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LAGOS STATE UNIVERSITY
POST UTME PAST QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
All Departments 2005-2013
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ENGLISH LANGUAGE
2013/2014 Past Questions with Solutions
1. From the list of words lettered A to D choose the one
that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the
underlined word and that will, at the same time,
correctly fill the gap in the sentence: the
management has neither.... nor denied the rumour
that is was going to lay of some workers (a)
pronounced (b) confirmed (c) rejected (d) advertised
2. From the list of words lettered A to D choose the one
that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the
underlined word and that will, at the same time,
correctly fill the gap in the sentence: Instead of .........
the issue, the speaker digressed to unimportant
matters (a) summarizing (b) describing (c) revealing
(d) addressing
3 From the list of words lettered A to D choose the one
that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the
underlined word and that will, at the same time,
correctly fill the gap in the sentence: The telephone
booths were all......... and I had to wait for more than
ten minutes for one to become vacant (a) locked (b)
busy (c) occupied (d) ringing
4. From the list of words lettered A to D choose the one
that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the
underlined word and that will, at the same time,
correctly fill the gap in the sentence: While the first
battalion halted its march at nightfall, the
second.......to the barracks (a) returned (b) set out (c)
proceeded (d) turned up
5 From the list of words lettered A to D choose the one
that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the
underlined word and that will, at the same time,
correctly fill the gap in the sentence: His father is an
............driver but he is only novice (a) enlightened (b)
excellent (c) poor (d) experienced
6. From the list of words letter A to D choose the one
that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the
underlined word and that will, at the same time,
correctly fill the gap in the sentence: The arrival of
the police at the scene.................
Rather than mitigated tension (a) provoked (b)
heightened (c) created (d) prolonged
7. From the list of words lettered A to D choose the one
that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the
underlined word and that will, at the same time,
correctly fill the gap in the sentence: Roses are
common in May but........................
in November (a) dead (b) strange (c) rare (d) extinct
8. from the list of words letter A to D choose the one
that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the
underlined word and that will, at the same time,
correctly fill the gap in the sentence: A bank clerk
should be able to tell easily the difference
between........... notes and counterfeit ones (a) crisp
(b) good (c) correct (d) genuine
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9. From the list of words lettered A to D choose the one
that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the
underlined word and that will, at the same time,
correctly fill the gap in the sentenced: Last night,
Uncle Joe was blind drunk but this morning he is as
....................adjudge (a) alert (b) saintly (c) strong (d)
sober
10. From the list of words lettered A to D choose the one
that is mostly nearly opposite in meaning to the
underlined word and that will, at the same time,
correctly fill the gap in the sentence: What I have is
only a...........of the famous painting; the original is in
the National Museum (a) duplicate (b) model (c) fake
(d) drawing
11 From the words lettered A to D, choose the word that
best completes the following sentence: If the jury’s
verdict is “not guilty”, the defendant will be ................
(a) acquitted (b) indicted (c) pardoned (d) forgiven
12 From the words lettered A to D, choose the word that
best completes the following sentence: When all
the items on the agenda had been discussed, the
meeting was ..............
(a) adjourned (b) dismissed (c) postponed (d)
dissolved
13. From the words lettered A to D, choose the word that
best completes the following sentence: Because
the new venture was .,............many businessmen
and women was into it (a) rich (b) manageable (c)
lucrative (d) satisfying
14 From the words lettered A to D, choose the word that
best completes the following sentence: We save a
............of lions at the game reserve (a) pride (b)
family (c) band (d) group
15 From the words lettered A to D, choose the word that
best completes the following sentence: Many
educationists feel that...............punishment should
still be retained in schools (a) capital (b) corporal (c)
corporeta (d) physical
16 From the words lettered A to D, choose the word that
best completes the following sentence: Freedom
of movement is a ...........right of every citizen (a)
fundamental (b) negotiated (c) privileged (d)
respected
17 From the words lettered A to D, choose the word that
best completes the following sentence: The
river......towards the sea (a) meandered (b) rolled (c)
ran (d) trickled
18 From the words lettered A to D, choose the word that
best completes the following sentence:
I.............that our team will win the match tomorrow
(a) certify (b)conclude (c) announce (d) predict
19 From the words lettered A to D, choose the word that
best completes the following sentence: If found
guilty, he will............. all the wealth he has amassed
illegally (a) forgo (b) abandon (c) repay (d) forfeit
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20 From the words lettered A to D, choose the word that
best completes the following sentence: (a)
movement (b) flow (c) velocity (d) drive
21. From options A to D, choose the interpretation that
you consider most appropriate for this sentence:
Ladies and gentlemen, the worst may be over, but
we are not out of the woods yet. This means that we
are (a) still in the forest (b) not yet ready to celebrate
our success (c) likely to encounter more difficulties
(d) not sure of ourselves
22 From options A to D, choose the interpretation that
you consider most appropriate for this sentence:
When i leave this country it will be for good. This
means that i will (a) never come back (b) leave for
better conditions elsewhere (c) become an
adventurer (d) improvement ways.
23 From options A to D, choose the interpretation that
you consider most appropriate for this sentence:
When she confronted her husband, he hung his head
and didn’t answer her questions. This means that he
was (a) defiant (b) ashamed and embarrassed (c)
caught unawares (d) angry with her
24 From options A to D, choose the interpretation that
you consider most appropriate for this sentence: All
our plans fell through at the last moment. This means
that we (a)were exposed (b) delayed (c) were
abandoned (d) failed
25 From options A to D, choose the interpretation that
you consider most appropriate for this sentence:
The police knew that the suspect was not being
straight with them. This means that the suspect was
(a) not telling the truth
(b) not friendly (c) afraid (d) timid
26 From options A to D, choose the interpretation that
you consider most appropriate for this sentence:
After his prison experience. Etim decided to go
straight. This means that he decided to (a) hold his
head up and walk with defiance (b) change his
religion (c) live an honest life (d) stop using drugs
27 From options A to D, choose the interpretation that
you consider most appropriate for this sentence:
The teacher spoke with his tongue in his cheek when
he said that lazy Ade was the best pupil. This means
that the teacher (a) did not mean what he said (b)
was disappointed (c) was angry (d) tired to
encourage
28 From options A to D, choose the interpretation that
you consider most appropriate for this sentence:
They did not know what to expect and so decided to
play it by it ear. This means that they decided to (a)
listen attentively to everyone (b) act according to
circumstance (c) pretend to be deaf (d) prepare for
the worst
29 From options A to D, choose the interpretation that
you consider most appropriate for this sentence:
Ojo decided that the best course of action was to
play along with them for time being. This means that
he decided to (a) join their them temporarily (b)
entertain them for a while (c) pretend to a greed with
them (d) be playful with them
30 From options A to D, choose the interpretation that
you consider most appropriate for this sentence:
The conference was attended by people from all
walks of life. This means that conference was
attended by people (a) of all races (b) who travelled
widely (c) from all professions (d) from different parts
of the world
31 From the words letter A to D, choose the word that is
nearest in meaning to the underlined word as it is
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used in the sentence: Amina is the one who initiated
the quarrel, not Nike! (a) started (b) stopped (c)
settled (d) fuelled
32 From the words letter A to D, choose the word that is
nearest in meaning to the underlined word as it is
used in the sentence: She was reprimanded by her
boss for negligence (a) sacked (b) rebuked (c)
punished (d) surcharged
33 From the words letter A to D, choose the word that is
nearest in meaning to the underlined word as it is
used in the sentence: Why should I retract my
statement when it is nothing but the truth? (a) alter
(b) deny (c) withdraw (d) condemn
34 From the words letter A to D, choose the word that is
nearest in meaning to the underlined word as it is
used in the sentence: The doctor diagnosed the
tumour as malignant (a) deadly (b) painful (c) trouble
(d) minor
35 From the words letter A to D, choose the word that is
nearest in meaning to the underlined word as it is
used in the sentence: In tropical; Africa, mosquitoes
are ubiquitous (a) dangerous (b) harmful (c) trouble
(d) everywhere
36 From the words letter A to D, choose the word that is
nearest in meaning to the underlined word as it is
used in the sentence: It soon became obvious that a
confrontation was inevitable (a) disastrous (b)
unavoidable (c) desirable (d) imminent
37 From the words letter A to D, choose the word that is
nearest in meaning to the underlined word as it is
used in the sentence: They insisted that the omission
of my named had been inadvertent (a) unintentional
(b) unconditional (c) improper (d) unfortunate
38 From the words letter A to D, choose the word that is
nearest in meaning to the underlined word as it is
used in the sentence: The police announced that
they were yet to apprehend the criminals (a)
interrogated (b) charge (c) prosecute (d) arrest
39 From the words letter A to D, choose the word that is
nearest in meaning to the underlined word as it is
used in the sentence: He is easily recognizable
because of conspicuous birthmark on his face (a)
dark (b) beautiful (c) prominent (d) natural
40 From the words letter A to D, choose the word that is
nearest in meaning to the underlined word as it is
used in the sentence: The fishing boat was imperilled
by high winds, but it management to reach port safely
(a) pushed (b) endangered (c) disturbed (d) blown
41 From options A to D, choose the word or group of
words that best completes the following sentence:
Surprisingly, Musa turned..........the job offer (a) away
(b) in (c) out (d) down
42 From options A to D, choose the word or group of
words that best completes the following sentence:
We have no choice.............to do what they demand
(a) except (b) than (c) unless (d) but
43 From options A to D, choose the word or group of
words that best completes the following sentence:
The committee has submitted its report............ the
students (a) in (b) for (c) about (d) on
44 From options A to D, choose the word or group of
words that best completes the following sentence:
The chairman told members that he was
open.........suggestions (a) to (b) for (c) about (d) on
45 From options A to D, choose the word or group of
words that best completes the following sentence:
The policeman shot the escaping robber........the leg
(a) on (b) in (c) at (d) into
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46 From options A to D, choose the word or group of
words that best completes the following sentence:
For the management, your remarks amount to a
slap...............the face (a) on (b) upon (c) at (d) in
47 From options A to D, choose the word or group of
words that best completes the following sentence:
She does not remember.......to anyone at the park (a)
to talk (b) to be talking (c) talking (d) to have talked
48 From options A to D, choose the word or group of
words that best completes the following sentence:
This portion is to be shared between ................(a) us
and them (b) we and them (c) us and they (d) we
and the
49 From options A to D, choose the interpretation that
you consider most appropriate for this sentence:
After his prison experience. Etim decided to go
straight. This means that he decided to (a) hold his
head up and walk with definance (b) change his
religion (c) live an honest life (d) stop using drugs
50. From options A to D, choose the interpretation that
you consider most appropriate for this sentence:
The teacher spoke with his tongue in his cheek when
he said that lazy Ade was the best pupil. This means
that the teacher (a) did not mean what he said (b)
was disappointed (c) was angry (d) tried to
encourage
51. From options A to D, choose the interpretation that
you consider most appropriate for this sentence:
They did not know what to expect and so decided to
play it by it by ear. This means that they decided to
(a) listen attentively to everyone (b) act according to
circumstances (c) pretend to be deaf (d) prepare for
the worst
52. From options A to D, choose the interpretation that
you consider most appropriate for this sentence:
Ojo decided that the best course of action was to
play along with them for time being. This means that
he decided to (a) join their them temporarily (b)
entertain them for a while (c) pretend to agree with
them (d) be playful with them
53 From options A to D, choose the interpretation that
you consider most appropriate for this sentence:
The conference was attended by people from all
walks of life. This means that conference was
attended by people (a) of all races (b) who travelled
widely (c) from all professions (d) from different parts
of the world.
GENERAL PAPER
1 Which of the following groups fall into the civil
service: (a) the police, the army and the air force n(b)
employees of NEPA, NNPC and NRCA (c)
employees of ministries of finance, education and
transportation (d) all of the above
2 The most senior class in the Nigerian Civil Service is
a(a) higher technical class (b) and professional class
(c) and technical class (d) sub-clerical and
manipulative class
3 The recruitment or appointment of the permanent
secretary is one of the duties of: (a) the federal public
service commission (b) the state civil service
commission (c) the national assembly
4. In the organizational structure of the ministry or
government department, offices and positions are: a
hierarchically arranged (b) diagonally arranged (c)
secretly arranged (d) haphazardly arranged
5. The government maintains monopoly over certain
services for: (a) selfish reasons (b) security and
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strategic reasons (c) undisclosed reason (d) all of the
above
6 Ministers of local government and chieftaincy affairs
were abolished in Nigeria by: (a) General Yakubu
Gowon (b) General Murtala Mohammed (c) President
Ibrahim Babangida (d) General Olusegun Obasanjo
7 Policy analysis, policy implementation and plan
setting are some of the functions of: (a) the
legislature (b) the executive (c) the local government
(d) the civil service
8 Public corporations can be controlled through: (a)
riots (b) public opinion (c) civil disobedience (d) none
of the above
9. The general supervision of a public corporation is
carried out by the (a) board of directors (b) board of
trustees (c) managing director (d) secretary of the
board
10 The local government in Nigeria is created to:
(a)create more civil service jobs (b) encourage
competition and rivalry among communities (c) bring
the government nearer to the people (d) prevent the
creation of more states
11 The civil service embraces all workers in: (a) all
private corporations (b) public and private companies
(c) government ministries (d) public corporations
12 The effective operation of the civil service in Nigeria
is mostly hampered by: (a) inadequate training of
personnel (b) corruption and inefficiency (c) debt
burden and redundancy (d) poor infrastructure
13 The Bureau of public enterprises is charged with the
responsibility for: (a) privatization and
commercialization (b) generation revenue (c)
eradicating poverty (d) providing employment
opportunities
14 Financial allocation to a local government t by the
federal or a state government supplement the cost of
a project is called: (a) revenue allocation (b)
reimbursement (c) statutory allocation (d) matching
grant
15 A permanent civil service: (a) make continuity in
government possible (b) makes civil servants
arrogant (c) promotes ethnic domination (d)
undemocratic
16 One form of control exercised over public
corporations is the requirement that their annual
reports be laid before: (a) parliament for scrutiny (b)
all the political parties (c) all the local authorities in
the country (d) joint committee of the executive and
parliament
17. Anonymity of the civil service means that the civil
servant must (a) serve any government impartially
(b) be politically neutral (c) have job security (d)
not receive the credit or blame for any good or bad
policy
18 The local government reform of 1976 in Nigeria
were designed to (a) Decentralize authority (b)
enlist grassroots support (c) achieve even
development (d) all of the above
19 Bye-laws made by local authorities ca be declared
unconstitutional only by the (a) local government
service commission (b) ministry of local
government and chieftaincy affairs courts (d)
attorney general
20. Mass retrenchment of workers in the public and
private sectors is most like to result in (a) political
stability (b) economic survival (c) high rate of
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armed robbery, pilfering and political instability (d)
electoral malpractices
21. Public corporations are established to (a) look after
the affairs of local authorities (b) coordinate the
activities of ministries (c) give advice to the
government
22 Which of the following is not a source of local
government revenue (a) state and federal
government grants (b) licensing of cars and lorries
(c) market stall fees (d) returns on investment
23 One of the major reasons for setting up public
corporations is to (a) maximize profit (b) compete
with private companies (c) provide essential
services (d) encourage
24 All of the following are functions of the civil service
except (a) making laws (b) implementing policies
(c) preparing financing estimates (d) implementing
edicts
25 One factors which militates against the effective
functioning of the civil service is (a) delegated
legislation (b) political interference (c) judicial
inference (d) political stability
26 Being the third tier of government, the local
government is therefore (a) subordinate to state
and federal government (b) antagonistic to state
and federal government (c) coordinate to state and
federal government (d) all of the above
27 One major problem facing public corporations in
Nigerians (a) political parties (b) excessive
patriotism (c) government interference (d) judicial
manipulation
28 Most of the reasons given for the establishment of
public corporations in Nigeria are being
contradicted by the current wave of (a) privatization
and commercializarrion (b) legalization and
nationalization (c) judicial and legislative
competence (d) rigging and electoral brouhaha
29 The recruitment, promotion and discipline of civil
servants in Nigeria is the responsibility of (a) board
of directors (b) civil service commission (c) the
president (d) ministry of labour and productivity
30 Engineers and architects in the civil service fall into
the (a) professional class (b) technical class (c)
higher technical class (d) the manipulative class
31. The main functions of the administrative class of
the civil service include (a) policy making (b)
implementation of government policies (c)
enactment of laws for the ministries (d) all of the
above
32 The relationship between staffs of the civil service
in the discharge of their duties is expected to be (a)
personal and unofficial (b) official and non—
personal (c) causal and inconsistent (d) illogical
and sporadic
33 The first local government system adopted in
Nigeria by the regional government was (a) the
French professorial system (b) the Indian local
government system (c) the Russian socialist
system (d) the British council system
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34 The idea of making the local government the third
tier of government was initiated by (a) Abdusalam
Abubkar regime (b) Alhaji Shedu Sahagari regim
(c) Murtala Obasanjo regime (d) Ibrahim
Babangida regime
35. Before the 1976 local government reforms, one of
the defective features of the local governments in
Nigeria was that: (a) they had no functions to
perform (b) they had no legal personality (c) they
had no chairmen to pilot their affairs (d) they had
no political aspiration
36. One of the major problems which spelt doom for
Nigeria Airways was (a) Embezzlement of fund (b)
corruption (c) lack of patriotism (d) all of the above
37 The main cause of infrastructure decay in Nigeria
is:
(a) illiteracy (b) disobedience (c) lack of
maintenance culture (d) political instability
38 One of the measures that will enhance the status
of the local government as a third tier of
government is (a) the creation of more local
government areas (b) up-grading the local
government to statehood (c) drafting of separate
constitution for local government (d) deduction of
local government share of federal allocation
directly from source
39. To enhance the independence of the federal public
service commission, members should (a) elected
from a national party (b) take oath of celibacy (c)
neither belong to the legislative nor executive
branch of government (d) be appointed by the non-
aligned movement
40 To be promoted from one grade level to another, a
staff must first (a) apply to the Nigeria export
promotion council (b) petition the civil service
commission (c) be in the president or governor’s
list (d) be recommended to the public service
commission by his or her department head
41. to be entitled to pension in Nigeria, a staff must ()
work for 55 years (b) work for at least 10 years
consecutive years (c) work for 65 years (d) attain
the age of seventy
42. The dismissal of a staff in the ministry for official
misconduct is the prerogative is (a) the permanent
secretary (b) personnel manager (c) the minister
(d) the public service commission
43 the greatest head-ache affecting revenue
generation by NEPA is (a) debts owed it by
government department’s and officials (b) refusal
of NEPA men to collect revenue (c) its instability to
employ accountants (d) none of the above
44. Public corporation in Nigeria are subject to the
control of (a) the judiciary (b) the minister in charge
(c) public service commission
45 the public corporation is similar to the joint stock
company because (a) the chairmen is also the
managing director (b) their administrative centres
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are far from their main factories (c) the two are
legal entities (d) they share the same market
46 Which of the following statements both describes a
public corporation? (a) it is an organ of government
responsible for executing the policies of
government (b) it is a local body that renders
services on local basis (c) it is a legal body
established by an act of state to provide essential
services. (d) it is a body owned by members of the
public.
47 ‘Red tapism’ can be explained as (a) the
decentralized way of taking decision (b) a flexible
way by which government decisions are taken (c)
the rigid adherence to routines by civil servants (d)
management by objectives
48 An institution which seeks to redress people’s
grievances against abuse of administrative power
is the (a) ombudsman (b) Judiciary (c) directorate
of public prosecution (d) judicial service
commission
49 A statutory corporation is under the supervision of
(a) the chief justice (b) the commissioner of police
(c) a minister (d) a local government chairman
50 To which class of the civil service does the causal
or manual labour force belong (a) the technical
class (b) the casual class (c) the manipulative class
(d) the higher technical class
MATHEMATICS 2013/2014
1. Which of the following points does not lie on the lie
2y + 5x – 4 = 0? (a) (0,8,0) (b) (1,-0,5) (c) (0,2) (d)
(2,3)
2 A straight line has the equation 107 = 3x + 15.
Which of the following is true? (a) the gradient is
0,3 and they y-intercept is 1.5 (b) the gradient is 3
and the y-intercept is 1.5 (c) the gradient is 15 and
the y-intercept is 3 (d) the gradient is 1.5 and the y-
intercept is 0.3
3 P is the point (2,7) and Q is the point (6,3). What is
the gradient of PQ? (a) 1 (b) -1 (c) 0.5 (d) -0.5
4 P is the point (3,5). Q is the point (-1,9). R is the
midpoint of PQ. Which one of the following lines
does R lie on? (a) y=x+6 (b) y=x+8 (c) y=x-6 (d)
y=x-8
5 a straight line has a gradient of -2 and passes
through the point (4,1). What is the equation? (a)
y+2x=6 (b) y=2x-6 (c) y+2x-9=0 (d) 2y=x-2
6 The line y = 5x-3 and y=2x + 9 intersects at P.
What are the coordinates of P? (a) 2,7) (b) 2,13)
(x) 4,17)
(d) -4,-23)
7. A is the point (1,5), B is the point (4,7) and C is the
point (5,2), Triangle ABC is (a) right-angle (b)
scalene with no right angle (c) equilateral (d)
isosceles
th
8. If un = 2,6,10…… the 12 term of the sequence is
………….(a) 46 (b) 50 (c) 48 (d) 44
9 If un = 2,6,10 ….. the last term of the sequence is
90. The number of terms in the sequence is
………..(a) 20 (b) 22 (c) 24 (d) 23
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10. If un =2,6,10,… the sum of the terms of the
sequence is …………(a) 1104 (b) 1058 (c) 968
(d) 1012
11 In an arithmetic sequence with 25 terms, if the first
term is 60 and last term is -12 the ………(a) 3 (b) 2
(c) -3 (d) -2
12 In an arithmetic sequence with 25 terms, if the first
term is 60 and last term is -12, the sum of the
terms of the sequence is …………….(a) 600 (b)
2400 (c) 1800
13 In an arithmetic sequence whose 4th term is 14 and
whose 11th term is 70, the first and common
difference are
(a) a=-18, d=8 (b) a=-7,d-7 (c) a=10,d=8 (d)
a=14,d=7
14 In an arithmetic sequence whose 4th term is 14 and
whose 11th term is 70, the sum of the first 12 terms
of the sequence is ....................(a) 468 (b) 330 (c)
456 (d) 408
15 Ann goes swimming regularly. She want to improve
her fitness, so she decides to swim 10 lengths in the
first session and increase the number of lengths she
swims by 2 every session. When she reaches 50
lengths in a session she will not increase the number
any further. After how many session does Ann swim
50 lengths for the first time? (a) 21 (b) 22 (c) 20 (d)
19
16 Ann goes swimming regularly. She wants to improve
her fitness, so she decides to swim 10 lengths in the
first session and increase the number of lengths she
swims by 2 every session. When she reaches 50
lengths in a session she will not increase the number
any further. After many sessions does she get her
reward? (a) 15 (b) 25 (c) 16 (d) 24
17 Ann goes swimming regularly. She wants to improve
her fitness, so she decides to swim 10 lengths in the
first session and increase the number of lengths she
swims by 2 every session. When she reaches 50
lengths in a session she will not increase the number
any further. If Ann asks her friend Joy to come
swimming with her. Joy starts coming at Sue’s 8th
session. Joy starts to swim 15 lengths and increases
the number of the lengths by 5 each time. After how
many of Joy’s sessions does she swim the same
number of lengths as Ann? (a) 10 (b) 5 (c) 11 (d) 4
18 A dealer increased the price of an item by 20%, then
increased the price of the same item by 30%. If x is
the original price, what is the price after the two
increases? (a) 1.5x (b) 1.56x (c) x + 0.5 (d) x + 0.56
(e) x + 6
19 Two dice are thrown. What is the probability that the
sum of the two numbers obtained is greater than 10?
(a) 1/12 (b) 1/36 (c) 1/6 (d) 1/4 (e) 1/2
20. If x and y are two real numbers such that 3x + 2y=5
and 5x +4y=9, then 4x + 3y= (a) 0 (b) 2 (c) (d) 6 (e) 7
21 If m and n are positive integers are such that, which
of these values cannot be values of m and n?
(a) m=12 and n=18 (b) m=60 and n=90 (c) m=34 and
n=51 (d) m=7 and n=21 (e) m=102 and n=153
22 If 35 is the median of the data set including 21, 7, 45,
33, 62 and x, then x= (a) 3b (b) 14 (c) 37 (d) 33 (e)
48
23 The .............is the value you calculate when you
want the arithmetic average (a) mean (b) median (c)
mode (d) all of the above
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Examsguru.Net – LASU POST UTME PAST QUESTIONS WITH SOLUTIONS
24 The ..............is often the preferred measure of central
tendency if the data are severely skewed (a) mean
(b) median (c) mode (d) range
25 Which of the following is the formula for range (a) H +
L (b) L x H (c) L – H (d) H - L
26 ................are used when you want to visually
examine the relationship between two quantitative
variables (a) bar graphs (b) pie graphs (c) line graphs
(d) scatterplots
27 As general rule, the .............is the best measure of
central tendency because it is more precise (a) mean
(b) median (c) mode (d) range
28 The most frequently occurring number in a set of
values is called the ..............(a) mean (b) median (c)
mode (d) range
29 A rectangular box with a square base and no top has
a volume of 500cm, the dimensions of the box that
require the least amount of material are (a)
10x10x5cm (b) 4x5x5cm (c) 50x5x2cm (d)
10x50x1cm
30 The volume of the region bounded by the y-axis, y=4
and y=2 is (a) 192p/5 (b)52p/3 (c) 64p (d) 52p/5 (e)
192p/7
31 A newspaper article reported that “children who
routinely compete in vigorous after school sportson
hazy days are three times more likely to get asthma
than their non-athletic peers” Of the following, which
is the most important additional information that
would be useful before making decision about
participation in school sports? (a) where was the
study conducted (b) How many students in the study
participated in after-school sports? (c) what is the
baseline risk for getting asthma? (d) who funded the
study? (e) none of the above
32 The roof of a shelter is made from a piece of
corrugated iron 2.3m long inclined at 18o to the
horizontal. How far from the wall does the roof stick
out? (a) 0.1m (b) 2.2m (c) 1.1m (d) 1.2m (e) 2.1m
33 A ladder 20m long rests against a vertical wall so that
the foot of the ladder 9m from the wall. The height
(correct to 1 decimal place above the ground at
which the upper end of the ladder touches the wall is
......................(a) 19.7m (b) 18.1m (c) 18.7m (d)
17.1m (e) 17.9m
34 A chord 6.6m long is 5.6m from the centre of a circle
<C> The radius of the circle is (a) 3.2m (b) 6.3m (c)
6.5m (d) 1.6m (e) 2.56m
35 The heights in cm, of 10 children are 145, 163, 159,
162, 167, 149, 150, 170 and 155. The mean height
of the children is (a) 156cm (b) 158cm (c) 160cm (d)
16 162cm (d) 159cm
36 The heights in cm, of 10 children are 145, 163, 159,
162, 167, 149, 150, 170 and 155. The standard
deviation of the heights of the children is (a) 5.5cm
(b) 5.7cm (c) 6.5cm (d) 6.7cm (e) 7.7cm
37 The express 10.011 two in decimal (a) 1.625 (b)
2.375 (c) 6.375 (d) 6.75 (e) 2.75
38 A class of all possible subsets of space S is called
...........(a) universal set (b) alpha-field (c) sample
space (d) probability
39 One of these is a demerit of a sample (a) it is
cheaper to enumerate a sample (b) it is faster to
survey a sample (c) Results obtained from sample
are often times as informative as those from a
censor (d) all of the above (e) none of the above
40. One of these is not a desirable feature of a good
statistical table (a) a table must reveal salient
features of data () a table must clearly
communicate information in a neat and concise
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2005 - 2014
form (c) a table must be self sufficient (d) a table
must be self explanatory (e) none of the above
41 Which of these is a measure of location? (a) mean
(b) standard deviation (c) variance (d) all of the
above (e) none of the above
42. Statistics is a set of tools whose proper use
will………..the decision maker (a) completely fill
the needs of (b) encumber (c) aid (d) confuse (e)
none of the above
45 A company employs 100 people, 65 of whom are
men, 60 people including all the women are paid
weekly. The number of the men that are paid
weekly is (a) 35 (b) 40 (c) 25 (d) 30 (e) none of the
above
46 In a survey of villagers, it is found that 20% of the
people have visited Kano and 25% have visited
Port Harcourt. If 5% have been to both cities, then
the percentage that have visited neither Kano nor
Port Harcourt is (a) 75% (b) 65% (c) 50% (d) 60%
(e) 70%
47 If the sides of a triangle are and units, then the
triangle is (a) equilateral triangle (b) well defined
triangle (c) isosceles triangle (d) undefined triangle
(e) right-angled triangle
48 The length of a rectangle is three times its width, if
the perimeter is 72cm, the width of the rectangle is
(a)6cm (b) 8cm (c) 9cm (d) 10cm (e) 11cm
49 The capacity in litres of bucket 24cm in diameter at
the top, 16cm in diameter at the bottom and 20cm
deep is (a) 40 (b) 9.15 (c) 2.78 (d) 6.08 (e) 6.37
50 The area in cm2 of material required for a
lampshade in the form of a frustum of a cone which
top and bottom diameters are 20cm and 30cm
respectively, and the vertical height is 12cm is (a)
1021 (b) 7200 (c) 3600 (d) 2400 (e) 2041
51 A frustum of a pyramid is 3cm square at the top
and 6cm square at the bottom and is 5cm high.
The volume in cm3 of the frustum is (a) 15 (b) 150
(c) 105 (d) 115 (e) 36
52 If x =2, then (x-1) (2x-3) = (a) 1 (b) 3 (c) -2 (d) 0 (e)
-3
53 What is sin 30? (a) ½ (b) 3/2 (c) 0.866 (d) 1 (e) 2
54 Given the list of numbers
{1,6,3,9,16,11,2,9,5,7,12,13,8}, what is the
median? (a) 7 (b) 8 (c) 9 (d) 11 (e) 6
55 What is the slope of the line that is perpendicular to
y – 2x =1? (a) 2 (b) -2 (c) ½ (d) -½ (e) 1
56 What is the sum of the first 40 even positive
integers? (a)1,600 (b) 1,560 (c) 820 (d) 1,640
57 If an item is purchased at $150 and sold at $165,
what percent of the original cost is the profit (a) 110
percent (b) 89 percent (c) 100 percent (d) 9
percent (e) 10 percent
58 What is the length of an arc of a circle with a radius
o
of 5 if it subtends an angle of 60 at the center? (a)
3.14 (b) 5.24 (c) 10.48 (d) 2.62 (e) 4.85
59 If the distance between a 13-foot ladder and a
vertical wall is 5 feet along the ground , how high
can a person climb if the ladder is inclined against
the wall? (a) 18 feet (b) 65 feet (c) 13/5 (d) 8 feet
(e) 12 feet
60 The value of k so that the sequence k-1, k+3, 3k-1
forms an arithmetic progression is ………….(a) 6
(b) 5 (c) d (d) 3 (e) 2
61 If sec u=1,414, sin u= (a) 0.5 (b) 0.71 (c) 0.86 (d)
1,414 (e) 0.67
62 If (2x-y) =4 then (6x-3y)=…………….(a) 15 (b) 12
(c) 18 (d) none
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63 The simple interest on a certain sum of money for 14 A 14 D
three years is 225 and the compound interest on 15 B 15 A
the same sum at the same rate for 2 years is 153 16 A 16 A
then the principal invested is (a) 1500 (b) 2250 (c) 17 A 17 D
3000 (d) 1875 (e) 2000 18 D 18 D
64 The probability of getting a number greater than 4 19 A 19 C
in a single throw of a die is (a) ½ (b) 2/3 (c) ¼ (d) 20 C 20 C
1/3 (e) 1/6 21 C 21 D
65 After allowing a discount of 11.11% a trader still 22 A 22 B
makes a gain of 14.28%, at what percentage of 23 B 23 C
interest dose the trader mark his goods? (a) 28.5% 24 D 24 A
(b) 35% (c) 22.11% (d) 20% (e) none 25 A 25 B
66 The population f a town was 160,000 three years 26 C 26 C
ago. If it increased by 3%, 2.5% and 5% 27 A 27 C
respectively in the last three years, then the 28 B 28 A
present population of the town is (a) 177,000 (b) 29 C 29 B
177,366 (c) 177,461, (177,596, (e) 177,564 30 C 30 A
67 Average age of students in an adult school is 40 31 A 31 B
years. 120 new students whose average age is 32 32 B 32 B
joined the school. As a result, the average age is 33 C 33 D
decreased by 4 years. The number of students of 34 A 34 C
the school after joining of the new students is (a) 35 D 35 B
1200 (b) 120 (c) 360 (d) 240 (e) 300 36 B 36 D
68 A man owns 2/3 of the market research bureau 37 A 37 C
business and sells ¼ of his shares for $75000. the 38 D 38 D
value of the business is (a) $150000 (b) $130000 39 C 39 C
(c) $ 240000 (d) $ 340000 (e) none 40 B 40 D
69 The cost of 16 packets of salt each weighing 900 41 D 41 B
gram is $28. What will be the cost of 27 packets, if 42 D 42 D
each packet weighs 1 kg? (a) $ 52.50 (b) $56.00 43 D 43 A
(c) $58.50 (d) 54.50 44 A 44 C
70 Chukwuma and Chinwe have two children. The 45 A 45 C
probability that the first child is a girl child is 50%. 46 D 46 C
The probability that the second child is a girl is also 47 C 47 C
50%. Chukwuu and Chinwe revealed they have 48 A 48 A
daughter. The probability that their other child is 49 C 49 C
also a girl is ………. 50 A 50 C
(a) ½ (b) 1/3 (c) ¼ (d) 1/5 (e) 1 51 B
71 A three digit number consists of 9,5 and one more 52 C
number. When these digits are reversed and then 53 C
subtracted from the original number the answer
yielded will be consisting the same digits arranged MATHEMATICS
yet in a different order. The missing digit is (a) 1 (b) 1 A -
c (c) d (e) 6 2 A
72. If x=2, then (x-1) (2x-3) = (a) 1 (b) 3 (c) -1 (d) 11
3 B
73 Line m has a negative slope and negative y-
intercept. Line n is parallel to line m and has a 4 D
positively intercept. The x-intercept of n must be 5 C
(a) negative and greater than the x-intercept of m 6 C
(b) negative and less than the x-intercept (c) zero 7 A
positive and greater than the x-intercept of m (e) 8 A
positive and less than the x-interception 9 D
10 A
ANSWERS
11 C
ENGLISH LANGUAGE GENERAL PAPER 12 A
1 B 1 C 13 C
2 D 2 B
3 C 3 C
4 C 4 A
5 D 5 B
14 D
6 B 6 A
7 C 7 D 15 A
8 D 8 B 16 C
9 D 9 C 17 D
10 A 10 C 18 D
11 A 11 C 19 A
12 A 12 B
20 A
13 C 13 A

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Examsguru.Net – LASU POST UTME PAST QUESTIONS WITH SOLUTIONS 2005 - 2014
21 D 3 A solid sphere of radius x cm is placed in a cylinder
22 C of radius 2x cm and height 2x cm. The cylinder is
23 A then filled with water to the brim and the solid gently
24 B withdrawn. Find the volume of the water in the
3 3
25 D cylinder in cm (a) 28/3X
3 3 3
26 B (b) 24X (c) 20/3X (d) 8X
27 A 4 The earth rotates on its own axis once in 24hrs.
28 C What is the speed in km/hr of a place whose latitude
29 A o 4
is 30 5 (Take 2R to be equal to 4 x 10 km) (a)
30 C 2,140km/hr (b) 1,443km/hr (c) 1,200km/hr (d)
31 C 1,000km/hr
32 E 5. The minor sector of a circle of diameter 3.6cm
33 E o
subtends angle 35 at the center. What is the
34 A perimeter of the sector? (a) 5.8cm ( b) 4.7cm (c)
35 B 2.9cm (d) 1.1cm
36 E 6.
o
A regular polygon of (2k + 1) sides has 140 as the
37 B size of each interior angle. Find k (a) 4 (b) 4½ (c) 8
38 A (d) 8½
39 C 7. Solve the following simultaneous equation
40 E 2 2
X + Y = 10, x + y = 58
41 D (a) x = 7, y=3 or x=3,y=7 (b) x= -7, y= -3 or x= -3,
42 C y= -7
43 E (c) x= -7, y=3 or x=3, y= -7 (d) x=7, y= -3 or x = -3,
44 C y=7
45 C 8 A man is x years old which is son is y years old.
46 E The sum of their ages is twice the difference of their
47 E ages. If the product of their ages is 675, find the
48 C age of the man
49 D (a) 40years (b) 42years (c) 55years (d) 45years
50 D 9 Let the universal set U = [1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6]
51 C o
A = {1,2,3,} and B {2,4,6} then A n B is (a) {2} (b)
52 C (1,3}
53 A (c) {4,6} (d) {1,2,3,5}
54 B 10 Simplify 8 + 50 as far as possible
55 A 7
56 D 2 2
11 Factorize fully: px – py + qy = qy
3 2

57 E 2
(a) (p q) (x + y) (x – y) (b) (p-q) (x + y )
2

58 - 2
(c) (p + q) (x –y) (x + y) (d) (p-q) (x + y )
2

59 E 12 Evaluate log3 9-log27 3+ log 8 9

60 C 1
(a) 6 /3 (b) 5½ (c) 9 (d) 5 /3
2

61 B 13 In a class of 30 students, there are 10 who wear

62 B spectacles and 16 girls. There are 8 boys who do
63 - not wear spectacles. How many girls wear
64 D spectacles?
66 B (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6
67 B 14 Solve the equation log2 x-log2 (x-1) = 2
68 A (a) 2 (b) 1 1/8 (c) 11/99 (d) no solution
69 C 2 2
15 (x-2) is a factor of x 3x +kx + 14, the value of k is
70 A (a) -5 (b) -2 (c) 2 (d) -3
MATHEMATICS - 2011/2012 2
16 Factorize the polynomial x – 7x + 6
1. A solid is made up of a hemisphere of radius x cm, (a) (x-3) (x-1) (x + 2) (b) (x-3) (x – 1) (x – 2)
2
and a cone of height x cm of the same radius as (c) (x + 3) (x + 1) (x + 2) (d) (x – 1 (x – 6)
the hemisphere. What is the volume of the 17 y is inversely proportional to the square of x. When
3 3
composite solid? (a) 2/3X (b) 15/3X (c) x =3, then y =4. Find the constant of proportionality
12/3X (d) X
3 3
(a) 48 (b) 4/9 (c) 2.25 (d) 36
2 What is the difference in the local time between two 18 The solution to the inequality 5 2x > 11 – 4x is
o
places in latitude 55 N if they are located at (a) x > 3 (b) x>3 (c) x>1 (d) x<1
o
longitudes 8oW and 18 E respectively. (a) 60mins 19 If x 2 = x 3 , find the value of x
(b) 80mins (c) 98mins (d) 104mins 1 5 2 5
(a) 2 (b) -2 (c) 0 (d) 1

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Examsguru.Net – LASU POST UTME PAST QUESTIONS WITH SOLUTIONS 2005 - 2014
32 Change 671nine to base 8
20 The determinant o f 1 2 0 is (a) 550eight (b) 540eight (c) 671eight (d) 1046 eight
3 2 1 33 Write 14/5 – 3 in the form a 5 + b 3, where a and
4 2 1 b are rational (a) 7 (b) 7 5 + 53 (c) 7 5 – 7 3
(d) 7 3 + 7 5
(a) 0 (b) 2 (c) 02 (d) 1 34 In the relation logx y=z, write x in terms of y and z
y y z/y t/y
(a) x = z (b) x = z (c) x = z (d) d x=z
21 In fig. 1, O is the centre of the circle 35 Solve the equation x+ 7 = x-5
o
<AOB = 130 Find <ACB (a) 9 (b) 5, -7 (c) 2 (d) 2,9
O 36 Let y = 4x + 3/2x – 5, write x as a function of y
(a) x=2y-3/5y+3 (b) x=5y-3/2y+4
(c) x=5y+3/2y-4 (d) x=(5y +3) (2y-4)
37 The second and fifth term of a geometric
A B
progression are 6 and -48, respectively. The first
term is (a) -3 (b) 3 (c) 12 (d) -12
C
38 Find the positive solution of the equation log (x + 2)
(a) 115 (b) 135 (c) 79 (d) 65 + log (x + 4) = 1 (a) 6 (b) 0 (c) 2 (d) 1
22. Fig. 2 shows circle of radius 4cm, the area of the 39 N72,000 is invested at 80% simple interest. After
2 2 2
shaded segment is (a) 4cm (b) 4 8cm (c) 84cm how many years has it reached N87,840?
2
(d) 2 -4cm (a) 2 ¼ years (b) 2 years (c) 3years (d) 2½
40 Suppose that p is the probability that an event
occurs, and that q is the probability that the event
does not occur. Which of the following is true? (a)
p=q (b) p+q=1 (c) pq=1
Fig. 2 41 Suppose x and y are positive numbers for which
x>y. Which of the following is not true?
23 Fig.3 shows a pyramid on top of a cuboid. The 2 2
(a) x >y (b) x<-y (c) 1/x>1/y (d) 3x>2y
height of the cuboid is Hem, the height of the 42 Fig. 4 shows a trapezium. The height is 8m, one the
2
pyramid is b, cm, and the square base of both parallel side is 10m and the area is 104m
shapes has side s cm, find the volume of the shape.
8cm
Fig. 4

(a) 16cm (b) 10m (c) 13m (d) 10.4m

3 2
43 Find the remainder when x 3x + 4x – 7 is divided
(x + 2)
2 3 2 3 2 2
(a) s (H + h)cm (b) s (H t h)cm (c) ½ s (2H + h) (a) -3 (b) -7 (c) -35 (d) x = 5x + 14
3 2 3
cm 44 if dy/dx = 6x + 15x and y=7 when x=2, find y
3 5 2
(a) 2x + 3x + 7 (b) 12x + 60x – 497
2 3
24 If y = sin (x + 7), then dy is (c) 12x + 60x – 7 (d) 2x + 3x5 – 105
2 2
(a) 2x cos = (x + 7) (b) (2x + 7) cos (x + 7) 45 The long hand minute of a clock is 7cm long. What
2
(c) -2 cos (x + 7) (d) 2x cos x distance does to the tip of the minutes move 1¼
25 The line y = kx 3 is perpendicular to the line 2y + 3x hours? (take  =22/7) (a) 33cm (b) 44cm (c) 55cm
= 7. the value of k is (a) -1/3 (b) -2/3 (c) 2/2 (d) 2/3 (d) 65cm
26 The midpoint of the line segment joining (-1, 3) and
(5,7) is (a) (3,5) (b) (3,2) (c) (2,5) (d) (1,6) Question 46 and 47 refers to the points A(-2,3) and
27 The solution of the inequality x2 + 3x 10 < o is B(4,5)
(a) -2<x<5 (b) x<-5 pr x>2 (c) 2<x<5 (d) -5<x<5 46 The distance /AB/is: (a) 10units (b) 8units (c)
o
28 A binary operation is defined by a b = a + b 3. the 40units
identity is (a) 3 (b) -3 (c) 1 (d) 0 (d) 14units
o
29 A binary operation is defined by a y = xy x + y, the 47 The midpoint of AB is (a) (3,-4 (b) (-11) (c) (1,-1) (d)
o o
value of (3 4) 5 is (a) 81 () 61 (c) 57 (d) 73 (-3,4)
30 Find the difference between mean and the median 48 Find the sum to infinity of the series
of the numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 7, 9 and 10 (a) 0 (b) 1/9 ½ ¼ + 2/5 – 1/16 + …………
(c) 5 (d) 4/9 (a) 1 (b) 1/3 (c) 2/3 (d) 2
31 There are eight men and nine women on a 49 Find the solution set for the set (x-2) (x-1) > 0
committee. In how many ways can a subcommittee (a) x>2 (b) x<2 (c) x<1 (d) x<1 or x>2
two men and three women be chosen? (a) 2,352 50 The solution set of the inequality /2x + /<10 is
(b) 112 (c) 6,188 (d) 28,224 (a) (-3,2) (b) (-5,2) (c) -8,2) (d) (-3,8)
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Examsguru.Net – LASU POST UTME PAST QUESTIONS WITH SOLUTIONS 2005 - 2014
th
51 Write the 7 term of the sequence {1+(-1)”} 75 If 2m + 3m/4m=5m=2, then 5m + n/2m + n is equal
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) -1 to:
52 If x, 2x + 1, 3x a form an A.P. find a (a) 2 (b) -2 (c) 1 (a) 71/32 (b) 32/71 (c) 2 () 4
2
(d) -1 76 if 2x px + 6 = (2x 6) (x-1), then p is equal to
53 The fifth term of the sequence 1, 21, 51, (a) -8 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) -4
91………….is 77 Which of the following is not a quadratic
(a) 131 (b) 141 (c) 151 (d) 161 expression?
2 2 2
54 Let X = (a, b, c, d) which statement is correct (a) x -5 (b) x(1-2x) (c) x(1 + x ) (c) x -3/8x + 1
(a) { a } x (b) {a, b) x (c) b x (d) n(x)=4 78 In fig. 5 below, RST is a tangent to the circle centre
55 The distance from the points (3,2) to the line 3y + 2x O. it touches the circle at S.U and V are at the ends
+ 5=0 is (a) 5/13 (b) 15/13 (c) 7/ 23 (d) 7/ 5 of a diameter and <SUV = 49o. Find < RSU.
56 Find the slope of the line which is perpendicular to
S T
the line 3x + 5y + 17 = 0 (a) 5/3 (b) -3/5 (c) -5/3 (d)
17/5
57 Find the intercept on the x and y axis respectively of R V
U
the line 3x-2y + 6=0 (a) (3,2) (b) (2,3) (c) 3,2) (d) - O
2,3)
2 o o o o
58 If f (x + 2) = 3x – 2x + 5, find f (1) (a) 8 (b) 10 (c) 6 (a) 48 (b) 138 (c) 42 (d) 90
o
(d) 3 79 The bearing of A from B is 280 . Find the bearing of
2 o o o o
59 If a and b are the root of the equation 2x – 3x – 9 = B from A (a) 80 N (b) 100 (c) 100 (d) 90
2 2–
0, find a + b (a) -1/3 (b) 2/3 (c) 3 (d) 1/3
60 The nth term of a sequence is given by Un = 2 + use frequency table below to answer question 80 to
3Un-1 while the U4 = 36 + U3, find the third term of 82
the sequence.(a) 1 (b) 5 (c) 17 (d) 51 X 0 1 2 3
2
61 If a and b are the roots of the equation 2x – 5x + 6 Frequency 20 18 7 5
2 2
= 0 find a + b (a) ½ (b) 3 (c) -5/2 (d) ¼
62 If x-2 and x+1 are factor of equation x2 + px2- 80 Calculate the mean of x. (a) 1.5 (b) 0.47 (c) 0.94 (d)
4xq=0, determine p, q (a) -3,12 (b) 3,-12 (c) -3,-12 1
(d) -1,0 81 What is the median of x? (a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 25.5 (d) 0.94
63 If x + 25/(x+1)(x-2)=P/5+2+q/5-2,find P 82. What is the range of x? (a) 15 (b) 0 to 3 (c) 5 to 20
(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) -8 (d) 3
64 A 16m ladder is placed against house so that its
base is 8m from the house. What angle does the 83 OAB is a sector of a circle of radius 8cm and centre
o o
ladder makes with the ground? (a) 65 (b) 60 (c) 0 in fig. 6 below. The length of the arc AB is 8cm.
o o
34 (d) 10 Find the area of the sector.
A
o
65 Find the trigonometric function value of cos (315 )
(a) 3/2 (b) 2 (c) ½ (d) undefined O 8cm
o
66 Convert-320 to radian measure. Give answer
using 3, 14 for  (a) 32 (b) 2.57 (c) -5.58 (d) 1.31 B
2
67 Solve for sec x 2/4 sec x =2/2
2 2 2 2
(a) 3 + 41/9 (b) 3-41/5 (c) 2/5 (d) 2 +22/5 (a) 32cm (b) 64cm (c) 30cm (d) 60cm
68 Given that tan θ is in the second quadrant. Find sin
2θ 84 In fig.7 below, find the value of x
o o o o
(a) -2/35 (b) 30.78 (c) -24/25 (d) 18 (a) 141 (b) 90 (c) 97 (d) 112
69 Find arc sin 0.2334 in degrees, using tables (a) 2.91 x
o 1 o 1 o 1
(b) 21 , 30 (b) 13 , 31 (d) 13 , 40
70 Find the components of this vector u + v, where u= o
Fig. 7 112
(3,7) and v=(4,2) (a) (7,-5) (b) (u,-6) (c) (2,5) (d)
3,+5)
71
2
Simplify (4-x2 ) (2+x)-½ (a) (2+x) (2-x) (b) (2-x) 7
(2+x)
(c) (2-x)/ (2-x) (d) (2 +x)/ (2-x) 85 What value of K makes the expression p2-18p + k a
72 Simplify (2-3) (a) (10-93 (b) 8-33 (c) 26-153 (d) perfect square? (a) -9 (b) 9 (c) -81 (d) 81
86 For what value of x is the function y=7/x+3 not
26-93
defined
73 The sum of an infinite geometric progression is 23/7
(a) 7 (b) 0 (c) -3 (d) 3
and the first term is 4. what is the common ratio? 3 2
87 Evaluate (4x10 ) x-(6x10 ), giving your answer in
(a) -23/4 (b) -3/4 (c) ¾ (d) 23/4 4 6
standard form (a) 2400000 (b) 24x10 (c) 2.4 x10
74 Evaluate x3 + 1/2x2 x 1 when x =-1 3
(d) 4.6 x 10
(a) 0 (b) -1 (c) 1 (d) 1/3

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88. In fig. 8 below, O is the centre of the circle, AC=6cm 2011/2012 ENGLISH LANGUAGE
and BC=8cm. Find the circumference of the circle.
Read passage I and II, carefully and answer the
A question
B
O that follow.

C PASSAGE I
One of the most potent elements in body language is eye
(a) 10cm (b) 5cm (c) 47cm (d) 10cm Behaviour. You shift your eyes, meet another person’s
gaze or fail to meet it – and produce an effect out of all
89 In fig.9 below, O is the centre of the circle and proportion to the muscular effort you have made. When
<ACB=130o, Find <DOB two people look searchingly into each other’s eyes,
o o o o
(a) 100 (b) 130 (c) 80 (d) 25 emotions are heightened and the relationship tipped
D toward greater intimacy.
O
In normal conversation, each eye contact lasts only about
a second before one or both individuals look away.
A 130o
B
Because the longer meeting of the eyes is rare, it is
C weighted with significance when it happens and can
generate a special kind of human-to-human awareness.
90 Two ships leave the same port: one ship sails for Most of the time, a lingering look is interpreted as a sign
o
300km on a bearing of 340 ; the other sails for of attraction and this should be scrupulously avoided
o
400km on a bearing of 250 . The distance between except in appropriate
ships is circumstances. A young woman once complained, ‘that
(a) 700km (b) 100km (c) 500km (d) 200km man makes me so uncomfortable, half the time when I
91 A shopkeeper sold an item for N3,600, making a glance at him he’s already looking at me and he keeps
profit of 20%. Find the original cost of the item (a) right on looking.
N2,800 (b) N3,000 (c) 4,500 (d) 4,320
92 A flag pole of height 2.5m casts a shadow of length Proper street behaviour requires a balance of attention
4m. Calculate the angle of elevation of the sum, and intention. You are supposed to look at a passer-by
o o o
correct to the nearest degree (a) 32 (b) 58 (c) 39 just enough to show that you are aware of his presence.
o
(d) 51 If you look too little, you appear haughty or furtive; too
x+1 2x-1
93 If 4 x 8 = 16, find x. (a) 4 (b) 9 ½ (c) 5/9 (d) -1 much and you are inquisitive. Usually what happens is
94 Evaluate 22three x 102three, leaving your answer in that people eye each other until they are about eight feet
base 3. apart, at which point both east down their eyes.
(a) 88three (b) 1021three (c) 10021three (d) 2244three
95 8% of a certain sum of money is N320. What is 10% Much of eye behaviour is so subtle that we react to it only
of the sum? (a) N400 (b) N256 (c) N4,000 (d) 800 on the intuitive level. This has been demonstrated in
96 The number is selected at random from the set elaborate experiments. Subjects sit and talk in the
(3,0,5, 4, 5, 2/5). What is the probability the psychologist’s laboratory innocent of the fact that their
number is rational? eye behaviour is being observed from behind a one-way
(a) 2/5 (b) 3/5 (c) 1/5 (d) 4/5 vision screen. In one fairly typical experiment, subjects
2
97 The area of a circle is 154cm . Find its were included to cheat while performing a task, then
circumstance. (take =22/7) (a) 7cm (b) 14cm (c) were interviewed and observed. It was found that those
308cm (d) 44cm who had cheated met the interviewer eyes less often
98 Two dice are thrown together, what is the probability than was normal, an indication that ‘shifty eyes’ can
of getting a sum of 5 (a) 1/6 (b) 5/16 (c) 1/8 (d) 1/12 actually be a tip-off to an attempt to deceive.
99 in Fig.10 below, the acute angle of the
o
parallelogram is 45 , one side is 8cm and the area is However, none of the ‘facts’ of eye behaviour are cut and
2
24cm , find the other side. dried, for there are variations between individuals.
People use their eyes differently and spend different
o
45 amounts of time looking at others. Besides, pattern of
eye behaviour is precisely predictable in any normal
(a) 12cm (b) 10cm (c) 6cm (d) 4cm conversion.
100 three times the tens digit of a two digit number is 2
greater than the unit digit. When the digits are Adapted from McQuade (1969), Thinking in Writing,
interchanged the new number is 36 more than the p.167
original number. What is the original number? (a) 1 The young woman in the passage was uncomfortable
35 (b) 37 (c) 15 (d) 28 because (a) the man appeared to e showing interest
in her by his prolonged eye contact (b) the man’s short

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Examsguru.Net – LASU POST UTME PAST QUESTIONS WITH SOLUTIONS
and sharp gazes would tip the relationship toward
greater intimacy (c) strangers who made the man’s
type of eye contact were likely to be dangerous (d)
she was allergic to eye contact
2. The reason given for the non-finality of research
results on eye contact is (a) lack of concord and
foresight among psychologists who carry out research
on eye movement
(b) lack of uniformity in eye behaviour and the
variability of contact situation (c) that some subjects
cheat during experiments, thus invalidating research
findings (d) that research findings on eye contact have
not been subjected to further empirical test
3 From the expression proper street behaviour requires
a balance of attention and intention, it can be
conclude that
(a) even among strangers, attitudes and purposes
can be deduced from eye behaviour (b) before
walking the streets one must balance one’s shifty
eyes (c) when intimate groups meet in the streets,
eye contact is usually longer (d) there is a balance
between those with longer eye contact and those
with shorter eye contact
4 Which of the following can be concluded from the
opening paragraph? (a) the effects of eye contact are
always overwhelming (b) eye behaviour is one of the
non-verbal ways of communicating (c) eye movement
is the most potent means of expressing intimacy (d)
people are always offended by searching eye contact
5 From the findings of the research described in the
passage, one can reason that (a) innocent people
maintain longer eye contact than the guilty ones (b)
guilty people make Jess frequent gazes during
interrogation (d) a feeling of guilt is occasioned by
‘shifty eyes’
PASSAGE II
Use the passage below to answer question 6 to 16. The
passage has gaps numbered 16 to 26. Immediately
following each gap, four options are provided. Choose
the most appropriate option for each gap.
Two thirds of children in …………..6 (A: industrialized B.
socialized C. technological D. modernized} societies no
longer have family life. They are virtually abandoned to
child minders from a very tender age. The………..7 [A.
disregard B. indifference C. alienation D. inattention]
from their mothers brings suffering and makes it
impossible for them to achieve a healthy social life. The 8
[A. development B. increase C. appreciation D. inflation]
in the number of suicides, the rates of drug addiction and
………….9 [A. delinquency B. irresponsibility C.
Satanism D. truancy] among young people may be to a
large extent, due to these premature separations which
take place before sufficient time has 10 [A. materialized
B. occurred C. surfaced D. elapsed] for attachment to
develop. “this is one of the causes of psychosis in
children today’ says a psychiatrist who believes that
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2005 - 2014
breast-feeding is one of the basic cares which many
children of this age are 11 [A. tantalized with B. denied of
C. left with D. spared of]. This psychiatrist argues that
breast-feeding extends into the world outside the womb,
a liquid bond with the inside of the mother’s body; a bond
12 [A. close to B. the same as C. unrelated to D.
irrelevant to] that which the baby had with the placenta
inside the uterus. Rhythmic rocking to and from is 13 [A.
an elongation B. a demonstration C. a continuation D. a
stretching] of the movement that the child experienced
before it was born. As for the baby’s 14 [A. squeezing
against B. separation from C. likeness for D. pressure
against] its mother’s body, it reminds the child of the
…….15. [A. reassuring B. uncomfortable C. amusing D.
unpleasant] pressure of the uterus, and enables it to 16
[A. unearth B. rediscover C. learn D. explore] the rhythms
of its mother’s breathing and heartbeat.
In each of question 17 to 26, select the option that best
explains the information conveyed in the sentence.
17 If the rain hadn’t fallen, we wouldn’t have missed the
match (a) the rain is falling, so we will miss the
match (b) the rain fell, so we didn’t watch the match
(c) the fell, so we watched the watch (d) the rain
didn’t fall, so we didn’t watch the match
18 The new headmaster hoped that his men would pull
together (a) he expected that the men would
cooperate with him (b) he thought that the men
would compose themselves at work (c) he was
certain that they would resign on masse (d) he was
certain that their condition would improve under him
19 If the trader paid in full, his order was not pruned
down (a) the trader who made full payment did not
have his order reduced (b) the trader who made
some payment did not have his order delayed (c)
unless the trader paid in full his order would be
rejected (d) as the trader did not increase his order,
he did not need to pay in full
20. The men were not pawns in someone else’s political
game (a) the action they executed was their idea (b)
the men used someone else’s plan (c) the were
used by someone’s political game (d) they loved
playing political games
21 The crisis ended as suddenly as it began (a) the
crisis had suddenly begun (b) the crisis will not end
suddenly (c) the crisis stopped almost immediately
(d) the crisis will stop immediately
22 One thing I will not be complaining about in my new
job is a lack of excitement (a) the job is bad (b) the
job is exciting (c) the job is not too exciting (d) the
job has been previously done
23 The governor parried all the questions put to him by
the journalist (a) the governor answered all the
questions brilliantly (b) the governor evaded all the
question (c) the governor failed all the questions (d)
the governor mastered all the questions
24 If I visited England, I might go to Manchester city (a)
when I go to England, I could go to Manchester city
(b) whenever I visit England, I must go to
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Manchester city (c) I did not go to England and
could not go to Manchester city (d) I could not visit
Manchester city because I did not want to go to
England.
25 The man puts his foot down whenever he is
convinced of his action (a) he desires to assert his
will in the situation (b) he makes his mark wherever
he goes (c) his attitude demonstrates someone who
like to oppress others around him (d) he
demonstrates firmness of character.
In each of questions 26 to 40, choose the option nearest
in
meaning to the word or phrase in italic
26 No wonder Dekemi later become a detective; she
has been very observant (a) curious (b) perceptive
(c) inductive (d) inquisitive
27 Nigeria has been playing a vital role in the political
and economic development of Africa (a) creditable
(b) crucial (c) respectable (d) laudable
28 Emeka’s painting was so realistic that it could
almost have been a photograph (a) picturesque (a)
concrete (c) lively (d) authentic
29 Courteously, Ade stood back to let his teacher go
first through the door (a) patiently (b) politely (c)
carefully (c) calmly
30 Many people used to live in property (a) instability
(b) want (c) difficulty (d) the slums
31. Accountability is certainly a desirable quality in a
politician (a) respectability (b) courage (c)
responsibility (d) diligence
32 The common practice among some media
practitioners is to be sensational in their reporting
(a) prevalent (b) rampant (c) ordinary (d) cogent
33 That fateful decision changed the company’s
outlook in many ways (a) wonderful (b) disastrous
(c) an internal (d) an external
34 The accident victim received a superficial wound
from the crash (a) a serious (b) a painless (c) an
internal (d) an external
35 the boxer fizzled out just in the sixth round (a)
knocked out his opponent (b) showed off his talents
(c) became tired but fought on spiritedly (d)
surrendered rather disappointingly
36 The manager described Mfon as a man of
vehement character (a) weak and uninterested (b)
strong and insistent (c) troublesome and noisy (d)
clever and helpful
37 Obi’s dog is old but still lively (a) attractive (b)
howling (c) barking (d) frisky
38. His taciturnity amazed everyone in the court during
the legal tussle (a) obliviousness (b) reticence (c)
sensibility (d) pervasiveness
39 The greatness of the creator of the universe is
always inexpressible to many adherents of certain
faiths (a) inevitable (b) wonderful (c) ineffable (c)
unbearable
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40 We made a pile in the business deal. (a) lost a lot of
money (b) earned a lot of money (c) broke even (d)
cut corners
2011/2012 GENERAL PAPER
Answer the following questions by choosing one of the
options
1. A low land between two hills is called (a) island (b)
valley (c) plateau (d) lake (e) mountain
2. Which of these animals is not a member of dog
family
(a) jackal (b) German Shephered (c) tiger (d)
Yorkshire terrier (e) Rottweiler
3. The process in which the food we eat is broken
down into substance that can be used by the body
is called (a) digestion (b) circulation (c) tissue (d)
respiration (e) excretion
4 A frightening dream is called (a) blush (b) nightmare
(c) night anguish (d) night fear (e) none of the above
5. Which of these is not a type of eagle? (a) short-toed
(b) booted (c) bonelli (d) all of the above (e) none of
the above
6 What was the former name of present Zimbabwe?
(a) Rhodesia (b) Yamashoma (c) Orange republic
(d) Brazzaville
7. A system of government based on the ideological
belief of people concentration of national resources
in the hands of the state is called (a) fanaticism (b)
egalitarianism (c) communism (d) democracy (e)
utopianism
8. An instrument used in finding ways and navigation
is called (a) map (b) GPRS (c) compass (d)
compound (e) none of the above
9 A computer is made of (a) hardware (b) software (c)
none of the above (d) A & B (e) A only
10. Which of these continents is the coldest in the
world? (a) Asia (b) Africa (c) Antarctic (d) Europe (e)
America
11 What is the name of the world’s highest mountain?
(a) Mount Kilomajaro (b) Mount Everest (c) Mount
Cameroon (d) Mountain Nkoyo (e) none of the
above
12 What name is the parliament of Nigeria called (a)
house of representative (b) senate (c) state house
of assembly (e) national assembly (e) all of the
above
13 The parliament of the United States of America is
called (a) house of parliament (b) national assembly
(c) congress (d) assembly of law makers (e) none of
the above
14 Cote d’ Ivoire is formerly known as? (a)
Yamassokou (b) Ivory Coast (c) Gold Coas (d)
Rhode Coast (e) Diamond Haven
15 The process of preservation, protection and wise
use of natural resources is called (a) fermentation
(b) preservation (c) conservation (d) ecology (e)
zoning
16 Ballet and Tango are types of (a) song (b) dancing
(c) cycling (d) swimming (e) horse ridding
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17 The first person to develop atomic bomb was (a) 2012/2013 MATHEMATICS PRACTICE
Albert Einstein (b( Charles De Gaulle (c) Thomas 1. Calculate 3310, 1442 (a) 1313 (b) 2131 (c) 4302 (d)
Jefferson (d) T.S. Elliot (e) Plato 1103
18 The process by which the people in a country is 2. Convert 3.1415926 to 5 decimal places (a) 3.14160
given an opportunity to elect, choose or reject new (b) 3.14159 (c) 0.31415 (d) 14200
government is known as (a) referendum (b) 3 The length of a notebook 15cm was measured as
plebiscite (c) election (d) ratification (e) none of the 16.8cm. calculate the percentage error to 2
above significant figures (a) 12.00% (b) 11.00% (c) 10.71%
19. In which continent is Mount Everest? (a) Asia (b) (d) 0.12%
North America (c) South America (d) Africa (e) 4 A worker’s present salary is N24.000 per annum.
Europe His annual increment is 10% of his basic salary.
20. Which of these people is not an explorer? (a) Vasco What would be his annual salary at the beginning of
Da Gama (b) Christopher Columbus (c) Ferdinand the third year?
Magellan (d) David Livingstone (e) none of the (a) N28.800 (b) N29.040 (c) N31.200 (d) N31.944
above 5 Express the product of 0.0014 and 0.011 in
4 -3
21. What is the difference between 2:45am and standard form (a) 1.54 x 10 (b) 1.54 x 10 (c) 1.54
-4 -5
12:32pm (a) 9Hrs 47min (b) 14hrs 10min (c) 5hra x 10 (d) 1.54 x 10
1 3
25min (d) 10hrs 17min 6 Evaluate (81)¾ - (27) /3 /3 x 2
22 2¾ - 2½ x ½ = (a) 4/3 (b) 14/3 (c) 9/8 (d) 3/2 (a) 27 (b) 1 (c) 1/3 (d) 1
3
23 2 scores plus 4 dozens multiplied by 14 equals? (a) 7 Find the value of (16) /2 + log10 0.0001 + log2 32
118 (b) 1232 (c) 1882 (d) 1432 (a) 0.065 (b) 0.650 (c) 5.500 (d) 65.000
24 33½ of 100 equal? (a) 33½ (b) 30 (c) 3 (d0 33 8 Simplify 12 -  3
25 1800 multiplied by what number will give you 12 - 3
100800 (a) 56 (b) 28 (c) 41 (d) 38 (a) 1/3 (b) 0 (c) 2 (d) 1
26 5.8 x 6.1 x 9.8 = (a) 3324 (b) 1591 (c) 2831 (d) 9. Four members of a social first eleven cricket term
2419 are also members of the first fourteen rugby team.
27 A farmer has 41 bags of oranges. Each bag How many boys play for at least one of the two
contains 59 oranges each. How many oranges does teams?
the farmer have? (a) 25 (b) 21 (c) 16 (d) 3
(a) 3324 (b) 1591 (c) 2831 (d) 2419 10. If S = (xx2 = 9, x>4), then S is equal to (a) 0 (b) (0)
28 If 16 of the same book weight 4kg. how much does (c) (?) (d) (%)
3
one book weigh? (a) 20g (b) 25g (c) 55g (d) 40g 11 If x 1 and x = 1 are both factors of the equator x +
2
29 What is 5% of N575? (a) 30.8 (b) 28.75 (c) 25.5 (d) px + qx + 6 = 0, evaluate p and q (a) 6,-1 (b) 6,-1
55.5 (c) 1, -1 (d) 6,-6
2
30 What is the difference between 500 multiplied by 12 Find a positive value of p is the expression 2x -px +
700 and 700 multiplied by 500? (a) 1000 (b) 100 (c) p leaves a remainder 6 when divided by x – p.
0 (d) 10000 (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
31 A girl has 98 beads and all but 14 were lost. How 13 Find T in terms of K, Q and S if S = 2r (QT + K)
many beads did she loose? 2
(a) S - K (b) S2 - K
32 If 15% of a number is 175. What is the number 2r  Q
2
Q 4r  Q
2
Q
multiplied by 2? (a) 500 (b) 150 (c) 1000 (d) 800
th
33 A man was born on the 29 of February, 1980. How 2
(c) S - K (d) S
2
- K
many birthdays has he celebrated after his birth till 2r  Q
2
4r  Q
2

today? (a) 9 (b) 9 (c) 3 (d) 13 14
35 17,31,51,68 (a) 75 (b) 82 (c) 90 (d) 85
36 A man buys 6 books and 3 bags. If a book cost N17
and a bag cost N25. How much as spent? (a) N112 15
(b) N177 (c) N125 (d) N150
37 It takes 15 minutes to fill 125 gallons with petrol
from a tanker. How long will it takes to fill gallons?
(a) 92min (b) 45min (c) 87 min (d) 102min 16
38 If it takes 15 men 6½ days to build a house, how
many houses can they build in 45 days? (a) 3 days 17
The graph of f(x)2 = x2 5x + 6 crosses the x-axis
(a) (-6,0), (-1,0) (b) -3, 0) (c) (-6,0), (1,0) (d) (2,0),
(3,0)
2
Factorize completely the expression abx + 6y 3ax
2byx
(a) (ax – 2y) (bx 3) (b) bx + 3) (2y – ax) (c) (bx + 3)
(ax – 2y) (d) ax – 2y (ax – b)
Solve the following inequality (x-3) (x-4) < 0
(a) 3 < x < 4 (b) 3< x <4 (c) 3<z<4 (d) 3<x< 4
th
The 4 term of an A.P is 13 while the 10 term is
th

(b) 7days (c) 8 days (d) 5days st

31. Find the 21 term, (a) 175 (b) 85 (c) 64 (d) 45
39 If it takes a boy 5 minutes to run 1 km, how long 18 Simplify
2
x –1
would it take him to run 2½ km? (a) 10½ min (b) 2
X3 – 2x – x – 2
15min (c) 12½ (d) 11½min (a) 1 (b) x – 1 (c) x – 1 (d) 1
40 How many bottles are in a dozen crates containing X+2 x+1 x+2 x–2
24 bottles each? 19 Express 5x 12/(x-2) (x-3) in partial fractions
(a) 2 - 3 (b) 2 + 3

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Examsguru.Net – LASU POST UTME PAST QUESTIONS WITH SOLUTIONS 2005 - 2014
X -2 x-3 x-2 x-3 36
(c) 2 - 3 (d) 5 - 4 Age in 37. 38. 39. 40. 41.
x-3 x-2 x-3 x-2
20 Which of the following binary operations is years 13 14 15 16 17
commutative in the set of integers? (a) a-b=a-2b (b)
No of 42. 3 43.10 44. 45. 46.15
a.b=a+b-ab
2
(c) a-b=a =b (d) a.b=a(b+1)/2 students 30 42
21 If a*b= + ab evaluate 2* (12*27)
(a) 12 (b) 9 (c) 6 (d) 2
22 Find the sum to infinity of the following sequence The frequency distribution above shows the ages of
1,9/10, (9/10)2, (9/10)3 students in a secondary school. In a pie chart
(a) 1/10 (b) 9/10 (c) 10/9 (d) 10 constructed to represent data, the angle
o o
23 Find the value of k if corresponding to the 15 years old is (a) 20 (b) 30
o o
-2 1 1 (c) 54 (d) 108
2 1 k = 23
1 3 1 French, 90

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) (d) 4

Economic, 150
24 If X = 1 2 and Y = 2 1 find XY C.R.K, 30
0 3 4 3
History, 90
(a) 10 7 (b) 2 7 (c) 10 4 (d) 4 3 37
12 9 4 17 4 6 10 9
25
o
In a triangle XYZ, <YXZ = 44 and <XYZ = 112 ,
o The pie chart above shows the distribution of
calculate the acute angle between internal bisectors students in a secondary school class. If 30 students
o o
of <XYZ and <XZY (a) 12 (b) 56 (c) 68 (d) 78
o o offered French, how many offered C.R.K? (a) 25 (b)
26 Find the distance between two town P(45 N 30 W)
o o 15 (c) 10 (d) 8
o o
and Q(15 S, 3 W) if the radius of the earth is
38 The mean and the range of the set of number 1, 20,
7000km (?=22/7)
1.00, 0.90, 1.40, 0.80, 1.20 and 1.10 are in and r
(a) 1100/3km (b) 2200/3km (c) 22000/3km (d)
respectively. Find m + r (a) 1.11 (b) 1.65 (c) 1.85
11000/3km
(d) 2.45
27 Two perpendicular lines PQ and QR intersect at (1,
-1), if the equation of PQ is x-2y + 4 = 0, find the Class 1-3 4-6 7-9
equation of QR
(a) x-2+1=0 (b) 2x+y-3=0 (c) x-2y-3=0 (d) 2x + y- Frequency 5 8 5
1=0
28 P is on the locus of points equidistant from two 39 Find the standard deviation of the data using the
table above. (a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 5/3 (d) 5
given points X and Y, UV is a straight line through Y
o 40 The variance of the scores 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 is
parallel to the locus, if < PYU is 40 , find <XYP. (a) 1.2 (b) 1.4 (c) 2.0 (d) 3.0
o o o o
(a) 100 (b) 80 (c) 50 (d) 40
29 The base diameter of a cylinder is 14cm while the
height is 12cm, calculate the total surface area if the ENGLISH 2012/2013
2 1. From the following options select the one opposite in
cylinder has both a base and a top (a) 836cm (b)
2 2
528cm (c) 308cm (d) 154cm
2 meaning to the underlined word or group of words in
a sentence.
30 A school boy lying on the ground 30, away from the
foot of a water tank tower observes that the angle of The young engineer is good at terminating other
o
elevator of a top of the tank is 60 , calculate the people’s projects but has not been capable of
height of the water tank. (a) 18.2m (b) 12.2m (c) ............any of his own. (a) integrating (b) finishing (c)
6.2m (d) 3.2m completing (d) initiating (e) organizing
o
31 QRS is a triangle with QS=12m, <RQS=30 and
o
<QRS=45 (a) 18.2m (b) 12.2m (c) 6.2m (d) 3.2m 2. From the following options select the one opposite in
meaning to the underlined word or group of words in
32 The derivative of cosec x is (a) tan x cosec x (b) cot
sentence.
x cosec x (c) tan x sec x (d) cot x sec
2
33 For what value of x is the tangent to the curve y=x - The manager who expected to be given respect was
4x+3 parallel to the axis? (a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) 0 treated with......... (a) dignity (b) scorn (c) shame (d)
34 Two variables x and y are such that dy/dx=4x-3 and cruelty (e) disloyalty
y=5 when x=2, find y in terms of x.
2 2 2
(a) 2x -3x+5 (b) 2x -3x+3 (c) 2x -3x (d) 4 3. From the following options select the one opposite in
2 meaning to the underlined word or group of words in
35 Find the area bounded by the curve y=3x -2x+1, the sentence.
ordinates x=1 and x=3 and the x-axis
(a) 24 (b) 22 (c) 21 (d) 20

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Examsguru.Net – LASU POST UTME PAST QUESTIONS WITH SOLUTIONS
Those who had invitation cards were admitted to the
party while those who had none were ...........
(a) Barred (b) repelled (c) expelled (d) compelled
(e) restricted
4. From the following options select the one opposite in
meaning to the underlined word or group of words in
sentence.
Too many theories will not help us: we need to
be.........
(a) Bookish (b) hypothetical (c) antithetical (d)
shrewd
(e) practical
5 From the following options select the one opposite in
meaning to the underlined word or group of words in
sentence.
Nobody expects him to show ..........for his children
but he certainly bestows too much affection on them
(a) love (b) concern (c) intimacy (d) devotion (e)
hatred
6 From the following options select the one opposite in
meaning to the underlined word or group of words in
sentence.
The challenger was crude and inexperienced
incorrect to the champion who was .............(a) great
(b) exposed (c) celebrate (d) refined (e) strong
7 From the following options select the one opposite in
meaning to the underlined word or group of words in
sentence.
What should have been a source of motivation for
him proved a terrible source of .............(a) failure (b)
harm (c) discourage (d) uncertainty (e) disturbance
8 From the following options select the one opposite in
meaning to the underlined word or group of words in
sentence.
Ade is very conservative in his political ideals
whereas Bala expresses.................views always (a)
radical (b) heretical (c) conventional (d) fanatical (e)
impractical
9 From the following options select the one opposite in
meaning to the underlined word or group of words in
sentence.
The government has been spending more money on
preventive rather than on .............medicine (a)
modern (b) protective (c) diagnostic (d) traditional (e)
curative
10 From the options choose the word that best
completes each of the following sentences.
The fisherman threw a stone into the river and this
caused a ..................(a) sprinkle (b) sparkle (c)
splash (d) spring (e) storm
11 From the options choose the word that best
completes each of the following sentences.
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The play was so interesting that the ..............clapped
for quite a long time at the end (a) spectators (b)
watchers (c) congregation (d) people (e) audience
12 From the options choose the word that best
completes each of the following sentences.
The building.................because of weak structural
foundation (a) tumbled (b) succumbed (c) collapsed
(d) caved (e) crumbled
13 From the options choose the word that best
completes each of the following sentences.
The magazine was ..............by the government for an
offensive publication (a) prescribed (b) proscribed (c)
suspended (d) condemned (e) persecuted
14 From the options choose the word that best
completes each of the following sentences.
Many people reacted to the brutal murder of the
popular journalist with strong...............(a) indignation
(b) demonstration (c) mobilization (d) condemnation
(e) accusation
15 From the options choose the word that best
completes each of the following sentences.
The governor frowned at the ...............which slowed
down the implementation of policy decisions (a)
bureaucracy (b) autocracy (c) opposition (d)
convention
16 From the options choose the word that best
completes each of the following sentences.
The doctor ............the illness as yellow fever not
malaria (a) prescribed (b) examined (c) discovered
(d) announced (e) diagnosed
17 From the options choose the word that best
completes each of the following sentences.
Since the writer did not indicate his name, the editor
decided not to publish such ...........article (a) a
discourteous (b) an anonymous (c) a scandalous (d)
a libellous (e) a cowardly
18 After the following sentence, a list of possible
interpretation of all or part of the sentence is given.
Choose the interpretation that you consider most
appropriate for each sentence.
Mrs. Alabi was not around when her case was called
and none of her colleagues was willing to hold brief
for her. This means that: (a) her colleagues were
afraid (b) she was not trusted (c) her colleagues did
not want to represent her (d) she had quarrel with her
colleagues.
19 After the following sentence, a list of possible
interpretation of all or part of the sentence is given.
Choose the interpretation that you consider most
appropriate for each sentence.
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Telling lies has become second nature to Kunle.
This means that Kunle (a) rarely tells lies (b) always
tells lies (c) tells lies only on second thoughts (d)
learnt to tell lies from childhood
20 After the following sentence, a list of possible
interpretation of all or part of the sentence is given.
Choose the interpretation that you consider most
appropriate for each sentence.
For us to accomplish the task successfully, all hand
must be on check. This means that everybody.
(a) Should push with his hands (b) will have travel by
sea
(c) must cooperate (d) should take a rest before
continuing the task
21 After the following sentence, a list of possible
interpretation of all or part of the sentence is given.
Choose the interpretation that you consider most
appropriate for each sentence.
The wedding was attended by the cream of the
society. This means that the wedding was attended
by
(a) Everybody in the society (b) only those who were
invited (c) very important people (d) only the
educated people
22 After the following sentence, a list of possible
interpretation of all or part of the sentence is given.
Choose the interpretation that you consider most
appropriate for each sentence.
I want you to keep an eye on that child. This means
that i want you to: (a) disciplined the child (b) keep
the child busy all the time (c) punish the child if he
misbehave (d) watch the child all the time
23 After the following sentence, a list of possible
interpretation of all or part of the sentence is given.
Choose the interpretation that you consider most
appropriate for each sentence.
It appears Sade’s success at the last examination
has gone to her head. This means that Sade is (a)
conceited (b) too happy (c) crazt (d) impudent
24 After the following sentence, a list of possible
interpretation of all or part of the sentence is given.
Choose the interpretation that you consider most
appropriate for each sentence.
Little Sheila is always as lively as a kitten. This
means that Sheila is always (a) wearing bright
dresses (b) very realistic in what she does (c) moving
quickly like a kitten (d) Gay and cheerful
25 After the following sentence, a list of possible
interpretation of all or part of the sentence is given.
Choose the interpretation that you consider most
appropriate for each sentence.
This masquerade appears once in a blue moon. This
means that the masquerade appears (a) on very rare
occasions (b) when the moon is blue (c) whenever a
special request is made (d) once a month
26 After the following sentence, a list of possible
interpretation of all or part of the sentence is given.
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2005 - 2014
Choose the interpretation that you consider most
appropriate for each sentence.
Okon is quite hard working but his problem is that he
has too many irons in the fire. This means that Okon
(a) is a blacksmith (b) takes on more problems that
he can cope with (d) is a very successful
businessman
27 From the words or group of words below the
following sentence, choose the word or group of
words that is nearest in meaning to the underlined
group of words as used in the sentence.
It takes a great deal of stamina to run the marathon
race (a) courage (b) determination (c) Energy (d)
intelligence (e) elevenses
28 From the words or group of words below the
following sentence, choose the word or group of
words that is nearest in meaning to the underlined
group of words as used in the sentence.
But for the principal actor the play would have been
dull
(a) important (b) head (c) master (d) famous (e) main
29 From the words or group of words below the
following sentence, choose the word or group of
words that is nearest in meaning to the underlined
group of words as used in the sentence.
An open car has no protection against the element
(a) weather (b) emergency (c) molecules (d) atoms
(e) atmosphere
30 From the words or group of words below the
following sentence, choose the word or group of
words that is nearest in meaning to the underlined
group of words as used in the sentence.
He was reluctant to grant my request (a) disposed (b)
delighted (c) reticent (d) unwilling (e) agreeable
31 From the words or group of words below the
following sentence, choose the word or group of
words that is nearest in meaning to the underlined
group of words as used in the sentence.
The detective was perplexed when clues in the
murder case pointed to at least a dozen different
suspects (a) surprised (b) confused (c) excited (d)
discouraged (e) disappointed
32 From the words or group of words below the
following sentence, choose the word or group of
words that is nearest in meaning to the underlined
group of words as used in the sentence.
The military Governor called for a concerted effort in
solving the problems of the state (a) a dramatic (b)
an agitated (c) a join (d) a directed (e) an unfailing
33 From the words or group of words below the
following sentence, choose the word or group of
words that is nearest in meaning to the underlined
group of words as used in the sentence.
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My financial situation is so precarious very soon i
may be insolvent (a) borrowing (b) stealing (c)
soluble (d) dependent (e) bankrupt
34 From the words or group of words below the
following sentence, choose the word or group of
words that is nearest in meaning to the underlined
group of words as used in the sentence.
The Chairman is of the opinion that accepting the
proposal would be inimical to the objectives of the
association (a) harmful (b) relevant (c) irrelevant (d)
indispensable (e) helpful
35 From the words or group of words below the
following sentence, choose the word or group of
words that is nearest in meaning to the underlined
group of words as used in the sentence.
The famous politician was noted for his programmatic
approach to issues of national interest (a) idealistic
(b) romantic (c) compromising (d) practical (e)
inconsistent
36 From the words or group of words below the
following sentence, choose the word or group of
words that is nearest in meaning to the underlined
group of words as used in the sentence.
Kunle is very pessimistic about our chance of
success (a) sad (b) despondent (c) unconvinced (d)
worried (e) concerned
37 After the following sentence, a list of possible
interpretations of the sentence is given. Choose the
interpretation that you consider most appropriate for
each sentence.
If Kunle hadn’t been transferred to Kano his wife
would not have resigned her teaching job, this means
that
(a) Kunle was not transferred yet his wife resigned
her job
(b) Kunle was transferred and his wife thought of
resigning her job (c) Kunle was transferred yet his
wife had to resign her job (d) Kunle’s wife resigned
though her husband transferred.
38 After the following sentence, a list of possible
interpretations of the sentence is given. Choose the
interpretation that you consider most appropriate for
each sentence.
I’ll call at your house this evening if it doesn’t train.
This means that i (a) will visit you this evening if it
rains (b) will only phone if it rains (c) will sleep in your
house this evening if it rains (d) may not visit you this
evening if it rains
39 After the following sentence, a list of possible
interpretations of the sentence is given. Choose the
interpretation that you consider most appropriate for
each sentence.
Though Ibrahim was provoked, he ought to have
controlled himself. This means that Ibrahim (a)
should have exercise some restraint (b) was the
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aggressor (c) took the provocation with calmness (d)
was found guilty of committing the offence
40 After the following sentence, a list of possible
interpretations of the sentence is given. Choose the
interpretation that you consider most appropriate for
each sentence.
The members of staff told the principal that they took
exception to his comments. This means that the
members of staff. (a) approved of the principal’s
comments (b) objected to the principals comments
(c) wanted to be exempted from the principal
comments (d) warned the principal about his
comments
41 After the following sentence, a list of possible
interpretations of the sentence is given. Choose the
interpretation that you consider most appropriate for
each sentence.
Okon is too quite for my liking. This means that ekon
(a) is like because he is very quite (b) likes people
who are quite (c) is not like because of his extreme
quietness (d) behaves in a very queer and suspicious
manner
42 After the following sentence, a list of possible
interpretations of the sentence is given. Choose the
interpretation that you consider most appropriate for
each sentence.
The teacher said all but one of the sixty candidates
scored below a credit grade. This means that (a) all
the candidate scored below a credit grade (b) only
one of the candidates scored a credit grade (c) only
one of the candidates scored below a credit grade (d)
all the candidates scored a credit grade
43 From the words or groups of words below, choose
the words or group of words that best complete each
of the following sentences.
He was charged with complicity............. the abortive
coup (a) in (b) for (c) about (d) on
44 From the words or groups of words below, choose
the words or group of words that best complete each
of the following sentences.
He was convicted ..................stealing some bags of
cocoa (a) with (b) in (c) of (d) for
45 From the words or groups of words below, choose
the words or group of words that best complete each
of the following sentences.
Mary said she was acting.................the instructions
of the principal (a) by (b) on (c) for (d) through
46 From the words or groups of words below, choose
the words or group of words that best complete each
of the following sentences.
...................normal circumstances, it is rare to get all
registered voters to vote (a) on (b) by (c) in (d) under
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47 From the words or groups of words below, choose
the words or group of words that best complete each
of the following sentences.
Lekan has tried to live................ to his parents’
expectations (a) over (b) on (c) through (d) up
48 From the words or groups of words below, choose
the words or group of words that best complete each
of the following sentences.
The minister’s daughter boasted she would have her
way and she really................. (a) had (b) has (c)
have (d) did
49 From the words or groups of words below, choose
the
words or group of words that best complete each of
the following sentences.
As at yesterday only nomination papers in respect of
three candidates…………(a) have been filled (b) are
being filled (c) been filed (d) has been filled
50 From the words or groups of words below, choose
the
words or group of words that best complete each of
the following sentences.
They embraced passionately as if they………seen
each other for years (a) had (b) had not (c) have (d)
have not
51 From the words or groups of words below, choose
the
words or group of words that best complete each of
the following sentences.
You are not sure where you place the
book…………….?
(a) isn’t It (b) weren’t you (c) are you (d) didn’t you
52 From the words or groups of words below, choose
the
words or group of words that best complete each of
the following sentences.
We arrived when the hall ……….arranged, so we
stood outside (a) has been (b) is being (c) was being
(d) had been
53 From the words or groups of words below, choose
the
words or group of words that best complete each of
the following sentences.
She doesn’t’ know you like your food hot…………..?
(a) does she (b) shouldn’t she (c) didn’t she (d)
wasn’t it
54 From the words or groups of words below, choose
the words or group of words that best complete each of
the following sentences.
It’s certain we shall travel by train…………………?
(a) shan’t we (b) shall we (c) don’t we (d) isn’t it
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55 From the words or groups of words below, choose
the
words or group of words that best complete each of
the following sentences.
……………..of what he said made no sense
(a) much (b) majority (c) plenty (d) many
56 From the words or groups of words below, choose
the
words or group of words that best complete each of
the following sentences.
That isn’t your book, it is ……………(a) Johns’ (b)
John’s (c) John own (d) for John’s
57 From the words or groups of words below, choose
the
words or group of words that best complete each of
the following sentences.
Nana Sawara is a queen and demands to be
treated………….(a) like that (b) like so (c) as such (d)
that much
58 From the words or groups of words below, choose
the
words or group of words that best complete each of
the following sentences.
It is pretty difficult to choose…………….those three
boys (a) between (b) over (c) against (d) among
59 From the words or groups of words below, choose
the
words or group of words that best complete each of
the following sentences.
…………… of the five boys was able to show me the
way to the zoo. (a) none (b) neither (c) any (d) some
60 From the words or groups of words below, choose
the
words or group of words that best complete each of
the following sentences.
We will leave ……….you are ready. (a) as whenever
(c) while (d) until
61 From the words or groups of words below, choose
the
words or group of words that best complete each of
the following sentences.
This …………….be David’s handwriting. I know his
handwriting well enough (a) may (b) will (c) ought (d)
can’t
62 From the words or groups of words below, choose
the
words or group of words that best complete each of
the following sentences.
The book is not in his locker and it’s not in that
cupboard……..(a) neither (b) again (c) either (d) even
63 From the words or groups of words below, choose
the
words or group of words that best complete each of
the following sentences.
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………..things she had in the room were thrown out
(a) so few (b) the few (c) all few (d) very few
64 From the words or groups of words below, choose
the
words or group of words that best complete each of
the following sentences.
The party hardly started….the lights went off. (a) than
(b) then (c) as (d) when
65 From the words or groups of words below, choose
the
words or group of words that best complete each of
the following sentences.
There wee live five boys………….
(a) of which two were beaten (b) whom two were
beaten
(c) two of whom were beaten (d) of whom of them
were beaten
66 From the words or groups of words below, choose
the
words or group of words that best complete each of
the following sentences.
This is the man………….told me the story (a) whom I
said (b) who I said (c) I said that he (d) who I said he
67 From the words or groups of words below, choose
the
words or group of words that best complete each of
the following sentences.
I feel you are none………for experiencing that shock
(a) the worse (b) worse (c) the worst (d) worst
68 From the words or groups of words below, choose
the
words or group of words that best complete each of
the following sentences.
Many students find Mathematics ………than English
(a) difficult (b) too difficult (c) very difficult (d) more
difficult
69 From the words or groups of words below, choose
the
words or group of words that best complete each of
the following sentences.
Tunde is the ……..qualified person for that job. (a)
more
(b) most (c) more than (d) many more
70 From the words or groups of words below, choose
the
words or group of words that best complete each of
the following sentences.
It is such a bad place …………. I will never dream of
going there another time (a) therefore (b thus (c) that
(d) then
71 From the words or groups of words below, choose
the
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words or group of words that best complete each of
the following sentences.
He has not been seen by his parents………. Seven
days
(a) since (b) for (c) getting to (d) for last
72 From the words or groups of words below, choose
the
words or group of words that best complete each of
the following sentences.
He has not been seen by his parents…………….last
month days (a) since (b) for (c) getting to (d) since
over
73 From the words or groups of words below, choose
the
words or group of words that best complete each of
the following sentences.
Please, let me ……..you in your car to the railway
stations
(a) go with (b) move with (c) follow (d) ride
74 From the words or groups of words below, choose
the
words or group of words that best complete each of
the following sentences.
The ………….came here last wee (a) handsome tall
young man (b) young tall handsome man (c) tall
handsome young man (d) young handsome tall man
75 From the words or groups of words below, choose
the
words or group of words that best complete each of
the following sentences.
The activities marking the golden jubilee celebrations
of the dub were………..with a party (a) rounded off
(b) rounded oven (c) rounded through (d) rounded up
2012/2013 GENERAL PAPER
Answer the following questions by choosing one of the
options
1 The ‘motto’ of the LAGOS STATE UNIVERSITY is
(a) learning & morals (b) in truth we stand (c) in deed
and in truth (d) dignity and labour (e) none of the
above
2 Which of the following is not the name of the
incumbent President of Nigeria? (a) Goodluck (b)
Jonathan (c) Azikiwe (d) Ebele (e) Nwerem
3 the name of an organisation that provides customers
with access to the internet is (a) Cyber café (b)
internet service provide (c) Microsoft service provider
(d) HTML editor
4. Nigeria became a Republic in (a) 1960 (b) 1966 (c)
1963 (d) 1959
5 What is the name of the current Vice-Chancellor of
the LAGOS STATE UNIVERSITY ? (a) Prof. Tolu
odugbemi (b) Prof. Babafemi Sofoluwe (c) Prof. Oye
Ibidapo-Obe (d) Prof. Adetokunbo Sofoluwe (e) Prof.
Nurudeen Aho
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6 The 2011 Presidential election in Nigeria was held on
(a) April 6, 2011 (b) April 9, 2011, (c) April 16, 2011
(d) April 26, 2011 (e) none of the above
7 Which of the following was not a candidate in the
2011 presidential election in Nigeria? (a) Nuhu
Ribadu (b) Mohammed Buhari (c) none of the above
8 The chairman of the economic and financial crimes
commission in Nigeria is (a) mallam nuhu ribadu (b)
Mrs. Farida Waziri (c) Mrs. Dora Akunyilu (d) Alh.
Mohammed Buhari (e) none of the above
9 Lagos is a place in (a) Nigeria only (b) Portugal only
(c) Spain only (d) Nigeria & Portugal (e) Nigeria &
Spain
10 The name of the wife of president Barack Obama of
America is (a) Michelle Obama (b) Roseline Obama
(c) Hilary Obama (d) Palin Obama (e) none of the
above
11 President Barack Obama of the United State of
America is
th th
(a) the 44 president of America (b) the 47
th
president of America (c) the 50 president of America
th
(d) the 99 president of America (e) the 101th
president of America
12 Goals scored in an off-side position in a football
match attracts (a) a penalty from the referee (b)
penalty by the award of one goal to the opponent (c)
nullification (d) addition of one goal to the total goals
scored by the scorer’s side (e) none of the above
13 Mammar Gaddafi was the president of (a) Syria (b)
Libya (c) Egypt (d) Malaysia (e) Yemen
14 9/11 refers to (a) September 9th, 2001 series of
coordinated suicide attack on Japan (b) September
9th, 2001 series of coordinated suicide attack on the
United States of America (c) September 9th, 2011
series of coordinated suicide attack on the United
States of America (d) September 11th, 2009 series of
coordinated suicide attack on the United States of
America (e) September 11th, 2001 series of
coordinated suicide attack on the United States of
America
15 The total number of votes scored by the winner of the
2011 presidential election in Nigeria was (a)
30,379,159 (b) 22,495,187 (c) 12,214,853 (d)
15,379,159 (e) 12,495,187
16 INTERNET means (a) internal network (b) e-mail (c)
international network (d) web-site (e) none of the
above
17 Which of the following cities has ever been the
capital of the Federal Republic of Nigeria? (a) Lagos
(b) Calabar (c) Lokoja (d) Abuja (e) all of the above
18 The presidential election which was annulled in
Nigeria was held in (a) 1993 (b) 1994 (c) 1983 (d)
1984
19 `What is the name of the immediate past speaker of
the Nigerian House of Representative? (a) David
Mark (b) Pius Anyim (c) Dimeji Longe (d) Dimeji
Bankole (e) none of the above
20 The administrative capital of South Africa is (a)
Johnnesburg (b) Durbar (c) Pretoria (d) Soweto (e)
None of the above
21 Which African country was called the “Gold Coast”?
(a) Cote d’ evoir (b) Ghana (c) Sierra-Leone (d)
Liberia (e) Nigeria
22 In which ethnic group in Nigeria is the “talking drum”
commonly used? (a) Igbo (b) Hausa (c) Fulani (d)
Yoruba (e) Ibibio
23 Which of the following is not a member of the oil-
producing states in Nigeria? (a) Ondo (b) Bayelsa (c)
Delta (d) Lagos (e) none of the above
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24 Who invented the telephone? (a) Isaac Newton (b)
Graham Douglas (c) Isaac Holloway (d) None of the
above
25 Electric bulb was invented by (a) John Bulb (b)
Thomas Watts (c) Mary Bulb (d) None of the above
26 LAGOS STATE UNIVERSITY is situated in (a) Yaba
Local Government (b) Lagos Mainland Local
Government (c) Bariga Local Government (d) Lagos
Island Local Government
27 The General Overseer of the Redeemed Christian
Church of God in Nigeria is (a) Pastor Adebayo
Kumuyi (b) Pastor Enoch Adeboye (c) Pastor Wale
Odukoya (d) Pastor Benson Idahosa (e) none of the
above
28 Which of the following is not a Pentecostal church?
(a) Redeemed Christian Church of God (b) Deeper
Life Ministry (c) Foursquare Gospel Church (d)
Mountain of Fire and Miracle (e) The Catholic Church
29 The clock called Big-B en can be found in (a) Los-
Angeles (b) Vancouver (c) London (d) Paris (e)
Toronto
30 Which of the following is not in the national anthem of
Nigeria? (a) one nation bound in freedom (b) arise o
compatriot (c) to serve our fatherland (d) with love
and strength and hope (e) none of the above
31 Which of the following African leaders is not a Nobel
Prize winner? (a) Archibong Desmond Tutu (b) Mr.
Nelson Mandella (c) Prof. Wole Soyinka (d) Prof.
Chinua Achebe (e) none of the above
32 In human respiration, oxygen is inhaled, which of the
following is exhaled? (a) carbon-monoxide (b)
oxygen (c) carbon-dioxide (e) sodium chloride (e)
none of the above
33 The smallest nation in the world is (a) Vatican city (b)
Malaysia (c) Madagascar (d) Zimbabwe (e) Italy
34 Who won the 2011 gubernatorial election in Lagos
State? (a) Mr. Babatunde Raji Fashola (b) Alhaji Bola
Ahmed Tinubu (c) Dr. Ade Dosumu (d) chief J. K.
Randle
(e) Mrs. Oluremi Tinubu
35 The meaning of CNN, the American television station
is (a) central national news (b) central news network
(c) cable national news (d) central network news
36 The current chairman of INEC is (a) Prof. Maurice
Iwu (b) Prof. Humprey Nwosu (c) Prof. Rasheed
Muniru Jega (d) Prof. Humprey Iwu (e) Prof. Atahiru
Jega
37 The winner of the 2011 African Youth Championship,
U-20 football fiesta held in south Africa is (a) Nigeria
(b) Mali (c) Cameroon (d) Egypt (e) none of the
above
38 Which of the following is not a political party in
Nigeria? (a) Accord party (b) action congress of
Nigeria (c) peoples democratic party (d) labour party
(e) republican party
39 The capital of cape Verde is (a) cape-town (b) Praia
(c) Rhodesia (d) new-Orleans (e) none of the above
40 Brazil is a country in (a) Africa (b) America (c) Europe
(d) Asia (e) Australia
41 The current Governor of the central bank of Nigeria is
(a) Sanusi Lamido (b) Chukwuma Soludo (c) Dora
Akunyuli (d) Erastus Akingbola (e) none of the above
42 With of the following died while in office as a Nigerian
ruler (a) Alhaji Umaru Yar’Adua (b) General Sanni
Abacha (c) General Murtala Muhammed (d) all of the
above (e) none of the above
43 The current prime minister of Britain is (a) Mr. John
Major (b) Mr. Tony Blair (c) Mr. David Cameroon (d)
Mr. Gordon Brown (e) Mr. James Brown
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44 Prince William and Kate Middleton were married at
th
Westminster Abbey, London on (a) 11 April, 2011
th st nd
(b) 29 April, 2011 (c) 1 May, 2011 (d) 2 May,
2011(e) none of the above
45 Which of the following is not a search engine? (a)
Google (b) Excite (c) Alta Vista (d) Yahoo (e) none of
the above
46 Which of the following is not current telecom service
provide in Nigeria? (a) Starcoms (b) Airtel (c) MTN
(d) Celtel (e) none of the above
47 www used in web address on internet means (a)
worldwide web (b) world wave web (c) world wide
web (d) world wave web (e) worldwide wave
48 The first prime minister of Nigeria is (a) Dr. Nnamdi
Azikiwe (b) Alhaji Tafawa Balewa (c) Lord
Mackpherson (d) Lord Lugard (e) Alhaji Shehu
Shagari
49 The blue buses using special lanes in Lagos are
commonly referred to as BRT buses. What does
BRT means? (a) Babatunde Raji Transport (b(
Babatunde Raji Transit (c) Bus Rapid Transit (d) Blue
Rapid Transport (e) none of the above
50 HALTI is a country in (a) America (b) Africa (c) Asia
(d) Europe (e) none of the above
51 The first Nigerians to win Olympic medal is (a)
Chioma Ajunwa (b) Nojeem Maiyegun (c) Fidelis
Okoro (d) Maitama Sule (e) none of the above
52 The first Nigerian to win the heavy weight boxing
championship of the world is (a) Simon Joe (b)
Hogan Kid Bassey (c) Simon Peter (d) Bash Ali (e)
none of the above
53 The first television station was established in Nigeria
in (a) 1959 (b) 1960 (c) 1961 (d) 1962 (e) 1963
54 Which of the following two statements does not
explain the word “surfing”? I. A sport in which the
individual rides on the crest or along tunnel of a wave
II. Exploration of the web (www) (a) I only (b) II only
(c) I & II (d) neither nor II
55 The headquarters of the United Nations is in (a)
Addis-Ababa (b) New York (c) Washington (d)
London (e) Lagos
56 The head of the commonwealth of nation is (a)
Queen Elizabeth of England (b) Mr. Ban-ki Mon (c)
Mr. Kofi Anan (d) Mr. Boutros Boutros-Ghali
57 The LAGOS STATE UNIVERSITY was established
in (a) 1962 (b) 1960 (c) 1961 (d) 1959 (e) none of
the above
58 Where is the Sahara Desert? (a) America (b) Asia (c)
Australia (d) Europe (e) Africa
59 Which of the following is not a newspaper in
circulation in Nigeria? (a) The Guardian (b) The
punch (c) the new Nigeria (d) the nation (e) Le Figaro
60 Which country will host the 2018 FIFA World Cup
Football? (a) Russia (b) France (c) Qatar (d) Nigeria
(e) South-Africa
61 ...............is the most populous African nation (a)
Kenya (b) South African (c) Nigeria (d) Ghana (e)
Libya
62 Nigeria’s national telephone code is (a) 080 (b) 234
(c) 233 (d) 009
63 Nigerian population is currently estimated to be about
(a) 100million (b) 140million (c) 190million (d)
200million
64 Who is the current vice-president of Nigeria? (a)
Goodluck Jonathan (b) Alh. Shehu Shagari (c) Alh.
Namadi Samba (d) Alh. Jubril Aminu (e) none of the
above
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2005 - 2014
rd
65 The most numerous ethnic group in the northern 2/3
of Nigeria is (a) Nupe (b) Tiv (c) Hausa-Fulani (d)
Kanuri
66. What is the full meaning of INEC? (a) Independent
Nigerian Electoral Commission (b) Independent
National Electrical Commission (c) Independent
Nigerian Education Commission (d) Independent
National Electoral Commission
67 The last gubernatorial election in Nigeria took place
on (a) April 26, 2011 (b) April 26, 2010 (c) April 23,
2011 (d) April 16, 2011 (e) none of the above
68 Current Nigerian president Goodluck Jonathan was
governor of (a) Borno State (b) Ebonyi State (c)
Bayelsa State (d) Cross River State (e) Anambra
State
69 Senate president of Nigeria from May 2007 – May
2011 was (a) Dimeji Bankole (b) David Mark (c)
Alhaji Aliko dangote (d)d Bukola Saraki
70 Nigeria’s presidential villa is located in (a) Asokoro,
Abuja (b) Dodan Barracks, Lagos (c) Obasanjo
Farms, Otta (d) Aso Rock, Abuja
71 Nigeria flag consists of (a) 3 blocks of green, white
and green (b) 3 horizontal bands of green, white and
green (c) 3 vertical bands of green, white and green
(d) 3 horizontal bands of green, white and yellow
72 Who named Nigeria (a) Mungo Park (b) Lord Lugard
(c) Laura Shaw (d) Charles Darwin (e) none of the
above
73 Nigeria’s national anthem is called (a) I pledge to
Nigeria my country (b) Arise O compatriots (c)
Nigeria, we hail thee (d) none of the above
74 The main accreditation body that enforces uniform
standard and sets admissions capacity of every
university in Nigeria is (a) the Nigerian Universities
Commission (b) The national universities commission
(c) the federal ministry of education (d) the joint
admission matriculation board
75 Nigeria is organized into (a) 36 states including the
PCT, Abuja (b) 37 states (c) 38 states (d) states and
the FCT, Abuja
th
76 Nigeria accounts for (a) 1/4 of Africa’s people (b)
th
1/6 of Africa’s people (c) 1/10 of Africa’s people (d)
rd
1/3 of Africa’s people
77 Nigeria has (a) over 200 ethnic groups (b) over 300
ethnic groups (c) over 400 ethnic groups (d) about
three ethnic groups
78 The most widely used Nigerian languages are (a)
Fulani, Yoruba and Igbo (b) Hausa, Yoruba and Igbo
(c) Igbo, Yoruba and Pidgin (d) Pidgin, Yoruba and
Hausa
79 Major ethnic groups in the south-eastern Nigeria
include (a) Igbo, Kanuri and Efik (b) Igbo, Yoruba
and Ijaw (c) Igbo, Efik and Ibibio (d) Igbo Ijaw and Tiv
80 The following is not an ethnic group in the south east
of Nigeria (a) Efik (b) Annang (c) Ijaw (d) Ibibio (e)
none of the above
81 The number “419” refers to the article of (a) the
American criminal code dealing with internet fraud (b)
the Nigeria criminal code dealing with internet fraud
(c) the Russian criminal code dealing with internet
fraud (d) the Nigeria criminal code dealing with fraud
82 One of the following is not a Nigerian music (a) Fuji
(b) Yo-Pop (c) Afrojuj (d) Highlife (e) Gbedu
83 Albert Einesein, Sir Isaac Newton and Charles
Darwin have something in common (a) they are all
famous poets (b) they are all famous historians (c)
they are all famous artists (d) they are all famous
scientist
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84 Nigeria ranks ..................in African’s GDP (a) First 5 C
(b) second (c) third (d) fourth (e) fifth 6 D
85 The Nigeria civil was from (a) 1967-1968 (b) 1967- 7 C
1970 (C) 1967-1971 (d) 1971 8 C
86 The flag of Nigeria was first used in (a) 1959 (b) 1960 9 D
(c) 1961 (d) 1970 (e) 1971 10 B
87 Which of the following is not true about computers? 11 D
(a) process information electronically to produce data 12 A
(b) computers are programmable so we can tell them 13 B
what to do (c) computers also include small 14 A
programmed systems found in some appliances such 15 B
as phones, microwave ovens and video records (d) 16 C
computers consists of hardware and software 17 C
88 ....................is used to read pages set up on the 18 A
internet (a) (a) Google (b) satellite communication (c) 19 B
web browser (d) video conferencing (e) e-mail 20 B
89 Which of the following is not a feature of the e-mail? 21 C
(a) broad communication is needed (b) very cheap to 22 C
send (c) very quick delivery (d) can be sent at any 23 C
time (e) none of the above 24 B
90 Which of the following methods of communication 25 D
may be inconvenienced by time zone? (a) post (b) 26 A
fax (c) e-mail (d)mobile telephone 27 D
91 All but one of the following are actions for dealing 28 C
with viruses in your computer (a) scanning of 29 B
incoming mails (b) changing passwords regularly (c) 30 A
using filtering software to prevent downloads of 31 C
computer programs (d) not opening suspicious e-mail 32 D
or attachments 33 C
34 C
92 Search engines on the internet help to search for 35 A
information by (a) looking for heading of web 36 A
documents (b) looking for words inside web 37 B
documents (c) search other search engines (d) none 38 C
of the above (e) all of the above 39 D
93 The public sector in Nigeria does not include (a) the 40 B
army (b) the central bank of Nigeria (c) the business
owned by individual members of the public (d) the ENGLISH 2012/2013
police (e) the state government universities 1. A 1 D 41 C
th
94 May 29 in Nigeria is celebrated as (a) independence 2. B 2 B 42 B
day (b) mother’s day (c) democracy day (d) hanging 3. A 3 A 43 A
over day 4. B 4 E 44 C
95 The Corporate Affairs Commission in Nigeria is 5 D 5 E 45 B
responsible for (a) taxation of companies in Nigeria 6 D`` 6 D 46 E
96 The government spends taxes on (a) provision of 7 D 7 C 47 D
health services (b) education (c) defence 1961 (d) 8 B 8 A 48 D
waste disposal (e) all of the above 9 A 9 E 49 C
97 One of the following countries is not a republic (a) 10 D 10 C 50 B
USA (b) Nigeria (c) China (d) UK 11 B 11 E 51 C
98 The millennium development goals include (a) 12 A 12 D 52 A
reduce those suffering from hunger and poverty (b) 13 C 13 B 53 A
ensure all children get primary education (c) stop the 14 A 14 A 54 D
spread of aids (d) make sure girls get as much 15 A 15 A 55 A
education as boys (e) all of the above 16 B 16 E 56 B
99 ………….is a meeting of eight rich countries including 17 B 17 B 57 C
(a) USA, UK, Canada, South Africa and France (b) 18 A 18 C 58 D
UK, Germany, USA, Japan and Brazil (c) China, 19 A 19 B 59 A
USA, UK, Canada and Germany (d) UK, USA, Italy, 20 A 20 C 60 B
France, Germany (e) UK, USA, Canada, Japan, 21 C 21 C 61 D
Brazil 22 B 22 D 62 C
100 The 9/11 attack killed nearly 3,000 people and 23 B 23 A 63 B
destroyed the (a) IMF office (b) World bank (c) World 24 C 24 D 64 D
trade centre (d) wall street 25 D 25 A 65 C
26 B 26 B 66 A
MATHEMATICS - 2012/2013 PRACTICE 27 B 27 C 67 A
1 B 28 A 28 E 68 D
2 A 29 B 29 A 69 B
3 D 30 B 30 D 70 C
4 C 31 C 31 B 71 B

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Examsguru.Net – LASU POST UTME PAST QUESTIONS WITH SOLUTIONS 2005 - 2014
32 B 32 C 72 A 25 D
33 B 33 E 73 A 26 C
34 D 34 A 74 C 27 D
35 D 35 D 75 A 18 A
36 C 36 C 29 C
37 D 37 C 30 D
38 B 38 D 31 A
39 B 39 A 32 D
40 B 40 B 33 C
34 B
GENERAL PAPER 35 A
1 C 31 D 61 C 91 B 36 C
2 E 32 C 62 B 92 E 37 A
3 B 33 A 63 B 93 C 38 D
4 C 34 A 64 C 94 C 39 A
5 D 35 D 65 C 95 B 40 B
6 C 36 E 66 D 96 E 41 C
7 D 37 A 67 A 97 D 42 A
8 E 38 E 68 C 98 E 43 C
9 A 39 B 69 B 99 D 44 D
10 A 40 B 70 D 100 C 45 C
11 A 41 A 71 C 46 A
12 C 42 D 72 C 1 B 47 C
13 B 43 C 73 B 2 C 48 B
14 E 44 B 74 B 3 A 49 D
15 A 45 E 75 D 4 B 50 C
16 C 46 D 76 A 5 E 51 A
17 E 47 A 77 C 6 A 52 B
18 A 48 B 78 B 7 C 53 B
19 D 49 C 79 C 8 C 54 D
20 C 50 E 80 E 9 D 55 A
21 B 51 B 81 D 10 C 57 D
22 D 52 B 82 B 11 B 58 C
23 D 53 A 83 D 12 D 59 D
24 D 54 D 84 C 13 C 60 C
25 B 55 B 85 B 14 B 61 D
26 B 56 A 86 B 15 C 62 D
27 B 57 A 87 B 16 B 63 D
28 E 58 E 88 C 17 A 64 B
29 C 59 E 89 E 18 C 65 C
30 E 60 A 90 A 19 A 66 C
20 E 67 A
21 – 40 Do it yourself 68 C
69 C
2011/2012 MATHEMATICS 70 A
1. D 86 C 71 B
2 D 87 B 72 C
3 C 88 A 73 B
4 B 89 C 74 A
5 B 90 C 75 A
6 B 91 B 76 C
7 A 92 A 77 C
8 D 93 C 78 C
9 B 94 C 79 B
10 A 95 A 80 C
11 C 96 C 81 B
12 D 97 D 82 D
13 D 98 C 83 A
14 B 99 C 84 C
15 D 100 B 85 D
16 B
17 D ENGLISH LANGUAGE 2010/2011
18 B Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that
19 C follows.
20 A
21 A The banking sector consolidation, which ended in
22 B December 2005, came with the realization that those who
23 C understood the market merely plunged into it, notched
24 A premium stocks and left the directors of those firms to

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Examsguru.Net – LASU POST UTME PAST QUESTIONS WITH SOLUTIONS
grapple with the challenges of a hostile business
environment. Many investors who, hitherto, had staked
their funds on high risk projects, which offers little or no
profit, therefore, found solace in their discovery of the
stock market as a potential
as cow. With the continuous fall in the prices of stocks in
the past one month, however, many investors, particularly
the new entrants, are beginning to lament the loss of
huge sums of money that could have been invested in
better yielding ventures. This suggests loss of confidence.
Investing in Nigeria capital market, to many, had been too
good to be true until sordid facts started to unfold in
February, about the state of certain companies that had
squeezed funds out of unsuspecting investors, especially
via public offerings. What sparked off the fears was the
announcement by the securities and exchange
commission, that it was investigating some lending
companies to ascertain the charge of price manipulation
suspected to be targeted at ripping off investors.
Nevertheless, this was an eye opener for investors, who,
many a times, blindly rush into the acquisition of shares
mainly of boost their ego, with neither a thorough
research as regards the financials of the companies, nor
professional advice.
1 Investing…………………..to many had been too good
to be true implies (a) optimism (b) hopelessness (c)
scepticism (d) belief
2 According to the passage the prevailing mood of new
investors in the past month is one of (a) elation (b)
jubilation (c) regret (d) approbation
3 This was an eye opener for investors means that (a)
their eyes were closed (b) it was prevailing (c) they
were blind before (d) they could see their money
In question 4 to 7 choose the option nearest in
meaning to the bold
and underlined word(s) of phrase
4. He took exception to Ajuwa’s remark (a) was
delighted at (b) was excited by (c) got demoralized by
(d) objected to
5 The new employee is so humble and friendly that he
will soon make himself popular. (a) welcome and
accepted (b) hated (c) estranged (d) rejected
6 The manager often quarrels with his staff because he
goes around with a chip on his shoulder. (a)
deformed shoulder (b) readiness to be angered (c)
look of contempt (d) an air of superiority
7 Telling Ali to break his habit of coming late to work is
like knocking your head against an brick wall. (a)
asking him to beat you up (b) making a fool of
yourself (c) making him break down (d) trying the
impossible
Choose the word(s) or phrase(s) which best fills
the gap(s)
8 Owing to the constant harassment of the populate by
armed robbers, all night guards have been instructed
to shoot every moving thing. (a) at sight (b) by sight
(c) in sight (d) off sight
9 My wife and I were to celebrate our silver wedding
anniversary last Sunday unfortunately on that
…………..day (a) fruitless (b) faithful (c) in sight (d)
off sight
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2005 - 2014
10 The first graduation ceremony of the university was
attended by men from all …………..of life (a) works
(b) areas (c) walks (d) parts
ENGLISH LANGUAGE 2009/2010
Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that
follow.
Like immigration or globalisation, debating how Africa is
reported is often a vexatious subject; it provides many people a
good chance to enjoy an argument with a closed mind. Its either
you come to the debate feeling that in spite of scan MacBride’s
commission over two decades ago, all reports about Africa in
the western media will continuous to be about death, disease,
despair and destruction; or you are asking whether this whole
business is about Africans wanting separate code of journalism
that denies its own realities. Its black or white, and no room in
between for any shades of grey.
Lack of context in reporting, which is perhaps the greatest
culprit at the moment, is just as much as problem among
African journalists covering Africa as it is among
European journalists or journalists anywhere for that
matter – trying to understand why Josef Fritzl would lock
up his daughter in a cellar for 24 years and father seven
children by her without anyone finding out.
(Taken from Azubuike Ishiekwo, view point – again the
trouble with Africa)
1. According to the passage, a common problem for all
journalist is (a) globalisation (b) immigration (c) lack
of context in reporting (d) despair and destruction
2 The passage gives the impression that the
MacBride’s commission presented Africa in
………….way
(a) an unfortunate (b) a favourable (c) a non-
committal
(d) confusing
3 This passage is about (a) African journalism (b)
Josel Fritzl and his daughter (c) immigration and
globalization (d) realities of report about Africa
In each questions 4 to 7 choose the most appropriate
option nearest in meaning to the bold and underlined
word(s) or phrase
4 Our new vice-chancellor has stepped off on the
wrong foot (a) injured his foot (b) stepped on the
wrong (c) made a costly mistake (d) started off badly
5 Much to her chagrin, the bridegroom did not turn up
for the wedding (a) wonder (b) surprise (c)
disappointment (d) depression
6 The chairman’s reaction was a storm in a tea cup
(a) suitable for the occasion (b) less serious than it
appeared to be (c) more serious than necessary (d)
greatly diminished in scope
7 Do this job while I am away, but take your time. (a)
be careful (b) be thorough (c) be fast (d) don’t be in
hurry
In question 8 to 10, choose the option opposite in
meaning to the
underlined word or phrase
8 Good students can easily identified spurious
arguments (a) genuine (b) interesting (c) false (d)
illogical
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9 The athlete’s skin now flabby as a result of his 11 Anini was a mindless criminal (a) strong (b) mindful
changed circumstance (a) oily (b) neat (c) firm (d) (c) feeling (d) memorable
weak 12 The judge blamed the plaintiff for misleading the court
10 We watched in wonder as she rattled away in the (a) defendant (b) complainant (c) accused (d)
esoteric language (a) inscrutable (b) familiar (c) prosecution
secret (d) obscure 13 The thieves vandalized the valult’s lock (a) repaired
(b) arranged (c) serviced (d) actuated
ENGLISH LANGUAGE 2008/2009 14 The demonstrators have refused to call off local off
Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that their action (a) consolidate (b) start (c) resume (d)
follow. end
15 The angry waves swallowed the boat (a) gentle (b)
Delinquency describes actions that would not be if unruffled (c) cool (d) serene
performed by adults. If a young person performs one of
such actions then he has committed a crime. Reserves as necessary to promote a
Delinquency is one of several status offences that can be federal……………(9)………..rate
committed only by people in particular stations of life close to its target rate of 5.25 percent.
determine by age, profession or a person’s role in society.
For young people such offences include drinking, driving 6 A liquidity B money C cash D
and smoking under age. Usually they are offences only facility
to tile extent that they help top preserve some of the good 7 A lending B repurchase C credit D
things of life for the exclusive enjoyment of the adult borrowing
world. Delinquency is therefore a weapon forged in 8 A arrangement B issuance C purchase
adults minds and directed by adult hands against young D functioning
people. It is born out of envy, adult pride and intolerance. 9 A funds B money C liquidity D cash
If the world changed overnight and the responsibility to
make and enforce laws fell on juvenile shoulders, the In question 10, choose the option opposite in
adults should expect a raw deal in return. Delinquency meaning to the
would then certainly refer only to many of the adult now word underline
freely committed by them. 10 children at the age of ten usually voracious (a)
without appetite
1 The writer of the passage believes that delinquency (b) very weak (c) very intelligent (d) very troublesome
laws are (a) not relevant to human society (b) only fit
for young people (c) unfair to the juveniles (d) very In question 11, choose the option opposite in
unfair to the world meaning to the
2 Status offences those that can be committed by (a) all word underline
adults (b) juveniles only (c) delinquent juveniles only 11 There were sporadic occurrence of small pox in the
(d) specified classes of people village
3 In the view of the writer, drinking underage is an (a) widespread (b) occasional (c) sparse (d) regular
offence because (a) adults wants to have all he drink
to themselves (b) adults do not want juveniles to get Choose the option that gives the meaning nearest
drink (c) drunken juveniles can cause disorder in to that of the idioms underlined in the sentences
society (d) adults have to protect young persons in question 12
4 This world changed overnight (a) there would be
more delinquency laws (b) delinquency would refer to 12 He had his fingers in every pie (b) loved eating pie (c)
at adults action (c) delinquency would no more be a was involved in everything (d) baked all the pies
crime (d) delinquency would also change in meaning
5 When young people make and enforce laws (a) tile 13 She read the letter and her face fell (a) she read
responsibility will be too heavy on their shoulders (b) closely (b) she started crying (c) she was surprised
they would retaliate against the adults (c) the laws will (d) she looked suddenly disappointed
be juvenile (d) the world will be turned upside down
Choose the best option that completes the sentence
In question 6 to 15 choose the option opposite in in question 14
meaning to the
world in bold 14 To…………..Nigerians, corruption in high places is
not strange
6. Our government is making determined efforts to (a) we (b) us (c) ours (d) ourselves
eradicate illiteracy (a) compulsory (b) ineffective (c)
innocent (d) unreliable From the word letter A-D choose the word that best
7 The LAGOS STATE UNIVERSITY has a large intake completes the
of students each year (a) rejection (b) calmly (c) sentence in question 15
furiously (d) laboriously
8. Ngozi flogged the girl reluctantly (a) eagerly (b) 15 The quest is about rounding…………….his speech
calmly (c) furiously (d) laboriously (a) of (b) off (c) up (d) down
9 Sola’s car is badly damaged: he has to look for an
expert mechanic to fit it (a) uneducated (b) 1. The most important aspect of agriculture mentioned
amateurish (c) awkward (d) unscientific in the passage is (a) poultry (b) fishery (c) livestock
(d) farming
10 Coastal plains are often very densely populated (a)
weakly (b) badly (c) rarely (d) sparsely

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Examsguru.Net – LASU POST UTME PAST QUESTIONS WITH SOLUTIONS
2 Farming in many countries today is (a) an alternative
to poultry (b) of great assistance to the economy (c)
for those who are out of job (d) for the illiterates
3 Some of the countries produce more and better crops
than other because the farmers in the former (a) are
more educated (b) have greater manpower (c) have
more modern equipment (d) have more fertile land
4 In order to help improve the faring the government
should (a) give all farmers enough money to work
well (b) well enough fertilizer to all farmers (c) find
ways of financing and modernizing the farming
system (d) help farmers with the storage of their
crops
5 A lot of crops harvested are wasted because farmers
(a) allow insect and pest to destroy their crops (b) do
not have enough money to investors (c) do not have
good storage facilities (d) harvest too much at a time
In each of the following question fill the gap with the
appropriate
option from the list provided.
6. There is no point getting upset by the problems I take
them……………(a) in my stride (b) on the spur of the
moment (c) by leaps and bounds (d) in a Jiffy
7 I know that your friend will not accept the
proposal…………..(a) and you neither (b( and neither
you (c) neither do you (d) neither will you
8 I have been trying to locate ………………(a) since
five days (b) five days now (c) for five days (d) since
five days now
9 The ………….of the participating countries will hold a
pre-conference on the eve of the conference (a)
auditor generals (b) auditor general (c) auditors
general (d) auditor generals
10. It all depends on what……………….(a) does he want
(b) he want (c) he does wanted (d) he wanted
Choose the word nearest in meaning to the
underlined word
11 I would not like you to do the work piecemeal
(a) at meal time (b) bit by but (c) badly (d) as a
master place
12 I cannot understand how he suddenly became
audacious contrary to his nature (a) bold (b) pound
(c) rude (d) hostile
Choose the word opposite in meaning to the
underlined word
13 Rich citizens are often niggardly in their ways (a)
pompous (b) generous (c) sordid (d) soft
14 The security recently enacted law on importation is
quite nebulous
(a) vague (b) strategic (c) definitive (d) impressive
Choose the option that best conveys the meaning of
the sentence
Underlined
15 My friend will never forgive his wife because she left
him in the lunch in his hour of need (a) abandoned
him (b) despised him (c) disrespected him (d)
disinherited him
Choose the word that has the same vowel sound as
the
represented by the underlined letter.
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2005 - 2014
16 Disturb (a) comfort (b) affair (c) carry (c) search
17 Pause (A) country (b) sport (c) dual (d) pounce
Choose the word that has the same consonant sound
as the one
represented by the underlined letter.
18 Yam (a) fool (b) humble (c) spurious (d) crude
19 Lake (a) would (b) talk (c) table (d) calm
Select the word that has the same stress pattern as
the given word
20 Salad (a) canoe (b) fifteen (c) distress (d) upright
ENGLISH LANGUAGE 2005/2006
Read the passage carefully and answer the question that
follow.
In 1973, Japanese sericulture arrived in Malawi with a
batch of 40,000 silkworm eggs. They were taken
Bvumbwe Agricultural research stallion in Thyolo District.
In this station, work is being done to determine favourable
silk worm raring conditions and areas where mulberry
trees whose leaves the worms feed on, could grow well.
According to the researchers, the silkworm which
eventually develop into cocoons from which raw silk is
produced-do well in areas with climatic conditions.
Silk is one of tile strongest of fibres. Infact for thousands
of years, silk fabrics have been regarded as the most
beautiful and durable materials woven by man. Many
people call silk the “cloth of kings and queens”
The weaving of silk originated in china. An old Chinese
believed to be written by Confucius, tells us that the write
of emperor huangi-li was the first person to make fabrics
of silk. Around 2040 B.C, Emperor Huangi-ti asked his
wife his Ling-shih to study the worms that were destroyed
the mulberry trees in his garden. The empress took some
of the cocoons she picked up the gauzy mass shill had
discovered silk. She was so delighted with the discovery
and even wore a ceremonial robe for the Emperor out of
the cocoon threads. After that of the officials in the
Emperor’s court wore brightly dyed silk robes on
important occasions.
People in other countries regarded the new fibres as
something rare and beautiful. A few traders went to china
to learn about making cloth from silk, but the Chinese
kept their silk worms a closely guarded secret.
1. Sericulture (a) carried out in china (b) the breeding of
silk worms of the production for silk (c) the research
done all silkworms (d) the breeding cloth from the
cocoons of silkworms (d) the breeding of silkworms in
Malawi
2 It is implied in this passage that silk was discovered
(a) after years of hard work and research by the
empress (b) by accident (c) in the search for a more
durable fibre for making cloth (d) after some
experience carrier out by tile Japanese (e) by design
3 According to sericulture, silkworms (a) cannot survive
in a warm climate (b) may be reared on any tree (c)
do well in areas with a climate (d) produce the longest
threads when they are fed leaves from the top of the
mulberry tree (e) are destroyed by heat.
4 The work carried out the agricultural research station
in Malawi on the silkworm eggs was to (a) try to breed
cocoons which would produce more silk (b) determine
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the survival rate of silkworms (c) find out the most 3 B
suitable areas and conditions search for rearing 4 D
silkworms (d) search for better method of rearing 5 A
silkworms (e) find out how cocoons becomes 6 B
silkworms 7 D
5 choose the meaning which best fits the underlined 8 A
phrase from the passage, closely guarded scret 9 D
(a) carefully hidden from the knowledge of others (b) 10 C
secretly processed the business with armed guards
(c) carefully hidden from the view of strangers (d) 2009/2010
secretly known (e) unknown 1 C
2 B
In each of the question 6 - 9, fill each group with the 3 A
most 4 B
appropriate option from the list provided 5 C
6 C
6 He not absent himself from lectures (a) dares (b) dare 7 D
(c) didn’t dare (d) do care 8 A
7 The conference turned out to the (a) five-days (b) five 9 C
day (c) five-day’s (d) five days’ 10 B
8 Ojo has an aversion ………….swimming (a) to (b) for
(c) in (d) with 2008/2009
9 The poor………….our attention and kindness (a) 1 C
deserves (b) does deserve (c) do deserves (d) 2 D
deserve 3 A
4 D
Choose the option nearest in meaning to the word(s) 5 B
or phrase in 6 D
italics 7 D
8 A
10 He will be livid if he finds out you are here (a) 9 B
extremely happy (b) extremely angry (c) very better 10 D
(d) very surprised 11 B
12 A
Choose the option opposite in meaning to the 13 A
word(s) or phrase in 14 C
italics 15 C

11 He meteoric rise to the fame surprised everyone 2007/2008 2006/2007

(a) tardy (b) swirl (c) gradual (d) surprised 1 D 1 D
2 B 2 B
Choose the option that best convey the meaning of 3 A 3 C
the sentence 4 B 4 C
5 A 5 C
12 An official has been appointed to show them the 6 B 6 A
ropes (a) assigned duties to the them (b) train them 7 C 7 D
(c) assist them (d) punish them 8 D 8 C
9 C 9 C
Select the word that has the same consonant sound 10 A 10 D
as the one 11 C 11 B
represented by the underlined letter 12 C 12 A
13 D 13 B
13 goal (a) face (b) boat (c) park (d) more 14 B 14 C
15 B 15 A
Select the word that has the same consonant sound 16 B 16 A
as the one 17 C 17 B
represented by the underlined letter 18 D 18 C
19 D 19 C
14 suggest (a) great (b( judge (c) angle (d) gather 20 C 20 D

Select the word that has the same pattern of stress as 2005/2006
given word. 1. B
15 Particular (a) indelible (b) respected (c) determine (d) 2 B
disrespectful 3 C
4 C
5 A
2010/2011 ENGLISH ANSWERS 6 C
1 C 7 A
2 C 8 A

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Examsguru.Net – LASU POST UTME PAST QUESTIONS WITH SOLUTIONS 2005 - 2014
3
9 A x – 2x2 – x 2
10 C (a) 1 (b) x – 1 (c) x 1 (d) 1
11 A x+2 x+1 x+2 x 2
12 B 9 Express 5x – 12 in partial fractions
13 B (-2) (x-3)
14 B (a) 2 3 (b) 2 3 ( c) 2 3 (d)
15 D 5 4
x -2 x-3 x -2 x-3 x -3 x-2 x
MATHEMATICS 2010/2011 -3 x-2
1. Calculate 33105 – 14425 (a) 1313 (b) 2131 (c) 4302 10 Which of the following binary operations is
(d) 1103 commutative in the set of integers? (a) a-b=a-2b (b)
2
2 Convert 3.1415926 to 5 decimal places a.b=a+b-ab (c) a-b=a +b
(a) 3.14160 (b) 3.14159 (c) 0.31415 (d) 3.14200 (c) a.b=a(b+1)
3 The length of a notebook 15cm, was measures as 2
16.8cm. Calculate the percentage error to 2
significant figures. MATHEMATICS 2008/2009
(a) 12.00% (b) 11.00% (c) 10.71% (d) 0.12% 1. The population of a village is 6538. Express this
4 A worker’s present salary is N24,000 per annum. number to three significant (a) 6540 (b) 6538 (c) 6530
His annual increment is 10% of his salary. What (d) 654
would be his annual salary at the beginning of the 2 What must be added to the express x2 – 18 to make
third year? (a) N28 800 (b) N29 040 (c) 31 200 (d) perfect significant (a) 9 (b) 36 (c) 72 (d) 81
N31 944 3 A bricklayer measured the length of a wall to be
5 Express the product of 0.0014 and 0.011 in standard 4.10m. if the actual length of the wall is 4.25m, find
form his percentage error.
4 -3 -4
(a) 1.54 x 10 (b) 1.54 x 10 (c) 1.54 x 10 (d) 1.54 (a) 39/17% (b) 327/41% (c) 15% (d) 355/17%
-2
x 10 4 A car is travelling at an speed of 80km/hr. its speed of
1
6 Evaluate (81)¾ - (27) /3 80km/hr. it speed in meters per second (m/s) is (a)
3
3 X 2 13.3m/s (b) 22.2m/s (c) 133.3m/s (d) 222.m/s
(a) 27 (b) 1 (c) 1/3 (d) 1 5 A cylinder of base radius 4cm is open at one end. If
7 Find the value of (16) 3/2 + log10 0.0001 + log2 32 the ratio of the area of its base to that of its curved
(a) 0.065 (b) 0.650 (c ) 5.500 (d) 65.000 surface is 1:4, calculate the height of the cylinder. (a)
1cm (b) 2cm (c) 4cm (d) 8cm
8 Simplify 12 – 3 6 The area of a parallelogram is 513cm2 and the height
12 + 3 (a) 1/3 (b) 0 (c) 2 (d_ 1 is 19cm. calculate the base (a) 13.5cm (b) 25cm (c)
9 Four members of a social first eleven cricket term are 27cm (d) 54cm
also members of the first fourteen rugby team. How 7 A headmaster contributes 7% of his income into a
many boys play for at least one of the two teams? (a) fund and his wife contributes 4% of her income. If the
25 (b) 21 (c) 16 (d) 3 husband earns N5,500 per annum and the wife earns
10. If S= (x:x2 = 9, x < 4), then S is equal to (a) 0 (b) (0) N4,000 per annum. Find the sum of their annual
(c) II (d) (%) contribution to the fund (a) N1,045 (b) N605 (c) 545
(d) 490
2
8 factorize 2x – 21x + 45 (a) (2x-9)(x-5) (b) (2x-15(x+3)
MATHEMATICS 2009/2010 (c) (2x+15) (d) (2x-15)(x-3)
o
9 A town 1 is on bearing 315 from town Q while town
3
1 If x – 1 and x + 1 are both factors of the equation x + R is south of town P and west of town Q. If town R is
2
px + qx + 6 = 0, evaluate p and q. (a) 6, -1 (b) 6, 1 60km away from Q how far is R from P?
(c) 1, -1 (d) 6, 6 10 Solve the simultaneous equations y=3x;4y-5x=14 (a)
2 Find a positive value of p is the expression 2x2 px + p -2,-6 (b) 2,6 (c) 2,-6 (d) -2, 6
leaves a reminder 6 when divided by x-p (a) 1 (b) 2 11 A cliff on the bank of a river is 300 meters high. If the
(c) 3 (d) 4 angle of depression of a point on the opposite site of
3 Find T in terms of K, Q and S if S = 2r (QT + K) the river is 60o, find the width of the river (a) 100m (b)
(a) S
2
K (b) S
2
K (c) S
2
K (d) 75 3m (c) 100 3m
S
2
(d) 200 3m
2 2 2
2r Q Q 4r Q Q 2r Q 12 The sum of the interior angles of a regular polygon is
2 30 right angles. How many sides has the polygon?
4r Q
2 2 (a) 17sides (b) 26sides (c) 30sides (d) 34sides
4 The graph of f(x) = x – 5x + 6 crosses the x-axis at
the points. 13 Three balls are drawn one after the other with
(a) (-g,0), (-1,0) (b) (-3,0), (-2,0) (c) (-6,0), (1,0) (d) replacement, from a bag containing 5 red, 9 white
((2,0), (3,0) and 4 blue identical balls. What is the probability that
5 Factorize completely the expression abx1 + 6y – 3ax they are one red, one white and one blue?
– 2byx (a) 5/102 (b) 5/136 (c) 5/162 (d) 5/204
(a) (ax-2y)(bx-3) (b) (bx + 3)(2y-ax) (c) (bx+3)(ax-2y) 14 The pilot of an aeroplane, flying 10km above the
(d) (ax-2y)(ax-b) ground in the direction of a landmark, views the
o
6 Solve the following inequality (x 3) (x 4) < 0 landmark to have an angle of depression of 35 and
o
(a) 3 < x < 4 (b) 3 < x < 4 (c) 3 < x <4 (d) 3<x<4 55 . Find the distance between the two points of
o o o
7
th th
The 4 term of an A.P is 13 while the 10 term is 31. observation. (a) 10(sin 35 – 5sin 55 ) (b) 10 (cos 35
o o o o
st
Find the 21 term (a) 175 (b) 85 (c) 64 (d) 45 – cos 55 ) (c) 10 (tan 35 – tan 55 ) (d) 10 (cot 35 –
o
cot 55 )
2
8 Simplify x – 1
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Examsguru.Net – LASU POST UTME PAST QUESTIONS WITH SOLUTIONS 2005 - 2014
15 In a family of 21 people, the average age is 14 years. 16
If the age of the grandfather is not counted, the Age in 37. 38. 39. 40. 41.
average age drops to 12 years. What is the age of
the grandfather? (a) 35 years (b) 40 years (c) 42 years 13 14 15 16 17
years (d) 54 years
No of 42. 3 43.10 44. 45. 46.15

MATHEMATICS 2007/2008 students 30 42

1 If a*b= + ab evaluate 2* (12*27)
(a) 12 (b) 9 (c) 6 (d) 2
2 Find the sum to infinity of the following sequence The frequency distribution above shows the ages of
1,9/10, (9/10)2, (9/10)3 students in a secondary school. In a pie chart
(a) 1/10 (b) 9/10 (c) 10/9 (d) 10 constructed to represent data, the angle
o o
3 Find the value of k if corresponding to the 15 years old is (a) 20 (b) 30
o o
-2 1 1 (c) 54 (d) 108
2 1 k = 23
1 3 -1 French, 90
Economics, 150
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) (d) 4
4 If X = 1 2 and Y = 2 1 find XY
C.R.K, 30
0 3 4 3
History, 90

(a) 10 7 (b) 2 7 (c) 10 4 (d) 4 3

12 9 4 17 4 6 10 9 17 The pie chart above shows the distribution of
5
o
In a triangle XYZ, <YXZ = 44 and <XYZ = 112 ,
o students in a secondary school class. If 30 students
calculate the acute angle between internal bisectors offered French, how many offered C.R.K? (a) 25 (b)
o o
of <XYZ and <XZY (a) 12 (b) 56 (c) 68 (d) 78
o o 15 (c) 10 (d) 8
o o
6 Find the distance between two town P(45 N 30 W)
o o 18 The mean and the range of the set of number 1, 20,
and Q(15 S, 3 W) if the radius of the earth is
1.00, 0.90, 1.40, 0.80, 1.20 and 1.10 are in and r
7000km (?=22/7)
respectively. Find m + r (a) 1.11 (b) 1.65 (c) 1.85
(a) 1100/3km (b) 2200/3km (c) 22000/3km (d)
(d) 2.45
11000/3km
7 Two perpendicular lines PQ and QR intersect at (1, Class 1-3 4-6 7-9
-1), if the equation of PQ is x-2y + 4 = 0, find the
equation of QR Frequency 5 8 5
(a) x-2+1=0 (b) 2x+y-3=0 (c) x-2y-3=0 (d) 2x + y-
1=0
8 P is on the locus of points equidistant from two
19 Find the standard deviation of the data using the
given points X and Y, UV is a straight line through Y table above. (a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 5/3 (d) 5
o
parallel to the locus, if < PYU is 40 , find <XYP. 20 The variance of the scores 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 is
o o o o
(a) 100 (b) 80 (c) 50 (d) 40 (a) 1.2 (b) 1.4 (c) 2.0 (d) 3.0
9 The base diameter of a cylinder is 14cm while the
height is 12cm, calculate the total surface area if the
2
cylinder has both a base and a top (a) 836cm (b)
2 2 2 MATHEMATICS 2006/2007
528cm (c) 308cm (d) 154cm
1 If x,y and x are angles which lie between 90 and
10 A school boy lying on the ground 30, away from the 180 and x<y<z, then (a) sin x< siny<sinz (b)
foot of a water tank tower observes that the angle of sinx>siny>sinz
o
elevator of a top of the tank is 60 , calculate the (c) sin y < sin x < sin z (d) siny > sinx > sinz
height of the water tank. (a) 18.2m (b) 12.2m (c) 2 If the length of the side of a right angled triangle are
6.2m (d) 3.2m given as x-1, x and x + 1, then the hypotenuse is (a)
11 QRS is a triangle with QS=12m, <RQS=30 and
o 13 (b) 4 (c) 7 (d) 5
o 3 Two sectors of the same circle subtend angles of 75
<QRS=45 (a) 18.2m (b) 12.2m (c) 6.2m (d) 3.2m
and 30 at the centre of the circled. Their areas are in
12 The derivative of cosec x is (a) tan x cosec x (b) cot the ratio (a) 25:4 (b) 5:2 (c) 115:112 (d) 3:1
x cosec x (c) tan x sec x (d) cot x sec 4 A cylinder metal rod of radius 10cm and length 35cm
2
13 For what value of x is the tangent to the curve y=x - is to be melted down and recast into circular comes of
base radius 7cm and height 15cm. if  = /7 the
22
4x+3 parallel to the axis? (a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) 0
14 Two variables x and y are such that dy/dx=4x-3 and examination.
y=5 when x=2, find y in terms of x. 5 The locus of point which is equidistant from the lines
2 2 2 x x = 0, and y + x = 0, for x > 0, is the (a) x-axis (b) y-
(a) 2x -3x+5 (b) 2x -3x+3 (c) 2x -3x (d) 4
2 axis (c) line x=1 (d) 80
15 Find the area bounded by the curve y=3x -2x+1, the 6 A binary operation is defined over the set of real
ordinates x=1 and x=3 and the x-axis numbers such as a*b=ax (b12). Find 3*(4*2) (a) 54
(a) 24 (b) 22 (c) 21 (d) 20 (b) 60 (c) 72 (d) 80

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Examsguru.Net – LASU POST UTME PAST QUESTIONS WITH SOLUTIONS 2005 - 2014
7 Which of the following binary operations is (are) NOT the education budget is (a) N1,250 (b) N1,500 (c)
closed over the set of odd integers? I Addition II. 1,800 (d) N,000
Subtraction III. Multiplication IV. Division (a) I and III 20 The, standard deviation of the set of numbers -3, -2, -
only (b) II and IV only (c) IV only (d) I, II and IV only 1, 0, 1, 2, 3, is (a) 4 (b) 22 (c) 2 (d) 4
3
8 Limit x – 1 is equal to
2
X –1 (a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 1½ (d)
Infinity

9 Differentiate y = y 1 with respect to x

X
(a) 1 1 (b) 1 1
2 x + 2x x x -
x hours (c) 5.0 hours (d) 1.0 hour
3
(d) x-½ + x- /2
2 2
10 If y = x sin x, then d y equals
2
dx
2 2
(a) 2xsin x x cos x (b) 4xcosx + (2-x )sin x (c) (2-x )
2
sin x 4xcosx (d) 2sin x-x sin x
11 The value of (1-2x)dx is (a) 0 (b) 1/8 (c) -1/4 (d) ¼
12 The coordinator of point X and Y on the line XY are
XY are X (-2,-1) and Y-(2,1). This equation of the
perpendicular bisector of XY is (a) y-2x=0 (b) y-1-2x0
(c) y0-1-2x=5 (d) y-2x-3
13 The point at which the tangent to the curve y=x2 –
5x14 makes an angle of 135 with the positive x—axis
is (a) (1,0) (b) (3,2) (c) 5,9 (d) (2,2)
14 If P – 2 3 and the inverse of P is 2 x then values
of x and y are
1 2 y 2
(a) x-3,y-1 (b) x-3,y-1 (c) x=3,y=1 (d) x=1,y=3
15 In attest conducted on the three arms of a class,
class A with 30 students scored and average of 5.5
marks, class B with 25 students scored an average of
6.4 marks, and class C got an average of 6.25 marks.
If the average mark for the whole class is 6.0, the
number of students in class C is (a) 35 (b) 30 (c) 25
(d) 20
The distribution of marks scored by students in a
class test is given below.
Mark 2 3 4 5 6 7
No. of 1 2 3 4 5 3
Students
16 From the table, the mean anti the modal marks are
respectively
(a) 5,6 (b) 5,4,6, (c) 5,5,5 (d) 5,4,5,5
The figure above shows the give drawn for the marks
scored by 500 candidates in a matriculation
examination. Use the information in the figure to
answer questions 216 and 21
17 The median and the upper quartile are respectively
(a) 60,65 (b) 150,751 (c) 50,70 (d) 55,75
18 The score of 50% corresponds to a percentile of
(a) 60.0 (b) 50.0 (c) 18.8 (d) 15.5
19 When the monthly budget for a household is
displayed on a pie chart; the sectorial angles for the
various items of expenditure are as follows: Food
(1650). Education (90) budgeted for clothing, then
MATHEMATICS 2005/2006
(c) x - 1 1 If Paul can paint a fence in 2 hours and Fred can print
the same fence in 3 hours, Paul and Fred working
2x x together can paint the fence in (a) 2.5hours (b) 1.2
2 If two angles of a triangle are acute angles, the third
angle (a) is less than the sum of two given angles (b)
is an acute angle (c) is the largest angle of the
triangle (d) may be an obtuse angle
3 DCCXLIX in roman numerals represents the number
2
(a) 749 (b) 764 (c) 1249 (d) 1264
4 The sum of an odd number and even number is (a)
sometimes an even number (b) always divisible by 3
or 5 or 7 (c) always an old number (d) always a prime
number
5 If one angle of a triangle is three times a second
angle and the third angle is 20 degrees more than the
o o
second angle, the second angle is (a) 32 (b) 34 (c)
o o
40 (d) 50
2 2
6 The factors of a b are
2 2 2
(a) (a-b), (a+b) (b) (a-b), (a-b) (c)a , -b (d) (a -1), (1
2
b)
7 A bank manager received 8 times as much salary as
one of the messengers. If the sum of their salaries is
N135,000, the manager’s salary is (a) N15,000 (b)
100,000 (c) 120,000
(d) N125, 000
8 Given a rectangle hexagon, calculate each interior
o o o o
angle of the hexagon (a) 60 (b) 30 (c) 120 (d) 45
9 The lengths of the sides of a right-angled triangle at
(3x__)cm, (3x___)cm, find the value (a) 2 (b) 6 (c) 18
(d) 12
10. Thirty boys and x girls sat for a test. The means of
the boy’s score and that of the girls were respectively
6 and 8 . Find x if the total score was 468. (a) 38 (b)
24 (c) 36 (d) 22
8 9 11 Ade and Uche can do a piece of work in 18 days.
1 1 Ade can do it alone in x days, whilst Uche takes 15
days longer to do it alone. Which of the following
equations describes x?
2 2 2
(a) x 5x 18 = 0 (b) x – 20x + 360 = 0 (c) x 21x 270 =
0
2
(d) 2x + 42x 190 = 0
12 What is the probability that a number chosen at
random from the integers between 1 and 10 inclusive
is either a primer or a multiple of 3? (a) 7/10 (b) 3/5
(c) 4/5 (d) ½
13 A bags contains 4 white balls and 6 red balls. Two
red balls are taken from the bag without replacement.
What is the probability that they are both red? (a) 1/5
(b) 1/3 (c) 2/15 (d) 2/9
14 If y=x/(x-3) + x(x + 4) find y when x = -2
(a) -3/5 (b) 3/5 (c) -7/5 (d) 7/5
15 A man invests a sum of money at 4% per annum
simple interest. After 3 years, the principal amount to
N7,000.00. Find the sum invested (a) N7,840.00 (b)
N6,250.00 (c) N6,160.00 (d) N5,833.33
MATHEMATICS ANSWERS

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4 C
2010/2011 2009/2010 5 A
1 B 1 D 6 A
2 A 2 A 7 A
3 D 3 B 8 C
4 C 4 A 9 D
5 C 5 B 10 C
6 D 6 C 11 C
7 C 7 C 12 B
8 C 8 A 13 B
9 D 9 B 14 A
10 B 10 B 15 B

2008/2009 2007/2008 PHYSICS 2010/2011

1 A 1 D 1 A man walks 1km due east and then 1km due north.
o o
2 A 2 B His displacement is (a) 1km N15 E (b) 1km N30 E
(c) 2kmN45 E
o
3 B 3 A
(d) 2kmN60 E
o
4 B 4 B
5 D 5 A 2 An air force jet flying with a speed of 335m/s went
6 C 6 B past an anti-aircraft gun. How far is the aircraft 5s
7 C 7 C later when the gun was fired? (a) 838m (b) 3350m
8 D 8 D (c) 670m (d) 16.75m
9 D 9 C 3 A palm fruit dropped to the ground from the top of a
10 B 10 A tree 45m tall. How long does it take to reach the
11 C 11 C ground? (a) 9s (b) 4.5s (c) 3s (d) 7.5s
12 A 12 C 4 A piece of rubber 10cm long stretches 6mm when a
13 A 13 D load of 100N is hung from it. What is the strain? (a)
-2 -3
14 C 14 B 60 (b) 6 (c) 6 x 10 (d) 6 x 10
15 D 15 B 5 A machine gun with a mass of 5kg fires a 50g bullet
16 B at a speed of 100m/s. the recoil speed of the gun is
17 C (a) 0.5m/s (b) 1.5m/s (c) 1m/s (d) 0.2m/s
18 D 6 The internationally agreed system of units (SI) for
19 D physical measurements are (a) Ib, ft, sec (b) g, m, se
20 C (c) kg, m, sec
(d) cm, g, sec
7 The force required to make an object of mass m,
travelling with velocity v, turn in a circle of radius r is
2 2 2
(a) mv /r (b) mr /v (c) mr/v (d) mv/r
8 A few grains of table salt were put in a cup of cold
water kept at constant temperature and left
undisturbed. Eventually all the water lasted salty.
This action is due to (a) convection (b) osmosis (c)
2006/2007 capillarity (d) diffusion
o
1 A 9 A temperature of 20oC is the same as (a) 36 F (b)
o o o
2 B 68 F (c) 11.1 F (d) 43.1 F
-1
3 B 10. The latent heat of fusion of ice is 80 calg . How
o
4 B much heat is required to change 10g of ice at 0 C into
5 A water, at the same temperature? (a) 80cal (b) 10cal
6 C (c) 9cal (d) 800cal
7 D
8 C PHYSICS 2009/2010
9 A 1. In a D.C. circuit a 10microfarad (mF) capacitor is
10 B placed in series with a 10 ohm resistor. The total
11 A resistance of the combination is
12 B (a) 10 ohms (b) 1 ohms (c) zero (d) 20 ohms (e(
13 B infinite
14 C 2 On an a.c. generator which of the following does not
15 C apply? (a) field magnet (b) commutator (c) armature
16 C (d) slip rings (e) carbon brushes
2 o
17 D 3 A gas at pressure P N/m and temperature 27 C is
o
18 B heated to 77 C at constant volume T. The new
2
19 A pressure is (a) 0.85 PN/m2 (b) 0.86 PN/m (c)
2 2 2
20 C 1.16PN/m (d) 1.18PN/m (e) 2.85Pn/m
2
4 The following are some units. I. Ns II. Nm III. N/m IV.
-1 -1
2005/2006 JoK .Jkg . What are the units of latent heat? (a) I (b)
1 B II (c) III (d) IV (e) V
2 C 5 The heat from the sun reaches the earth by the
3 A process of

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Examsguru.Net – LASU POST UTME PAST QUESTIONS WITH SOLUTIONS
(a) insulation (b0 precipation (c) conduction (d)
convection
(e) radiation
6 The amount of hat required to raise the temperature
of a body is
(a) thermal energy (b) thermal conduction (c) heat
lost (d) specific heat capacity (e) thermal capacity
7 Two lamps rated 40W and 220W each are connected
in series. The total power dissipated in both lamps is
(a) 10W (b) 20W (c) 40W (d) 80W (e) none of the
above
8 Three 5 ohms resistors connected in parallel have a
potential difference of 60V applied across the
combination. The current in each resistor is (a) 4A
(b) 36A (c) 12A (d) 24A (e) 10A
9 The PHCN charges 5k per KWh, what is the cost of
operating for 24 hours a lamp requiring 1A on a 200V
line? (a) 24k (b) 55k (c) 40K (d) 26k (e) 32k
10 A magnet is moved through a coil of wire. The e.m.f
produced in the wire depends on (a) the number of
turns in the coil (b) the strength of the magnet (c) the
speed at which the magnet is moved (d) all of the
above (e) none of the above
PHYSICS 2008/2009
1. A man of mass 50kg ascends a flight of stairs 5m
high in 5 seconds. If acceleration due to gravity is
2,
10m/s , the power expanded is (a) 100W (b) 300W
(c) 250W (d) 400W (e) 500W
2 Which of the following arrangements in the sequence
shown can be used to obtain a pure spectrum of
white light?
(a) source, slit, converging lens, prism, converging
lens, screen
(b) source, slit, diverging lens, screen (c) source,
converging lens, prism, diverging lens, screen (d)
source, slit, prism, diverging lens, screen
3 Ripples on water are similar to light waves in that they
both (a) have the same wave length (b) are
longitudinal (c) cannot be reflected (d) travel at the
same speed (e) can be refracted and diffracted
4 A piece of wood is floating on water. The force acting
on the wood are (a) upthrust and reaction (b) weight
and reaction (c) weight and upthrust (d) upthrust and
viscosity (e) weight and viscosity
5 the angle between the direction of the earth’s
magnetic field and the horizontal is called the (a)
angle of deviation (b) magnetic declination (c)
magnetic meridian (d) angle of dip
6 A force of 16N applied to a 4.0kg block that is at rest
on a smooth horizontal surface. What is the velocity
of the block at t=5 seconds?
7 1,000 identical drops of oil of density 5000kg/m have
a total mass of 5 x 10kg. one of the drops forms a thin
2 5
film of area 0.5m on water. The thickness of the film
-8 -9
is (a) 2 x 10 m (b) 2 x 10 m
-9 -9 -8
(c) 2 x 10 m (d) 3 x 10 m (e) 2.8 x 10 m
8 An electric current of 3A flowing through an electric
healing element of resistance 20 embedded in 1kg
o
of an oil raises at the temperature of the oil by 10 in
10 seconds, then the specific heat capacity of the oil
o o o
is.(a) 1.8J/g C (b) 6J/g C (c) .18Kj/kg C (d)
o o
1.8kJ/kg C (e) .06J/g C
9 The difference of potential between the terminals of a
cell is 2.2V. When a 4 resistor is connected across
the terminals of this cell, the potential difference is 2
volts. What is the internal resistance of the cell? (a)
0.10 (b) 0.25 (c) 0.40 (d) 2.50 (e) 4.00
© 2014 www.examsguru.net | All Right Reserved
2005 - 2014
10 Which of the following is NOT a fundamental S.I
unit? (a) Radian (b) Amper (c) Kelvin (d) Second (e)
Kilogram
11 A simple pendulum with a period of 2.0s has its
length doubled. Its new period is (a) 1.00s (b) 1.41xs
(c) 0.35s (d) 2.83s (e) 4.00s
12 The mode of heat transfer which does not require
material medium is (a) conduction (b) radiation (c)
convection (d) propagation
13 If the refractive index of glass is 1, 5, the critical angel
-1
at the air-glass interface will be (a) Sin 0.6667 (b)
-1
sin 1.5 (c) cos+ 2/3
-1
(d) cos 1.5
14 What is the effect of the increase in the size, of the
hole of a pin-hole camera on the image? It (a) gives a
blurred image (b) corrects for chromatic aberration (c)
magnifies the image (d) brings the image into sharper
focus
PHYSICS 2007/2008
1 An electric charge could be transmitted through (a)
wood, rubber and stone (b) paper, clay and plastic (c)
glass, acid and cloth (d) the human body, water and
metals (e) all of the above
2 A guitar string is 75cm long. The wavelength of its
fundamental note is (a) 75cm (b) 150cm (c) 37.5cm
(d) 112.5cm (e) 50cm
3 A herdsman yelling out to a fellow herdsman heard
his voice reflected by a cliff 4s later. What is the
velocity of sound in air if the cliff is 680m away? (a)
170m/s (b) 136m/s (c) 680m/s (d) 340m/s (e) 510m/s
4 An object 1 cm high placed on the axis 15cm from a
converging lens form an image 30cm from the lens.
The size of the image is (a) 0.5cm (b) 1.5cm (c) 3cm
(d) 2.5cm (e) 2cm
5 The angular dispersion of a prism depends on (a) the
index of refraction only (b) the angle of incidence as
well as the index of refraction (c) angle of incidence
(d) the thickness of the prism (e) prism angle
6 correction of myopic defects in the human eye we
require (a) convex lens (b) a concave lens (c) a
combination of concave and convex (d) a prism (e) a
concave mirror
7 Following which is different from the others? (a) rays
(b) gamma rays (c) cathrode rays (d) ultraviolet rays
(e) stared rays
3 -3
8 Density of 400cm of palm oil was 0.9gcm before
frying. If the density of the oil is 6gm-3 after frying,
assuming no loss of oil due to spilling, its new volume
3 3 3
(a) 860cm (b) 600cm (c) 240cm (d) 800cm3 (e)
3
450cm
9 10kg car which was initially at rest travelled with an
2
acceleration 5m/s , its energy after 4s was (a) 2.5 x
3
10 J (b) 2.5 x 10 J
3 4 5
(c) 2 x 10 J (d) 5 x 103 J (e) 5 x 10 J
10 The temperature at which the water vapour present in
the air saturates the air and condense is known as (a)
boiling point (b) melting point (c) triple point (c) dew
point (d) tidal temperature
11 Which one of the following types of waves cannot
travel through a vacuum? (a) sound wave (b) light
waves (c) infra-red waves (d) x-radiation (e) radio
waves
12 A simple pendulum experiement the length of the
inextensible string is led by a factor of four, its period
is increased by a factor of (a) 4 (b) /2 (c) ¼ (d)
2 (e) 2
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13 What range of temperature is the expansion of water
o o
anomalous? (a) + 208 C to + 212 C (b) -80oC to -
o o o
76 C (c) -4 C to 0 C
o o o o
(d) + 96 C to + 100 C (e) 0 C to +4 C
14 When the vapour of a substance is in equilibrium with
its own liquid, it is said to (a) gaseous (b) unsaturated
(c) liquefied (d) diffused (e) saturated
15 If the wavelength of a wave travelling with a velocity
of 360m/s is 60cm, the period of the wave is (a) 6s (b)
3.6s (c) 0.17s (d) 0.61 (e) 3s
16 The heights of the mercury thread in a mercury-in-
glass thermometer when in selling ice and then in
steam are 3cm and 18cm respectively. At a
o 3
temperature of 60 C the height would be (a) 7.5cm
(b) 9cm (c) 10.8cm (d) 12cm (e) 12.6cm
17 An object is placed 30cm from a concave mirror of
focal length 15cm. the linear magnification to the
image produced is (a) 0 (b) 2/3 (c) 1 (d) 2 (e) 3
18 If a given mass of gas at constant pressure obeys the
relation… volume is proportional to the absolute
temperature… the gas is said to obey (a) Hooke’s law
(b) Boyle’s law (c) Dalton’s law (d) Charles’ law (e)
Newton’s law
19 A man standing between two parallel mirror in a
barber’s shop will see the following number of his
own image (a) eight (b) two (c) four (d) one (e) infinite
20 A landlord has eight 40W electric light bulbs, four
60W bulbs and two 100W bulbs in his house. If he
has all the points on for five hours daily and if PHCN
charges 5k per unit, his bill for 30 days is (a) N5.70
(b) N7.23 (c) N3.65 (d) N8.05 (e) N4050
PHYSICS 2006/2007
1 Which of the following statements is correct? The
reading of pressure on a mercury barometer is
independent of (a) the cross-sectional area of the
tube (b) the atmosphere pressure (c) the acceleration
due to gravity (d) the temperature of mercury
2
2 What are unit of thermal conductivity? (a) kg.m.s (b)
2 -1 -4 -1 -1 -1 -4 3
Js- m k (c) JK D, Ns m K (d) M
3 Which of the following statements is correct? The
magnetized state of an iron bar can be destroyed
completely by (a) heating the bar to a high
temperature (b) breaking the bar (c) connecting
opposite poles with a small piece of iron (d) placing
the bar inside a strong magnetic field (e) none of the
above
4 .An electric cell has an internal resistance of 20hns. A
current of 0.5A is found to flow when a resistor of
50hns resistance is connected across it. What is the
electromotive force of the cell?
(a) 5volts (b) 3.5volts (c) 2.5volts (d) 1 volt (e) 10volts
5 The bulb of a motor-cycle headlamp is marked 40W,
6V. The resistance of the filament when it is switched
2 2 2
on is (a) 6 /40 ohm (b) 40/6 ohms (c) 40/6ohm (d)
2
6 x 40ohms (e) 6 /40ohms
6 In an electrolysis experiment, a cathode of mass 5g is
found to weight 5.01g after a current of 5a flows for
50s. what is the electrochemical equivalent of the
deposited substance? (a) 0.00004g/C (b) 0.00002g/C
(c) 60/7cm (e) none of the above
7 A concave lens of focal length 20cm forms an image
¼ the size of the object. The object distance is (a)
100cm (b) 100/9cm (c) 60cm (d) 60/7cm (e) none of
the above
8 A capacitor and a resistor are connected in series
with each other and in series with an accumulator of
negligible internal resistance. The potential
© 2014 www.examsguru.net | All Right Reserved
2005 - 2014
difference across the terminals of the capacitor is (a)
twice the e.m.f of the accumulator (b) less than the
em.f. by the potential drop across the resistor (c) zero
(d) the same as the e.m.f. (e) greater than the e.m.f
9 Which of the following statements is true? The
frequency of a vibrating string is (a) proportional to its
length (b) inversely proportional to the tension within
it (c) proportional to the amplitude of vibration (d)
inversely proportional to its cross-section (e)
proportional to the square root of the tension within it
10 An air bubble rises from the bottom to the top of a
water dam which is 40m deep. The volume of the
3
bubble just below the surface is 2.5cm . Find its
volume at the bottom of the dam, if atmospheric
pressure is equivalent to 10m of water (a) 10.cm (b)
3 3 3 3
2.0cm (c) 1.6cm (d) 0.625cm (e) 0.5m
11 Which of the following electromagnetic waves has the
shortest wavelength? (a) radio waves (b) x-rays (c)
infra-red (d) blue light (e) ultraviolet
12 Al the heat generated in a 50hm resistor by 2A
flowing for 30seconds is used to evaporate 5g of a
liquid at its boiling point. Which of the following is the
correct value of the specific latent heat of the liquid?
(a) 120J (b) 60J/g (c) 120J/g (d) 1500J (e) 1500J/g
13 The speed of light in air is 3 x 108m/s. if the
refractive index of light from air-to-water is 4/3, then
which of the following is the correct value of the
speed of light in water? (a) 4 x 108m/s (b)
8 -8 8
2.25x10 m/s (c) 4/9x10 m/s (d) 2.25x10 m/s
14 On which of the following is the operation of a moving
coil galvanometer based? (a) magnetic effect of
electric current (b) electromagnetic induction (c)
chemical reaction produced by electricity (d) force on
a current carrying conductor in a magnetic field (e)
electrical energy and power
15 A body is released from rest and allowed to fall freely
from a given height under gravity. The kinetic energy
at its halfway point is (a) a little above half of its initial
energy (b) a little below half of its initial energy (c) a
half of its initial energy (d) a little above its initial
energy (e) a little below its initial energy
16 It is know that a neutron exists in a light atomic
nucleus. Which of the following also exists in the
nucleus? (a) an electron
(b)  particle (c) an particle (d) a proton
17 Radio carrier waves are generated by causing
electrons to oscillate rapidly in (a) a microphone (b) a
television camera (c) coaxial cables (d) an antenna
(e) a transmitter
18 Which of the following statements is correct? Silvered
walls of a vacuum flask are used to prevent (a) heat
loss due to conduction (b) vacuum loss (c) electric
into the inner flask due to convection (d) heat loss
due to radiation (e) heat loss due to convection
19 Which of the following is true of an electrical charge?
(a) positive charge means deficit of electrons (b)
negative charge means excess of electrons (c)
electric current means movement of electrons (d) all
of the above (e) A and B only
20 Which of the following statements are true in the
structure of atoms? (a) the atoms of the different
elements differ only in the number of protons and
electrons (c) atoms are constructed according to the
plan of our solar system (d) all of the above (e) A and
C only
PHYSICS 2005/2006
1 The water at the bottom of a waterfall is slightly
warmer than that at the top because part of the (a)
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potential energy raises the water temperature (b) (a) the temperature rises and the ice expands (b) the
water absorbs latent heat from the atmosphere (c) temperature remins constant and the volume of ice
kinetic energy is changed into internet capacity (d) decreases (c) the ice give soul heat as it melts (d) the
dropping mass of water increases the heat capacity mass remains constant and the temperature
(e) A and C above increases
2 A pressure cooker saves both time and fuel in (e) the mass decreases because some heat is lost to
cooking because inside the cooker the (a) boiling the atmosphere
point of water is raised (b) pressure is constant (c) hat 15 Four lenses are being considered for use as a
Is completely trapped (d) temperature is evenly microscope objective. Which of the following focal
distributed (e) volume of steam varies lengths is mot suitable?
3 Which of the following statements ins NOT true of the (a) -5mm (b) +5mm (c) -5cm (d) +5cm
image in a plane mirror? The image is (a) the same
size as the object (b) laterally inverted (c) virtual (d) CHEMISTRY 2010/2011
magnified (e) the same distance behind the mirror as 1 Which of the following substances is the most
the object is in front abundant in universe? (a) air (b) carbon (c) water (d)
4 Any line or section through an advancing wave in oxygen
which all the particles are in the same phase is called 2 The energy change (H) for the reaction;
the (a) wave length (b) wave crest (c) wave trough (d) CO(g) + 1/202(g)…..> CO2(g) is (a) -282.6Kj (b)
wave amplitude (e) wave front +282.6Kj (c) -503.7Kj (d) +393.3Kj
5 …………..to the characteristic behaviour substances 3 Which of the following group of physical properties
which set with their length, perpendicular to a strong increases from left to right of the periodic table? I.
magnetic field instead of in line with it is (a) lionization energy II. Atomic radius III.
magnetization (b) paramagnetism (c) diamagnetism Electronegative (a) I and II (b) I, II and III (c) III and
(d) dermagnetization (e) ferrormagnetism IV (d) I, II, III and IV
6 Which of the following statement on the use of X-rays 4 Which of the following solution will conduct the least
is incorrect? X-rays are used (a) in hospital to obtain amount of electricity? (a) 0.01maqueous solution of
photographs of tissue and bones in the body (b) for sugar (b) 0.01maqueous solution of NaOH (c)
the treatment of malignant growths like cancer cells 0.01maqueous solution of hexaonic acid (d)
(c) in detecting finger prints (d) to reveal hidden flaws 2.00maqueous solution of NaOH
in metal castings and welded joints (e) to direct
alterations which have been made to works of art. PHYSICS ANSWERS
7 What is the relative permittivity of a capacity if its 2010/2011 2008/2009 2009/2010
capacitance with a medium as dielectric is 16 farads 1 C 1 E 1 E
and its capacitance with vacuum as dielectric is 2 2 D 2 D 2 B
farads? (a) 1/8 (b) ½ (c) 2 (d) B (e) 32 3 C 3 E 3 C
8 If the magnificent of a virtual, image formed, plan 4 C 4 C 4 E
object 10cm from a convex lens is 3, the then focal 5 C 5 5 E
length of the lens. (a) 10cm (b) 15cm (c) 16cm (d) 6 C 6 C 6 E
10cm (e) 20cm 7 A 7 7 D
9 In the study of physics temperature and heat are 8 D 8 C 8 C
often confused with each other ? Which of the 9 B 9 9 A
following statement correctly defined these two 10 D 10 B 10 D
element? (a) temperature is a measure of beverage 11 D
kinetic energy of the molecules of a substance (b) 12 B
heat is measure of the total kinetic energy of the 2007/2008 13 A
molecules in a system (c) different materials required 1 D 14 D
different amounts of heat because a given charge in 2 B 15 2005/2006
temperature (d) all of the above (e) A and B only 3 C 1 C
10 A stand-by generators connected, to fifteen 40W 4 E 2 A
lamps and a musician’s 600W amplifying system. 5 A 2006/2007 3 D
How much energy is used if the generator runs for 6 B 1 A 4 E
6hours? (a) 3.87o (b) 7.20Wh (c) 8.40Wh (c) 7 C 2 C 5 C
12.00kWh (e) 14.56kWh 8 B 3 A 6 C
11 A tugboat is travelling from Asaba to Onitsha across 9 A 4 B 7 D
the river Niger with a resultant velocity of 20knots. If 10 D 5 E 8 B
the river flows at 12 knots, the direction of motion of 11 A 6 S 9 D
the boat relative to the direction of water flow is (a) 12 E 7 C 10 B
o o o o o
36.87 (b) 53.13 (c) 90 (d) 136.87 (e) 143.13 13 C 8 B 11 B
12 A milliammeter of resistance 5 and full scale 14 E 9 E 12 D
deflection of 50mA is to be used to measure a 15 C 10 E 13 C
potential difference of 50V. the resistance of the 16 D 11 B 14 B
multiplier should be (a) 950 (b) 1100 (c) 5050 (d) 17 C 12 C 15 B
9050 (e) 1005 18 D 13 B
13 An object of mass m and volume v is totally immersed 19 E 14 D
in a liquid of density p The tension of a string holding 20 A 15 C
it is (a) mg (b) (m+pv)g (c) (m-pv)g (d) pvg (e) mg/(m- 16 D
pv) 17 E
o 18 D
14 Heat is supplied to a block of ice at 0 C until half of
has melted. Which of the following statement is true? 19 D

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20 B (b) heated gold (c) heated magnesium (d) calcium
CHEMISTRY 2010/2011
1 Which of the following substances is the most
abundant in universe? (a) air (b) carbon (c) water (d)
oxygen
2 The energy change (H) for the reaction;
CO(g) + 1/202(g)…..> CO2(g) is (a) -282.6Kj (b)
+282.6Kj (c) -503.7Kj (d) +393.3Kj
3 Which of the following group of physical properties
increases from left to right of the periodic table? I.
lionization energy II. Atomic radius III.
Electronegative (a) I and II (b) I, II and III (c) III and
IV (d) I, II, III and IV
4 Which of the following solution will conduct the least
amount of electricity? (a) 0.01maqueous solution of
sugar (b) 0.01maqueous solution of NaOH (c)
0.01maqueous solution of hexaonic acid (d)
2.00maqueous solution of NaOH
5 How will a metal X. which react explosively with air
and dilute acids be best extracted from its ores? (a)
electrolysis of used salt (b) decomposition of its
oxide (c) electrolysis of the solution of its salt (d)
displacement from solution by an alkali metal
6 Which of the following sulphides is insoluble in dilute
HCI?
(a) Na2S (b) Zn (c) FeS (d) Cus
7 Hydrogen is not librated when trioxonitrate(V) acid
reacts with zinc because (a) trioxonitrate V acid is a
strong acid (b) all nitrates are soluble in water (c) is
rendered passive by the acid (d) hydrogen produced
is oxidized to water
8 Given the molecular mass of iron is 56 and that of
oxygen is 16, how many moles of iron (III) oxide will
be contained in 1kg of the compound. (a) 6.25moles
(b) 265.0 moles (c) 12.5moles (d) 3.125moles
9. The boiling points of water, ethanol, toluene and
butan-2-ol are 373.0k,351, 383,6k and 372.5k
respectively, which liquid has the highest vapour
pressure at 323.0k (a butan-2-ol (b) toluene (c) water
(d) ethanol
10 A man suspected of being drunk is made to pass his
breath into acidified potassium dichromate solution. If
his breath carries a significant level of ethanol, the
final colour of the solution is (a) pink (b) green (c)
purple (d) orange
CHEMISTRY 2009/2010
1 When pollen grains are suspended in water and
viewed through a microscope, they appear to be in a
state of constant but erratic motion. This is due to (a)
the bombardment of the pollen grain by molecules of
water (b) convection currents (c) small changes in
pressure (d) small changes in temperature
2 sulphate(IV)ions are finally tested using (a) acidified
barium chloride (b) acidified silver nitrate (c) acidified
lead nitrate (d) lime-water
3 Sodium hydroxide (NaOH) pellets are
(a) hygroscopic (b) hydrated (c) deliquescent (d)
efflorescent
4 Nitrate can best be obtained from a mixture of oxygen
and nitrogen by passing the mixture over (a) heated
phosphorus
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hydroxide
5 Which of the following is true or sulphur? It (a) forms
two alkaline salts (b) is spontaneously flammable (c)
conducts electricity in the molten form (d) burns with
a blue flame
6 In the Haber process for the manufacture of
ammonia, finely divided iron is used as (a) a
reducing agent (b) a catalyst (c) an ionizing agent (d)
an oxidizing agent
7 A molar solution of caustic soda is prepared by
dissolving
(a) 40g of NaOH in 100g of water (b) 20g of NaOH in
500g of water (c)40g of NaOH in 1000g of water (d)
20g of NaoH in 1000g of water
8 The ratio of the number of molecules 16g of oxygen
to that of hydrogen is (a) 1:1 (b) 2:1) (c) 1:4 (d) 1:2
9 Sodum chloride may be obtained from brine by (a)
sublimation (b) decantation (c) evaporation (d)
distillation
10. Which of the following acts as both a reducing and
an oxidizing agent (a) SO2 (b) HO2 (b) H2S (c) H2
(d) Co2
CHEMISTRY 2008/2009
1 An emulsion paint consists of (a) gas or liquid
particles dispersed in liquid (b) liquid particle in quid
(c) solid particles dispersed in liquid (d) solid particles
dispersed in solid
2 A sample of orange juice is found to have pH3.80.
-4
What is the concentration of (a) 1.6 x 10 (b) 6.3 x
-11 4 -11
10 (c) 6.3 x 10 (d) 1.6 x 10
3 Which of these is an acid salt?
2
(a) K SO4AI2(SO4)3.24H2O
4 Copper (II) tetraoxosulphate(IV) solution is
electrolyzed using carbon electrodes. Which of the
following are produced at the anode and cathode
respectively?
3
5 A given mass of gas occupies 2dm at 3000K. At
what temperature will its volume be doubled keeping
the pressure constant? (a) 400K (b) 480K (c) 550K
(d) 600K
4
6 If 100cm of oxygen pass through a porous plug in
50seconds, the time taken for the same volume of
hydrogen to pass through the same porous plug is (a)
10.0s (b) 12.5s (c) 17.7s (d) 32.0s (O=16,H+I)
7 Which of the following is a measure of the average
kinetic energy of the molecules of a substance (a)
volume (b) mass (c) pressure (d) temperature
8 An increase in temperature causes in the pressure of
a gas in a fixed volume due to an increase in the (a)
number of molecules of the gas (b) density of the gas
molecules (c) number of collisions between the gas
(d) number of collision between the molecules and
the walls of the container
9 Calcuate the mass in kilograms of magnesium
produced by the electrolysis of magnesiums (II)
chloride in a cell operating for 24 hours at 500
-1
amperes (Faraday=96, 500C mmol , Mg=24)
(a) 2.7 9b) 5.4 (c) 10.8 (d) 21.7
10 Calaculate the volume of carbon(IV) oxide measure
at s.t.p, produced when 1kg of potassium hydrogen
trixocarbonate(IV) is totally decomposed by heat (a)
3 3 3 3
28dm (b) 56m (c) 112m (d) 196m
[G.M/ V at S.T.P = 22.4dm3, K=39.O=16,
C=12199=1]
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st
11 The electronic configuration of an 1 1s22p62p63s3.
how many unpaired electron are then in the element
(a) 5 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 2
12 Which of the following represents the type of bonding
present in ammonium chloride molecule? (a) ionic
only (b) covalent only (c) ionic and dative covalent (d)
dative covalent only
13 Which of the following is arranged in order to
increasing electronegativity (a) chlorine, aluminium,
magnesium, phosphorus, sodium (b) sodium,
magnesium, aluminium phosphorus, chloride (c)
sodium, chlorine, phosphorus, magnesium, alumina,
14 A quantity of air was passed through a weighted
mount of alkaline of the pyrogallol. An increase in the
weight of the pyrogallol would result from the
absorption of (a) nitrogen (b) neon (c) argon (d)
oxygen
15 Which of the following gases can be collected by
upward displacement of air (a) NO (b) H2 (c) NH3 (c)
CI2
CHEMISTRY 2007/2008
1 The cracking process is very important in the
petroleum industry because it (a) gives purer
products (b) yields more lubricants (c) yields more
engine fuels (d) yields more asphalt
2 A gas that can behave as reducing agent toward
chlorine and as an oxidizing agent toward hydrogen
sulphide is (a) O2 (b) NO (c) SO2 (d) NH3
3 Sodium chloride can be obtained from brine by (a)
titration (b) decantation (c) distillation (d) evaporation
4 Which of the following conducts electricity? (a)
sulphur (b) graphite (c) diamond (d) red phosphorus
5 The movement of liquid molecules from the surface
of the liquid gaseous phase above it is known as (a)
Brownian movement (b) condensation (c)
evaporation (d) liquefaction
6 In the Haber process for the manufacture of
ammonia, finely divided iron is used as (a) an
oxidizing agent (b) a reducing agent (c) a catalyst (d)
a dehydrating agent
7 An example of a neutral oxide is (a) AL2O3 (b) NO2
(c) CO2 (d) CO
8 All alkalines (a) are all gases (b) have the general
formula (c) are usually soluble in water (c) four times
as fast as oxygen
9 Hydrogen diffuses through a porous plug (a) at the
same rate as oxygen (b) at a slower rate than oxygen
(c) twice as fast as oxygen (d) four times as fast as
oxygen
10 The neutralization reaction between NaOH solution
and nitrogen(IV) oxide(NO3) produces water and (a)
NaNO2 and NaNO3 (b) NaNO3 and HNO3
11 A correct electrochemical series can be obtained
from K, Na, Ca, AI, Zn, Fe, Pb, H, Cu, H, Cu, Hg, Ag,
Au by interchanging
12 When marble is heated to 1473K, another whiter
solid is obtained which reacts vigorously with water to
give an alkaline solution. The solution contains (a)
2
Ca(OH) (b) KOH (c) Mg(OH)2
13 Which of the following will react further with oxygen
to form a higher oxide (a) NO and H2O (b) CO and
CO2 (d) CO2 and H2O
14 When chlorine is passed into water and subsequently
exposed to sunlight, the gas evolved is (a) HCL (b)
HOCL (c) O2 (d) CI2O2
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15 The reaction of potash with palm-oil to produce foam
is referred to as (a) neutralization (b) saponification
(d) etherification (d) salting-out
16 The alkanol obtained from the production of soap is
(a) ethanol (b) glycerol (c) methanol (d) propanol
17 The flame used by welders in cutting metals is (a)
butane gas flame (b) acetylene gas flame (c)
kerosene flame (d) acetylene flame
18 Consecutive members of an alkane homologous
series differ by (a) CH (b) CH2 (c) CH3 (d) CnHn
19 Stainless steel is an alloy of (a) carbon, iron and lead
(b) carbon, iron and chromium (c) carbon, iron and
copper (d) carbon, iron and silver
20 The mass of an atom is determined by (a) its
ionization potential (b) its electrochemical potential
(c) the number of protons (d) the number of neutrons
and protons
CHEMISTRY 2006/2007
1 Which of the following is physical change?(a) burning
of kerosene (b) melting of ice cream (c) exposing
white phosphorus to air (d) dissolving calcium in
water
2 Hardness of water is caused by the presence of the
ions of (a) calcium and magnesium (d) sodium and
potassium
3 Catalytic hydrogenation of benzene produces (a)
cyclohexene (b) oil (c) margarine (d) cylohexane
4 The shape of ammonia molecule is (a) trigonal planar
(b) octahedral (c) square planar (d) tetrahedral
5 Which of the following substances can be used
effectively as a water softener? (a) sodium
tetraborate (b) calcium bicarbonate (c) ferric chloride
(d) calcuium silicate
6 Calcium hydroxide is added in the treatment of town
water supply to (a) kill bacteria in the water (b)
facilitate coagulation of organic particles (c) facilitate
sedimentation (d) improve the taste of the water
7 Which of the following is used in the fire
extinguishers? (a) carbon (II) oxide (b) carbon (IV) (c)
Sulphur (V) oxide (d) Ammonia
8 What reaction takes place when palm-oil is added to
potash and foams are observed? (a) neutralization
(b) saponification (c) etherification (d) Salting-out
9 The following the reagent frequently used in gas
analysis to absorb carbon monoxide is (a) cuprous
chloride (b) calcium chloride (c|) pyrogallic acid (d)
sodium peroxide
10 Of the following a metallic compound which is
increasing in importance as a lubricant is (a) graphite
(b) iron oxide (c) molybdenum disulfide (d) lungstem
oxide
11 The shape of the s-orbitat is (a) spherical (b) elliptical
(c) spiral (d) circular
12 Which of the following mixtures of gases is likely to
born in flame? (a) neon and nitrogen (b) Helium and
noon (c) neon and hydrogen (d) nitrogen and helium
13 Pollution of underground water by metal ions is very
likely in a soil that has (a) nitrate content (b) alkalinity
(c) acidity (d) chloride content
14 In the production of soap, concentrated sodium
chloride is added to (a) saponity the soap (b) increase
the solubility of the soap (c) decrease the solubility of
the soap (d) emulsify the soap
15 According to Charles law, the volume of a gas
becomes zero at (a) -3730c (b) emulsify the soap (c) -
100oC (d) )oC
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16 Carbohydrates are compounds containing carbon 14 The fitter in a cigarette reduces the nicotine contents
hydrogen oxygen in the ratio (a) 1:2:1 (b) 3:1:1 (c) by
2:1;1 (d) 1:1:1 (a) absorption (b) burning (c) absorption (c)
17 The modern process of manufacturing steel from iron evaporation
is by 15 A liquid that will dissolve fat is (a) hydrochloric acid
(a) blast reduction (b) oxidation (c) treatment with (b) kerosene ((c) water(d) calcium dioxides
acids (d) calcium tetraoxocarrbonate (IV)
18 The furring of kettles is cause the presence in water
of (a) 1calcium tetraoxicarbonate (b) calcium
hydroxide (c) calcium tetraoxosulphate (d) calcium
hydrogentrioxicarbonate (IV)
19 In the reaction E+ F <-> G + H, the background
reaction is favoured if the concentration of (a) G is
reduced reduce (b) F is increase (d) E is increased
(d) is reduced
20 When H2S is passed into a solution of iron(III)
chloride, the solution turns (a) pale green (b) plate red
,,
(c) colourless (d) brown

CHEMISTRY 2005/2006
1 Aluminum hydroxide is used the dyeing industrial as a
(a) dye (b) salt (c) dispersant (d) mordant
2 Carbon is tetravalent because (a) the 2s and 2p
atomic orbital are hybridized (b) dispersant (c) the
electrons in all the orbital of carbon are equivalent (c)
the electrons in all the oribital of carbon are
equivalent (d) all the atomic originals of carbonate
hybridized
3 atoms are best prepared by (a) cooling a molten
mixture of the metals (b) reducing a mixture of their
metallic oxides
4 Which of the following is found in cotton? (a) cellulose
(b) starch (c) fat (d) oil
5 The process by which atoms are arranged into
different molecular structure in the petroleum refining
process is referred to as (a) hydrocracking (b)
polymerization
(c) catalytic cracking (d) reforming
6 How many isomers does pentane have? (a) 4 (b) 6
(c) 5 (d) 3
7 Which of the following is an electrolyte? (a) alcohol
(b) solid potassium hydroxide (c) sodium acetate
solution (d) mercury
8 When sugar is dissolved in tea, the reaction is always
accompanied by (a) no entropy change (b) ositive
entropy change (c) negative entropy change (d) a
minimum entropy change
9 The commonest feature of reaction at the mode is
that (a) dissolved solute and the solvent (b) solvent
and undissolved solute (c) electrod dissolves (d)
oxidation is involved
10 A change in temperature of a saturated solution
disturbs the equilibrium between the (a) dissolved
and solved solvent (b) solvent and dissolved solute
(c) dissolved solute and undissolved solutes solvent
(d) dissolved solute and the solution
11 A consequence of global warming is (a) water
pollution (b) increased humidity (c) air pollution (d)
flooding
12 When cathode rays are deflected onto the electrode
of an electrometer, the instrument becomes (a)
positively charged (b) neutral (c) bipolar (d) negatively
charged
13 A gas exerts pressure on its container because (a)
the molecules of the gas collide with the walls of the
container (b) some of the molecules are moving
faster than others 9c) of the collision at the molecules
with each other (d) of the mass to the molecules of
gas.

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CHEMISTRYANSWERS 23 A rhizome is an underground (a) root (b) shoot (c)
2010/2011 2007/2008 2006/2007 food (d) stem
1 A 1 C 1 B 24 Gymnosperms are commonly called (a) conifers (b)
2 A 2 C 2 A flowerless plants (c) seedless plants (d) cork bearing
3 C 3 D 3 D plants
4 A 4 B 4 A 25 Siliqua can be described as a (a) long narrow many
5 A 5 C 5 C seed developing from a superior bicarpellary ovary
6 D 6 C 6 D (b) dry monocarpellary, superior one-chambered fruit
7 A ` 7 D 7 B (c) dry monocarpellary multilocular fruits developing
8 A 8 C 8 B from a superior way (d) many seeded, unilocular fruit
9 D 9 C 9 C developing from a superior ovary
10 B 10 A 10 A 26 Blood platelets are important because they (a)
11 B 11 A produce antitoxins (b) antibodies (c) digest harmful
2009/2010 12 A 12 C bacteria (d) release
1 A 13 C 13 B 27 A tapeworm has no alimentary canal because (a) it
2 A 14 C 14 C does not feed (b) it sucks blood (c) its body adsorbs
3 C 15 B 15 D digested food (d) only liquid food is taken.
4 A 16 B 16 A 28 Cypsela is (a) dry, dehiscent, monocarpellary,
5 D 17 D 17 A developed from superior ovary (b) dry, dehiscent,
6 B 18 B 18 D multilocular, one chambered fruit (c) dry indehiscent,
7 C 19 B 19 D monocarpellary from superior ovary (d) dry,
8 D 20 D 20 A indehiscent, bicarpellary developed from inferior
9 C ovary one seeded fruit.
10 A 29 What is osmosis? (a) movement of solvent from high
concentration of solute (b) process of selective
2008/2009 2005/2006 transmission of solvent in preference to solute
1 B 1 C through semi-permeable membrane (c) movement of
2 B 2 B solute from high concentration of solvent to low
3 C 3 A concentration of solvent through semi-permeable
4 B 4 A membrane (d) movement of solvent from low
5 D 5 D concentration of solvent to high concentration of
6 B 6 A solvent through semi-permeable membrane.
7 D 7 C 30 In positive phototropism auxin (a) is produced more in
8 D 8 A the shade side than the illuminated side of the shoal
9 B 9 D )b) as an hormone circle on all the side of them.
10 C 10 A (c) is produced less in the shaded side than
11 C 11 C illuminated side of shoot (d) is produce on the plant
12 C 12 D side near the root so that it can grow longer.
13 B
14 D SECTION F: ECONOMICS
15 D 1 Economic can be defined as a science which deals
basically with (a) the demand and supply of goods
and services. (c) allocation of scale resources among
SECTION B – BIOLOGY competing ends (d) the determine or individual wants
16 The organelle in Amoeba which performs a similar 2 To the economist all things are said to be scarce,
function with that of the kidneys in vertebrate is the since by |scarce| simply means (a) expensive to
(a) nucleus (b) contractile vacuole (c) mitochondrion purchase (b) beyond the reach of the common man
(d) pseudopodium (d) limited in supply (e) not plentiful
17 Steady spread of the unpleasant odour from dead rat 3 The concept of choice in economics arises because
is a physical process called (a) cyclosis (b) (a) means exist only for satisfying some of people’s
diffusion(c) osmosis (d) plasmolysis wants (c) one has the opportunity to attain high
18 De-oxygenated blood from the head region first enter degree of cost minimization (d) it is always necessary
the heart through the (a) right auricle (b) right to make a choice
ventricle (c) left auricle (d) left ventricle 4 Give that servers draught affected an area where
19 Which of the following is not a characteristic of groundnut is grown. The effect of this on groundnut
enzymes? (a) they are proteins which are activated oil would be (a) a decrease in the demand for
by co-enzymes (b) they are specific and can act on groundnut oil (b) a decrease in the quantity supplied
specific substrates (c) they are organic catalysis (d) of groundnut oil (c) all increase in the quality
their reactions are irreversible demanded of groundnut oil substitute (d) a fall ill the
20 The best way of protecting natural resources is by (a) price of substitute
creating games and forest reserves (b) enforcing 5 Which of the following countries is NOT a member of
conservation laws (c) embarking on tree planting (d) the economics community of West African? (a)
prohibiting lumbering in forest reserves Nigeria (b) Benin (c) Libya (d) Togo
21 One basic characteristics feature of viruses is that 6 Which of the following are direct taxes? (a) sales (b)
they grow (a) as colonics (b) as jelly like materials (c) excise duties (c) income and company taxes (d) tariff
inside living cells (d) in culture media duties
22 Which of these is the function of pneumatopores in 7 Which of the following is a function of money? It is (a)
white mangrove plants? (a) anchorage (b) breathing PORTABLE (b) a standard for deferred payment (c)
(c) storage (d) excretion relatively stable in value (d) generally acceptable

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Examsguru.Net – LASU POST UTME PAST QUESTIONS WITH SOLUTIONS
8 The largest employment section in a typical West
Africa country is (a) construction (b) transportation (c)
petroleum (d) agriculture
9 The forgone alternative in economics is simply the (a)
marginal costs (b) cost of forgone product (c) total
cost (d) opportunity
10 All the following are different form of money EXCEPT
(a) bank notes (b) demand deposits (c) coins (d) bank
tellers
11 The labour force in Nigeria falls between the ages of
(a) 18 and 25 (b) 18 and 55 (c) 18 and 60 (d) 18 and
30
12 The difference between birth and death rates of a
given population is referred to as the (a) mortality rate
(b) fertility (c) natural grow rate (d) linear grow rate
13 A country’s import index by 1995 was 50 and her
index of export price was 70 calculate the terms of
trade (a) 20% (b) 8.71% (c) 120% (d) 140%
14 The main handicap of sole proprietorships is (a)
limited liability (b) lack of technical know-how (c) low
profit margin (d) inadequate capital
15 More money charging for goods brings about (a)
inflation (b) retail prices (c) deflation (d) speculative
motive
SECTION G – GEOGRAPHY
1. The largest producer of gold in the world is (a)
Gambia (b) Nigeria (c) South Africa (d) Zaire
2 The earth (a) rotates on its axis around the moon (b)
is inclined 66 on its orbital plane (c) is a satellite on
the sun (d) revolves round the sun in 365 days
3 Which of the following is NOT a product of river
deposition?
a) food plain (b) Delta (c) levac (d) gorge
4 One of the effect of most urban ignition on the source
region is (a) rural depopulation (b) urban
depopulation (c) rural congestion (d) urban
congestion
5 In which of the following …………….(a) igneous (b)
plutonic (c) sedimentary (d) metamorphic
6. What would be the length of a two kilometre
………………..
(a) season pattern of rainfall (b) low nutrient value of
soils (c) high mean annual temperature (d) how
temperature
7 The work done in a gravitational …………..
(a) the path taken (b) mass (c) acceleration due to
gravity (d) difference in height
SECTION F – ECONOMICS
26 The sum of N80,000 is deposited in a bank and the
cash ratio of the banking system is 10%. Calculate
the total sum of money the bank can create from the
deposit (a) N100,000 (b) N800,000 (c) N700,000 (d)
N850,000
27 If budget deficits are financed by following, the
crowding out effect can be offset by an increase in (a)
savings (b) interest rates (c) government expenditure
(d) exchange
28 A tax that takes an interesting fraction of income goes
down is called (a) conditional (B) regressive (c)
progressive (d) proportional
29 Arising short run average cost is a result of (a) failing
marginal cost (b) rising fixed costs (c) economics of
scale (d) diminishing return
30 The only factor of production that plays an active role
in the production on process is (a) capital (b) labour
(c) entrepreneur (d) land
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2005 - 2014
SECTION G – GEOGRAPHY
31 Lines joining places of equal sunshine duration on
maps are known as (a) isohyet (b) isoeph (c) isobar
(d) isohel
32 Which of the following countries is the leading
producer of petroleum (a) Nigeria (b) Libya (c) Egypt
(d) Gabon
33 All the following constitute environmental hazards
except (a) urbanization (b) mass wasting (c)
earthquakes (d) drought
34 Which of the following is a feature of river deposition?
(a) Levee (b) screen (c) barcharn (d) morning
35 Which of the following is not a metamorphic rock?
(a) grit (b) sdust (c) marble
SECTION H – GOVERNMENT
36 Fascism was a type of dictatorial government
established in (a) Germany (b) Russia (c) Israel (d)
Italy
37 Public opinion can be expressed through
(a) census (b) general strike (c) socialization (d)
compromise
38 power is different from authority because power lacks
(a) ability (b( sovereignty (c) probity (d) legitimacy
39 The activities of Nigeria in the international
community are primarily influenced by (a) diplomacy
(b) propaganda (c) national interest (d) military power
40 The act of removing an elected official by the
electorate is referred to as (a) impeachment (b)
consensus (c) recall (d) plebiscite
SECTION I – HISTORY
41 Shake began his career as a warrior with the army of
(a) Dingiswayo (b) Ndwandwe (c) Zwide (d) Sobhuza
42 The last state of the Maghren to be conquered by the
Europeans was (a) Libya (b) Moroco (c) Algeria (d)
Tunisa
43 The traditional rulers of Tunisia at the French
colonization were called (a) Mai (b) Sultans (c)
Sheikhs (d) Bey
44 Which of the following Yoruba states, did not
welcome the christian missionaries? (a) Egba (b)
Ijebu-Ode (c) Ibadan (d) Oyo
45 Which of the following place was a trading station in
Benin Kingdom? (a) Udhoton (b) Wam (c) Ishan (d)
Uzere
SECTION J – LITERATURE IN ENGLISH
46 “Pleasure is moth” is an example of (a) simile (b)
irony
(c) metaphor (d) hyperbole
47 Pick out the odd item from the following (a) plot (b)
assonance (c) alliteration (d) rhythm
48 One of the following is a narrative technique in novel
(a) character (b) flashback (c) logical conclusion (d)
interesting story
49 Poetry involve one of the following (a) ideas only (b)
beauty only (c) diction only (d) emotion only
50 A sonnel is made up of a rhyming sestel and two
hyming
(a) tercels (b) couplets (c) stanzas (d) quatrains
SECTION K – ACCOUNTING
51 The group of users of accounting information
responsible for achieving the goals of the business is
it (a) employers (b) management (c) accountants (d)
investors
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52 Assets with short lives which change form in the SECTION I
course of business is called (a) good assets (b) HISTORY
fictitious assets (c) current assets (d) fixed assets 41 -
53 Assets with short lives and which often change John 42 -
in the course of business is called (a) permanent 43 -
capital (b) owner’s capital (c) element assets (d) fixed 44 -
assets 45 -
54 A person to whom an entity is indebted is called (a) a
debtor (b) an investor (c) a liability (d( a creditor SECTION L
55 Given that opening Debtors figure is N23,000 sales COMMERCE
N96,000 and receipt from debtors N90,000 the 56 D
closing debtors should be (a) N17,000 (b) 29,000 (c) 57 C
119,000 (d) N209,000 58 A
59 D
SECTION L – COMMERCE 60 A
56 Before bill of exchange has any value, it must first be
(a) endorsed (b) discounted (c) documented (d) SECTION G
accepted GEOGRAPH
57 Who calculates the risks of losses for insurers? (a) 31 -
syndicates (b) jobbers (c) assessors (d) ucluaries 32 -
58 The difference between the jobber’s buying and 33 -
selling prices is known as his (a) turn (b) cut (c) profit 34 -
(d) premium 35 -
59 The value of the materials used in making notes and
coins is known as the (a) market value (b) face value SECTION J
(c) legal value (d) intrinsic value LIT. IN ENGLISH
60 What is the maximum number of peoples who can 46 C
loan a partnership? (a) 20 (b) 7 (c) 50 (d) unlimited 47 A
48 B
SECTION M - CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS KNOWLEDGE 49 D
61 Gehazi’s request for Naaman’s talent silver and feslal 50 D
garments exposed his (a) evil plan to discredit his
maser (b) sense objectivity and fair play (c) greed and SECTION M
lust for materialism (d) consideration for rights C.R.K
62 The scroll which Ezekiel ate was (a) honey comb (b) 61 C
God’s covenant (c) God’s commandment (d) 62 D
Message of God 63 B
63 The companion of David in the Spy of King Saul in 64 B
the wilderness of Ziph was (a) Abner (b) Abishai (c) 65 A
John
(d) Caleb SECTION B
64 Paul argued in Galatians that the Jews were, until the BIOLOGY
coming of Jesus slaves to (a) the ignorance of their 16 B
parents (b) sin (c) death (d) the elemental spirits of 17 B
the universe 18 A
65 In 1 Corinthians, Paul says he is least of the Apostles 19 D
because he (a) was not one of the twelve (b) he 20 B
persecuted the church (c) was the last to be called by 21 C
Jesus (d) was an apostle of the gentiles 22 B
23 D
ANSWERS 24 A
25 C
SECTION B SECTION H SECTION K 26 D
BIOLOGY GOVERNMENT ACCOUNTING 27 C
6 D 36 D 51 B 28 D
7 C 37 B 52 C 29 B
8 B 38 D 53 C 30 A
9 B 39 A 54 C
10 - 40 C 55 B

SECTION F
ECONOMICS
26 B
27 C
28 B
29 D
30 B

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SECTION B – BIOLOGY
1 Blood clotting is initiated by (a) leucotytes (b) platelets
(c) beamolymph (d) haemoglobin
2 Anaerobic respiration in yeast produces (a) carbon
dioxide and ethanol (b) carbon dioxide and water (c)
carbon dioxide and oxygen (d) carbon dioxide and
glucose
3 Which of the following is NOT regarded as a pollution
on hand and in air? (a) noise (b) smoke (c) sulphur
(d) carbon monoxide
4 Denitrifying bacteria in nature liberate gaseous
nitrogen directly from (a) ammonium salts (b) soil
nitrates (c) thunderstorms (d) soil nitrites
5 The appendicular skeletons is made up of the (a)
limbs (b) skull and limbs (c) phalange (d) girdles and
limbs
6 Germination which results in the cotyledon’s being
brought about ground is called (a) hypocotyls (b)
epicotyis
(c) epigeal (d) hypogcal
7 A relationship between living organisms which is of
mutual benefit is (a) parasitizing (b) saprophytism (c)
ecosystem (d) symbiosis
8 In a mammal stimulus is transferred from the receptor
from the receptor muscle to the central nervous
system through the (a) motor neurons (b) effectors
muscles (c) dendrites (d) sensory enormous
9 An onion is a bulb because it (a) has a tuberous stem
(b) has a reduced stem and thick fleshy leaves (c)
has adventitious roots (d) bears many buds at the
nodes
10 The main function of blood in mammals is to (a)
excretory materials from tissues (b) carbon dioxide
from lungs to tissues (c) oxygen to the lungs (d)
digested food from all the body tissues
11 Meiosis occurs during the (a) abnormal division of
cancer cells (b) animal cell division (c) plant cell
division (d) formation of haploid cells
12 Of the following, the blood cells which are not
manufactured in the red bone narrow are the
………………..
ECONOMICS
1 In a public company, shares are (a) sold to one
person only (b) distributed freely (c) advertised to
members of the public for subscription (d) disposed of
the chief executive
2 Which of the following is a characteristic of a private
limited liability company? (a) 115 shares can be sold
to the public (b) the number of share-holders ranges
from fifty to one hundred (c) all the share holders
have equal powers and responsibilities (d) the
number of shareholders ranges from two to fifty
3 One of the advantages of a partnership over a sole
proprietorship is that (a) it is the most popular form of
business organization (b) the partner can easily
withdraw from the business (c) II make an increase in
the capital of the business possible (d) there is no
limit to the number of people, who may bring in
capital.
4 Which of the following is an external economy derived
by a firm? (a) low cost opportunities enjoyed by being
in a place where other producers concentrate (b)
technical economics enjoyed by varying the factors of
production (c) economies of management by putting
administrators where they are most efficient (d)
marketing advantages attained through preferential
treatment in the purchase and distribution
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5 Which of the following advantages of localization of
industries may also be disadvantages? (a) external
economies (b) concentration of industries and people
(c) development of organized markets (e) reduced
cost of research
6 The Nigerian Bank for commercial and industry is (a)
a commercial bank (b) development bank (c) an
industrial bank (d) a merchant bank
7 To control inflation, the monetary authorless of a
country call (a) reduce taxes (b) advise government
to increase its expenditure (c) engage in expansive
monetary policy (d) engage in restrictive monetary
policy
8 Which of the following is used by the central bank to
control the rate of interest (a) bill of exchange (b)
banker’s order (c) fixed deposit account (d) open
market operation
9 Gresham’s law in economics shows that
(a) bad money drives good money out of circulation
(b) good money drives bad money out of circulation
(c) gold must be available to maintain the value of
paper money
(d) the price level varies directly with the quantity of
money
10 Given that the cash reserve ratio is to percent what is
the maximum amount of money that the banking
system can create from an initial cash deposit of
N10,000.00 (a) N100.00 (b) 1,000.00 (c) N9,000.00
(d) 10,000.00
11 The most important economic characteristic
differentiating commercial banks from other financial
institution is their
(a) function as a safe and profitable store place for
savings (b) role in financing balance of payments
deficits (c) status as an intermediary between savers
and borrowers (d) ability to create and destroy money
12 Deflation Isa persistent fall in the general price level
and is usually caused by (a) reduction in total
demand (b) an increase in government spending (c)
an increase in the money supply (d) an increase in
aggregate demand
13 Which of the following causes of inflation is related to
demand pull inflation? (a) low productivity on farms
and in firms (b) poor storage facilities (c) poor
distribution system (d) increase in government
expenditure on construction
14 Which of the following is NOT a goal of modern
budgets? (a) the control of inflation (b) the reduction
in come inequality (c) the shift of all resources from
the private to the public sector (d) economic
development
15 The best technical description of an progressive tax is
a (a) tax which takes money from the rich than from
the poor (b) more equitable tax than a regressive one
(c) tax which takes higher proportion of extra naira
received as income rises (d) tax which falls directly on
those in the high income brackets
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS KNOWLEDGE
th
1 According to genesis chapter 1, on the 6 day, God
created (a) the firmament (b) light (c) dry land and
sea (d) man and living creature (e) the sun, moon and
stars
2 The flood lasted while Noah was in the ark for (a) two
weeks (b) ten weeks (c) ten days (d) a hundred days
(e) a hundred and fifty days
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3 Walk before me and be blameless. How old was the
addresses when this voice came? (a) 75years (b) 91
years (c) 99years (d) 105 years 9e) 120 years
4 You would bring down my grey hairs with sorrow to
sheol, Jacob said this to his children because (a)
Joseph was unjustly imprisoned (b) Joseph bad been
reported killed (c) the famine was very sever (d) the
Ishmaeliles had brought Joseph and had resold him
to Potiphar
5 And the magician said to Pharaoh. This is the finger
of God. This statement was made after the plague of
(a) frogs (b) blood (c) locust (d) boils (e) gnals
GOVERNMENT
1 In a presidential system of government the executive
(a) executes its own laws only (b) legislates all
binding laws (c) make laws for the national assembly
(d) forms the government (e) executes all legal
government plotters
2 A constitution is a legal document
(a) drawn up by lawyers (b) enacted by military
decree
(c) forming the basis upon which a government rules
the country (d) which must not be altered by any
succeeding government (e) only likely to succeeded
in a country where there is union government
3 One features of a totalitarian state is the existence of
(a) a single recognized party (b) pressure groups (c)
opposition groups (d) a colonial power (e) fierce
political rivalry
4 A system in which a row powerful and rich nobles
own land which is hired out to that poor people to
farm is called
(a) feudalism (b) co-operatives (c) socialism
(d) communism
5 The principal checks and balances is necessary
because it (a) prevents government from becoming
dictatorial (b) prevents the executives from
functioning (c) makes the executives stronger than
the other organs (d) make the three organs hate each
other (e) leave each organ of government
independent of the judiciary
6 When a constitution is difficult to amend we say it is
(a) federal (b) unity (c) written (d) fragile (e) rigid
7 A political authority which maintains sovereign power
over a specific geographical area is termed (a) the
nation (b) the nation-state (c) the state (d) nationalism
(e) imperialism
8 A government in which control of ultimate power is by
a few who rule in their own selfish interest is
classified as (a) a democracy (b) a dictatorship (c) an
aristocracy (d) a monarchy (e an oligarchy
9 The most basic property of pressure to groups which
differentiates them from political parties is that they
(a) are not as interested in politics (b) do have
permanent organizations (c) do not seek to influence
public opinion (d) do not support candidates in
elections (e) do not nominate candidates as their own
official representatives
10 In a presidential system of government ministries are
(a) collectively responsible to the senate (b)
collectively responsible president (c) individual
responsible to the president (d) individually
responsible to no one
(e) individually and collectively responsible to the
electorate
11 The three principal organs of government are the (a)
legislature, the public service and judiciary (b) political
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parties, the executive and the judiciary
(c)government and the legislative
12 The three fundamental rights of citizens are
(a)salvation, properly, freedom of thoughts (b)
employment, property and social security (c) life,
liberty and property (c) life, liberty and property (d)
free education peaceable assembly and freedom of
thought (e) freedom of movement, associating and
religion
13 In a democracy, franchise is given to all (a) resident
adults (b) citizens (c) citizens except members of the
armed forces (d) loyal party member (e) qualified
adult citizens
14 The citizenship of a country may be acquired by an
individual through (a) decolonization (b) nomination
(c) nationalization (d) neutralization (e) naturalization
15 Political authority is vested in the (a) state (b)
judiciary
(c) government (d) armed forces
COMMERCE
1. The rate at which a country’s exports exchange for its
imports is called (a) balance of payments (b) balance
of trade (c) terms of payment (d) terms of trade
2 The difference between the total payments for
imports and the receipts from exports within a given
period is referred to as (a) balance of payments (b)
balance of trade (c) comparative cost advantage (d)
comparative advantage
3 A pro forma invoices is NOT required when (a)
quoting for the supply of goods (b) goods are sent on
approval (c) dealing regularly with a customer (d) final
prices are uncertain
4 Which of the following statements is TRUE about sea
transport? (a) all ships have specific routes to ply
(b) all ships must be insured at every journey
(c) All ships are insured separately from the crew
(d) all ships normally arrive at their destination with
goods
5 The postal organization which proceeded in Nigerian
postal service is (a) post and telecommunications (b)
post and telephone (c) post and teleprinter (d) post
and telegraph
6 Goods discharged from ships on which import duties
have not been paid are kept in the (a) ordinary
warehouse (b) public warehouse (c) private
warehouse (d) bonded warehouse
7 A sole proprietor insured his good worth N200,000 for
half the value. There was a fire incident in which
goods valued at N800,000 were destroyed. The
value of compensation expected from the insurer is
(a) N40,000 (b) N80,000 (c) 100,000 (d) 200,000
8 One of the effects of the devaluation of the naira is
that the (a) goods that can be imported with the Naira
have become cheaper (b) value of other currencies
relative to the naira have become cheaper (c) goods
that can be exported from Nigeria have become
costlier (d) imports that can be bought with the naira
have become costlier
9 Drawing two parallel lines across a cheque means
that is has to be paid into the account of the (a) payee
(b) drawer (c) drawee (d) payer
10 The financial institution established to boost Nigeria’s
trade with the rest of the world is called (a) Nigerian
deposit insurance corporation (b) Nigerian economist
reconstruction fund (c) Nigerian industrial
development bank (d) Nigerian export import bank
11 Which of the following is both direct and indirect credit
enterprises? (a) co-operative and thrifts society (b)
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retail-cooperation society (c) consumer cooperative
society (d) wholesaler cooperative society
12 The business in the stock exchange is characterized
essentially by (a) dealing (b) brokerage (c)
speculation (d) transactions
13 The second –tier securities market is (a) an
appendage to the Nigerian stock exchange (b) a
member of the Nigeria stock exchange (c) meant for
the shares of the quoted private companies (d) a
regulating arm of the Nigeria stock exchange
14 The elements of the marketing mixture are (a)
product, promotion, place and price (b) personal
selling, advertising and research (c) promotion,
production, place and price
(d) procurement, product and place
15 Which of the following items has the shortest effect
on the consumer? (a) fashion (b) innovation (c) fad
(d) attribute
ACCOUNTING
1 The act establishing the Institute of Chartered
Accountants of Nigeria(ICAN) came into force on (a)
st st st
1 September, 1960 (b) 1 October, 1960 (c) 1
st
October, 1963 (d) 1 September, 1965
2 Cost reports for attention of management should
reflect (a) as much details as possible (b) summary
figure only (c) details of non-controllable expenses (d)
cost and comparable data useful in decision making
3 If the inventory at the end of the current is understand
and the error is not caught during the following year,
the effect is to (a) understate income this year and
understate in next year (b) overstate income this year
and overstate in next year (c) understate this year’s
income with no effect on next year’s (d) overstate the
income for the two year period
4 The total of the discounts received column in the cash
book is posted to the (a) credit of the discounts
received account (b) debit of the discounts allowed
account (c) credit of the discounts allowed account
(d) debit of the discounts received account
Use the information blow to answer question 5 and 6.
st
The initial imprest as at July 1 was N500. Petly cash
th
vouchers with the custodian by July 15 added up to
N394. an IOU slip received from a coworker was N65 and
there was a shortage of N5 cash. The coworker made
th
refund on July 18 before the imprest was replenished
th
5 What was the actual cash in the till as at 15 July?
(a) 106 (b) 1010 (c) N70 (d) N30
6 The amount required to replenish the payment made
from the imprest was (a) N399 (b) N394 (c) 358 (d)
N101
7 State bank collected a note for Al-Makura company.
This collection, not yet recorded in AL-Makura’s
books, appears on the bank reconciliation as (a) an
addition to balance per books (b) a deduction from
balance per bank statement
(c) an addition to balance per bank statement (d) a
deduction from balance per books
BIOLOGY
1 The ribosomes for protein synthesis are
manufactured by? (a) nucleus (b) nucleolus (c)
nucleoplasm (d) cytoplasm
2 Which of the following colours of precipitates is not
associated with positive responses of reducing
sugar?
(a) Green (b) yellow (c) red (d) purple
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3 Which of the following protein may not be associated
with transport of oxygen in organisms? (a)
Haemoglobin (b) Haemocrythin (c) chlorocruorin (d)
Prothrombin
4 Which of the following is not required for primary
production to take lace? (a) sugar (b) chlorophyll (c)
water (d) light
5 In normal blood smear which of the following is
expected to be least in number (a) moncytes (b)
erythrocytes (c) platelets (d) basophils
6 Which one of the following is not a detritivore in a
strict sense? (a) woodlice (b) locust (c) tubeworm (d)
earthworm
7 Which one of these is not a direct effect of osmosis
(a) haemolysis (b) crenation (c) homeostasis (d)
turgor
8 The blood vessel labelled D in figure I is?
(a) superior vena cava (b) inferior vena cava (c) aorta
(d) renal artery
Figure 1. The block arrows show direction of
blood flow.
9 If a flower is considered as the modified system of the
plant (a) pedical (b) receplacle (c) floral parts (d)
anther
10 Which of the following activities may bring along heat
losses in an animal? (a) liver metabolism (b) muscle
activity (c) cold food ingestion (d) aerobic respiration
11 All members of the same species found in a particular
community can best be described as a (a) Niche (b)
Ecosystem (c) population (d) family
12 How many of the 46 chromosomes found in the adult
human male body cells will be called sex
chromosomes
(a) none (b) 2 (c) 44 (d) 1
13 Which of the following ABO blood genotypes show
A o A B o o B B
co-dominance (a) 1 1 (b) 1 1 (c) 1 1 (d) 1 1
14 The diagram (figure 2) shows a young plant cell.
Which of the membranes in the diagram is freely
permeable?
(a) D only (b) B and D (c) D and E (d) none of the
above
15 During insect metamorphosis most growth is seen in
the (a) egg (b) larva (c) imago (d) pupa
HISTORY
1 The Governor of the Western Region who died in a
military coup with the visiting Head of state in 1966
was (a) Lil. Col B.S. Dimka (b) Col. Shittu Alao (c) U.
Col. Adekunle Fajuyi (d) Col Ibrahim Taiwo
2 The symbols of Asante unity in pre-colonial time was
(a) the Goklen stool (b) the sacred python (c) Efua
rock (d) the Ho River
3 Which of these was not in the Western Sudan? (a)
Gao (b) Timbuku (c) sankore (d) Dares salam
4 The legitimate trade introduced in the nineteen
century mainly involved (a) trade in agriculture
products (b) trade in animal products (c) slave barter
(d) domestic trade
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5 The popular means of transport during the trans-
Saharan trade was the (a) donkey (b) horse (c) camel
(d) mule
6 A Aro became famous far andbeyong Igboland
because
(a) they were gold traders (b) their kings were the
most famous in all Igboland (c) they medicated in all
disputes through their long juju (d) none of the above
7 The firs ruling dynasty in Benin was the (a) Ogiso
dynasty (b) Achadu dynasty (c) Eweka dynasty (d)
Onogie dynasty
8 Which of these were involved in the battle of Adowa?
(a) Ethiopia and Italy (b) Sudan and Egypt (c) Sudan
and Fanco (d) Egypt and Ethiopia
9 Which was the general purpose currency in pre-
colonial Nigeria? (a) Cloth (b) Salt (c) Copper (d)
Cowry
10 General Murtala Muhammed was assassinated in a
coup led by (a) Lt. Co. Kaduna Nzeoguw (b) Col. Joe
Garba
(c) Lt. Col. B. S. Dimka (d) Major Gideon Orkar
11 Abuja became the federal capital of Nigeria in (a)
1907 (b) 1991 (c) 1993 (d) 1995
12 The first ruler of the Mali empire was (a) Saif (b)
Sumanguru Kanite (c) Sundiate (d) Sunni Ali
13 The twenty one state structure came into being in
Nigeria during the rule of (a) general Murtala
Muhammad (b) Major General Aguiy Ironsi (c)
General Olusegun Obansanjo (d) General Ibrahim
Babnagida
14 The main cause of the 1962/63 census crisis was that
(a) inexperienced officers were used for the
enumeration (b) the army participated in the exercise
(c) the police prevented the people from being
counted (d) there was widespread in inflation of
census figures in many parts of the country
15 The Jamiya Murtanem Arewa Cultural group evolved
into (a) Northern Elements Progressive Union
(NEPU)
(b) United Middle Belt Congress (UMBC)
(c) Northern People’s Congress (NPC)
(d) Nigerian National Democratic Party (NNDP)
VISUAL ART
1 Which of these is true about primary colours
(a) the cannot be gotten by mixing any other colour
(b) they can be gotten by mixing 3 different colours
(c) they can be gotten by adding water to the colours
that are to be mixed (d) they are not primary colours
2 One of these is a chief exponent of the Art movement
known as cubism (a) Michelangelo (b) Paul Zezanne
(c) Henri Matisse (d) Pablo Picasso (c) Georges
Braque
3 The word ‘torso’ means (A) …………………
MUSIC
1 The guitar is a ………………..instrument (a) string (b)
wind (c) percussive (d) horn
2 The surprise symphony was composed by (a)
Beethoven (b) handel (c) hayden (d) chopin (e) field
3 Mime is the art of acting that involves the use of (a)
songs only (b) speeches only (c) gestures only (d)
dances only
4 “I know my Redeemer liveth” is an extract from
…………
(a) symphony (b) organ work (c) mythology (d)poems
(e) opera
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5 A requiem is …………………(a) suite (b) organ work
(c) mass for the dead (d) worship song (e) piano
pieces
6 ,,,,,,,,,,,,,is composed the Nigeria national anthem
(a) Olusoji (b) Odujobi (c) Odiase (d) Oikiolme (e)
Ajani
7 ………..composed the water music
(a) Mozart (b) Hayden (c) Gluck (d) Handel (e) Purcel
8 Oliver de Coque was a ……………musician
(a) Funk (b) R & B (c) Highlife (d) Goje (e) Juju
9 Kakaki was mostly found in the …………….of Nigeria
(a) East (b) Niger (c) Middle Belt (d) North (e) River
Belt
10 Atilogwu is of the (a) Kannri (b) Ebira (c) Karaje (d)
Igbo (e) Ishan
11 The Ayans are families of ………………..(
(a) drummers (b) healers (c) flute makers (d)
blacksmiths (e) instrument repairers
12 Baba drums are used by the ……………
(a) Hausas (b) Binis (c) Tapas (d) Nupes (e) Yorubas
13 God save the Queen is the national anthem of
(a) Queensland (b) Scotland (c) United Kingdom (d)
the Victorian Era (e) none of the above
14 Salawe Abeni is a …………..Musician
(a) Juju (b) Fuji (c) Pankeke (d) Sewele (e) Waka
15 “If music be the rood of love, then play on” is from
(a) Shakespeare (b) Bible (c) Koran (d) Hardy chase
(e) Wordsmith
LITERATURE IN ENGLISH
1 A poem rhyming in five times is called
(a) Alogomachy (b) Limerick (c) Monostich (d)
Monody
2 Which of the following is a likely source of traditional
oral poetry(a) theatre (b) songs (c) Novels (d) drams
3 Mime is the art of acting that involves the use of (a)
songs only (b) speeches only (c) gestures only (d)
dances only
Read the following and answer the question that
follow
Look!
Look our there
In the bucket
The rusty bucket
With water unclean
Look
Aluminous plate is floating
The moon dancing to the gentle night wind
Look! All you who shout across the wall with a million
hates look
at the dancing
It is peace unsoiled by the murk
And dirt of this bucket war
4 The wall in line 9 refers to (a) the speaker’s feelings
(b) barrier of hatred erected b y people (c) a physical
wall (d) the wall of love
5 The beginning of this poem is (a) monotonous (b)
dramatic (c) reflects the moon (d) repetitive
6 The poem demonstration the poet’s keen sense of
(a) observation and descriptive ability (b) reflection
the moon (c) reflection on the peace around him (d)
love for nature
7 The poet uses the moon as a symbol of (a) light (b)
peace (c) love (d) hatred
8 The omniscient narrator (a) uses flashback (b) has a
scientific knowledge of the story (c) knows all about
characters and events (d) refers to futures event
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9 Penny wise, pound foolish is an example of (a) 6 Which of the following will not help solve the problem
paradox (b) metaphor (c) analogy (d) oxymoron of overpopulation? (a) birth control (b) reduction in
area of agricultural land (c) increase in food
Read the following extract and answer question 10-15 production (d) limiting the size of towns
Never has the death of a poet 7 Which of the following explains why the USA has
Been tolled by all the world more large towns than West Africa? (a) the USA is
God’s work on the earth through more highly industrialized than West Africa (b) the
Has its universal funeral in the west USA has temperate climate while West Africa has hot
Recurrent grave of day’s almighty soul climate (c) the soil in the USA are richer than those in
West Africa (d) there are more mining centres in the
Never was victory so trumpeted USA than in Africa
As that of the sun scorching his fiery way 8 Synthetic rubber is made from chemical and is
And then in gorgeous colours failing becoming more important especially in (a) Britain (b)
Trailing stars USA (c) Malaysia (d) Iran
Life, death, water and aridity 9 Which of the following group of industries consists
Bow to his morning ray only of light industries? (a) ship building, locomotives,
chemical (b) locomotives, petroleum, textiles (d)
With his passing, death, stirs in the thicket paper furniture clothing (d) printing flour milling, ship
In church the tells tolled building
In barracks at the last bugle note 10 Which of the following does not contribute to the
Soldiers like and file world production of wine? (a) France (b) California
Drunkards like sick dogs retch homewards (c) Norway (c) Australia
The night voce is a harsh guitar 11 Which of the following is not essential for the intense
cultivation of wet rice? (a) fertile soils (b) dependable
But on a hill among musizi trees supply of water (c) level land (d) tropical monsoon
Sweet nuns sing the litanies climate
Of the origin whose sun we know 12 Which one of the following best as described the type
Priest like lamp posts in a graveyard of rainfall that occurs in West Africa? (a) convectional
Stoop over the breviary (b) frontal (c) cyelogenic (d) orographic
13 All the crops cotton, sugarcane, rubber, oil palm and
There’s piping of crickets in the bush coffee are usually associated with (a) estate
And bellowing of frogs agriculture (b) mechanical cultivation (c) intensive
All sing the ancient elegy farming (d) rotational cultivation
For the sum that has died in the west 14 The readings on a wet and dry bulb thermometer will
be the same when (a) there is a lot of moisture in air
10 The opening of the poem is a tribute to (a) the sun (b) (b) there is little or no moisture in air (c) the air
the dead (c) the poet (d) crickets in the bush contains no moisture (d) the air is saturated with
11 The poem can be regarded as (a) an elegy (b) a moisture
nature poem (c) poem about death of a poet (c) poem 15 Dairy farming in Denmark is very successful mainly
about the world (d) poem about the world because (a) Denmark has good soils (b) the climate
12 Death in the poem is (a) eulogized (b) personified (c) is suitable for growing grass (d) Denmark has
scolded (d) extolled excellent dairy cattle
13 The first two stanzas are concerned with (a) the
sound of a guitar (b) the sounds at night (c) the sound
of a bell (d) the sound of music
14 In line 18 image of a harsh guitar refers to (a) the SECTION E
sound of a guitar (b) the sounds at night (c) the sound MUSIC LIT. IN ENGLISH
of a bell (d) the sound of music 1 A 1 B
15 Day’s almighty soul in line 5 refers to (a) a person’s 2 A 2 B
soul (b) the sun (c) the time of great activities in a day 3 D 3 C
(d) the most important time of the day 4 A 4 D
5 C 5 C
GEOGRAPHY 6 A 6 A
1. Basement rocks refer to rocks that (a) form core fold 7 C 7 A
mountains (b) are never seen on the surface (c) form 8 C 8 C
a continental platform on which other rocks have 9 D 9 A
formed (d) form at the base 10 B 10 C
2 Exactly half of the earth’s surface has light at any 11 A 11 A
particular time, because the (a) sun is overhead at 12 E 12 C
the equator (b) earth’s axis is tilled at an angle of 66½ 13 B 13 D
to the earth’s orbital (c) earth rotates on its axis 14 C 14 B
3 The rotation of the earth is NOT the cause of (a) the 15 A 15 A
seasons (b) day and night (c) the deflection of ocean
currents (d) the deflection of the winds
4 An intrusion of magma along a bedding plain is called
(a) an overfold (b) sill (c) dyke (d) volcanic plug
5 Which of the following features occurs in a glaciated
low-land region? (a) Esker (b) Arcete (c) Hanging
valley (d) crique

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6 A
7 A
2008 ANSWERS 8 B
SECTION B SECTION G 9 C
ECONOMICS BIOLOGY 10 D
1 C 1 D 11 D
2 D 2 A 12 B
3 C 3 D 13 C
4 A 4 A 14 C
5 B 5 A 15 D
6 C 6 B
7 D 7 B
8 D 8 C
9 - 9 C
10 C 10 C
11 C 11 C
12 A 12 B
13 D 13 B
14 C 14 A SECTION C – COMMERCE
15 A 15 C 31 What will ships be unloaded on to if the number of
berths at a poll is inadequate? (a) steamers (b)
SECTION C SECTION H tramps (c) lighters
C.R.S VISUAL ART (d) containers ships
1 D 1 A 32 What would a bull do? (a) sell shares in anticipation
2 D 2 - of a fall in price (b) subscribe for new issues (c) buy
3 C 3 D shares in anticipation of a price rise (d) buy and sell
4 C shares on commission for other people
SECTION D 5 A 33 A delcredere agent (a) has unrestricted powers (b)
GOVERNMENT 6 D arranges credit terms (c) guarantees payment by the
1 D 7 D buyer (d) arranges insurance
2 C 8 D 34 The ratio of capital owned to other liabilities in a
3 A 9 D business is known as (a) efficiency ratio (b) liquidity
4 A 10 E ratio (c) gearing ratio (d) rate of return
5 A 11 E 35 Mr. Chukwuma took up a fire insurance on a properly
6 E 12 E valued at N1000 and the amount insured is N800. the
7 C 13 C properly caught fire causing a loss of N400, if the
8 E 14 - insurance was taken with the clause with average,
9 E 15 D what is the amount to be paid by the insurance
10 B company? (a) N420 (b) 320 (c) N460 (d) N570
11 D 36 The computer using linear integrated circuit
12 C technology coupled with quantification of data in term
13 E of length and distance is known as (a) analogue
14 E computer (b) hybrid computer (c) digital computer (d)
15 C mainframe computer
37 if goods or “returnable” are returned the seller issues
SECTION E a (a) debit note (b) consignment note (c) advice note
COMMERCE (d) credit not
1 D 38 The Jobber’s Turn is (a) his commission for arranging
2 A dealings in sell share (b) the price at which he is
3 C prepared to sell shares (c) the different between his
4 A buying and selling prices (d) the price at which he is
5 A prepared to buy shares
6 D 39 If duty has been paid on goods, and they are later
7 A exported, what can the exporter claim? (a) drawback
8 D (b) tax exemption (c) demurrage (d) a bond
9 C 40 The capital employed is (a) W20,000 (b) W19,000 (c)
10 D W28,000 (d) W31,000
11 A
12 C
13 A
14 A
15 D
SECTION F
ACCOUNTING
1. A
2 D
3 -
4 -
5 D

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Use the information below to answer question 41 &
42
The following information was obtained from the books of
st
Johnson on 31 December, year 2000.
N rate of economic growth (b) a more equal distribution
Stock 31/12/2000 2,500
Rent 500
Insurance 300
Lighting expenses 500
Motor expenses 500
Discount allowed 1,000
Stock 01/01/2000 2,400
Salaries and wages 2,000
Purchases 30,000
Sales 35,000.00
Return outwards 600
Return inwards 900
Debtors 6,800
Furniture 5,000
Discount received 1,300
Drawings 2,500
Capital 39,900
41 The cost of goods available for sale is
(a) N2,500 (b) 42,400 (c) N31,800 (d) N34,100
42 The net profit is (a) 2,500 (b) 1,300 (c) N2,800 (d)
N1,700
43 The process whereby a business organization
regularly compares physical events with the standard
set and takes corrective action is (a) organizing (b)
coordinating (c) controlling (d) planning
44 A speculators who applies for new stocks and shares
with the intention of selling them at a higher price is a
(a) bull (b) stag (c) bear (d) jobber
45 The cost of transporting goods to customers is called
(a) carriage forward (b) carriage inward (c) carriage
outward (d) carriage paid
SECTION D – ECONOMICS
46 The consumption function of an economy with no
government sector and no foreign trade is C=W120 +
0.6Y
(C=aggregate consumption and Y national income)
If investment expenditure is autonomous and equal to
W280, what is the equilibrium level of income? (a)
N400 (b) N600 (c) N800 (d) N1,000
47 The winner of a.T.V quiz show is offered a choice of
their N1000 or the contents of one or other of two
sealed boxes. She’s told that one box contains
N2,500 and that the other box is empty. What is the
opportunity cost to the individual of opting for the
N1000 price
(a) a 50% chance of winning W2500 (b) 50% chance
of winning W1,500 (c) a 50% chance of winning
W1500 (d) a 50% chance of losing W1,000
48 Which schedule shows the maximum price at which a
firm would be able to sell any given level of output.
(a) demand schedule (b) marginal revenue schedule
(c) production schedule (d) supply schedule
49 In which circumstance will an indirect tax fall entirely
upon -----------(a) when the demand curve is perfectly
(b) when the elasticity of demand is unit at all points
on demand curve (c) when the elasticity of supply is
unit at all points on the supply curve (d) when the
supply curve is perfect inelastic
50 In a closed economy with no government, the value
of the investment multiplier is 3 by how much will
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consumption increase, if investment increases by
N300? (a) W100 (b) W200 (c) W600 (d) W900
51 Which of the following is a normative statement? (a) a
more equal distribution of income would increase the
of income would raise the average propensity to
consume (c) a more equal distribution of income
would be inflationary (d) more equal distribution of
income would increase national welfare.
52 An employer currently employs 200 workers. The
marginal cost of hiring an additional worker is N502.
if the employees current wage bill is N20,000 by how
much will the wage paid per worker need to be
increased in order to attract one more worker? (a)
N1.50 (b) N2.00 (c) N2.52 (d) N3.00
53 Given the cost function C =160 + 36q, what is the
average cost of 20 units of output? (a) N44 (b) N216
(c) N880 (d) N720
54 When the important of a commodity is limited to a
definite quantity, the control means used is known as
(a) Quotas (b) tax relief (c) devaluation (d) exchange
rate
55 How do commercial banks create money?? (a) by
cashing cheques for their customers (b) when its
output is at its lowest (c) when the firm is maximizing
total revenue (d) when there is no tendency to
change output
56 When is a profit maximizing firm in equilibrium? (a)
when average profit is maximized (b) when its output
is at its lowest (c) when the firm is maximizing total
revenue (d) when there is no tendency to change
output
57 Which of the following will be likely to result from an
open market purchase of securities by the central
bank?
(a) a full in short-term capital flows (b) a full in the
quantity of money (c) a rise in the level of
unemployment ((d) arise in the rate of interest
58 Which of the following explains how changes in
national income may be brought about by changes in
investment (a) the acceleration principle () the
investment function (c) the marginal efficiency of
capital (d) the theory of multiplier
59 Average earning in manufacturing increase by 8%
while hourly wage rates increase by only 6%. What
could account for this (a) an increase in overtime (b)
an increase in the level of employment (c) an
increase in labour productivity (d) an increase in
unemployment
60 The diagram “DD is a consumer’s demand curve for
ac certain commodity
D
QUANTITY
Q
O
At price OP the consumer spends the amount OPRO,
there is possibility that this commodity will be withdrawn
from the market what is the most she would be willing to
pay for the right to continue top buy quantity OQ at price
OP?
(a) OPHD (b) DPR (c) OPHQ (d) QRD
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SECTION E – GEOGRAPHY
61 The map of a farm land on a scale of 1:50,000
measures 10.2cm by 12.6cm. the actual area of the
farm to the nearest Km2 is? (a) 33 (b) 31 (c) 31.5 (d)
32.
62 The points on a river are 10.4km apart and one
stands 400 meters above the other what is the
gradient along the river between the points (a) I in 24
(b) 1 in 20 (c) 1 in 26 (d) 1 in 36
63 The wearing away of the sides and bottom of a river’s
channel by the load carried by a river is called? (a)
corrosion (b) corrosion (c) attrition (d) hydraulic action
64 In which of the following vegetation types would you
expect to find the baobab, locusts bean and acacia
as important trees? (a) tropical rainforest (b)
savannah woodland (c) coniferous (d) temperature
deciduous
65 Which of the following group’s of features is normally
associated with the old age of a river? (a) sandbar,
kick points and natural levees (b) meander terraces,
point bars and natural levees (c) point-bars, U-
shaped valleys and ox-bow lakes (d) meander
terraces point bars and knick point
66 remnants of folded structures are found in the (a)
Atwapin hills and Enugu scarp (a) Atwapin hills and
Enugu scarp (b) Adamawa Highlands and Enugu
scarp (c) Adamawa Highland Atwapim Hills (d) Fouta
Djallon Highlands and Adamawa Highland
67 Which of the following river basins has the highest
population concentration? The (a) Indus (b) Niger
(c) Nile (d) mississippi
68 The rain forest of South America is often referred to
as (a) pampas (b) illanos (c) selvas (d) campos
69 The major export products of Namibia are (a) coffee
and rubber (b) ranium ad diamond (c) copper and iron
ore (d) petroleum and coal
70 A mature soil with distinct horizons, occurring in a
particular climatic zone but influenced strongly by
topography is best described as (a) intrazonal (b)
zonal (c) alluvial (d) azonal
71 In karst region, when several dolines are joined
together to form a large depression, it is known as?
(a) cave (b) uvala (c) stalaclite (d) calcite pallar
72 Most of the word’s principal fishing regions are
located on continental shelves where (a) cold and
warm current meet (b) there are no noticeable ocean
(c) there are cold ocean currents (d) there are warm
ocean currents
73 Rural settlements can best be distinguished from
urban settlements by their? (a) function and
population (b) site and function (c) demography and
morphology (d) morphology and location
74 The scientist who propounded the theory of
continental drift was? (a) Francis Bacon (b) Alfred
Wegener (c) Authur Holmes (d) William Davis
75 Blamtyre, Rio de Janeiro, New York and Lagos are
similar in that they all serve as their countries? (a)
major seaport (b) political headquarter (c) commercial
centers (d) cultural centre
SECTION F – GOVERNMENT
76 Classical democracy is associated with one of the
following countries (a) France (b) Britain (c) USA (d)
Greece
77 Which of the following is not necessarily the feature of
a Nation? (a) government (b) population (c)
sovereignty (d) territory
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78 The key word for explaining the term authority is (a)
right (b) ability (c) control (d) power
79 Gabriel Almond and Sydney verbal are scholars
known with the concept of (a) democracy (b) Zionism
(c) political culture (d) political propaganda
80 The most appropriate form of government for a
homogenous society is a (a) unitary system (b) one
party system (c) totalitarian system (d) socialist
system
81 A scholar that is known with the principle of right to
life, right to personal liberty/property is (a) Thomas
Hobbes (b) Jean Bodin (c) Harold Laxwell (d) John
Locke
82 A deliberate tampering with electoral boundaries for
the purpose of winning future election is called (a)
politicking (b) Gerrymandering (c) lobbying (d)
electoral trafficking
83 1976 local government elections in Nigeria was
based on (a) multi-party system (b) two party system
(c) zero-party system (d) one-party system
84 The National Youth Service Corps (NYSC) was
established in (a) 1960 (b) 1963 (c) 1964 (d) 1975
85 Removal by impeachment applies to the position of a
(a) prime minister (b) cabinet minister (c) president
(d) chief judge
86 The membership of pressure groups is limited
because they (a) pursue specific and narrow
objectives (b) are mainly concerned with public
interest (c) promote other people’s interest (d) are in
patriotic
87 The Emir’s treasurer in the pre-colonial Hausa/Fulani
system was (a) Waziri (b) Dagari (c) Maaji (d)
Madawakin
88 Cattle Tax in the Fulani Emirate is called (a) Jigali
(b) Isakole (c) Alkali (d) Hakimi
89 The first political party in Nigeria was established in
(a) 1923 (b) 1922 (c) 1960 (c) 1944
90 The majority of OPEC members are located in (a) the
middle belt (b) Asia (c) Africa (d) Latin America
SECTION G – BIOLOGY
91 The following show three processes that contribute to
transport across cell surface membranes which
processes
are active and which are passive?
Diffusion Endocytosis Osmosis
A a A a
B b B b
C p p p
A p p p
Key: a = active process
P = passive keys
92 Which statement is the best explanation of why
sucrose rather than glucose is transported by
phloem? (a) sucrose can pass through plant cell
surface membranes more easily (b) sucrose is a
disaccharide and is more easily converted to starch
(c) Sucrose is a non-reducing sugar, so is less
reactive (d) sucrose synthesis requires less energy
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93 The diagram represents part of the nitrogen cycle Below are names of groups used when classifying
which process is carried out by nitrifying bacteria? organisms
i. phylum ii. Kingdom vii order
Nitrogen in atmosphere iii class iv. Family
A v. species vi Genus

B Use them to answer question 101

ammonia
C 101The correct order when grouping organism is
D (a) i, ii, iii, iv, v, vi and vii (b) i, ii, iv, vi, v and vii
(c) ii, I, iii, vii, iv, vi and v (d) ii, iv, I, vi, vii, iii and v
nitrogen compounds nitrogen compounds nitrogen 102 During sexual reproduction the mega nucleus in
compounds paramecium (a) divide into 2 parts (b) divide into 4
in soil in plants in animals parts (c) breaks into 4 parts (d) fuses with the
micronucleus
103 Which of the following tissues represents supporting
94 From which cell organelle are nucleic acids absent? tissue? (a) columnar epithelium (b) cartilage (c)
(a) Chloroplast (b) Golgi body (c) Mitochondrio striated muscle (d) nervous tissue
(d) Ribosome 104 The creamy semi-fluid of food in the stomach after
95 What will break an ionic bond between amino acids? some hours is known as (a) Chile (b) chyme (c) chyle
(a) condensation (b) high temperature (c) hydrolysis (d) chiline
(d) pH change 105 Which of the following structures is not in the male
96 The drawing shown stages of the mitotic cell cycle reproductive parts? (a) uniferous tubule (b) prostate
gland (c) epidymis (d) seminal vesicles

ANSWERS
SECTION A SECTION D SECTION F
ENGLISH LANGUAGE ECONOMICS GOVERNMENT
1 D 46 D 76 C
2 B 47 A 77 C
3 D 48 D 78 A
4 C 49 B 79 C
5 C 50 - 80 A
In which order do the stages occur?
6 B 51 D 81 C
First 7 B 52 - 82 C
Last
8 D 53 - 83 C
A 2 1 3 5 4 9 A 54 A 84 C
B 2 4 1 5 3 10 B 55 A 85 C
C 4 2 1 3 3 11 B 56 D 86 A
D 4 2 3 1 5 12 D 57 B 87 C
13 - 58 D 88 A
14 - 59 C 89 A
97 The first breath milk produced by the mother for a 15 A 60 B 90 B
new born baby contains antibodies? (a) what do
these antibodies provide? (a) artificial active immunity SECTION C SECTION E SECTION G
(b) artificial passive immunity (c) natural active COMMERCE GEOGRAPHY BIOLOGY
immunity (d) natural passive immunity 31 A 61 91 -
98 Which protein has a fibrous structure? (a) Amylase 32 C 62 92 C
(b) collagen (c) Haemoglobin (d) Insulin 33 C 63 93 C
99 A girl has blood group A and her brother has blood 34 B 64 94 B
group B which combination of genotype cannot 35 A 65 95 B
belong to their parents? 36 C 66 96 D
37 D 67 97 B
Mother Father 38 C 68 98 B
A A B O
A 1 1 1 1 39 A 69 99 A
B
A
1 1
B A B
1 40 - 70 100 B
O O A A
41 C 71 101 C
C 1 1 1 1 42 B 72 102 -
D 1
O
1
O A
1 1
O 43 D 73 103 B
44 B 74 104 B
45 C 75 105 A
100 In which form is carbondioxide mainly transported in
blood? (a) as carbammo-haemoglobin (b) as carbonic 31 One of the following is not a type of drama
acid (c) as hydrogencarbonate (d) in solution (a) Burlesque (b) Resolution (c) Tragedy (d)
Pantomime
32 The analysis of the metrical pattern of a poem is (a)
prosody (b) appreciation (c) scansion (d) style

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33 One of the following is correct (a) dramatization
occurs only in plays (b) only prose and drama use
dramatization (c) dramatization is used in poetry (d)
dramatization is found only in prose
34 Both tragic and comic play have (a) happy ending (b)
sad ending (c) temper (d) climax
35 The dramatic interaction between the protagonist and
the antagonist in a play is known as (a) dialogue (b)
climax (c) understanding (d) conflict
36 The English sonnel has ………….syllables (a) 110 (b)
96 (c) 140 (d) 120
37 A symbol could be: (a) universal or private (b) general
of particular (c) literary or non-literary (d) dramatic or
poetic
38 Melodrama and tragic-comedy have this in common:
(a) both end unhappily (b) both are comic plays (c)
tragedies occur in both (d) both are prose narrative
39 A prose narrative having independent plots loosely
linked together is said to have plot (a) linear (b)
simple (c) episodic (d) difficult
40 …………..is used when humour is achieved through
unexpected and pointed manipulation words: (a) wit
(b) sarcasm (c) onnuendo (d) parody
41 “Peripetia” occurs in (a) prose (b) comedy (c) drama
(d) tragedy
42 Which of the following is Chaucer noted for?
(a) the Midsummer Night Dream (b) the Mayor of
Canterbury (c) the Canterbury tales (d) none of the
above
43 The occurrence of similar themes, characters, events
and concepts in works of art is known as: (a)
repetition (b) plagiarism (c) imitation (d) leit mouf
44 When a character in a literary work psses personal
traits opposite to that of another in it same text, he is
said to be a(n) to Him/Her (a) antagonist (b) foil (c)
protagonist (d) villain
45 Versification include the use of (a) rhythm, style and
form (b) meter, rhyme and stanza form (c) length of
line, paragraph and chapter (d) characterization,
rhythm and verse
SECTION D – HISTORY
46 The disastrous drought which affected the saheliani
zone of Africa south of the Sahara occurred in the
year
(a) 1953 (b) 1963 (c) 1973 (d) 1983
47 The agents of external influence in the eastern Niger
th
Delta region of Nigeria in the 19 century included all
but one of the following: (a) the merchants of various
European nations (b) the heavy military presence of
the Americans (c) the missionaries beginning
operations in Calabar (d) the official British presence
represented by naval officers
48 The first British consul appointed over the bights of
Benin and Biafra in 1849 was: (a) Richard Lander (b)
Macgregor Laird (c) Hugh Clapperton (d) John
Beecroft
49 The first of the rulers of the ancient Kanuri State to
become a Muslim was: (Umme Jilmi (b) Dunama
Dlobatemi (c) Idris Alooma (d) Alh. Ghaji
50 “Nsibidi”, the reduction into writing of the sign
language was used to keep records of the past by
the: (a) Ijo (b) Kslabari (c) Gwari (d) Ibibio
51 The Alafin of Oyo credited with the creation of the
Are-Ona Kakanfo title was (a) Obalokun (b) Ajagbo
(c) Sango (d) Awole
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52 The very first cargoes of slave from Nigeria shores in
European ships were destined for: (a) England (b)
The Americans (c) the Gold Coast (d) Egypt
53 The great Benin Monarch reputed to have
transformed the state from a small kingdom into an
aggressively expansive empire was (a) Ewuare (b)
Eweka 1 (c) Esigie (d) Ozolua
54 Which of the following is NOT associated with the
origin of the Hausa? (a) Queen Daura (b) Agadu (c)
Bawo (d) Bayajidda
55 The basis for Nigeria’s membership of the
commonwealth is (a) she was a former colon of
Britain (b) She was a leading opponent of a gathered
in South Africa (c) She is the most populous black
nation (d) she provides athletes for the
commonwealth games
56 Berber nationalism and resistance against the French
invasion of Algeria revolved around a man called (a)
Abdel Rahman (b) E! Hassan III (c) Col Urabi (d)
Abdel Kader
57 Khedive Ismail of Egypt established a parliamentary
system of government when he created the assembly
of delegated in (a) 1863 (b) 1879 (c) 1866 (d) 1873
58 The signing of the Treaty of Marza in 1883
established full colonial control of the French over (a)
Moroco (b) Libya (c) Tunisia (d) Algeria
59 Mohammed Ali Pasha who dominated the history of
th
Egypt for the first half of the 19 century was (a)
Persian Prince (b) an Albanian by origin (c) a Turkish
Sultan (d) a Mamluk by birth
60 Mohammed All’s main concern was to: (a) encourage
Egyptian nationalism (b) establish Turkish control
over the whole of North Africa (a) encourage Egyptian
nationalism (b) establish Turkish control over the
whole of North African (c) discourage foreign trade (d)
make Egypt a modern state on the European modei
SECTION H – C.R.S
106 The first stories of the patriarchs form the great
theological history of Israel’s origin. In which of the
following can this be found? (a) the first six books of
the Bible (b) the first last books of the Bible (c)
Genesis and Exodus (d) the Poetic
107 The first six books of the Bible tells us that (a)
centuries before Israel settled in canaan (b) the
patriarchs worshippied Canaanite gods (c) the
ancestors of Israel came from Mesopotamia (d)
centuries before Israel took passion of Canaan her
ancestors had come from Mesopotamia and as semi
nomads had roamed through the land supported by
the promises of their God that I would one day belong
to their posterity.
108 It is not historically accurate to say that the god of the
Patriarchs was Yahweh. Yahwism begain with (a)
Joshua (b) Moses (c) Abraham (d) Isaac
109 The patriarchal migration was time conditioned none-
the-less it was in real sense an act of (b) Grace (c)
Patience (d) Courage
110 According to the book of Numbers Israel upon leaving
Sinai had it local point for sometimes at (a) Kadesh a
great oasis some fifty miles south of Beer-sheba (b)
the Amorite Kingdom of Hesbon (c) the ancient city of
Shechem (d) Ancient shrine of Hebron
111 From the beginning, Israel’s faith forbade the worship
of any god but Yahweh. This prohibition is classically
expressed in the (a) first commandment (b) second
commandment (c) third commandment (d) eight
commandment
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112 Saul’s kinsman Abner, who had surved the slaughter
at Gilboa made the only suriving son of Saul King at
Mahanamin in Transjordan who was this soon? (a)
Jonathan (b) Solomon (c) Eshbaal (d) Abijah
113 David became King over Judah in Hebron, that did
with the Philistine consent is certain. WHY? (a) David
was an army commander in Ziklag (b) David paid
tributes to the Philistine
(c) David killed Goliath (d) David was their vassal and
could hardly have taken such a step without their
approval
114 The people of Judah welcomed David as king in
Hehron. WHY? (a) He was one of them (b) He was a
strong leader who could see to their defense (c) He
was acclaimed King by popular consent (d) he was
one of them, a strong leader who could see to their
defense and was also in the position to mediate
between them and their philistine masters.
115 After the murder of Eshbaal by two of his officers, the
people flocked to David in Hebron and there in a
solemn covenant acclaimed King over all Israel. The
whole incident illustrates. (a) the tribal confederacy
(b) the tenacity of the charismatic tradition (c) the
theocracy of Israel (d) the monarchy of Israel
116 Which of the synoptic Gospel writers recorded thin
would have prevented Jesus from being baptized by
himself (a) Matthew (b) Matthew and Luke (c) Luke
(d) John
117 According to the Gospel of Matthew who saw the
Holy Spirit descending on Jesus when Jesus was
being baptized? (a) John Himself (b) Jesus Himself
(c) Jesus and John (d) Jesus, John and the other
people
118 Which of the following does not record the temptation
of Jesus? (a) Luke (b) John (c) Matthew (d) Mark
119 The synoptic writers record that ether the baptism
Jesus was tempted by the devil. The third temptation
in Matthew was aimed at minding out (a) whether
Jesus would succumb to the Jewish expectation of a
political and conquering messiah. (b) testing his
father and see whether he will measure up to the
needs of one who has wholly dedicated himself to
doing God’s will (c) testing him to employ his power
as the son of God in satisfying his own needs and
other human physical needs.
120 “Those who are well have no need of a physician but
those who are sick”. The statement was made in the
house of (a) Levi (b) Peter’s mother in-law (c)
Zacchaeus (d) Zebedee (e) the latter is appropriate in
an enlighten environment
SECTION J - GEOGRAPHY
136 Which of the following features produced by wave
deposition (a) caves (b) stack (c) tombolo (d) blow
holes
137 Which of the following is the major factor responsible
for Japan’s unparalleled industrial growth in the last
few decades (a) Japan’s proximity to mainland (b)
Japan’s cargo population (c) availability of abundant
coal and petroleum (d) technological proficiency
138 Which of the following limber frees are found in the
tropical rain forest of Africa? (a) obeche and teak (b)
mahogany and teak (c) obeche and mahogany (d)
Iroko and Eucalyptus
139 Which of the following river basins has the highest
population concentration? The (a) Indus (b) Niger (c)
Nile (d) Mississippi
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140 Which of these economic activities – LEAST
characteristics of typical urban centre? (a) commerce
(b) quarrying (c) transportation (d) manufacturing
141 In Karst region, when several dolines are joined
together to form a large depression, it is know as (a)
cave (b) uvala
(c) stalacitite (d) calcite pallar
142 Rural settlements can best be distinguished from
urban settlements by their? (a) function and
population (b) site and function (c) demography and
morphology (d) morphology and location
143 The scientist who propounded the theory of continent
drift was? (a) Francis Bacon (b) Aifted Wegener (c)
Author Holmes (d) William Davis
144 The major world exporters of wool are (a) Britain,
Australia, Mediterranean Europe and South Africa (b)
New Zealand, Uruguay Australia and Argentina (c)
Australia, India, Paraguay and Argentina (d) New
Zealand, India, Uruguay and Peru
145 Bjantyre, Rio de Janeiro, New York and Lagos are
similar in that they all serve as their countries? (a)
major seaport (b) political headquartr (c) commercial
centers (d) cultural centres
146 The dawn is a temperate grassland found in? (a)
Australia (b) South America (c) Eurasia (d) South
Africa
147 Commercial grape cultivation is associated with?
(a) cool temperature climate (b) morsnon region
(c) Mediterranean regions (d) Montane climate
148 The highest volume of shipping across the Atlantic
ocean is (a) between Europe and Africa (b) between
North America and Europe (c) between Africa and
South America (d) between North and America and
South America
149 The Ukraine (in the USSR) is famous with the
following pairs of economic activities (a) commercial
grain agriculture and livestock ranching (b) plantation
agriculture and nomadic herding (c) commercial grain
farming and industry (d) fishing and lumbering
150 The following countries in West Africa have economic
deposits of iron ore (b) Liberia, Sierra Leone and
Togo (c) Nigeria, Guinea and Sierra Leone (d) Niger,
Mali and Mauritania
151 Adelcredere agent (a) has unrestricted powers (b)
arranges credit terms (c) guarantees payment by the
buyer (d) arranges insurance
152 The ratio of capital owned to other liabilities in a
business is known as: (a) efficiency ratio (b) liquidity
ratio (c) gearing ratio (d) gearing ratio (c) gearing ratio
(d) ratio of return
153 The computer using linear integrated circuit
technology coupled with qualification of data in term
of length and distance is known as (a) analogue
computer (b) hybrid computer (c) digital computer (d)
mainframe computer
154 A package contained in a wrapper bound with rope,
wire or iron strips is known as alan (a) Bail (b) berth
(c) bale (d) bait
155 An agreement to hire a ship which gives the chatterer
compete control of the skip is known as (a)
demurrage (b) voyage charted (c) charter by demise
(d) shipping conference
156 The term subrogation relates to (a) insurance (b)
finance
(c) advertising (d) premium
157 Organizing (b) coordinating (c) controlling (d)
planning
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158 A speculator who applies for new stocks and shares
with the intention of selling them at high price is a (a)
bull (b) stag (c) bear (d) jobber
159 At Lioyds, groups of insurers form themselves into
a) chambers (b) syndicate (c) associations (d) cartels
160 The cost of transporting goods to customers is called
(a) carriage forward (b) carriage inward (c) carriage
outward (d) carriage paid
161 Drawing two parallel lines across a cheque means
that it has to be paid into the account of the (b)
drawer (b) payee (c) drawee (d) payer
162 The parties to a cheque are the (a) drawer, payee
and endorse (b) payer, drawer and payee (c) bank
drawer and drawee (d) drawer, payee and drawee
163 The system of parting with authority but not
responsibility is (a) controlling (b) planning (c)
delegating (d) coordinating
164 Which of the following documents contains the
complete information on goods available in the
wholesaler’s warehouse? (a) catalogue (b) order (c)
consignment
(d) invoice
165 The rebate given to retailer by the wholesaler to
enable him make profit is known as (a) debit note (b)
cash discount (c) trade discount (d) credit guarantee
SECTION L – ECONOMICS
166 The price elasticity of demand for a good is unity.
What will increase as a resale of a reduction in the
price of the good?
(a) expenditure on the good (b) expenditure on
substitutes (c) marginal revenue (d) quantity
demanded
167 Under which conditions will the economic rent
received for a given type of labour decrease? (a) the
demand curve for the labour shift to the right (b) the
opportunities for training and mobility increase (c) the
skills possessed by such labourers become more
specialised (d) the supply curve for that labour
becomes more inelastic
168 Which of the following defines the minimum efficient
scale of output? (a) where a plant of a given size is
used to full capacity (b) where the firm can avoid
making a loss (c) where the long run average cross a
firm stop falling
169 An employer currently employs 200 workers. The
marginal cost of hiring an additional worker of N502.
if the employees current wage bill is N20,000 by how
much will the wage paid per worked need to be
increased in order to attract one more worker? (a)
1.50 (b) 2.00 (c) 2.52 (d) 3.00
170 A single country within a monetary union experiences
a current account balance of payment deficit. Which
policy could the country use reduce the deficit? (a)
exchange rate policy (b) monetary policy (c) fiscal
policy (d) britt policy
171 When is a profit maximizing firm in equilibrium? (a)
when average profit is maximized (b) when its output
is at its lowest (c) when the firm is maximising total
revenue (d) when thee is no tendency to change
output
172 Which condition makes price discrimination possible?
(a) a large number of firms in the market (b) identical
elasticity of demand in the market in which the
product is solid (c) the existence of product
differentiation (d) the separability of markets in which
the product is sold
173 Average earnings in manufacturing increase by 8%
while hourly wage rates increase by only 6% what
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could account for this?(a) an increase in over time (b)
an increase in the level of employment (c) an
increase in labour productivity (d) an increase in
unemployment
174 In which circumstances would a tax on alcohol be
most effective in reducing drinking? (a) high income
elasticity of demand for alcohol drinks (b) High price
elasticity of demand for alcoholic drinks (c) low
income elasticity of demand for alcoholic drinks (d)
low price elasticity of demand for alcoholic drinks
175 The basic economic problems of then society are (a)
what to produce, how and for whom (b) how to
produce and sell (c) scarcity, when to produce and
how (d) means used in different ways
176 If income rises from 200 to 250 and the amount spent
on good X falls from 30 too 28 then good X is (a) an
income elastic good (b) a normal good (c) an inferior
good (d) demand elastic good
177 Both the short run and in the long run, a firm
maximizes its profit when (a) MC=MR (b) AC=MC (c)
AVC=AC
(d) MC=AV
178 Which of the following is not a form of business
organization? (a) sole proprietorship (b) cartel (c)
partnership (d) Joint Stock
179 Which of the following measures is; directly aimed at
redistributing wealth? (a) inheritance taxes (b) profits
taxes (c) progressive income taxes (d) unemployment
benefits
180 A rational consumer allocates his expenditure so as
to (a) equate the marginal utilities obtained from each
good (b) equate the total utilities obtained from each
good (c) maximise the marginal utility from each good
(d) maximize total utility from his expenditure as a
whole.
SECTION M – GOVERNMENT
181 A systematic effort to manipulate the beliefs, altitudes
and actions of the public through the mass media and
other means is called (a) political enlightenment (b)
opinion poll
(c) propaganda (d) mass mobilization
182 Those who hold public offices and am actively
involved in politics are referred as (a) politicians (b)
political gladiators (c) political spectators (d) political
activists
183 What differentiates referendum from plebiscite is that
(a) the former emphasizes yes or no voting
(b) the letter L commonly used in Europe America
(c) the farmer is more popular than the latter
184 A deliberate lampering with electoral boundaries for
the purpose of winning future elections is called (a)
politicking (b) Gerrymandering (c) lobbying (d)
electoral trafficking
185 Which of the following is not an interest group?
(a) Christian Association of Nigeria (b) Nigerian
Medical Association (c) Catholic Church (d)
Pentecostal Fellowship of Nigeria
186 The membership of pressure groups is limited
because they (a) pursue specific and narrow
objectives (b) are mainly concerned with public
interest (c) promote other people’s interest (d) are not
patriotic
187 Cattle tax in the Fulani Emirate is called
(a) Jigali (b) Isakole (c) Alkali (d) Hakimi
188 The first political party in Nigeria was established in
(a) 1923 (b) 1922 (c) 1960 (d) 1944
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189 A legislative debate or proceeding which is attended 111 B
by all members of the house is called (a) plenary 112 -
session (b) recess session (c) committee 113 D
stage/session (d) third reading session 114 D
190 The majority of OPEC members are located ii (a) the 115 A
middle belt (b) Asia (c) Africa (d) Latin America 116 A
191 The Vice Presisdent in Nigeria between 19789-1983 117 D
is 118 -
(a) Dr. Joseph Wayas (b) Dr. Alex Ekwueme (c) Alhaji 119 A
Bashiru Tofa (c) Chief A. M. Akinloye 120 A
192 A principle that advocates total equality of members
of a society (a) communalism (b) egalitarianism (c) SECTION K
cotalitarianism (d) oligarchy COMMERCE
193 The Highest Court of Appeal in Nigeria in 1962 was in 151 C
the 152 C
(a) Privy Council, Judicial Committee, House of 153 C
Lords, Britain (b) Supreme Court (c) Court of Appeal 154 B
(d) High Court 155 C
194 The ending of a session of the legislature that has not 156 A
exhausted its tenure is called (a) dissolution (b) recall 157 D
(c) prorogation (d) quorum 158 B
195 A group of creditor nations to which most third world 159 B
countries are indebted is called (a) Pairs Club (b) 160 C
Accra Club (c) World Bank (d) Economic Commission 161 C
for Africa 162 D
163 C
ANSWERS 164 A
GEOGRAPHY 165 C
136
137
138
139
Notes
140 -----------------------------------------------------------------------------
141
142 -----------------------------------------------------------------------------
143
144 -----------------------------------------------------------------------------
145
145 -----------------------------------------------------------------------------
147
148 -----------------------------------------------------------------------------
149
150 -----------------------------------------------------------------------------

SECTION C -----------------------------------------------------------------------------
LIT. IN-ENGLISH
31 B -----------------------------------------------------------------------------
32 C
33 B -----------------------------------------------------------------------------
34 D
35 A -----------------------------------------------------------------------------
36 C
37 B -----------------------------------------------------------------------------
38 B
39 A -----------------------------------------------------------------------------
40 B
41 C -----------------------------------------------------------------------------
42 A
43 D -----------------------------------------------------------------------------
44 A
45 B -----------------------------------------------------------------------------

SECTION H -----------------------------------------------------------------------------
C. R. S.
106 C -----------------------------------------------------------------------------
107 D
108 B -----------------------------------------------------------------------------
109 A
110 - -----------------------------------------------------------------------------

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