 2015 and
2016?

A) 7:12:7

B) 2:5:2

C) 3:11:3

D) 6:13:6

E) None of these

Answers

Solution (1-5)

1) (B)

From statement I,

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Girls from A in 2015=2/5 * 250=100


Boys from A in 2015=3/5 * 250=150
So, Statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

From statement II,

Girls from A in 2014=60/100 * 400=240


Boys from A in 2014=400 – 240=160
Girls from A in 2015=40/100 * 250=100
Boys from A in 2015=250 – 100=150
Girls from A in 2016=50/100 * 300=150
Boys from A in 2016=300 – 150=150
Total number of students from A=400 + 250 + 300=950
Boys from A=150 + 150 + 160=460
Difference=950 – 460=490
So, Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the answer.

2) (A)

From option (A)

Girls from A in 2014=400 * ¾ =300


Girls from B in 2014=1/3 * 300=100
Number of girls in 2014=(400 + 300 + 200) * 60/100=540
Number of girls from C in 2014=540 – 300 – 100=140
Number of boys from C in 2014=200 – 140=60

Required ratio=60:140=3: 7
This satisfied the given condition.

From option (B)


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Number of boys from B in 2015 is not given


This not satisfied.

From option (C)

Number of girls from C in 2015=300 * 50/100=150


we cannot find the answer of the question.
This not satisfied.

From option (D)

Number of students left from C in 2014=200 * 40/100=80


Number of girls left from C in 2014=80 * 80/100=64
This not satisfied the given condition.

3) Answer: D

From statement I,
Number of girls from B in 2017=4/7 * 280=160
Number of boys from B in 2017=3/7 * 280=120
So, statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

From statement II,

60% of the total number of students from B in 2014 to 2017 is boys.


So, statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

From I and II,

Total number of students from B in 2014 to 2017=300 + 100 + 350 +


280=1030
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Number of boys from B in 2014 to 2017=1030 * 60/100=618


Number of boys from B in 2014 to 2016=618 – 120=498
Number of girls from B in 2014 to 2016=(300 + 100 + 350) – 498=252
Required percentage=252/750 * 100=33.6%
Both the statements are necessary to answer the question.

4) (D)

Number of boys from A in 2016=7/15 * 300=140


Number of girls from A in 2016=8/15 * 300=160
Number of boys from B in 2016=4/7 * 350=200
Number of girls from B in 2016=3/7 * 350=150
Number of girls from C in 2016=3/5 * 150=90
Number of boys from C in 2016=2/5 * 150=60
Number of boys in 2016=140 + 200 + 60=400
Number of boys in 2017=1/2 * 400=200
Number of girls in 2017=360 – 200=160

Required ratio boys to girls in 2017=200 : 160=5:4

5) (A)

Number of girls from C in 2015=300 – 180=120


Number of girls from C in 2016=150 – 80=70
Total number of girls from C=(200 + 300 + 150) * 40/100=260
Number of girls from C in 2014=260 – 120 – 70=70

Required ratio=70:120:70
=7:12:7

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English

Direction (1-5): The following question consists of a sentence which is


divided into three parts which contain grammatical errors in one or
more than one part of the sentence, as specified in bold in each part.
If there is an error in any part of the sentence, find the correct
alternative to replace those parts from the three options given below
each question to make the sentence grammatically correct. If the
given sentence is grammatically correct or does not require any
correction, choose (E), i.e “No correction required” as your answer.

1) One of the more disturbing trends in India is the unfortunate


politicisation of art,(a)/ where artists are asked to paint murals in
Parliament, writers commissioned to do biographies of living
leaders,(b)/ and architects drawn to designing legislative buildings —
all to prevailing political desires.(c)/

a) are the unfortunate politicisation of art

b) where artists are ask to paint murals in Parliament

c) architects drawn into designing legislative buildings

A) only a

B) both a and b

C) only c

D) both b and c

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E) No correction required

2) Local courts have continued to dismiss charges for some


activists arrested(a)/ before the NSL went into effect, but in the new
order, alleged violators of vaguely defined decrees(b)/ can be
whisk across the border to be tried by courts that virtually never fail to
convict those deemed dissidents.(c)/

a) charges against some activists

b) and in the new order

c) can be whisked

A) only a and c

B) both a and b

C) only c

D) both b and c

E) No correction required

3) It has also seen serious decline in southern India(a)/that had


emerged as the bastion in the Lok Sabha election of 1977 and
1989(b)/, albeit to a lesser extent.(c)/

a) has also see

b) that has emerged as


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c) albeit for

A) only a

B) both a and b

C) only c

D) both b and c

E) No correction required

4) Modi chose to highlight India’s low Covid mortality rate (a)/as


compared to much nations but the confidence that oozed in his
previous addresses(b)/ — when he declared the nationwide lockdown
and urged people to clang thalis and lit candles — was missing.(c)/

a) chose to highlighted

b) many nations

c) was miss

A) only a

B) both a and b

C) only b

D) both b and c

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E) No correction required

5) It might be argued that a vice-chancellor has the powers to


prevent(a)/ near-automatic promotions and as the records
show,(b)/very few of them have shown any desire or commitment to
implement stricter standards.(c)/

a) may be argued

b) but as the records show

c) very few of them has shown

A) only a

B) both a and b

C) only c

D) both b and c

E) No correction required

1) Answer: C

Bold c is incorrect. Here ‘drawn to’ should be replaced with ‘drawn


into’. Incorrect preposition is used here. So option C will be the correct
choice here.

2) Answer: A

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Bold a is incorrect. Here ‘charges for’ should be replaced with ‘charges


against’. We always Bold c is incorrect. Here ‘can be whisk’ should be
replaced with ‘can be whisked’. As the sentence is in a passive voice, we
must use the past participle form of the verb. So option A will be the
correct choice here.

3) Answer: E

All bold parts are correct. So option E will be the correct choice here.

4) Answer: C

Bold b is incorrect. Here ‘much nations’ should be replaced with ‘many


nations’. As nations are countable nouns, we use ‘many’ with it. So
option C will be the correct choice here.

5) Answer: B

Bold a is incorrect. Here ‘might’ should be replaced with ‘may’. As the


sentence is in present tense. Bold b is incorrect. Here ‘and’ should be
replaced with ‘but’. As both clauses are contradictory with each other.
So option B will be the correct choice here.

General Awareness

1. Which bank has introduced a lead management system (LMS)


named a i-Lead 2.0 (inspiring Leads System Version 2.0 )
Canara bank
Hq- Bangalore

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MD & CEO – L.V. Prabhakar


Tagline – Together we can

2. Karnataka Vikas Grameena Bank (KVGB) has launched a special gold


loan scheme “Vikas Laghu Suvarna”. Where are the headquarter of
Karnataka Vikas Grameena Bank?
Dharwad, Karnataka
chairman – P Gopi Krishna

3. How many faculty member of AICTE approved institutes have


received the first – ever VIsvesvarya Best Teacher Awards 2020 by
Union Minister of Education Ramesh Pokhriyal ‘Nishank’ on the eve of
Engineers Day?
12

4. The Government has formed an expert committee to probe reports


of snooping by Chinese firm headed by
Rajesh Pant

5. The centre has set up a high-level committee to prepare a roadmap


for regularization of land leasing in the agriculture sector headed by
Ajay Tirkey

Computer
1) Which one is a grid of cells made up of horizontal rows and vertical
columns?

a) Spreadsheet

b) Worksheet
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c) Range

d) Format

e) None of these

2) Which one of the following is open source operating system and is


also clone of ____ Operating system?

a) UNIX, Linux

b) Linux, UNIX

c) Solaris, Linux

d) MS-Dos, UNIX

e) None of these

3) Which of the following shortcut key is used for print preview?

a) Ctrl + K

b) Ctrl + F

c) Ctrl + F12

d) Ctrl + F2

e) None of these

4) Which one of the following shortcut key is used to enter the current
time?

a) Ctrl + Shift + ;

b) Ctrl + ;

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c) Alt + Shift + D

d) Alt + Shift + T

e) None of these

5) Which one of the following shortcut key is used to insert the current
date?

a) Ctrl + Shift + ;

b) Ctrl + ;

c) Alt + Shift + D

d) Alt + Shift + T

e) None of these

Answers

Solution (1-5)

1) Answer: b)

Worksheet is a grid of cells made up of horizontal rows and vertical columns.

2) Answer: b)

Linux is open source operating system and is also clone of UNIX Operating
system. It is a virus free operating system.

3) Answer: d)

Print preview -> Ctrl + F2

4) Answer: a)

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To enter the current time -> Ctrl + Shift + ;

5) Answer: c)

To insert the current date -> c

Part 4
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Reasoning
Direction (1-5) Study the following information carefully to answer the given
questions. In a certain code language: -
“Social media photo positive” is written as ‘#H3 $N1 $K6 #K5’
“Effect world great talent” is written as ‘#V2 $D4 $T2 #G2’
“Mental growth dream believe” is written as ‘#T8 $W4 #N3 $Y5’

1. “Cartoon” will be coded as?

a) $X5
b) #X4
c) #Z3
d) $T5
e) None of these

2. “Unique” will be coded as?

a) $F4
b) #D6
c) $L7
d) #F5
e) None of these

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3. What is the code for “Political Speech”?

a) $I4 $N8
b) $K3 #H8
c) #K3 $H6
d) #L9 $A3
e) None of these

4. Which will be the code for ‘Mountain’?

a) #N8
b) $C9
c) #N5
d) $F3
e) None of these

5. What is the code of ‘Freedom’?

a) $G5
b) $U4
c) #U4
d) #G8
e) None of these

Answers

Solution (1-5)

Logic Behind Number =

Logic Behind Word =

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Logic Behind Symbol =

1. Answer : A

2. Answer : D

3. Answer : B

4. Answer : C

5. Answer : B

Aptitude
1. A started a business, B and C joined him in the 1st year ,they invested in the
ratio of 5:4:7 respectively and the period for which they invested was in the ratio
of 4:3:2 respectively. In the 2nd year , A doubled the investment, B and C
continued with the same investment as they investor for the same no. of month
as they did in 1st year. The total profit after 2 years was 14000. What is B's share
of profit.?

a) Rs 2500
b) Rs 3000
c) Rs 3500
d) Rs 4000
e) Rs 4500

2. Several litres of acid drawn off a 54 litre vessel full of acid and equal amount of
water added. Again, the same volume of the mixture was drawn off and replaced
by water. As a result, the vessel contained 24 litres of pure acid. How much the
acid was drawn off initially?

a) 20 litres
b) 17 litres
c) 9 litres

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d) 18 litres
e) 15 litres

3. A jar full of whisky contains 40% alcohol. A part of this whisky is replaced by
another containing 19% alcohol and now the percentage of alcohol was found to
be 26%. The quantity of whisky replaced is :

a) 1/3
b) 2/3
c) 2/5
d) 3/5
e) None of these

4. Simple interest for a period of two year is given as Rs. 1800 and the difference
between CI and SI for two years is Rs. 270. Find the CI for three years given that
sum is same and rate of interest is also same ?

a) None of these
b) Rs. 3551
c) Rs. 3135
d) Rs. 2721
e) Rs. 3591

5. A boat running downstream covers a distance of 36 km in 4 hrs and for


covering the same distance upstream it takes 9 hrs. What is the speed of the
stream?

a) 2.5 km/hr
b) 3 km/hr
c) 4.5 km/hr
d) 5 km/hr
e) None of these

Answers

1. Answer : B

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2. Answer : D

3. Answer : B

4. Answer : E

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5. Answer : A

Downstream speed = 36/4 = 9 km/hr


Upstream speed = 36/9 = 4 km/hr
So, speed of stream = 1/2*(9-4)=2.5 km/hr

English
Directions: Rearrange the following eight sentences A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H in
the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the
question given beside.

A. What was until then a sport predominantly of the hinterlands received wider
recognition as television and newspapers began discovering it.
B. The Aamir Khan-starrer Dangal, which narrates the story of Mahavir Singh
Phogat and his daughters Geeta Phogat and Babita Kumari, was perhaps the
icing on the cake.
C. Ever since Sushil Kumar won a bronze medal at the 2008 Beijing Olympics,
wrestling has, without doubt, grown by leaps and bounds.
D. Now, it has reached a stage where Sakshi’s Olympic bronze is expected to do
to women’s wrestling what Sushil’s did to wrestling in general.
E. Also, independent India’s first individual Olympic medal winner was a wrestler:

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Khashaba Dadasaheb Jadhav, who bagged a bronze in the 1952 Helsinki Games.
This aided wrestling in securing a prominent place both in the minds of the
country’s citizenry as well as in its yet-to-thrive sporting ecosystem.
F. That Sakshi and the Phogats came from Haryana, a State infamous for its
skewed gender ratio, even boosted the narrative of the sport now being a tool for
breaking gender stereotypes.
G. Even to the uninitiated, the sport’s rich moral, philosophical and mystical
heritage — with links first to the Ramayana and the Mahabharata through the
likes of Hanuman and Bhima, and then to the Mughals and Maratha kings, who
were huge patrons of the sport — has always appealed.
H. A series of successes followed, from Yogeshwar Dutt to the Phogat sisters to
Sakshi Malik.

1. Which of the following would be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?

a) G
b) B
c) H
d) A
e) F

2. Which of the following would be the SEVENTH sentence after rearrangement?

a) C
b) H
c) D
d) B
e) A

3. Which of the following would be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

a) B
b) H
c) C
d) D
e) F

4. Which of the following would be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?

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a) H
b) C
c) G
d) A
e) D

5. Which of the following would be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

a) D
b) A
c) G
d) H
e) B

Answers

Solution (1-5)

Explanation:
The passage clearly describes changing perception towards Wrestling in India
and how the sport has received recognition in recent times.

Sentence C clearly sets the tone of the passage by mentioning the phenomenal
growth the sport has achieved since 2008.

Sentence H immediately follows as it quotes a few more recent successes to


strengthen the idea stated in sentence C.

The correct sequence of the sentences is C-H-A-D-G-E-B-F and the fifth sentence
clearly is G.

1. Answer : A

2. Answer : D

3. Answer : B

4. Answer : E

5. Answer : B

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Computer
1. Computer memory that temporarily stores information is called the________

Ans. Random-access memory takes the form of integrated circuits. RAM is


normally associated with volatile types of memory ,where stored information is
lost if power is removed.

2. _______ are specially designed computer chips that reside other devices. Such
as your car or your electronic thermostat.

Ans. An embedded system is a computer system with a dedicated function within


a larger mechanical or electrical system, often with real-time computing
constraints. It is embedded as part of a complete device often including hardware
and mechanical parts.

3. Non-physical components of the computer are referred to as _______.

Ans. Software components are not physical or tangible components.

4. What was the first fully electronic general purpose computer in the world?

Ans. ENIAC was the first electronic general purpose computer in the world.

5. The process of trading goods over the Internet is known as______.

Ans. E-commerce (electronic commerce) is trading in products or services using


computer networks, such as the Internet.

General Awareness

1. What is the GDP growth rate prediction for India in FY21 by India Ratings and
Research?

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Ans. India Ratings and Research has projected India’s FY21 GDP growth forecast
at -11.8% as against its earlier prediction of -5.3%.

2. Name the winner of Indira Gandhi Peace Prize for 2019?

Ans. Veteran British broadcaster and natural historian, David Attenborough has
been awarded the prestigious Indira Gandhi Peace Prize for 2019 by the Indira
Gandhi Memorial Trust.

3. World Suicide Prevention Day is observed on which day of the year?

Ans. World Suicide Prevention Day (WSPD) is observed on 10 September every


year, in order to provide worldwide commitment and action to prevent suicides.

4. Who has been appointed as the new President of All India Tennis Association
(AITA)?

Ans. The All India Tennis Association (AITA) has elected BJP Rajya Sabha
member Anil Jain as its new president.

5. When is the International Day to Protect Education from Attack observed by the
United Nations?

Ans. The UN recognized International Day to Protect Education from Attack is


observed on 9 September

Part 5
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Aptitude
Directions (01 – 05): Study the following information carefully and
answer the questions given below.

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Pie chart shows the percentage of students in each class and line
graph shows the percentage of students participated in sports.

1) What is the ratio of the number of students from E to the students


participated in sports from C & D?

A.14: 1
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B.1: 14

C.13: 21

D.21: 13

E.None of these

2) What % is the total number of students participated in sports from


all the classes together?

A.15.5%

B.17.8%

C.20.3%

D.13.5%

E.None of these

3) Students participating in sports from C & D together is how much %


more/less than the no. of students in A?

A.71.72%

B.73.15%

C.79.16%

D.76.18%

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E.None of these

4) What is the difference between the no. of students participating


sports in A & B together and the total no. of students in D & E
together?

A.792

B.996

C.874

D.926

E.None of these

5) In which of the following, the no. of students participating sports is


higher?

A.A

B.E

C.B

D.C

E.None of these

Answers

01 – 05):
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1) Answer: A

Required ratio = 630: 45 => 126: 9 => 14: 1

2) Answer: A

Required percentage = 279/1800 * 100 = 15.5%

3) Answer: C

Required percentage = [(18 + 27) – 216]/216 * 100

= 171/216 * 100

= 79.16%

4) Answer: A

Required difference = 900 – 108 = 792

5) Answer: B

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A – 27

B – 81

C – 18

D – 27

E – 126

Class E has maximum number of students participating in sports.

Reasoning
1-5)
Directions: Study the following information and the answer the
questions based on the information given below:
A. The moment a prime number moves to the extreme ends in any
step, the first digit is changed into #.
B. The moment an even number moves to an odd numbered position
in any step, the first digit is changed into $.
C. If in the step, more than two elements that contain a symbol
appear consecutively then 3 is added to the even digit of those
elements or 1 is added to odd digit of those elements but there will be
no change in the odd numbered step.
D. The operation applied in the last step doesn’t follow any given rule.
Note: Here, the odd and even numbered positions are considered
from left. There will be no change if the prime number is already in
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the extreme ends and the even numbers are already at the odd
numbered positions.
Input: 22 67 13 78 97 56 34
Step I: #7 22 67 78 $6 34 #3
Step II: $8 #7 67 $9 $7 #4 $5
Step III: $10 #5 85 $7 $5 #6 $3
Input for the question:
Input: 38 83 17 84 89 66 46
1)
From the following, which element is 5th from the left in 1st step?
A -48
B -#3
C -64
D -$6
E -none of these

2)
Which of the following elements is fourth to the right of sixth element
from right end in last step?
A -#5
B -$2
C -#10
D -51
E -none of these

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3)
How many even numbers (also considering the numbers that contain
symbols) are there in the last step?
A -5
B -4
C -2
D -3
E -None of these

4)
How many odd numbers (without considering the numbers that
contain symbols) are there in the second step?
A -5
B -4
C -1
D -3
E -None of these

5)
What is the sum of the digits of third element from the left end in the
second step?
A -8
B -7
C -4
D -3
E -None of these

Answers

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Solution (11-15)

In Step I, the largest number is arranged at the leftmost position and


the smallest number is placed on rightmost position. And if prime
numbers move to the extreme corners then first digit is replaced by #
and if in odd positions, there is an even number, the first digit is
replaced by $. If the symbols are immediate neighbours, then even
number is added by 3 and odd number is added by 1.In the last step, 2
are added to the even numbers and odd numbers are subtracted by 2.
Input: 38 83 17 84 89 66 46
Step I: #9 38 83 84 $6 46 #7
Step II: $4 #9 83 $9 $9 #8 $11
Step III: $6 #7 101 $7 $7 #10 $9
1) (D)
5th element from the left in 1st step is $6.
2) (C)
Element which is fourth to the right of sixth element from the right
end in last step is #10.
3) (c)
There are 2 even numbers in the last step i.e. 6 and 10.
4) (c)
There is only one odd number in the second step (without considering
the number that contains symbols).
5) (e)
Third element from the left end in the second step is 73.

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Sum of digits = (8 + 3) = 11.

General Awareness
1) International Day of Sign Languages is observed on which of the
following dates to support and protect the linguistic identity and
cultural diversity?

International Day of Sign Languages is celebrated annually across the world on


23 September every year along with International Week of the Deaf.
The theme for International Day of Sign languages 2020 is “Sign Languages Are
for Everyone!”

2)
Student from which of the following institution has won James Dyson
India Award 2020 for his invention- ‘Earth Tatva’?

Shashank Nimkar from the National Institute of Design (Ahmedabad) has won
the James Dyson India Award 2020 for his invention- ‘Earth Tatva’.

3)
The Ministry of Youth Affairs & Sports has signed an MoU with which of
the following organizations to establish YuWaah – a multi-stakeholder
platform to make young people career ready?

Ministry of Youth Affairs & Sports and United Nations Children Fund (UNICEF)
have signed a “Statement of Intent” to establish YuWaah, Generation Unlimited
(GenU), a global multi-stakeholder platform in India.

4)
Which of the following seas has recorded a drop in sea ice for the
second time since 2012?

This year, Arctic sea ice shrank to its second-lowest extent in more than 40
years of satellite measurements.

5)
According to a recent statement made by the Health Minister at the UN,
India aims to end tuberculosis by which of the following year?

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Health Minister Dr Harsh Vardhan has stated that India has accorded high
priority for ending tuberculosis by 2025, five years ahead of the Sustainable
Development Goals.

Computer
1. Which Excel tool allows you to create quickly and automatically
summarize data from a large data set?

Ans. A pivot table is a program tool that allows you to reorganize and summarize
selected columns and rows of data in a spreadsheet or database table to obtain a
desired report. A pivot table doesn't actually change the spreadsheet or database
itself.

2. _______is the process of dividing the disk into tracks and sectors.

Ans. Disk formatting is the process of preparing a data storage device such as a
hard disk drive, solid-state drive, floppy disk or USB flash drive for initial use.

3. You can keep your personal files/folders in ………….

Ans. My Documents is the commonly recognized name of a special folder in


Microsoft Windows, allocated to help users store their personal data files. The
actual name of the folder might be different, depending on the version or
language of the installed copy of Windows. In Windows XP, it contained other
subfolders such as "My Pictures", "My Music" and "My Videos".

4. Which type of software is similar to an accountant’s worksheet?

Ans. A spreadsheet is an interactive computer application program for


organization, analysis and storage of data in tabular form. Spreadsheets
developed as computerized simulations of paper accounting worksheets.

5. Software programs that close potential security breaches in an operating


system

Ans. Security patches

English
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Direction (1-5) Given below are six sentences (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (F) and (G).
Answer the following questions after rearranging the following sentences into a
coherent paragraph.
(A)Apart from that, it is important for us to imbibe his teachings each day, to
become the truest and purest versions of ourselves.
(B)Government of India will celebrate the 550th Birth Anniversary of Shri Guru
Nanak Devji, which falls next year, throughout the country and across the globe.
(C)Whether in our personal lives, in our work or professional life, we must share
these values and ethics to future generations.
(D)He also taught us the valuable lessons of equality, universal brotherhood, love
and tolerance.
(E)Guru Nanak Dev Ji’s own journeys were not simple and his courage and
commitment is something that we must all strive towards achieving.
(F)The 550th birth anniversary of Guru Nanak Devi Ji brings great pride as the
world celebrates this blessed day.
(G)Our first Guru followed the path of “One God”, respecting every religion and
the belief that God lives in everything he creates.

1. If sentence (D) ‘He also taught us the valuable lessons of equality, universal
brotherhood, love and tolerance.’ is the THIRD sentence of the coherent
paragraph, then which of the following sentences doesn’t fit into the paragraph,
formed after rearranging other sentences?

a) C
b) F
c) D
d) E
e) B

2. Which of the following pairs fall correctly as it is in the final coherent sequence
of the sentences, formed after rearrangement?

a) C-D
b) A-C
c) A-D

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d) C-G
e) E-F

3. If sentence (D) ‘He also taught us the valuable lessons of equality, universal
brotherhood, love and tolerance.’ is the THIRD sentence of the coherent
paragraph, identify the correct sequence of the sentences to form a coherent
paragraph (excluding the incoherent one)?

a) GFBECD
b) BEFACD
c) DAFEBC
d) FGDEAC
e) GBFCDE

4. If sentence (D) ‘He also taught us the valuable lessons of equality, universal
brotherhood, love and tolerance.’ is the THIRD sentence of the coherent
paragraph, which of the following statement should be the FIFTH sentence after
the rearrangement (excluding the incoherent sentence)?

a) E
b) A
c) F
d) D
e) C

5. If sentence (D) ‘He also taught us the valuable lessons of equality, universal
brotherhood, love and tolerance.’ is the THIRD sentence of the coherent
paragraph, which of the following statement should be the FIRST sentence after
the rearrangement (excluding the incoherent sentence)?

a) F
b) A
c) E
d) C
e) D

Answers………………….

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Solution (1-5)

The correct sequence is FGDEAC.


(F)The 550th birth anniversary of Guru Nanak Devi Ji brings great pride as the
world celebrates this blessed day.
(G)Our first Guru followed the path of “One God”, respecting every religion and
the belief that God lives in everything he creates.
(D)He also taught us the valuable lessons of equality, universal brotherhood, love
and tolerance.
(E)Guru Nanak Dev Ji’s own journeys were not simple and his courage and
commitment is something that we must all strive towards achieving.
(A)Apart from that, it is important for us to imbibe his teachings each day, to
become the truest and purest versions of ourselves.
(C)Whether in our personal lives, in our work or professional life, we must share
these values and ethics to future generations.

1. Answer : E

2. Answer : B

3. Answer : D

4. Answer : B

5. Answer : A

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Aptitude

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1. In a bag there are four types of coloured balls of red, white, blue and yellow.
The probability of selecting one red ball out of total balls is 1/3, the probability of
selecting one blue ball out of all ball is 1/7 and total no. of white and yellow
coloured balls is 11. The no. of yellow ball in the bag is 1.
Quantity I → The probabity of selecting three white balls out of total balls without
replacement
Quantity II → The probability of selecting one yellow ball out of total ball.

a) Quantity I > Quantity II


b) Quantity I < Quantity II
c) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
d) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
e) Quantity I = Quantity II or No relation

2. Quantity I – Selling price of radio to get gain of 12 ½ %. A dealer sold a radio at


a loss of 2.5%. Had he sold it for Rs 100 more, he would have gained 7 ½% .
Quantity II – Marked Price of article. A jobber buys an article for “Rs. 24 less 12 ½

% of 24.” He then wishes to sell the article at a gain of of his cost after
allowing a 20% discount on his marked price.

a) Quantity I > Quantity II


b) Quantity I < Quantity II
c) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
d) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
e) Quantity I = Quantity II or No relation

3. Quantity I: Percentage mark-up above cost price of an article so as to gain 33%


after allowing the customer a discount of 5%.
Quantity II: Percentage of dancers under 25 years out of a group of 20 singers
and 40 dancer if 20% of the singers are less than 25 years old and 40% of the
entire group is under 25 years.

a) Quantity I > Quantity II


b) Quantity I < Quantity II
c) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
d) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
e) Quantity I = Quantity II or No relation

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4. Quantity I: Value of fifth number when Average of five numbers is 61. The
average of 1st and 3rd number is 69 and average of second and fourth number is
69.
Quantity II: No. of boys in the class. The average age of all students of a class is
18 years. The average age of boys of the class is 20 years and that of the girls is
15 years. The no. of girls in the class is 20.
Note: Compare the magnitudes of quantities.

a) Quantity I > Quantity II


b) Quantity I < Quantity II
c) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
d) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
e) Quantity I = Quantity II or No relation

5.

1. Answer : A

2. Answer : A

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3. Answer : A

4. Answer : B

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5. Answer : B

Reasoning
Direction (1-5) Study the information carefully and answer the questions given
below.
Ten persons are sitting in a row facing either north or south. Each of them likes
different colours i.e. Yellow, Green, Pink, Blue, Orange, Red, White, Black, Purple
and Brown but not necessary in same order. Not more than two consecutive
persons face same direction to each other.
Four persons sit between E and Q. Neither E nor Q sit at extreme ends of the row.
E and Q face opposite direction to each other. C who likes red colour sits one of
the extreme end of row. The person who likes Brown colour sits immediate right
of D. Three persons sit between the one who likes brown colour and R who likes
purple colour. Not more than one person sits left of E. S sits second to the right
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of E. S is immediate neighbor of the persons who likes yellow and pink colour.
The person who likes pink colour is not immediate neighbor of E. The person who
likes Green colour sits immediate left of Q. R is not immediate neighbor of Q. The
person who likes Green colour sits immediate left of B. T sits immediate left of
the one who likes white colour. T does not like yellow colour. Only two persons
sit between the one who likes Red colour and the person who likes Orange
colour. P and the one who likes Orange colour are immediate left to each other. B
does not like Black and white colour. The persons those sit at extreme ends of
row face opposite direction to each other. A faces south direction.

1. Which of the following color does A like?


a) Brown
b) Pink
c) Red
d) Blue
e) None of these

2. What is the position of Q with respect to S?

a) 3rd to the left


b) 3rd to the right
c) 4th to the right
d) 5th to the right
e) None of these

3. Who among the following person sit immediate right of R?

a) T
b) The one who likes green colour
c) The one who likes blue colour
d) C
e) None of these

4. Four of the following belongs to a group find the one that does not belong to
that group?

a) T
b) B

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c) D
d) S
e) R

5. How many persons sit between P and B?

a) One
b) Three
c) Two
d) More than three
e) None

Answers

Solution (1-5)

Four b/w E and Q

E and Q ≠ extreme ends of the row

E and Q face opposite to each other

C (red) sits one of the extreme end of row

Brown sits immediate right of D

three b/w the brown and R(purple)

Not more than one person sits left of E

S second right of E

S is immediate neighbor of yellow and pink

pink not immediate neighbor of E

Green immediate left of Q

R not immediate neighbor of Q

Green immediate left of B

T sits immediate left of white colour

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T ≠ yellow

Only two b/w the Red Orange

P and Orange colour are immediate left to each other

B ≠ Black and white colour

The persons those sit at extreme ends of row face opposite direction to each
other.

A faces south direction

1. Answer : A

2. Answer : B

3. Answer : C

4. Answer : E

5. Answer : D

English
Direction (1-5) In each of the questions given below four words are given in bold.
These four words may or may not be in their correct position. The sentence is
then followed by options with the correct combination of words that should
replace each other in order to make the sentence grammatically and contextually
correct. Find the correct combination of the words that replace each other. If the
sentence is correct as it is then select option (e) as your choice.

1. The Delhi High Court has observed (1) that use of pesticides and consumers
(2) to ripen fruits amounts (3) to poisoning the chemicals (4).

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a) 2-3
b) 1-4
c) 2-4
d) 1-3
e) No arrangement required

2. We are arrangements (1) round-the-clock on the ground (2) to work out


the necessary (3) logistics and working (4) are being put in place.

a) 2-3
b) 1-4
c) 2-4
d) 1-3
e) No arrangement required

3. In the national capital (1), the three persons under negative (2) at an isolation
ward of the RML Hospital for possible (3) exposure to nCoV have
tested observation (4).

a) 2-3
b) 1-4
c) 2-4
d) 1-3
e) No arrangement required

4. Several policemen posted (1) at the protest venue, who were assailant (2) about
50 metres from the standing (3), appeared to have been caught (4) off guard by
the shooter’s actions.

a) 2-4
b) 1-4
c) 2-3
d) 1-3
e) No arrangement required

5. We have established (1) contact with over 600 Indians repatriated (2) the
province and are individually ascertaining (3) their willingness to be across (4).

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a) 2-3
b) 1-4
c) 2-4
d) 1-3
e) No arrangement required

1. Answer : C

Option (c) is the correct choice. The passage is based about the philosophy of
life. Since in the given line the author is talking that it depends on a person
how one defines philosophy that is either by a conscious and a logical
inquisitive mind that is described by the word ‘rational’ or by a heap of
unwarranted conclusions.
Scientific means based on or characterized by the methods and principles of
science.
Baseless means without foundation in fact.

2. Answer : B

Option (b) is the correct choice. This is because we are talking about the
disciplined process of thought and a thorough and careful way of logical
deliberation. Thoroughly is an adverb which means in a thorough manner.
Recklessly means without regard to the danger or the consequences of one's
actions; rashly.
Negligently means habitually neglecting duties.

3. Answer : E

Option (e) is the right option. The author is referring about the two choices we
have as an option i.e.
either to define the philosophy of life by our conscious and rational thought
process or to lead our subconscious accumulate means gather junk heap of
unwarranted conclusions and false generalizations.
Scatter means throw in various random directions.
Disperse means distribute or spread over a wide area.

4. Answer : A

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Option (a) fits appropriately in the blank.This is so because in the above line
we are talking about unification of one’s subconscious into a kind of mongrel
philosophy that is the consolidation .
Integrated means meshed.
Diverge means (of a road, route, or line) separate from another route and go in
a different direction.

5. Answer : D

Option (d) is the correct choice. Fused means joined or blended to form a
single entity.
Separated means cause to move or be apart.
Disconnected means having had a connection broken.

General AWARENESS
1. Who is the head the Empowered Group of Ministers (EGoM) to oversee the
process of the corporatisation of the Ordnance Factory Board (OFB)?

Ans. Central Government has constituted an Empowered Group of Ministers


(EGoM) to oversee the process of the corporatisation of the Ordnance Factory
Board (OFB). Defence Minister Rajnath Singh is the chairman of this EGoM.

2. GARIMA scheme has been launched by which state for the core sanitation
workers to ensure their economic and social security?

Ans. The Chief Minister of Odisha, Naveen Patnaik launched a new scheme
named ‘GARIMA’ which aims to ensure the economic safety and social dignity of
core sanitation workers in the state.

3. Who has been roped in by the UNICEF as celebrity advocate in India for its
children’s rights campaign ’For Every Child’?

Ans. UNICEF India has appointed Bollywood actor Ayushmann Khurrana as its
celebrity advocate for children’s rights campaign ’For Every Child’. Khurrana will
support UNICEF towards ending violence against children, by working towards
this initiative in India.

4. The Climate Smart Cities Assessment Framework (CSCAF) 2.0 has been
launched by Housing Ministry. This framework has how many indicators?
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Ans. The Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) has launched the
Climate Smart Cities Assessment Framework (CSCAF) 2.0. The framework
comprise of 28 indicators across five categories

5. Which state has recently launched the largest piggery mission of the country?

Ans. The Union Minister of State for Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare, Kailash
Choudhury, launched India’s largest piggery mission in Meghalaya on 10
September 2020.

Computer
1. Which of the following will be used if a sender of e-mail wants to bold, italics
etc the text message?

Ans. Rich text supports text formatting, such as bold, italics, and underlining, as
well as different fonts, font sizes, and colored text.

2. Which of the following is used with databases?

Ans. Data mining is the computational process of discovering patterns in large


data sets involving methods at the intersection of artificial intelligence, machine
learning, statistics, and database systems.

3. A set of rules that computer on a network use to communicate with each other
are called

Ans. When computers communicate with each other, there needs to be a


common set of rules and instructions that each computer follows.

4. Encryption is related to cryptography in which layer?

Ans. Presentation layer serves as translation of data between a networking


service and an application, including character encoding, data compression and
encryption/decryption.

5. A _______is a major database object used to display information in a printable


page format.

Ans. Informationfrom the database is organized in a nice presentation that can be


printed in an Access Report.

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Part 7
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Aptitude
Direction (01-05): Study the following information carefully and answer
the given questions:

The given chart shows the number of students in three different schools in three
different years.

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1) What is the difference between the total number of students from A


in all the three years together and the number of boys from A in three
years together?

Statement I:The ratio of the number of boys to girls from A in 2015 is 3:2 and
the number of girls from A in 2014 is 20 more than that of the number of boys
from A in 2016.

Statement II: If the total number of students from A in 2014, 2015 and 2016
60%, 40% and 50% respectively are girls.

A) Only I

B) Only II

C) Either I or II sufficient

D) All I and II necessary to the answer the question

E) The question can’t be answered even with all I and II

2) What is the ratio of the boys to girls from C in 2014?

Which of the following statement is sufficient to answer the question?

A) Ratio of the boys to girls from A and B in 2014 is 1:3 and 2:1 respectively
and total students in 2014 from all the schools together 60% are girls.

B) The number of girls from C in 2014 is half of the number of boys from B in
2015.

C) Ratio of the number of boys to girls from C in all the years together is 3:2
and the 50% of the students from C in 2015 is girls.

D) 40% of the students from C in 2014 is left and in this 80% of the students is
girl.

E) Cannot be determine

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3) Number of girls from B in all the years together is what percent of


the total number of students from B in all the years together?

Statement I: Total number of students from B in 2017 is 280 and the ratio of
the number of girls to boys from B in 2017 is 4:3.

Statement II: 60% of the total number of students from B in 2014 to 2017 is
boys.

A) Only I

B) Only II

C) Either I or II sufficient

D) All I and II necessary to the answer the question

E) The question can’t be answered even with all I and II

4) Ratio of the boys to girls from A, B and C in 2016 is 7:8, 4:3 and 2:3
respectively and the ratio of total number of boys from A, B and C in
2017 to the number of boys from A, B and C in 2016 is 1:2. Total
number of students from A, B and C in 2017 is 360.

From the statement given in the above question which of the following
can be determined.

A) Number of girls from A, B and C in 2017

B) Average number of boys from C in 2014 to 2017

C) Ratio of number of boys to girls from A, B and C in 2017

D) Difference between the number of girls and boys from all the three schools
in all the years together(2014, 2015, 2016 and 2017)

A) Only A

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B) Only A and D

C) Only A, C and D

D) Only A and C

E) All A, B, C and D

5) 40% of the students from C in all the years together is girls and the
number of boys from C in 2015 and 2016 is 180 and 80 respectively.
What is the ratio of the number of girls from C in 2014, 2015 and 2016?

A) 7:12:7

B) 2:5:2

C) 3:11:3

D) 6:13:6

E) None of these

Answers
1) Answer: B

From statement I,

Girls from A in 2015=2/5 * 250=100

Boys from A in 2015=3/5 * 250=150

So, Statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

From statement II,

Girls from A in 2014=60/100 * 400=240

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Boys from A in 2014=400 – 240=160

Girls from A in 2015=40/100 * 250=100

Boys from A in 2015=250 – 100=150

Girls from A in 2016=50/100 * 300=150

Boys from A in 2016=300 – 150=150

Total number of students from A=400 + 250 + 300=950

Boys from A=150 + 150 + 160=460

Difference=950 – 460=490

So, Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the answer.

2) Answer: A

From option (A)

Girls from A in 2014=400 * ¾ =300

Girls from B in 2014=1/3 * 300=100

Number of girls in 2014=(400 + 300 + 200) * 60/100=540

Number of girls from C in 2014=540 – 300 – 100=140

Number of boys from C in 2014=200 – 140=60

Required ratio=60:140=3: 7

This satisfied the given condition.

From option (B)

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Number of boys from B in 2015 is not given

This not satisfied.

From option (C)

Number of girls from C in 2015=300 * 50/100=150

we cannot find the answer of the question.

This not satisfied.

From option (D)

Number of students left from C in 2014=200 * 40/100=80

Number of girls left from C in 2014=80 * 80/100=64

This not satisfied the given condition.

3) Answer: D

From statement I,

Number of girls from B in 2017=4/7 * 280=160

Number of boys from B in 2017=3/7 * 280=120

So, statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

From statement II,

60% of the total number of students from B in 2014 to 2017 is boys.

So, statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

From I and II,

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Total number of students from B in 2014 to 2017=300 + 100 + 350 +


280=1030

Number of boys from B in 2014 to 2017=1030 * 60/100=618

Number of boys from B in 2014 to 2016=618 – 120=498

Number of girls from B in 2014 to 2016=(300 + 100 + 350) – 498=252

Required percentage=252/750 * 100=33.6%

Both the statements are necessary to answer the question.

4) Answer: D

Number of boys from A in 2016=7/15 * 300=140

Number of girls from A in 2016=8/15 * 300=160

Number of boys from B in 2016=4/7 * 350=200

Number of girls from B in 2016=3/7 * 350=150

Number of girls from C in 2016=3/5 * 150=90

Number of boys from C in 2016=2/5 * 150=60

Number of boys in 2016=140 + 200 + 60=400

Number of boys in 2017=1/2 * 400=200

Number of girls in 2017=360 – 200=160

Required ratio boys to girls in 2017=200 : 160=5:4

5) Answer: A

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Number of girls from C in 2015=300 – 180=120

Number of girls from C in 2016=150 – 80=70

Total number of girls from C=(200 + 300 + 150) * 40/100=260

Number of girls from C in 2014=260 – 120 – 70=70

Required ratio=70:120:70

=7:12:7

Reasoning
Direction(1-5): Study the following information carefully and answer
the questions given below:

Ten persons Q, F, R, T, B, C, M, K, G and Z have seminars in January,


May, June, April and March with two seminars in each month. The
seminar is scheduled on 9th and 16th of the month. Each one of them
is in different age 27, 29, 52, 36, 39, 12, 15, 18, 43 and 24. All the
above information is not necessarily in the same order.

G does not attend the seminar before M. T attends the seminar in


April month. Only one person attends the seminar between T and F.
The persons who attend the seminar on January 16 will be twice the
age of Z. M attends the seminar in May month. Only one person
attends the seminar between M and G. G is 4 years elder than B. The
one who is the eldest attends the seminar immediately after B. Two
persons attend theseminar between the one who is the eldest and R.
C attends the seminar before K. The number of personsattend the
seminar before K is same as the number of personsattend the seminar

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after Q. K’s age is a prime number.The age of one who attends the
seminar on January 9th is not an odd number. T’s age is twice that of
F’s age. Z does not attend the seminar in a month which has less than
31 days. Z is 3 years younger than M.

7) Who among the following person’s age is 27?

A) F

B) B

C) Q

D) R

E) None of these

8) How many persons attend the seminar between F and the one
whose age 29?

A) 1

B) 5

C) 3

D) 4

E) None of these

9) Who attends the seminar on May 9th?

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A) F-36

B) M-15

C) C-52

D) F-24

E) None of these

10) Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence they
form a group. Which one of the following does not belong to that
group?

A) G

B) The one whose age is 15

C) The one whose age is 27

D) T

E) Q

11) If Z is related to 24, T is related to 39, in the same way, K is related


to which of the following?

A) 15

B) 24

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C) 43

D) 36

D) None of these

Answers
Directions (1-5) :

G is 4 years elder than B.

B+4=G ( there is only one possible case 39 and 43)

G=43 and B=39

Z is 3 years younger than M.

Z=M-3

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Possible cases are (12,15),(15,18),(24,27) and (36,39)

The persons who attend the seminar on January 16 will be twice the
age of Z. (There is only one case satisfy the above statement 12 and
15)

Hence,Z=12 and M=15

The age of the person who attends a seminar on Jan 16th will be 24.

K’s age is a prime number (29 and 43(is already fixed for G)). So K’s
age is 29.

T’s age is twice that of F’s age.

T=2F(Now there is only one possible case)

T=36

F=18

T attends the seminar in April month.Only one person attends the


seminar between T and F. Only one person attends the seminar
between M and G. M attends the seminar in May month. G does not
attend the seminar before M. The age of the person who attends a
seminar on Jan 16th will be 24. The one who is the eldestattends the
seminar immediately after B. Two persons attend the seminar
between the one who is the eldest and R. Z does not attend the
seminar in a month which has less than 31 days. C attends the
seminar before K. The number of persons attend the seminar before K

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is same as the number of persons attend the seminar after Q. The age
of one who attends the seminar on January 9th is not an odd number.

If T attends the seminar on April 9.

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1) Answer: D

2) Answer: B

3) Answer: C

4) Answer: D

5) Answer: C

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English
Directions (1-5): In the following passage, some of the words have
been left out, each of which is indicated by a number. Find the
suitable word from the options given against each number and fill up
the blanks with appropriate words to make the paragraph
meaningfully complete.

The task force was (1) …… that India could secure the elephant in the
near future through ecologically sound land-use planning and re-
energising mitigation systems to alleviate human-elephant conflict
(HEC).

The report laid out a solid, actionable and progressive framework for
elephant conservation, (2) …… innovative changes in governance,
increased public participation, multi-scale collaborations and
proactive conflict mitigation strategies.

Ten years passed since this report was published and, till date, the
recommendations remain mostly (3) …… . HEC, meanwhile, escalated
rapidly with data from the Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and
Climate Change showing 4,642 human and 1,025 elephant deaths in
the past 10 years.

The progressive points of this report now seem to be (4) …… to such


an extent that practically nobody talks about the report now.

The only recommendation (5) …… was of the Union government


designating the Asian elephant as the National Heritage Animal of
India.

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1) The task force was (1) …… that India could secure the elephant in
the near future through ecologically sound land-use planning and re-
energising mitigation systems to alleviate human-elephant conflict
(HEC).

A) imitate

B) optimistic

C) kinship

D) defy

E) None of these

2) The report laid out a solid, actionable and progressive framework


for elephant conservation, (2) …… innovative changes in governance,
increased public participation, multi-scale collaborations and
proactive conflict mitigation strategies.

A) prescribing

B) contravene

C) unleash

D) laud

E) None of these

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3) Ten years passed since this report was published and, till date, the
recommendations remain mostly (3) …… . HEC, meanwhile, escalated
rapidly with data from the Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and
Climate Change showing 4,642 human and 1,025 elephant deaths in
the past 10 years.

A) restrain

B) slander

C) deterrent

D) unimplemented

E) None of these

4) The progressive points of this report now seem to be (4) …… to such


an extent that practically nobody talks about the report now.

A) obstruction

B) fend

C) sole

D) veracity

E) None of these

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5) The only recommendation (5) …… was of the Union government


designating the Asian elephant as the National Heritage Animal of
India.

A) executed

B) lament

C) coax

D) fanatical

E) None of these

Answers
1) Answer: B

In the given sentence, only ‘optimistic’ makes it grammatically as well


as contextually correct.

Option A): is incorrect because imitate means take or follow as a


model which does not fit here.

Option B): is the correct alternative among the following as optimistic


means hopeful and confident about the future which fit here both
grammatically and contextually

Option C): is incorrect as kinshipmeans blood relationship.

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Option D): is incorrect as defy means openly resist or refuse to obey


which does not fit here contextually.

2) Answer: A

In the given sentence, only ‘prescribing’ makes it grammatically as


well as contextually correct.

Option A): is the correct alternative among the following as


‘prescribing’ fit here both grammatically and contextually

Option B): is incorrect as contravene means offend against the


prohibition or order of (a law, treaty, or code of conduct) which does
not make any sense here.

Option C): is incorrect as unleash means release (a dog) from a leash.

Option D): is incorrect as laud does not fit here contextually.

3) Answer: D

In the given sentence, only ‘unimplemented’ makes it grammatically


as well as contextually correct.

Option A): is incorrect because restrain means prevent (someone or


something) from doing something; keep under control or within limits
which does not fit here.

Option B): is incorrect as slander means make false and damaging


statements about (someone) which does not make any sense here.

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Option C): is incorrect as ‘deterrent’ does not fit here.

Option D): is the correct alternative among the following as


‘unimplemented’ fit here both grammatically and contextually

4) Answer: E

In the given sentence, only ‘forgotten’ makes it grammatically as well


as contextually correct.

Option A): is incorrect because obstruction means the action of


obstructing or the state of being obstructed which does not fit here.

Option B): is incorrect as fend means look after and provide for
oneself, without any help from others which does not make any sense
here.

Option C): is incorrect as ‘sole’ does not fit here.

Option D): is incorrect as veracity does not fit here contextually.

5) Answer: A

In the given sentence, only ‘executed’ makes it grammatically as well


as contextually correct.

Option A is the correct alternative among the following as executed


perfectly fits in the blank both grammatically and contextually

Option B is incorrect as lament means express passionate grief about


which does not make any sense here.
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Option C is incorrect because coax means gently and persistently


persuade (someone) to do something.

Option D is incorrect because fanatical means filled with excessive


and single-minded zeal which is contextually wrong.

General Awareness
1)
The Chief Minister of which state has launched the Mukhyamantri
Grammys Paribahan Achoni to improve rural connectivity and
generate employment in the villages?

Assam Chief Minister Sarbananda Sonowal launched the Mukhyamantri


Grammys Paribahan Achoni and distributed vehicles under the scheme
to beneficiaries at a programme held at Assam Administrative Staff
College by the transport department. The scheme aims to improve rural
connectivity and generate employment in the villages.

2)
Who has recently been signed as its brand ambassador by Acer?

PC brand Acer India announced actor Sonu Sood as its brand


ambassador.

3)
CRIF India credit bureau has joined hands with which of the following
banks to launch sector based insight reports titled ‘Industry
Spotlight’?

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CRIF High Mark, Indian credit bureau owned by CRIF has joined hands
with Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) apex financial
institution for Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) in India,
for launching of sector-based insight reports titled ‘Industry Spotlight’.

4)
In which of the following states will the First Medical Device Park,
MedSpark be set up?

Kerala will soon house one of the first medical device parks in the
country, focusing on the high-risk medical device sector to provide a full
range of services for the medical devices industry like R&D support,
testing, and evaluation.

5)
Which of the following banks has joined the Bayer’s Better Life
Farming initiative to provide affordable loans?

Axis Bank has joined Bayer’s Better Life Farming initiative in India to
provide holistic financial solutions to smallholder farmers and rural
farming communities.

Computer
1) _____ is a communication line or link designedto carry multiple
signals simultaneously to providenetwork access between two points.

a) Trunk

b) Metasearch engines

c) Web crawlers

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d) Cookies

e) None of these

2) While studying about networks, we may came to know the term


PSTN. What does S represents?

a) Secret

b) Switched

c) Simple

d) Shift

e) None of these

3) Which of the following is a server that saves Webpages that users


have requested so that successive requests for these pages do not
require the use of the Internet?

a) Bookmark server

b) Cache server

c) Virtual server

d) Off-line server

e) None of these

4) Which of the following is the act of secretly removing RAM chips


from office computers and selling them?

a) Cyber crime

b) Synflooding

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c) Software piracy

d) Memory shaving

e) None of these

5) A device for changing the connection on a connector to a different


configuration is ________.

a) Modulator

b) Encoder

c) Adopter

d) Modifier

Answers
1). Answer: a)

Trunk is a communication line or link designedto carry multiple signals


simultaneously to providenetwork access between two points

2). Answer:b)

PSTN à Public Switched Telephone Network

3). Answer:b)

Cache server is a server that saves Webpages that users have requested so that
successive requests for these pages do not require the use of the Internet

4). Answer: d)

Memory shaving is the act of secretly removing RAM chips from office
computers and selling them

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5). Answer: c)

A device for changing the connection on a connector to a different configuration


is Adopter

Part 8
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Batch : Click Here

Aptitude
Direction (1-5) Compare the value of 2 quantities given in the question and give
answer.(Compare only numerical values)

a) if quantity I > quantity II


b) if quantity I < quantity II
c) if quantity I ≥ quantity II
d) if quantity I ≤ quantity II
e) if quantity I = quantity II or no relation can be established

1. Quantity I: Number of balls made after casting. A solid metallic cylinder having
6cm radius and 24cm height is melted and recast into small spherical balls
having 6cm diameter.
Quantity II: No. of days taken by A to complete the work alone.
A and B can complete the work in 12 days together, B and C can complete the
same work in 15 days together and A and C can complete that work in 20 days
together.

2. Quantity I: Cost price to the manufacturer. A manufacturer sells a pair of


glasses to a wholesale dealer at a profit of 17%. The wholesaler sells the same to
a retailer at a profit of 25%. The retailer in turn sells them to a customer for Rs.
32.76, thereby earn a profit of 40%.
Quantity II: Area of the hall.

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If the Material cost of flooring per m2 is Rs. 250 while labor cost of flooring the
hall is Rs. 3500 and the total cost of flooring the hall is Rs. 14500.

3. Quantity I: Rate of interest per annum, If the amount is 2.25 times of the sum
after 2 years at compound interest (compound annually).
Quantity II: The speed of the train. A train passes a 50 meters long Platform in 14
seconds and a man standing on the platform in 10 seconds. (In km/h)

4. Quantity I: Height of the tank, if the volume of cylindrical tank is 12320 cm³. Its
radius and height are in the ratio of 7 : 10 respectively.
Quantity II: Level of kerosene in the jar. A conical vessel of base radius 2 cm and
height 3 cm is filled with kerosene. This liquid leak through a hole in the bottom
and collects in a cylindrical jar of radius 2 cm.

5. A man who swims 48m/minute in still water, swims 200m against the current
and 200m with the current. The difference between those two times is 10 minutes.
Quantity I: speed of current. (in m/min)
Quantity II: Speed of a man who completes 3 rounds of a circular path of radius
49 m in 14 minutes. (in m/min)

Answers……………………….

1. Answer : B

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2. Answer : B

3. Answer : A

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4. Answer : A

5. Answer : B

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Reasoning
Directions (1-5) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below:
P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are seven players, who play for the same team. In a match
meeting, they all are sitting around a circular table facing to the center. Also each
player has to complete his training, which is assigned to them. No two player can
complete their training at the same time and no two adjacent players finish their
training immediately one after the other.
P completes his training immediately before Q. R sits third to the left of S but
completes his training after S. Q sits to the immediate left of V. T sits to the
immediate left of the player, who completes his training before only two players.
U completes his training immediately after Q but not after R. The number of
players who complete their training before V is same as the numbers of players,
who complete their training after V. U sits 2nd to the right of person who
completes his training 1st.

1. Who sits fourth to the right of Q?

a) U
b) R
c) P
d) V
e) None of these

2. How many players complete their training before P?

a) 1
b) 5
c) 4

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d) 2
e) None

3. Which of the following is the seating order in anticlock-wise direction from


point S(Including S)?

a) S, Q, P, R, U, V, T
b) S, U, P, R, T, V, Q
c) S, Q, V, P, R, U, T
d) S, T, Q, V, R, P, U
e) None of these

4. Who completes his training immediately after R?

a) Q
b) V
c) P
d) S
e) None of these

5. Who among the following sits to the immediate right of S?

a) P
b) U
c) T
d) V
e) None of these

Answers

Solution (1-5)

P immediately before Q

R third left of S but completes his training after S

Q immediate left of V

T immediate left of the player, who completes his training before only two players

U completes immediately after Q but not after R

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players who complete their training before V is same as who complete their
training after V

U 2nd right of person who completes his training 1st.

1. Answer : A

2. Answer : E

3. Answer : C

4. Answer : E

5. Answer : E

English
Directions (1-5) In the following questions, a paragraph is given with three blanks,
followed by six words. You have to choose the most suitable combination of
words among the four alternative options, that will fill the blank coherently,
forming a grammatically correct and contextually meaningful paragraph. If none
of the given combination is appropriate to fill the blank, mark option (e) i.e. “none
of these” as your answer choice.

1. The MSPs served as the ______ prices and were fixed by the Government in the
nature of a long-term guarantee for investment _________ of producers, with the
assurance that prices of their commodities would not be allowed to fall below the
level fixed by the Government, even in the case of a ___________crop.
(i)Floor
(ii)Flour
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(iii)Decisions
(iv)Deceased
(v)Poured
(vi)Bumper

a) (iv), (v) and (iii)


b) ii), (i) and (iv)
c) (i), (iii) and (vi)
d) (v), (iv) and (i)
e) none of these

2. A more ________approach in addressing the widening CAD would be to


institute wide-ranging measures to _________exports and simultaneously reduce
the import-intensity of the economy. Policymakers must renew efforts to ensure
that export growth starts _________the expansion in merchandise imports.
(i)Boost
(ii) children
(iii)Robust
(iv) launched
(v) recovered
(vi)Outpacing

a) (iii), (i) and (vi)


b) (iv), (v) and (ii)
c) (i), (iv) and (ii)
d) (iv), (i) and (vi)
e) none of these
3. Over 1.56 lakh driving licences have been _________ for various traffic
offences in the State in the first six months of this year.
__________ on mobile phones was the prime reason for licence suspension.
While driving licences of 57,158 persons were ___________ for the offence for the
whole of last year, this number is 64,105 at the end of the first six months of 2018.
(i) transporting
(ii) speaking
(iii) arrested
(iv) debarred
(v) cancelled

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(vi) suspended

a) iii, iv, vi
b) vi, i, iii
c) vi, ii, vi
d) v, i, v
e) none of these

4. The Madras High Court on Wednesday __________ the State government


from __________ any kind of proceedings against Hindustan Unilever Limited
(HUL) __________ to a government order issued on August 18 last year directing
the company to handover 1,434.43 acres at Gudalur Taluk in Nilgiris district
because they had been declared as forest land.
(i) initiated
(ii) restrained
(iii) pursuant
(iv) restraining
(v) initiating
(vi) filed

a) i, iv and vi
b) ii, iv and i
c) i, v and vi
d) ii, v and iii
e) none of the above

5. A _____________________ mechanism that actually helps farmers get the


declared MSP for a crop is being _________________ through a price deficiency
payment scheme and a private procurement plan. But this is still in a
____________________ stage and is not adequate.
(i) nascent
(ii) pursued
(iii) robust
(iv) treat
(v) barred
(vi) allocate

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a) v, iv and i
b) v, ii and i
c) iii, v and vi
d) iii, ii and i
e) none of the above

Answers

1. Answer : C

The most appropriate set of words that fills the blanks of the paragraph is “Floor,
Decisions and Bumper”. ‘Floor- a minimum level of prices or wages.’ provides the
precise context.
Bumper- exceptionally large
All the other words are incoherent and fail to make the paragraph comprehensive.
Hence, option (c) is the most suitable answer choice.

2. Answer : A

The most appropriate word-set is “Robust, Boost and Outpacing”. ‘Robust’ is


functioning as an adverb.
Outpacing means ‘go, rise, or improve faster than.’ The word appropriately
satisfies the context of the third blank.
The correct word for the second blank is ‘Boost’

3. Answer : C

The correct set of words are “suspended, speaking and suspended”. Driving
license is something which could be suspended. So, the first and the third blank
would be filled by the same word ‘suspended’. What can be done on mobile
phones? One could speak on it. So, speaking is the correct word to fill the
second blank.

4. Answer : D

‘Restrained’ is a more appropriate word than ‘initiated’ to fill the first blank. The
High Court could have stopped or restrained the State government from initiating
any kind of… rather than ‘initiated’ the State government from restraining any

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kind of…
Pursuant- in accordance with (a law or a legal document or resolution)

5. Answer : D

The appropriate set of words which would fill the blank is “robust, pursued,
nascent”.
Robust means strong and healthy; vigorous.
Pursued means seek to attain or accomplish (a goal) over a long period.
Nascent means just coming into existence and beginning to display signs of
future potential.
Other words are irrelevant and do not coherently fit the blank.

General Awareness
1. Government has constituted a search-cum-selection committee to
name the new three government nominees on the all-important
Monetary Policy Committee (MPC). Who is the head of this
committee?

Ans. Central Government has formed a search-cum-selection


committee to name the new three government nominees on the all-
important Monetary Policy Committee (MPC). The committee will be
headed by Cabinet secretary Rajiv Gauba. Urjit Patel is also a part
of this committee.

2. The Shaurya KGC Card is an agriculture loans instrument


launched by which bank for the military and paramilitary
professionals?

Ans. HDFC Bank launched “Shaurya KGC Card” that will


offer agriculture loans for military and paramilitary professionals.

3. PM Modi has announced a new initiative called National Digital


Health Mission (NDHM). What is the purpose of this mission?

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Ans. While addressing the nation on 15 August 2020, Prime


Minister Narendra Modi announced the launch of a new campaign
called National Digital Health Mission, under which all Indians will
be given health IDs. This Health ID will work as each Indian’s health
account.

4. Veteran Indian cricketer Mahendra Singh Dhoni has announced


his retirement from international cricket. How many ODI matches
have been played by the MD Dhoni during his cricket career?

Ans. Indian Cricketer Mahendra Singh Dhoni has


announced retirement from all forms of international cricket. Dhoni
shared this information on Instagram on August 15, 2020 as-
“Thanks. Thanks for ur love and support throughout. from 1929 hrs
consider me as Retired”

5. The e-commerce platform ‘Yellow Chain’ has been launched by


which state to provide an integrated platform for product and
services to the people?

Ans. On the occasion of Independence Day, the Chief Minister of


Nagaland, Neiphiu Rio has launched “Yellow Chain”- a centralized
e-commerce platform, to promote local business and
entrepreneurship in the State.

Computer
1. Who developed the basic architecture of Computers?

Ans. The von Neumann architecture, also known as the von Neumann
model is a computer architecture by John Von Neumann.

2. Which is the following is not an option in clipboard?

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Ans. Page Setup is not on Clipboard.

3. To decrease the font of selected text by 1 point in MS Word,


which shortcut key is used?

Ans. Ctrl+ [ can be used to decrease font by one point at a time.

4. Who among the following(s) is/are the founder of Microsoft


Company?

Ans. Microsoft was founded by Paul Allen and Bill Gates on April 4, 1975,
to develop and sell BASIC interpreters for Altair 8800.

5. DBMS ensures data integrity by managing transactions through


ACID test. What does ACID stands for in computer science?

Ans. ACID (Atomicity, Consistency, Isolation, and Durability) is a set of


properties of database transactions.

Part 9
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Batch : Click Here

Aptitude
Direction (1-5): Study the following information carefully and answer
the questions given below.

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The given table shows the five persons to covered the distance and
total time taken by the journey.

1) If the average speed of Bala is 5 kmph more than the speed of Arul
and the time taken by the Bala to covered the distance 60% of the
time taken by Divya, then find the distance covered by Bala?

A) 400 km

B) 500 km

C) 600 km

D) 800 km

E) None of these

2) If time taken by Esai to covered the journey is 18 hours and the


speed of Divya is 50% more than the speed of Esai, then what is the
ratio of the distance covered by Divya to Sharu?

A) 7:1

B) 6:1

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C) 8:3

D) 9:2

E) None of these

3) If the total journey is 2960 km and the ratio of the distance


travelled by Bala to Divya is 3:4 and the speed of Bala is 25% more
than the speed of Divya, then find the time taken by Bala to cover the
distance?

A) 12 hours

B) 15 hours

C) 18 hours

D) 20 hours

E) None of these

4) If the speed of Bala and Divya in the ratio of 6:7 and the time taken
by Arul to cover the distance is 20% more than the time taken by
Sharu. Ratio of the time taken by Sharu and Bala is 2:3 and the ratio of
the time taken by Bala and Esai is 5:6. If the ratio of the speed of
Divya to Arul is 6:5, then what is the average speed of whole journey
in all the persons together?

A) 33.6 kmph

B) 35.8 kmph
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C) 32.8 kmph

D) 31.5 kmph

E) None of these

5) If the distance covered by Divya is 450 km and the time taken by


Sharu to covers the distance is 7 hours less than Arul, then speed of
Divya is what percent of the speed of Sharu?

A) 54%

B) 48%

C) 36%

D) 24%

E) None of these

Answers………………….

Solution (1-5)

1) Answer: C

Speed of Arul = 420/12 = 35 kmph

Speed of Bala = 35 + 5 = 40 kmph

Time taken by Bala = 25 * 60/100 = 15 hours

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Distance covered by Bala = 15 * 40 = 600 km

2) Answer: D

Speed of Esai = 540/18 = 30 kmph

Speed of Divya = 150/100 * 30 = 45 kmph

Distance covered by Divya = 45 * 25 = 1125 km

Required ratio = 1125:250

= 9:2

3) Answer: B

Distance covered by Bala and Divya = 2960 – 420 – 250 – 540 = 1750

Distance covered by Divya = 1750 * 4/7 = 1000 km

Distance covered by Bala = 1750 * 3/7 = 750 km

Speed of Divya = 1000/25 = 40 kmph

Speed of Bala = 40 * 125/100 = 50 kmph

Required time = 750/50 = 15 hours

4) Answer: A

Time taken by Arul = 12 hours

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Time taken by Sharu = 100/120 * 12 = 10 hours

Time taken by Bala = 3/2 * 10 = 15 hours

Time taken by Esai = 6/5 * 15 = 18 hours

Speed of Arul = 420/12 = 35 kmph

Speed of Divya = 6/5 * 35 = 42 kmph

Speed of Bala = 6/7 * 42 = 36 kmph

Speed of Sharu = 250/10 = 25 kmph

Speed of Esai = 540/18 = 30 kmph

Average speed = (35 + 42 + 36 + 25 + 30)/5

= 33.6 kmph

5) Answer: C

Speed of Divya = 450/25 = 18 kmph

Time taken by Sharu = 12 – 7 = 5 hours

Speed of Sharu = 250/5 = 50 kmph

Required percentage = 18/50 * 100 = 36%

Reasoning
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Direction (1-5): Study the following information carefully and answer


the questions given below.

“India healthcare infrastructure continues” is written as “I12 I57 R19


V50”

“Government maintaining standards” is written as “M25 M29 W2”

“Medical manpower drawn from society” is written as “Z15 V21 D1


L15 G29”

“Inclusive large diverse country” is written as “E44 T6 H19 I36”

1) What is the code for “Sweatshops” in this code language?

A) K12

B) K21

C) H12

D) H21

E) None of these

2) What is the code for “Exorbitant” in this code language?

A) M29

B) M30

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C) M31

D) M32

E) None of these

3) Which of the following words represents the code “V6”?

A) Talent

B) Ordinary

C) Spawned

Engaged

None of these

4) Which of the following word represents the code “V43”?

A) Intentioned

B) Mentioned

C) Questioned

D) Participated

E) None of these

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5) What is the code for “Retaliatory Enforcement” in this code


language?

A) I30, M31

B) H30, M31

C) I31, M30

D) I30, H31

E) None of these

Answers…………
(1-5) :

1) Answer: B

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2) Answer: B

3) Answer: C

4) Answer: A

5) Answer: C

English
Direction (1-5) In each of the following Questions, a word is give in bold.
Corresponding to each bold word three sentences are written using the word. The
word may or may not be correctly used in the sentence. You have to choose the
alternative which reflect(s) the sentence(s) having the bold in word in the
grammatically correct and contextually meaningful form. If all sentences are
correct, choose option (e) i.e., all are correct as your answer.

1. ELUSIVE
(I) We have made an elusive study of all published SAT tests and are happy to
share our research with you.
(II) Trying to pin down exactly when the contractors would be finished remodeling
the house, Nancy was frustrated by their elusive replies.
(III) By coming up with fresh ways to market the company's products, Mike
proved himself to be an elusive businessman.

a) Only (I)
b) Both (I) and (II)
c) Both (II) and (III)
d) Only (II)
e) All are correct

2. FATHOM
(I) In short, scientists have not yet fathomed the nature of consciousness, its
origins, or its role in Nature.
(II) He spends much of his time attempting to fathom the mysteries of the legal
system, but never gets any closer even to identifying his crime.

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(III) I cannot begin to fathom a plausible justification for this disparity.

a) Only (I)
b) Both (I) and (II)
c) Both (II) and (III)
d) Only (II)
e) All are correct

3. SUBJUGATE
(I) The subjugated weather soon had me changing from my shorts into my thick
slacks.
(II) After the Austrian victories King Ferdinand sent a Neapolitan army of 20,000
men under Filangieri to subjugate the island.
(III) Investors don’t want to put their money on companies that are
showing subjugate growth and inconsistent profits.

a) Only (II)
b) Only (I)
c) Both (II) and (III)
d) Only (III)
e) All are correct

4. IMBECILE
(I) You think yourself the perfection of existence, while you are the most
imperfect and imbecile.
(II) Only an imbecile would leave their car unlocked, with the keys in the ignition,
and then be surprised when the vehicle was stolen.
(III) I was particularly impressed by the imbecile presentation of the storm.

a) Only (III)
b) Only (I)
c) Both (I) and (II)
d) Only (II)
e) All are correct

5. PREDELICTION
(I) Gregory goes out to watch birds daily so I assume he has a predilection for the
hobby.

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(II) No matter how often he hiked through the mountains, David never failed to be
struck by the predilection of the Sierra Nevada range
(III) When her supervisor ignored her complaint, she took her predilection to the
union.

a) Only (III)
b) Only (I)
c) Both (I) and (II)
d) Only (II)
e) All are correct

Answers

1. Answer : D

‘Elusive’ means difficult to find, catch, or achieve. The word ‘Elusive’ is used
appropriately in the sentence (II) only. Therefore, the option (d) is the most viable
answer choice.

2. Answer : E

‘Fathom’ means understand (a difficult problem or an enigmatic person) after


much thought. The word ‘Fathom’ is used appropriately in all the given
sentences. Therefore, the option (e) is the most viable answer choice.

3. Answer : A

‘Subjugate’ means bring under domination or control, especially by conquest; or


make someone or something subordinate to. Among the given sentences, only
sentence (II) has used the given word with its precise meaning. Both sentences (I)
and (III) fail to find coherence using the word ‘subjugate’. Hence, the option (a) is
the most suitable answer choice.

4. Answer : C

‘Imbecile’ as a noun means a stupid person; or as an adjective it means stupid;


idiotic. Therefore, it provides a comprehensive sense to the sentences (I) and (II).
However, it is incorrectly used in the sentence (III). Hence, the option (c) is the
most suitable choice.

5. Answer : B

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Predilection’ is a noun which means a preference or special liking for something;


a bias in favour of something. Among the given sentences, only sentence (I) has
used the given word with its precise meaning. Both the sentences (II) and (III) fail
to find coherence using the word ‘predilection’. Hence, the option (b) is the most
suitable answer choice.

General awareness
1)
Global Handwashing Day is observed on which of the following dates to
motivate and mobilize people around the world to improve their hand
washing habits?

Global Handwashing Day occurs on 15 October of each year.

It is an international handwashing promotion campaign to motivate and


mobilize people around the world to improve their hand washing habits.

2)
The Union Cabinet has approved a Special package worth _______
crore in the UTs of Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh for a period of five
year till FY 2023-24.

The Union Cabinet, chaired by the Prime Minister, Shri Narendra Modi has
approved a Special Package worth Rs. 520 crore in the UTs of J&K and Ladakh
for a period of five years till FY 2023-24 and ensure funding of
DeendayalAntyodaya Yojana – National Rural Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NRLM) in
the UTs of Jammu and Kashmir & Ladakh on a demand driven basis without
linking allocation with poverty ratio during this extended period.

3)
What is the theme of the International Day of Rural Women observed
on 15th October every year?

International Day of Rural Women celebrated every year on 15 October.

This day was created in 1995 by Civil society organizations at the Fourth World
Conference on Women in Beijing and was declared an official UN Day in 2007 by
the UN General Assembly.
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4)
World Food Day is observed on which of the following dates to mark the
founding of the FAO of the UN in 1945?

World Food Day is an international day celebrated every year around the world
on 16 October in honor of the date of the founding of the Food and Agriculture
Organization of the United Nations in 1945.

5)
IRDAI has asked life insurance companies to launch a standard term
insurance policy named _________ by January 1, 2021 to help
customers make informed decisions.

Regulator IRDAI asked life insurance companies to launch a standard term


insurance policy ‘Saral Jeevan Bima’ by January 1, 2021 to help customers
make informed decisions.

The Saral Jeevan Bima will be a pure term life insurance product that can be
purchased by people in the age group of 18 to 65 years and will have a policy
term of 4 to 40 years, guidelines issued by the Insurance Regulatory and
Development Authority of India (IRDAI).

Computer
1. What is the base of hexadecimal number system?

Ans. The hexadecimal numeral system (hex) is a numeral system made up of 16


symbols (base 16).Hexadecimal uses the decimal numbers and includes six extra
symbols.

Note:- It uses sixteen distinct symbols, most often the symbols 0–9 to represent
values zero to nine, and A, B, C, D, E, F (or alternatively a, b, c, d, e, f) to represent
values ten to fifteen.

2. Servers are computers that provide resources to other computers connected to


a ____.

Ans. In the client/server programming model, a server is a program that awaits


and fulfills requests from client programs in the same or other computers.

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3. Using output devices one can ______.

Ans. Using output devices one can view or print data. An output device is any
piece of Computer Hardware equipment used to communicate the results of data
processing carried out by an information processing system which converts the
electronically generated information into human-readable form.

4. A _______is an electronic device that process data, converting it into


information.

Ans. A processor is the logic circuitry that responds to and processes the basic
instructions that drive a computer.

5. In MS- Word, replace option is available on ____.

Ans. Go to the "Home" tab menu on the Ribbon of Microsoft Word


2007/2010/2013, at the furthest right of the group is the "Editing" options. Click
the Editing item, a popup menu will appear and now you can see the "Find" and
"Replace" items at the top of the box.

Day 10
Target Banking Mains
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question Batch : Click Here
Direction (1-5) Bar graph given below shows number of students passed in an
exam from school A and B in five different years. Study the bar graph carefully
and answer the following questions.

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1. in 2016, ratio between boys passed to girls passed from school ‘A’ and School
‘B’ are 8 : 5 and 16 : 11 respectively. Find the ratio between boys passed from
school ‘A’ and ‘B’ together in 2016 to girls passed from school ‘A’ and ‘B’
together in 2016.

a) 23 : 31
b) 32 : 21
c) 29 : 17
d) 3 : 4
e) 25 : 37

2. If in 2014, 96% and 85% students passed from school A and B respectively out
of total students appeared, then find the average number of failed students from
school A and B together in 2014.

a) 20
b) 60
c) 75

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d) 55
e) 50

3. Students passed from school ‘A’ in 2013, 2015, 2017 together is how much less
than students passed from school B in 2014, 2016, 2017 together.

a) 50
b) 40
c) 60
d) 70
e) 80

4. In 2014, total 600 students appeared from school ‘A’ for exam in which ratio
between boys and girls is 7 : 5. If out of total girls appeared in exam 90% of girls
passed, then find the number of boys passed from school ‘A’ is what percent of
the total number of boys appeared in the exam?

a)

b)

c)

d)

e)

5. Find the ratio between total number of students passed from school ‘A’ in 2014
and 2015 together to total number of students appeared from school B in 2016
and 2017 together.

a) 51 : 49
b) 49 : 51
c) 47 : 45

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d) 53 : 48
e) Cannot be determined

Answers………………………………….

1. Answer : B

2. Answer :

3. Answer : A

Students passed from school A in 2013, 2015, 2017 = 440 + 540 + 460
= 1440
Students passed from school B in 2014, 2016 and 2017 = 510 + 540 +

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440 = 1490
Required difference = 1490 – 1440 = 50

4. Answer : C

5. Answer : E

Total number of students from school B cannot be determined as data


is not given.

Reasoning
Direction (1-5) Study the information carefully and answer the questions given
below.
Ten children are sitting in two parallel rows. A, B, C, D and E are sitting in row-1
facing south while P, Q, R, S and T are sitting in row-2 facing north. Each of them
has different number of toys. Children who sit in row-1 have number of toys is
multiple of 9 and who sits row-2 have number of toys is multiple of 8. The person
who has maximum number of toys is 45.
Only two persons sit between P and the one who faces the person who has
maximum number of toys. B sits second to the left of A. C faces the person who
has 4 toys less than C. R sits second to the right of the one who has 2 toys less
than E. The one who has maximum number of toys is not sitting at any end. A
faces the one who has 7 toys more than A. Neither P nor S faces A. P has more
toys than Q but less than R who is not an immediate neighbour of S. Q sits
immediate right of T. B has odd number of toys. P faces the one who has more
number of toys than B. S has less number of toys than Q.

1. Who among the following has 3 toys more than Q?

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a) B
b) D
c) C
d) E
e) None of these

2. Who among the following sits diagonally opposite to R?

a) the one who has 16 toys


b) D
c) the one who has 18 toys
d) C
e) None of these

3. Which of the following statement is true about D?

a) D faces the one who has 8 toys


b) D has maximum number of toys
c) Only two persons sit between D and E
d) P has 5 toys less than D
e) None is true

4. How many persons sit left of the one who has 16 toys?

a) One

b) Three
c) Two
d) None
e) Four

5. What is the position of A with respect to C?

a) Immediate Right
b) Fourth to the left
c) Third to the right
d) Second to the left
e) Immediate Left

Answer……………………………………..

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Solution (1-5)

The person who has maximum number of toys is 45

two persons sit between P and the one who faces the person who has maximum
number of toys

B second left of A

C faces the person who has 4 toys less than C

R second right of the one who has 2 toys less than E

maximum number of toys is not sitting at any end

A faces the one who has 7 toys more than A

Neither P nor S faces A

P has more toys than Q but less than R who is not an immediate neighbour of S

Q immediate right of T

B = odd toys

P faces the one who has more number of toys than B

S has less number of toys than Q

1. Answer : A

2. Answer : D

3. Answer : B

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4. Answer : C

5. Answer : D

English
Direction(1-5) Given below the sentences each of which has been divided into five
parts out of which the first part has been marked bold. Each of the questions is
then followed by the five options which give the sequence of the rearranged
parts. You must choose the option which gives the correct sequence of the parts.
If the sentence is already arranged or the correct sequence doesn't match any of
the given sequence, mark (E) .i.e. "None of the above" as your answer.

1. The Cabinet decision last week to set up the International Coalition / towards
tackling climate and other environmental (A) / for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure
is yet (B) / crises confronting the world (C) / another leadership effort by India (D)
/

a) DBCA
b) BCAD
c) BDAC
d) ACDB
e) None of the above

2. Global conditions do matter, but / come internally, instead of (A) / India is


uniquely placed as a large economy (B) / depending on export markets (C) /
whose major activity, wealth- and job-creation (D)

a) DBCA
b) BCAD
c) BDAC
d) ACDB
e) None of the above

3. With greater segmentation of credit and different kinds of / large banks that can
lend to large companies (A) / as small finance banks, regional banks, non-
banking financial companies and fintech serving (B) / banks catering to different
customer classes such (C) / the small borrowers, India can do with a few more (D)
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a) DBCA
b) CBDA
c) BDAC
d) CDBA
e) None of the above

4. Orissa’s is an outstanding example of learning / acquired the hard way with (A)
/ every reason to share the expertise (B) / to cope with disasters, and there is (C) /
other Indian states and other nations. (D)

a) DBCA
b) CADB
c) BDAC
d) CBAD
e) None of the above

5. The move to subsidise sugar exports, without/ areas unsuited for the crop, will
tide (A) / any move to discourage cane cultivation in (B) /only to further
misallocate resources (C) / over an immediate political problem. (D)

a) BADC
b) CADB
c) BDAC
d) ACDB
e) None of the above

1. Answer : C

We’ll try to find the correct sequence of fragments using elimination


technique here.

If we read the opening fragment clearly, we can deduce that the next
fragment should continue with the name or purpose of the
‘International Coalition’. The fragment B fits perfectly as the following
fragment. Thus, opening fragment and fragment B make a mandatory
pair.

This eliminates options A and D immediately.

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Further, fragment B ends with ‘yet’ and fragment D begins with


‘another’ and they make sense together. Thus, fragment B and
fragment D also make a mandatory pair. Option B also gets eliminated
here.

Now, if we read the sequence of fragments given in option C, we find


that they make a meaningful sentence together. Evidently, the correct
sequence of fragments is: BDAC

2. Answer : C

We’ll try to find the correct sequence of fragments using elimination


technique here.

If we read the opening fragment clearly, we can deduce that the


presence of ‘but’ indicates that the following part is of an idea
contrary to the portion given in bold. While the bold part speaks about
global conditions, the fragment B opens with India’s condition, thus
confirming fragment B as the following fragment. Thus, opening
fragment and fragment B make a mandatory pair.

This eliminates options A and D immediately.

Further, fragment B mentions ends with the mention of the Indian and
fragment D opens with ‘whose’ i.e., it refers to the economy. Thus,
fragment B and fragment D also make a mandatory pair. Option B also
gets eliminated here.

Now, if we read the sequence of fragments given in option C, we find


that they make a meaningful sentence together. Evidently, the correct
sequence of fragments is: BDAC

3. Answer :B
We’ll try to find the correct sequence of fragments using elimination

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technique here.

If we read the opening fragment clearly, we can deduce that the next
fragment should talk about different kinds of credit facilities. Since
fragment C talks about banks it is confirmed that fragment B is the
following fragment. Thus, opening fragment and fragment B make a
mandatory pair.

This eliminates options A and C immediately.

Further, fragment C mentions ends with ‘such’ and fragment B begins


with ‘as’ and continues with examples of banks. Thus, fragment C and
fragment B also make a mandatory pair. Option D also gets eliminated
here.

Now, if we read the sequence of fragments given in option B, we find


that they make a meaningful sentence together. Evidently, the correct
sequence of fragments is: CBDA

4. Answer : D

We’ll try to find the correct sequence of fragments using elimination


technique here.

If we read the opening fragment clearly, we can deduce that the next
fragment should continue explaining what the learning is about. This
is done in fragment C and it is confirmed that fragment C is the
following fragment. Thus, opening fragment and fragment C make a
mandatory pair.

This eliminates options A and C immediately.

Further, fragment C ends with ‘is’ and fragment B begins with


singular ‘every reason’. Thus, fragment C and fragment B also make a

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mandatory pair. Option B also gets eliminated here.

Now, if we read the sequence of fragments given in option D, we find


that they make a meaningful sentence together. Evidently, the correct
sequence of fragments is: CBAD

5. Answer : A

We’ll try to find the correct sequence of fragments using elimination


technique here.

Out of all the given options , only option B makes sense when paired
with the fragment given in bold. Thus, opening fragment should be
followed by fragment B.

This eliminates options B and D immediately.

Further, fragment B mentions cultivation and fragment A talks about


areas where is cultivation is done despite being unsuitable for the
crop. Thus, fragment B and fragment A also make a pair. Option C
also gets eliminated here.

Now, if we read the sequence of fragments given in option A, we find


that they make a meaningful sentence together. Evidently, the correct
sequence of fragments is: BADC

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