1] Health is defined as state of complete physical, mental, social well being, and not

only inabsence of disease or infirmity by ---------------------------------------------------- ?

A) Perkin B) Oxford English Dictionary C)World Health Organization D)Webster

2) WHO defines both health and disease?

A) True B) False

3) There is link between the environment and human health?

A) True B) False

4) External environment includes------?

A) Physical B) Biological C) Social D) All of the above

5) Every cells,tissue,organ system and their harmonious functioning involved in-------?

A) Internal environment B) External environment C) Both A and B D) None of thes

6) Which of the following is parameters of health EXCEPT?

A) Physical B) Social C) Spiritual D) Accupational

7) Physical parameter of person can be determined by-------?

A) Good complexion B) Good appetite C) lustrous hair D) All of the above

8) Which of the following parameter determined by the self confidence,cheerefull personality?

A) Physical B) Mental C) Social D) Spiritual

9) According to mental parameter of health,health is described as-------?

A) A State of harmony between oneself and others B) absence of mental illness

C) A state of harmony between oneself and their emotions D) None of these

10) The combination of physiology and psychology is------?

A) Physical parameter B) Social parameter C) Mental parameter D) Spiritual parameter

11) The determinants of health include-------?

A) Human biology B) Environment C) Health services D) All of the above

12) According to--------approach, health is state of active equilibrium or adjustment between man and his
environment?

A) Physical B) Mental C) Biological D) Spiritual

13 ) Health can be explained as a state of equilibrium between--------?

A) Disease agent and human host B) Environment and human host C) Both A and B D) None of these

14) The mental and physical traits of every individual depends upon the nature of its genes at the
moment of origin involved in-------?

A) Economic status B) Human biology C) Environment D) All of the above

15) The health status of person depends upon the-------?

A) Internal environment B) External environment C) Both A and B D) None of these

16) Health services includes---------?

A) Community services B) Medical care services

C) Protection and promotion of community health D) All of the above

17.Which of the following steps is not involved in evaluation of public health?

a) Re-evaluation b) Analysis of results c) Planning method d) None of these

18. Public health practices involves ——— approaches.

a) Direct approaches b) Indirect approaches c) Both a and b d) None of these

 19 .Direct measures in public health includes
a) Modern birth control b) Hypertension case findings c) Immunization of children d) All of these

20.Indirect measures in public health practices includes the following except

a) Improved nutrition b) Hypertension case findings c) Proper sewage disposal d) Safe water supply

21.Direct measures in public health practices does not include

a) Immunization of children b) Diabetes case findings c) Improved nutrition d) Hypertension case findings

22.Public health involves a combination of ——— in order to maintain, improve health of the people
a) Scik b) Skills c) Beliefs d) All of these

23.Core activities in public health do not involve

a) Prevention of epidemics b) Responding to diasters c) Promoting healthy behaviour d) None of these

24.Which of the following approaches in public health practices are important!?

a) Direct method b) Indirect method c) Both a and b d) None of these

25.Evaluation of public health carried out by community involves

a) Policy makers b) Students c) NGO’s d) Both b and c

26.———is the science and art of preventing diseases, prolonging life, promoting health and efficiency
through organized community effort
a) Health promotion b) Evaluation c) Public health d) None of these

27.Policy makers involved in evaluation of public health are responsible for

a) Development of programme b) Implementation of programme c) Responding to diasters d) Both a and b

28.———level of prevention is mainly the area of clinical medicine.

a) Primary prevention b) Secondary prevention c) Tertiary prevention d) Primordial prevention

 29. The health programmesinitiated by the government are usually at the level of ——
a) Primary prevention b) Secondary prevention c) Tertiary prevention d) Primordial prevention

30.The small pox disease was declared as eradicated in the year

a) 1979 b) 1980 c) 1981 d) 1880

31.Primordial prevention mainly targets ———

a) Old age group b) Early age group c) Adults d) All of these

32.The main intervention in ------ prevention is through individual and mass education .

a) Primary b) Secondary c) Primordial d) Tertiary

33.The full form of IEC

a)Information education communication b) Infinity education communication

c) Information early communication d) Information early constitution

34.The full form of BCC is

a)Birth control capsule b) Behavior Control communication C) Behavior change communication d) Behavior
Control capsule

35.The approach of secondary Prevention is also known as -------

a) Early diagnosis b) Early treatment c) Early cure d) Early prevention

36.Secondary prevention is more expensive and less effective than primary prevention .

a) True b) False
37.The approaches for primary prevention of disease _____ and ___

a) Mass strategy and communication strategy b) Population strategy and high risk strategy

c) Both of these d) None of these

38.The goals of medicine are to ------ and ------ health .

a) Pramote and prevent b) Preserve and prevent c) Pramote and preserve d) Preserve and cure

39.The mode of obtaining food for growth ,energy ,repair and maintenance is called

a) Carbohydrate b) Nutrition c) Calorie d) Folic acid

40.All of the following are components of food _____ except

a) Carbohydrates b) Proteins c) Vitamins d) Fiber

41.Which of the following are called macronutrients?

a) Carbohydrates, proteins and vitamins b) Minerals, Proteins and Vitamins

c) Carbohydrates, Proteins and Fats d) Proteins, Fats and Minerals

42.Which of the following are the micronutrients ?

a) Vitamins and Minerals b) Proteins and Vitamins c) Carbohydrates and Fats d) Proteins and Minerals

43.Which components of food are called body builder ?

a) Carbohydrates b) Proteins c) Vitamins d) Minerals

44.Which of the following nutrients is the energy producer ?

a) Carbohydrates and Proteins b) Proteins and Fats

c) Carbohydrates and Fats d) Proteins and Vitamins

45.Which of the following is called Metabolic regulaters?

a) Vitamins and Minerals b) Vitamins and Water c) Mineral and Roughage d) Carbohydrates and Vitamins

46.Which of the following are the primary products of photosynthesis?

a) Proteins b) Carbohydrates c) Minerals d) Water

47. The elements present in the carbohydrates are

a) Carbon, Hydrogen, and Oxygen b) Carbon, Hydrogen, and Nitrogen

c) Hydrogen, Oxygen, and Sulphur d) Carbon, Oxygen, and Nitrogen

48.How much energy will you get from one gram of glucose?

a) 3.8 kilocalories b) 4.2 kilocalories c) 4.8 kilocalories d) 5.2 kilocalories

49.How much percentage of calories are contributed by carbohydrates in the most of our duties?

a)45 b)48 c)50 d)40

50.Food is -------- for human existence just like air.

a) Essential b) Non-essential c) Both a and b d) None of the above

51.Diet should be planned according to ---------- principles.

a) Food b) Nutrition c) Natural d) Vitamin

52.Human body requires ----------elements of various day to day activities.

a) 15 vitamins and 24 mineral b) 19 vitamins and 34 mineral

c) 17 vitamins and 24 mineral d) 27 vitamins and 14 mineral

53.Balenced diet should be ------------

a) Good and adequate b) Fatty and spicy c) Low nutritious and fatty d) Adequate and wholesome
54.Improper diet may result in --------
a) Failure to flourish b) Poor growth and development c) Death d) All of the above

55. Over diet may cause ----------

a) Weight gain b) Obesity c) Insulin resistance diabetes d) All of the above

56. ____ and ____ energize the body to perform the activities.

a) Carbohydrate , fat b) Fat, protein c) Protein, vitamin d) Vitamin , fat

57.Fruits are also a source of multivitamins and ______

a) Lead b) Cadmium c) Mineral d) None of above

58.For defining RDA of energy ----------nutrition requirement is considered.

a) Only average b) Below average c) Above average d) None

59.A primary nutritional deficiency disease is a disease that results directly from dietary lack of a specific
essential nutrient.

a) True b) False

60.Common sign and symptoms of iron deficiency includes ----------

a) Tiredness b) Headache c) Dizziness d) All of the above

61.Calcium helps our body to developesstrong bones and teeth.

a) True b) False

62. Bone loss or bone thinning beyond the normal range is known as..

a) Osteopenia b) scurvy c) Rickets d) None

63.Calcium deficiency disease is known as hypercalcemia.

a) True b) False
64.Which is the leading cause of blindness in children worldwide?

(a) Glaucoma (b) Cataracts (c) Colour blindness (d) Vitamin A deficiency

65.Which of the following vitamin deficiency causes Beriberi?

(a) Vitamin B1 (b) Vitamin B2 (c) Vitamin B6 (d) Vitamin B12

66.Which of following nutrient deficiency causes megaloblastic anaemia?

(a) Folic acid (b) Niacin (c) Pyridoxine (d) Cobalamin

67.Which of the following diseases is caused by the deficiency of Niacin?

a) Scurvy b) Rickets c) Pellagra d) Pernicious anaemia

68.Which of the following vitamin helps in blood clotting?

(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin C (c) Vitamin D (d) Vitamin K

69.A balanced diet must contain adequate proportion of

(a) fats (b) carbohydrates (c) proteins (d) all of the above

70.Plank of thiamine can result in……………..

(a)Short term memory loss (b)Weight loss (c)Confusion (d)All of the above

71.Which of the following deficiency is caused by vitamin B-9 ?

(a)Folate (b)Thiamine (c)Cobalamin (d)None of the above

72.Pellagra is caused by a deficiency of which vitamin ?

(a)Vitamin B2 (b)Vitamin B3 (c)Vitamin b1 (d)Folic acid

73. Which of the following vitamins cannot be produced by our body

(a)Vitamin A (b)Vitamin k (c)Vitamin c (d)All of the above

74. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?

(a)Vitamin b1-beri beri (b)Vitamin B3-pellagra (c)Vitamin b9-scurvy (d)All of the above

75.Xerophthalmia in man is caused by the deficiency of……….

(a)Vitamin k (b)Vitamin A (c)Vitamin D (d)Vitamin C

76. Which of the following mineral functions by building strong bones and teeth ?

(a)Iodine (b)Calcium (c)Iron (d)Sodium

77. Folate deficiency can leads to

(a)severe birth defects (b)Growth problems (c)Anaemia (d)All of the above

78.Diet should be planned according to the principles of _________

a) Food b) Nutrition c) Environment d) None of the above

79.How much human body is consists of water?

a) 50 - 60% b) 50 - 40% c) 60 - 70% d) 70 - 80%

80.What is the composition of carbohydrate in human body?

a) 17% b) 14% c) 6% d) 1%

81. Balance diet should be ----

a) Adequate b) wholesome c) both (a) & (b) d) none of the above

82.Balance diet is important for ----

a) For a healthy body and mind. b) To maintain health and sensible body weight.

c) No single food provide all nutrients. d) All of the above.

83. Improper diet may cause ----

a) Poor growth & development b) Poor physical & mental health c) Susceptible to infectious disease d) All of the above

84.Over diet may cause ----

a) Insulin resistance diabetes b) Obesity c) Both (a) & (b) d) None of the above

85.As per WHO, dietary goals, all of the following are true, except ---

a) Trans-fat should be less than 1% of total energy required. b) Total carbohydrates 55 – 75% of total energy required.

c) Salt-Sodium Chloride should be less than 15 gm per day. d) Salt should be iodized only use.

86.According to census of India an Urban area must satisfy which of the following criteria

a. Minimum population of 5000 b. minimum population of 400 per sq km

c. Minimum density of population 1000 per sq mile d. All of the above

87.Urban slum is an area of about _______households of poorly built tenements

a. 45-50 b. 10-40 C. 60-70 d. None of these

88.Urban slum consists of poorly built congested tenements that do not constitute :

a . proper hygiene b. proper infrastructure C. proper sanitary , water facilities d. All of the above

89.Poorly built congested tenements , inadequate infrastructure , unhygienic conditions can be

obeservedin :

a. Urban slum b. Urban area C. Both a and b d. None of these

90.Urbanization of cities refers to changes in :
a . Size b. Density C. Heterogeneity d.All of the above

91.Urban slam consists of all specified areas notified as slum by :

a. Local government b. state government C. UT administration d. All of these

92. Rapid growth of urban centers has led to substandard housing on marginal lands leading to :

a. overcrowding b. increased population density C. Both a and b d. None of these

93. Outbreaks of communicable disease is observed as a consequence of :

a . Rapid growth of Urban centres b. Overcrowding C. Increased population density d. All of the above

94. Outbreaks of communicable diseases due to increased population density occurs through ________
routes

a. Oral b. Respiratory C. Faeco - oral d. Both b and C

95.long term health effects of air pollution includes , except

a. heart disease b. Lung career C. Asthma d. None of these

96.Chronic respiratory disease is included in _______ term health effects of air pollution

a. short b. Long C. both a and b d.None of these

97. Emphysema , Asthma , lung cancer , heart diseases are observed as a consequence :

a. water pollution b. Noise pollution C. Both a and b d. Air pollution

98. Nearly_____ people do not have access to clean drinking water

a. 2.6 billion b. 1.1 billion C. 400 million d. None of these

 99.Lack of facilities such as simple improved washrooms leads to increased episodes of :
a. flu b. cough, cold C. Both a and b d. Diarrhoea

100.The rising trends of non-communicable diseases are a consequence of :

a. Sanitary transition b. Dietary transition C. demographic transition d. Both b and C

101. Processed food is

a. high in calories, low in nutrition b. low in calories, high in nutrition C. high in nutrition d. None of these

102. Processed food plays a key role in conditions like:

a. Heart diseases b. Obesity C. Both a and b d. Asthma

103.Urbanization is an example of _______ change that has a remarkable effect on the diet in the
developing world

a. Physical b. Personal C. social d.Economical

104. A social condition where individuals do not have financial means to meet the most basic standards
of life that is acceptable by the society

a. Urbanization b. Poverty C. Slum d. Both a and b

105. The consequences of Poverty include :

a. Malnutrition b. Hunger C. Susceptibility to diseases d. All of the above

106. Poverty does not result in which of the following

a. hunger b. Obesity C. Malnutrition d. Both a and c

107. The World Health Day is celebrated on ____.

(a) 1st March (b) 7th April (c) 6th October (d) 10th December
 108. Cleanliness, physical exercise, rest and sleep are a part of ____.

(a) Hygiene (b) Social hygiene (c) Personal hygiene (d) None of the above

109. Which one of the following is an unhealthy habit?

(a) Sharing food (b) Bathing twice a day (c) Drinking boiled water (d) Eating without washing one’s hand

110. Which of the following statements is true about contamination?

(a) Contamination is caused by the entry of germs by an insect bite (b) Contamination is caused by the entry of germs by an
animal bite

(c) Contamination is caused by the entry of germs into drinking water or edible foods. (d) None of the above

111. The main cause of contagious disease is ___.

(a) Contaminated Air (b) Contaminated Food (c) Poor hygienic conditions (d) All of the above

112.Define health?

a) 1.State of complete physical mental &social being not merely an absence of disease or infermity.
b) 2.one's ability to form satisfying interpersonal relationships with others.
c) 3.ability to take charge of your health by making conscious decisions to be healthy
d) 4. a person’s condition with regard to their psychological and emotional well-being.

113. Which of the Following are the types of health....

a) 1.social health
b) 2.mental health
c) 3.physical health
d) 4.all of the above

114.Meaning of hygine?

1.Ygeia 2.Hygieons 3.Frontida 4.Evexia

115.Which of the following is not the objective of hygine?

1Keep your body healthy 2Prevent spreading germs to other people.

3.maintain good nutritional status. 4.Prevent illness

116.Which one of the following is a water soluble vitamin

a)Vitamin k b) vitamin c c) vitamin d d) vitamin a

117. vitamin b12 is also known as

a)Niacin b) thiamine c) cobalamin d) Riboflavin

118. Deficiency of vitamin c causes

a) Ascorbic acid tingling b) Beriberi c) Pellagra d) Scurvy

119. For a strong bones ----- is also required because it helps absorb calciu

a) Vitamin d b) Vitamin k c) Vitamin e d) Beta carotene

120.A good food source of ascorbic acid is

a) Meat b) Citrus fruits c) Lettuce d) Coffee

121.Which of the following vitamin is also work as antioxidant

a) Vitamin c b) Vitamin B c) Vitamin a d) Vitamin d

122.A level less than -------indicates vitamin d deficiency

a) 20 ng /ml b) 12ng/ml c) 10ng/ml d) 18ng/ml

123.rickets is caused by -----deficiency

a) Vitamin a b) Vitamin B c) Vitamin c d) Vitamin d

124.vitamins can be grouped into two broad categories

a) Fat soluble and water soluble b) Acid and bases c) Acid and esters d) Esters and amines

125. Protein deficiency in children is known as ----

a) Beriberi b) Scurvy c) Diabetes d) Kwashiorkor

126. Which disorder are kids of age below one year more likely to suffer from if breastfeeding is replaced
by foods low in calories and proteins

a) Rickets b) Kwashiorkor c) Marasmus d) Pellagra

127. Which of the following is biological agent of disease?

a) Virus b) Bacteria c) Fungi d) Protein

128. Urbanization refers to change in size, density and heterogeneity of disease

a) Size b) Density c) Heterogeneity d) All of above

129. There are------types of protein-energy malnutrition (PEM)

a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6

130. Bitot’sspots are the buildup of ____located superficially in the conjuctiva of eyes

a) 2 b) Keratin c) 4 d) 5

131. Night blindness occurs due to deficiency of _____ vitamin.

a) C b) D c) A d) All of these

132. The causative of filariasis is :

a)Schistosome b)Trichinella. c)Culex d)Wuchereria.

133. This accurately does not describes lymphatic filariasis

a)Is caused by parasitic worms wuchereria bancrofti b)One of the most common manifestations is chylaria

c) Chiefly affects the lower limb d) Intermediate vector is the mollusc

134. Filariasis in India is transmitted by

a)Musca domestica b)Anopheles culicifacies c) Accedes aegypti d) Culex fatigens

135. Filariasis is a result of

a)Fleas b)Bed bug c)Leech d)Nematode worm

136. Which of the following disease is caused by nematode

a)Poliomyelitis b)Filariasis c)Leprosy d)Amoebiasis

137. Filariform larvae are observed with

a)Trichuris trichura b)Necator americanus c)Ascaris lumbricoides d)Enterobius vermicularis

 UNIT 2

1. Cholera is caused by ?

a . Bacterium b . Virus c . Fungus d . Protozoa

2. The most common characteristic symptom of cholera is ?

a . High fever b . Watery diarrhea c . Headache d . Persistent cough

3. Cholera is caused through ?

a . Through contaminated water b . Through the cough droplets from the infected person
c . Bite of female culex mosquito d . None of the above

4. Treatment with oral dehydration solution may be sufficient to treat a person with mild degree
of cholera ?
a . True b . False

5. Oral cholera vaccine provide life - long immunity ?

a . True b . False

6. Signs of dehydration include ?

a . Dry skin b . High B.P. c . Raised fontanelles in children d . All of the above

7. Cholera can be transmitted by flies ?

a. True b. False

8. What is the incubation period for cholera ?

a. 2 to 3 weeks b. 5 hours to a few days c. A few hours to 5 days d. 4 to 21 days

9. People at risk of developing cholera include ?

a . People with low immunity b . People with blood group A c . Young adults d . None of the above

10. SARS is case by which virus

a. SARS-Associated corona virus b. SARS-cov c. Both a and b d. None of the above
11. SARS-cov belonging to which family
a. H b. H c. Coronaviridae family d. None of these

12. Who is the first victim of SARS-cov

a. Doctor b. Farmer c. Police d. Politicians

13. How SARS transmited

a. Direct contact with eye nose and mouth b. Close contact with people infected by SARS-cov
c. Airbone respiratory droplets d. All the above

14. Symptoms of SARS

a. Fever b. Headache c. Muscle pain d. All the above

15. Sars are dignose by

a. RT-PCR b. Real-time RT-PCR c. Both of the above d. None of these

16. How to prevent exposures to SARS

a. Do not wash hand regularly b. Do not cover mouth eye nose
c. Avoid crowded place d. Share food and drinks with others

17. The first case of SARS was identified in

a. India b. China c. japan d.none of these

18. Treatment of SARS

a. Hypertensive drugs b. Antidibetics c. No available d. All the above

19. Supportive care of SARS

a. Tracheal intubation b. Airway mannegment c. Mechanical ventilation d. Oxygen therapy
e. All the above

20. Up to the 4 days SARS-cov survive on

a. Clothes b. Surface c. Human waste d. None of these
21. Which are the poor prognostic factor
a. Advance agr b. Chronic hepatitis b c. Dibetes Mellitus d. Acute kidney disease e. All the above

22. On the plastic surface at room temperature SARS-cov survive for

a. 15 mint b. 10 days c. 24 hr d. none of these

23. More than 24 hr SARS-cov survive on plastic surface at

a. Room temperature b. Cold temperatures c. At high temp d. All the above

24. Which clinical specimens are tested for dignosis of SARS

a. Nasopharyngeal b. Stool c. Urine d. Both a and b

25. Who is most at risk of SARS

a. People with health condition like lungs and heart disease b. Health care workers
c. Old Age people d. All the above

26. Influenza is a ciral disease caused by…….

a. mRNA b. RNA c. DNA d. Both a and b

27. Influenza sign and symptoms is

a. Sneezing b. Headache c. Cough d. All of these

28. Incubation period for influenza virus is

a. 18 to 72 hrs b. 18 to 40 hrs c. 18 to 30 hrs d. None of above.

29. Diagnostic test for influenza is

a. Elisa test b. Naso pharyngeal sereation c. Both a and b d. Only a

30. Which of the following virus can cause ARI

a. Adenovirus b. Rhinovirus c. Pneumococcus d. All of above

31. Pneumococcus is a type of bacterium that causes

a. Meningitis b. Bronchitis c. Epiglotis d. Pharyngitis
32. Which of the following visuses is not commonly associated in the common cold
a. Coronavirus b. Adeovirus c. Rhinovirus d. Varicella-zoster virus

33. The ____vaccine is effective in controlling both measles and rubella

a. MMR b. Pertussis c. Pneumovax d. none of these

34. 5.Early symptoms of ARI includes

a. Runny nose b. Sore throat c. Fatigue d. All the above

35. Adenoviruses consist of how many type of viruses

a. More than 50 b. Less than 50 c. 50 d. None of these

36. Causes of rhinoviruses includes

a. Sore throat b. Ear infection c. Infection of sinuses d. All the above

37. The rhinovirus cannot be isolated from

a. Nose b. Fecal c. Throat d. D.Sputum

38. Lower respiratory infection includes

a. Bronchitis b. Bronchiolitis c. Pneumonia d. All the above

39. False regarding peumococcus is

a. Causes mild form of meningitis b. Respiratory tract of carriers is most important source of infection
c. Commonest cause of otitis media d. Capsule is important in virulance

40. Pertussis vaccine is a

a.Live vaccine b. Killed vaccine c. Toxoids d. None of above

41. Causitive agent in large proportion cases of pertusis is

a. Bordetellapertusis b. Bordetellaparapertusis c. Adenovirus d. para influenza virus
42. Another vaccines which can prevent ARI are
a. Influenza vacination b. Pneumovax c. Both a & b d. None of these

43. Preventive measures to be taken for ARI are

a. Wash hands frequently b. Avoid smoking c. Intake of vitamin rich diet d. All the above

44. Trophozoites, Schizonts and gametocytes of all the malarial parasites are seen in the
peripheral blood smear except;
a. P. falciparum b. P. malariae c. P. ovale d. P. vivax

45. Black water fever is a special manifestation of malaria caused by;

a. P. falciparum b. P. malariae c. P. ovale d. P. vivax

46. After sporozoite gain entrance to human body it undergoes developmental cycle first in liver
than in RBC, only after which fever is seen. This incubation period varies between plasmodium
species, and ………….. species has longest incubation period.
a. P. falciparum b. P. malariae c. P. ovale d. P. vivax

47. Which of the following statement(s) regarding Plasmodium falciparum are true?
a. causes more severe disease in pregnancy b. is the only malarial parasite causing greater than 20% parasitaemia
c. infection is typically associated with thrombocytopenia d. All of the above.

48. Mosquitoes is/are the vector in the following disorder(s)

a. Onchocerciasis b. Visceral leishmaniasis c. African trypanosomiasis d. Bancroftian filariasis

49. Which of the following statement(s) regarding vivax malaria is (are) true
a. may be complicated by anaemia b. may be complicated by jaundice
c. in a traveller may present more than six months after exposure d. is sensitive to chloroquine e. may co-exist
with falciparum malaria in the same patient

50. There are four kinds of malaria that can infect humans. They are all spread by what?
a. a worm in the intestine b. a tick bite c. a mosquito bite d. a tsetse fly bite
51. What part of the body do these malaria parasites feed on?
a. red blood cells b. brain tissue c. muscles d. intestinal lining

52. How long must a malaria parasite grow in its host before infection can be spread to a human
being?
a. a week or more b. two weeks c. twenty four hours d. one month

53. Once malaria parasites enter a person's blood they then travel to which organ?
a. kidneys b. stomach c. heart d. liver

54. Of the four types of malaria, 'falciparum malaria' is the most deadly. This type of malaria is
most prevalent in what place?
a. southeast Asia b. South Africa c. India d. subSaharanAfrica

55. How many countries and territories worldwide are considered at risk for malarial infections?
a. around 50 b. more than 100 c. fewer than 80 d. exactly 65

56. According to the World Health Organization's estimate in 2000, malaria kills one child how
often?
a. every minute b. every 30 seconds c. every five minutes d. every 15 minutes

57. African children under the age of five suffer approximately how many bouts of malaria per
year?
a. 3 b.10 c. 6 d.12

58. Which type of malaria is usually fatal?

a. placental malaria b. cerebral malaria c. all of them can be fatal d. severe malaria

59. How soon, after infection, will a person feel usually begin to feel ill?
a. 2 days b. none of these c. 4 days d. 6 days

60.Chikungunya is cause by a:-

A. Bacterium B. Virus C. Parasite D. Protozoan
61.Chikungunya is spread through the air when a patient coughs
A. True B. False

62. The most common symptoms in chikungunya are

a. Fever with cough b. Fever and severe joint pain
c. Fever with severe stomach ache d. Fever with severe diarrhea and vomiting

63. The disease usually results inpermanantjoint destruction and subsequent abnormalities
a. True b. False

64. Which of the following is the primary vector of chikungunya ?

a. Aedes aegypti b. Aedes albopictus c. Both of the above d. None of the above

65. Diagnosis of chikungunya is made based on :

a. Blood test b. Urine test c. ECG d. None of the above

66. Beside chikungunya the Aedes mosquito also spread

a. Dengue b. Malaria c. Both of the above d. None of the above

67. Which of these is not a way to identify chikungunya (Diagnosis)

a. RT-PCR b. Virus Isolation c. Hearing heartbeats d. Serological test e. Blood test

68. Which of these measure cannot help to prevent chikungunya

a. Wearing bite proof long sleeved garments b. Applying insect repellents
c. Avoiding frequent contact with mosquito d. Going to public place

69. The incubation period for chikungunya

a. 10-15 days b. 3-7 days c. 1-2 days d. None of the above

70.Dengue fever spread by

a. Aedes aegypti mosquito b. Common house flies c. Anopheles mosquito d. Rodent like rats and
squirrels
71.What is the most common cause of death in dengue?

a. Fever I b. Haemorrhage c. Hypovolumia d. Break bone fever

72. Mode of transmission of dengue?

a. Air bone b. Vector borne c. Indirect I d. B and c

73. A child with dengue haemorrhagic fever all the following should be done except?

a. Give ORS if there is persistent fever b. Prevent hypoglycaemia c. Test and sleep d. Give aspirin

74. What is the incubation period of dengue?

a. 5-7 days b. 2-3 days c. 10-14 days d. 2-3 weeks

75.Pneumonia is a common ………….. Infection.

A) kidney B) Heart C) Lung D) Spleen

76. Pathogens causing community acquired atypical pneumonia include:

A) Legionella pneumonia B) Klebsiella pneumonia C) Mycoplasma pneumonia D) Pseudomonas spp.

77.Bacterial pneumonia can develop after a cold or the flu.

A) True B) False

78. What are symptoms of pneumonia?

A) Cough, fever and chills B) Rash, painful joints and itching skin C) Jaundice and peeling skin D) All of the above
79. Is pneumonia contagious?

A) Yes B) No

80. ……………is observes World Pneumonia Day.

A) 4 february B) 24 october C) 12 november D) 25 april

81. Which of the following regarding community acquired pneumonia is false?

A) Pneumonia is the second most common cause of community acquired acute pneumonia.

B) Haemophilus influenza is a plemorphic, gram negative organism

C) Streptococcus pneumonia is a gram-positive, lancet-shaped diplococcus

D) Pseudomonas can cause community acquired pneumonia in cystic fibrosis patients

82. People with reduced immunity tend to suffer from a more severe form of pneumonia.

A) True B) False

83. Hypertension is also known as _________

a) Slow killer b) Chronic disease c) Silent killer d) None of the above

84.What is Systolic Pressure?

a) Pressure exerted by the arteries when heart muscle is contracting.

b) Pressure exerted by the arteries when the heart is relaxed between beats.

c) Pressure exerted by the veins when heart muscle is contracting.

d) None of the above

85. What is Diastolic Pressure?

a) Pressure exerted by the arteries when heart muscle is contracting.

b) Pressure exerted by the arteries when the heart is relaxed between beats.

c) Pressure exerted by the veins when heart muscle is contracting.

d) None of above

86. Arteries are made up of ?

Muscle and semi-Flexible tissues

87.. Increase deposition of plaque in arteries leads to?

a) Hypertension b) Atherosclerosis c) Blood clot d) All of the above

88. High blood pressure is classified as?

Either primary or Secondary high blood pressure

89. World hypertension day is dated on?

a)17 May b)17 March c) 20 august d) 14 April

90.The causative of Filariasis is :

a. Schistosome b. trichinella c. Culex d. Wuchereria

91. This accurately does not describes lymphatic filariasis :

a. Is caused by parasitic worms wuchereria bancrofti

b) One of the most common manifestations is chylaria

c)Chiefly affects the lower limb

d. Intermediate vector is the mollusc

92.Filariasis in India is transmitted by

a. Musca domestica b. Anopheles culicifacies c. Culex fatigens d. Aedes aegypti

93.Filariasis is a result of the infection of

a. Fleas b. Bed bug c. Leech d. Nematode worm

94.Which of the following disease is caused by a nematode

a. Poliomyelitis b. Filariasis c. Leprosy d. Amoebiasis

95.Filariform larvae are observed with

a. Trichuris trichura b. Necator americanus c. Ascaris lumbricoides d. Enterobius vermicularis

96. What are the sign and symptoms of Diabetes Mellitus?

a. Blurring of vision b. Weight loss c. Polyuria d. All of the above

97. Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus is also known as

a. Non-insulin dependent diabetes mellitus b. Insulin dependent diabetes mellitus

c. Juvenile-onset diabetes mellitus d. Both b and c

98. Type 2 diabetes mellitus is also known as

a. Adult-onset diabetes b. Non-insulin dependent diabetes mellitus

c. Insulin dependent diabetes mellitus d. Both a and b

99. Type 2 diabetes mellitus is associated with

a. Obesity b. Family history of diabetes c. Physical inactivity d. All of the above

100. Type 1 diabetes mellitus may account of how many percentage of all diagnosed cases of diabetes?

a. 1-5 % b. 5-10 % c. 10-15 % d. 15-20 %

101. Type 2 diabetes may account of how many percentage of all diagnosed cases of diabetes?

a. 80-85 % b. 85-90 % c. 90-95 % d. 70-80 %

102. Prevention of diabetes include

a. Self care b. Insulin therapy c. Diet and exercise d. All of the above

103.Dietary treatment should be aim at,

a. Ensuring weight control b. Providing nutritional requirements d. All of the above

104. Self care should include

a. Blood glucose monitoring b. Foot-care c. Personal Hygiene d. All the above

105. Insulin is a protein hormone that is used as a medication to treat

a. Low blood glucose b. High blood glucose c. Moderate blood glucose d. None of these

106. Insulin therapy is includes in

a. Type 1 diabetes b. Type 2 diabetes c. Gestational diabetes d. All of these

107. Insulin therapy is also include in Diabetic ketoacidosis

a. Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic states b. Hypertension c. Both a and b

108. Cancer is also called as

a. Haemophilia b. leprosy c. Neoplastic diseases d. None of the above

109. Carcinoma means

a. Begin in bone or cartilage b. Begins in skin in tissue c. Begins in throat d. Begins in connective tissue

110. What is Sarcoma

a. In a skin tissue b. In a bone or cartilage c. blood forming tissue d. lymphonodes of specific sites

111. What is leukemia

a. begin in Epithelial line b. begin in bone cartilage c. begin in blood forming tissue d. white blood cells

112. primary cancer spread in

a. lungs b. kidney c. In a body d. other parts of the body

113. Causes of a cancer

a. Tobacco b. Diet and physical activity c. Infection d. All of the above

114. Name the cells which lost their control of the regulated division, differentiation and apoptosis

a. Tumor cells b. Immune cells c. Platelets d. Stem cells

115. All tumor cells are cancerous cells

a) True b) False

116. Which of the following is not the type of cancer?

a. Carcinoma b. Leukemia c. Caspases d. Sarcoma

117. What is the origin of the cancerous cells

a. Monoclonal b. Polyclonal c. stem cells d. Mesodermal cells

118. Which one is not a short-term side effect of alcohol

a. Dezziness b. Neurocognitive function c. Vomiting d. Liver damage

119. Following are the causes of drug abuse except,

a. Financial problems b. Peer pressure c. Depression d. Sudden weight loss or gain

120. ………….. As the self administration of drug for non-medical reason which may resulting social
,physical or emotional harm.

a. substance dependence b. drug abuse c. host factor d. all of these

121. Which of the following are the factors of drug dependence .

a. Agent factor b. Host factor c. Environment factor d. All of these

121. Drugs users who do not have serious problems or not drug addicted it is the ……….

a) primary prevention b) secondary prevention c) tertiary prevention d) All of these

122. Which of the following are causes of drug abuse .

a) Easy environment b) religious sanction of drug use c) Culture invasion d) All of these

123. The physical sign and symptoms of drug abuse are except

a) Changes in attitude b) abrupt weight changes c) sleeping problems d) dialetal pupil

124. Alcohol suppress the activity of ……..

a) ANS b) CNS c) PNS d) None of these

 UNIT 3
1. The National TB Control Programme Was Started in….

A) 1964 B) 1963 C) 1962 D) 1965

2. In District, the Tuberculosis Programme is implemented through the….

a.Primary health institution b.District Tuberculosis Centre c. Both a and b d.None of the above

3. Revised National Tuberculosis Control Programme (RNCTP) began in ….

A)1962 B) 1990 C) 1980 D) 1993

4. In ….. RNTCP was launched as a national Programme

A)2006 B)1997 C)1990 D)1962

5. Entire nation with RNTCP in

A) 1997 B)1993 C)2006 D)None of the above

B)

6. The major focus of NSP 2012-17 was ….

A) Early and Complete detection of all TB cases in Community

B) Including drug resistant TB and HIV associate TB
C) With greater engagement of Private Sector for improving the care of TB patients
D) All of the above.

7. Strategic pillars for national TB control programme is detect-treat-prevent-build.

A)False B)True

8. The national Leprosy Eradication Programme is centrally sponsored health skin Of ….

A) The International Federation of Anti-leprosy Associations.

B) World health organization.
C) The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Govt. of India.
D) Other non Govt. Organizations.
9. National Leprosy control programme (NLCP) was launched …..

A)1983 B)1955 C)1972 D)2015

10. National Leprosy Eradication programme was launched in ….

A)1983 B)1955 C)1972 D)2015

11. What is the main strategy of Govt. of India to fight leprosy in 2012-2013 along with the IEC and
capacity building of the workers and volunteers ?

A) Posting well trained leprosy officer.

B) Providing guidance
C) Conducting house survey
D) Separating moderate and low endemic areas.

12. The Central Leprosy Teaching & Research Institute, Chengalpattu was originally Established in ….

A)1955 B)1998 C)1983 D)1972

13. CENTRAL LEPROSY TEACHING &REASEARCH INSTITUTE (CLTRI) is located in …

A) Chengalpattu , Tamilnadu
B) Raipur , Chattisgarh
C) ASKA, Orissa
D) Gauripur ,West Bengal

14. In 1977 where the regional leprosy teaching and research institute was established ?

A) Gauripur, West Bengal B)Raipur, Chattisgarh C) Chengalpattu, Tamilnadu D) Aska, Orissa

15. When the multidrug therapy (MDT) was introduced in India?

A) 1983 B)1955 C)2005 D)1972

16. What was the biggest achievement of National Leprosy Eradication Programme (NLPC) in 2005 ?

A) Introduced MDT
B) Elimination of Leprosy at National level
C) Special action plan for 209 high endemic districts
D) None of the above.
17. Which of the Following is Strategy for leprosy Elimination in India?

A) Early detection and complete treatment of new cases.

B) Carrying household contact survey in detection of Multibacillary (MB) & child cases
C) Intensive monitoring and supervision at Primary Health Centre/ Community Health Centre
D) All of the above

18. In which year the National Mental Health Program was launched ?

A)2003 B) 1982 C) 2003 D) 1989

19 .In which year the NMHP was re-strategized ?

a. 2017 b. 2000 c. 2003 d. 1982

20.Which schemes are included in the re-strategized program?

A) modernization of mental health B) Upgradation of psychiatric wings of medical colleges

C) Use of mental health technology D)Both a and b

21. The mental health care act 2017 was passed on ------------.

A) 7th April 2017 B)14th may 2017 C) 7th may 2017 D) 14th April 2017

22. How many district does the program cover?

A) 291 B) 321 C) 241 D) 391

23. The Programme NPPCD was initiated in which year?

A)2008 B)2009 C)2007 D)2010

24. Which of the following are the Components of NPPP Programme ?

A)Manpower training and development B)Capacity building

C)Service provision D)All of the above

25.Which was second leading cause for Years lived with Disability(YLD) ?

A)National Programme for control of blindness and visual impairment

B)National Programme for prevention and control of deafness

C)National Tobacco control Programme

D)National Mental health Programme

26. Deafness meant by ..

A)Loss of useful sight B)Loss of the ability to hear C)Both a and b D)None of these

27. The programme NPPCD was initiated on pilot mode in how many districts and state ?

A)27 Districts of 7 State B)25 Districts of 11 State C)30 Districts of 11 State D)25 Districts of 7 State

28. What is full form of YLD?

A)Years lived with disability B)Yaba-like disease C)Young lawyers division D)None of these

29. ------ is the process whereby a person is made immune or resistant to infectious disease typically by
administration of vaccine.

A)Immunization B)Prevention C)Sterilization D)Disinfection

30. India's UIP provide vaccine against ----- life threatening diseases.

A)10 B)11 C)12 D)19

31. Tetanus Toxoid (TT) vaccine is given ------ route.

A)Intradermal B)Intramuscular C)Oral D)All of above

32. BCG vaccine is given -------

A)At the birth or as early as possible till one year B)6 weeks ,10 weeks and 14 weeks

C)early pregnancy D)None of above

33. Measles vaccine given by -----

A)Oral route B)Intramuscular route C)Subcutaneous route D)None of above

34. OPV booster for children given at dose of -----

A) 0.5 ml B)2 drops C)0.1 ml D)None of above

35. ----- is one of the leading cause of severe diarrhea & death among children less than 5 years of age.

A) Poliovirus B)Rotavirus C)Measles D)Diphtheria

36. ------ vaccine is combination of DPT( diphtheria, pertussis/ whopping cough & tetanus)

A) Pentavalent B)Divalent C) Trivalent D)Tetravalent

37. According to revised immunization schedule of pentavalent vaccine for measles and vit A given at ---

A) 9-12 month B)16-24 month C)At birth D)5-6 year

38. Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccine (PCV) was introduced in India's Universal immunization
Programme from the year

A) 2014 B)2016 C) 2017 D)2012

39. IAP stands for ------

A) Indian Academy of Physiotherapy

B) Indian Academy of Pediatrics
C) Indian Association of Pathology
D) None of above

40. Hib stands for ----

A) Human influenza vaccine B)Heamophilus influenza Type ‘b’ vaccine C)Both A and B D)None of above
41. The aim of pulse polio campaign is to

A)Eliminate to polio virus from the area in a single campaign. B)Replace the wild polio virus by vaccine virus in the community

C)Prevent occurrence of poliomyelitis in the child D)Monitor information about children having poliomyelitis.

42. Polio can be eradicated by which of the following?

A)Attention to sewage control and hygiene B)Killed polio vaccine

C)Live polio vaccine D)Combination of the killed and live vaccines

43. Polio always causes paralysis in the infected individual.

A) True B) False

44.Polio continues to be prevalent in –

A)Nigeria, Afghanistan and Pakistan. B)Indonesia and Malaysia.

C)Nowhere – it has been eradicated from all countries. D)Ethiopia, Kenya and Tanzia

45. The poliovirus affects nerves.

A) True B) False

46. The oral polio vaccine contains the live virus.

A)True B)False

47. Pulse Polio Immunization involves vaccination of all children between the ages of 5 and 10 years.

A)True B)False

48. A child who receives all the doses of polio vaccine need not receive additional doses under the Pulse
Polio Programme.

A)True B)False
49. Polio usually affects-

A)Children between 0 to 5 years of age B)Adolescents between 10 and 15 years of age

C)Young adults D)Elderly

50. The oral polio vaccine multiplies in the intestines.

A)True B)False

51. Pulse Polio Immunization programme was launched in

A)1953 B)1958 C)1955 D)1957

52. Which health programme by the President’s office was launched on Republic Day?

A)Pulse Polio Programme 2017 B)National Leprosy Programme 2017

C)National Immunization Programme D)None of the above.

53.India is free from which disease as it has eradicated the virus associated with this strain?

A)Malaria B)Dengue C)Chikungunya D)None of the above .

54.The region where the polio virus multiplies in the body is

A)Intestinal cells B)Nerve cells C)Muscle cells D)None of the above

55. Polio is a disease caused by a ……

A)Toxin B)Bacterium C)Virus D)Fungus.

56. IDSP was launched in which year?

A) 2004 B)2005 C)2006 D)2007

57. How many sites has been established by National Informatics centre?

A) 777 B) 758 C) 768 D) 776

58. The IDSP data was collecting in which formats?

A) S Syndromic B) p Probable C) L Laboratory D) All of these

59. Outbreak has been reported untill which date?

A) 15th March 2015 B) 15th March 2013 C) 15th March 2010 D) 15th March 2004

60.When was National Programme for Control Of Blindness launched?

A)1954 B)1960 C)1976 D)1986

61.Centrally sponsored scheme has the goal to reduce prevelance of blindness from how much %?

A)1.2-0.1% B)1.4-0.3% C)1.3-0.4% D)1.5-0.5%

62. As per survey in 2001-02 blindness was estimated to be

A)1.1% B)1.2% C)1.3% D)1.4%

63. Rapid survey on control of Blindness is conducted under

A)WHO B)NPCB C)World Bank D)Health Ministry

64. What are the main causes of Blindness?

A)Cataract B)Refractive error C)Glaucoma D)Surgical complications E)All of the above

64. SAFE strategy is recommended for control of?

A)Trachoma B)Glaucoma C)Cataract D)Diabetes

65. The commonest cause of low vision in India is?

A)Uncorrected refractive errors B)Cataract C)Glaucoma D)Squint

66. Under NPCB in India, Medical colleges are classified as eye care center of?

A)Primary level B)Secondary level C)Tertiary level D)Intermediate level

UNIT 4
1.Malaria is caused by

a.virus b.bacteria c.protozoa d.All

2.How many people are at the risk of malaria in the world?

a.1.2 million people b 1.2 billon people c.3.2 billon people d.4 million people

3.There is no treatment against malaria

a.true b.false

4.Black water fever is a special manifestation of malaria caused by:

a.p.falciparum b.p.malariae c.p.ovale d.p.vivax

5.Benign quartan (with a fever every 3 Rd day ) malaria is caused by

a.p.malariae b.p.ovale c.p.vivax d.p.falciparum

6.Benign tertian (with a fever every 2nd day ) is caused by

a.p.vivax b.p.ovale c.p.falciparum d.Both a&b

7.Malignant tertian is caused by

a.p.vivax b. p.ovale c.p.falciparum d.Both a&b

8.Trophozoites,schizonts and gametocytes of all the malarial parasite are seen in the peripheral blood
smear except

a.p.falciparum b.p.malariae c.p.ovale d p.vivax

9.The most common of the human infecting malarial parasite is

a.plasmodium ovale b.plasmodium vivax c.plasmodium falciparum d .plasmodium malariae

10.who is the primary host of malarial parasite?

a.Man b. Rat c .Anopheles d.none

11.which of the following is not a synthetic drug to cure malaria?

a.Quinine b.paludrin c.pamaquine d.plasmochin

12.Quartan malaria is caused by

a.plasmodium vivax b.plasmodium ovale c.plasmodium malariae d.plasmodium falciparum

13.Malignant tertian malaria is caused by

a. plasmodium vivax b.plasmodium ovale c.plasmodium malariae d.plasmodium falciparum

14.Symptoms of malaria:

a .Headache, nausea and vomiting b.very high fever and sever chill

c .Abdominal pain Anemia and muscle pain d.All

15.Mosquito responsible for malaria transmission

a.Aedes aegypti b.Aedes albopictus c.Anopheles d.Haemagogus

16.Malaria can be lethal

a.false b.true

17.Malarial parasite is best obtained from a patient

a.An hour after rise temperature b.While temperature is rising sharply

c.After 24 hour’s when temperature is normal d.After temperature become normal

18.The sexual cycle of plasmodium is completed in

a.The gut of mosquito b.RBC c.Liver tissue d. The salivary gland of the mosquito
19.which of the following statement (s) regarding plasmodium falciparum are true?

a.Causes more severe disease in pregnancy b.is the only malarial parasite causing greater than
20%parasitaemia

c.Infection is typically associated with thrombocytopenia d.All

20. National Malaria control program launched during the year....

a.1950 b.1959 c.1953 d.1952

21.I can protect myself from malaria

a.Using mosquito repellent b.Wearing light –colured,long sleeved shirts and trousers

c.Sleeping under insecticide-treated bed nets d.All

22.The greatest number of deaths globally caused by a parasite are due to?

a.Filariasis b.Ascariasis c.Malaria d.Hookworm

23.National policies in older persons adopted by government of India in the year

a.1996 b.1997 c.1998 d.1999

24.Under which section the national policies in older persons adopted by government of India

a.section 20 b.Section 21 c.Section 22 d.None of above

25. The aim of NPHCE includes

a.To provide accessible, affordable,and high –quality long term care services to an Ageing population;

b.To build a framework to create an enabling environment for “a society for all Ages”;

c.To promote the concept of active and healthy Ageing;

d.All

26.The NPHCE was initiated in

a.june,2010 b.June ,2000 c.june,2011 d.June ,2020

27.The NPHCE was launched by

a.ministry of AYUSH b.ministry ofHealth and family welfare c.Both a and b d. none of above

28.NPHCE stands for

a.National programme for healthcare of executives b.Both a and c

c.National programme for Health care of elderly d.none of the above

29.NPHCE has developed the modules for the training of

a.Medical officers geriatric patients b.Staff nurses/geriatric care nurses

c.Community based health workers d.All of the above

30.Government of India has launched the

a.National programme Health care of the executive b.National programme for Health care of elderly

c.both a and b d.none of the above

31.First world Health Day is celebrated on .............

a.7 th April 1949 b.8 th April 1948 c.17 th April 1948 d.7th April 1948

32.Global program on AIDS launched by WHO in which year.....

a.1983 b.1985 c.1987 d.1977

33. Headquarters Of WHO....

a.Delhi b.US c.Geneva d.All

34.The WHO has ........ Member states

a.195 b.193 c.194 d.191

35.The WHO Assembly generally meets in .....each year.

a.June b.March c.May d.April

36.WHO Appoints the Director-general in every......years.

a.3 b.1 c.5 d.6

37. WHO act as the directing and co –ordinating authority on .......

a.International Health work b.National Health work c.Both a and b d.none of the above

38.Each Regional office is heated by a Regional Director; who 0 elected by......

a.General committee b.ethical committee c.Regional committee d.National committee

39.Each Regional committee of WHO consists of all.....head.

a.Department b.health department c.General d.Both b and c

40.WHO promote and conduct research in field of .....

a.Tablets b.Cosmetics c.Health d.Chemical

41.International sanitary Regulations Later renamed as......

a.International sanitary act b.International Regulations of sanitization

c.international health regulations d.none of these

42..WHO’s global compaign to eliminate small pox begun in

a.1962 b.1965 c.1966 d.1967

43.When did WHO reported that smallpox had been eradicated world wide?

a.1965 b.1975 c.1974 d.1979

44.When was the idea for a global health agency proposed at the United Nations conference on
international organization held in California?

a.1947 b.1946 c.1949 d.1948

45.what is health?

a.Antagonist state of mind b.A state of complete physical, mental and social well-being

c.physical fitness d.Merely the absence of disease or infirmity.

46.following are the determinats of social health except?

a.economy b.Goods and services c.Access to education d.Man made luxury

47.Why is their a need of social health?

a.For overall well-being b.For harmony in society

c.To improve quality of life d.All of the above

48.what is social integration?

a.It is felling of an individual’s value in society. b.It is the feeling as a part of society

c.It is a state where an individual or group interact with each other.

d.It is positive comfort level with others.

49.what is the strategy to achieve social health?

a.Develop new relations b.Spend money with friends c.Both a and b d.none of the above.

1.When did Janani Suraksha Yojana launched?

A. 2005 B. 2010 C. 2000 D. 2015

2. What is the main aim of Janani Suraksha Yojana?

A. To provide pensions to widow women B. Reducing maternal and neonatal mortality

C. To provide shelters to poor people D. To encourage people to use safe sexual methods

3. The objective of Maternal health programme is

A. To reduce maternal mortality rate B. To increase the early ANC registration

C. To improve the coverage risk of post partum care D. All of the above

4. Maternal health services can be defined as

A. promoting, preventing, therapeutic or rehabilitation facility or care for mother.

B. Health during pregnancy, childbirth & the period afterwards

C. Both A & B

D. None

5. MCP card is used for

A. Monitoring & improving quality of MCH B. Nutrition Interventions

C. Both D. None

6. List of maternal programmes are

A. Comprehensive abortion care services (CAC) B. Janani suraksha yojana

C. Adolescent Health Programme D. All the above

7. Maternal key indicators include

A. Antenatal check-up B. institutional delivery & delivery by trained and skilled personal

C. post natal care D. All the above

8. Maternal key indicators are monitored regularly by

A. HMIS B. UNICEF C. MDR D. None

9. NRHM involves

A. VHG Village Health Guide B. ASHA(Accredited Social Health Activist)

C. ANM (Auxiliary Nurse Midwife) D. All of the above

10. The child protection scheme is under which ministry

A. Ministry of health and family welfare B. Ministry of Social welfare

C. Ministry of women and child development D. Ministry of education

11. NRHM (National Rural Health Mission) was started by

A. Ministry of Finance B. Ministry of education C. Ministry of Home affairs D. Government of India

12. Data about recent trends of immunization in the community can be found by

A. Sample registration system B. District level health survey C. Rural survey D. Census data

13. Which of the following is not the part of Reproductive Child Health Programme in India?

A. Discourage Sterilization B. Provide client centred, demand driven, & qualitative family planning service

C. Provide RTI/STI services D. Provide preventive & promotive services relating to HIV/AIDS
14. What is Tobacco?

A. Cigarette B. Plant C. Disease D. Pipes

15. Which year India adopted “The Reproductive & Child Health (RCH) programme?

A. 1997 B. 1998 C. 1996 D. 2000

16. Janani-Shishu Suraksha Yojana (JSY) is a scheme operating under which of the national
programmes?

A. ICDS Integrated Child Development Scheme B. NRHM (National Rural Health Mission)

C. NHM (National Health Mission) D. NUHM (National Urban Health Mission)

17. Which are NOT the core strategies of NRHM?

A. Commutisation of Programmes B. Decentralized Planning & Flexible Financing

C. Improved Management Capacity D. Public Health Cadre Scheme

18. Infant Mortality Rate can be defined as

A. Probability of dying before the fifth birthday B. Probability of dying before the first birthday

C. Both a & b D. None of the Above

19. Under-Five Mortality Rate can be defined as

A. Probability of dying before the fifth birthday B. Probability of dying before the first birthday

C. Both a & b D. None of the Above

20. What is the age group of Pulse Polio Immunization?

A. 6-7 years B. 2-6 years C. 0-5 years D. None of the Above

21. The India launched the national family welfare programme in the year?

A. 1945 B. 1952 C. 1949 D. 1950

22. The name of the programme ‘Family Planning’ was replaced to

A. Family Health B. Family Welfare C. Family Health & Welfare D. None of the Above

23. The Universal Immunization programme (UIP) was launched in the year?

A. 1970 B. 1985 C. 1995 D. 1986

24. Mahila swasthya sanghs (MSS) was constituted in year

A. 1992-93 B. 1990-92 C. 1990-91 D. 1989-90

25. Mahila swasthya sanghs consist of

A. Anganwari worker B. Primary school teacher C. Mahila mukhya sevika D. All of the above

26. The universal immunization programme (UIP) was expanded into which project

A. Child survival B. Auxiliary Nurse Midwife C. Child survival and safe motherhood D. none

27. What is the addictive chemical found in tobacco

A. Nicotine B. Tar C. Rat poison D. Carbon monoxide

28. What is a tar to cause?

A. Cancer B. Addiction C. Death D. Feel better

29. in which year Goverment of India launched the NTCP?

A. 2010-11 B. 2009-10 C. 2007-08 D. 2006-07

30. COTPA is an act of Parliament of India enacted in

A. 2004 B. 2005 C. 2002 D. 2003

31. The National Tobacco Program was launched 2007-08 under

A. 10th Five Year Plan B. 11th Five Year Plan C. 12th Five Year Plan D. 13th Five Year Plan

32. Smoking causes

A. Increase in BP B. Decrease in BP C. Both A & B D. None of the Above

33. What is the full form of COTPA?

A. Cigarettes & Other Tobacco Products Act B. Cigarettes of Tobacco Products Act

C. Both A & B D. None of the Above

34. World No Tobacco day is

A. 31st May B. 5 th June C. 9 th August D. 14th August

 UNIT 5
1. What is PHC (Primary Health Care) ?

a.Experimental model b.Conceptual model c.Digital model d.None of above

2. PHC encompasses of

a.Primary Care b.Disease prevention c.Health promotion d.All of the above

3. The Cornerstones of PHC are

a.Access b.Equity c.Essentiality d.All of the above

4. PHC forms an integral part of the country’s

a.Economy system b.Digital system c.Health system d.None of them

5. PHC embides a spirit of and

a.self- confidence, self- determination b.self- reliance, self-determination

c.self- respect, self-determination d.None of above

6. PHC is the first interaction point between and

a.medical officer and village community b.Doctor and peoples

c.medical officer and politicians d.Doctor and staff

7. There is an of 1784 PHC’s in 2014 as compared to those existed in 2005.

a.increase b.decrease c.same d.None of above

8. The Primary Health Centers are established and maintained under by the

a.Minimum needs programme(MNP)/Basic minimum services(BMS) , State govt

b.Minimum needs programme(MNP),Central govt

c.Minimum needs programme(MNP),Medical officers

d.None of the above

9. As per minimum norms,there should be a medical officer supported by and other staff to manage PHC.

a.11 medical staff b.14 Paramedical staff c.15 nursing staff d.All of the above

10. PHC stands for

a.Personal health care center b.Pre Health Care center c.Primary Health Care center d.All of the above

11. There are how many PHC’s functioning in country(as on 31st march 2015).

a.22,000 b.24,000 c.25,000 d.25,020

12.Who defined Primary Health Care?

a.Alma-ata conference b.WHO c.USFDA d.None of the above

13.The Primary Health Care is valid for all countries.

a.increased b.decreased c.equally d.none of above

14.What are the elements of PHC?

a.An adequate supply of water and basic sanitation b.prevention and control of locally endemic disease.

c.provision of essential drugs. d.All of the above

15.One PHC for every population in plain areas.

a.10,000 b.20,000 c.30,000 d.40,000

16. One PHC for every population in hilly,tribal,backward areas.

a.20,000 b.30,000 c.40,000 d.50,000

17. How many primary health care centers are been established?

a.18,900 b.22,370 c.21,560 d.26,980

18.The health care infrastructure in india consist of which health care?

a.primary b.secondary c.Tertiary d.All of the above

19.The primary level of health care includes,

a.community health centers(CHC) b.primary health centers(PHC) c.subcenters (SCs) d.All of the above

20.Sub- district hospitals comes under the category of,

a.primary health care b.secondary health care c.Tertiary health care d.All of the above

21.District hospitals and medical colleges are included in,

a.primary health care b.secondary health care c.Tertiary health care d.None of above

22.With a population of 1.21 billion, India stands at position among the most populous countries in the
world, after China.

a.First b.second c.third d.fourth

23. are responsible for the functioning of health care delivery system.

a.villages b.towns c.districts d.states

24.Responsibilities of health care centers are

a.policy making b.planning and assisting c.providing adequate funds d.All of the above

25.National level health care system is guided by,

a.WHO b.MoHFW (Union Ministry Of Health And Family Welfare) c.USFDA d.None of them

26.There is a state department of Health and Family welfare in each state, guided by

a.prime minister b.health minister c.state minister d.All of them

27.Each regional setup covers districts.

a.1-3 b.2-3 c.3-4 d.3-5

28.Middle-level management of health services is

a.District level structure b.state level structure c.village level structure d.All of the above

29.What does PHC focuses on?

a.Infant immunization programs b.Anti-epidemic programs

c.Birth control programs d.Pregnancy and related cares e.All of the above

30.Infant Immunization program is subsidized.

a.partially b.fully c.partial-full d.None

31.Which care is major focus area for the PHC’s?

a.Anti-epidemic b.Birth control c.Pregnancy d.Infant immunization

32.Is Drug stored in PHC’s for medical emergencies such as antivenoms for snake bites,rabies
vaccination,etc?

a.True b.Flase
33.What are the services provided in PHC as per IPHS?

a.Maternal and child care b.Nutrition services

c.Disease surveillance d.Mainstreaming of AYUSH e.All of the above

34.What are the characteristics of PHC?

a.PHC reflects and evolves from the economic condition

b.PHC is based on application of results of social,biomedical and health services

c.PHC includes education concerning prevailing health problems

d.PHC relies at local and referral levels on health workers

e.All of the above

35.Following are the functions of PHC except-

a.Provision of medical car e b.safe water supply and sanitation c.production of medical devices d.referral services

36.The Central Rural Sanitation Program was started in,

a.1986 b.1987 c.1988 d.1989

37.When was Restructured Total Sanitation Campaign (TSC) initiated?

a.1997 b.1998 c.1999 d.2000

38.The main objectives of TSC are-

a.Bring improvement in quality of life in the rural areas b.Accelerate sanitation coverage in rural areas

c.Encourage cost effective technologies in sanitation d.Awareness creation and health education programs

e. All of the above

39.Does the strategy of TSC is to make the program ‘community-led’ and ‘people-centered’?

a.True b.False

40.Implementation of PHC is proposed on a mode.

a.Project mode b.Experimental mode c.Theorotical mode d.None

41. are made available for preliminary IEC work.

a.Instruments b.Medical staff c.Funds d.All of the above

42.TSC is being implemented with a as unit.

a.State b.District c.Locality d.All of the above

43.The TSC project cycle in the project districts is expected to take about years for implementation.

a.4 years or less b.3 years or less c.4 years or more d.3 years or more

44.Implementation of Total Sanitation Campaign at the district level is done by

a.Gram panchayat b.State government c.Zilla panchayat d.All of the above

45.What are the components of Total Sanitation Campaign program?

a.Start-up and IEC Activities b.Rural sanitary marts(RSM) and production centres

c.Community sanitary complex d.School sanitation and hygiene education e.All of the above

46.Maximum unit cost prescribed for a community complex is upto

a.Rs.1 lakhs b.Rs.2 lakhs c.Rs.3 lakhs d.Rs.4 lakhs

47.Community sanitary complex is an important component of

a.WHO b.PHC (Primary Health Centre) c.TSC (Total Sanitation Campaign) d.Central
Government

48.What forms an integral part of every TSC project?

a.Home sanitation b.Public place sanitation c.Hospital sanitation d.School sanitation

49.Separate toilets for girls and boys should be provided which are treated as two separate units of which
each unit is entitiled to Central assistance upto

a.Rs.10,000 b.Rs.11,000 c.Rs.12,000 d.Rs.13,000

50.Funding for school sanitation in TSC project is provided by central government,state government and
parent teachers in the ratio of

a.40:20:8 b.60:30:10 c.70:40:12 d.All of the above

51. Can also contribute the 10 percent share of parent teachers.

a.Zilla Panchayat b.Central government c.State government d.Gram panchayat

52.Anganwadis/ Balwadis should be provided with a

a.Public toilet b.Baby friendly toilet c.Both a and b d.None of the above

53.As per the constitution 73rd Amendment Act 1992,Sanitation is included in the schedule of the
Constitution of India.

a.9th b.10th c.11th d.12th

54.The TSC will be implemented by the at all levels.

a.private institutions b.panchayati raj institution c.State institution d.All of the above
55.The have an important role in the implementation of TSC in the rural areas.

a.WHO b.PHC c.NGOs d.All of the above

56.To add vigour to TSC implementation ,government of India has separately launched an award scheme
called as

a.Nirmal Gram Puraskar b.Bharat Ratna c.Gram Aadhikar Puraskar d.All of the above

57.The focus of panchayati raj institutions should be on

a.Solid and liquid waste disposal b.Drainage facilities

c.Maintainance of sanitation standard in panchayati raj area d.All of the above

58.Full form of NRHM –

a.National Regional Health Management b.National Rural Health Mission

c.National Regimen Health Montoring d.None of the above

59. As per census 2001, people lived in slum areas.

a.4.12 crore b.4.15 crore c.4.26 crore d.4.54 crore

60.The National Urban Health Mission would aim to improve the of the urban population.

a.health status b.growth status c.economy status d.None of the above

61. is functional for every 50,000 slum population on an average.

a.Rural Health Centre b.urban primary health centre c.Arogya samiti d.All of the above

62.U-CHC stands for

a.Urban Care Health Centre b.Urban Coastal Health Centre

c.Urban Community Health Centre d.Urban Care Human Centre

63.Creation of sub centres has not been envisaged under

a.WHO b.PHC c.TSC d.NUHM (National Urban Health Mission)

64. Serve as an effective and demand generating link between health facility and urban slum population.

a.ASHA Workers b.Doctors c.Pharmacists d.None of the above

65. Act as community group involved in interpersonal communication,community based monitoring and
linkages with the services and referral.

a.ASHA Worker b.Mahila Arogya Samiti c.Doctors d.All of the above

66.Mahila Arogya Samiti Cover around households with an elected chairperson.

a.20-40 b.40-50 c.60-80 d.50-100

67.The availability of IT enabled services (ITES) in the urban areas makes it a useful tool for

a.Effective tracking b.Monitoring c. Timely intervention for urban poor d.All of the above

68. Need to be developed for engagement with private sector.

a.Service level aggrements (SLAs) b.Public private partnership c.ITES d.None of the above

69.Poverty line in India can be considered as

a.Magic bullet b.Magic rope c.Magic line d.None of the above

70. Has been focus of Health care providers.

a.Health promotion b.Medical training c.Health campaign d.All of the above

71.Health education in is one of the method to create awareness among the community.

a.Hospitals b.Markets c.Schools d.streets

72.WHO has defined health promotion in the year

a.2014 b.2015 c.2016 d.2017

73. Framework is an interrealation of health school and all the school environment.

a.Health promoting schools (HPS) b.Education promoting school c.Both a&b d.None of the above

74.The aim of Health promotion programs in schools is to provide opportunity for

a.Physical education b.Nutrition c.Good environment d.All of the above

75.The frame work of health promoting school include

a.Education b.Environment c.Partnership d.All of the above

76.Which of the following are not causing agents of disease?

a.Physical agents b.Biological agents c.Chemical agents d.All of the above

77. Sanitization broadly means,

a.Supporting small scale b.Disposal of human excreta

c.To develop household water treatment and solid waste treatment and solid waste management system

d.Educate people and community

78.What is estimated death linked to poor sanitation and hygiene in rural India?

a.1 in every 10 deaths b.10 in every 50 deaths c.1 in every 100 deaths d.It can’t be estimated
79.The central rural sanitation program was launched in

a.1980 b.1950 c.1986 d.2012

80.The central rural sanitation program was reconstructed in April and renamed as

a.Nirmal Bharat abhiyan b.Nirmal gram abhiyan c.Bhartiya nirmalta abhiyan d.Total sanitation
scheme

81.The first Nirmal Gram Puraskar was given in

a.2005 b.2011 c.2013 d.2012

82.What do you mean by HWT?

a.Household Waste treatment b.Housing waste treatment

c.Housing water management d.Household water treatment

83.The materials required for the construction of sanitary latrines and other sanitary facilities are sold
from

a.Rural sanitization mart b.Rural sanitary mall c.Rural sanitary mart d.Gram panchayat

84.The main objective of the program Is to eradicate 100% open defecation.

a.Nirmal Bharat abhiyan b.Total sanitation campaign

c.Central rural sanitation program d.Open defecation free india

85.Which of the following is objective of community health?

a.Promotion and protection of health i.e. primary level promotion

b.Early diagnosis and treatment and control of further spread of disease i.e. secondary level prevention

c.Control of disability and rehabilitation

d.All of the above

86.The concept of primary health care was introduced at international level jointly by WHO and UNICEF
at the Alma Atta conference in year.

a.1975 b.1978 c.1976 d.1973

87.What was the goal to achieve Alma Atta conference?

a.Basic facility for all b.Sanitization for all c.Health for all d.None of these

88.Required number of population to establish PHC in plain area

a.20,000 b.25,000 c.15,000 d.30,000

89.What are the levels of care in PHC?

a.First level of health care b.Second level of health care c.Tertiary level health care d.All of the above

90.The government of India has launched the national urban health mission as a submission under the
national health mission (NHM) in

a. 1st April 2005 b. 1st May 2007 c. 1st May 2013 d. 1st April 2015

91.NUHM will promote convergence to avoid duplication of resources and efforts.

a.Inter sectoral b.Intra sectoral c.Both d.None

92.Which of the following are major components of coordinated school health?

a.Comprehensive school health education b.Physical education c.Nutrition services d.All of the above