Roll No: (C0) Test Date: [06-03-2022] ALL | OA | AAGASH | TEST” SERIES = far ——_- Medical Entrance Exam - 2022 National Eligibility-cum-Entrance Test (NEET) (XII Passed Students) Ei eo eek) Read each question carefully, Each correct answer carries four marks. One mark will be It is mandatory to use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen to darken the deducted foreach incarect answer rom the total score. Sopropriets dicen the enewershest Before handing over the anewer sheet tthe nvglator, candidate Mark should be dark and should completely fi the crt. Should chock at Roll No. and Gentre Code have boon fled and Rough workmustnetbe done onthe anawershee, marked correctly Do not use white-uid or any other rubbing material on answer shoot No change in he answer once markee is allowed, ‘Stugentcannot use log tables and calculators or anyother material inthe examination hal ‘There are two soetions in each subject, SectionA& Sector. 7. Before attempting the question paper, stucent should ensure that You have to atlemt all 36 questions fom Section-A & only the test paper contain llpages anano page's missing, sO questions outol 15 rom Section 8. Immediately alter the preserbed examination tine i over, the answer sheetto’beretumedto the ivi lator. Note : tis compulsory to fll Roll No. and Test Booklet Code on answer sheot, otherwise your answer sheet will nt be considered.TOPICS OF THE TEST Physics ‘Thermodynamics, Kinetic Theory, Oscillations, Waves CLTUTES ERM Organic Chemistry- Some Basie Principles and Techniques, Hydrocarbons Transport in Plants, Mineral Nutrition, Photosynthesis in higher plants, Respiration inplants, Plant Growth and Development an Animal Kingdom-General Account & Non chordates, Animal Kingdom-Chordates, EERE Structural Organisation inAnimals-Animal Morphology (Cockroach only)Test Co ‘All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 wm :720 Time :3 Hrs. [PHYSICS] Choose the correct answer: Y fm SECTION-A ( anf 4. Motion of small ball is given by the equation Xx=Psinat +Qcosot . We can predit thal motion em of the small ball is (8) 2n, 6k (1) Nota simple harmonic motion (2) Simple harmonic with amplitude (P + Q) (3) Simple harmonic with amplitude (P? + G2) (4) Simple harmonic with amplitude JP? +Q? 2. IY =Asin(2nmt + 4) represents SHM of a particle then its phase at time tis (1) ume (3) (2umt + 6) 3. Calculate the minimum time required by a simple Agyed harmonic oscillator to travel from x =—F to x= 5) if the amplitude of simple harmonic oscillator is A and time period is T. r I mt Qs 3r T @ Ft as 4, Consider the figure shown below where both the coiled springs shown have similar length and are in unstretched condition. Now a mass mis suspended by the means of these springs. The force constants for these springs are k: = 2k and ke = 3k respectively. Now what will be the time period, of this system when sets into vertical vibrations? If 10 em is the amplitude of oscillation performed by a particle in SHM, then what fraction of total oscillation energy is kinetic when the particle is at 5 om from the mean position? a (2) (3) Nia Ae aIN ® 4) ‘The figure shows the displacement-time graph of a article executing SHM. If the time period of oscillation is 2 s and amplitude is 10 m, then ‘equation of its SHM is x AL a2! 4s) (1) xe tosin{ x2) (2) x= tosinet (3) x=10sin| nt+*) (8) x=t0sin{ at +2) (4) x= 2aCUES ae 7. A-small bob of mass m is oscillating in a plane perpendicular to the plane of paper as shown in the arrangement. Calculate the time period for the oscillation of bob in the arrangement, (Consider oscillations to be small) a ‘a @ {a d (anit ©) an Be @) an (4) anf 8 A progressive wave of frequency 600 Hz is travelling with a velocity of 300 m/s. Distance between two points of medium having phase difference of 30° will be nearly (1) 0.021m (2) 0.014 m (3) 0.041 m (4) 0.053 m 9. Two vibrating tuning forks produce progressive waves given by yi = Ssin(300nt + kxo) and ‘ye= 3sin(306rt + kx). Number of beats formed per minute is (3 (2) 60 (3) 180 (4) 30 10. Consider the two statements. |. Mach number is the ratio of strain to stress. Il. Sound waves in air are longitudinal while light waves in air are transverse, Choose the correct option among the following (1) Statement is true while statement Ilis false (2) Statement lis false while statement I! is true (3) Both statements | and Il are true (4) Both statements | and Il are false 11. A travelling wave propagating in any medium is, siven by y=10sin{7xt-0.04e-+2), where xis in \ J metre and tis in second, The speed ofthe wave is (1) 330 mis (2) 550 mis (3) 760 mis (4) 500 mis = x 12. A travelling wave shown in the figure below is travelling in a particular medium with a speed of 480 m/s. Frequency and wavelength of the wave are respectively y ° x x=40.cm (1) 4000 Hz, 20 em (3) 3000 Hz, 20 em (2) 2000 Hz, 16 em (4) 3000 Hz, 16 em 13, Three waves of equal frequencies having amplitudes 16 mm, 4 mm and 13 mm meet at a jiven point with successive phase difference of = given pi Pl 5 ‘The amplitude of the resulting wave (in mm) will be (1) Smm (2) 33mm (3) 18mm (4) 1mm 14. A5.5 metre long string has a mass of 0.07 kg. Ifthe tension in the string is 154 N, then speed of wave on the string is (1) 330 mis (3) 243 mis (2) 86 mis (4) 110 mis 15. Atuning fork of frequency 385 Hz produces 7 beats per second when sounded with a vibrating sonometer string. What must have been the frequency of the string ifa slight increase in tension produces lesser beats per second than before? (1) 392 He, (2) 378 Hz (3) 407 Hz (4) 357 Hz 16. Instationary wave (1) Strain is maximum at antinodes (2) Strain is maximum at nodes (3) Strain is minimum at nodes (4) Strain is constant throughout the string 17. Phenomenon of interference is shown by (1) Light waves only (2) Sound waves only (3) Both light waves and sound waves (4) Neither ight waves nor sound waves Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623466Test 18. 19. 20, 24 22. 23, Co Two cas A and B ar nod overs ach abe it same ae. The spend oso 0 tery fa oo on aye sie carges fo ines, thn ped of each car should be (1) 8 mis 2) 6 mis 16 68 3) 18 (a) 88 @) mis (4) Sis I speed of sound in air at 27°C is v then at what temperature speed of sound becomes 2v? (1) 1200°¢ (2) 927K (3) 82°C (4) 927°C ‘A cylindrical tube, open at both ends, has fundamental frequency f in air. The tube is now sted waa, stat 1m of Risin wat The fundamental frequency of air column is now amr (2) 2 2 ar a) a) of @ 4 wF Standing waves are produced in 20 m long stretched string fixed at both ends. if the string vibrates in 10 segments and wave velocity is 20 ms, then frequency of vibration is (1) 4Hz (2) 16 Hz (3) SHz (4) 10 Hz Wf the tension and diameter of a sonometer wir having fundamental frequency 'f are tripled and density is made one third then its fundamental frequency will become () oar @r 3 (3) f =9F (4) rar ‘A point source emits sound equally in all directions in a non-absorbing medium. Two points ‘A’ and ‘8 are at distances of 3 m and 5 m respectively from the source. The ratio of the intensities of the waves at point ‘A’ and ‘8 will be 9 25 Os as 3 5 @s ms CUES ra 24, The time of reverberation of a room ‘A’ is one second. What will be the time (in seconds) of reverberation of another room “B' having all the dimensions triple of those of room ‘A’? (1) 1 second (2) 3 seconds (3) 9 seconds (4) J second 25, Asource A of unknown frequency produces 3 beals per second with a source of 260 Hz and 7 beats per second with a source of 270 Hz. The frequency of source ‘Ais (1) 253 He (2) 293 He (3) 247 He (4) 263 He 26. ‘Two organ pipes ‘4° and ‘6’, one open and other closed, have same length. If the ratio of frequency in P® mode of vibration of pipes A and B is X, then the value of X72 will be 2p Pp 4 2) wa ° Pai 2p Pp 3) oP o © oA © wa 27. The speed of sound in a medium depends on (1) Elastic property of medium only (2) Inertial property of medium only (3) Both on inertial and elastic property of medium (4) Neither on inertial nor on elastic property of medium 28. A police jeep chases a thief while both are moving towards a stationary siren of frequency 165 Hz. The palice man, while moving at 10 mis sounds his horn at 175 Hz. If thief does not observe any beats then at what speed he is moving? (vsana = 330 mis) (1) 293 mis (2) 182mis (3) 27.5 mis (4) 14.8 mis 29, Fora certain gas, the ratio of molar specific heat at constant volume Gy and molar specific heat at cari prossire Cpls. HRs whore ae constant, then 1 () C38 (2) Ce=3R 1 3) Op=7R a (3) aR (4) G, Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623466CUES ry 30. A gas mixture consists of 3 moles of Nz and 6 moles of Ar at temperature T. Neglecting all vibrational modes, the total internal energy of the system is (1) 11RT (@ Zrr “1 33 a) 4 a) 33 @) rr @ Ser 31, At20°C, the value of the density of a fixed mass of an ideal gas divided by its pressure is X. At 140°C, this rato is 283 1) 288 2) o 3 @) 293 3) 298 4 o @) 32, A mixture of 3 moles of Helium gas and 4 moles of Argon gas is kept at 400 K in a container. The ratio of the rms speeds of molecules of these gases is, nearly. mt (2) 3.16 (3) 05 (4) 0.4 33. A vessel has 12 g of hydrogen at pressure P and temperature 500 K. A small hole is made in itso that iyogen ak teat ae 2 a temperature becomes 300 K, then amount of hydrogen that leaks out will be 16 () 39 2 39 z @) 39 (4) 69 24. -Aeroph ie plated wits on yes and ase of the ge along ans fo cient gases. The graph i (1) A tight ine prays (2) Aparabote curve symmetic about yan (3) A straight tine passing through origin with a slope having different values for different gases (4) Aparabolic curve symmetric about x-axis 36. 36. 37. 38. 39. = (Co ‘One mole of an ideal monoatomic gas undergoes a process described + by ‘the —_equation PV? = constant, Molar heat capacity of the gas during this process is 4 5 () 3R @) 5R Zz 5 (3) GR (4) GR SECTION-B In the given (P — 7) diagram, what is the relation between volumes Vi and V2? (1) Weve (3) Vs A diatomic gas at pressure P and volume V is expanded adiabatically up to 32 times of its initial volume, Final pressure of the gas is (2) Vo (4) Cannot be predicted (1) 8P (2) P64 (3) Pi128 (4) 128P. The given P-V diagram represents the thermodynamic cycle of an engine, operating with ‘an ideal monoatomic gas. The amount of heat extracted from the source in a single cycle is P. 3V, a (1) 2PoVo (2) 9PoVo (3) 8P vs (4) 16.5 PoVo By what percentage should the pressure of a given mass of a gas be increased so as to decrease its volume by 20% at constant temperature? (1) 20% (2) 25% (3) 40% (4) 44% Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623466Test 40. 44 42, 43, 44, x) ‘An Ideal gas heat engine operates in carnot cycle between 327°C and 227°C. If it absorbs § x 10* J of heat at higher temperature then amount of heat converted into work is (1) 25% 108d (2) 6.28 x 10° (3) 0.83 x 10° (4) 12.1 x 108d Work done during the cyclic process shown in P—Vcurve given below is 3 pve a Pee Pye co) ‘A Carnot engine operating between temperatures 7; and Te has efficiency 1. When Tis lowered by 29k eoenoymeeaesto 4 then Tah are, respectively. (1) 587K, 316K (3) 816 K, 387K (2) 387K, 516K (4) 316 K, 587 K 4 9 M3 Qa 3 Bn 4) 1 (3) 76 Mo equal parts by a partition fitted with a valve. One partis filed with an ideal gas at pressure 4 atm and temperature 400 K, whereas the other part is completely evacuated, If the valve is suddenly opened then final pressure and temperature of the gas will be 45. 46. 4a. 48, CUES (1) 4atm, 400K (3) 2 atm, 800K (2) 2 atm, 200K (4) 2 atm, 400 K Which of the following statements is correct for a thermodynamic gaseous system? (1) The work done in an adiabatic process is always zero (2) If heat is given to a system then temperature of system must increase (3) Temperature of system may decrease inspite of heat is being absorbed by the system (4) Work done and internal energy of system depends on initial and final states of system only During an adiabatic process, one mole of a gas does 200 J of work and its temperature decreases by 8 K. During another process it does 36 J of work and its temperature decreases by 8 K. Its heat capacity for 2” process is (1) 20.5 JIK (3), 29.5 Jk (2) 16.21 (4) 33.7 JK ‘An ideal gas is taken through the cycle A> B > C +A, as shown in the figure. If the net heat supplied tothe gas in the cycle is 15 J, then work done in the process CA is vim) 4 1 ‘P(Nim‘) 10 (1) 304 @) 185 (3) -154 (4) -305 A sound carried by air from a guitar to a listener is a wave of following type (1) Transverse stationary (2) Transverse progressive (3) Lognitudinal stationary (4) Longitudinal progressive Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623466CUES ry 49. A particle undergoes simple harmonic motion having time period T. If particle starts from its mean positon ten time taken in camling 2 oscilation is ar aa 4) 7 a a) 3 (2) 3 er sr 9 4 ®) 15 ” 12 [CHEM SECTION-A 51. Number of n-bond(s) present in CHsCH = CHCN molecule is a4 (2) 2 3) 3 (4) 4 52. Heterocyclic compound among the following i (1) Cyclopropane (2) Anne (3) Cyclohexene (4) Tetrahydrofuran 53. Number of hydrogen atoms present in a Tropone molecule is (8 (2) 3 3) 6 (4) 4 54. Correct chemical formula of anisole is (1) CHscOCHa (2) CeHsOCeHs (3) CsHsCOCHs (4) CeHsOCHs 55. Which among the following group is named as isobutyl group? (1) CHs ~ CHe- CHe - CH - (2) CH, - CH-CH, - CH, - CH, () CH,~CH- CH, - CH, cH (4) CH, C~ CH. = (Co 50. Acircularloop of radius Ris hung over a nailin vertical plane as shown in figure. The period of oscillation is, equal to that of a simple pendulum of length wR (2) 2R @) 3R (aR ISTRY] 56. CorrectIUPAC name ofthe compound is (1) 1-thy:-3,3-dimethyleyclohexane (2) 3-Ethyl+,1-cimethyleyclohexane (3) 1,1-Dimethyl-3-cthyleyclohoxane (4) S-Ethyl4,1-dimethylcyclohexane 87. Which among the following functional groups has hhighest priority for IUPAC nomenclature? (1) = coon (2) -sosH g @-¢- (4) ~cHO 58 The comect order. «of roatve stabilty of folowing canonical structures of Clie CH-CHO's ‘0: OF CH=cH-G-H —GH,-CH=0-H wy - & GH, -CH=C- i) () tee @ 1H @) > n> (4) W>tn> 59. Which among the following pair shows -R effect? (1) OH and - OCHa (2) ~NHe and — NHCHs (3) ~ COOH and - CN (4) —NHCOCHs and — NO2 Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623456IC 60. During estimation of nitrogen present in an organic compound by Kjeldah’s method, the ammonia evolved from 0.6 g of the compound, neutralized 20 ml of 0.5 M HCI. The percentage of nitrogen in the compound is (1) 50% (2) 23.33% (3) 56% (4) 46.66% 61. Match the column | of reagenticatalyst used with type of reactionsiprocess given in column I. Column | Column it K'a) |Cre0 or V20s, 773] (i) |Controied Ik, 10-20 atm joxidation of Imethane ib) [cu (at 250°C) (i) [aromatization or reforming of lalkanes ic) [Baeyer's reagent | (ii) |Reduction of lphenol Kd) Jena, (iv) Vicinal glycols synthesis, Choose the correct answer from the options given below (1) ai), BG, ei), div) (2) ati), BCD), etivy. da) 3) afi), ii), ei), (4) a, bi, eCv), a) 62, The most stable carbocation among the following is (1) CHy-CH-cH, (2) CH, -CH-ocH, (3) CH)-CH-No, (4) CH, ~CH, 63. In which of the following molecules, all atoms are coplanar? ol of CHy__/Cl © oH?“ Ser CUES 22 64. Which one is @ nucleophilic substitution reaction among the following? (1), HCHO+CH,Mgcl—#2>CH,CH,OH ‘OH HO’ nd (2) CH,CH = CHCH, “9S. cH,CHCH,CH (3), CHyCH,CH,Br—24OH_, (CH,CH,CH,OH ° One oO-a= CL 65. Product obtained on passing ethyne through red hot iron tube at 873 K will be CH oH lO CH. (3) 4) oO ‘CH 66. Compounds CHaCH2OCH:CHs and CHsOCH.CHCHs are related as (1) Tautomers (3) Functional isomers (2) Position isomers (4) Metamers 67. Select the correct statement(s) among the following (a) Steam distilation technique is applied to separate those substances which are miscible with water (b) Each successive condensation and vaporization unit in the fractionating column is called a theoretical plate. (©) Distillation under reduced pressure method is used to purify liquids having very high boiling points and those, which decompose at or below their boiling points, (1) aandb only (2) aandc only (3) conly (4) band ¢ only 68. The state of hybridizations of C2, Cs and Cs of the hydrocarbon CH, -CH=C=CH-CH,-CH=CH,, is in the following sequence (1) sp’, sp, sp (3) sp, sp, sp? (2) sp, sp, sp (4) sp, sp, sp® Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623466CUES 69, 70. n 72. 73, 74, 75. 76, ry During the test of sulphur in organic compounds, if nitrogen is also present then itis estimated in the form of (1) [Fe(CNNOS}* (2) [Fe(SCN)P* (3) [Fe(CN)s}* (4) [Fe(CN}a}> In Carius method of estimation of halogen, 0.2 g of an organic compound gave 0.15 g of AgBr. The percentage of bromine in the compound will be (Atomic masses of Ag and Br respectively are 108 u and 80 u) (1) 31.9% (2) 62.5% (3) 39.5% (4) 26.2% Number of structural isomers of CsHeO is (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 4) 5 Select the correct statement among the following (1) Column chromatography is an example of partion chromatography (2) In column chromatography, most readily adsorbed substances are retained near the top of column (3) Paper chromatography is a type of Adsorption chromatography (4) Commonly used adsorbent in adsorption chromatography is anhy. CaCl Which among the following alkanes can be made in good yield by Wurtz reaction? (1) r-pentane (2) n-propane (3) rheptane (4) n-hexane Electrophile in sulphonation of benzene is, (1) SOs (2) SOz (3) H2SO« (4) H2SOs Which among the folowing is aromatic in nature? CH, mi | ) @) gy The most suitable conversion is CH. CH, -cH,—> = c-CH wm (1) Nallig, NHs (2) He, Pd/C, quinoline (3) Zn/HCI (4) HaINi (4) &» reagent for the following CoH, — 7. 78. 79. 80. 81, 82, = (Co Which among the following hydrocarbon is most acidic? (1) CHsCHs GH, (3) CH,-C= CH, Which among the following cannot decolourise bromine water? (1) CHs-CH=CHz (2) CHsCH = CHCHs Z aM « Which of the following reagents will be able to distinguish between 1-pentyne and 2-pentyne? (2) CHsCH = CHCHs (4) CH=CH (1) O2 (2) Hel (3) Na (4) NilHe Which among the following alkene on hydrogenation does not give isohexane? © a (2) DA (3) oe Electrophile in the case of bromination of benzene in the presence of BralFeBrs is (1) Br (2) FeBrs (3) Brt (4) Feb, Which among the following is most reactive towards electrophilic reagent? CH, cH. lO @) OH CH. CH, @[O @) Br No, Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone 011-476234656IC 83, 84, 85. 86. a7. 88, 7 The most stable conformer of n-pentane among the following is eo (3) We Kolbe's atectoyes of aqueous solution of sodium propionate produces (1) Propane (2) Butane (3) Pentene (4) Butene CHaCHsCH = CH reacts readily with BzHe ‘and the product on oxidation with alkaline H2O2 majorly gives Py (2) CH.CH,CH -CH; 9H (8) CHsCH2CH2CHO (4) CH,CH,CHCH. SECTIONS (1) CHsCHeCH:CH2OH Select the alkene which on reductive ozonolysis! gives CHsCOCHs, HCHO and OHCCH2CH2CHO as the products. (1) CHsCH(CHs)2 (2) (CHs)2C = CHCH:CH:CH = CH2 (3) CHsCH.CHs (4) (CHseC = CHCH = CHe Sodium pentanoate on reaction with sodalime gives (1) CHSCH(CHs)e (2) CHsCH.CHeCHsCHs (3) CHsCH2CHs- (4) CHsCH2CH2CHs Select the correct order of boiling points of given alkanes among the following (1) Propane < 2-methylpropane < pentane (2) Propane < pentane < 2-methylpropane (8) Pentane < propane < 2-methylpropane (4) Pentane < 2-methylpropane < propane 89, 90. ot 92, 93, 94, CUES 22 Which among the following does not show geometrical isomerism? OH 2 ‘cok ov Ser F _CH @) ork ow ‘The correct order of reactivity of hydrogen halides toward CH = CHe is (1) HOI>HBr> HI (2) HeI> HI> HBr (3) HI>HBr>HCl (4) HI>HCI> HBr Identify compound X in the following sequence of reaction, oH coon oO cum, Ho Hy He, eae cH, HCI, C\ (1) (2) CH,Ci CCl. @) oO 4) oO | which of the following reactions, Markovnikov's rule is not observed? (1), CHsCH = CHe + HCI—> (2) CH:CH = CHe + HBr—> (8) CHsCH = CHCHs + HBr—> CH, wo Cle — a Br ° (ok KOH, g) (Na ; oe Or Oe? ra? AEH O) Identify the product °C’ in above sequence of (1) CHyCH2CHO (2) CHsCOCHs (3) CHsCH Glutamate + H20 + NADP. (1) Ais found in bacteria only (2) Ais glutamate dehydrogenase (3) Als catalysing the transamination process (4) A is found in all prokaryotes but not in any eukaryotes: Necrosis is caused due to deficiency of all given elements, except (1) Ca (2) cu 3) k 4) s Read the given statements and select the correct option. A. Deficiency symptoms of calcium first appear in younger leaves. B. Excess of Mn causes reduction in uptake of Mg_ and Fe. “) (2) 3) (4) Who experimentally proved that in the presence of sunlight it is only green part of the plants that release oxygen? (1) TW. Engelmann (2) Jan Ingenhousz Only Ais true Only B is true Both A and B are true Both A and B are false (3) Julius von Sachs (4) Cometius van Nie! The pigment that appear blue green chromatogram is, (1) Chlorophyll a (3) Carotene in the (2) Chlorophyll b (4) Xanthophyl 121 122, 123, 124, 125. IC Select the photosystem II Incorrect statement(s)— w.rt. ‘Its reaction centre is Proo b. Found in grana lametiae ©. Associated with release of Oz 4. Involved in non cyclic photophosphorylation (1) aand b only (2) band d only (8) eandd only (4) aonly In non-eyelic photophosphoryation, the primary acceptor of electrons (1) Accepts electrons as well as protons from stroma (2) Is located towards the outer side on the thylakoid membrane (3) Is plastocyanin (4) Transfers its electrons directly to cytochrome bef. ‘The primary acceptor molecule of COz during Cs cycle is (1) A three carbon compound (2) Aketose sugar (3) ACs acid (4) Substrate of PEPcase too Select the incorrect statement for Cs pathway. (1) Found in monocots as well as dicots (2) It requires presence of two types of cells, mesophyll and bundle sheath cells, (3) Mainly found in plants of ry tropical regions (4) Less efficient than Cs cycle Kranz anatomy is seen in (1) Maize (2) Tomato (3) Wheat (4) Potato Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623466Test 126. 127. 128. 129. 130. 131 132, Co All of the following statements are true for photorespiration, except (1) It involves three double membrane bound cell organelles ‘There is neither synthesis of ATP nor NADPH Process involves loss of fixed carbon as CO2 2) 8) (4) First step is catalysed by RuBisCO How many additional ATP and NADPH? molecules are required during synthesis of one glucose molecule in sugarcane than rice plant? (1) 12,6 (2) 6,0 (3) 6,12 (4) 12,0 Which of the given processes is not common between Ca and Cs plants? (1) Krebs cycle (3) Glycolysis, (2) Calvin cycle (4) Photorespiration Cyclic photophosphorylation differs from non cyclic photophosphorylation as the former (1) Does not include PS I (2) Involves synthesis of ATP (8) Occurs in grana lamellae only (4) Is associated with oxygen evolution Alcoholic fermentation and lactic. acid fermentation can be differentiated on the basis of (1) Number of ATP produced (2) Release of CO2 (3) Utilisation of oxygen (4) Usage of NADH + Ht Gilycolysis| (1) Does not occur in aerobic organism (2) Occurs in mitochondrial matrix (3) 1s complete oxidation of glucose (4) Is the only process of respiration in anaerobic organism There are A steps of substrate level phosphorylation reactions in glycolysis that yields B_ATP from one glucose molecule Complete the above statement by choosing correct option for A and B. 133, 134, 135. 136. CUES A B (1) Two Two (2) Four Two (3) Four Four (4) Two Four During glycolysis, how many redox equivalents isfare removed by two PGAL molecules and transferred to NAD"? (1) 2 (4 (3) 4 (4) 8 Find the incorrect one(s) for link reaction. a. Occurs in cytosol b. Catalysed by pyruvate dehydrogenase . I's a decarboxylation and dehydrogenation process (1) aonly (2) aandb only (3) bandc only (4) Alla, and ‘At which of the following given steps of TCA cycle, C02 is released along with NADH + H* formation? a. Malic acid + Oxalo acetic acid b. arketoglutaric acid » Acetyl CoA » Succinyl CoA c. Pyruvic acid d, Oxalosuccinic acid -> a-ketoglutaric acid (1) band c only (2) a,b and d only (3) bonly (4) b, cand d only SECTION-B A typical sigmoid or S-shaped curve explains (1) Arithmetic growth (2) Growth in unlimited resources (3) Constant growth rate (4) Geometric growth Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623466{All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 187. In which of the given plants plasticity is induced by different habitats? (1) Buttercup (2) Coriander (3) Larkspur (4) Cotton 138. Identify the plant growth regulator which is derived from adenine. (1) Auxin (2) ABA (3) Cytokinin (4) Gibberellin 139. Shelf life of cut fruits, shoots and vegetables are increased by applying (1) Cytokinin (2) ABA (3) Ethylene (4) Auxin 140. A hormone that can be used as weedicide is (1) Acidic in nature (2) Anatural PGR (3) Terpene derivative (4) A frit ripening agent also 141. Which of the given hormone pairs act. antagonistically on seed germination process? (1) Ethylene and Gibberellins (2) ABA and cytokinin (3) Auxin and Ethylene (4) Gibbereliins and ABA 142. “A hormone ‘X' is useful to increase sugarcane yield” by increasing its length Identify the correct statement for hormone (1) Itis a carotenoid derivative (2) Itis the only gaseous hormone (3) Itcan also be used to induce bolting (4) Itwas first extracted from human urine = ca 143. Which one is not a function of ABA? (1) Promotes abscission of flowers and fruits. (2) Inhibits protein synthesis (3) Induces closure of stomata (4) Breaks dormancy of seeds and buds 144, The process of promotion of flowering by a period of low temperature is called (1) Photoperiodism (2) Vernalisation (3) Vivipary (4) Botting 145, Choose the odd one for ONP (1) Tomato (2) Cucumber (3) Pepper (4) Henbane 146. Which of the following events will take place if a plant cell is placed in a hypertonic solution? (1) Water will move into the cell (2) Water will move out of the cell (3) No net movement of water will occur (4) Water first comes out then moves inside the cell 147. Select the correct pair of synthetic auxins. a. IBA b. NAA ©) 24D d. IAA (1) aand b only (2) candd only (3) band c only (4) aandd only 148. Select the correct sequence of steps occurring in light reaction of photosynthesis (1) Water splitting > Release of Or > Light absorption (2) Light absorption + Release of O2 > Water spliting (3) Water splitting > Light absorption -» Release of Oe (4) Light absorption -» Water spliting -> Release of Oe 149. How many total ATP molecules are synthesized by the electron transport chain from NADH + H* and FADHe molecules obtained in TCA cycle from one glucose molecule? (1) 36 (2) 10 (3) 22 (4) 38 150. Denitrification is carried by bacteria (1) Thiobacillus (3) Pseudomonas (2) Nitrocystis (4) Both (1) and (3) Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623466Test 151 152. 153. 164, 155. (Coulee) UE [ZOOLOGY] ETON 156, Match the tems. in column-l wih those in column land choose the correct option Melameric segmentation fiat evoived in the members of phylum column Column (1) Arthropoda: a. Bungarus i. Bioluminescence, (2) Annelida éliated locomotory structures (3) Mollusca (@) Chordata b. Ctenoplana i. Gillis, scales Choose the incerreet match c Euspongia i. Scales, creeping (1) Operculum: — Osteichthyes mode of locomotion (2) Porapodia ~—— Annelids 4. Plerophylum wv. Spongocoel choanocytes (8) Radula = Echinoderms wt (a) Haw = Mammals (1) afo, WA, ei, atv) All of the following features are considered as basis (2) a(iv), BG, efi), i) of classification of animals except (3) atili), (i), civ), d(ii) (1) Level of organisation of cols (4) a(i, bt fl), (2) Borty symmetry 157, Prégencec atalocyst as balancing organ, biradil (@) Nature of cet s}mmetry and only sexual mode of reproduction is presentin 4) Types of eal dvsion (4) Types of coll divisios (1) Pleurobrachia and Beroe Select the incorrect statement Se cota (1) Classifcation helps in assigning a Systema | (4) sSyeon and Spongia postion to newly described species (8) Asterias and Ophiura (2) All multicellular animals exhibit the same 158, Choose the incorrect match pattern of organisation of cells (9) In sponges, some division of labour occurs (1) Positora = Mosty asymmetrical among the cels (2) Platyheiminthes — Acoelomates (4) Tissues are grouped together to form organs (Echinodermata Complee.edigestve and each organ is specialized for @ particular system function Complete the analogy w.rt. circulatory system. (4) Hemichordata — — Collar cells: Pherotima: Closed type Open ype | 159. Tentacles and cnidobasts are present in (1) Nereis (1) Plla and Pinctada (a) Locusta (2) Hydra and Obelia (8) Rana (8) Clenoplana and Preurobrachia (4) Carcharodon (4) Asterias and Cucumaria Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone 011-476234656CUES ae 160. Which of the following can be broadly considered as a differenting feature between ctenophores and coelenterates? (1) Presence of extracellular digestion (2) Presence of radial symmetry (3) Types of locomotory structures (4) Development is indirect with larval stage 161. Select the incorrect match. (1) Spongilla — Loose cell aggregates (2) Fasciola Cellular level of organisation (3) Physalia — Tissue level of organisation (4) Limutus Organ system level of organisation 162. The animals which exhibit radial symmetry in adult forms of life and bilateral symmetry during larval stages are placed in the phylum (2) Poritera (4) Motusca (1) Echinodermata (3) Coelenterata 163. In the following given box, how many animals’are bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic and acoelomates? Hydra, Obelia, Taenia, Fasciola, Ancylostoma, Wuchereria, Hirudinaria a4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 5 164. Read the following statements and choose the option with only correct statement(s). ‘a. Roundworms is a name given to only parasitic forms of worms, b. Arthropods are the most abundant group of animals and they have jointed anal styles. ©. Soft body of molluscs calcareous shell ls surrounded by d. Presence of water vascular system is the most distinctive feature of porifers. (1) and (2) bande @) a.b,canda (4) Onye IC 165. Read the following statements A and B and choose the correct option. Statement A : Petromyzon is an ectoparasite which lays eggs in fresh water and ils larva after metamorphosis returns to the ocean. Statement B : All chordates possess jaws inside their mouth (1) Both statements A and B are correct (2) Only statement A is incorrect (3) Both statements A and B are incorrect (4) Only statement B is incorrect 166. Which of the following poikilothermous animals? is a correct set of (1) Hagfish, Betta, Turtle (2) Penguin, Tiger, Cobra (3) Crocodile, Pigeon, Kangaroo (4) Parrot, Platypus, Peacock 4167. All of the following are hermaphrodite animals except (1) Sycon (2) Taenia (3) Plourobrachia (4) Aedes 168, Choose the worms, incorrect statement w.r.t, round (1) The body of round worms is circular in cross- section (2) Alimentary canal is incomplete with a well developed muscular pharynx (3) Males and females are distinct, showing sexual dimorphism (4) Fertilization is internal but development may be direct or indirect, 169, Cnidarians exhibit two basic body forms: polyp and medusa. Polyp is produced by sexual reproduction and medusa is produced by asexual reproduction This alternation of generation is called (1) Metamorphosis (2) Metastasis (3) Metagenesis, (4) Mutagenesis Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone 011-476234656Test Exo 170. Complete the analogy and choose the correct option. Pheretima : Earthworm :: Ancylostoma (1) Ringworm (2) Hookworm (3) Filarial worm (4) Sikworm 4171. Select the mismatch among the following. (1) Ascaris = Roundworm (2) Pila - Pearl oyster (3) Wuchereria — — Filarial worm (4) Octopus = - Devilfish 172. Which of the following is not an exclusive feature of mammals? (1), Mammary glands (2) Hair (3) Four chambered heart (4) Ear pinna 173. Which of the following is a common feature among birds and insects? (1) Presence of ventral heart (2) Presence of dorsal hollow nerve cord (3) Absence of closed type of circulation (4) Presence of crop and gizzard in alimentary canal 174. Select the incorrect match. (1) Calotes Garden lizard (2) Aptenodytes - Penguin (3) Elephas = Elephant (4) Delphinus ~— — Blue whale 175. Which of the following set of vertebrates are homoiothermous and have long bones with air cavities? (1) Corws, Neophron, Pavo (2) Canis, Felis, Homidactylus (3) Chameleon, Calotes, Bungarus (4) Bufo, Hyla, Salamandra CUES ra 176. Which of the following is a viviparous fish having placoid scales? (1) Magur (2) Rohu (3) Dog fish (4) Cuttlefish 177. Malpighian tubules of cockroach absorb nitrogenous waste products and convert them into uric acid. These tubules are present at the junction of (1) Gizzard and crop (2) Mesenteron and ileum (3) Colon and rectum (4) Mesenteron and proventriculus 178. Select the correct statement w.r-t. cockroach. (1) The body of cockroach cephalothorax and abdomen. (2) In each segment, endoskeleton comprises hardened plates called sclerites. is divided into (3) Sclerites of each segment are joined together by articular membrane. (4) Head is formed by the fusion of six embryonic segments and itis immovable due to fixed neck 179. Choose the incorrect match w.r. Periplaneta americana. (1) Hepatic caecae — 6-8 blind tubules (2) Malpighian tubules - 100-150 filamentous tubules (3) Gizzard 6 chitinous plates, (4) Alary muscles 12 in number, found attached with heart wall 180. Read the following statements A and B wert cockroach and choose the correct option. Statement A : Mandibles are paired, chitinous mouth parts having grinding and incising regions. Statement B : The respiratory system of cockroach consists of trachea where exchange of gases takes place by diffusion. (1) Both statements A and B are correct (2) Only statement Ais corect (3) Only statement B is correct (4) Both statements A and B are incorrect Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623466CUES ae 181 182 183. Match Column-| with Column-ll and choose the option with all correct matches w.rt. Periplaneta americana, Column- Column-It (A) Genital chamber (i) Bounded dorsally by 9 and 10" terga and ventrally by the 9 sternum in male cockroach (B) Genital pouch (i). External genitalia in male cockroach containing pseudopenis and titillator (C) Ovaries (ii) Contains female gonopore, spermathecal pore and openings of ducts of collaterial glands {D) Left phallomere (iv) Lying laterally in.the 2°6 — 6 abdominal segments and consist of ovarioles A Bc D aa Gi) iil) ivy Qi) O Ww Gi (3) (iv) ill) (Gil) (4) Gi) iv) Git) Balancing organ statocyst is present in (1) Prawn and cuttlefish (2) Cockroach and Psittacula (8) Crow and flying fox (4) Krait and tree lizard ‘Which of the following class is named on the basis of mode of locomotion of animals belonging to it? (1) Amphibia (2) Mammalia (3) Reptilia (4) Aves IC 184. Read the following statements A and B and choose the correct answer. Statement A: All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates. Statement B: All homeothermous animals have double circulation but all animals having double circulation are not homoiothermous (1) Both statements A and B are correct (2) Both statements A and B are incorrect (3) Only statement Ais correct (4) Only statement B is correct 185. Choose the Incorrect statement wrt. birds (1) Presence of feathers is a characteristic feature (2) Presence of scales on hind limbs show reptilian ancestry of birds (3) Oi gland is present at the base of tail (4) Airsacs connected to lungs are directly involved in gaseous exchange SECTION-B 186. Clasping of tree branches by birds became possible ue to modification of (1) Forelimbs (2) Hindiimbs (3) Wings (4) Beak In which of the following animals, body is divided into head and trunk, upper eyelids are almost immovable and tympanum represents the ear? (1) Rena (2) Struthio (3) Rattus (4) Clarias 187 188, Select the incorrect statement w.r. cyclostomes. (1) They have elongated body bearing 6-15 pairs of gil slits for respiration (2) Body is devoid of scales and paired fins (3) They may die within few days after spawning (4) Presence of cartilaginous cranium and bony vertebral column Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623466IC 189. 190. 191 192, 193. 7 Which of the following set of bony fishes is marine? (1) Exocoetus and Hippocampus (2) Betta and Pterophyllum (3) Exocoetus and Catia (4) Hippocampus and Pterophyllum Generally, chordates differ from non-chordates in presence of (1) Nerve cord (2) Heart (3) Germ layers (4) Pharyngeal gil sits Read the following statements and choose the option which correctly state them as true (T) or false (F) A. Locusta is a gregarious pest. B. In molluscs, feather-ike gills are present. in mantle cavity. C. Calcareous ossicles form exoskeleton in most of the echinoderms, D. In Branchiostoma, notochord is present only in larval tail A Bc OD QT FO OT F QT TF F @)F oT F T @t TT F Lamprey is placed in the taxon Agnatha which is a (1) Sub phylum (2) Class (3) Division (4) Super class Complete the analogy and choose the correct option. Internal fertilization : Pristis :: External fertilization (1) Carcharodon (2) Crocodiius (3) Clarias (4) Aptenodytes 194, 195. 196, 197 CUES ae Select the incorrect statement w.rt Balanoglossus. (1) Body is divisible into proboscis, collar and trunk. (2) Excretory organ is proboscis gland. (3) They are bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic and coeiomates. (4) Fertilization is internal and development is indirect, Match items given in column-I with those in column- Il and choose the correct option. Column- Column-t a. Torpedo (i) Stomochord b. Trygon (ii) Electric organ ©. Saccoglossus (ll) Poison sting d. Bombyx (1) afi), bei, efi, atv) (2), alii), bti), cfiv), dCi) (3) ali), biti), c(i), div) (4) alii, bri), etiv), i) (iv) Silkworm During embryonic development, mesoderm first developed in animals placed in the phylum (1) Annelida (2) Arthropoda (3) Ctenophora (4) Platyhetminthes Assertion (A) : In larva of Doliolum, nerve cord is ventral to gut. Reason (R) : Nerve cord in its single and hollow. In the light of above statements, choose the correct, answer from the following options. (1) (@)is true but (R) is false (2) (A)is false but (R) is true (3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623456DUTIES ase IC 198. The head of cackroach Is connected with thorax by a short extension of prothorax called (1) Both statements are correct (2) Both statement are incorrect, (1) Neck (2) Mesothorax (3) Only statement A is correct (8) Motathorax (4) Cervical plate (4) Only statement B is correct 199. Read the folowing statements A and B and choose | 200. Select the incorrect match wert. animals and ther the sorrect option features Statement A: The skeleton in sponges is made up (1) Ascaris = —_—Endoparasite of spicules or spongin flores. (2) Lacciter ~~ Jointed appendages ‘Statement B : Larval stages are morphologically (3) Planaria Metamerism: distinct rom the adut stage in sponges (4) Euspongia Osculum Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623466For Answers & Solutions Please visit our website: www.aakash:NEET-UG 2021 Aakashians Create History! Hat-trick of Perfect Scores| {Ensen Poon tert Mrinal Kutterl Tanmay Gupta —_Karthika G Nair 2YEARCLASSROOM ——«2YEARCLASSROOM 2 YEARCLASSROOM 63649 17 9 27 50 eget ‘ranks In Ranks In ‘ranks in NEET-UG 2021 9 “ittorind="" tonoAiR —TepS0Ain Top 100 AIR Jsshan Chhabra Shubham Agarwal Wika Bansal Rajat Goyal Meghan IK Highest Number of Top Scorers in NET 2021 are from Aakash’ Scan the code to check all ae the ranks and watch what ‘our toppers have to say. and many more stories of excellence in NEET-UG 2021 from the classroom program ‘of Aakash BYJU’S. Download Aakash App cau rou-Re=) ws | S5 CES 1800-102-2727 aakash.ac.in