Chapter l Food Choices and Human Health

MULTICHOICE

l. Which of the following conditions is the most responsive to nutrition?

(A) diabetes

(B) iron deficiency anemia

(C) sickle cell disease

(D) heart disease

Answer : (B)

2. What is the name for the study of environmental influences on genetic expression?

(A) epigenetics

(B) genetic counselling

(C) nutritional nucleic acid pool

(D) genetic metabolics

Answer : (A)

3. The integration of nutrition, genomic science, and molecular biology has launched a new area of study.
What is this area of study called?

(A) nutrition genetics

(B) nutritional genomics

(C) nutritional molecular science

(D) nutritional science

Answer : (B)

4. How many classes of nutrients are there?

(A) 2

(B) 4

(C) 6
(D) 8

Answer : (C)

5. Which of the following nutrients is considered organic?

(A) minerals

(B) carbohydrate

(C) water

(D) alcohol

Answer : (B)

6. Which of the following nutrients yields energy and also provides materials that form structures and
working parts of body tissues?

(A) proteins

(B) vitamins

(C) fats

(D) proteins

Answer : (D)

7. Which of the following nutrients is energy-yielding?

(A) carbohydrates

(B) vitamins

(C) water

(D) minerals

Answer : (A)

8. Which of the following statements best defines an "essential" nutrient?

(A) It is necessary for good health and proper functioning of the body.

(B) It can be obtained only from the diet.

(C) It can be manufactured by the body from raw materials.

(D) It can be manufactured by the body itself.

Answer : (B)

9. Which of the following nutrients is the most energy-rich?

(A) fat

(B) protein

(C) minerals

(D) carbohydrate

Answer : (A)

lO. Which of the following units do food scientists use to measure food energy?

(A) units of mass

(B) kilocalories

(C) kilograms

(D) grams

Answer : (B)

ll. Which of the following characteristics applies to alcohol?

(A) It contributes no Calories.

(B) It interferes with repair of body tissues.

(C) It is a nutrient.

(D) It is non-toxic to the body.

Answer : (B)

l2. How many Calories are there in 1 gram of carbohydrate or protein?

(A) 2

(B) 4

(C) 7

(D) 9
Answer : (B)

l3. How many Calories does 1 gram of alcohol provide?

(A) 2

(B) 4

(C) 7

(D) 9

Answer : (C)

l4. How many Calories are there in a food that contains 20 grams of carbohydrate, 8 grams protein, and 5
grams of fat?

(A) 132 Calories

(B) 157 Calories

(C) 231 Calories

(D) 297 Calories

Answer : (B)

l5. When given to severely ill people unable to eat ordinary food, what are elemental diets designed to do?

(A) support life

(B) enable people to thrive

(C) support optimal growth

(D) enhance digestive tract health

Answer : (A)

l6. What class of compound gives hot peppers their burning taste?

(A) nonnutrient

(B) nutrient

(C) supplement
(D) toxin

Answer : (A)

l7. A compound in cranberries may help prevent urinary tract infections by preventing certain bacteria from
clinging to the urinary tract. What is the general term for this type of compound?

(A) functional food

(B) phytochemical

(C) natural food

(D) nutraceutical

Answer : (B)

l8. Which of the following statements most accurately describes items in the supermarket that are advertised
as natural foods?

(A) The food is made from parts of whole foods.

(B) The food is used frequently in most households.

(C) The food is implied to be wholesome, however this is not a legal term.

(D) The food has had nutrients added to improve the nutritional profile.

Answer : (C)

l9. Which of the following statements best defines "enriched" as it is applied to a food product?

(A) The product is low in Calories and high in nutrients.

(B) The product is more expensive to purchase.

(C) The product is superior to similar products.

(D) The product could be either nutritious or not nutritious.

Answer : (D)

2O. Which of the following terms is used to describe a product that has been isolated from food, is often sold in
pill form, and is believed to have medicinal effects?

(A) nutraceutical
(B) nonnutrient

(C) partitioned

(D) phytochemical

Answer : (A)

2l. Sugar, butter, and corn oil provide few nutrients with many Calories. What is the name for these types
of foods?

(A) partitioned

(B) enriched

(C) processed

(D) natural

Answer : (A)

22. In Italy, pasta is an example of what kind of food?

(A) fortified

(B) processed

(C) natural

(D) staple

Answer : (D)

23. A nutritious diet should provide enough of each essential nutrient, enough fibre, and enough energy.
What is the name for this principle of diet planning?

(A) moderation

(B) adequacy

(C) variety

(D) balance

Answer : (B)

24. A certain amount of fibre in foods contributes to the health of the digestive tract, but too much fibre leads to
nutrient losses. What is the term for the characteristic of diet planning
that takes this fact into account?

(A) adequacy

(B) Calorie control

(C) moderation

(D) balance

Answer : (C)

25. What is the term given to the characteristic that suggests a monotonous diet may deliver large amounts of
toxins or contaminants to the body?

(A) adequacy

(B) variety

(C) moderation

(D) balance

Answer : (B)

26. What is the most accurate term used to describe a person who is strict about including only foods from
plant sources in his or her diet?

(A) vegetarian

(B) carnivore

(C) omnivore

(D) vegan

Answer : (D)

27. What is something consumers are looking for in today's meal preparation that takes place in their
own kitchen?

(A) meatless meals

(B) preparation time that takes no longer than 60 minutes

(C) recipes that call for only 4 to 6 ingredients

(D) strict use of organic foods

Answer : (C)

28. Which one of the following factors primarily drives food choices?

(A) genetics

(B) convenience

(C) nutritional value

(D) climate of the country

Answer : (B)

29. What factor is driving food choice when an individual selects a food because the item is consumed by
someone they admire?

(A) values or beliefs

(B) positive associations

(C) social pressure

(D) advertising

Answer : (B)

3O. In which type of study do the investigators not manipulate the study variables of interest but instead monitor
them over time?

(A) cohort study

(B) case-control study

(C) epidemiological study

(D) community health survey

Answer : (A)

3l. What type of nutrition research design shows the effects of treatments?

(A) randomized controlled trials

(B) epidemiological studies

(C) blind experiments

(D) case studies

Answer : (A)

32. What type of research looks for correlations between dietary habits and disease incidence in a
population?

(A) epidemiological study

(B) intervention study

(C) case study

(D) laboratory study

Answer : (A)

33. What section of a research article defines key terms and describes study procedures?

(A) abstract

(B) introduction

(C) methodology

(D) evidence review

Answer : (C)

34. Which of the following is a type of anthropometric information that may be obtained as part of an
individual's nutritional assessment?

(A) glucose level

(B) food intake

(C) body height

(D) health history

Answer : (C)

35. What daily nutrition supplement does the Canadian food guide recommend for men and women over the
age of 50 years?

(A) folic acid

(B) vitamin D
(C) calcium

(D) iron

Answer : (B)

36. What daily nutrition supplement does the Canadian food guide recommend for women of childbearing age?

(A) folic acid

(B) vitamin D

(C) vitamin C

(D) calcium

Answer : (A)

37. You see a new finding about nutrition reported in your local newspaper. What is your most prudent
response to information from this source?

(A) You decide that the information is factual.

(B) You wait until there are confirmed results to apply the finding.

(C) You feel confident about changing your diet accordingly.

(D) You attribute it to media sensationalism.

Answer : (B)

38. Which of the following media is the most credible source of nutrition information?

(A) newspaper articles

(B) health magazines

(C) scientific journals

(D) blogs

Answer : (C)

39. A nutrition claim that insists medical doctors want to keep people ill so that they continue to
make money is an example of which earmark of nutrition quackery?

(A) logic without proof

(B) authority not cited

(C) unpublished studies

(D) persecution claims

Answer : (D)

4O. Which of the following is a benefit of physical activity on the body?

(A) increased lean body tissue

(B) increased risk of cardiovascular diseases

(C) decreased bone density

(D) slower wound healing

Answer : (A)

4l. Which of the following foods offers the most nutrients per Calorie?

(A) diced carrot

(B) ice cream

(C) pork sausage

(D) black coffee

Answer : (A)

42. Three ounces of beef stew offers about the same amount of iron as three ounces of water-packed tuna, but
the beef contains over 300 Calories while the tuna contains about 100 Calories. What is the term for this
difference?

(A) balance

(B) moderation

(C) dietary variety

(D) nutrient density

Answer : (D)

43. What is the name commonly given to an Internet story that gains strength of conviction solely on the
basis of repetition?
(A) advertorial

(B) anecdotal evidence

(C) urban legend

(D) infomercial

Answer : (C)

44. Which of the following organizations accredits university undergraduate and dietetic internship
programs that qualify dietitians to practise?

(A) International Academy of Nutritional Consultants

(B) Canadian Society for Clinical Nutrition

(C) Canadian Association of Nutrition and Dietary Consultants

(D) Dietitians of Canada

Answer : (D)

45. Which of the following functions is the responsibility of provincial dietetic regulatory bodies?

(A) accrediting correspondence schools in dietetics

(B) protecting the public from unsafe dietetic practice

(C) randomly monitoring the competence of members

(D) referring complaints about dietetic members to Dietitians of Canada

Answer : (B)

46. Which of the following characteristics of a claim about nutrition would lead you to doubt its validity?

(A) It appears in a peer-reviewed scientific journal.

(B) It is being made by a registered dietitian.

(C) The evidence supporting the claim is in the form of laboratory tests.

(D) It is written by an individual with certification from a diploma mill.

Answer : (D)
47. Which of the following characteristics defines a legitimate and qualified nutrition expert?

(A) completion of an approved internship or the equivalent

(B) graduation from a college after completing a program of dietetics

(C) using the term nutritionist after the individual's name

(D) graduation from a correspondence program with an internship

Answer : (A)

TRUEFALSE

48. Malnutrition includes deficiencies, imbalances, and excesses of nutrients. Any of these factors can be
harmful over time.

(A) True

(B) False

Answer : (A)

49. A good diet alone will prevent an individual from getting heart disease.

(A) True

(B) False

Answer : (B)

5O. All humans share 99.9% of the human genome.

(A) True

(B) False

Answer : (A)

5l. Alcohol is a nutrient that yields energy for the body.

(A) True

(B) False

Answer : (B)
52. When a hospital client has to be fed through a vein, the duration should be as short as possible and real
food should be reintroduced as early as possible.

(A) True

(B) False

Answer : (A)

53. A basic premise of dietary guidelines is that food should provide nutrients over supplements
whenever possible.

(A) True

(B) False

Answer : (A)

54. Enriched and fortified foods are not necessarily more nutritious than whole basic foods.

(A) True

(B) False

Answer : (A)

55. Cultural traditions regarding food are static and inflexible.

(A) True

(B) False

Answer : (B)

56. Once a new finding is published in a scientific journal, it is considered preliminary.

(A) True

(B) False

Answer : (A)

57. Canada's guidelines for healthy eating include information on diet and physical activity.

(A) True

(B) False

Answer : (A)

Chapter 2 Nutrition Tools Standards and Guidelines

MULTICHOICE

1. Which of the following statements best describes the recommended dietary allowances (RDA)?

(A) they are average nutrient intake goals that meet the needs of nearly all healthy people
(B) they are established when scientific data are insufficient

(C) they are updated annually with new intake values to be followed

(D) they are the minimum requirements needed daily for each nutrient

Answer : (A)

2. Which of the following standards establishes population-wide average requirements used by nutrition
policymakers?

(A) Daily Values (DV)

(B) Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDA)

(C) Recommended Daily Allowances (RDA)

(D) Estimated Average Requirements (EAR)

Answer : (D)

3. Which of the following statements about the dietary reference intakes (DRI) is the most accurate?

(A) they are for healthy individuals

(B) they are based on review of available testimonials

(C) they are published by a committee composed of dietitians

(D) they are maximum requirements, not recommendations

Answer : (A)

4. Which of the following statements about Daily Values (DV) is the most accurate?

(A) they are based on nutrient recommendations for a 3,000-Calorie diet

(B) they are the best way to compare the nutritional content of packaged foods
(C) they are required on Canadian food labels and restaurant menus

(D) they are useful as nutrient intake goals for all adults

Answer : (B)

5. As a result of the basic assumptions made by the Dietary Reference Intakes (DRI) committee, the DRI
recommendations would apply to which of the following individuals?

(A) Cindy, a 21-year-old university student

(B) Harry, a 35-year-old businessman with type 1 diabetes

(C) Robert, a 20-year-old with cystic fibrosis

(D) Joann, a 35-year-old woman who smokes and is a vegetarian

Answer : (A)

6. Why would you suggest that an adult athlete become familiar with tolerable upper intake levels (UL) prior to taking
nutritional supplements?

(A) to avoid using supplements

(B) to prevent illness from nutrient toxicity

(C) to maximize athletic performance

(D) to prevent deficiencies in specific nutrients important for athletes

Answer : (B)

7. What does the absence of a tolerable upper intake level (UL) for a specific nutrient indicate?

(A) all food sources contain acceptable levels of the nutrient

(B) insufficient data exist to establish a value for the nutrient

(C) caution is only required when consuming supplements of the nutrient

(D) it is safe to consume the nutrient in any amount

Answer : (B)

8. According to the Dietary Reference Intakes (DRI) committee, a diet should contain what percentage of its Calories
from carbohydrate?
(A) 10-35

(B) 20-35

(C) 45-65

(D) 50-70

Answer : (C)

9. What is the term used for studies that measure the body's intake and excretion of a nutrient to find out how
much intake is required to balance excretion?

(A) intake study

(B) excretion study

(C) balance study

(D) requirement study

Answer : (C)

10. Which of the following statements best describes Estimated Energy Requirements (EER)?

(A) it provides a generous amount of Calories for healthy individuals to consume each day

(B) the UL for energy is set at 2,000 Calories per day

(C) small amounts of excessive energy consumed daily are of little significance to the body

(D) the value is predicted to maintain body weight for healthy adults

Answer : (D)

11. The appropriate Daily Values for fat, saturated, and trans fatty acids, carbohydrates, fibre, sodium, and
potassium are based on the Institute of Medicine Dietary Reference Intakes (DRI) report for a diet of how many
kilocalories?

(A) 1,500

(B) 2,000

(C) 2,200

(D) 2,500

Answer : (B)
12. The %DV for calcium on food labels in Canada is 1,100 mg. One cup (250 mL) of 2% milk contains about 300 mg
of calcium. What is the %DV for this one cup of milk?

(A) 20%

(B) 23%

(C) 25%

(D) 27%

Answer : (D)

13. According to the Canadian Physical Activity Guidelines for Adults-18-64 years, how much exercise is
recommended for adults to maintain a healthy body?

(A) 20 minutes every day

(B) 30 minutes alternating days

(C) 60 minutes a day

(D) 150 minutes weekly

Answer : (D)

14. Following Canada's Food Guide is intended to reduce your risk for which chronic disease?

(A) osteoporosis

(B) kidney stones

(C) heartburn

(D) arthritis

Answer : (A)

15. Which of the following recommendations does Canada's Food Guide make with regard to oils and fats?

(A) do not consume butter, lard, or shortening

(B) include at least 3 to 4 tbsp (45 to 60 mL) daily

(C) choose soft margarines that are low in saturated fats and trans fats

(D) use vegetable oils such as coconut, olive, and palm kernel
Answer : (C)

16. According to Canada's Food Guide, which of the following food items is considered one food guide serving?

(A) 1 egg

(B) 15 mL peanut butter

(C) 30 g cooked fish

(D) 175 mL cooked legumes

Answer : (D)

17. Which of the following nutrient supplements does Canada's Food Guide recommend daily for healthy adults
over the age of 50 years?

(A) iron

(B) folic acid

(C) vitamin D

(D) calcium

Answer : (C)

18. Which of the following recommendations for pregnant women does the most recent Canada's Food Guide
make?

(A) consume 10 glasses of water every day

(B) take a daily vitamin B6 supplement

(C) take a daily vitamin B12 supplement

(D) take a daily folic acid supplement

Answer : (D)

19. Which of the following is a key nutrient or other food component typically found in vegetables and fruits?

(A) vitamin B12

(B) trans fats

(C) carotenes

(D) proteins

Answer : (C)

20. According to Canada's Food Guide, a daily serving of dark green vegetables is recommended in order to meet the
intake requirements for which of the following nutrients?

(A) vitamin C

(B) vitamin A

(C) folate

(D) iron

Answer : (C)

21. Which type of diet planning tool sorts foods into groups based on their nutrient content?

(A) exchange system

(B) food group plan

(C) controlled Calorie allowance

(D) discretionary allowance pattern

Answer : (B)

22. Which of the following statements about the discretionary Calorie allowance is true?

(A) added fat absorbed by the batter in fried chicken contributes to discretionary Calories

(B) it must be spent on nutrient-dense foods composed primarily of water

(C) the more physical activity completed the fewer discretionary Calories available

(D) it should be consumed even if the person is trying to lose weight

Answer : (A)

23. When carbohydrate counting, how many grams of carbohydrate is equivalent to one carbohydrate serving in
accordance with the Canadian Diabetes Association meal planning guide approach?

(A) 5
(B) 10

(C) 15

(D) 20

Answer : (C)

24. Which of the following classes of lipids must be listed on food labels in Canada?

(A) monounsaturated fat

(B) omega-3 fats

(C) cholesterol

(D) polyunsaturated fat

Answer : (C)

25. What number of core food components must be listed on the Nutrition Facts panel on a food label in Canada?

(A) 10

(B) 11

(C) 12

(D) 13

Answer : (D)

26. You are speaking to a group of consumers about ways to use food labels to choose healthy foods in the
grocery store. Which of the following points would you emphasize during your presentation?

(A) understanding that the %DV are based on a 3,000-Calorie diet

(B) using the grams on the labels to calculate percentages for Daily Values

(C) comparing the number of food additives in a product

(D) understanding the descriptor terms used on food labels

Answer : (D)

27. How many grams of fibre must a food contain for it to be considered a "very high"
source of fibre?

(A) 2 grams or more

(B) 4 grams or more

(C) 6 grams or more

(D) 8 grams or more

Answer : (C)

28. A diet-related health claim on a food label is acceptable for which of the following health conditions?

(A) diabetes

(B) food allergy

(C) high blood pressure

(D) celiac disease

Answer : (C)

29. Which of the following nutrients should be limited to 5% or less of the %DV on a food label?

(A) iron

(B) folate

(C) calcium

(D) sodium

Answer : (D)

30. What is the name for the type of fat in butter, milk, and other dairy products that has shown some healthful
biological activity in animal studies?

(A) omega 12 fatty acid

(B) essential fatty acid

(C) miso fatty acid

(D) conjugated linoleic acid

Answer : (D)

31. What is the name of the phytochemical contained in black-eyed peas, grapes, lentils, and wine that may inhibit
carcinogen activation and cancer promotion?

(A) organosulphur compounds

(B) indoles

(C) tannins

(D) phytic acid

Answer : (C)

32. Which of the following phytochemicals is contained in whole grains, fruits, vegetables, herbs, spices, teas, and
red wine?

(A) lignans

(B) flavonoids

(C) lutein

(D) carotenoids

Answer : (B)

33. What phytochemical has been attributed to lower rates of osteoporosis and heart disease in Asian people living in
Asia?

(A) phytoestrogen

(B) carotenoid

(C) flavonoid

(D) lycopene

Answer : (A)

34. Which of the following foods is a source of lycopene?

(A) garlic

(B) watermelon

(C) peanuts
(D) red wine

Answer : (B)

35. What is the name of the compound contained in flaxseed that is converted into biologically active
phytoestrogens by bacteria in the human intestine?

(A) lignans

(B) lycopene

(C) genistein

(D) lutein

Answer : (A)

36. Which of the following sources of phytochemicals is the best and safest for consumers?

(A) supplements

(B) herbal remedies

(C) whole foods

(D) organic foods

Answer : (C)

37. Which of the following is the name for a fermented liquid yogurt beverage?

(A) keratin

(B) kelphate

(C) kale

(D) kefir

Answer : (D)

TRUEFALSE

38. Recommendations for vitamins and minerals, carbohydrates, fibre, lipids, proteins, and energy have been
published by the Dietary Reference Intakes (DRI) committee.

(A) True
(B) False

Answer : (A)

39. The absence of a tolerable upper intake level (UL) for a nutrient implies that it is safe to consume in any amount.

(A) True

(B) False

Answer : (B)

40. On average, consuming 100% of the Dietary Reference Intakes (DRI) for every nutrient ensures adequate intake over
time.

(A) True

(B) False

Answer : (A)

41. The primary difference between recommendations for nutrient intakes and values set for energy intake is that the
value for energy intake is generous.

(A) True

(B) False

Answer : (B)

42. Canada's Food Guide is intended for healthy people aged 2 years and older.

(A) True

(B) False

Answer : (A)

43. The ingredient list on packaged foods must be listed in ascending order by weight.

(A) True

(B) False

Answer : (B)

Chapter 3 The Remarkable Body

MULTICHOICE

l. Which of the following descriptions best represents cells?

(A) speed up chemical reactions

(B) building blocks of the body

(C) vital components of foods

(D) self-contained living entities

Answer : (D)

fi. Along with oxygen, what is one of the cells' most basic needs?

(A) alcohol

(B) energy

(C) proteins

(D) fats

Answer : (B)

3. On average, how often do the cells lining the digestive tract replace themselves?

(A) every 3 days

(B) every fi weeks

(C) every 4 months

(D) every 1fi months

Answer : (A)

4. Which of the following types of cells are unable to reproduce and are lost forever if damaged by injury or
disease?

(A) red blood cells

(B) muscle cells

(C) brain cells

(D) skin cells

Answer : (C)

5. Which of the following body components determines the nature of the cell's work?

(A) genes

(B) enzymes

(C) red blood cells

(D) organs

Answer : (A)

6. What do cells release as a waste product from the burning of oxygen and nutrients?

(A) water

(B) glycogen

(C) amino acids

(D) carbon dioxide

Answer : (D)

7. Which of the following fluids moves from the bloodstream into tissue spaces?

(A) blood

(B) lymph

(C) plasma

(D) intracellular fluid

Answer : (B)

8. Which one of the following organs chemically alters materials so that they can be used by other tissues?

(A) gallbladder

(B) small intestine

(C) kidneys
(D) liver

Answer : (D)

P. Which of the following hormones is released by the pancreas in response to a high concentration of blood sugar (glucose)?

(A) insulin

(B) grehlin

(C) glucagon

(D) epinephrine

Answer : (A)

l0. What is the name for the hormone and the organ that respond to a drop in blood glucose levels in the body?

(A) glycogen and liver

(B) insulin and liver

(C) glucagon and pancreas

(D) thyroxin and thyroid

Answer : (C)

ll. What is the name for the hormone released by the small intestine and signals the pancreas to release pancreatic fluid for
the digestion process?

(A) pepsin

(B) proteases

(C) secretin

(D) cholecystokinin

Answer : (C)

lfi. Which of the following body changes occurs as part of the stress response?

(A) liver releases glucose from its stores

(B) muscles relax

(C) digestive system slows down

(D) blood pressure decreases

Answer : (A)

l3. Which of the following coordinates the nervous system's role in hunger regulation?

(A) liver

(B) pancreas

(C) spinal cord

(D) brain

Answer : (D)

l4. Why might a person be able to eat when hunger sensation is absent?

(A) the stomach intensifies its contractions and creates hunger pangs

(B) the conscious mind of the cortex can override body signals

(C) the digestive tract sends messages to the hypothalamus

(D) the hypothalamus anticipates the availability of nutrients

Answer : (B)

l5. What is the name for the part of the brain that senses a variety of conditions in the blood, such as
glucose content and salt content?

(A) cerebrum

(B) pituitary gland

(C) hypothalamus

(D) frontal lobe

Answer : (C)

l6. What is the term used to describe proteins made by the immune system that combine with and inactivate specific antigens?

(A) phagocytes
(B) helper T-cells

(C) antibodies

(D) microbes

Answer : (C)

l7. Which of the following cells is the first to defend the body tissues against invaders?

(A) phagocytes

(B) T-cells

(C) lymphocytes

(D) B-cells

Answer : (A)

l8. Which cells release antibodies into the bloodstream to fight infection?

(A) helper T-cells

(B) T-cells

(C) A-cells

(D) B-cells

Answer : (D)

lP. Which of the following poses a formidable obstacle to a successful organ transplant?

(A) antibodies

(B) T-cells

(C) B-cells

(D) phagocytes

Answer : (B)

fi0. What is the name of the disease in which the body's helper T-cells are attacked and destroyed?

(A) cystic fibrosis

(B) AIDS

(C) muscular dystrophy

(D) diabetes

Answer : (B)

fil. Which of the following hormones is thought to be a "hunger hormone"?

(A) secretin

(B) gastrin

(C) grehlin

(D) glucagon

Answer : (C)

fifi. What is the major role of the process known as peristalsis?

(A) making chyme

(B) pushing food through the digestive tract

(C) helping nutrients pass into the lymph system

(D) reabsorbing water

Answer : (B)

fi3. Human taste buds have an inborn aversion for which of the following food items?

(A) pears

(B) pudding

(C) broccoli

(D) fruit juice

Answer : (C)

fi4. Which of the following functions does the pancreas perform?

(A) manufactures enzymes to digest all energy-yielding nutrients

(B) adds acid and fluid to the large intestine

(C) reabsorbs water and minerals

(D) conducts bile to the small intestine

Answer : (A)

fi5. What is the primary task of the colon during digestion and absorption of food?

(A) reabsorption of water

(B) neutralizing stomach acid

(C) absorption of vitamins

(D) breakdown of proteins

Answer : (A)

fi6. What is the major site of digestion and absorption of nutrients?

(A) mouth

(B) small intestine

(C) large intestine

(D) stomach

Answer : (B)

fi7. What is the name of the muscle that is responsible for controlling the release of partly digested food into the small intestine?

(A) esophageal sphincter

(B) intestinal valve

(C) pyloric valve

(D) colon valve

Answer : (C)

fi8. In what part of the body does chemical digestion begin?

(A) stomach

(B) mouth
(C) liver

(D) small intestine

Answer : (B)

fiP. The stomach's main function is the digestion of what nutrient or nonnutrient?

(A) carbohydrate

(B) fat

(C) fibre

(D) protein

Answer : (D)

30. Vou have just consumed a meal very high in fat. As a result, hormones cause the release of what substance?

(A) bile

(B) hydrochloric acid

(C) mucus

(D) bicarbonate

Answer : (A)

3l. Which of the following compounds is released in an effort to neutralize the acidic contents of the stomach before entering
the small intestine?

(A) bile

(B) chyme

(C) gastric juice

(D) bicarbonate

Answer : (D)

3fi. The lymphatic vessels are initially responsible for transporting which of the following products of digestion?

(A) fat
(B) protein

(C) minerals

(D) carbohydrate

Answer : (A)

33. As a person becomes malnourished, the absorptive surface of the small intestine responds in which of the
following ways?

(A) expands in length

(B) becomes more efficient at its job

(C) shrinks in size

(D) remains unchanged

Answer : (C)

34. What is the common name for the burning sensation in the chest area caused by backflow of stomach acid
into the esophagus?

(A) hernia

(B) hiccups

(C) ulcer

(D) heartburn

Answer : (D)

35. Which of the following advice about reducing intestinal gas is the most accurate?

(A) rinse canned beans before consuming them

(B) chew gum between meals

(C) suck on hard candies after eating a fatty meal

(D) increase consumption of carbonated beverages

Answer : (A)

36. What should you do to alleviate heartburn?

(A) drink liquids during meals

(B) wear tight fitting clothing

(C) eat smaller meals

(D) lie down after meals

Answer : (C)

37. Which of the following recommendations would assist most with the long-term alleviation of constipation?

(A) take a laxative

(B) drink enough water

(C) limit physical activity

(D) consume foods with starch

Answer : (B)

38. How long does it take for the liver's glycogen supply to be depleted if it is not replenished by food?

(A) 1-3 hours

(B) 3-6 hours

(C) 4-8 hours

(D) 6-9 hours

Answer : (B)

3P. Which of the following foods do you need to consume in intervals throughout the day?

(A) fat-containing foods

(B) mineral-rich foods

(C) vitamin-rich foods

(D) carbohydrate-containing foods

Answer : (D)
40. The body is able to store potentially large amounts of which nutrient?

(A) fat

(B) water

(C) protein

(D) glycogen

Answer : (A)

4l. What are the recommended limits for the consumption of alcohol for the average-sized healthy woman?

(A) s drinks per day

(B) 4 drinks on any occasion

(C) 10 drinks per week

(D) 15 drinks per month

Answer : (C)

4fi. What is the percentage of alcohol in 90 proof liquor?

(A) 10%

(B) 45%

(C) 6s%

(D) 90%

Answer : (B)

43. Which of the following is considered one alcoholic drink?

(A) 50 mL (fi oz) shotglass of vodka

(B) 142 mL (5 oz) glass of wine

(C) fi50 mL (4 oz) can of beer

(D) 500 mL (8 oz) bottle of wine cooler

Answer : (B)
44. Which of the following situations is most likely to make a person intoxicated almost immediately when drinking
alcoholic beverages?

(A) when drinks are mixed with very little water

(B) when carbohydrate snacks are consumed at the same time

(C) when drinks are consumed quickly

(D) when the stomach is empty

Answer : (D)

45. Which of the following organs makes most of the body's alcohol-processing machinery?

(A) brain

(B) stomach

(C) pancreas

(D) liver

Answer : (D)

46. How does alcohol affect body functions?

(A) it strengthens the body's defences against infection

(B) it slows down the synthesis of fatty acids

(C) it alters amino acid metabolism

(D) it decreases urine output

Answer : (C)

47. Which of the following actions will restore sobriety in someone who has been drinking alcohol?

(A) drinking coffee

(B) eating food

(C) walking

(D) passing of time

Answer : (D)
48. Which vitamin is most dramatically affected by excess alcohol in the body?

(A) vitamin A

(B) folate

(C) thiamine

(D) vitamin B6

Answer : (B)

4P. What medical condition could be suspected for an individual who reports regularly consuming large amounts of
alcohol, has inadequate food intake, and shows signs of poor muscle coordination, paralysis of the eye muscles, and
damaged nerves?

(A) Wernicke-Horsakoff syndrome

(B) osteoporosis

(C) heart disease

(D) stomach ulcer

Answer : (A)

TRUEFALSE

50. Cells form tissues that perform specialized tasks. Tissues are grouped together to form whole organs.

(A) True

(B) False

Answer : (A)

5l. Body fluids provide tissues with a continuous supply of energy, oxygen, and nutrients, including water.

(A) True

(B) False

Answer : (A)

5fi. Timing of meals is important because the digestive tract is unable to digest food at
certain times.

(A) True

(B) False

Answer : (B)

53. The body's saliva is strongly acidic.

(A) True
(B) False

Answer : (B)

54. Alcohol needs assistance from digestive juices to ready it for absorption.

(A) True

(B) False

Answer : (B)

55. The body stores some nutrients in much smaller quantities than other nutrients.

(A) True

(B) False

Answer : (A)

Chapter 4 The Carbohydrates Sugar Starch Glycogen and Fibre

MULTICHOICE

l. Which of the following animal-derived foods contains significant amounts of carbohydrates?

(A) poultry

(B) beef

(C) eggs

(D) milk

Answer : (D)

fi. Which of the following monosaccharides is responsible for the sweet taste of fruit?

(A) glucose

(B) galactose

(C) sucrose

(D) fructose

Answer : (D)

3. Which of the following sugars is formed when fructose and glucose are bonded together?

(A) fruit sugar

(B) table sugar

(C) malt sugar

(D) milk sugar

Answer : (B)
4. What is the name of the most-used monosaccharide inside the body?

(A) glucose

(B) fructose
(C) lactose

(D) galactose

Answer : (A)

5. Which of the following sugars is found in germinating seeds?

(A) maltose

(B) glucose

(C) sucrose

(D) fructose

Answer : (A)

6. Which of the following foods contains fructose?

(A) milk

(B) soft drinks

(C) potatoes

(D) germinating seeds

Answer : (B)

7. Which of the following carbohydrate sources is considered a polysaccharide?

(A) glycogen

(B) fructose

(C) starch

(D) galactose

Answer : (C)

8. Which of the following statements best describes glycogen?

(A) easily detectable in meat once an animal has been slaughtered

(B) a major source of complex carbohydrate found in food

(C) the body's storage form of glucose

 (D) the indigestible parts of plant foods

Answer : (C)

P. What group of fibres is often gummy and used to add thickness to foods?

(A) nonviscous

(B) digestible

(C) total

(D) soluble

Answer : (D)

l0. What viscous fibre is used to give jam its gelling quality?

(A) guar gum

(B) cellulose

(C) pectin

(D) psyllium

Answer : (C)

ll. Which of the following foods is considered a source of soluble fibre?

(A) oatmeal

(B) strings of celery

(C) wheat bran

(D) skins of corn kernels

Answer : (A)

lfi. Which of the following food items contains cellulose and hemicellulose?

(A) brown rice

(B) sesame seeds

(C) chickpeas

(D) oats
Answer : (B)

l3. According to the Dietary Reference Intakes (DRI), what is the recommended range of daily carbohydrate consumption
for healthy adults?

(A) 45-50%

(B) 50-60%

(C) 40-60%

(D) 45-65%

Answer : (D)

l4. What is the preferred fuel for most body functions?

(A) fat

(B) ketones

(C) carbohydrate

(D) protein

Answer : (C)

l5. Which of the following foods would you choose as the most effective stool-softening agent?

(A) wheat bran

(B) legumes

(C) carrots

(D) oat bran

Answer : (A)

l6. Vou are teaching clients how to lower their blood cholesterol levels by consuming foods high in fibre. Which of the
following foods would you recommend for this purpose?

(A) barley

(B) brown rice

(C) whole-wheat bread

(D) banana

Answer : (A)

l7. Which of the following conditions or diseases does insoluble fibre protect against?

(A) cataracts

(B) osteoporosis

(C) muscular dystrophy

(D) appendicitis

Answer : (D)

l8. What is the term used to describe a painful condition in which inflamed pouches of the intestinal wall extend or balloon out?

(A) irritable bowel syndrome

(B) hemorrhoids

(C) diverticulitis

(D) constipation

Answer : (C)

lP. Which of the following effects does total fibre intake have on the human body?

(A) increases cholesterol and glucose levels

(B) initiates cancers of the colon and rectum

(C) alleviates constipation and decreases risk for hemorrhoids

(D) promotes weight gain and a feeling of fullness

Answer : (C)

fi0. According to the Dietary Reference Intakes (DRI) recommendations, how many grams of dietary fibre is an adequate daily
intake for women aged 19 to 50 years?

(A) 21 grams

(B) 25 grams
(C) 30 grams

(D) 38 grams

Answer : (B)

fil. What is the term used to describe the small fat fragments produced by the fermenting action of bacteria on soluble fibres?

(A) binder

(B) granule

(C) butyrate

(D) chelating agent

Answer : (C)

fifi. What part of the wheat grain contains the most fibre?

(A) endosperm

(B) chaff

(C) germ

(D) bran

Answer : (D)

fi3. What part of the wheat grain are we eating when consuming refined white bread?

(A) endosperm

(B) chaff

(C) germ

(D) bran

Answer : (A)

fi4. Which of the following descriptions best explains the process of enriching foods?

(A) adding nutrients to a food to increase the health properties

(B) removing the coarse parts of food products

(C) adding back the endosperm that was bleached for softness and whiteness

(D) replacing nutrients in foods that may have been lost in processing

Answer : (D)

fi5. Which of the following statements is accurate regarding the nutritional value of whole- wheat bread compared to white
bread?

(A) white bread has been fortified with iron, niacin, riboflavin, thiamin, and folate

(B) white bread has less starch from the endosperm

(C) whole-wheat bread is higher in protein content than white bread

(D) whole-wheat bread contains a protective fibrous coating around a grain

Answer : (D)

fi6. Which of the following nutrients is required by Canadian law to be added to refined grain products?

(A) riboflavin

(B) pyridoxine

(C) calcium

(D) magnesium

Answer : (A)

fi7. What approach has been used by some food manufacturers to create "low carbohydrate" bread?

(A) slicing bread thinly

(B) adding inulin fibre

(C) including salt as an ingredient

(D) using lower-starch wheat fibre

Answer : (A)

fi8. What is a potential harmful side effect of consuming too much fibre?

(A) excessive absorption of iron

(B) dehydration

(C) extreme energy intake

(D) deficient cholesterol levels

Answer : (B)

fiP. Which of the following micronutrients can be destroyed by chelating agents?

(A) iron

(B) selenium

(C) phosphorous

(D) folate

Answer : (A)

30. What term is used to describe the attractive appearance, aroma, and taste of carbohydrate-containing foods
when exposed to heat?

(A) browning

(B) fermentation

(C) preservative

(D) viscosity

Answer : (A)

3l. If 1/2 cup (125 mL) of chili contains 6 grams of fibre, how much fibre would you consume from 1½ cups (375 mL)
of chili?

(A) 9 grams

(B) 12 grams

(C) 15 grams

(D) 18 grams

Answer : (D)

3fi. What is the name for the fraction of starch found in raw potatoes that is either digested slowly or not at all?
(A) resistant starch

(B) raw starch

(C) complex starch

(D) negative starch

Answer : (A)

33. Where in the body does the digestion of most starch begin?

(A) esophagus

(B) mouth

(C) small intestine

(D) stomach

Answer : (B)

34. Which of the following statements most accurately describes the process of breaking down complex carbohydrate in
the body?

(A) starch digestion ceases in the stomach

(B) digestion of starch begins in the small intestine

(C) salivary enzymes split starch into fructose

(D) starch undergoes one split to yield free monosaccharides

Answer : (A)

35. After chewing a piece of bread for a while, you begin to experience a slightly sweet taste. What is contributing to
this new taste sensation?

(A) liberation of maltose from starch

(B) abnormal use of the carbohydrate in bread

(C) sucrose used in bread making

(D) a symptom of diabetes

Answer : (A)
36. Which of the following foods would be the most acceptable for a person with lactose intolerance?

(A) ice cream

(B) aged cheese

(C) low fat cottage cheese

(D) milk

Answer : (B)

37. Which of the following foods would be the best calcium source for an adult with a milk allergy?

(A) yogurt

(B) canned salmon with bones

(C) orange juice

(D) aged cheese

Answer : (B)

38. What metabolic pathway takes place in the cytoplasm of cells and releases a small amount of energy by splitting
glucose in half?

(A) ketosis

(B) glycolysis

(C) Hrebs cycle

(D) protein-sparing action

Answer : (B)

3P. What is the name used for the acidic fat-related compounds that develop in the body from the incomplete breakdown
of fat in the absence of carbohydrate?

(A) ketone bodies

(B) glucose bodies

(C) lactic bodies

(D) pH bodies
Answer : (A)

40. Approximately how many grams of carbohydrate per day are needed to feed the brain and reduce ketosis?

(A) 50 grams

(B) 75 grams

(C) 100 grams

(D) 130 grams

Answer : (D)

4l. What is the first organ to respond when the blood glucose level rises after a meal?

(A) pancreas

(B) stomach

(C) gallbladder

(D) liver

Answer : (A)

4fi. Which of the following foods causes blood sugar to rise the highest, shortly after consumption?

(A) brown rice

(B) white bread

(C) ice cream

(D) peanuts

Answer : (B)

43. What is the name for the scale that measures and ranks the extent to which a food raises the blood glucose level and
elicits an insulin response as compared to its response to pure glucose?

(A) insulin index

(B) glycemic index

(C) hypoglycemic index

(D) digestibility index

Answer : (B)

44. Which of the following beverages is an ideal choice after exercising?

(A) caffeine-enriched drinks

(B) carbonated diet soda

(C) diluted fruit punch

(D) chocolate milk

Answer : (D)

45. A friend complains of cravings for sweets, excessive thirst and urination, weakness, and blurred vision. What condition
might these symptoms indicate?

(A) milk allergy

(B) hypoglycemia

(C) lactose intolerance

(D) diabetes

Answer : (D)

46. Which of the following statements most accurately describes type 1 diabetes?

(A) the immune system attacks the cells of the pancreas

(B) the pancreas produces too much insulin

(C) the person is usually overweight

(D) type 1 diabetes is controlled by diet only

Answer : (A)

47. Type fi diabetes can be described by which of the following characteristics?

(A) the symptoms are relatively severe at diagnosis

(B) primarily diagnosed in children with low body fatness

(C) the body's cells resist insulin's action

(D) treatment requires insulin injections

Answer : (C)

48. What is the term used to describe the condition in which blood glucose levels are higher than normal, yet below the
values to be diagnosed with diabetes?

(A) glucagon intolerance

(B) insulin resistance

(C) hypoglycemia

(D) prediabetes

Answer : (D)

4P. Which of the following people would be most likely to develop type fi diabetes?

(A) an obese man

(B) a thin teenager

(C) a newborn baby

(D) a pregnant woman

Answer : (A)

50. The effects of poorly managed diabetes can be severe and include which of the following conditions?

(A) asthma

(B) osteoporosis

(C) lactose intolerance

(D) kidney disease

Answer : (D)

5l. Which of the following actions would be the most helpful in the prevention of type fi diabetes?

(A) restricting caffeine intake

(B) taking oral hypoglycemic agents

(C) maintaining a healthy body weight

(D) consuming refined grains

Answer : (C)

5fi. Which of the following symptoms is experienced by an individual with postprandial hypoglycemia?

(A) increased urination

(B) increased energy

(C) increased dizziness

(D) increased concentration

Answer : (C)

53. Which of the following dietary approaches would be most likely to relieve symptoms of postprandial hypoglycemia?

(A) eating regularly timed meals

(B) drinking a glass of wine with meals

(C) limiting the intake of complex carbohydrates

(D) consuming balanced meals containing simple sugars

Answer : (A)

54. Which one of the following foods contains carbohydrate?

(A) milk

(B) eggs

(C) chicken breast

(D) olive oil

Answer : (A)

55. Which type of sugar contains 95% pure sucrose?

(A) confectioner's sugar

(B) granulated sugar

(C) brown sugar

(D) invert sugar

Answer : (C)

56. What could you do to magnify the sweetness of foods without increasing Calorie intake?

(A) add a tiny pinch of pepper

(B) use honey in place of sucrose

(C) replace sucrose with a sugar substitute

(D) serve the food at room temperature

Answer : (C)

57. The World Health Organization advises individuals to consume a maximum of what percentage of their total
daily Calories from added sugar?

(A) 5%

(B) 8%

(C) 10%

(D) 12%

Answer : (C)

58. What is the main determinant for causing dental caries?

(A) the amount of protective enamel on teeth

(B) the length of time food stays in the mouth

(C) how acidic the food item is

(D) the bacterial content of the food

Answer : (B)

5P. Which of the following foods may be helpful in minimizing the effect of acids on teeth
and in restoring damaged tooth enamel?

(A) crackers

(B) potato chips

(C) spinach

(D) cheese

Answer : (D)

60. Which of the following synthetic sweeteners should be avoided by individuals with phenylketonuria (PHU)?

(A) neotame

(B) aspartame

(C) saccharin

(D) sucralose

Answer : (B)

6l. Which of the following artificial sweeteners is obtained from a naturally sweet herb?

(A) sucralose

(B) aspartame

(C) stevia

(D) saccharin

Answer : (C)

6fi. In Canada, which of the following products is restricted to use as a tabletop sweetener on the advice of a physician?

(A) tagatose

(B) aspartame

(C) cyclamate

(D) stevia

Answer : (C)
TRUEFALSE

63. Green plants make carbohydrate through photosynthesis.

(A) True

(B) False

Answer : (A)

64. Carbohydrate has been rightly accused of being the fattening ingredient of foods; therefore, we need to
consume fewer starchy foods.

(A) True

(B) False

Answer : (B)

65. The adequate intake of fibre for a healthy 40-year-old man is 25 grams of total fibre daily.

(A) True

(B) False

Answer : (B)

66. The term "brown bread" on a label is a guarantee that the bread has been made with whole-grain flour.

(A) True

(B) False

Answer : (B)

67. The glycemic index and glycemic load of foods may be important to people with diabetes, who must strive to
regulate blood glucose control.

(A) True

(B) False

Answer : (A)

68. Populations whose diets have no more than 10 percent of Calories from sugar have a low prevalence of dental caries.
 (A) True

(B) False

Answer : (A)

6P. Sugar alcohols contain ethanol and other intoxicants.

(A) True

(B) False

Answer : (B)

70. Current evidence indicates that moderate intakes of artificial sweeteners pose no health risks for adults.

(A) True

(B) False

Answer : (A)

7l. Bacteria produce acid for 20 to 30 minutes after exposure to sugar.

(A) True

(B) False

Answer : (A)

7fi. Milk allergy is a serious problem related to lactose intolerance

(A) True

(B) False

Answer : (B)

Fred would like to get some reliable information about weight loss. Which source listed below do you think would
be best for Fred to use?
a. an infomercial about a weight-loss drug
b. his neighbour's experience with successful weight loss
c. the Dietitians of Canada website describing ways to lose weight
d. a weight-loss program on the net describing the many experiences of people who have successfully lost weight
e. an article found in a fitness magazine

Which of the following characteristics or classes best describe a carbohydrate?

a. organic, nutrient-yielding, nonessential
 b. organic, nutrient-yielding
c. inorganic, nutrient-yielding
d. essential, organic
e. inorganic, essential
Hide Feedback
Milk has more calcium per calorie than ice cream, therefore for calcium which of the following is higher?
a. balance
b. dietary variety
c. nutrient moderation
d. Calorie control
e. nutrient density

Nutrition recommendations in Canada's Food Guide include the following except:

a. Limiting foods high in calories.
b. Limiting sodium.
c. Making water a drink of choice.
d. Drinking alcohol with meals.
e. Replacing saturated fat with unsaturated fat.

Which of the following concepts will help you meet your nutrient needs while reducing your Calorie intake?
a. balance
b. Calorie control
c. nutrient moderation
d. dietary variety
e. nutrient density

A scoop of premium ice cream has 5 grams of protein, 21 grams of carbohydrate, and 22 grams of fat. How many
total Calories will this provide?
a. 48
b. 100
c. 104
d. 192
e. 302

What do consumers today value so highly that they are willing to spend over half of their food budget on meals that
require little or no preparation?
a. availability
b. convenience
c. social pressure
d. advertising
e. weight
What type of research studies populations and can reveal a correlation?
a. clinical studies
b. case studies
c. epidemiological studies
d. intervention studies
e. laboratory studies

A major guideline for healthy people is to keep fat intake within the range of what percent of total calories?
a. 10–20
 b. 15–25
c. 20–40
d. 20–35
e. 25–40

For a food to be labelled "low in fat," which of the following must it contain?
a. less than 0.5 grams of fat per serving
b. 25% less fat than the usual product
c. 3 grams of fat or less per serving
d. less than 95 mg of cholesterol per serving
e. 25 percent or fewer Calories from fat

Which of the following people would NOT be covered by the DRI values?
a. Tim, a 20-year-old vegetarian
b. Karen, a 36-year-old pregnant woman
c. Joe, a 50-year-old who has inflammatory bowel disease
d. Ann, a 5-year-old who refuses to eat vegetables
e. Kelly, a 30-year-old woman who is an avid athlete

To increase your intake of tannins, you should increase your intake of which of the following?
a. whole-wheat bread
b. hot peppers
c. turmeric
d. lentils
e. tomatoes

Food labels must state the contents of which of the following nutrients expressed as a percentage of the Daily
Values?
a. soluble fibre
b. sodium
c. vitamin K
d. vitamin B6
e. total calories
Hide Feedback

According to the acceptable macronutrient distribution ranges (AMDR), what percentage of total Calories should
come from carbohydrate?
a. 45 to 65 percent
b. It depends on the type of carbohydrate—refined or whole grain.
c. 20 to 35 percent
d. 10 to 35 percent
e. 50 to 75 percent

Eating more of which food is a sure way to consume more phytochemicals?

a. milk
b. bread
c. lean fish
d. cheese
e. fruit

Which organ releases insulin when it detects a high concentration of the blood's sugar, glucose?
 a. pancreas
b. liver
c. hypothalamus
d. kidneys
e. gallbladder

Which vitamin is the most dramatically affected by excess alcohol in the body?
a. vitamin B6
b. thiamin
c. vitamin A
d. folate
e. vitamin C

Which of the following are the smallest units in which independent life can exist?
a. tissues
b. genes
c. cells
d. mitochondria
e. organs

Which organs are responsible for excreting wastes generated by the cells of the body?
a. kidneys, bladder, and colon
b. kidneys, liver, lungs, and stomach
c. kidneys, liver, lungs, and bladder
d. liver, bladder, stomach, and colon
e. mouth, liver, and lungs

What is bicarbonate responsible for?

a. assisting in the absorption of vitamins
b. digesting lipids in the small intestine
c. emulsifying lipids in the colon
d. neutralizing the stomach acid that has reached the small intestine
e. acidifying the contents of the stomach to break protein-protein bonds

Which of the following has infinite energy storage capacity?

a. liver
b. adipose tissue
c. muscle
d. kidneys
e. glycogen

Your friend Annette complains of chronic heartburn. Which suggestion might be helpful to her?
a. Lie down after eating.
b. Drink liquids during meals.
c. Eat two large meals a day rather than several small meals.
d. Wear reasonably loose clothing and relax after eating.
e. Completely avoid coffee, chocolate, soft drinks, and alcohol.
All blood leaving the digestive system is routed directly to which of the following?
a. heart
b. liver
c. kidneys
d. colon
e. lymph

Which recommendation would you make to a person with lactose intolerance?

a. consume large quantities of milk
b. practise complete avoidance of all dairy foods
c. consume dairy foods with acidic foods
d. choose yogurt with added milk solids
e. choose yogurt with live cultures

Which of the following organs or tissues contains the majority of glucose stored in humans?
a. pancreas
b. liver
c. muscle
d. kidneys
e. brain

How many grams of fibre per day do the Dietary Reference Intakes suggest for an average adult (man or women)
under age 50?
a. 5 for a woman; 10 for a man
b. 35 for a woman; 45 for a man
c. 10 for a woman; 20 for a man
d. 25 for a woman; 38 for a man
e. 28 for a woman; 35 for a man

Which monosaccharide rarely occurs freely in nature but is tied up in milk sugar until it is freed during digestion?
a. lactose
b. fructose
c. galactose
d. glucose
e. sucrose

Which of the following is a typical symptom of hypoglycemia?

a. high blood sugar
b. blurry vision
c. rapid heartbeat
d. nausea/vomiting
e. frequent urination

Hormones play an important role in regulating blood glucose levels. Which of the following exemplifies this?
a. Insulin stimulates muscles to release glycogen that body cells can use for energy.
b. Glucagon decreases the removal of glucose from the blood during stress.
c. Epinephrine increases breakdown of liver glycogen to provide glucose in times of danger.
d. Insulin reduces glucose uptake and storage among fat cells.
e. Glucagon increases removal of glucose from the blood after a meal.
Which carbohydrate is NOT found in foods from plants?
a. fructose
b. sucrose
c. starch
d. cellulose
e. glycogen

Which part of a grain is especially rich in vitamins and minerals?

a. bran
b. germ
c. husk
d. endosperm
e. chaff
Which of the following plant oils is (are) highly saturated?
a. peanut oil and sesame oils
b. canola oil
c. palm and coconut oils
d. olive oil
e. sesame oil

Which of the following lipids can serve as an emulsifier?

a. triglycerides
b. phospholipids
c. sterols
d. unsaturated fatty acids
e. saturated fatty acids

Which of the following is a primary function of fat in the body?

a. Fats are stored as glycogen, the body's form of stored energy.
b. Fats are converted to proteins as needed.
c. Fats protect internal organs from overheating.
d. Fats provide the energy to fuel muscular work.
e. Fats are the preferred source of fuel for the brain

Which lipid has the greatest influence on blood cholesterol levels?

a. monounsaturated fat
b. saturated fat
c. polyunsaturated fat
d. omega-6 fatty acids
e. dietary cholesterol

What is the LEAST effective way to lower your saturated fat intake?
a. Eat baked chips rather than fried chips.
b. Eat ice cream instead of sherbet.
c. Prepare rice without butter.
d. Use wine, lemon juice, or broth instead of butter.
e. Eat nuts instead of French fries

At what location along the digestive tract does fat digestion primarily take place?
 a. mouth
b. stomach
c. liver
d. pancreas
e. small intestine

Which of the following characteristics describes the artificial fat olestra?

a. It is approved for use in Canada
b. It passes through the digestive tract unabsorbed.
c. It is fortified with vitamin B6.
d. It is a carbohydrate-based fat substitute.
e. It is a protein-based fat substitute.

Your friend Mike wants to start taking fish oil supplements. What would you recommend to Mike regarding fish oil
consumption?
a. Supplements are a good idea because they have been proven to prevent heart disease.
b. Immune function is improved when taking fish oil supplements.
c. Taking daily fish oil supplements is hazardous to your health.
d. Consuming fish in conjunction with a healthy diet is recommended over taking fish oil supplements.
e. Supplements are preferred overeating fish because there is no risk of mercury exposure

Which statement regarding digestion and absorption of proteins is true?

a. Cells in the small intestine possess different sites for absorbing different types of amino acids, which causes
competition among amino acids at the absorption sites.
b. Proteins are broken down into individual amino acids and absorbed by all intestinal cells at an equal rate.
c. Larger peptide molecules must be completely broken down into amino acids to be absorbed into the
bloodstream from the intestine.
d. Amino acids need a carrier in the bloodstream because they do not transport very well alone.
e. Protein digestion and absorption require some form of carbohydrate.
Hide Feedback

The most easily digestible form of protein can be found in which of the following foods?
a. pasta
b. black beans
c. peppers
d. peanuts
e. eggs

What is NOT one of the beneficial characteristics of a vegetarian diet?

a. It provides more phytochemicals.
b. It provides more antioxidant nutrients and fibre.
c. It provides more saturated fat.
d. It promotes a leaner body type.
e. It reduces the risk of cancer.

Which of the following is NOT one of the several important roles proteins play in the body?
 a. maintaining acid–base balance
b. serving as antibodies
c. providing an unlimited supply of energy
d. maintaining fluid and electrolyte balance
e. regulating gene expression

Proteins can be denatured by all EXCEPT which of the following?

a. mercury
b. stomach acid
c. heat
d. freezing
e. radiation

The process of protein turnover involves which of the following?

a. conversion of half the protein we eat to glucose for energy
b. loss of amino acids by excretion through the kidneys when cells die
c. use of amino acids that have been conserved from the breakdown of old cells
d. annual replacement of old cells with new protein that has entered the body in food
e. excretion of intracellular working proteins as old cells wear out

Which of the following is the variable part of an amino acid?

a. acid group
b. amino group
c. backbone
d. side chain
e. carbon bond

Who would benefit most from eating a variety of protein foods so that amino acids that are low in some foods will
be supplied by the others?
a. a vegan
b. a lacto-ovo vegetarian
c. a carnivore
d. an omnivore
e. a pregnant woman

Which of the following is an antioxidant that is also needed in the formation of the tissue protein collagen?
a. vitamin K
b. vitamin C
c. folate
d. beta-carotene
e. thiamin

Which vitamin's main role is to help activate proteins that help blood clot?
a. C
b. beta-carotene
c. D
d. E
e. K

Which individual has a valid reason to take a vitamin/mineral supplement?

a. someone who is addicted to drugs or alcohol
 b. someone who is feeling tired and wants a supplement to provide energy
c. someone who is stressed and does not get enough exercise
d. someone who believes that food grown on today's soils lack nutrients
e. someone who does not like to eat vegetables

Which statement regarding water-soluble vitamins is NOT true?

a. Some water-soluble vitamins are destroyed when exposed to light, heat, or oxygen during processing.
b. Water-soluble vitamins easily dissolve and drain away with cooking water.
c. Water-soluble vitamins are easily absorbed and stored in the liver.
d. Foods never deliver toxic doses of the water-soluble vitamins.
e. Water-soluble vitamins are easily excreted in the urine.

Which of the following are classified as water-soluble vitamins?

a. B, C, D, E
b. A, E
c. A, D, E, K
d. B, C
e. A, B, K, D

Which vitamin supplement is known to cause malformations of a fetus?

a. vitamin K
b. thiamin
c. vitamin B12
d. vitamin C
e. vitamin A

Which characteristic is LEAST likely to apply to a fat-soluble vitamin?

a. toxic in excess
b. dissolves in lipids
c. requires bile for absorption
d. easily absorbed and excreted in urine
e. commonly found in foods that contain fat

Which vitamin is mismatched with its deficiency?

a. vitamin D—pernicious anemia
b. thiamin—beriberi
c. vitamin C—scurvy
d. niacin—pellagra
e. vitamin K—excessive bleeding
Hide Feedback

Which individual is most likely to experience osteoporosis?

a. a 70-year-old female who smokes
b. a 12-year-old male with a BMI of 21
c. a 50-year-old female who works outdoors
d. a 50-year-old male who eats a high-protein diet
e. a post-menopausal female with a BMI of 25

Water accounts for what percentage of the human body's weight?

a. 20%
 b. 35%
c. 40%
d. 60%
e. 85%

Which statement regarding fluid and electrolyte imbalance is NOT true?

a. It can lead to death.
b. It disrupts the heartbeat.
c. It can be caused by vomiting and diarrhea.
d. It is a medical emergency.
e. It will resolve without intervention.

Which of the following is one of the major roles of calcium in the body?
a. part of cell DNA and RNA
b. essential for muscle contractions
c. maintains normal pulmonary gas exchange
d. helps maintain pH of blood
e. prevents osteoarthritis

Transport proteins in cell membranes maintain the proper balance of _____ (mostly outside the cells) and _____
(mostly inside the cells).
a. iodine; chloride
b. calcium; magnesium
c. iron; zinc
d. sodium; potassium
e. potassium; chloride

For someone who wants to reduce the amount of sodium in his or her diet, what food would you recommend
avoiding?
a. deli meat
b. bananas
c. milk
d. celery
e. sweet potatoes

Which statement about the function of water in the human body is NOT true?
a. Water acts as a lubricant around joints.
b. Water participates in the body's chemical reactions.
c. Water aids in the maintenance of the body's temperature.
d. Water cleanses the tissues and blood of wastes.
e. Water is a good source of energy.

For someone with lactose intolerance, what is the best alternative source of calcium?
a. broccoli and rutabaga
b. Swiss chard and rhubarb
c. spinach and strawberries
d. almonds and pinto beans
e. citrus fruits and soybeans
The amount of energy required each day by the body includes energy expended during rest, energy expended for
eating, and what other factor?
a. thermic effect of food
b. basal metabolic rate
c. enzymatic rate
d. involuntary activity
e. physical activity

What is the "female athlete triad"?

a. three behaviours common in female athletes: perfectionism, anxiety, and depression
b. three medical problems: heart disease, diabetes, and obesity
c. three academic problems: poor test-taking skills, test anxiety, and fear of academic failure
d. three athletic problems: impaired speed, loss of balance, and inflexibility
e. three associated medical problems: disordered eating, amenorrhea, and osteoporosis

Leptin is secreted in direct proportion to the amount of which of the following?

a. muscle mass
b. adipose tissue
c. physical activity
d. protein in the diet
e. fat in the diet

What theory suggests that after weight gains or losses, the body adjusts its metabolism somewhat in the direction of
restoring the original weight?
a. thermogenesis theory
b. set-point theory
c. microbiota theory
d. fluctuating metabolism theory
e. hypothalamic weight-control theory

What category would an adult with a BMI of 33.2 be in?

a. obese
b. overweight
c. normal weight
d. underweight
e. obese class II

Which of the following is an appropriate behaviour modification for replacing old eating and activity habits with
new ones?
a. Establish positive consequences for inappropriate eating or sedentary behaviours.
b. Repeat the inappropriate eating and physical activity behaviours.
c. Strengthen cues to appropriate eating and activities.
d. Strengthen the inappropriate eating cues you cannot eliminate.
e. Diminish appropriate eating and activity cues.

Which of the following measures reflects the degree of visceral fatness in proportion to body fatness?
 a. waist circumference
b. hip circumference
c. underwater weight
d. BMI
e. total body weight

Which of the following is a beneficial role of physical activity in weight loss?

a. Working out builds muscle and lean muscle tissue burns more calories per pound than fat does.
b. Exercise reduces cortisol and gets rid of belly fat.
c. Working out requires extra sleep and getting extra sleep reduces food cravings and weight gain.
d. Physical activity decreases weight by promoting loss of bone density.
e. Working out weakens feelings of hunger, thus active people generally eat less.

High-intensity work lasting more than a few seconds requires muscles to rely upon which fuel metabolized through
which energy system?
a. lactic acid broken down via the lactic acid system
b. glucose broken down via the anaerobic energy system
c. ATP from the energy reservoir
d. glucose broken down via the aerobic energy system
e. lactate broken down via the anaerobic energy system

What sources of fuel does the aerobic energy system use?

a. only glucose
b. only glucose and lactate
c. glucose, amino acids, and oxygen
d. only glucose and fatty acids
e. glucose, amino acids, fatty acids, and lactate

How does iron deficiency affect athletic performance?

a. Iron deficiency impairs all types of athletic performance equally because iron is used to deliver oxygen to the
lungs.
b. Iron-containing molecules are essential for anaerobic metabolism, so only short, high-intensity performance
will suffer.
c. Insufficient iron impairs aerobic work capacity, causing the athlete to tire easily.
d. Iron deficiency results in an increase in the number of red blood cells in order to compensate for fewer iron
molecules, so athletic performance will not be affected.
e. Iron deficiency reduces the number of red blood cells and results in hemolytic anemia.

What is the guideline for aerobic activity for adults as defined by the Canadian Physical Activity Guidelines from
the Canadian Society for Exercise Physiology?
a. a minimum of 150 minutes of moderate-intensity activity each week
b. 60 minutes of high-intensity activity every day
c. 420 minutes of moderate-intensity activity each week
d. 2 miles of brisk walking, or the equivalent, every weekday
e. simply increased activities of daily living, such as cooking, cleaning, and walking
Hide Feedback
What is the purpose of sweating?
a. Core body temperature is maintained when vapours on the body surface become liquid.
b. Fluid is diverted to the skin to absorb heat from the surrounding environment.
c. In hot, humid weather, sweat evaporates into the air to cool the surrounding environment.
d. Body fluid is a heat source and as the body's temperature rises, liquid losses remove sources of heat.
 e. As sweat evaporates it cools the skin's surface and the blood flowing beneath it.

Which characteristic is NOT considered to be a benefit of physical activity?

a. improved body composition and adipose tissue distribution
b. lower incidence and reduced severity of mental anxiety and depression
c. enhanced resistance to colds and other infectious diseases
d. lower risks of some types of cancers
e. reduction in gastric capacity and motility
Hide Feedback
How does a high-carbohydrate diet help to sustain an athlete's endurance?
a. by ensuring ample fat stores
b. by ensuring ample protein stores
c. by ensuring ample glycogen stores
d. by improving cardiac output
e. by increasing VO2max

What beverage is the best choice for meeting an athlete's fluid needs?
a. carbonated beverages, because the air bubbles keep the athlete feeling hydrated longer
b. caffeinated beverages, because they can improve athletic endurance
c. sports drinks, because they provide the electrolytes necessary to sustain hydration
d. water, because it will replace the fluid lost from sweating during activity
e. beer, because when used in moderation it also replenishes carbohydrates