Here are the answers to the questions:1. D2. B 3. A4. A5. C

GAMSAT | FLT09 | QUESTION BOOKLET | Page | 0
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Section 1
Reasoning in Humanities and Social Sciences
Number of questions: 75
Allotted time: 100 minutes
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Unit 1
Questions 1 – 6
Read these excerpts from the following articles on creating effective passwords. The first article is an excerpt
from Tina Sieber‟s „How to Create A Good Password That You Will Not Forget‟. The second one is an excerpt
from „How to Choose Good Passwords‟. Article 3 advises on “Creating Strong Passwords”.
Article 1
Here are some tips and tricks to maintain individual strong passwords for all of your online accounts.
Know the Characteristics of a safe Password
 It cannot be found in a dictionary.
 It contains special characters and numbers.
 It contains a mix of upper and lower case letters.
 It has a minimum length of 10 characters.
 It cannot be guessed easily based on user information (birth date, postal code, phone number, etc.)
Create an easy to remember Base Password
 Randomly replace letters with numbers, e.g. flirt becomes fl1r7.
 Pick a sentence, i.e. your passphrase, and reduce it to first letters of each word only, e.g.
―Everything I Do I Do It For You‖ becomes EIDIDIFY.

 Take a word and reverse spell it, e.g. neighbourhood becomes doohrobhgien.
1 What is the possible problem that the author of the above excerpt anticipates while creating a unique
password?
A Creating a unique password is difficult because one tends to use common words.
B The one creating the password might experience difficulty in remembering it.
C Everyone is not creative enough to create a password that is unique and yet easy.
D The creator might have a temptation to use obvious personal details in the password.
2 What does the author suggest as the solution for overcoming the difficulty of remembering a unique
password?
A Using common and easy-to-remember words, but with an unusual twist no one but the legal user
will understand
B Keeping the passwords baffling enough to ensure protection, yet not to such an extent that it
becomes impossible to remember
C Using a word with a personal connection, but adding something to it that has nothing to do with
the owner
D Using a word that is very close or exactly the same in meaning to something that denotes the
personal tastes of the owner
Article 2
What not to do when choosing a password
 Do not choose a password based upon personal data like your name, your username, or other information
that one could easily discover about you from such sources as searching the internet.
 Do not choose a password that is a word (English or otherwise), proper name, name of a TV show,
keyboard sequence, or anything else that one would expect a clever person to put in a "dictionary" of
passwords.
 Do not choose a password that is a simple transformation of a word, such as putting a punctuation mark
at the beginning or end of a word, converting the letter "l" to the digit "1", writing a common word
backwards, etc. For example, "password,123" is not a good password, since adding ",123" is a common,
simple transformation of a word.
 Do not choose passwords less than 8 characters long or that are made up solely of numbers or letters. Use
letters of different cases, mixtures of digits and letters, and/or non-alphanumeric characters.
Article 3
Here are steps you can take to create a strong password:
 Length. Make your passwords long with eight or more characters.
 Complexity. Include letters, punctuation, symbols, and numbers. Use the entire keyboard, not just the
letters and characters you use or see most often. The greater the variety of characters in your password,
the better. However, password hacking software automatically checks for common letter-to-symbol
conversions, such as changing "and" to "&" or "to" to "2."
 Variation. To keep strong passwords effective, change them often. Set an automatic reminder for yourself
to change your passwords on your email, banking, and credit card websites about every three months.
 Variety. Don't use the same password for everything. Cybercriminals steal passwords on websites that
have very little security, and then they use that same password and user name in more secure
environments, such as banking websites.
3 The best possible password for a person with following details, will be
Name: Alan Rodrick

Date of birth- 19.12.1981
Height- 170 cm Weight- 170 pounds
Music choice: Jazz Favourite colour: Brown
A A1A9_JA2626.
B JaZZbrn.
C @1@n_170P.
D j26_browniE.
4 What is an example of a usable space-saving common letter-to-symbol conversion?
A F as ―4‖ B @ as ―at‖
C ?as ―why‖ D ! as ―unknown‖
5 According to the tips provided, which of the following is the strongest password for ―Bob‘s Apple‖?
A bobSapple B bob‘selppa
C elppa5bob D b0B5A66L3
6 The author‘s write-up is based on which of the following assumptions?
A Hacking most of the times happens due to some silly error made during password creation.
B There is no privacy in the internet whatsoever since it is accessible by anyone everywhere.
C The internet is not a very safe place to store information as it might land on wrong hands.
D There are people who would try to procure other‘s private information without permission.
Unit 2
Questions 7 – 10
Given below is a Venn diagram that deals with the different characteristics of people.
I. People who are aged between 18 and 24 years

II. People who smoke greater than twenty cigarettes daily
III. People who live alone or with one other person
IV. People who consume less than six units of alcohol per week
The respective numbers in the regions indicate the number of people. The above figures apply to the end of year
2006.
In each successive year, a number of people shift from among the categories, as shown below for 2007:
People aged between 18 and 24 years 

10%
 people who smoke greater than twenty cigarettes daily
People who consume less than six units of alcohol per week 
10%
 people who live alone or with one other
person
People who live alone or with one other person 

10%
 people who are aged between 18 and 24 years
People who consume less than six units of alcohol per week 
10%
 people who smoke greater than twenty
cigarettes daily
The arrows above show the direction of transfer. The above transfers are not applicable to people who belong to
two or more categories. The transfers take place in percentages as compared to the figures of the previous year.
All fractions should be rounded to the nearest whole number.
7 The total number of people by 2007 (inclusive) would be
A 89.
B 90.
C 96.
D 110.
8 The number of people who smoke greater than twenty cigarettes per day in 2006 is higher than the
number of people who belong exclusively to the 18-24 age group in 2007 by what percentage?
A 75%
B 290%
C 300%
D 310%
9 The number of people who get transferred to ‗people who smoke greater than twenty cigarettes daily‘ is
greater than the number of people who get transferred to ‗people who live alone or with one other person‘
in 2007 by what percentage?
A 0%
B 100%
C 10%
D 1%
10 The total number of people who belong to two or more categories is more than the number of people who
belong to one category only, at the end of 2008, by about
A 26.
B 61.
C 31.
D 30.
Unit 3
Questions 11 – 18
The following questions are based on a poem and a passage on death.
Poem 1 - Holy Sonnet 10
Death, be not proud, though some have called thee

Mighty and dreadful, for thou art not so;
For those whom thou think‘st thou dost overthrow,
Die not, poor Death, nor yet canst thou kill me.
From rest and sleep, which but thy pictures be, 5
Much pleasure; then from thee much more must flow,
And soonest our best men with thee do go,
Rest of their bones, and soul‘s delivery.
Thou art slave to fate, chance, kings, and desperate men,
And dost with poison, war, and sickness dwell; 10
And poppy or charms can make us sleep as well
And better than thy stroke; why swell‘st thou then?
One short sleep past, we wake eternally,
And death shall be no more; Death, thou shalt die.
John Donne
11 Personification is when a writer gives human qualities to non-living objects. How does Donne personify
Death?
A By telling Death that it is not in control of its destiny

B By capitalising Death and speaking to it as an equal
C By saying how mighty it is and how powerless men are
D By telling Death that it will always be eternal and alive
12 Which of the following best expresses the author‘s comment to Death in line 2?
A Death is not as formidable as it is generally believed to be.

B The fear of death lives in a man only as long as he lives.
C Death is not the end of, but merely a stop in a journey.
D It is easy to conquer death if one is not afraid of it.
13 What is meant by ―thou art slave to fate‖ (Line 9)?
A Death controls the destinies of the lives it takes.

B Death is ruled by kings and other men.
C Death is not mightier than Fate.
D Death has no control of the choices it makes.
14 What vice does ―why swell‘st thou then‖ (Line 12) refer to?
A Wrath
B Gluttony
C Pride
D Greed
15 What overall message does Donne provide to his readers regarding fear of death?
A Death is something not to be feared of.

B There is nothing to be afraid of.
C Death fears the man who breathes life.
D Coward is a soul that fears Death.
Passage 1
Death is the one thing in life we can be sure about and that is why religions have beliefs about what it means!
Everything else ‗might‘ happen to us: we might get married, be rich, be happy, have children, start our own
business or travel the world, but the only real certainty is that we will die.
It is not surprising that people have always asked questions about what, if anything happens when and after they
die.
Although some people claim to have had ‗near-death experiences‘ (NDEs), and others claim to be able to talk to
the dead, or to have seen ghosts, there is no scientific proof that such experiences actually provide a glimpse into
a possible afterlife. It is possible, therefore, that when people die, they simply stop living and that there is
nothing beyond this life.
Ideas about what happens after death, and its connection with how life is lived on earth, is a fundamental part of
all religions. The details may differ between religions, but belief in an afterlife almost always helps.
 It helps people to make sense of life, particularly when life seems unfair or at times of suffering
(their own, and other people‘s).
 It gives support and comfort at times of loss and bereavement.
 It provides a purpose to life.
Christians believe there is an afterlife. Although the body dies and is buried or cremated, they believe that their
unique soul lives on and is raised to new life by God.
Their belief that Jesus rose from the dead (Resurrection) three days after his crucifixion (a Roman method of
execution) gives Christians hope that if they follow Jesus‘ teaching and accept him as their Lord and Saviour,
then this new resurrected life awaits them. By being born as a human being (the incarnation), and then dying on
the cross, Jesus made this new ‗life after death‘ possible for all.
16 From the above passage, it can be inferred that religions speak of things that
A have an element of uncertainty about them.

B are frequently questioned by humankind.
C are inevitable, yet unclear in concept.
D people do not generally believe in.
17 The passage states that ―belief in an afterlife almost always helps.‖ Which of the following can be
inferred as the reason behind the fact that people find believing in an afterlife helpful?
A It provides a feel-good factor to have the hope that life after death might be better than the
existence before that.
B It gives the assurance that all is not lost; justice will be meted out, if not in this life then in the next.
C It becomes easier for people to bear with the tenors of this life if they are certain that life will be a
lot better after one is dead.
D It is quite common knowledge that the afterlife is a cakewalk when compared to the rigours of life
before death.
18 Lines 5-8 in the poem have a sense of euphoria when thinking of death. Considering the Christian nature
of this Sonnet, what euphoria is the author referring to?
A The euphoria of living on after reincarnation

B The euphoria of the Resurrection; a time of rebirth
C The euphoria of the release the body has in death
D The euphoria of death, when the spirit moves on
Unit 4
Questions 19 – 28
First read the following excerpts from the article „Technology & Altruism‟, and then consider how cartoonists
have always been talented in pointing out what is happening around us. Consider this while looking closely at
the following cartoons and then answer the questions below.
Article 1
Excerpt from „Technology & Altruism‟
―Technology is not only building bridges between people on opposite sides of the globe, but it is also building
ever stronger walls between neighbours. Some people are surrounding themselves with modern technology
while paying little attention to the needs of others. Others use technology to better understand their fellow men
to overcome physical distance, establishing relationships of mutual solidarity around the globe.‖
Modern technology is changing mankind as much as it is changing our planet. What we do and say, even how
we think is being subtly changed by our machines. The logic of the all-pervasive computer is inspiring a cold,
mechanistic view of the world that emphasises objective reality and lead us away from the subjective realities of
our emotional and spiritual sides.
Alternatively, if people can make the change from fear to love, technology can help us all to meet both our
physical needs and our quest for meaning and autonomy. Its effects should give us cause for hope. Of the
modern technologies, the internet stands out as a positive influence on the people of the world, putting us in
contact with one another, helping us understand the magnitude of the common challenges we face.
19 Only man can decide what he wants to do with technology, and reap the benefits or suffer the curses.
Which line from the passage above best supports this statement?
A ―Technology is building bridges between people on opposite sides of the globe, but it is also
building ever stronger walls between neighbours.‖
B ―Modern technology is changing mankind as much as it is changing our planet. What we do and
say, even how we think is being subtly changed by our machines.‖
C ―Some people are surrounding themselves with modern technology while paying little attention to
the needs of others. Others use technology to better understand their fellow man.‖
D ―Alternatively, if people can make the change from fear to love, technology can help us all to meet
both our physical needs and our quest for meaning and autonomy.‖
20 What is most probably being meant by the author when he talks about ―fear‖?
A People are generally insecure, which drives them away from others despite all the opportunities for
coming closer.
B Mankind is, in general, not very comfortable with technological advances, which makes their
approach apprehensive.
C Humans are afraid of technological advancements because they feel that it might one day take over
their lives.
D Using technology for the better purposes is much harder than using it for something that doesn‘t
have a good outcome.
21 Which of the following quotes sums up the importance of communication that the author is emphasising?
A Civilisation grew in the beginning from the minute that we had communication... that enabled
people to get inspiration and ideas from each other and to exchange basic raw materials.
B Communication is a continual balancing act, juggling the conflicting needs for intimacy and
independence.
C Communication leads to community, that is, to understanding, intimacy and mutual valuing.
D Communication- the human connection- is the key to personal and professional success.
22 Which of the following comments completely undermines the point that the author is trying to make in
the above passage?
A Email, instant messaging, and cell phones give us fabulous communication ability, but because we
live and work in our own little worlds, that communication is totally disorganised. – Marilyn vos
Savant
B The possibility of fraud is even more prevalent in today's world because of the Internet and cell
phones and the opportunity for instant communication with strangers. – Armistead Maupin
C Despite the universality of URLs, we often forget that they're not just a handy way to address
network resources. – Jesse James Garrett
D Electric communication will never be a substitute for the face of someone who with their soul
encourages another person to be brave and true. – Charles Dickens
Cartoon 1
The following cartoons are about chatting in the real world.
23 Which of the following comments best expresses the idea in Cartoon 1?
A Despite the universality of URLs, we often forget that they're not just a handy way to address
network resources. They're also valuable communication tools. -Jesse James Garrett
B The Internet is so big, so powerful and pointless that for some people it is a complete substitute for
life. – Andrew Brown
C In spite of this world-wide system of linkages, there is, at this very moment, a general feeling that
communication is breaking down everywhere, on an unparalleled scale. – David Bohm
D Animation can explain whatever the mind of man can conceive. This facility makes it the most
versatile and explicit means of communication yet devised for quick mass appreciation. – Walt
Disney
Cartoon 2
I have
nothing You should
to say blog about
it!
24 Which of the following best expresses the idea in the above cartoon?
A Blogs seem to have two magnetic poles, one attracting friends, the other repulsing relatives. –
Robert Brault
B Sometimes I imagine a get-together where I introduce my family to my blogger friends and my
blogger friends introduce my family to me. – Robert Brault
C Social media's greatest gift is in providing every person the forum to be themselves, speak their
heart and soul. – Jeb Dickerson
D Some of the good part of blog theory was that blogs would be spontaneous, whatever pops into
your mind, as a diary would be. – Gregg Easterbrook
25 Considering the phrase, ―Technology is building ever stronger walls between neighbours,‖ how does
Cartoon 2 give evidence to support this concept?
A The two people are having a hard time finding words to say to each other.
B The two people know they can talk best when online and blogging each other.
C They are unable to talk online; the wall is between their internet providers.
D They are unable to talk face-to-face; online conversation is preferable.
Cartoon 3
Honesty is big right

now. See how we
can spin that.
Cartoon 4
Then we invented cell phones and the more we used them,

the bigger our heads got!
26 How does Cartoon 3 ―lead us away from the subjective realities of our emotional and spiritual sides‖?
A By not knowing what humanity means; honesty is a part of being human

B By not knowing all the vices necessary to attract clients to your business
C By not knowing how to relate to others; honesty is good communication
D By not knowing the main tenets of being a successful business person
27 Aliens are often portrayed as little gray asexual beings with oversized heads and large eyes and small
mouths. These ―people‖ are also considered to have massive brains and a higher intelligence than
humankind. The comment in Cartoon 4 refers to how this intelligence, the ―bigger head,‖ came to be. If
this statement is to be believed, then how can humankind attain a higher level of being?
A Through communication
B Through brain function
C Through technology
D Through space
28 Cartoon 1 is a good representation of all of the cartoons‘ messages. Considering the comment ―Of the
modern technologies, the internet stands out as a positive influence on the people of the world, putting us
in contact with one another, helping us understand the magnitude of the common challenges we face.‖
what does Cartoon 1, as a representation of all the cartoons, tell us about this new type of ―personal
contact‖?
A Internet has helped to ease the problem of distant communication.

B Establishing personal contact is difficult even with technology.
C In today‘s world, personal contact means ―via technology.‖
D Establishing personal contact is easier now than it was ever before.
Unit 5
Questions 29 – 31
Read this excerpt from one of the most famous inspirational speeches. The speech by Winston Churchill was
presented to the House of Commons on June 4, 1940. It was also played over radio stations and was used to
inspire the people of the British Empire to fight against the Nazi regime. Churchill was the then Prime Minister
of the United Kingdom.
We Shall Fight on the Beaches
The enemy attacked on all sides with great strength and fierceness, and their main power, the power of their far
more numerous Air Forces, was thrown into the battle or else concentrated upon Dunkirk and the beaches...
hurled themselves in vain upon the ever-narrowing, ever-contracting appendix within which the British and
French Armies fought.
Meanwhile, the Royal Navy, with the willing help of countless merchant seamen, strained every nerve to
embark the British and Allied troops; 220 light warships and 650 other vessels were engaged. … never faltered
in their duty.
Meanwhile, the Royal Air Force, which had already been intervening in the battle, so far as its range would
allow, from home bases, now used part of its main metropolitan fighter strength, and struck at the German
bombers and at the fighters which in large numbers protected them. …
Many of our soldiers coming back have not seen the Air Force at work; they saw only the bombers which
escaped its protective attack. They underrate its achievements. …
I have, myself, full confidence that if all do their duty, if nothing is neglected, and if the best arrangements are
made, as they are being made, we shall prove ourselves once again able to defend our Island home, to ride out
the storm of war, and to outlive the menace of tyranny, if necessary for years, if necessary alone. At any rate,
that is what we are going to try to do. That is the resolve of His Majesty's Government-every man of them. That
is the will of Parliament and the nation. The British Empire and the French Republic, linked together in their
cause and in their need, will defend to the death their native soil, aiding each other like good comrades to the
utmost of their strength. Even though large tracts of Europe and many old and famous States have fallen or may
fall into the grip of the Gestapo and all the odious apparatus of Nazi rule, we shall not flag or fail. We shall go
on to the end, we shall fight in France, we shall fight on the seas and oceans, we shall fight with growing
confidence and growing strength in the air, we shall defend our Island, whatever the cost may be, we shall fight
on the beaches, we shall fight on the landing grounds, we shall fight in the fields and in the streets, we shall fight
in the hills; we shall never surrender, and even if, which I do not for a moment believe, this Island or a large part
of it were subjugated and starving, then our Empire beyond the seas, armed and guarded by the British Fleet,
would carry on the struggle, until, in God's good time, the New World, with all its power and might, steps forth
to the rescue and the liberation of the old.
29 What is Churchill‘s approach to fighting?
A To forge on; fight against the enemy; there is honour in war

B To fight the ―menace of tyranny‖ on the beaches of France
C To liberate the people of England by fighting in France
D To fight the enemy; to send the young to die in war
30 Churchill says ―Many of our soldiers coming back have not seen the Air Force at work; they saw only the
bombers which escaped its protective attack. They underrate its achievements‖. Which of the following
can be inferred from this statement?
A Churchill feared of a misunderstanding between the Army and the Air Force.
B Churchill acknowledged the effort put in by the Air Forces.
C The Army was disappointed with the Air Force‘s performance.
D The Air Force and the Army did their best to fight the Nazi army.
31 ―This famous speech by a famous leader went on to change the course of our histories.‖ What trait did
Churchill have that helped him in inspiring others to accept this war agenda?
A Belief in his vision

B Confidence on his army‘s strength
C Belief in the Government‘s resolves
D Belief in his actions
Unit 6
Questions 32 – 34
Read the excerpts from one of the most famous inspirational speeches. The excerpt is a part of a speech made by
Mahatma Gandhi in an Indian British court on March 23, 1922. He was on trial for his freedom; a case he lost
and from which was sentenced to six years in prison.
Non-Violence is the First Article of My Faith
Little do town-dwellers know how the semi-starved masses of Indians are slowly sinking to lifelessness. Little
do they know that their miserable comfort represents the brokerage they get for the work they do for the foreign
exploiter, that the profits and the brokerage are sucked from the masses. Little do they realise that the
government established by law in British India is carried on for this exploitation of the masses. No sophistry, no
jugglery in figures can explain away the evidence the skeletons in many villages present to the naked eye. I have
no doubt whatsoever that both England and the town-dwellers of India will have to answer, if there is a God
above, for this crime against humanity which is perhaps unequalled in history. The law itself in this country has
been used to serve the foreign exploiter… In my opinion the administration of the law is thus prostituted
consciously or unconsciously for the benefit of the exploiter.
… Section 124-A under which I am happily charged is perhaps the prince among the political sections of the
Indian Penal Code designed to suppress the liberty of the citizen. Affection cannot be manufactured or regulated
by law. If one has no affection for a person or thing one should be free to give the fullest expression of his
disaffection so long as he does not contemplate, promote or incite to violence. … I have no personal ill-will
against any single administrator; much less can I have any disaffection towards the King's person. But I hold it
to be a virtue to be disaffected towards a government which in its totality has done more harm to India than any
previous system. India is less manly under the British rule that she ever was before. Holding such a belief, I
consider it to be a sin to have affection for the system. …
In fact I believe that I have rendered a service to India and England by showing in non-cooperation the way out
of the unnatural state in which both are living. In my humble opinion, non-cooperation with evil is as much a
duty as is cooperation with good. But in the past, non-cooperation only multiplies evil and that as evil can only
be sustained by violence, withdrawal of support of evil requires complete abstention from violence. Non-
violence implies voluntary submission to the penalty for non-cooperation with evil. I am here, therefore, to
invite and submit cheerfully to the highest duty of a citizen. The only course open to you, the Judge and the
Assessors, is either to resign your posts and thus dissociate yourselves from the evil if you feel that the law you
are called upon to administer is an evil and that in reality I am innocent, or to inflict on me the severest penalty
if you believe that the system and the law you are assisting to administer are good for the people of this country
and that my activity is therefore injurious to the public weal.
32 What is Gandhi‘s approach to fighting?
A To fight violence with the help of non-violence.

B To liberate Indian people through peaceful activism
C To fight with non-violence against the British colonisers
D To liberate India from British colonisers
33 What does Gandhi refer to when he says,

―I consider it to be a sin to have affection for the system …‖?
A The sin is in continuing to care and respect a system that hardly cares for its people.
B The sin is in continuing to care and respect a system that only oppresses its subjects.
C The sin is in maintaining harmony with a system which restricts people‘s thought.
D The sin is in honouring a system that disregards native customs and laws.
34 ―I have no personal ill-will against any single administrator; much less can I have any disaffection
towards the King's person. But I hold it to be a virtue to be disaffected towards a government...‖ What
does the line mean?
A Gandhi did not hold any personal grudge against British people.
B Gandhi is not against the administrators but against the King‘s men.
C Gandhi is as much not affected towards administrators as he is against the government.
D Gandhi‘s disaffection is directed towards the British rule and not towards individuals.
Unit 7
Questions 35 – 36
In order to answer questions 35-36, the candidate must go through the following data.
In a complex program, we have a suspect subprogram X. It is suspected of doing a wrong operation O.
Three other subprograms A, B and C can possibly provide some information about the incident. The
subprograms may be of two types T or F.
Type T subprograms will check the correctness or otherwise of the query and respond truthfully.
Type F subprograms will check the correctness or otherwise of the query and lie.
The responses can be a 0 or 1, but it is not known as to whether 0 or 1 corresponds to True or False.
Additionally the following information is available:
Subprogram Query Response

A Did X not commit O? 1
B Did X not commit O? 0
B Are A and C of the same type? 1
C Will your response be 1 to this question? 1
35 Did X commit O?
A Yes
B No
C Yes or No: A, B provide contradictory answers.
D Yes or No: B provides contradictory information.
36 What are the possible types of A, B and C (in the given order)?
A T, F, T and T, F, F
B F, T, F
C T, F, T and F, T, T and F, T, F
D T, T, T and F, F, F
Unit 8
Question 37
The charts below have been taken from “New Guidelines for Promoting *VBACs”
*VBAC = vaginal birth after caesarean
The increase inC-Sections

The decline in vaginal births among women who have had Caesarean sections
is helping to fuel the steady increase in the nation's Caesarean rate.
Vaginal birth after Caesarean Total Caesarean Deliveries

Among women whose previous Percentage of all live births
delivery was a C-section by caesarean section
35
30 30
25 25
20 20
 
15 % 15
%
10 10
5 5
0 0
'89 '95 '00 '06 '89 '95 '00 '06
years  years 
37 We can extrapolate from the two charts that
A the percent of total caesarean deliveries between 1989 and 2006 declined as the percent of vaginal
births after a caesarean section declined.
B the percent of total caesarean sections between 1989 and 2006 increased as the percent of vaginal
births after a caesarean section increased.
C the percent of vaginal births after a caesarean declined as the percent of total caesarean sections
increased.
D the percent of vaginal births after a caesarean section increased although the percent of total
caesarean sections declined.
Unit 9
Question 38 - 39
The given observations are tomato yields (kilograms/plot) for four different levels of fertiliser amount. Four
different plots were tested for each fertiliser concentration.
Yield (kilograms)
Fertiliser
(kilograms)
Plot 1 Plot 2 Plot 3 Plot 4
2 59.5 53.3 56.8 63.1
4 65.2 69.1 62.8 74.5
8 71.7 78.8 73.9 89.0
16 74.6 78.5 71.0 87.3
38 Which of the following conclusions can be drawn?
A Increasing the amount of fertiliser always results in increased yield of tomatoes.

B The four plots responded very similarly to fertiliser concentration.
C The maximum useful amount of fertiliser in a plot is 16 kilograms.
D The maximum useful amount of fertiliser in a plot is 8 kilograms.
39 Plot 4 has noticeably higher tomato yields than the other three plots. Which of the following reasons, if
true, could not result in this effect?
A Tomato plants grow faster when in bright sunlight, and plot 4 was shaded most of the time.
B Tomato plants are more productive with more water, and plot 4 was close to a small stream.
C Tomato plants grow faster when insects are not present, and plot 4 had the fewest insects.
D Tomato plants grow slower when in bright sunlight, and plot 4 was shaded most of the time.
Unit 10
Questions 40 – 43
The following passage is an excerpt from ePharmacies.
Aspirin (popular brands: Bayer, Bufferin): The most common OTC pain reliever, also known as acetylsalicylic
acid, reacts with our blood chemistry to inhibit the enzyme cyclooxygenase, which helps to control headaches,
minor aches and pain, and inflammation. Additionally, aspirin is an anti-clotting drug which means that it‘s
good for people who are at high risk of heart problems related to blood clotting but could be dangerous for
people who already have thin blood. It‘s also bad for hemophiliacs and a bad choice for pain relief after you‘ve
had surgery. Aspirin therapy is also being used today in the treatment of heart disease. But as ubiquitous as
aspirin appears to be, it‘s not without risk — and it‘s not for everyone. For those with sensitive digestive
systems, it can cause stomach upset, heartburn and even dyspepsia. It‘s also been linked to Reye‘s syndrome, a
disease in children, when aspirin is used to relieve discomfort associated with fever.
Acetaminophen (popular brands: Tylenol): This pain reliever soothes headaches and lowers fevers, but it is not
an anti-inflammatory, so it won‘t do much to help with arthritis and other body aches and pains. The biggest
benefit of acetaminophen, relative to other headache pills, is that is won‘t irritate the lining of your stomach. If
you have acid reflux, ulcers or other digestive tract issues, acetaminophen is generally a clear choice over
aspirin. Acetaminophen is also considered safer for haemophiliacs and children. However, doctors warn that it‘s
easier to overdose on acetaminophen than aspirin — a concern underscored by the FDA panel‘s ruling. So be
sure to take this drug only as directed. Tylenol is generally considered to be a good pain relief option for people
who have muscles aches and pain but is primarily designed for people who want to get pain relief from
headaches. The drug is considered to have very few side effects. However, long-term use of Tylenol or use of
Tylenol while drinking alcohol can be high-risk for side effects like kidney, liver and organ damage and may
even be fatal.
Ibuprofen (popular brands: Advil, Motrin): Ibuprofen is chemically similar to aspirin and functions similarly as
well, but in lower doses, it tends to be less irritating to the upper digestive system. So if you find aspirin difficult
to stomach, but have body aches and pains that acetaminophen can‘t treat, ibuprofen is often the best answer for
ailments like arthritis, sunburns, sprains. This drug is also good for relief of body pain and fever. However, it is
milder than the other two drugs. This is good for people who are looking for a low risk of side effects but bad
for people who are suffering from serious pain since the positive effects of Advil don‘t last as long as those of
Aspirin or Tylenol. The one thing that Advil seems much better at treating than the other two drugs, is the
reduction of pain associated with menstrual cramps. It is also an anti-coagulant. Side effects include nausea and
dizziness and gastrointestinal bleeding.
Naproxen (popular brand: Naprosyn): Naproxen is a pain reliever with anti-inflammatory effects. It is not
aspirin, but some persons with sensitivity or allergy to aspirin may have the same reaction to naproxen.
Naproxen is especially helpful for the pain of bruises and sprains. Its anti-inflammatory effects make it useful
for tendonitis. Naproxen is usually well-tolerated by the stomach. The pills should be taken with food (if
possible) to prevent stomach upset. Naproxen does have some aspirin-like effects on the stomach, so persons
with active ulcers or sensitive stomachs should avoid naproxen. There is a mild anticoagulant (blood thinning)
effect lasting a few hours. Medicines of this class can reduce the effectiveness of some blood pressure
medications and diuretics (water pills).
40 A child has fallen and sprained his ankle. It is swelling up and the child is in considerable pain. What
over-the-counter pain relief will you give him?
A Tylenol
B Advil
C Aspirin
D Naproxen
41 A woman has always had adverse reactions to different types of pain medication. She has sliced her hand
on a knife while cutting up vegetables and is in a lot of pain. She doesn‘t want to take any pain relief but
she also needs to feel better. Because of her past allergic reactions and fears of the side effects of any
drug, what over-the-counter pain medication will the pharmacist recommend?
A Acetaminophen
B Naproxen
C Aspirin
D Ibuprofen
42 Patients who have a problem with high cholesterol have far too much fatty deposits stuck to the walls of
their arteries (arteries carry blood and oxygen to the body from the heart and lungs). High cholesterol
means that the person runs a high risk of these deposits breaking off the inside walls of the arteries and
going to the heart or lungs and causing conditions such as heart attacks or strokes. Because of this,
doctors recommend taking a daily dose of what over-the-counter drug?
A Tylenol
B Naproxen
C Aspirin
D Ibuprofen
43 Taking into account the side-effects of the drugs listed, arrange these drugs in decreasing order of their
preference as a choice of OTC medication? Also, an assumption is being made that the person taking
these over-the-counter drugs has no major health issues other than pain.
A Advil, Aspirin, Tylenol, Naproxen

B Naproxen, Tylenol, Aspirin, Advil
C Tylenol, Aspirin, Naproxen, Advil
D Advil, Naproxen, Tylenol, Aspirin
Unit 11
Questions 44 – 46
Various individuals were asked to complete the sentence “The future of social media is....” The following
comments are how some of them see social networking a few years down the line.
Comment 1
Sara Haines, Contributing Correspondent for "TODAY"
"The future of social media is... an integral part of television. Just as people have connected and talked about TV
shows like TODAY for 60 years, viewers will continue to use new technology to share and react to what they're
watching. From real time alerts as news is breaking to immediate feedback from our viewing audience, social
media has provided a platform where people around the world can contribute directly to the content of TODAY
by submitting ideas and, in turn, we can gauge the reaction to the stories we are covering."
44 Which of the following is true about the above statement?
A Sara is not much concerned with how social media evolves beyond her line of work.
B Sara is extremely enthusiastic about how social media is going to improve news reporting.
C Sara is apprehensive that social networking will soon take over true-blue journalism.
D Sara is of the notion that social networking will become the monopoly of businessmen.
Comment 2
Mike Monteiro, hilarious Twitter persona @Mike_FTW and Design Director at Mule Design Studio
"The future of social media is lying. As more and more services close their grip upon who we know, where we
are, and what we're doing, we'll come to the sobering realisation that we're just not that interesting. We'll create
personas to travel the world, meet interesting people, solve crimes and rescue kittens from burning houses. 'Who
you are' has never been as interesting as 'who you pretend to be'. The future of social media is the frontier of a
new fiction, and one that we can be an active, and sometimes unwilling participant in. We don't want real
identities, we want really good identities."
45 What can be inferred from the above statement of Monteiro‘s perception of the world around him?
A He finds people to be fake and insecure while being full of empty pride at the same time.
B He feels that people all around him are constantly trying to sell themselves to the world.
C He believes that human beings are on a never-ending quest to achieve perfection.
D He is under the impression that advertising is what makes the world go around.
46 Which of the following would best describe Mike‘s disposition as can be inferred from his statement?
A Pessimist but pragmatic

B Cynical with an acerbic wit
C Sceptical of anything good
D Apprehensive of technology
Unit 12
Questions 47 and 48
The following extract has been taken from Nature‟s Gift by Claudia Krizay.
Being the only flower bearing yellow petals

Growing tall in the centre of nature‘s garden
Reflecting the sunlight and dancing in
The gentle early springtime breeze -
My stem would bend perhaps and 5
Perhaps touch the thorns of pink and red roses -
Though only for the moment -
Roses being the most popular blossoms,
People would come and cut them down,
Place them in a vase where they would 10
Fragrantly and aesthetically decorate their home -
For just a few days before they wither and die -
Being a wildflower, no one cares to cut me down-
Today all of the other flowers have seemingly disappeared,
Either removed by residents of nearby homes or 15
Their petals blown away by an occasional gust of wind -
I remain alone amongst grasses and forever growing weeds.
47 What do the first two lines of the poem signify?
A The yellow flower is proud of its existence.

B The yellow flower is the real gift of nature.
C The yellow flower is emphasising its individuality.
D The yellow flower is the centre of attraction in the garden.
48 What does the wild flower mean when it says ―I remain alone amongst grasses and forever growing
weeds‖?
A Not only man, but nature too dislikes a wild flower.

B No one admires the beauty of a wild flower.
C The wild flower will always remain a loner.
D The flower will be called wild even if it‘s beautiful.
Unit 13
Questions 49 – 52
Questions 49-52 are based on a letter to the editor about the plight of Australian dingoes written by NicPapalia,
President of the West Australian Dingo Association, Balga, Western Australia.
The dingo is Australian wildlife but it is the only wildlife not given protection in this country.
Lyn Watson from the Dingo Discovery Centre outside of Melbourne should be commended for foresight and
wisdom in her attempts to send dingoes to international countries to save the gene pool, before the only dingoes
left are relics next to a thylacine in the museum.
When the approximate population of dingoes living on Fraser Island number 140, it is nothing short of total
irresponsibility and idiocy that 56 of these dingoes have been killed since 2001 in a supposed sanctuary location.
When there are such a small number of dingoes living on Fraser Island and there have been so many dingoes
killed, great concern for the dwindling gene pool would be a fact for anyone remotely worried about
conservation. A public that insists on abusing the privilege of this World Heritage place should be forced to
abide by stringent management and rules.
Other World Heritage destinations are kept pristine. A strictly controlled population of humans is brought on
and off the location. First and foremost come the wildlife in any action plan. World Heritage should possibly
send in their own managers to Fraser Island, as the legacy of killing 56 dingoes since 2001 is nothing short of
irresponsible.
In the last 12 months nine dingoes have been killed, and this includes pups. Actions from the supposed carers,
the rangers on Fraser Island, speak louder than words. No responsible justification can be made for this atrocity.
The culling of so many dingoes and their pups highlights the hypocrisy in the departments that are supposed to
be protecting and saving the dingo from extinction. Australia‘s legacy of dingo extermination is a national
disgrace. The latest killing of dingoes highlights a lack of responsible care and knowledge of the species.
Dingoes are on our turf, they are slaughtered every day and have been put on the International Union for
Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources‖ Red List of Threatened Species as ―vulnerable‖. They are our
top land predator and keep harmony in the ecosystem. Where dingoes are now extinct we have a major
imbalance with pigs, goats, cats and foxes.
Dingoes are here for a reason and are just as important as whales.
49 At the time the author writes the letter, there were
A less than 100 dingoes surviving on Fraser Island.

B only 140 dingoes alive on Fraser Island.
C more dingoes in foreign countries than in Australia.
D more dingoes in Australia than in foreign countries.
50 Which of the following abuses by rangers is cited by the author?
A Rangers are poaching wildlife on Fraser Island.

B Rangers allow hunters to poach dingoes on Fraser Island.
C Rangers allow the public to exterminate dingoes, including pups, on Fraser Island.
D Rangers kill dingoes, including pups, legally on Fraser Island
51 We can safely infer from the passage that dingoes are killed in Australia because
A dingoes pose a threat to farmers and householders.

B dingoes are highly predatory and extremely prolific breeders.
C Australians simply hate and kill dingoes.
D the Fraser Island world heritage site is poorly managed.
52 With respect to the conservation status of dingoes, we can safely infer from the passage that they
A are legally protected by international law.

B are on the brink of extinction although they have protected status.
C have the same protection status as whales.
D have not been given legal protection despite being considered at risk.
Unit 14
Questions 53 and 54
The following passage is a review on Maurice Sendak‟s controversial book for children, „In the Night Kitchen‟
which was banned in many countries.
Mickey is a toddler who dreams of floating out of his pyjamas, ―past the moon and his mama and papa sleeping
tight‖ and into a bowl of batter in the night kitchen. This is where, we learn, bakers bake until dawn ―so we can
have cake in the morn.‖ The bakers don‘t seem to mind they are now baking up a ―Mickey cake,‖ but suddenly
Mickey pokes through the batter and jumps out and into the bread dough. There, he pounds the dough until it
turns into an airplane: ―Then Mickey in dough was just on his way.‖ He flies into a jug of milk, then slides
down the side, and gets back into bed all ―cake free and dried.‖ ―And that‘s why,‖ Sendak concludes, ―thanks to
Mickey, we have cake every morning.‖
This book has horrified people presumably because of the nudity of this little boy. One suspects, however, that
the young listeners to this book (most of who would be read to, rather than being readers of), would not see the
pictures as provocative. Personally, I find the artwork gloriously colourful and ebulliently fantastical. I love this
book. In The Art of Maurice Sendak, the author discusses all his childhood impressions that made their way into
the creation of In the Night Kitchen. Sendak has reported that there are even intimations of the Holocaust, from
the baker sporting a Hitler moustache, to the attempt by the bakers to put the little boy into the oven.
But I find it doesn‘t matter much to know the background of the pictures. One can approach the book in
innocence and still fall in love with the main character Mickey and the packed, endlessly fascinating artwork: an
art, Sendak says, that ―encompasses the Empire State Building, syncopated Disney cartoons, and aluminium-
clad, comic-book heroes.‖
The story itself is inspirational and happy: Mickey dreams of peril and a daring self-rescue in a night time
abandoned bakery. He wakes up safe and happy the next morning, feeling more powerful and satisfied than
before.
53 Which of the following is the unlikeliest reason behind banning the book?
A The author has drawn reference from something as controversial as the Holocaust.
B The author has drawn a caricature of a prominent public figure such as Hitler.
C The author has created a story which is absolutely unrealistic and very shallow.
D The author has used the gruesome image of a little boy being baked in an oven.
54 Which of the following statement best undermines the claims of nudity in the book?
A ―young listeners to this book (most of who would be read to, rather than being readers of)‖
B ―the young listeners to this book would not see the pictures as provocative‖
C ―the artwork gloriously colourful and ebulliently fantastical‖
D ―One can approach the book in innocence and still fall in love with the main character Micke
Unit 15
Questions 55 – 57
The data in the table given below deals with the treatments of eight patients on a certain day.
A doctor has appointments with eight different patients on a particular day. Four of these patients require
intramuscular injections, while the others do not. One of the eight patients has just begun consulting the doctor,
while the others have been under treatment for one, two, three, four, five, six and seven months respectively.
The doctor uses a computer program to keep track of appointments. But due to some bug only the following is
being displayed:
Appointment Time Patient Name Intra-Muscular Injection Months under Treatment

Cairns Yes
Graham Yes
Mike Yes
Shane Yes
Arnold No
John No
Lara No 0
Tim No
Apart from this information, the doctor can remember that
1. All appointments are between 14:00 hrs and 22:00 hrs.
2. Successive appointments are spaced an hour apart.
3. Cairns have been treated for a lesser time than Graham.
4. Shane and John respectively, do not have an appointment at 18:00 hrs and 17:00 hrs respectively.
5. Either John or Graham has his appointment at 14:00 hrs
6. Tim has been under treatment for twice as long as the person with appointment at 18:00 hrs.
7. Mike has been treated for two more months than Cairns, who in turn has been treated for two more
months than the person with appointment at 20:00 hrs.
8. Persons with appointments at 14:00, 16:00 and 17:00 hrs do not require injections.
9. Arnold's appointment follows the person receiving injections after treatment for seven months.
10. Lara's appointment is immediately after Graham's.
11. The person under treatment for six months has his/her appointment after Lara's.
55 Who has been treated for the longest period?
A Shane B Arnold
C Tim D Mike
56 Who has been receiving treatment for two months?
A Cairns B John
C Arnold D Graham
57 Who have/has an appointment between 15:00 hrs and 18:00 hrs and have/has been under treatment for
more than four months?
A Graham and Mike B Graham and Shane

C Tim D Mike and Shane
Unit 16
Questions 58 – 59
Questions are based on the graphic below comparing prevalence rates amongst males and females of four
different types of disciplinary action; physical punishment, isolation in the form of sending the child to his or
her room, curtailing or removing privileges and talking to them.
58 Assuming that the data above accurately represents the portion of the youth population that receives
discipline in each of the countries studied, which group amongst the following receives the least
discipline?
A Males and females from India

B Females from the UK
C Males from Australia
D Males from the US
59 We see that besides country of origin, gender plays a role in the method of discipline selected and the
percent of young people disciplined within the countries portrayed. Clearly, as regards gender and
discipline,
A a higher percentage of males than females in the 16 countries shown receives discipline.
B gender has the least impact on how children are disciplined in Canada and Italy.
C a lower percentage of Chinese females than males receive discipline.
D no countries use physical discipline on their females while all use it on their males.
Unit 17
Questions 60 – 64
The following is an extract of the script of an Australian short film titled „Dead Planet‟ by Alicia Gallavin. The
setting is that of the smog infested city of New York: year 2050.
[Molly, a young biologist/technician is walking down the streets, making her way to the sports dome for the
government‘s latest scheduled survival seminar.
Suddenly the phone rings. Molly pauses, takes out her phone to answer it. It is her work colleague and friend
Josephine.]
Josephine: ―Hey, are you on your way to the survival seminar? The governments are really fired up today!‖
Molly: ―Yes I will be there in ten minutes! Despite what this latest seminar is all about, I don‘t know how
much of a difference it is going to make for us all now‖.
Josephine: ―What do you mean?‖
Molly looks around the contaminated streets of New York. Watching and looking at the only species alive,
humanity was suffering big time. Slowly, but surely, dying on the streets. Millions and billions of people all over
the place either going rebellious by looting and rioting over the city streets, or choosing the other extreme, by
giving up the will to live completely, by taking off their protective clothing and breathing masks, and sitting
their place on the dark, gloomy side streets to seal their fates.
Molly: ―No matter what we do now, it will not help us very much. We will all become extinct eventually‖.
Pause. No-one says anything for a couple of minutes, before the conversation continues in bleak attitude.
Josephine: ―Well I will leave you to deliver the happy news to the parliament, and to the people. I am sure
they will be real happy to hear our results! We will see you there, bye for now!‖
The phone clicks and then goes silent. Molly puts away the phone in her pocket, then continues to walk through
the dark, gloomy, smog filled streets. As Molly nears the dome, she stops, turns and looks to see the museum
next to the dome. The display sign was showing pictures of living species that used to live before extinction.
Molly turns to look at the dome then looks back at the museum. She then makes up her mind to delay going to
the seminar to journey through the millennium museum, she walks straight to the museum entrance and
approaches the facility.
60 What does the term ―survival seminar‖ indicate?
A Surviving on this planet is the greatest challenge to mankind.
B Developing life protecting strategies is the only means of survival.

C Only a proper discussion can help man survive the oddities of life.
D Survival of the fittest is the ultimate solution to the threat to mankind.
61 The scenario of the streets of New York suggest that
A people are finding it difficult to survive.

B people have lost all their patience.
C people are willingly accepting death.
D people are trying to avert or accept their fate.
62 Why does Molly express her doubt over the result of the seminar?
A Because earlier strategies failed to protect the other species

B Because man, the only species alive, was also being affected
C Because the survival conditions were unfit for humans to exist
D Because the death of mankind was inevitable in such a situation
63 Which of the following best describes the thought behind the passage?
A Man is the measure of all things.

B Man is the most dangerous animal.
C Man is the maker of his own destiny.
D Man fails to realise the mistakes he commits.
64 Why did Molly decide to delay going to the seminar?
A She wanted to visit the museum for a change.

B She knew that the survival seminars were useless.
C She wanted to take a look down the ages that have passed.
D She wished to study the journey of mankind over the ages.
Unit 18
Questions 65 and 66
Questions 65 and 66 are based on the following cartoon.
Our marriage Our marriage

is in trouble. is in trouble.
We need to I better keep
talk about it! my mouth shut!
65 The joke in this cartoon arises from
A the fact that both the speakers are trying to save their marriage.
B the woman trying to save the marriage and the man deciding otherwise.
C the difference in the thought processes of men and women.
D both the speakers wishing to save their marriage but not talking about it.
66 The above cartoon gives the impression that
A men are escapists when it comes to trouble in relationships.

B men are generally peace-loving and timid creatures.
C men feel that problems always resolve on their own accord.
D men feel that relationships are not worth sparing too much thought.
Unit 19
Questions 67 – 70
The following extract has been taken from “Basic Guide on Using Herbs”.
Need flavour? Add herbs. They are the simplest way to boost the character of a dish. Use them in baked recipes
too. When choosing fresh herbs, look for herbs with a vibrant colour and aroma. Black spots, off odours, and
yellow leaves indicate old, tired herbs that are losing much of their flavour. Farmer's markets carry field-grown
herbs, which have a stronger aroma than the greenhouse herbs usually sold in grocery stores.
When washing herbs, put them in a large bowl of cool water and swish them about with your hands to loosen
any bits of grit. Lift the herbs out of the water, leaving the grit in the bottom of the bowl. If the herbs are very
gritty, repeat the process. Then, spin them dry in a salad spinner or blot dry by rolling up in a kitchen towel.
To store those tender fresh herbs like parsley, cilantro, basil, dill and tarragon, just remove any rubber bands or
fasteners from the herbs, and then trim the stems. Put the unwashed herbs, stem side down, in a tall container
with enough water to cover the stems. Cover loosely with a plastic bag, then store on the top shelf of the
refrigerator (the warmest part) for up to 5 days. The exception here is basil which can be stored loosely covered
in a container of water at room temperature to protect its delicate leaves from the cold, which could cause them
to turn brown. As for those hardy fresh herbs like thyme, rosemary and sage, simply wrap the stem ends in a
damp paper towel. Then put the herbs in a plastic bag and refrigerate unsealed for up to 2 weeks.
The Basic
To dry fresh herbs - tie hardy herbs such as thyme and rosemary together in a bouquet. Then hang it upside
down in a dry, well-ventilated area until crumbly, 3 to 6 days. If the herb has seeds you'd like to catch for future
plantings, tie a bag around the stems so that the seeds fall into the bag as the herb dries. To dry tender herbs,
such as basil and parsley, spread them on a mesh screen and leave in a dry, well-ventilated area until crumbly.
Then store in airtight containers.
To coarsely chop fresh herbs - stuff the leaves into a glass, insert the pointed end of scissors into the herbs, and
snip, rotating the scissors 90 degrees with each snip. Or just tear the leaves into pieces with your fingertips.
To shred fresh herbs - stack the leaves no higher than 1/4 inch. Roll the stack lengthwise into a cigar shape. Cut
crosswise into paper-thin slices, also known as chiffonade.
To mince fresh herbs - use a large, tapered chef's knife, and quickly chop back and forth across the herbs, using
the point of the knife as a pivot. Or tear the herbs coarsely and chop them in the work bowl of a mini food
processor.
To choose dried herbs - the flavours of hardy herbs such as rosemary, thyme, and sage are well reserved by
drying. But don't waste your money on dried basil, parsley or cilantro. The delicate flavours of these tender
herbs fade when commercially dried. If possible, smell dried herbs before buying them. The best-tasting dried
herbs will have a powerful aroma. If they don't, pass them by.
To store dried herbs - keep them tightly sealed, away from heat and light. Next to the stove in clear containers is
the worst place. For easy access, store opaque bottles of dried herbs in alphabetical order in a closed cabinet. To
keep track of freshness, write an "expiration date" on the bottles. They usually lose most of their flavour within
a year of opening the bottle.
To substitute dried for fresh - generally, use about one-third as much dried as fresh. But avoid adding more than
a teaspoon or two of any dried herb to a dish, unless you are cooking in large quantities. Excessive amounts of
dried herbs can easily overpower the other flavours in the food.
Time Savers
To quickly remove leaves from hardy fresh herbs - for thyme, rosemary and oregano, pluck off the tender top
leaves, then pinch the top of the stem and run your fingers down the length of the stem to strip off the rest of the
leaves.
To quickly dry fresh herbs - place fresh herb leaves in a single layer between paper towels. Microwave on
medium power for 2 to 4 minutes, or until almost dry. Set on a rack and let sit overnight until herbs are crumbly.
Place in a tightly sealed container and store in a cool and dark place. Use as you would store-bought dried herbs.
Flavour Tips
To get the best flavour from fresh herbs - add tender herbs such as basil, parsley, cilantro and dill toward the end
of cooking time. Or sprinkle on top of the finished dish. Cooking these tender herbs rapidly diffuses their
flavour. Add strong-flavoured hardy herbs such as thyme, marjoram or rosemary earlier in the cooking process
so that they have time to mellow. Added at the end, these hardy herbs may be too overpowering.
To get more flavour from dried herbs - just before using, rub dried herbs between your fingers to release their
flavour-carrying essential oils. Also add dried herbs at the beginning of cooking time so that they have a chance
to heat up and release more flavour.
67 One particular pasta recipe requires addition of basil, parsley, and marjoram, all in dried form. How and
in what order should these herbs be added to the pot?
A Break up marjoram at the beginning; break up parsley and basil near the end.
B Break up parsley and basil at the beginning; break up marjoram near the end.
C Rub between fingers; at the beginning, add marjoram; add basil and parsley near the end.
D Rub between fingers; beginning with basil and parsley; add marjoram near the end.
68 Why are herbs stored in airtight containers?
A To preserve the aroma of the plants

B To preserve the colour of the plants
C To preserve the oils in the plants
D To preserve the age of the dried plant
69 A jar of bay leaves is found lying at the back of a kitchen cabinet and on examining the date written on
the jar, it is found that it is lying there for three years. Which of the following is the best way to decide
whether the leaves are still good or not?
A Brightness of stems
B Brightness of leaves
C Rubbing crispness
D Strong aroma
70 From the tips and advices enumerated above, it could be concluded that
A using different kinds of herbs for enhancing the taste of food is a prevalent practice.
B dried herb boosts the taste of a dish as much as is done by fresh herb.
C proper storage of dried herbs is a must to ensure its purpose is served.
D fresh herb dried in microwave is as good as the one dried in Sun.
Unit 20
Questions 71 – 75
Read the following excerpts from articles on the cursive writing debate taking place in the United States and
then answer the questions below.
Article 1
Cursive, foiled again! How not to write a wrong.
…But state Senators Tim Skinner of Terre Haute and Jean Leising of Oldenburg are considering legislation to
make cursive mandatory again. Leising says she is appalled that students may no longer learn the writing style
that has connected generations of Americans. We share her concern, and not just for tradition's sake. Certainly,
keyboarding skills are important, but not so complex to teach that writing should be pushed aside. And
mastering penmanship makes the brain work in ways that will help students in other areas. …
…The federal and state governments are exercising more and more control, however, through efforts such as No
Child Left Behind, Race to the Top and Istep+. We are getting closer to uniform standards and a national
curriculum.
Article 2
Aurora Dreyling‟s “Read Between the Lines …”
Attention, everyone: I have tragic news. The Indiana Department of Education will no longer require cursive
writing to be taught in all Indiana schools, starting next fall.
Wait, what? You don't care about kids not learning to write in cursive? Hey, me neither. Other than signing my
name, I can't even remember the last time I needed to write in cursive. My textbooks aren't written in cursive.
Assignments handed out by professors aren't written in cursive. I'm willing to believe this trend of not seeing
things in cursive extends to the workplace too.
Contrast this with another technology related initiative to be proposed in the next session. The Indiana General
Assembly is looking at moving to iPads to cut down on the amount of paper wasted in the Statehouse. A recent
study found that a single bill in the General Assembly generates as much as 11,400 pages of paper. Much of it
gets recycled, but wouldn't it be great if it was never used in the first place? Enter the iPad. Instead of printing
all those bills and amendments, the proposal to go paperless and have all that information on an iPad is being
considered for the General Assembly. A pilot program has been approved for the upcoming session, and
legislators will test out iPads instead of having their copies of bills printed. Not only is it expected to save paper,
but money too - printing so much paper actually costs more money for the state than purchasing iPads.
Article 3
Should cursive be written out of the curriculum?
A poll from our readers indicates that the overwhelming majority of people passionate enough to weigh in on
the topic say it shouldn't. Eighty-two percent of our (more than 400, as of this post) readers agreed that cursive
writing, in some way, still has value, and 18 percent said it should cease to be taught…
I was the student who sat at Dickey Hill Elementary School (not too, too long ago) and constructed the cursive
alphabet (upper case and lower case) in dotted lines, just to trace them for practice. My notebooks were filled
with the graffiti of perfecting my signature - which I considered the only thing other than my fingerprints that
secured my identity.
In the city, many sources have offered their thoughts on the topic (it was quite a talker), and I wanted to feature
one below. It was a perspective I hadn't thought of one of what priorities should be in an urban school district.
―I‘m in the camp that agrees that in this day and age, in this technology-driven society, that cursive has less
relevance than ever," said Anthony Japzon, principal of the high-performing Medfield Heights Elementary
School, who also taught cursive as a third-grade teacher.
"I would say that you are a private school, a successful school, and 98 percent of your school is on grade level,
then you can teach cursive. But, in today‘s society, we don't do our children any favours- if they‘re a grade or
two below grade level in reading and math - spending any time teaching cursive."
71 When considering various types of learning styles (visual, auditory, kinesthetic), what advantage does
learning cursive writing have?
A Cursive writing helps students who have physical difficulties; it promotes dexterity.
B Cursive writing helps students who have mental difficulties; it promotes memory.
C Cursive writing trains the brain to accommodate multiple ways of learning.
D Cursive writing trains the writer‘s brain in lower and higher functions.
72 In Article 1, what does the author mean by the expression ―No Child Left Behind‖?
A Uniform standards for learners of all races

B Uniform standards for learners of all types
C Uniform standards for learners of all cultures
D Uniform standards for learners of all ages
73 According to Aurora Dreyling, what is the advantage of having iPads in the classrooms?
A They enable using less paper and are cost-efficient.

B They last longer than paper and are easy to share.
C They save time spent in writing and are time-efficient.
D They are easy to use and are good for all ages.
74 What does the author of Article 3 deem as an advantage of learning cursive writing?
A It increases dexterity of the hand.

B It enhances the power of memorisation.
C It is a way to remember the past.

D It is a creative form of identity.
75 What do the authors of all three articles agree upon?
A Technology is changing the way we learn, record, and disseminate information.

B Time is changing the way we learn, record, and disseminate information.
C Culture is changing the way we learn, record, and disseminate information.
D School boards are changing the way we learn, record, and disseminate information.
Section 2
Written Communication
Directions
3. You may NOT make any mark on the answer document during perusal.
WRITING TEST A
Consider the following comments and develop a piece of writing in response to one or more of them.
Your writing will be judged on the quality of your response to the theme; how well you organise and present
your point of view, and how effectively you express yourself. You will not be judged on the views or attitudes
you express.
*******
Trust is to human relationships what faith is to gospel living. It is the beginning place, the foundation upon
which more can be built. Where trust is, love can flourish.
Barbara Smith
Trust no one unless you have eaten much salt with him.
Cicero
Trust in me, just in me

Shut your eyes and trust in me
You can sleep safe and sound
Knowing I am around.
A song from the movie „The Jungle Book‟
Men trust their ears less than their eyes.

Herodotus
Learning to trust is one of life's most difficult tasks.

Isaac Watts
WRITING TEST B
Consider the following comments and develop a piece of writing in response to one or more of them.
Your writing will be judged on the quality of your response to the theme; how well you organise and present
your point of view, and how effectively you express yourself. You will not be judged on the views or attitudes
you express.
*******
Ticking away the moments that make up a dull day

You fritter and waste the hours in an offhand way
Kicking around on a piece of ground in your home town
Waiting for someone or something to show you the way
„Time‟ by Pink Floyd
Everything happens to everybody sooner or later if there is time enough.
George Bernard Shaw
Oh! Do not attack me with your watch. A watch is always too fast or too slow. I cannot be dictated to by a
watch.
Jane Austen‟s „Mansfield Park‟
These times of ours are serious and full of calamity, but all times are essentially alike. As soon as there is life
there is danger.
Ralph Waldo Emerson, Public and Private Education
We must use time as a tool, not as a crutch.
John F. Kennedy
Writing Test: Answer Document
Section 3
Reasoning in Biological and Physical Sciences

Directions
3. You may NOT make any mark on the OMR sheet during perusal.
Unit 1
Questions 1 – 2
In a certain habitat, rodents and ants both eat seeds. In an experiment, results of which are shown in the graph,
rodents are removed from some enclosures and the influence of this removal on ant population is observed. It is
assumed that there is a competition between the two populations for the seeds.
Graph 1
Figure 1
1 What are the changes that are expected to be observed in the ant population after the removal of rodents,
according to the information above?
A Changes are not expected.

B Ant population should decrease.
C Ant population is expected to grow indefinitely.
D Ant population is expected to decrease after some time.
2 Which of the following statements is true?
A Rodents have a direct negative influence on the ant population.

B Rodents have an indirect negative influence on the ant population.
C The fact that rodents and ants prefer seeds of different sizes affects their competition.
D Rodents directly influence the ant population in a positive manner.
Unit 2
Questions 3 – 9
The rate of a reaction is defined as the rate of change of concentration of the reactant or the product with time.
For a reaction of this type, aA  bB  cC  dD , the rate of the reaction can be expressed as
1 [A] 1 [B] 1 [C] 1 [D]

Rate     
a t b t c t d t

where, [ ] denotes the concentrations in moles litre-1 and denotes the changes in concentrations of A, B, C
t
and D with time.
a, b, c and d are the respective stoichiometric coefficients.
In simple reactions, the rate law can be expressed as rate = k [ ]n,
where, [ ] represents molar concentration of the reactant(s) or products and ‗n‘ is an experimental quantity
called the order of the reaction. The order may be zero, a fraction, or an integer. The constant ‗k‘ is called the
rate constant.
3 In chemical kinetics, a zero order reaction is one in which the rate of change of concentration of reactants
A varies inversely with the initial concentration.

B varies exponentially with the initial concentration.
C varies linearly with the initial concentration.
D remains unaffected by the initial concentration.
4 For a first order reaction, the plots of which of the following quantities is a straight line? (c = concentration
and t = time)
A log c versus t B log c versus log t

C log c versus 1/t D c versus t
5 For the reaction, 2NO(g)  2H2 (g)  N2 (g)  2H2O(g) , the rate expression can be written in the following
ways.
d[H 2 O] d[NO] d[H 2 ]

d[N 2 ]
 k1[NO][H 2 ] ;  k 2 [NO][H 2 ] ;   k 3 [NO][H 2 ] ;   k 4 [NO][H 2 ]
dt dt dt dt
What is the relationship between k1 , k 2 , k3 and k 4 ?
A k1  k 2  k3  k 4 B k1  2k 2  k3  k 4
C k1  2k 2  k3  2k 4 D 2k1  k 2  k3  k 4
6 The units of rate and rate constant for a certain reaction are the same. What will be the order of this
reaction?
A 0 B 1
C 2 D 3
7 For the reaction 2A  B  C  2D (which is in the first order for both A and B), the rate expression will be
given by which of the following?
A k[A]2 [B]
B k[A][B]2
C k[A]2
D k[A][B]
8 The following reaction was studied at 25°C in a benzene solution containing 0.1 M pyridine.
CH3OH  (C6 H5 )3 CCl  CH3OC(C6 H5 )3  HCl

(A) (B) (C)
The following sets of data were obtained:
[A]0 M [B]0 M Rate (moles litre-1)

1 0.1000 0.10000 0.0050
2 0.1000 0.2000 0.0200
3 0.0500 0.10000 0.0025
What is the rate law for the above reaction?
A k[A][B] B k[A][B]2
C k[A]2[B] D k[B]2
9 For the reaction, 3BrO  BrO3  2Br  in an alkaline medium, the second order rate constant at 80°C

with respect to BrO was found to be 0.056 litre mol-1s-1. What will be the rate constant when the rate is
written for Br  ?
A 0.037 litre mol1s1

B 0.010 litre mol1s1
C 0.028 litre mol1s1
D 0.056 litre mol1s1
Unit 3
Questions 10 –14
Consider a block of mass ‗M‘ placed over a rough inclined plane of inclination θ as shown in Figure 1.
Figure 1
The forces acting on the block can be resolved into two components, one along the inclined plane and another
perpendicular to it. Mg sinθ acts along the the inclined plane, while Mg cosθ acts perpendicular to it. Friction
acts upon the plane. If the block is at rest, then clearly the friction is static friction. Value of static friction can
vary from zero to a maximum of μN.
Figure 2
The inclined plane provides the tangential contact force, the friction force f and the normal contact force N. In
this situation N = Mg cosθ. If the block is at rest then, surely, friction balances Mg sinθ.
If the inclination of the plane θ is increased, slowly and gradually, then it is seen that the block is about to move
down the inclined plane for a particular larger value of θ. At this moment the static friction is maximum, equal
to μN. If θ is further increased, then Mg sinθ component being greater than the friction (specifically called
kinetic friction), the block will move down the plane with acceleration due to the net force (Mg sinθ - f), where
kinetic friction being always equal to μN.
Use sin2θ + cos2θ = 1
10 If the block does not move, what is the value of friction force f ?
A Mg sinθ B Mg cosθ
C μMg cosθ D μ Mg
11 What is the net force exerted by the inclined plane on the block when the block is at rest?
A zero B Mg
C Mg cosθ D μ Mg cosθ
12 When the inclination θ is slowly and gradually increased at a particular moment, the block is on the verge
of motion. If  = coefficient of static friction between the plane and the block, what will be the value of
?
A secθ B sinθ
C cosθ D tanθ
13 If, for a certain inclined plane, the block is about to move when μ = tan θ, but adjusting the value of θ
such that θ = φ and tan φ = 2μ, what will be the magnitude of acceleration of the block down the plane?
g sin 
A B gsin 
2
C g(sin  cos ) D g
14 Suppose the block is at rest on the inclined plane and Mg sin  is less than the maximum value of static
friction N .
An external force F is applied on the block such that the block just moves. What is the minimum value of
F for which the block will start to move?
A Mg sin 
B Mgsin   Mg cos 
C Mgsin   Mg cos 
D Mg cos 
Unit 4
Questions 15 – 16
Figure 1
Figure 1 depicts how the p53 protein performs various functions in a cell.
Biological systems contain many types of regulatory circuits, both positive and negative. As in other contexts,
positive and negative do not imply that consequences of the feedback have either good or bad final effects. A
negative feedback loop is one that tends to slow down a process, whereas a positive feedback loop tends to
accelerate it. Feedback is also central to the operations of genes and gene regulatory networks. Repressor (Lac
repressor in this case) and activator proteins are used to create genetic operons which are identified as feedback
loops. These feedback loops may be positive or negative. Study the figure and answer the following questions.
― ‖ denotes an inhibitory effect and ― ‖ denotes a stimulatory effect.
15 Which mechanism that is widely used in a living system, has been depicted in the figure?
A Elimination of unnecessary products

B Negative feedback loop
C Slight changes in structures causing significant changes in function
D Cell‘s response to outer stimuli
16 What would be the consequence of deletion of p14 gene?
A Cell‘s inability to respond appropriately to various stimuli

B Decreased production of MDM2
C Increased production of p53
D Decreased production of p53
Unit 5
Questions 17 – 22
The half-life (t1/2 ) of a reaction is defined as the time taken by the reactant(s) to reduce to one half of its/their
initial concentration.
For a first order reaction, the rate law (in integrated form) is as given below:
c  co ekt , where c = concentration at time t, co = initial concentration and k = first order rate constant.
c 1  kt
At t  t1/2 and c  o , the rate equation is given by, co  co e 1/2
2 2
1
  ekt1/2
2
 ln 2  kt1/2
 2.303log 2  kt1/2
0.693
 t1/2 
k
17 What will be the relation between the rate of decay of reactants A and B with half lives of 5 days and 10
days respectively?
A Decay rate of A will be half of B.

B Decay rate of B will be half of A.
C Decay rates of A and B will not depend on their half-lives.
D Decay rate of A will be four times that of B.
2 1
18 The rate constant of a first order reaction is 2 x10 min . Its half-life is
A 2.303 min. B 2 x 10-2 min.

C 34.65 min. D 69.3 min.
19 For a first order reaction, the half-life is 50 seconds. Which of the following is true for this data?
A The reaction is completed in 100 seconds.

B The reaction begins after 50 seconds.
C After 50 seconds, the quantity of the remaining reactant is halved.
D The same quantity of reactant is consumed for every 50 seconds of the reaction.
20 In a second order reaction A  B, if the concentration of A is doubled, the half-life of the reaction will
A be halved. B remain unchanged.

C be doubled. D be quadrupled.
21 Sucrose decomposes into glucose and fructose in an acid solution following the first order rate law. The
half-life of this reaction is 3.0 hours at 25°C. What fraction of sucrose remains after 6 hours?
(Antilog -1.386 = 0.041) .
A 0.001 B 0.501
C 0.041 D 0.125
For the reactions A  B   C and B  C   D , what should be the rate equation for the formation
1 k 3 k
22 k 2
of D? (Assume d[C]/dt = 0)
d[D] k1 k 3 C A C B d[D] k1 k 2 k 3 C A C B
A  B 
dt k 2  k 3 CB dt k 2  k 3CB
2
d[D] k1 k 3 C A C B d[D] k1 k 3 C A C B
C  D 
dt k 2  k 3CB dt k 2 k 3  k 3 CB
Unit 6
Questions 23 – 25
A very small cube of weight F2 is placed inside a funnel rotating about a vertical axis at a constant angular
velocity,  revolutions per second.
Figure 1
The wall of the funnel makes an angle  with the horizontal. There is sufficient friction present between the
cube and the funnel, such that the cube is at rest relative to the funnel.
Figure 2
Figure 2 depicts the different forces acting on the cube. Normal force (F 3), weight (F2) and centrifugal force (F1)
are drawn. F2 and F1 are resolved along the inside of the funnel and perpendicular to it. So, it is seen that, if F 2
sinθ is greater than F1 cosθ for a low value of angular velocity then the cube has a tendency to move down.
While, if for a large value of angular velocity  , F1 cosθ is greater than F2 sinθ, then the cube has a tendency to
move up. In both cases, frictional force will be opposite to the direction of motion.
23 If for a particular value of angular velocity  , F1 cosθ exactly balances F2 sinθ, then there is no need for
F
the static friction to keep the block in equilibrium. What is the value of 1 ?
F2
A tan θ
B cot θ
C cos θ
D sin θ
24 Assuming the block is in equilibrium, what is the value of normal force N?
A zero
B (F2 cos   F1 sin )
C (F2 sin   F1 cos )
D (F2 sin   F1 cos )
25 When the angular velocity is increased to a large value and the cube is just on the point of slipping
upwards then static friction is maximum = N , where  is coefficient of static friction. What is the
value of N ?
A (F1 cos   F2 sin )

B (F1 sin   F2 cos )
C (F1 cos   F2 sin )
D zero
Unit 7
Questions 26 – 28
Figure 1
Figure 1 refers to the thylakoid membrane showing electron transfer through a number of electron carriers. It
also depicts the enzyme ATP synthase pumping protons. The unequal proton concentrations cause the H + ions to
move across the membrane and provide energy for ADP phosphorylation. The light-dependent reactions take
place on the thylakoid membrane inside a chloroplast. The inside of the thylakoid membrane is called the lumen,
and outside the thylakoid membrane is the stroma, where the light-independent reactions take place. The
thylakoid membrane contains some integral membrane protein complexes that catalyse the light reactions.
Photosynthesis is the sum of light and dark reactions leading to sugar synthesis. There are four major protein
complexes in the thylakoid membrane: photosystem I (PSI), photosystem II (PSII), cytochrome b6f complex,
and ATP synthase. These four complexes work together to ultimately create the products ATP (instant energy
source) and NADPH (required for the synthesis of sugars).
26 Which of the following is least likely to be an advantage of photosystem I in plants?
A Maximum light can be absorbed and used for photosynthesis.

B Readily available energy can be generated.
C Energy can be stored for long-term usage.
D Light-independent reactions are promoted.
27 Plant cells were infected with a virus which caused the death of cells due to energy depletion. However,
normal amounts of sugars were retrieved from the plant cells. Which of the following could be the
possible mechanism of viral action?
A Viral proteins altered the pH of the thylakoid lumen.

B One of the viral proteins deregulated cytochrome b6f complex.
C Viral protein was a competitive inhibitor of FNR (ferredoxin NADP reductase).
D Viral proteins encoded the disruption of thylakoid membrane.
28 A set of transgenic plants were allowed to grow in white light in which they were able to produce normal
amounts of ATP which was proved by 32P labelling experiments. However, these plants were not able to
synthesise sugars. If such plants are allowed to grow in light of 700 nm, which of the following graphs
will best represent their growth? Note: photosystems absorb light only at the right wavelength.
A B
C D
Unit 8
Questions 29 – 30
According to the Arrhenius theory, the rate constant k increases exponentially with temperature, k  Ae Ea /RT ,
where the proportionality factor of A is called the frequency factor, R is the gas constant (8.314 JK -1mol-1) and
Ea is called the energy of activation.
d ln k E a
Taking logarithms,  2
dT kT
k1 Ea 1 1
ln  (  )
or, by integrating,
k2 R T1 T2
where, k1, k2 are the rate constants and T1, T2 are temperatures.
29 Activation energy of a reaction can be determined by plotting
A the natural logarithm of rate constant against reciprocal of the absolute temperature.
B the natural logarithm of rate constant against the absolute temperature.
C rate constant against the reciprocal of the absolute temperature.
D the natural logarithm of rate constant against the natural logarithm of the absolute temperature.
30 For a reaction, the rate constants at 10°C and 30°C are 20 x 10 -5 litre mol-1sec-1 and 40 x 10-5 litre mol-
1
sec-1, respectively. What will be the activation energy of the reaction? (ln 2 = 0.693)
A 10.0R kcal
B 11.5R kcal
C 12.4R kcal
D 10.7R kcal
Unit 9
Questions 31 – 34
Sign convention for a spherical mirror:
 The object is always placed to the left of the mirror.
 All distances are measured from the pole of the mirror.
 Distances measured in the direction of the incident ray are positive and the distances measured in the
direction opposite to that of the incident rays are negative.
 Distances measured along y-axis above the principal axis are positive and those measured along the y-
axis below the principal axis are negative.
Direction of Concave mirror

+ O the incident ray
P
  
C F

Negative Positive
distance distance
Figure 1
Mirror formula
1 1 1
  , where u is the distance of the object from the mirror, v is the distance of the image from the mirror
u v f
and f is the focal length of the mirror.
h v ‘
Magnification m    , where h is the height of the image and h is the height of the object.
h u
Consider the figure given below. Object 1 is of length 3cm and it is placed 4cm away from the concave mirror.
Object 2 is of length 6cm and it is placed at an unknown distance from the mirror. The focal length of the mirror
is 5cm. Sign conventions are strictly followed in this case.
Object 2 Object1
Figure 2
31 Find the ‗v‘ (image distance) of object 1.
A 20 cm B -20 cm
C -20/9 cm D 20/9 cm
32 Which of the following is true for the image formed by object1 (height and inversion)?
A The image is enlarged and erect. B The image is diminished and erect.
C The image is diminished and inverted. D The image is enlarged and inverted.
33 If the height of the image of object 2 is same as object 2, find the distance of object 2 from the mirror.
A 5 cm B 10 cm
C 15 cm D 20 cm
34 For the condition in question 33, which of the following statements is correct?
A Both the images are formed in front of the mirror.

B The images are formed behind the mirror.
C The images are on different sides of the mirror.
D None of the above
Unit 10
Questions 35 – 38
Enzymes (E) are the catalysts which are widely used in biological systems to speed up the reactions. Enzymatic
units are defined as the amount of an enzyme that converts 1 micromole of substrate into product per minute.
Crude enzymes can be purified to increase their activities. Specific activity is used to follow the increasing
purity of an enzyme through several procedural steps. Specific activity is defined in terms of enzyme units per
mg enzyme protein. In order to compare activities of different enzymes, molecular activity of enzymes is
calculated. Molecular activity is also called turn-over number (kcat) and is denoted by units/µmol of E. µmol of
any enzyme can be calculated by the general formula: mass/ molar mass.
Turn over number (TON) is defined as the maximum number of molecules of substrate that an enzyme can
convert to product per catalytic site per unit of time.
It is calculated using the relation: kcat = Vmax/[E]T
Specific activity is equal to the rate of reaction multiplied by the volume of reaction divided by the mass of total
protein.
Michaelis-Menten developed an equation to calculate the rate of reaction, given below:
Vmax S
v , where v = the velocity at any time, [S] = substrate concentration at that time, V max = maximum
K m  S
velocity and Km = Michaelis constant for a particular enzyme which corresponds to ½ V max.
During an experiment three enzymes were used in assays and necessary information is provided in the table.
Rate of reaction Substrate Molar weight

Enzymes Km Mass (mg)
(µmol/min) concentration (M) (µgm/µmol)
I 35 2 ×10-5 10-4 160 36000
II 4.2 1 ×10-5 3 ×10-5 184 36800
III 3.41 0.012 0.012 100 30000
Table 1
35 The table shows that for enzyme I, the rate of reaction is 35 µmol/min for 10 -4 (M) substrate. What will be
the maximum velocity of the reaction?
A 42 µmol min-1
B 4.2 µmol min-1
C 3.8 µmol min-1
D 38 µmol min-1
36 Which of the following represents the turn-over number for enzyme II?
A 84 × 106 min-1
B 84 × 103 min-1
C 84 × 10-3 min-1
D 84 × 10-6 min-1
37 In the given scenario, which of the following stands true regarding the maximum velocity of enzymes?
A Maximum velocity of enzyme I is more than that of enzyme II but less than III.
B Maximum velocity of enzyme I is more than that of enzyme II and III.
C Maximum velocity of enzyme II is more than that of enzyme I and III.
D Maximum velocity of enzyme III is more than that of enzyme I and II.
38 Which of the following ratios represents the closest estimate for the specific activity of enzyme I, II and
III respectively?
A 10 : 1: 2
B 11: 2 : 3
C 9 : 1: 2
D 8 : 1: 3
Unit 11
Questions 39 - 43
Geometrical isomerism is a case of stereoisomerism, which is noticed in organic molecules having double
bonds. The restricted or hindered rotation of groups about the double bond results in geometrical isomerism.
A A A B
CC CC
B B B A
cis  trans 
The conditions for geometrical isomerism in alkenes are as follows -
I. They must have at least one double bond.

II. The two atoms or groups which are attached to the carbon atoms must be different. Geometrical
isomerism is also shown in cyclo-alkanes because of the restricted rotation about the carbon–carbon
single bond system due to the ring formation.
39 How many structural and geometrical isomers are possible for C4H8 (excluding the ring structures)?
A 4 B 5
C 8 D 6
40 Which of the following compounds can exist as geometrical isomers?
A CH2Cl2 B C2H4Cl2
C C2H2BrCl D C2H4BrCl
41 Which of the following pairs represent geometrical isomers?
Cl Br Cl H Cl CH 3
CC CC CC
H CH3 Br CH3 H Br
(I) (II) (III)
A (I) and (II)

B (I) and (III)
C (II) and (III)
D None of the molecules are geometrical isomers of each other.
42 How many geometrical isomers are possible for the molecular formula C 3H5Cl (excluding ring
compounds)?
A 3 B 5
C 4 D 2
43 Maleic acid and fumaric acid are cis and trans isomers of HOOC – CH = CH – COOH. One of them has
ka value 10 times that of the other. This is because
A intramolecular hydrogen bonds formed by the cis isomer are more stable.
B equilibrium towards the undissociated acid is shifted towards maleic acid.
C fumaric acid is more solvated than maleic acid.
D maleic acid is more solvated than fumaric acid.
Unit 12
Questions 44 – 47
According to Archimedes Principle, any object, wholly or partially immersed in a fluid, is buoyed up by a force
equal to the weight of the fluid displaced by the object.
Assuming Archimedes‘ principle to be reformulated as follows:
Apparent immersed weight of object = actual weight of object (weight in air) – weight of displaced liquid
Some metal A is mixed with metal B to prepare an ornament (assume there is no hollow space inside the
ornament). The ornament weighs 45N in air and weighs only 40N in water. Specific gravity of metal A is 15
and that of metal B is 5.
density of object
Consider g =10 ms2 , density of water =1000 kg m3 and specific gravity of an object =
density of water
Density(D) = mass(m) / volume(v)
44 Calculate the weight of metal A in the ornament.
A 30 g B 15 g
C 45 g D 40 g
45 What is the ratio of volumes of metal A and metal B in the ornament?
A 3: 2
B 2: 3
C 2: 1
D 1: 2
46 If the volumes of metal A and metal B are interchanged in the ornament, what will be the weight of the
ornament in air?
A 40 N
B 55 N
C 45 N
D 52 N
47 What is the apparent weight of the ornament (from the previous question) when immersed in water?
A 40 N
B 55 N
C 50 N
D 45 N
Unit 13
Questions 48 – 50
The evaporation of water from leaves of plants can be described by the diffusion theory, in a manner similar to
the inward diffusion of CO2 into photosynthesising leaves.
According to Fick‘s Law of Diffusion, the rate of diffusion of a substance across a distance is directly
proportional to the concentration gradient, as
c
J D
x
where, J is the flux of the substance, ∆c is the difference in concentration, ∆x is the distance over which the
diffusion occurs, and D is the diffusion coefficient.
In the specific case of leaf gas exchange, the value of ∆x cannot be practically determined, and so D and ∆x are
combined into a single parameter, g, the conductance. Thus, J = (∆c)(g). Alternatively, the conductance (g) can
be replaced by a resistance to flux (r). Resistance refers to anything that reduces the rate of diffusion, such as the
partition between two diffusing solutions. Resistance is the inverse of conductance, so J = ∆c/r. To calculate the
time it takes for a substance to diffuse through a particular distance, the equation time (sec) = L2/D where L is
the diffusion length (in metres) and D is the diffusion coefficient used.
In a botanical laboratory the researcher studied the rate of diffusion of 1M glucose solution which was entering
the plant through its roots. Examination of the xylem sap of test plants revealed that the sap contains 0.1M
solution of glucose. Diffusion coefficient for glucose was calculated to be 10 -9 m2s-1.
48 Which of the following represents the flux of glucose generated over an area of 50 cm around the test
plant?
A 1.8 × 10-8 mol m-2 s-1

B 1.8 × 10-9 mol m-2 s-1
C 1.8 × 10-10 mol m-2 s-1
D 1.8 × 10-11 mol m-2 s-1
49 If the glucose solution entered the mesophyll cells of the leaves with diffusion rate of 2 × 10-4 mol m-2 s-1
and faced a resistance of 4 × 103 m2s, which of the following would be the possible concentration
of the mesophyll cell sap?
A 0.2 mM
B 2 mM
C 2 × 102 mM
D 2 × 10-2 mM
50 In a separate experiment, at a particular concentration of glucose solution, the conductance as well as flux
had a value of 0.2. Which of the following graphs best represents the diffusion in this scenario?
A B
Diffusion
C D Time
Unit 14
Questions 51 – 55
In structural isomerism, the isomers have same molecular formula but differ in their structural formula, i.e. in
the order in which the different atoms are linked in the molecule.
There are five types of structural isomerism, as shown below.
I Chain isomerism, e.g. n-butane and isobutene

CH3  C H  CH 3
|
CH 3CH 2 CH 2 CH 3 CH3
nbu tane iso bu tane
II Position isomerism, e.g. 1 – bromobutane and 2 – bromobutane

CH3 C H CH 2 CH 3
CH3CH 2 CH 2 CH 2  Br |
Br
1bromobu tane 2bromobu tane
III Functional isomerism, e.g. ethyl alcohol and dimethyl ether

CH3CH 2 OH CH3  O  CH 3
ethyl alcohol dimethyl ether
IV Metamerism, e.g. diethyl ether and methyl propyl ether

CH 3CH 2  O  CH 2 CH 3 CH 3CH 2 CH 2  O  CH 3
diethyl ether methyl propyl ether
V Tautomerism, e.g. keto-enol tautomerism
O O-H
|| |
CH3 - C -CH3  CH 2 = C -CH 3
Keto enol
51 How many structural isomers are possible for pentane?
A 3 B 2
C 4 D 1
52 How many structural isomers are present corresponding to the formula C4H10O (excluding the ring
structures)?
A 6 B 7
C 8 D 10
53 How many structural isomers are possible for C5H10 (excluding the ring structures)?
A 8 B 6
C 7 D 9
54 Compounds A and B are isomeric and have the same formula C4H8. Compound A reacts to decolourise a
solution of Br2 water in CCl4. Compound B does not react with Br2. Compound B could be
H3C
C  CH 2
H3C
A .
B CH3 -CH=CH-CH3 .
CH 2  CH 2
CH 2  CH 2
C .
D CH2 =CH-CH2  CH3
.
55 How many structural isomers are possible for C2H4Cl2?
A 4
B 2
C 3
D Structural isomerism is not possible.
Unit 15
Questions 56 – 58
The dimension of a physical quantity can be expressed as a product of the basic physical
dimensions mass, length, time, electric charge, and absolute temperature, represented by sans-serif
symbols M, L, T, Q, and °, respectively, each raised to a rational power.
For example, the dimensions of displacement is given by s = ‗L‘
Work = Force × Displacement
Power = Work / Time
Pressure = Force / Area
Momentum = Mass × Velocity
Force = Mass × Acceleration
56 Which of the following quantities do not have the dimensions ML-1T-2 ?
A Pressure B Energy / Volume

C Force / Area D Work × Area
57 Find the dimensions of ms , where m = mass, s = displacement and F = force applied.

F
A LT-1 B T
C LT D L-1T
58 Which of these pairs do not have the same dimensions?
A Work and energy B Distance and displacement

C Energy and power D Speed and velocity
Unit 16
Questions 59 – 62
Antibiotics inhibit the growth of bacteria by employing various mechanisms. Many antibiotics are being used as
anti-bacterial drugs. However, the development of resistance in bacteria has also been observed with the passage
of time. Bacteria develop resistance by various mechanisms, e.g. some bacteria are able to block the penetration
of certain antibiotics into the cell. Sometimes the bacteria may allow the drug to enter the cell, but may develop
efflux pumps which throw the drug out of the cell. Sometimes the antibiotic binds to its target in the cell and is
later on either degraded or converted to an inactive form (non-functional form). Alterations in the primary site
of action may mean that the antibiotic penetrates the cell and reaches the target site but is unable to inhibit the
activity of the target because of structural changes in the molecule. The final mechanism by which bacteria may
protect themselves from antibiotics is the production of an alternative target (usually an enzyme) that is resistant
to inhibition by the antibiotic. This allows the bacteria to survive under evolutionary pressure.
Figure 1
In an experimental study, a new series of bacterial strains resistant to various antibiotics was reported. Both
normal and resistant strains were treated with fluorescently labelled antibiotics (antibiotics have been denoted as
I, II, III, IV and V). A graph was plotted for the fluorescence in resistant bacterial cell extracts against the time
after treatment with antibiotic. To further elaborate the mechanism of antibiotic action, the antibiotic-target
protein complexes were extracted from resistant and non-resistant bacterial cells and were run on SDS-PAGE
which allowed the movement of complexes according to their sizes. The results for resistant bacteria were
compared with those of the non-resistant ones to interpret the mechanism of antibiotic action.
Graph 1
59 Which of the following statements stands true for antibiotic I?
A Target of antibiotic I has altered the active site in resistant bacteria.

B The antibiotic I is pumped out of resistant bacterial cells.
C Resistant cells develop proteins which do not allow antibiotic I to enter.
D The antibiotic I is converted to inactive form within the resistant cells.
60 Which of the following statements is false regarding antibiotic II?
A The resistant bacteria produce some changes in their cell membranes.

B The antibiotic II can enter the resistant bacterial cells.
C The antibiotic II can move out of resistant bacterial cells.
D The antibiotic II binds its target but is inactive in resistant bacterial cells.
61 Which of the following methods can be applied to make the resistant strains sensitive to antibiotic V?
A Designing a slightly altered antibiotic to fit into the target

B Designing a new antibiotic to inhibit the enzymes of bypassing pathways
C Increasing the permeability of the membrane for the antibiotic
D Changing the antibiotic so that it remains active and stable within the bacterial cell
62 Which of the following processes of antibiotic action are common for both antibiotics III and IV?
I. Antibiotic enters the cell.

II. Stays inside the cell.
III. Binds the target enzyme.
IV. Converts into inactive form.
A I only
B I and II
C I, II and III
D I, II and IV
Unit 17
Questions 63 – 67
Grignard reagents are very useful in the synthesis of some complicated alcohols. Most Grignard reagents are
synthesised through the reaction of metallic magnesium with organic halides. Primary, secondary, or tertiary
alkyl halides can be used, as well as aromatic halides. However, the reagent is a very powerful base, and thus it
is impossible to prepare it from a compound that has a hydrogen atom more acidic than an alkene (vinyl)
hydrogen. The halide used in the reaction can be a chloride or bromide; iodide and fluoride require special
solvents.
The basic reaction to form a Grignard reagent is shown below.
R  X  Mg  R  Mg  X
An example of a Grignard reagent reacting to form an alcohol is shown below.
R R R
| |
H |
RMgX  O  C 
 R  C  OMgX   R  C  OH  MgX
| | |
H H H
Most Grignard reactions occur in the absence of water or air, or any other oxidising or acidic compounds. They
are usually present in a solvent of diethyl ether or tetrahydrofuran. Reaction of an ester with a Grignard reagent
will result in two reactions. The first reacting with the carbonyl group, and the second with the ester group.
63 Which of the following compounds will serve as the best solvent for Grignard synthesis?
A C2H3O3Na
B C2H5OH
C C3H6O2
D C2H6O
64 What will be the product of the following reaction?

O
||
CH3 MgI  CH3 C H  ?
H H
H O
A H
OH
B
C OH
OH
D
65 Which of the following compounds could be reacted with the Grignard reagent shown below to create a
tertiary alcohol?
H
|
 C MgBr
|
H
HO
A
O
B
C OH
D O
66 Esters are also capable of reacting with Grignard reagents with almost no change in the reaction pathway.
The only difference is that two Grignard reagents will be consumed by ester, thus adding two functional
groups to the original molecule.
What is the product formed from the reaction of CH3MgI and ethyl acetate as shown below?
O
||
CH3MgI  CH3 C OCH 2 CH3  ?
OH
OH
A B
C OH D O
67 A scientist is attempting to synthesise a new alcohol using a Grignard reagent and an ester. He needs
the Grignard reagent to double the carbon content of the ester that he is using, which is butyl
acetate. The scientist must use which of the following reagents?
A CH3CH2CH2MgBr
B CH3MgCl
C CH3CH2MgBr
D CH3CH2CH2CH2MgI
Unit 18
Questions 68 – 71
Two trains start moving towards each other on the same track at time t = 15 seconds. Both the trains are moving
with a constant acceleration in the direction of their respective motions. At t = 0, their separation was
600 m .Their drivers notice the mistake and start slowing down to avoid collision. Graphs of their velocities as
function of time (from t = 0) are as shown below.
Given: Area of the v – t graph gives the distance travelled.
V1 (ms1 ) V2 (ms1 )
60
50
t(sec) t(sec)
8 10
Train1 Train 2
Figure 1
Equations of motion:
1 v = u + at
2 s = ut + (1/2)at2
3 v2 = u2 + 2as
(u – initial velocity, v – final velocity, t – time taken, a – constant acceleration and s – displacement)
68 Calculate the separation between the drivers when the first train stops.
A 100 m B 160 m
C 112 m D 124 m
69 Calculate the acceleration of both the trains from t = 0 to t = 15 seconds ?
A 3 ms-2 and 4 ms-2 B 3.34 ms-2 and 4 ms-2

C 3.34 ms-2 and 3 ms-2 D 5 ms-2 and 4 ms-2
70 What is the separation between the trains after both the trains stop?
A 100 m B 125 m
C 145 m D 80 m
71 Suppose, the trains move with equal deceleration from t = 0. Calculate the value of deceleration if both
the trains just manage to avoid the collision (i.e. stop at the same point).
A 4.75 ms-2 B 5.78 ms-2

C 4.09 ms-2 D 5.08 ms-2
Unit 19
Questions 72 – 73
Major depression has become a health crisis of epidemic proportions in the modern world. One consideration
that has received increasing attention is the possibility that the immune system may contribute to the
pathophysiology of depressive disorders. Figure 1 below relates to the mechanisms by which innate immune
cytokines can contribute to depression. Through influences on the neuroendocrine system, monoamine
metabolism, and synaptic plasticity, innate immune cytokines and their signalling pathways (e.g., NF-κB and
MAPK) can influence molecules that are believed to play a role in depression including CRH, GR, serotonin
(5HT), norepinephrine (NE), dopamine (DA), and BDNF. Classic effects of brain-derived neurotrophic factor
(BDNF) include promoting neuronal viability, differentiation, migration, and development. CRH is the
corticotrophin releasing hormone while GR is the glucocorticoid receptor whose aberrant levels are associated
with stress and depression. The hypothalamus-pitutary-adrenal axis (HPA axis) is a complex set of direct
influences which constitute a major part of the neuroendocrine system that controls reactions leading to stress.
Important intermediaries in the effects of cytokines on these target pathways include enzymes that influence
monoamine synthesis and release proteins such as indoleamine 2, 3-dioxygenase (IDO), reactive oxygen species
(ROS), reactive nitrogen species (RNS) and monoamine transporters like the serotonin transporter (SERT),
norepinephrine transporter (NET), and dopamine transporter (DAT). ROS are highly reactive species having
unpaired valence shell electrons. ROS and RNS may act together resulting in cell damage and death. In
neuroscience, synaptic plasticity is the ability of the connection, or synapse, between two neurons to change in
strength in response to either use or misuse of transmission through synaptic pathways.
Figure 1
72 The injection of chemical X in a healthy individual made him undergo depression after a month. Which
of the following is true regarding chemical X?
A Chemical X increases and is an imperfect analogue of glucocorticoid.

B Chemical X deregulates MAPK pathway so that GR production is decreased.
C Chemical X decreases hypothalamus-pituitary-adrenal axis.
D Chemical X increases synaptic plasticity so that BDNF level is raised.
73 The following data refers to the levels of different components of metabolism in four patients. Which of
the following patients are expected to develop depression?
A ↑SERT↓ROS↓RNS↑DAT
B ↑SERT↑ROS↓NET↑DAT
C ↑SERT↓ROS↓RNS↑DAT
D ↑SERT↑ROS↑NET↑DAT
Unit 20
Questions 74 – 75
Carbonyl groups are very polar in nature due to the presence of oxygen in the group that carries a relatively
strong negative charge. This polarity, as well as the reactivity of the double bond, allows for a large number of
reactions to occur at this site, especially those with neutrophilic reagents.
Reduction of carbonyl groups can occur in several ways. The Clemmensen reduction occurs through the
addition of fine zinc powder and AlCl3 and HCl. The mechanism for this reaction is shown below:
R HO H H
| H | H ROH | ROH |
C  O   R  C R   R  C  R   R  C R   R  C R  2 Zn 2 
| Zn (Hg) H 2 O |
R Zn Zn Zn  H
Zn Zn Zn   Zn Zn Zn   
Sodium borohydride (NaBH4) is also a strong reducing agent, and results in the transfer of a hydride ion (H -) to
the carbon while BH3 is complexed to the oxygen. Later, addition of water causes the formation of an alcohol
and B-(OH)4.
Lithium aluminum hydride is an extremely powerful reducing agent and can be used to reduce some compounds
that cannot be reduced by sodium borohydride.
74 A scientist comes into lab and discovers a mixture of spilled chemicals which have apparently reacted.
He finds the product is 2-propanol and detects some sodium borohydride in the mix as well. What was
the starting reagent?
||
A Acetone O
O
B Propanal
||
C 2-butanone O
O
|
D Acetic acid O H
75 Reaction of 2-butanone to form 2- butanol would require which reagent(s)?
A HCl
B Zn, HCl, and AlCl3
C HCl and AlCl3
D NaBH4 and H2O
Unit 21
Questions 76 – 78
GM
Acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the earth is given by g  and that at a height h above the
R2
GM
earth‘s surface is given by g  ; here G is the universal gravitational constant, M is the mass of the
(R  h)2
 2h 
earth and R is the radius of earth. If h is small compared to R, then g  g 1  .
 R
The acceleration due to gravity inside the earth varies directly as the distance from the centre of the earth. As we
go deeper inside the earth, the acceleration due to gravity proportionally diminishes and, finally at the centre of
the earth, it completely vanishes. Value of acceleration due to gravity at a depth h below the earth‘s surface is
 h
given by g  g 1   , where h is very small compared to R and g is the value of acceleration due to gravity
 R 
on the surface of earth.
g
76 At what height above the surface of earth is the value of acceleration due to gravity = ?
5
R R
A B
5 2
R 2R
C D
3 5
g
77 At what depth below the earth‘s surface is the value of acceleration due to gravity = ?
3
2R R
A B
3 3
R R
C D
2 5
78 When we place a body at the centre of the earth at rest, using a tunnel drawn along the diameter of the
earth, the body will
A move with constant velocity.

B move with constant acceleration.
C move with continuously decreasing velocity.
D always remain at rest.
Unit 22
Question 79 – 82
Calcium plays an indispensable role in cell permeability, bone and teeth formation, blood coagulation,
transmission of nerve impulses, and normal muscle contraction. Nearly 99% of the body‘s calcium is found in
the bones. Severe calcium imbalance requires emergency treatment because a deficiency (hypocalcaemia) can
lead to tetany and seizures; an excess (hypercalcaemia) can lead to cardiac arrhythmias and coma. Thyroid
(releases calcitonin) and parathyroid (releases parathyroid hormone, PTH) glands have an important role in
maintaining calcium homeostasis. Parathyroids are small glands embedded within the thyroid gland. Thyroid
and parathyroid act oppositely by activating or deactivating certain processes, like calcium deposition or uptake,
increasing active or inactive vitamin D, thereby maintaining normal levels of calcium in blood.
Figure 1
79 What will happen to the urinary calcium levels in the body of a patient with hyperthyroidism when he is
exposed to sunlight during treatment?
A Urinary calcium level will decrease.

B Urinary calcium level will increase.
C Urinary calcium level will remain unchanged.
D Urinary calcium level cannot be predicted.
80 A patient came to the hospital and was diagnosed with kidney stones. Which of the following is true in
the given scenario?
A High level of parathyroid gland‘s secretion

B Low levels of active vitamin D
C Decreased demand of calcium in the body
D Less absorption of calcium present in food
81 Osteoarthritis is the degeneration of bones. High level of which of the following might lead to this
disease?
A Inactive vitamin D
B Parathyroid hormone
C Secretion of calcium in urine
D Blood calcium
82 A group of rats were fed a low calcium diet. Their thyroid gland was removed by surgery. They were also
injected with calcitonin on a daily basis. Which of the following is expected to happen to them after a
week?
A Rats will remain healthy.

B Rats will die of cardiac arrhythmias.
C Rats will develop seizures and muscular pain.
D Rats will become insensitive to a high calcium diet.
Unit 23
Questions 83 – 85
The pinacol – pinacolone rearrangement is common for 1, 2–diols in the acidic medium. The reaction involves
the migration of an alkyl or aryl group on an electron deficient carbon. The mechanism of the reaction is
uncertain but a proposed mechanism is given below.
CH3 CH3 CH 3 CH 3 CH 3 CH 3

C  C 
H

 C  C  H 2O 


C  C
| | | | |
CH3 OH OH CH3 CH 3  OH 2 O  H CH 3 CH 3 O  H CH 3
CH3 O CH3 CH3

| ||


CH3  C  C  C C
| | | |
CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3 O  H
When an asymmetric pinacol is present, then the pinacol – pinacolone rearrangement occurs involving the
migration of the more electron rich group.
H3C CH3
| | H2SO4
83 Ph  C  C CH3  
| |
HO OH
What will be the product of the above reaction?
O CH3 H3C O
|| | | ||
A Ph  C C CH3 B Ph  C C CH3
| |
CH3 CH3
H3C CH3 H3C O

| ||
C | |
D Ph  C C CH3
Ph  C  C CH3 |
OH
84 What is the correct order of migratory aptitude in the pinacol – pinacolone rearrangement?
(Ph-Phenyl, tBu-tertiary butyl, iPr-isopropyl, Et-ethyl, Me-Methyl)
A Ph   t Bu   i Pr   Et   Me  H
B t
Bu   i Pr   Ph   Et   Me  H
C H  Ph   t Bu   i Pr   Et   Me
D H  Me  Et   i Pr   t Bu   Ph
85
OCH3
| Ph 60% H2SO4
CH 3  C  C  
| | Ph
OH OH
What will be the product of the above reaction?
OCH3
Ph
C  COCH 3
A Ph
O
||
Ph 3C  C  OCH 3
B
Ph
Ph | 
C C   O CH 3
Ph |
C OH
OH
Ph | 
C C   O CH 3
Ph |
D Ph
Unit 24
Questions 86 - 90
In organic chemistry, the naming of compounds is very important. Among the simpler compounds to name are
the hydrocarbons, which consist primarily of carbon and hydrogen. In the hydrocarbon naming convention, the
number of carbons determines the prefix, and the bond type determines the suffix. For example:
 1: meth-
 2: eth-
 3: prop-
 4: but-
 5: pent-
 6: hex-
 7: hept-
 8: oct-
 9: non-
 10: dec-
And the suffix ‗-ane‘ means there are no double bonds, and ‗-ene‘ means there is one double bond. For example,
propane is C3H8, but propene is C3H6, due to the location of a double bond. Usually, the longest carbon chain is
named first, and then functional group names are added. Cyclic compounds have the prefix ‗cyclo‘ added to the
front of the name. Finally, if there is a functional group added onto the compound, then the functional group
name must be preceded by a number, which indicates which carbon the functional group is on. For example, 1-
bromo-hexane means that there is a bromine group on the first carbon of the hexane.
86 What is the name for the following compound?
A 1,3-pentamethylpropane B 2,4,4-trimethylpentane
C 2,2,4-trimethylpentane D 1,1,3,3-tetramethylbutane
87 A scientist recently discovered a cyclic hydrocarbon, with the formula shown below. What would be an
appropriate name for it?
A dimethylcyclohexane B trans-1,3-dimethylcyclohexane
C cis-1,3-dimethylcyclohexane D 1,3-dimethylcyclohexane
Refer to the following information for answering questions 88-90
Halogens are very reactive functional groups which can easily add on to organic compounds through use of a
substitution reaction. There are two kinds of substitution reactions: Sn1 and Sn2. However, both of these
reaction types require a very reactive nucleophilic substance, which has a free lone pair of electrons that can
attack the molecule onto which it is substituting. Nucleophile strength is typically decided by the
electronegativity of the molecule.
In the Sn2 reaction type, the lone pair of electrons attack an electron deficient electrophilic center eliminating
another group called the leaving group. The replacement of the leaving group by the incoming group occurs in a
single step. Since the two reacting species are involved in the slow, rate determining step, it is referred to as a
bi-molecular reaction.
Substitution reactions can either be acid or base catalyzed, and a good example is the use of ethanol, or Et-OH,
as a proton donor. Ethanol reacts with the double bonds in the reactants and also serves as an electron acceptor
for the nucleophile.
88 Which of the following would not be an appropriate nucleophile for a substitution reaction?
A NH3
B CN-
C HO-
D H2O
89 What is the major product obtained from the following reaction?
90 Which of the following reaction pathways would be the best synthesis for the molecule shown below?
Unit 25
Questions 91 – 94
An accelerator produces a narrow beam of protons, each having an initial speed of V0 and initial kinetic energy
of K0 electron volt. The beam is directed towards an initially uncharged distant metal sphere of radius R and
R
centred at O. The initial path of the beam is parallel to the axis of the sphere at a distance of   from the axis,
2
as indicated in Figure 1.
Accelerator
proton beam
R
2 O
axis of thesphere
R
Figure 1
The protons in the beam that collide with the sphere will cause it to become charged positively. As a result, the
sphere will start repelling the incoming protons. Hence, their line of motion will not be a straight line now.
The angular momentum of a particle is defined in a way similar to the definition moment of a force. It is defined
as the moment of its linear momentum, linear momentum replacing the force. So if d is the perpendicular
distance of line of motion of the proton from O, and linear momentum is mv, then angular momentum is mvd.
Potential energy between the sphere and the proton is almost negligible when the proton starts. As the proton
comes closer, the electrostatic potential energy increases but the sum of the kinetic energy of the proton and
electrostatic potential energy remains conserved.
91 If it is found that a proton just reached the surface of the sphere and came to rest momentarily, what is the
potential energy of the system at this moment? (Take initial kinetic energy of proton as K 0).
A K0
K0
B
2
C 2 K0
D - K0
92 Which of the paths from the following diagram( path 1,2,3) will be followed by the proton, when the
potential of the surface reaches a constant value?
3
2
4 1
A 1 B 2
C 3 D 4
93 If in the previous question the minimum separation between the proton and the sphere in path 3 be d,
what is the value of d? (Take v as velocity at this moment).
R
A Less than  
2
B Less than R
C Zero
 V0 R 
D  2v 
 
94 What is the initial angular momentum of the proton?
A Zero
R
B (mV0)  
2
C mV0R
D None of the above
Unit 26
Questions 95 – 99
Ideally, when resources in the habitat are unlimited, each species has the ability to realise fully its innate
potential to grow in number, as Darwin observed while developing his Theory of Natural Selection. Then the
population grows in an exponential or geometric fashion. If in a population of size N, the birth rates (not total
number, but per capita births) are represented as b and death rates (again, per capita death rates) as d, then the
rate of increase or decrease in N during a unit time period t (dN/dt) will be
dN/dt = (b – d) × N
Let (b–d) = r, then
∆N/∆t = rN
The r in this equation is called the ‗intrinsic rate of natural increase‘ and is a very important parameter chosen
for assessing impacts of any biotic or abiotic factor on population growth.
An ecologist wanted to study effects of various environments on different populations. Populations 1, 2 and 3
consist of 50 rabbits each, while populations 4, 5 and 6 consist of 50 ducks each. These populations were
allowed to survive in environments X, Y and Z respectively. Results obtained after a month and a year are
represented in graphs 1 and 2 respectively.
Graph 1 Graph 2
95 Which of the following is true regarding environment X?
A Resources of environment X are limited.
B Resources of environment X are unlimited.

C Some of the important resources are absent in environment X.
D Resources of environment X are the same as that of Y and Z.
96 If per capita birth rate for population 2 in first four months is 10 and its per capita death rate is 2, which
of the following represents the per capita birth rate when the death rate increases from 2 to 4 after 8
months?
A 12
B 10
C 6
D 2
97 Which of the following is true regarding the rate of change in population from one month to one year,
in environment Z?
A Environment Z does not cause any significant change to the population density of rabbits or
ducks.
B Rate of change in population is the same for ducks and rabbits.
C Rate of change is higher in the population of ducks as compared to that of rabbits.
D Rate of change in population is higher in rabbits than that in ducks.
98 How many ducks are expected to be present in population 5 after six months?
A 50
B 90
C 120
D 140
99 If the ∆N value for a population is 10, which of the following stands true?
A The population will increase.

B The population will decrease.
C The population will remain the same.
D The population may increase or decrease.
Unit 27
Questions 100 – 102
Water potential is the measure of free energy of water in a solution. However, a better definition would be to say
that water potential is the combination of the pressure potential and the osmotic potential of a solution. The
pressure potential of a solution is a measure of the exertion of pressure (tension) - either positive or negative -
on a solution. Osmotic potential is the measure of the solute concentration of a solution. Water potential is
abbreviated by the Greek letter ―psi‖, and is measured in units called bars. In the case of pure water open to the
atmosphere, both osmotic potential and pressure potential are 0; 0 + 0 = 0; thus, the water potential of the open
pure water is also 0.
Ψs = - miRT.
Where, m = molality
i = ionisation constant (1 for sucrose)
R = gas constant (8.31 JK-1 mol-1)
T = temperature (Kelvin)
Note: units of solute potential are Jm-3 or Pascal.
Water always diffuses by osmosis from a region with greater water potential to one with a lower water potential,
following the rules of osmosis. When a cell‘s water balance is maintained, the cell wall expands until it is turgid,
or stiff; if the plant loses water and is unable to maintain a healthy water balance, its cells become flaccid. One
result of becoming flaccid is plasmolysis, which is the separation of a cell‘s plasma membrane from its cell wall,
which is usually lethal to the plant. Thus, if a plant is unable to maintain a sufficient system of osmoregulation
to control its water balance, the effect can be devastating. Molality is the measure of the density of the solute
inside the solution to show increasing and decreasing levels of the solute. Similar to hypertonic and hypotonic,
hyper-osmotic and hypo-osmotic are relative terms referring to the amount of water in a solution relative to the
amount of water in the cell‘s environment.
A botanist studied osmosis in carrots by putting carrot slices in a graded series of sucrose solution (molal
solutions) at 22°C in a beaker, after which he noticed the change in the weight of the carrots.
Figure 1
100 Which of the following represents the osmotic potential of sap in carrot?
A -11 x 103 P
B -822 P
C -182.82 P
D -4902 P
101 Which of the following will be true when the carrot cells are placed in 7 molal sucrose solution?
A Cells become plasmolysed and their weight increases.

B Cells become plasmolysed and their weight decreases.
C Cells become turgid and their weight increases.
D Cells become turgid and their weight decreases.
102 Which of the following is true regarding the water potential of carrot cells?
A It is equal to zero.
B It is more than the solute potential.
C It is less than the solute potential.
D It is equal to the solute potential.
Unit 28
An enzyme inhibitor is a molecule that binds to enzymes and decreases their activity. The binding of an
inhibitor can stop a substrate from entering the enzyme‘s active site and/or hinder the enzyme from catalysing
the reaction.
Inhibitor binding is either reversible or irreversible. Irreversible inhibitors usually react with enzyme and change
it chemically. These inhibitors modify key amino acid residues needed for enzyme activity.
In contrast, reversible inhibitors bind non-covalently and different types of inhibition are produced, depending
upon whether these inhibitors bind the enzyme, the enzyme-substrate complex, or both. As opposed to
irreversible inhibition, reversible inhibition can be easily removed.
There are 3 kinds of reversible enzyme inhibitors: competitive, uncompetitive and non-competitive.
In competitive inhibition, both substrate and inhibitor cannot bind to the enzyme at the same time. Since
competitive inhibitors are often similar in structure to the real substrate, the inhibitor will have an affinity for the
active site of an enzyme where the substrate also binds; consequently, the substrate and inhibitor compete for
access to the enzyme‘s active site. This type of inhibition can be overcome by sufficient high concentration of
substrates i.e. outdoing the inhibitor.
In uncompetitive inhibition, the inhibitor binds only to the substrate-enzyme complex; it should not be confused
with the non-competitive inhibitors.
Non-competitive inhibition is a form of inhibition where the binding of the inhibitor to the enzyme reduces its
activity but does not affect the binding of the substrate. As a result, the extent of inhibition depends only on the
concentration of the inhibitor.
103
Figure 1
The type of inhibition represented in the graph is
A competitive.
B uncompetitive.
C non-competitive.
D irreversible.
104 In our body, the enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase oxidises alcohol into aldehyde. Methanol is a highly
toxic alcohol. Methanol is slowly oxidised by alcohol dehydrogenase to yield formaldehyde, which is
oxidised by formaldehyde dehydrogenase to yield formic acid. This oxidation reaction occurs so rapidly
that a little formaldehyde accumulates in the serum. The accumulation of formic acid is responsible for
the presence of metabolic acidosis.
A patient is diagnosed with methanol poisoning. What can be suggested as the easiest treatment?
A Giving him excess of water to drink

B Giving him medicine to vomit out the methanol
C Giving him drug to excrete out methanol
D Giving him an excess dose of ethanol
Unit 29
The kidney influences the blood pressure by causing the arteries and veins to constrict; thus leading to an
increase in the circulating blood volume. Specialised cells are found in a portion of the distal tube located near
and/ or in the wall of the afferent arteriole. The distal tubule cells (macula densa) sense the sodium ions in the
filtrate, and the arterial cells (juxtaglomerular cells) sense the blood pressure. When the blood pressure drops,
the amount of sodium in the filtrate also drops. The juxtaglomerular cells then release an enzyme called rennin.
Rennin converts angiotensinogen (a peptide) into angiotensin I. Angiotensin I is then converted to angiotensin II
by an angiotensin converting enzyme, which is found mainly in the lungs. Angiotensin II causes blood vessels to
contract; the increased blood vessel constrictions elevate the blood pressure. Angiotensin II also stimulates the
adrenal gland to secrete a hormone called aldosterone. Aldosterone stimulates more sodium ion reabsorption in
the distal tubule and water gets reabsorbed along with it. The increased Na + and water reabsorption from the
distal tubule reduces urine output and increases the circulating blood volume. This increased blood volume
helps stretch the heart muscle and causes it to generate more pressure with each beat, thereby increasing blood
pressure.
105 People with chronic high blood pressure often take a particular class of drugs called diuretics which
reduces blood pressure by countering the action of the hormone secreted by the adrenal gland. So, it can
be said that the drug acts by
A constricting blood vessels.

B increasing water reabsorption.
C reducing sodium reabsorption.
D increasing the heart rate.
106 If mutation in the angiotensin converting enzyme is carried out in such a way that it becomes
constitutively active, then which of the following will be the effect?
A Blood pressure will always remain high.

B Blood pressure will always remain low.
C Blood pressure will remain constant.
D Blood pressure will revert to normal after a short term increase.
Unit 30
Antigen-antibody reactions are very specific. The interaction between an antibody and a soluble antigen in
aqueous solution forms a lattice that eventually develops into a visible precipitate. Antibodies that thus
aggregate the soluble antigens are called precipitins.
Excess of either antibody or antigen interferes with the maximal precipitation, which occurs in the so called
equivalence zone, when the ratio of antibody to antigen is optimal. As a large multi-molecular lattice is formed
in the equivalence, the complex increases in size and precipitates out of the solution. In the region of antibody
excess, unreacted antibody is found along with small soluble complexes consisting of multiple molecules of
antibody bound to a single molecule of antigen. In the region of antigen excess, unreacted antigen can be
detected and small and soluble complexes are again observed, this time consisting of one or two molecules of
antigen bound to a single molecule of antibody. In either case, extensive lattice cannot be formed and
precipitation is inhibited.
Immune precipitate can also form in agar matrix. When antigen and antibody diffuses toward one another in
agar, a visible line of precipitation will form in the region of equivalence, whereas no visible precipitates form
in regions of antibody or antigen excess.
In the Ouchterlony method, both antigen and antibody diffuse radially from the wells toward each other, thereby
establishing a concentration gradient. As equivalence zone is reached, a visible line of precipitation is formed.
The pattern of precipitin line obtained from this technique is useful to determine the relationship between
different antigen-antibody systems:
Figure 1
Pattern of identity occurs when two antigens share identical epitopes (the site in the antigen that binds to the
antibody. So, identical epitope means two antigens can bind to the same antibody). As the antiserum forms a
single precipitin line with each antigen, the two lines grow towards each other and fuse to give a single curved
line of identity (shown in figure 1).
Figure 2
Pattern of non-identity occurs when two antigens are unrelated, i.e., they don‘t share common epitopes. The
antiserum forms an independent precipitin line with each antigen and the two lines intersect (shown in figure 2).
Figure 3
Pattern of partial identity occurs when two antigens share some epitopes but one or the other has one or more
unique epitope(s). The antiserum forms a line of identity with the common epitope(s) and a curved spur with the
unique epitope(s) (shown in figure 3).
An Ouchterlony double diffusion is performed with an antibody and 6 different antigens (Ag 1, Ag 2, Ag 3, Ag
4, Ag 5 and Ag 6). The following patterns are obtained.
Ag1
Ag2
Ag6
antibody
Ag3 Ag5
Ag4
Figure 4
107 Which of the following is true for the given pattern?
A Ag 1 and Ag 2 share identical epitopes.

B Ag 1 and Ag 2 share non-identical epitopes.
C Ag 1 and Ag 2 share partially identical epitopes.
D The epitope composition of the two epitopes cannot be predicted.
108 What can be predicted about the relationship between Ag 1 and Ag 3 from the precipitation pattern?
A They share non-identical epitopes. B They share partially identical epitopes.

C They share identical epitopes. D Nothing can be predicted.
109 Which of the following is true for the given information?
A Both Ag 1 and Ag 5 have the same epitopes.

B Both Ag 1 and Ag 5 contain some epitopes in common but Ag 5 contains some unique epitopes.
C Ag 1 and Ag 5 contain totally different epitopes.
D No conclusion can be derived from the precipitation pattern.
110
Ag4 Ag6
antibody against Ag4
What kind of precipitin line will be obtained in the above reaction?
Ag4 Ag6 Ag4 Ag6
antibody against Ag4 antibody against Ag4

A B
Ag4 Ag6 Ag4 Ag6
antibody against Ag4 antibody against Ag4

C D
END OF TEST

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GAMSAT | FLT09 | QUESTION BOOKLET | Page | 0

Test Booklet No. – 11209

Total Test Duration: 5 hours 30 minutes

This test consists of three sections:

Section I 75 questions 100 minutes

Filling in the OMR sheet

[This page is intentionally left blank]

Reasoning in Humanities and Social Sciences

1. You have 10 minutes perusal time.

4. At the end of 10 minutes, begin the exam.

5. Post-perusal, you have exactly 100 minutes to complete the exam.

Know the Characteristics of a safe Password

 It cannot be found in a dictionary.

 It contains special characters and numbers.

 It contains a mix of upper and lower case letters.

 It has a minimum length of 10 characters.

Create an easy to remember Base Password

 Randomly replace letters with numbers, e.g. flirt becomes fl1r7.

―Everything I Do I Do It For You‖ becomes EIDIDIFY.

What not to do when choosing a password

Here are steps you can take to create a strong password:

 Length. Make your passwords long with eight or more characters.

Name: Alan Rodrick

4 What is an example of a usable space-saving common letter-to-symbol conversion?

6 The author‘s write-up is based on which of the following assumptions?

I. People who are aged between 18 and 24 years

People aged between 18 and 24 years 

People who live alone or with one other person 

7 The total number of people by 2007 (inclusive) would be

The following questions are based on a poem and a passage on death.

Poem 1 - Holy Sonnet 10

Death, be not proud, though some have called thee

A By telling Death that it is not in control of its destiny

A Death is not as formidable as it is generally believed to be.

13 What is meant by ―thou art slave to fate‖ (Line 9)?

A Death controls the destinies of the lives it takes.

A Death is something not to be feared of.

 It gives support and comfort at times of loss and bereavement.

 It provides a purpose to life.

A have an element of uncertainty about them.

A The euphoria of living on after reincarnation

Excerpt from „Technology & Altruism‟

The following cartoons are about chatting in the real world.

23 Which of the following comments best expresses the idea in Cartoon 1?

Honesty is big right

Then we invented cell phones and the more we used them,

A By not knowing what humanity means; honesty is a part of being human

A Internet has helped to ease the problem of distant communication.

We Shall Fight on the Beaches

29 What is Churchill‘s approach to fighting?

A To forge on; fight against the enemy; there is honour in war

A Belief in his vision

Non-Violence is the First Article of My Faith

32 What is Gandhi‘s approach to fighting?

A To fight violence with the help of non-violence.

33 What does Gandhi refer to when he says,

In a complex program, we have a suspect subprogram X. It is suspected of doing a wrong operation O.

Additionally the following information is available:

Subprogram Query Response

*VBAC = vaginal birth after caesarean

The increase inC-Sections

Vaginal birth after Caesarean Total Caesarean Deliveries