Criminology Board Exam Reviewer 1

Criminology Board Exam Reviewer
Question and Answer
1. PNP mandatory retirement age is

A. 56
B. 66
C. 55
D. 60
2. The Highest award given to PNP members.

A. Medalya ng Katapatan
B. Medalya ng Karunungan
C. Medalya ng Kagitingan
D. Medalya ng Kabayanihan
3. Cold Weather Clothing allowance is usually given to PNP members

assigned in
A. Baguio City and Tagaytay City
B. Rizal Province and Cordillera
C. Cordillera and Davao
D. Baguio City and Davao
4. Optional retirement in the PNP is upon the accumulation of how

many years of satisfatory service?
A. 15 Years
B. 20 Years
C. 25 Years
D. 30 Years
5. The Year night watch was formed in Boston.

A. 1638
B. 1700
C. 1833
D. 1905
6. The Rattle watch in New York was formed in what year?

A. 1658
B. 1700
C. 1856
D. 1905
7. The Advent of a daytime police with pay

A. 1772
B. 1800
C. 1833
D. 1856
8. The Texas Rangers were organized in what year?

A. 1658
B. 1658
C. 1856
D. 1835
9. In England, They were assistants to the constables and walked the
streets removing vagrants.
A. Thief Takers
B. Beadies
C. Food Pad
D. Constables
10. In old England, Private citizens with no official status were paid
by the King for every criminal they arrested, they are called
A. Thief Takers
B. Beadies
C. Food Pad
D. Constables
11. The Major role of the thief takers in old England was to combat
what crime, committed by highwaymen?
A. Thief
B. Highway Robbery
C. Prostitution
D. Vagrancy
12. It means Food Pad

A. Street Robber
B. Street Dancer
C. Beggar
D. Prostitutes
13. He was credited for laying the foundation for the first modern
police force.
A. Patrick Colquhoun
B. Sir Robert Peel
C. John Howard
D. Henry Fielding
14. A London Magistrate, he established a small publicly financed

special river or marine police.
A. Patrick Colquhoun
B. Sir Robert Peel
C. Kohn Howard
D. Henry Fielding
15. In England, the first river or marine police was established in

what year?
A. 1798
B. 1898
C. 1698
D. 1598
16. Among his major contributions are the following: a. the hiring
of accountants and lawyers as FBI special agents b. Introduction of the FBI uniform crime reporting c.
Development of the National
crime info. center and d. Development of the FBI most wanted
criminal
A. August Volmer
B. John Edgar Hoover
C. Robert Peels
D. Henry Fielding
17. Procedures intended to be used in all situations of all kinds

shall be outlined as a guide to officers and members in the field.
A. Field Procedure
B. Headquarters Procedure
C. Special Operating Procedure
D. None of the Above
18. Included in these procedures are the duties of the dispatcher,

jailer, matron, and other personnel concerned which may be reflected
in the duty manual.
A. Field Procedure
B. Headquarters Procedure
C. Special Operating procedure
D. None of the Above
19. Plans relating to patrol distribution, crime investigation,

traffic operation and vice control.
A. Operational Plan
B. Administrative Plan
C. Strategic Plan
D. Tactical Plan
20. The Board of Examiners for Criminology was created in what year/
A. July 1, 1972
B. June 1, 1972
C. July 1, 1974
D. June 1, 1974
Answer:
1. A 9. B 17.A
2. C 10.A 18.B
3. C 11.B 19.A
4. B 12.A 20.A
5. A 13.D
6. A 14.A
7. C 15.A 8. D 16.B
Criminal Jurisprudence Review Questions
1. Berto, with evident premeditation and treachery killed his father.
What was the crime committed?
A. Murder
B. Parricide
C. Homicide
D. Qualified Homicide Answer: B
2. PO3 Bagsik entered the dwelling of Totoy against the latter’s will
on suspicion that Bitoy keep unlicensed firearms
in his home. What was the crime committed by PO3 Bagsik?
A. Trespass to Dwelling
B. Violation of Domicile
C. Usurpation Of Authority
D. ForcibleTrespassing
Answer: B
3. Charlie and Lea had been married for more than 6 months.They
live together with the children of Lea from her first husband.
Charlie had sexual relation with Jane, the 14 year old daughter of
Lea.Jane loves Charlie very much.What was the crime committed
by Charlie?
A. Simple Seduction
B. Qualified Seduction
C. Consented Abduction
D. Rape
Answer: B

4. Prof. Jose gave a failing grade to one of his students, Lito. When
the two met the following day, Lito slapped
Prof. Jose on the face. What was the crime committed by Lito?
A. Corruption of Public Officials
B. Direct Assault
C. Slight Physical Injuries
D. GraveCoercion
Answer: B
5. A warrant of arrest was issued against Fred for the killing of his parents. When PO2 Tapang tried to arrest
him,Fred gave him 1
million pesos to set him free. PO2 Tapang refrained in arresting
Fred. What was the crime committed by PO2 Tapang?
A. Indirect Bribery
B. Direct Bribery
C. Corruption of Public Officials
D. QualifiedBribery
Answer: D
6. Which of the following is the exemption to the hearsy rule made

under the consciousness of an impending death?
A. Parol Evidence
B. Ante mortem statement
C. Suicide note
D. Dead man statute
Answer: D
7. Factum probans means __.

A. preponderance of evidence
B. ultimate fact
C. evidentiary fact
D. sufficiency of evidence
Answer: C
8. It refers to family history or descent transmitted from one

generation to another.
A. inheritance
B. heritage
C. pedigree
D. culture
Answer: C
9. The authority of the court to take cognizance of the case in the

first instance.
A. Appellate Jurisdiction
B. General Jurisdiction
C. Original Jurisdiction
D. Exclusive Jurisdiction
Answer: C
10.A person designated by the court to assist destitute litigants.

A. Counsel de officio
B. Attorney on record
C. Attorney at law
D. Special counsel Answer: A
11. Which of the following is not covered by the Rules on Summary

Procedure?
A. Violation of rental laws
B. Violation of traffic laws
C. The penalty is more than six months of imprisonment
D. The penalty does not exceed six months imprisonment Answer: C
12. It refers to a territorial unit where the power of the court is to

be exercised.
A. jurisdiction
B. jurisprudence
C. venue
D. bench
Answer: C
13.The Anti-Bouncing Check Law.

A. RA 6425
B. RA 8353
C. BP.22
D. RA 6975 Answer: C
14. The taking of another person’s personal property, with intent to

gain, by means of force and intimidation.
A. qualified theft
B. robbery
C. theft
D. malicious mischief Answer: B
15. Felony committed when a person compels another by means of
force, violence or intimidation to do something against his will,

whether right or wrong.
A. grave threat
B. grave coercion
C. direct assault
D. slander by deed
Answer: B
16. These are persons having no apparent means of subsistence but

have the physical ability to work and neglect to apply himself or
herself to lawful calling.
A. Pimps
B. prostitutes
C. gang members
D. vagrants
Answer: D
17. A medley of discordant voices, a mock serenade of discordant

noises designed to annoy and insult.
A. Tumultuous
B. charivari
C. sedition
D. scandal
Answer: B
18. The unauthorized act of a public officer who compels another

person to change his residence.
A. violation of domicile
B. arbitrary detention
C. expulsion
D. direct assault
Answer: C
19. The deprivation of a private person of the liberty of another

person without legal grounds.
A. illegal detention
C. forcible abduction
D. forcible detention
Answer: A
20. An offense committed by a married woman through carnal
knowledge with a man not her husband who knows her to be
married, although the marriage can be later declared void.
A. concubinage
B. bigamy
C. adultery
D. immorality
Answer: C
21. Age of absolute irresponsibility in the commission of a crime.

A. 15-18 years old
B. 18-70 years old
C. 9 years old and below
D. between 9 and 15 years old Answer: C
22. Those who, not being principals cooperate in the execution of

the offense by previous or simultaneous acts.
A. Accomplices
B. Suspects
C. principal actors
D. accessories
Answer: A
23. The loss or forfeiture of the right of the government to execute
the final sentence after the lapse of a certaintime fixed by law.

A. prescription of crime
B. prescription of prosecution
C. prescription of judgement
D. prescription of penalty
Answer: D
24. A kind of executive clemency whereby the execution of penalty

is suspended.
A. Pardon
B. commutation
C. amnesty
D. reprieve
Answer: D
25. Infractions of mere rules of convenience designed to secure a

more orderly regulation of the affairs of the society.
A. mala prohibita
B. mala in se
C. private crimes
D. public crimes
Answer: A
26. Felony committed by a public officer who agrees to commit an
act in consideration of a gift and this act is connected with the
discharge of his public duties.
A. qualified bribery
B. direct bribery
C. estafa
D. indirect bribery
Answer: B

27. The willful and corrupt assertion of falsehood under oath of

affirmation, administered by authority of law on a material matter.
A. libel
B. falsification
C. perjury
D. slander
Answer: C
28. Deliberate planning of act before execution.

A. Treachery
B. evident premeditation
C. ignominy
D. cruelty
Answer: B
29. Whenever more than 3 armed malefactors shall have acted

together in the commission of a crime.
A. gang
B. conspiracy
C. band
D. piracy
Answer: C
30. The failure to perform a positive duty which one is bound to.
A. Negligence
B. imprudence
C. omission
D. act
Answer: C
31. Ways and means are employed for the purpose of trapping and
capturing the law breaker in the execution of his criminal plan.
A. Misfeasance
B. entrapment
C. inducement
D. instigation
Answer: B
32. Those where the act committed is a crime but for reasons of
public policy and sentiment there is no penalty imposed.
A. impossible crimes
B. aggravating circumstances
C. absolutory causes
D. Complex Crimes
Answer: C

33. One of the following is an alternative circumstance.
A. Insanity
B. intoxication
C. passion or obfuscation
D. evident premeditation
Answer: B
34. If the accused refuse to plead, or make conditional plea of guilty,

what shall be entered for him?
A. a plea of not guilty
B. a plea of guilty
C. a plea of mercy
D. a plea of surrender
Answer: A
35. At what time may the accused move to quash the complaint or
information?
A. at any time before his arrest
B. only after entering his plea
C. any time before entering his plea
D. Monday morning
Answer: C

36. The process whereby the accused and the prosecutor in a
criminal case work out a mutually satisfactory
disposition on the case subject to court approval.
A. Arraignment
B. plea bargaining
C. preliminary investigation
D. trial
Answer: B
37. The security given for the release of a person in custody,

furnished by him or a bondsman, conditioned upon his
appearance before any court as required under the conditions
specified by law.
A. Subpoena
B. recognizance
C. bail
D. warrant Answer: C
38. The examination before a competent tribunal, according to the

laws of the land, of the acts in issue in a case, for the purpose
of determining such issue.
A. Trial
B. Arraignment
C. pre-trial
D. judgment
Answer:A
39. The adjudication by the court that the accused is guilty or is not
guilty of the offense charged, and the imposition of the proper
penalty and
A. trial
B. Pre-trial
C. Arraignment
D. Judgment Answer: D
40. It is an inquiry or proceeding for the purpose of determining

whether there is sufficient ground to engender a well founded
belief that an offense has been committed and the offender is
probably guilty thereof and should be held for trial.
A. pre-trial
B. arraignment
C. preliminary investigation
D. plea bargaining Answer: C
41. It is evidence of the same kind and to the same state of facts.
A. secondary evidence
B. prima facie evidence
C. corroborative evidence
D. best evidence Answer: C
42. It is that which, standing alone, unexplained or uncontradicted is

sufficient to maintain the proposition affirmed.
A. secondary evidence
B. prima facie evidence
C. corroborative evidence
D. best evidence Answer: B
43. A form of evidence supplied by written instruments or derived

from conventional symbols, such as letters, by
which ideas are represented on material substances.
A. documentary evidence
B. testimonial evidence
C. material evidence
D. real evidence
Answer: A

44. When the witness states that he did not see or know the
occurrence of a fact.
A. positive evidence
B. corroborative evidence
C. secondary evidence
D. negative evidence Answer: D
45. Personal property that can be subjects for search and seizure.
A. used or intended to be used as means in committing an
offense
B. stolen or embezzled and other proceeds or fruits of the
offense
C. subject of the offense
D. all of the above Answer: D
46. All persons who can perceive and perceiving, can make known
their perception to others.
A. Suspects
B. witnesses
C. victims
D. informers Answer: B
47. The unlawful destruction or the bringing forth prematurely, of

human fetus before the natural time of birth which results in
death.
A. abortion
B. infanticide
C. murder
D. parricide Answer: A
48. Felony committed when a person is killed or wounded during the

confusion attendant to a quarrel among several persons not
organized into groups and the parties responsible cannot be
ascertained.
A. alarm and scandal
B. mysterious homicide
C. death under exceptional circumstances
D. tumultuous affray
Answer: D

49. A question which arises in a case the resolution of which is the
logical antecedent of the issue involved in said case and the
cognizance of which pertains to another tribunal.
A. legal question
B. juridical question
C. prejudicial question
D. judicial question Answer: C
50. The RPC was based on the

A. Spanish penal code
B. English penal code
C. American penal code
D. Japanese penal code
Answer: A
51. An act or omission which is a result of a misapprehension of facts

that is voluntary but not intentional.
A. impossible crime
B. mistake of facts
C. accidental crime
D. complex crime Answer: B
52. Infanticide is committed by killing a child not more than….

A. 36 hours
B. 24 hours
C. 48 hours
D. 72 hours
Answer: D

53. Ignorance of the law excuses no one from compliance therewith.
A. ignorantia legis non excusat
B. parens patriae
C. res ipsa loquitur
D. dura lex sed lex
Answer: A
54. An act which would be an offense against persons or property if
it was not for the inherent impossibility of its accomplishment.
A. compound crime
B. impossible crime
C. complex crime
D. accidental crime Answer: B
55. The law which reimposed the death penalty.

A. RA 5425
B. RA 8553
C. RA 7659
D. RA 8551
Answer: C
56. One who is deprived completely of reason or discernment and
freedom of the will at the time of the commission of the crime.
A. discernment
B. insanity
C. epilepsy
D. imbecility Answer: D
57. The quality by which an act may be subscribed to a person as its

owner or author
A. responsibility
B. duty
C. guilt
D. imputability Answer: D
58. Something that happen outside the sway of our will, and
although it comes about through some acts of our will,
lies beyond the bound s of humanly foreseeable consequences.
A. fortuitous event
B. fate
C. accident
D. destiny Answer: C
59. A sworn written statement charging a person with an

offense,subscribed by the offended party, any peace
officer or other public officer charged with the enforcement of
the law violated.
A. subpoena
B. information
C. complaint
D. writ Answer: C
60. This right of the accused is founded on the principle of justice

and is intended not to protect the guilty but to prevent as far as
human agencies can the conviction of an innocent person.
A. right to due process of law
B. presumption of innocence
C. right to remain silent
D. right against self-incrimination Answer: B
61. Known in other countries as the body of principles,

practices,usages and rules of action which are not
recognized in our country.
A. penal laws
B. special laws
C. common laws
D. statutory laws Answer: C
62. Circumstances wherein there is an absence in the agent of the

crime any of all the conditions that would make
an act voluntary and hence, though there is no criminal liability
there is civil liability.
A. Exempting
B. alternative
C. justifying
D. aggravating Answer: A
63. Circumstances wherein the acts of the person are in accordance

with the law, and hence, he incurs no criminal and civil liability.
A. exempting
B. alternative
C. justifying
D. aggravating Answer: C
64. When the offender enjoys and delights in making his victim
suffers slowly and gradually, causing him unnecessary physical
pain in the consummation of the criminal act.
A. Ignominy
B. cruelty
C. treachery
D. masochism
Answer: B

65. One, who at the time of his trial for one crime shall have been
previously convicted by final judgment of another crime embraced
in the same title of the Revised Penal Code.
A. Recidivism
B. habitual delinquency
C. reiteracion
D. quasi-recidivism Answer: A
66. Alevosia means

A. Craft
B. treachery
C. evident premeditation
D. cruelty Answer: B
67. The law hears before it condemns, proceeds upon inquiry and
render judgment after a fair trial.
A. ex post facto law
B. equal protection of the law
C. rule of law
D. due process of law Answer: D
68. A person if within a period of 10 years from the date of his

release or last conviction of the crime of serious or less serious
physical injuries, robbery, theft, estafa or falsification, he is
found guilty of any of the said crimes a third time or oftener.
A. Recidivist
B. quasi-recidivist
C. habitual delinquent
D. hardened criminal Answer: C
69. A kind of evidence which cannot be rebutted or overcome.

A. Primary
B. Best
C. Secondary
D. Conclusive
Answer: D

70. A kind of evidence which cannot be rebutted or overcome.
A. Primary
B. Best
C. Secondary
D. Conclusive Answer: D
71. These questions suggest to the witness the answers to which an

examining party requires.
A. leading
B. misleading
C. stupid
D. hearsay Answer: A
72. A method fixed by law for the apprehension and prosecution of

persons alleged to have committed a crime, and
or their punishment in case of conviction
A. Criminal Law
B. Criminal Evidence
C. Criminal Procedure
D. Criminal Jurisprudence Answer: C
73. The period of prescription of crimes punishable by death.

A. 20 years
B. 15 years
C. 10 years
D. 40 years Answer: A
74. Persons who take direct part in the execution of a crime.

A. Accomplices
B. Accessories
C. Instigators
D. Principals Answer: D
75. A crime against honor which is committed by performing any act

which casts dishonor, discredit, or contempt upon another
person.
A. libel
B. slander by deed
C. incriminating innocent person
D. intriguing against honor Answer: B
76. The improper performance of some act which might lawfully be

done.
A. misfeasance
B. malfeasance
C. nonfeasance
D. dereliction Answer: B
77. A sworn statement in writing, made upon oath before an

authorized magistrate or officer.
A. subpoena
B. writ
C. warrant
D. affidavit Answer: D
78. Any other name which a person publicly applies to himself

without authority of law.
A. alias
B. common name
C. fictitious name
D. screen name
Answer: C

79. A special aggravating circumstance where a person, after having
been convicted by final judgment, shall commit a new felony
before beginning to serve such sentence, or while serving
the same.
A. quasi-recidivism
B. recidivism
C. reiteracion
D. charivari Answer: A
80. Which of the following is not a person in authority?

A. Municipal mayor
B. Private School Teacher
C. Police Officer
D. Municipal Councilor Answer: C
81. In its general sense, it is the raising of commotions or

disturbances in the State.
A. Sedition
B. Rebellion
C. Treason
D. Coup d’ etat Answer: A
82. The length of validity of a search warrant from its date.

A. 30 days
B. 15 days
C. 10 days
D. 60 days Answer: C
83. The detention of a person without legal grounds by a public

officer or employee.
A. illegal detention
C. compulsory detention
D. unauthorized detention Answer: B
84. A breach of allegiance to a government, committed by a person

who owes allegiance to it.
A. treason
B. espionage
C. rebellion
D. coup d’ etat Answer: A
85. A building or structure, exclusively used for rest and comfort.

A. sanctuary
B. prison
C. jail
D. dwelling Answer: D
86. The mental capacity to understand the difference between right

and wrong.
A. treachery
B. premeditation
C. recidivism
D. discernment Answer: D
87. Conspiracy to commit this felony is punishable under the law.

A. Estafa
B. Murder
C. Rebellion
D. Rape Answer: C
88. It means that the resulting injury is greater than that which is
intended.
A. Aberratio ictus
B. Error in personae
C. Dura Lex Sed lex
D. Praeter Intentionem Answer: D
89. It means mistake in the blow.

A. Aberratio Ictus
B. Error in Personae
C. Dura lex sed lex
D. Praeter Intentionem Answer: A
90. A stage of execution when all the elements necessary for its
execution and accomplishment are present.
A. Attempted
B. Frustrated
C. Consummated
D. Accomplished
answer: C
91. An act or omission which is the result of a misapprehension of
facts that is voluntary but not intentional.
A. Absolutory Cause
B. Mistake of facts
C. Conspiracy
D. Felony Answer: B

92. Crimes that have three stages of execution.
A. Material
B. Formal
C. Seasonal
D. Continuing Answer: A
93. Felonies where the acts or omissions of the offender are

malicious.
A. Culpable
B. Intentional
C. Deliberate
D. Inculpable Answer: B

94. It indicates deficiency of perception.
A. Negligence
B. Diligence
C. Imprudence
D. Inference Answer: A
95. Acts and omissions punishable by special penal laws.

A. Offenses
B. Misdemeanors
C. Felonies
D. Ordinances
Answer: A
96. A character of Criminal Law, making it binding upon all persons
who live or sojourn in the Philippines.
A. General
B. Territorial
C. Prospective
D. Retroactive Answer: A
97. A legislative act which inflicts punishment without judicial trial.

A. Bill of Attainder
B. Bill of Rights
C. Ex Post Facto Law
D. Penal Law
Answer: A

98. The taking of a person into custody in order that he may be
bound to answer for the commission of an offense.
A. Search
B. Seizure
C. Arrest
D. Detention Answer: C
99. Pedro stole the cow of Juan. What was the crime committed?
A. Robbery
B. Farm Theft
C. Qualified Theft
D. Simple Theft Answer: C
100.Pedro, a 19 year old man had sexual intercourse with her 11 year
old girlfriend without threat, force or intimidation. What was
the crime committed?
A. Child rape
B. Qualified Rape
C. Statutory Rape
D. None of these Answer: C

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Criminology Board Exam Reviewer 1

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Criminology Board Exam Reviewer

Question and Answer

1. PNP mandatory retirement age is

2. The Highest award given to PNP members.

3. Cold Weather Clothing allowance is usually given to PNP members

4. Optional retirement in the PNP is upon the accumulation of how

5. The Year night watch was formed in Boston.

6. The Rattle watch in New York was formed in what year?

7. The Advent of a daytime police with pay

8. The Texas Rangers were organized in what year?

12. It means Food Pad

14. A London Magistrate, he established a small publicly financed

15. In England, the first river or marine police was established in

17. Procedures intended to be used in all situations of all kinds

18. Included in these procedures are the duties of the dispatcher,

19. Plans relating to patrol distribution, crime investigation,

6. Which of the following is the exemption to the hearsy rule made

7. Factum probans means __.

8. It refers to family history or descent transmitted from one

9. The authority of the court to take cognizance of the case in the

10.A person designated by the court to assist destitute litigants.

11. Which of the following is not covered by the Rules on Summary

12. It refers to a territorial unit where the power of the court is to

13.The Anti-Bouncing Check Law.

14. The taking of another person’s personal property, with intent to

15. Felony committed when a person compels another by means of

force, violence or intimidation to do something against his will,

16. These are persons having no apparent means of subsistence but

17. A medley of discordant voices, a mock serenade of discordant

18. The unauthorized act of a public officer who compels another

19. The deprivation of a private person of the liberty of another

20. An offense committed by a married woman through carnal

21. Age of absolute irresponsibility in the commission of a crime.

22. Those who, not being principals cooperate in the execution of

23. The loss or forfeiture of the right of the government to execute

the final sentence after the lapse of a certaintime fixed by law.

24. A kind of executive clemency whereby the execution of penalty

25. Infractions of mere rules of convenience designed to secure a

27. The willful and corrupt assertion of falsehood under oath of

28. Deliberate planning of act before execution.

29. Whenever more than 3 armed malefactors shall have acted

34. If the accused refuse to plead, or make conditional plea of guilty,

37. The security given for the release of a person in custody,

38. The examination before a competent tribunal, according to the

40. It is an inquiry or proceeding for the purpose of determining

42. It is that which, standing alone, unexplained or uncontradicted is

43. A form of evidence supplied by written instruments or derived

47. The unlawful destruction or the bringing forth prematurely, of

48. Felony committed when a person is killed or wounded during the

50. The RPC was based on the

51. An act or omission which is a result of a misapprehension of facts

52. Infanticide is committed by killing a child not more than….

55. The law which reimposed the death penalty.

57. The quality by which an act may be subscribed to a person as its

59. A sworn written statement charging a person with an

60. This right of the accused is founded on the principle of justice

61. Known in other countries as the body of principles,

62. Circumstances wherein there is an absence in the agent of the

63. Circumstances wherein the acts of the person are in accordance

66. Alevosia means

68. A person if within a period of 10 years from the date of his

69. A kind of evidence which cannot be rebutted or overcome.

71. These questions suggest to the witness the answers to which an

72. A method fixed by law for the apprehension and prosecution of