Listening and Reading Compilation

Listening
and
Reading
Compilation
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Table of Contents
Page 3 ………… Listening Test 1
Page 30 …………… Listening Test 5
Page 35 …………… Listening Test 6
Page 52 ………… Reading Test 1
Page 72 …………Reading Test 3
Page 82 …………Reading Test 4
Page 108 …………. Reading Test 7
Page 144 ………… Listening Answer Key Test 1 & 2
Page 148 ………… Reading Answer Key Test 9 & 10
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LISTENING
TEST 1
SECTION 1
Questions 1-7
Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR NUMBER for each answer.
Notes – Clark’s Bicycle Hire
Example Answer
Type: ….touring…. bike
Rental: £50 a week, or 1 £ ………………………………… a day
Late return fee: 2 £ …………………… per extra hour
Deposit: 3 £ ……………………………….returnable
Accessories: £5 for 4 ………………………. : pannier or

handlebar type
free: pump
repair kit
5 strong ………………………………………
Insurance: included, but must pay first 6

£………………………… of claim
Pay: by 7 ……………………only
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Questions 8-10
Label the map. Choose your answers from the box below.
Write the appropriate letters A-E on the map.
Woods Road
Police 8
Park Station _________
__
Oak
Street 10
9 Oak Street _________
_________ Pharmacy __
__
A health centre
B Maple Leaf pub
C Clark’s Cycle Hire
D supermarket
E garage
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SECTION 2
Questions 11-17
Complete the table below
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
TYPE OF CLUB OR SOCIETY EXAMPLES
SPORTS rugby
tennis
HOBBY/ INTEREST landscape photography

11……………………..
12………………………….. dancing
speed-dating
RELIGIOUS
INTERNATIONAL/ 13………………………
CULTURAL Afro-Caribbean
14………………………….. human rights

environmental
15………………………….. Republicans
16……………………….
PERFORMING ARTS 17……………………….

amateur theatre
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Questions 18-20
Choose the correct letters A-C.
18. In this city, clubs and societies are mainly paid for by
A embassies of other countries
B individual members
C the city council
19. finding the right cub might influence you choice of
A city
B district
C friends
20. What you should do if the right club does not exist?
A set up one for myself
B find one on the internet
C join one in another town
SECTION 3
Questions 21-25
Label the flowchart. WRITE NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
LECTURES AND NOTE TAKING
Complete all 21…………………………………. before lecture
Think about likely 22…………………………. of lecture
Take notes during lecture
23………………………………… immediately after lecture
Revise before 24…………………… Revise every 25…………………….
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Questions 26-29

26. Where should you sit when you attend a lecture? …………………………………………..
27. What should you do if you miss an important point? ………………………………………
28. Why must your notes be easy to read? ……………………………………………………………
29. What do we call expressions which indicate what is coming next? ………………….
Question 30
Circle the correct letter A,B,C or D.
30. Where does Carlo write summing-up points on his notes?
Summing-up points
C.
A.
………………………
………………………
……………………… ………………………
……………………… ………………………
………………………
………………………
Summing-up points
Summing-up points
Summing-up points
B. D.
……….………...
……………………..
...................
……………………..
…………….……
……………….…….
………………….
……………………..
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SECTION 4
Questions 31-36
Complete the summary below by writing NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS in the
spaces provided.
The Australian mining town of Coober Pedy is about 31 ……………………
kilometres south of Alice Springs. Opals were first found in the area in
32 ………………. and people began to settle there after the 33 ………………… .
In the late 1940’s, new opal fields and mass immigration from
34 ……………………… created a boom, despite the extreme climate which
forced about 35 ……………………… of the population to live underground,
where they built hotels, churches, and the world’s only underground
36 …………………………. .
Questions 37-40
Write the appropriate letters A, B or C against Questions 37-40.
What are the locations of the following places?
Example Answer
the conical hills B
37. the town of Woomera …………
38. the opal museum …………
39. the Dingo Fence …………
40. the sets of films …………
A in the town of Coober Pedy

B near Coober Pedy
C far from Coober Pedy
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LISTENING
TEST 2
SECTION 1
Questions 1-6
What does Lisa say about each object?
Complete the table as follows. Write
A if she says it is ESSENTIAL
B if she says it is RECOMMENDED
C if she says it is NOT RECOMMENDED
Example Documents Answer A
1. At least £50 ………..
2. Warm clothing ………..
3. Personal computer ………..
4. Food from home ………..
5. Favourite tapes or CDs ………..
6. Photos from home ………..
Questions 7-10
The label on Dan’s luggage must state ‘Mr & Mrs 7 ………..……… and their address.
Lisa says he should carry some spare clothes in 8 ………………………….. .
For health reasons, Dan intends to wear 9 …….……………………… during the flight.
Dan should practise carrying his luggage for a minimum distance of 10 ……………. .
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SECTION 2
Questions 11-13
Choose THREE letters A-F.
What does Sally say about universities?
A. Compared to the general population, few students are disabled.
B. Most universities don’t want students aged over 25.
C. Old universities can present particular difficulties for the disabled.
D. All university buildings have to provide facilities for the disabled.
E. There are very few university disability advisors.
F. Some disability advisors can do little to help disabled students.
Questions 14-19
Complete the table below.

Disability Facilities
General personal care and assistance
Mobility impairment ramps and easy access,
fire and emergency procedures
14 ………………………..…
lavatory facilities
15 …………………..……… induction loops, flashing sirens,
16 ………………………..….
Sight impairment Braille translators,
17 …………………..……. on stairs, floors, etc
fire and emergency procedures
Dyslexia use of computer
18 …………………….. to finish work
Other difficulties access to treatment: medication/therapy
19 ………………………. procedures
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Question 20
Choose the correct letter A,B,C or D
20. What is the speaker’s main purpose?
A. to explain why comparatively few students are disabled
B. to advise disabled students what to look for in a university
C. to describe the facilities for the disabled in a particular university
D. to criticize the facilities for the disabled in most universities
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SECTION 3
Questions 21-26
Complete the notes below using letters A-F from the box.
NB You may use any letter more than once.
A tour of the university campus
B formal dinner party
C meeting with ‘senior’ students
D driving in this country
E visit to a night club
F tour of the city
Orientation Course for international students
What Liz liked about the course.
21. ………………………………..
22. ………………………………..
23. ………………………………..
What Mark thinks could be improved.
24. …………………………………….
25. …………………………………….
26. …………………………………….
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Questions 27-30
Choose the correct letters A,B,C or D.
27. Your room during the Orientation Course is
A usually shared with another student
B the same room you will have for the rest of the year
C some distance from the university
D furnished, and with bedclothes provided
28. The daytime temperature will probably be
A less than 10 degrees Celsius
B between 10 and 20 degrees Celsius
C 20 degrees Celsius
D more than 20 degrees Celsius
29. How much free email time do you get?
A 30 minutes
B 20 minutes
C 15 minutes
D 10 minutes
30. There are Orientation Course activities from
A Sunday to Saturday
B Sunday to Friday
C Monday to Friday
D Monday to Saturday
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SECTION 4
Questions 31-33
Complete the sentences below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.
Fireworks were first used in China, probably in the 31 ……………………… century.
By the following century, they were known in Arabia as 32 ………………………… .
Fireworks first appeared in 33 …………………………….. in the thirteenth century.
Questions 34-37
Label the diagram. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
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Questions 38-40
Choose the correct letters A, B, C or D
38. A multibreak shell
A is more dangerous than a simple shell
B may make noise when it bursts
C has a single fuse for all its sections
39. An aerial heart shape is made by the explosion of
A stars placed inside a shell in the form of a circle
B heart-shaped stars placed inside a shell
C stars arranged in the form of a heart inside a shell
40. What does a Serpentine shell look like in the sky?
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LISTENING
TEST 3
SECTION 1
Questions 1-4
Answer the questions below.
Which documents could Sam use as proof of her name?
Example passport
1. …………………………….
2. …………………………….
Which could she use as proof of her address?
council tax bill
3. …………………………….
phone bill (fixed line)
4. …………………………….
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Questions 5-7
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR NUMBERS for each answer.
Name of bank? Savings Bank
Open which days? Monday-Friday
Opening hours? 5 …………………………….
Where? 6 …………………………….
Free gift? 7 …………………………….
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Questions 8-10
Match the places in Questions 8-10 to the appropriate letters A-H on the map.
8. Royal Bank ________
9. Northern Bank. ________
10. National Bank. ________
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SECTION 2
Questions 11-14
Preparing for the interview

What to do How to do it
Step 1: Gather all documents, e.g. copies of resume.
Prepare things to take. Choose 11………………… e.g. designs, drawings, written work.
Check you have pen and paper.

Step 2: Ask firm for a 12………………………
Get more information.
See profiles at Chamber of Commerce, library.
Contact 13………………….. of this or related firms.

Compare yourself with what is required.
Step 3: Focus on you and Imagine likely questions and your answers.
the job.
Decide how to make up for any 14…………….. you lack
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Questions 15-20
At the interview
Arrive no more than 15 …………………………….before the time of the interview.
After you hear the question, you can 16 …………………………….before you reply.
You can 17 …………………………….if you don’t understand what they’re asking you.
Wait for them to offer you the job before you say what 18 ……………………………. you
want.
Learning from the experience will make you more 19 …………………………….in future
interviews.
Pay attention to your 20 ……………………………. - it shows you have a positive
attitude.
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SECTION 3
Questions 21-24
Complete the summary below by writing NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS in the
spaces provided.
To many employers, academic success and personal development as a result of

being at 21…………………………….can be as important as course content, so choose
22…………………………….modules that you may do well in. You should, however,
think more carefully about your choice if your course is 23 …………………………….. In
this case the course normally includes all the modules necessary for professional
training, but if you are in any doubt check with your academic department or the
24…………………………….at the university.
Questions 25-29
Write the appropriate letters A-C against questions 25-29.
Which modules have the following features?
A Applied Chemical Engineering
B Fluid Mechanics
C Chemical Engineering: Science 1
25. developing computer skills …………
26. exemption from part of a module …………
27. assessment by formal examination …………
28. developing speaking and writing skills …………
29. learning through problem-solving ………….
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Question 30
30. Which chart shows the percentage of private study time on the Spanish 1A
module?
SECTION 4
Questions 31-33
Label the diagram. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for
each answer.
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Questions 34-36
Choose from letters A-C and write them on your answer sheet.
34. The crater at Acraman is
A nowadays entirely covered by sea water.
B one of the most beautiful on Karth.
C less spectacular than others in Australia.
35. Williams realised what had happened at Acraman when he
A saw pictures of the area taken from above.
B visited Acraman for the first time in 1980.
C noticed a picture of the crater in a textbook.
36. Where was rock from Acraman found?
A Only in the Flinders mountains.
B At several places over 300 km from Acraman.
C At a place 500 km from Acraman, but nowhere else.
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Questions 37-40
37. What made the sea water shake?…………………………….
38. What threw the pebbles into the air?…………………………….
39. What was mixed with silt to form a layer of rock?…………….
40. What shaped the ripples on top of the rock?…………………….
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LISTENING
TEST 4
SECTION 1
Questions 1-4
Answer the following questions using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each
answer.
1. How many people are Cindy and Bob planning the picnic for? …………………….
2. On which date will the picnic be held? ………………………………….
3. What is the total budget for food and drink per person? …………………………….
4. Which food does Bob specifically say is unsuitable? ……………………………………
Questions 5-8
Complete the following notes about the three catering companies Bob and Cindy
discuss.
Paris Kitchen
lack of variety of food
poor quality 5. ……………………………….
Company Caterers
expensive
6. ………………………………… discount for groups of 30 or more
Celebrations
new company
only 7. …………………………….. for picnics
8. ………………………………. dishes
offers free samples
Questions 9-10
Answer the questions using only a date or a telephone number.

1. When will Bob and Cindy go to Celebrations? ………………………………..
2. What is Celebrations“ telephone number? …………………………………….
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SECTION 2
Questions 11-12
Complete the notes on the Citizens Advice Bureau using NO MORE THAN TWO
WORDS for each gap.
11. ………………………………… a solicitor

suggest where you can find free legal advice
inform you whether you can get 12. …………………………….. to cover legal costs
Questions 13-14
Complete the notes on the police using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each
gap
don’t be aggressive
do not try to bribe police officers
ask plain-clothes police officers for 13. ………………………………………….
give your true name and address if asked
do not sign anything without a solicitor‘s 14. ………………………………….
you can make one telephone call
Questions 15-16
Complete the following notes on illegal actions using NO MORE THAN THREE
WORDS for each gap.
The following three things are illegal:

the possession of 15. ………………………...
the possession or 16. ………………………… of drugs disorderly conduct
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Questions 17-20
Decide which FOUR of the following statements are true, according to the
speaker. Write the appropriate letters in any order on your answer sheet.
A. It is socially acceptable to drink a lot of alcohol.

B. People often arrange to meet in bars.
C. Drinking non-alcoholic drinks in bars is socially acceptable.
D. You can drink a little and still drive a car.
E. You can drink in public.
F. Doctors can give patients otherwise illegal drugs.
G. You must be over 18 to buy alcohol.
H. Many people use illegal drugs.
SECTION 3
Questions 21-25
Complete the following sentences using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each
gap
21. Melissa’s first tip is ……………………………………..
22. Simona says that a presenter should not ……………………………….
23. David explains that PCP means ……………………………..
24. David says PCP will ……………………….. and promote retention.
25. Carlos offers a general piece of advice for public speaking, which is
……………………….
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Questions 26-30
Identify which speaker is being referred to in each statement. Write the
corresponding letter on your answer sheet.
A. Carlos B. David
C. Melissa D. Simona
26. He/She thinks an overhead projector is usually needed.
27. He/She mentions that jokes can be useful in context.
28. He/She mentions that the question and answer part is very important.
29. He/She says that finishing early might be a good idea.
30. He/She says that you should drink enough.
SECTION 4
Questions 31-33
Answer the following questions using NO MORE THAN ONE WORD OR A DATE for
each answer.
31. Which metal were the Celts using at the beginning of the first millennium
B.C.? ……………………………….
32. When did excavation at Hallstatt begin? …………………………………
33. When were Celtic remains near La Tene uncovered? ………………………………….

Questions 34-37
Answer the following questions about Hallstatt culture using NO MORE THAN
THREE WORDS OR AN NUMBER for each answer.
34. How many periods of Hallstatt culture were there? ……………………………….

35. Which two items were traded over long distances at the beginning of the
Hallstatt period? …………………………………
36. Where were settlements built during the Hallstatt C period?
……………………………..
37. What led to a stratified society? ………………………………………..
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Questions 38-40
Complete the following sentences about La Téne culture using NO MORE THAN
THREE WORDS for each gap.
38. Celtic ………………………….. took place during the La Téne period.

39. After 400 B.C., the La Téne culture ……………………………………..
40. Weapons and everyday items can be found in La Tene …………………… across
Europe.
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LISTENING
TEST 5
QUESTIONS 1-6
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer
Position Place Notes
Speak foreign languages
1. …………………………. Parkview Hotel

Have a valid 2 ………………..
Include 3 ……………………….
Pay is low
General Assistant Lakeside Hotel Free 4 ……………………..
Issue a 5 …………………..
Wear 6 ………………….
Catering Assistant Hotel 98 Night shift work Travel

outside the city
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Questions 7-10
Complete the flow chart below.

RECRUITMENT PROCESS
STEP ONE
Complete a 7. ………………………………….
STEP TWO
Do a 8. …………………………… about personal skills
STEP THREE
Participate a training course involving 9. ……………………… .
STEP FOUR
Get a 10. ……………………….. about the work
SECTION 2
Questions 11-14

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
REGISTRATION OF FOREIGN NATIONALS AT THE HEALTH CENTER STANDARD

PROCEDURES:
Register as a 11. …………………………..

Fill in a medical history form with details of previous illness, 12. ………………………..
surgeries and 13. ………………………. .
Complete a 14. ……………………. with personal information such as name, address
and telephone number.
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Questions 15-20
Circle the correct letter, A, B or C.
15. The nurse can help you with
A minor operation.
B all sorts of remedy.
C a small injury
16. You don’t have to pay for the chiropodist if
A you have registered at the health center.
B you are in your late’ sixties.
C you have foot trauma.
17. In case of emergency
A you can ask for a home visit.
B you must go to the hospital directly.
C you should have an open surgery.
18. On Friday afternoons
A you don’t need to wait for a long time.
B you don’t need to make an appointment.
C you ought not to come at a specified time.
19. If you require a repeat prescription
A you have to see the doctor again.
B you need a special form.
C you can get one from the chemist.
20. In which case you needn’t pay for the prescription
A if you are a student.
B if you are unemployed or very poor.
C if you are pregnant.
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SECTION 3
Questions 21-23
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
People domesticate bees for 21. ……………… and ………………...
Commercial crops such as almond, cherry, 22. …………….., water melon, cucumber,
depend on pollination.
Animal pollination contributes 23. ………………. dollars a year to world agriculture.
Questions 24-25
Choose the correct letter, A-D.
24-25. According to the professor, what factor has affected pollinator
populations?
A Parasites.
B Air pollution.
C Hunting.
D Farm chemicals.
What are the features of each pollinator?

Choose the correct letter, A-F.
A It pollinates four out of live food crops in North America.

B It has been mistaken for a similar animal.
C It feeds on the nectar of lavender.
D It has been affected by environmental alteration.
E It has been smuggling traded.
F It returns to the specific site every year.
26. Monarch butterfly

27. Indian subcontinent butterflies
28. Spectacular tropical butterflies
29. Long-nosed bat
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Question 30
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
30. What can be done to protect pollinators?
A Beekeeping needs to focus on honey production.
B People should use more organic approach of cultivation.
C Scientists should exploit more wild plants.
Questions 31-35.
Complete the summary below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
THE LONDON EYE
The London Eye, or 31 ………….…… Wheel is an extremely large passenger-carrying

Ferris wheel situated on the banks of the 32 ……….…..……… in Central London in
the United Kingdom. It attracts 33 …………..………….. people annually. Back in 2000,
34 ……………….. was the main sponsor. Today, the London Eye is operated by the
London Eye Company Limited, a Merlin Entertainments Group Company. Standing
at a height of 35 …………………… is the largest Ferris wheel in Europe, and has
become the most popular paid tourist attraction in the United Kingdom, visited by
over three million people in one year.
Questions 36-40
Label the diagram below.
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LISTENING
TEST 6
SECTION 1
Questions 1-5

Accommodation Request Form

Example Answer
Type of accommodation: Homestay
Full name: 1 ………………………………… Lee
Age: 2 …………………………………
Present address: International House
Room: 3 ………………………………….
Reasons for applying for homestay:
to know about local culture
to 4 ……………………………………
Contact number: 8141 9680 (home)
5 ………………………………… (mobile)
Questions 6-10
Accommodation requirements:
a nice landlady
own 6 ……………………………..
no young children
near to 7 …………………………..
The 8 …………………………… will be £140, including 9 ………….. bill.
Accommodation required date: 10 ………………………………
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SECTION 2
Questions 11-15
Guide for Peak District

Peak District’s location: five miles from Sheffield 11. …………………………………
Main attractions:
Bakewell Town is known for local food: 12. ………………………………..
Chatsworth House has formal gardens and 13. ………………………………..

The heart of Peak District is the Peak District 14. ………………………………..
The most famous cavern in Castleton is called 15. ………………………………..
Questions 16-20

16. ………………………….. must be accompanied by an adult on walking and cycling.

Tourists can pick 17. ………………………………. in some specialist shops.
Chatsworth’s art collection has 18. …………………………….. years’ history.
Eyam village is also called 19. ……………………………………… .
Eyam Hall has 20. ……………………………… workshops.
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SECTION 3
Questions 21-23
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
21. Harper’s paper is about ……………………………… .

A. energy crisis.
B. environment protection.
C. computer technology.
22. The research method that the professor recommends is

A. interview.
B. questionnaire.
C. presentation.
23. Harper is worried about ______________

A. essay deadline.
B. questionnaire data.
C. course stress.
Questions 24-26
Choose the correct letter.
Write A if professor says REMAIN

Write B if professor says REWRITE
Write C if professor says REMOVE
What suggestions does professor make?

24. purpose ___________
25. structure ___________
26. personal experiences ___________
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Questions 27-30
ESSAY REQUIREMENT
To hand in essay by 27. ……………………………..
To print essay by 28. ………………………………….
Before handing in: to do 29. ……………………………. e.g. grammar and spelling;
to check proper 30. …………………………….
SECTION 4
Questions 31-40
BRITISH MEDIA
Newspapers began to appear in the 18-19th Century.
31. ………………………………. is British oldest daily newspaper.

The legal rule of advertisement that all the British media must follow is
32. ……………………… .
There are over 33. …………………………… different newspapers in Britain.
The press that publishes serious articles is 34. ……………………………… .
The most leftwing newspaper is 35. ………………………………………...
A feature of the tabloid press is a girl picture on 36. ………………………………………… .
The oldest soap shop was located in the northern city of 37. ……………………………….
in England.
British newscasts get good reputation for the 38. ……………………………. of reporting.
British viewers usually use the time of 39. …………………………………. to make a drink.
Audience have to buy a 40. ………………………………. .
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LISTENING
TEST 7
SECTION 1
Questions 1-7
Complete the following notes by using A NUMBER or NO MORE THAN THREE
WORDS for each answer.
University Geography Field Trip

Time: next week (a two-day trip)
(Example)
Destination: the Warrangamba Dam and 1. …………………………
Matching course: Environmental Science
Departing time of coach: at 2. …………………….. next Monday
Length of journey there: 3. ………………………… roughly and three hours back
First day’s activity: 4. ………………………………
Spending the night: in 5. ………………………………
Meals provided: in the form of 6. …………………………………
Sydney’s daily water consumption: equal to the water to fill 7. ………………………
full-size Olympic swimming pools
Second day’s activity: go to the water plant to see how to purify the
water for drinking
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Questions 8-10
Choose THREE letters, A-F
Which THREE things does Cesar recommend bringing?
A. binoculars
B. camera
C. penknife
D. map
E. raincoat
F. mobile phone
SECTION 2
Questions 11-15
11. The last programme in the present series is …………………………… .

12. ………………………….. has been rewarded as ‘Consumer of the Month’ for her
persistent effort to see through a result of a complaint.
13. She took ………………………….. of photographs on her tour in Europe.
14. What happened to her photos after she gave them to Top-Class Photo
Services for developing? …………………………………………
15. The photo services compensated her ………………………. for the loss in the end.
Questions 16-20
Choose the correct letter, A-D.
16. What is the problem that many listeners write about?
A. Sale prices.
B. Bad quality stuff.
C. Faulty goods.
D. Bad assistant.
17. How much was the sale price of the belt that Mr Alvin liked?
A. $200.
B. $100.
C. $150.
D. $300.
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18. Why should the consumer make a complaint about bad articles or service?
A. To cause a fuss.
B. It won’t do what is claimed for.
C. Ask the shopkeeper for a favour.
D. The shopkeeper should be responsible for it.
19. What should a consumer do when complaining in person?
A. Get a receipt for what you buy.
B. Speak to someone in authority.
C. Talk directly to the assistant.
D. Ask to see the seller.
20. What should a customer do when complaining on the phone?

A. Speak directly to the owner.
B. Ask for the manager.
C. Write a complaining letter.
D. Find out with whom you discuss the matter.
SECTION 3
Questions 21-22
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Student Record Card

Name: David Simons
Address: 15 Market Ave., Hornsby
Student Number: 21. …………………………………
Prerequisites completed
YES NO
Screen Studies Course: √
18 credit points: √
If no reasons: 22. …………………………………….
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Question 23

Write TWO DATES for the answer,
23. The final date of the examination should be ………..………………….. or
………………………….. .
Questions 24-25
Choose the correct letters, A-D.
24. Dr Richardson explains that the set exercises

A. require reference to a wide range of resources.
B. should be at least 250 words in length.
C. focus on key terms and concepts in media studies.
D. do not have answers.
25. Dr Richardson explains that essays 1 and 2

A. are to be the same length.
B. should both be analytical.
C. both emphasize studies of audiences.
D. should be especially easy for David.
Questions 26-28
Complete the table by writing ONE or TWO appropriate letters (M, T, A or J) as
explained below.
mechanical M
theoretical T
analytical A
journalistic J
How does Dr Richardson describe each of the assignments ?
Assignments Description
Set exercises 26. ……………………….
Assignment 1 27. ……………………….
Assignment 2 A (Example)
Assignment 3 28. ……………………….
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Question 29
Choose the correct answer.
29. Which two time slots does Dr Richardson suggest David use for his essay?
A. The six o’clock and the midmorning.
B. The breakfast and the six o’clock.
C. The midmorning and midnight.
D. The midday and the ten o’clock.
Question 30
Answer the question below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for the answer.
30. What will David do before he decides which part of the programmes to use?
………………………………………………………………………..
SECTION 4
Question 31
Choose the correct letter, A – C.
31. What does John Upton compare a computer virus to?
A. A biological organism.
B. A corrupt programme.
C. An irritating person.
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Questions 32-35
Complete the flow chart. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
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Question 36
Choose the correct letter, A-C.
What does the speaker find surprising?
A. The rise in the number of software infections.
B. The determination of those who develop viruses.
C. The fact that people blame their own computers.
Questions 37-40
List FOUR ways of combating viruses.
37. ………………………………………………………
38. ………………………………………………………
39. ………………………………………………………
40. ………………………………………………………
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LISTENING
TEST 8
SECTION 1
Questions 1-4
Select the correct answer from the choices given.

Write A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
1. Where is Mr. Garcia living?

A. Private accommodation.
B. With friends.
C. Self-catering university accommodation.
D. Catered university accommodation.
2. Why doesn’t he like his accommodation?

A. The food is not good.
B. The meals are at inconvenient times.
C. He doesn’t like his cohabitants.
D. Its on the university campus.
3. Where are Mr. Garcia and his friends from?

A. Costa Rica, Spain, Bolivia.
B. Ecuador, Spain, Mexico
C. Mexico, Columbia, Spain.
D. Spain, Brazil, Argentina.
4. What kind of place are they hoping to find?

A. A house with a garden next to the un iversity.
B. A flat or a house next to the university.
C A house not too near to the university.
D. A flat or a house not too near to the university.Questions 5-7
46 | P a g e
Questions 5-7
Complete the details below using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR
NUMBERS.
Name Manuel Garcia
Current address 5. ……………………………..
Telephone number 0453672348
Email address 6. ……………………………..
Age 19
Gender Male
Smoker? No
Budgeted monthly rent 7£
Questions 8-10
Select the correct answer from the choices given. Write A, B, C or D on your
answer sheet.
8. Why can Mr Garcia expect a small reduction in rent?
A. The salesman like him.
B. There is no contract
C. July is a good month to move in.
D. He and his friends will stay all year.
9. How much is the accommodation agency’s fee for Mr Garcia?

A. 1/2 month’s rent.
B. 1 month’s rent.
C. 11/2 month’s rent.
D. There’s no fee.
10. Which items does Mr Garcia consider necessary?

A. Kitchen utensils, washing machine, Internet connection.
B. Washing machine, Internet connection, TV.
C. DVD player, TV, Internet connection.
D. Shower, TV, washing machine.
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SECTION 2
Questions 11-13
Choose the correct answers to the following questions. Only ONE answer is
possible for each question.
11. Which member or members of the speaker’s family have health problems?
A. The speaker.
B. The speaker’s parents.
C. The speaker’s father and younger sister.
D. None of the speaker’s family does.
12. Why didn’t the family go to Rotorua?

A. They couldn’t afford it.
B. They wanted to go somewhere with friends.
C. Because of health problems.
D. Because they wanted to go somewhere new.
13. How did the speaker’s family first find out about the Waiwera spa?
A. From people they met in their hometown.
B. From the Internet.
C. From people they met in Rotorua.
D. From a travel agent.
Questions 14-16
Complete the sentences using NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR NUMBERS.
14. Altogether, the number of people in the speaker’s holiday group was
…………………………….. .
15. One of the children from the other family was a …………………………… than the
speaker.
16. Before leaving, the speaker and his family got information from the Internet
and a …………………………. .
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Questions 17-20
Answer the following questions using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS.
17. What did the speaker especially like about the holiday?
…………………………….
18. Where were the children most of the time? .....................................
19. How does the speaker describe the people at the resort? …………………………….
20. Which activities didn’t the speaker participate in, even though those activities
were available? ………………………………
SECTION 3
Questions 21-23
Complete the notes on what Mika says at the beginning of the discussion.
Mika says that if you miss what other people in a seminar say, it makes it hard to
21 ……………………………. the discussion. She might have a 22 …………………………….….
if she didn’t understand what, a tutor was asking her, but if she was wrong it was
23 ……………………………..
Questions 24-27
Complete the sentences using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS.
24. Martina says that native speaker students often continue talking even if non-
native speaker students like her, ……………………………… .
25. However, she points out that native speaker students will usually stop talking
if you ……………………………. .
26. She says that non-native speaker students need to anticipate and
…………………………. in order to get involved in seminar discussions.
27. Michal points out that non-native speaker students can use
……………………………. and body language to indicate when they are ready to add to
a discussion.
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Questions 28-30
Choose the correct answer or answers to complete each sentence.
28. Martina thinks that non-native speaker students can improve the situation by
being
A. aggressive
B. argumentative
C. well-prepared
D. polite
29. Mika thinks that non-native speakers can improve

A. both their English and their subject knowledge quickly.
B. their English knowledge quickly, but not their subject knowledge.
C. their subject knowledge quickly, but not their English.
D. neither their English nor their subject knowledge quickly.
30. Mika says that

A. English students know a lot of technical terminology.
B. English students like making friends with her outside seminars.
C English students are interested in learning about situations in foreign
countries.
D. non-native speaker students shouldn’t take much time to state their
views.
SECTION 4
Questions 31-32
Complete the following summary of the lecturer’s introduction by using NO MORE
THAN THREE WORDS.
The lecturer says that he will first look at how some cultural values influence
31……………………… and that then he will 32 …………………………… demonstrating that
approaches to learning in one culture may not be considered suitable in others.
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Questions 33-36
Complete the notes on the way students learn in different cultures. Use
only ONE word for each answer.
34 ………………….. of the Koran

Arab culture influences how other subjects
are learnt.
33 ………………………….
Little or no talking or
Chinese culture 35…………………… with other
students or culture teachers.
Focus on developing
extending American culture 36……………………. skills through
questioning, for example.
Questions 37-40
Complete the notes on three Asian students and their experiences.
Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS
Country of
Level of study Experience of own education system
origin
Students contribute little to
discussions.
China 37………………………..
Students 38………………………. to ask
lectures questions.
Less focus on Constructing
Japan Master
39……………………………
40 ………………………. are responsible for
India research providing information about facilities
and requirements.
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READING
TEST 1
READING PASSAGE 1
Dirty River But Clean Water
Floods can occur in rivers when the flow rate exceeds the capacity of the river channel,
particularly at bends or meanders in the waterway. Floods often cause damage to homes and
businesses if they are in the natural flood plains of rivers. While riverine flood damage can be
eliminated by moving away from rivers and other bodies of water, people have traditionally
lived and worked by rivers because the land is usually flat and fertile and because rivers provide
easy travel and access to commerce and industry.
A Fire and flood are two of humanity’s worst nightmares. People have,therefore,always
sought to control them. Forest fires are snuffed out quickly. The flow of rivers is regulated by
weirs and dams. At least, that is how it used to be. But foresters have learned that forests need
fires to clear out the brash and even to get seeds to germinate. And a similar revelation is now
– dawning on hydrologists. Rivers – and the ecosystems they support – need floods. That is why
a man-made torrent has been surging down the Grand Canyon. By Thursday March 6th it was
running at full throttle, which was expected to be sustained for 60 hours.
B Floods once raged through the canyon every year. Spring Snow from as far away as
Wyoming would melt and swell the Colorado river to a flow that averaged around 1,500 cubic
metres (50,000 cubic feet) a second. Every eight years or so, that figure rose to almost 3,000
52 | P a g e
cubic metres. These floods infused the river with sediment, carved its beaches and built its
sandbars.
C However, in the four decades since the building of the Glen Canyon dam, just upstream of
the Grand Canyon, the only sediment that it has collected has come from tiny, undammed
tributaries. Even that has not been much use as those tributaries are not powerful enough to
distribute the sediment in an ecologically valuable way.
D This lack of flooding has harmed local wildlife. The humpback chub,for example, thrived in
the rust-redwaters of the Colorado. Recently, though, its population has crashed. At first sight,
it looked as if the reason was that the chub were being eaten by trout introduced for sport
fishing in the mid-20th century. But trout and chub co-existed until the Glen Canyon dam was
built, so something else is going on. Steve Gloss, of the United States’ Geological Survey (USGS),
reckons that the chub’s decline is the result of their losing their most valuable natural defense,
the Colorado’s rusty sediment. The chub were well adapted to the poor visibility created by the
thick, red water which gave the river its name, and depended on it to hide from predators.
Without the cloudy water the chub became vulnerable.
E And the chub are not alone. In the years since the Glen Canyon dam was built, several
species have vanished altogether. These include the Colorado pike-minnow, the razorback
sucker and the round-tail chub. Meanwhile, aliens including fathead minnows, channel catfish
and common carp, which would have been hard, put to survive in the savage waters of the
undammed canyon, have move din
F So flooding is the obvious answer. Unfortunately, it is easier said than done. Floods were
sent down the Grand Canyon in 1996 and 2004 and the results were mixed. In 1996 the flood
was allowed to go on too long. To start with,all seemed well. The floodwaters built up
sandbanks and infused the river with sediment. Eventually, however, the continued flow
washed most of the sediment out of the canyon. This problem was avoided in 2004, but
unfortunately, on that occasion, the volume of sand available behind the dam was too low to
rebuild the sandbanks. This time, the USGS is convinced that things will be better. The amount
of sediment available is three times greater than it was in 2004. So if a flood is going to do some
good, this is the time to unleash one.
G Even so, it may turn out to be an empty gesture. At less than 1,200 cubic metres a second,
this flood is smaller than even an average spring flood, let alone one of the mightier deluges of
the past. Those glorious inundations moved massive quantities of sediment through the Grand
Canyon,wiping the slate dirty, and making a muddy mess of silt and muck that would make
modern river rafters cringe.
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Questions 1-7
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage?
In boxes 1-7 on your answer sheet, write
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information

FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this
1. Damage caused by fire is worse than that caused by flood.
2. The flood peaks at almost 1500 cubic meters every eight years.
3. Contribution of sediments delivered by tributaries has little impact.
4. Decreasing number of chubs is always caused by introducing of trout since mid 20th century.
5. It seemed that the artificial flood in 1996 had achieved success partly at the very beginning.
6. In fact, the yield of artificial flood water is smaller than an average natural flood at present.
7. Mighty floods drove fast moving flows with clean and high quality water.
Questions 8-13
Complete the summary below.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 8-13 on your answer sheet.
The eco-impact of the Canyon Dam
Floods are people’s nightmare. In the past, canyon was raged by flood every year. The snow
from far Wyoming would melt in the season of 8…………………… and caused a flood flow peak in
Colorado river. In the four decades after people built the Glen Canyon dam, it only could
gather 9…………………… together from tiny, undammed tributaries.
Humpback chub population on reduced, why?
Then, several species disappeared including Colorado pike-minnow, 10…………………… and the
round-tail chub. Meanwhile, some moved in such as fathead minnows, channel catfish
and 11…………………… . The non-stopped flow leaded to the washing away of the sediment out of
the canyon, which poses great threat to the chubs because it has poor 12…………………… away
from predators. In addition, the volume of 13…………………… available behind the dam was too
low to rebuild the bars and flooding became more serious.
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READING PASSAGE 2
Going Bananas
A The world’s favourite fruit could disappear forever in 10 years’ time. The banana is among
the world’s oldest crops. Agricultural scientists believe that the first edible banana was
discovered around ten thousand years ago. It has been at an evolutionary standstill ever since it
was first propagated in the jungles of South-East Asia at the end of the last ice age. Normally
the wild banana, a giant jungle herb called Musa acuminata, contains a mass of hard seeds that
make the fruit virtually inedible. But now and then, hunter-gatherers must have discovered rare
mutant plants that produced seedless, edible fruits. Geneticists now know that the vast
majority of these soft-fruited plants resulted from genetic accidents that gave their cells three
copies of each chromosome instead of the usual two. This imbalance prevents seeds and pollen
from developing normally, rendering the mutant plants sterile. And that is why some scientists
believe the world’s most popular fruit could be doomed. It lacks the genetic diversity to fight off
pests and diseases that are invading the banana plantations of Central America and the small-
holdings of Africa and Asia alike.
B In some ways, the banana today resembles the potato before blight brought famine to
Ireland a century and a half ago. But “it holds a lesson for other crops, too”, says Emile Frison,
top banana at the International Network for the Improvement of Banana and Plantain in
Montpellier, France. “The state of the banana”, Frison warns, “can teach a broader lesson: the
increasing standardisation of food crops round the world is threatening their ability to adapt
and survive.”
C The first Stone Age plant breeders cultivated these sterile freaks by replanting cuttings from
their stems. And the descendants of those original cuttings are the bananas we still eat today.
Each is a virtual clone, almost devoid of genetic diversity. And that uniformity makes it ripe for
disease like no other crop on Earth. Traditional varieties of sexually reproducing crops have
always had a much broader genetic base, and the genes will recombine in new arrangements in
each generation. This gives them much greater flexibility in evolving responses to disease – and
far more genetic resources to draw on in the face of an attack. But that advantage is fading fast,
as growers increasingly plant the same few, high-yielding varieties. Plant breeders work
feverishly to maintain resistance in these standardized crops. Should these efforts falter, yields
of even the most productive crop could swiftly crash. “When some pest or disease comes along,
severe epidemics can occur,” says Geoff Hawtin, director of the Rome-based International Plant
Genetic Resources Institute.
D The banana is an excellent case in point. Until the 1950s, one variety, the Gros Michel,
dominated the world’s commercial banana business. Found by French botanists in Asian the
1820s, the Gros Michel was by all accounts a fine banana, richer and sweeter than today’s
standard banana and without the latte’s bitter aftertaste when green. But it was vulnerable to a
soil fungus that produced a wilt known as Panama disease. “Once the fungus gets into the soil it
remains there for many years. There is nothing farmers can do. Even chemical spraying won’t
get rid of it,” says Rodomiro Ortiz, director of the Inter-national Institute for Tropical Agriculture
in Ibadan, Nigeria. So plantation owners played a running game, abandoning infested fields and
moving to “clean” land – until they ran out of clean land in the 1950s and had to abandon the
55 | P a g e
Gros Michel. Its successor, and still the reigning commercial king, is the Cavendish banana, a
19th-century British discovery from southern China. The Cavendish is resistant to Panama
disease and, as a result, it literally saved the international banana industry. During the 1960s, it
replaced the Gros Michel on supermarket shelves. If you buy a banana today, it is almost
certainly a Cavendish. But even so, it is a minority in the world’s banana crop.
E Half a billion people in Asia and Africa depend on bananas. Bananas provide the largest
source of calories and are eaten daily. Its name is synonymous with food. But the day of
reckoning may be coming for the Cavendish and its indigenous kin. Another fungal disease,
black Sigatoka, has become a global epidemic since its first appearance in Fiji in 1963. Left to
itself, black Sigatoka which causes brown wounds on leaves and premature fruit ripening – cuts
fruit yields by 50 to 70 per cent and reduces the productive lifetime of banana plants from 30
years to as little as 2 or 3. Commercial growers keep Sigatoka at bay by a massive chemical
assault. Forty sprayings of fungicide a year is typical. But despite the fungicides, diseases such
as black Sigatoka are getting more and more difficult to control. “As soon as you bring in a new
fungicide, they develop resistance,” says Frison. “One thing we can be sure of is that the
Sigatoka won’t lose in this battle.” Poor farmers, who cannot afford chemicals, have it even
worse. They can do little more than watch their plants die. “Most of the banana fields in
Amazonia have already been destroyed by the disease,” says Luadir Gasparotto, Brazil’s leading
banana pathologist with the government research agency EMBRAPA. Production is likely to fall
by 70 percent as the disease spreads, he predicts. The only option will be to find a new variety.
F But how? Almost all edible varieties are susceptible to the diseases, so growers cannot
simply change to a different banana. With most crops, such a threat would unleash an army of
breeders, scouring the world for resistant relatives whose traits they can breed into commercial
varieties. Not so with the banana. Because all edible varieties are sterile, bringing in new
genetic traits to help cope with pests and diseases is nearly impossible. Nearly, but not totally.
Very rarely, a sterile banana will experience a genetic accident that allows an almost normal
seed to develop, giving breeders a tiny window for improvement. Breeders at the Honduran
Foundation of Agricultural Research have tried to exploit this to create disease-resistant
varieties. Further backcrossing with wild bananas yielded a new seedless banana resistant to
both black Sigatoka and Panama disease.
G Neither Western supermarket consumers nor peasant growers like the new hybrid. Some
accuse it of tasting more like an apple than a banana. Not surprisingly, the majority of plant
breeders have till now turned their backs on the banana and got to work on easier plants. And
commercial banana companies are now washing their hands of the whole breeding effort,
preferring to fund a search for new fungicides instead. “We supported a breeding programme
for 40 years, but it wasn’t able to develop an alternative to Cavendish. It was very expensive
and we got nothing back,” says Ronald Romero, head of research at Chiquita, one of the Big
Three companies that dominate the international banana trade.
H Last year, a global consortium of scientists led by Frison announced plans to sequence the
banana genome within five years. It would be the first edible fruit to be sequenced. Well,
almost edible. The group will actually be sequencing inedible wild bananas from East Asia
because many of these are resistant to black Sigatoka. If they can pinpoint the genes that help
56 | P a g e
these wild varieties to resist black Sigatoka, the protective genes could be introduced into
laboratory tissue cultures of cells from edible varieties. These could then be propagated into
new, resistant plants and passed on to farmers.
I It sounds promising, but the big banana companies have, until now, refused to get involved in
GM research for fear of alienating their customers. “Biotechnology is extremely expensive and
there are serious questions about consumer acceptance,” says David McLaughlin, Chiquita’s
senior director for environmental affairs. With scant funding from the companies, the banana
genome researchers are focusing on the other end of the spectrum. Even if they can identify
the crucial genes, they will be a long way from developing new varieties that smallholders will
find suitable and affordable. But whatever biotechnology’s academic interest, it is the only
hope for the banana. Without banana production worldwide will head into a tailspin. We may
even see the extinction of the banana as both a lifesaver for hungry and impoverished Africans
and as the most popular product on the world’s supermarket shelves.
Question 14-16
Complete the sentences below with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage.
Banana was first eaten as a fruit by humans almost 14 ………………….…… years ago.
Banana was first planted in 15 ……………………….… .
Wild banana’s taste is adversely affected by its 16 ………………….…… .
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Question 17-23
Look at the following statements (Questions 17-23) and the list of people below.
Match each statement with the correct person, A-F.
Write the correct letter, A-F, in boxes 17-23 on your answer sheet.
17. A Pest invasion may seriously damage banana industry.

18. The effect of fungal infection in soil is often long-lasting.
19. A commercial manufacturer gave up on breeding bananas for disease resistant species.
20. Banana disease may develop resistance to chemical sprays.
21. A banana disease has destroyed a large number of banana plantations.
22. Consumers would not accept genetically altered crop.
23. Lessons can be learned from bananas for other crops.
List of people
A Rodomiro
B David Mclaughlin
C Emile Frison
D Ronald Romero
E Luadir Gasparotto
F Geoff Hawtin
Question 24-26

24. Banana is the oldest known fruit.

25. Gros Michel is still being used as a commercial product.
26. Banana is a main food in some countries.
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READING PASSAGE 3
Questions 27-32
The reading passage has seven paragraphs, A–G.

Choose the correct heading for paragraphs A–G from the list below.
Write the correct number, i–ix, in boxes 27-32 on your answer sheet.
List of Headings
i Unusual way of hatching the chicks
ii Feeding habit of the red-footed booby
iii Folding wings for purpose
iv Rearing the young
v Classification of boobies
vi Diving for seafood
vii Surviving mechanism during the food shortage period
viii Mating and breeding
ix Origin of the booby’s name
Example: Paragraph C IX
27. Paragraph A
28. Paragraph B
29. Paragraph D
30. Paragraph E
31. Paragraph F
32. Paragraph G
Blue-footed Boobies 2
A Boobies are a small group of seabirds native to tropical and subtropical oceans throughout
the world. Their diet consists mainly of fish. They are specialized fish eaters feeding on small
school fish like sardines, anchovies, mackerel, and flying fish. When their prey is in sight, they
fold their long wings back around their streamlined bodies and plunge into the water from as
high as 80 feet, so streamlined they barely make a splash. They travel in parties of about 12 to
areas of water with large schools of small fish. When the lead bird sees a fish shoal in the water,
it will signal the rest of the group and they will all dive together. Surprisingly, individuals do not
eat with the hunting group, preferring to eat on their own, usually in the early morning or late
afternoon.
B There are three varieties on the Galapagos: the blue-footed, red-footed, and masked
boobies. They are all members of the same family, and are not only different in appearance but
also in behaviours. The blue-footed and red-footed boobies mate throughout the year, while
the masked boobies have an annual mating cycle that differs from island to island. All catch fish
59 | P a g e
in a similar manner, but in different areas: the blue-footed booby does its fishing close to shore,
while the masked booby goes slightly farther out, and the red-footed booby fishes at the
farthest distances from shore.
C Although it is unknown where the name “Booby” emanates from, some conjecture it may
come from the Spanish word for clown, “bobo”, meaning “stupid”. Its name was probably
inspired by the bird’s clumsiness on land and apparently unwarranted bravery. The blue footed
booby is extremely vulnerable to human visitors because it does not appear to fear them.
Therefore these birds received such name for their clumsiness on land in which they were
easily, captured, killed, and eaten by humans.
D The blue-footed booby’s characteristic feet play a significant part in their famous courtship
ceremony, the ‘booby dance’. The male walks around the female, raising his bright blue feet
straight up in the air, while bringing his ‘shoulders’ towards the ground and crossing the bottom
tips of his wings high above the ground. Plus he’ll raise his bill up towards the sky to try to win
his mate over. The female may also partake in these activities – lifting her feet, sky pointing,
and of course squawking at her mate. After mating, another ritual occurs – the nest-building
which ironically is never used because they nest on the bare ground. When the female is ready
to lay her eggs, they scrape the existing nest away so she can nest on exposed ground. Sun-
baked islands form the booby’s breeding grounds. When ready the female Blue Footed Booby
lays one to three eggs.
E After mating, two or three eggs are laid in a shallow depression on flat or gently sloping
ground. Both male and female take turns incubating the eggs. Unlike most birds, booby doesn’t
develop brood patches (areas of bare skin on the breast) to warm the eggs during incubation.
Instead, it uses its broad webbed feet, which have large numbers of prominent blood vessels, to
transmit heat essential for incubation. The eggs are thick-shelled so they can withstand the full
weight of an incubating bird.
F After hatching, the male plays a major role in bringing fish home. He can bring back a
constant supply of small fish for the chicks, which must be fed continuously. The reason is that
the male has a longer tail than the female in relation to his body size, which makes him able to
execute shallower dives and to feed closer to shore. Then the female takes a greater part as
time proceeds. Sooner or later, the need to feed the young becomes greater than the need to
protect them and both adults must fish to provide enough.
G When times are good, the parents may successfully fledge all three chicks, but, in harder
times, they may still lay as many eggs yet only obtain enough food to raise one. The problem is
usually solved by the somewhat callous-sounding system of “opportunistic sibling murder.” The
first-born chick is larger and stronger than its nest mate(s) as a result of hatching a few days
earlier and also because the parents feed the larger chick. If food is scarce, the first born will get
more food than its nest mate(s) and will outcompete them, causing them to starve. The above
system optimizes the reproductive capacity of the blue-foot in an unpredictable environment.
The system ensures that, if possible, at least one chick will survive a period of shortage rather
than all three dying of starvation under a more ‘humane’ system.
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Questions 33-35
In boxes 33 – 35 on your answer sheet, write

33. Boobies are afraid of human approaching.

34. Female boobies eat more than the male ones.
35. When there is not sufficient food, the larger chicks will be fed at the expense of the
survival of its smaller mates.
Questions 36 – 40
Complete the summary below, using NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the Reading Passage
for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 36 – 40 on your answer sheet.
The courtship of the Blue-footed Booby consists of the 36 ………………… flaunting his blue feet
and dancing to impress the female. During the dance, the male will spread his wings and stamp
his feet on the ground with his bills 37 …………………… . After mating, the booby’s unusual
demeanor continues with ritual 38 …………………… that really serves no purpose. When the
female Booby lays eggs, the parental boobies incubate the eggs beneath their 39 ……………………
which contain 40 …………………… to transmit the heat, because of the lack of brood patches.
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READING
TEST 2
READING PASSAGE 1
Keep a Watchful Eye on the Bridges
A Most road and rail bridges are only inspected visually, if at all. Every few months, engineers
have to clamber over the structure in an attempt to find problems before the bridge shows
obvious signs of damage. Technologies developed at Los Alamos National Laboratory, New
Mexico, and Texas A&M University may replace these surveys with microwave sensors that
constantly monitor the condition of bridges.
B “The device uses microwaves to measure the distance between the sensor and the bridge,
much like radar does,” says Albert Migliori, a Los Alamos physicist “Any load on the bridge –
such as traffic induces displacements, which change that distance as the bridge moves up and
down.” By monitoring these movements over several minutes, the researchers can find out
how the bridge resonates. Changes in its behaviour can give an early warning of damage.
C The Interstate 40 bridge over the Rio Grande river in Albuquerque provided the researchers
with a rare opportunity to text their ideas. Chuck Farrar, an engineer at Los Alamos, explains:
“The New Mexico authorities decided to raze this bridge and replace it. We were able to mount
instruments on it, test it under various load conditions and even inflict damage just before it
was demolished.” In the 1960s and 1970s, 2500 similar bridges were built in the US. They have
two steel girders supporting the load in each section. Highway experts know that this design is
“fracture critical” because a failure in either girder would cause the bridge to fail.
D After setting up the microwave dish on the ground below the bridge, the Los Alamos team
installed conventional accelerometers at several points along the span to measure its motion.
They then tested the bridge while traffic roared across it and while subjecting it to pounding
from a “shaker”, which delivered precise punches to a specific point on the road.
E “We then created damage that we hoped would simulate fatigue cracks that can occur in
steel girders,” says Farrar. They first cut a slot about 60 centimetres long in the middle of one
girder. They then extended the cut until it reached the bottom of the girder and finally they cut
across the flange – the bottom of the girder’s “I” shape.
F The initial, crude analysis of the bridge’s behaviour, based on the frequency at which the
bridge resonates, did not indicate that anything was wrong until the flange was damaged. But
later the data were reanalysed with algorithms that took into account changes in the mode
shapes of the structure – shapes that the structure takes on when excited at a particular
frequency. These more sophisticated algorithms, which were developed by Norris Stubbs at
Texas A&M University, successfully identified and located the damage caused by the initial cut.
G “When any structure vibrates, the energy is distributed throughout with some points not
moving, while others vibrate strongly at various frequencies,” says Stubbs. “My algorithms use
pattern recognition to detect changes in the distribution of this energy.” NASA already uses
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Stubbs’ method to check the behaviour of the body flap that slows space shuttles down after
they land.
H A commercial system based on the Los Alamos hardware is now available, complete with
the Stubbs algorithms, from the Quatro Corporation in Albuquerque for about $100,000. Tim
Darling, another Los Alamos physicist working on the microwave interferometer with Migliori,
says that as the electronics become cheaper, a microwave inspection system will eventually be
applied to most large bridges in the US. “In a decade I would like to see a battery or solar-
powered package mounted under each bridge, scanning it every day to detect changes,” he
says.
Questions 1-4
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

1. How did the traditional way to prevent damage of the bridges before the invention of new
monitoring system
A Bridges has to be tested in every movement on two points.
B Bridges has to be closely monitored by microwave devices.
C Bridges has already been monitored by sensors.
D Bridges has to be frequently inspected by professional workers with naked eyes.
2. How does the new microwave monitors find out the problems of bridges
A by changeling the distance between the positions of devices
B by controlling the traffic flow on the bridges
C by monitoring the distance caused by traffic between two points
D by displacement of the several critical parts in the bridges
3. Why did the expert believe there is a problem for the design called “fracture critical”
A Engineers failed to apply the newly developed construction materials.
B There was not enough finance to repair the bridges.
C The supporting parts of the bridges may crack and cause the bridge to fail.
D There was bigger traffic load conditions than the designers had anticipated.
4. Defect was not recognized by a basic method in the beginning

A until the mid of faces of bridges has fractures.
B until the damage appears along and down to the flanges.
C until the points on the road have been punched.
D until the frequency of resonates appears disordered.
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Questions 5-8
Fill in the blanks in the diagram labels.

Write the correct answer in boxes 5-8 on your answer sheet.
Questions 9-13
The reading Passage has eight paragraphs, A–H.

Which paragraph contains the following information?
Write the correct letter, A–H, in boxes 9–13 on your answer sheet.
9. how is the pressure that they have many a great chance to test bridges
10. a ten-year positive change for microwave device
11. the chance they get a honorable contract
12. explanation of the mechanism for the new microwave monitoring to work
13. how is the damage deliberately created by the researchers
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READING PASSAGE 2
Activities for Children
A Twenty-five years ago, children in London walked to school and played in parks and playing
fields after school and at the weekend. Today they are usually driven to school by parents
anxious about safety and spend hours glued to television screens or computer games.
Meanwhile, community playing fields are being sold off to property developers at an alarming
rate. ‘This change in lifestyle has, sadly, meant greater restrictions on children,’ says Neil
Armstrong, Professor of Health and Exercise Science at the University of Exeter. ‘If children
continue to be this inactive, they’ll be storing up big problems for the future.’
B In 1985, Professor Armstrong headed a five-year research project into children’s fitness. The
results, published in 1990, were alarming. The survey, which monitored 700 11-16-year-olds,
found that 48 per cent of girls and 41 per cent of boys already exceeded safe cholesterol levels
set for children by the American Heart Foundation. Armstrong adds, “heart is a muscle and
need exercise, or it loses its strength.” It also found that 13 per cent of boys and 10 per cent of
girls were overweight. More disturbingly, the survey found that over a four-day period, half the
girls and one-third of the boys did less exercise than the equivalent of a brisk 10-minute walk.
High levels of cholesterol, excess body fat and inactivity are believed to increase the risk of
coronary heart disease.
C Physical education is under pressure in the UK – most schools devote little more than 100
minutes a week to it in curriculum time, which is less than many other European countries.
Three European countries are giving children a head start in PE, France, Austria and Switzerland
– offer at least two hours in primary and secondary schools. These findings, from the European
Union of Physical Education Associations, prompted specialists in children’s physiology to call
on European governments to give youngsters a daily PE programme. The survey shows that the
UK ranks 13th out of the 25 countries, with Ireland bottom, averaging under an hour a week for
PE. From age six to 18, British children received, on average, 106 minutes of PE a week.
Professor Armstrong, who presented the findings at the meeting, noted that since the
introduction of the national curriculum there had been a marked fall in the time devoted to PE
in UK schools, with only a minority of pupils getting two hours a week.
D As a former junior football international, Professor Armstrong is a passionate advocate for

sport. Although the Government has poured millions into beefing up sport in the community,
there is less commitment to it as part of the crammed school curriculum. This means that many
children never acquire the necessary skills to thrive in team games. If they are no good at them,
they lose interest and establish an inactive pattern of behaviour. When this is coupled with a
poor diet, it will lead inevitably to weight gain. Seventy per cent of British children give up all
sport when they leave school, compared with only 20 per cent of French teenagers. Professor
Armstrong believes that there is far too great an emphasis on team games at school. “We need
to look at the time devoted to PE and balance it between individual and pair activities, such as
aerobics and badminton, as well as team sports.” He added that children need to have the
opportunity to take part in a wide variety of individual, partner and team sports.
E The good news, however, is that a few small companies and children’s activity groups have
reacted positively and creatively to the problem. ‘Take That,’ shouts Gloria Thomas, striking a
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disco pose astride her mini-space hopper. ‘Take That,’ echo a flock of toddlers, adopting
outrageous postures astride their space hoppers. ‘Michael Jackson,’ she shouts, and they all do
a spoof fan-crazed shriek. During the wild and chaotic hopper race across the studio floor,
commands like this are issued and responded to with untrammelled glee. The sight of 15
bouncing seven-year-olds who seem about to launch into orbit at every bounce brings tears to
the eyes. Uncoordinated, loud, excited and emotional, children provide raw comedy.
F Any cardiovascular exercise is a good option, and it doesn’t necessarily have to be high
intensity. It can be anything that gets your heart rate up: such as walking the dog, swimming,
running skipping, hiking. “Even walking through the grocery store can be exercise,” Samis-Smith
said. What they don’t know is that they’re at a Fit Kids class, and that the fun is a disguise for
the serious exercise plan they’re covertly being taken through. Fit Kids trains parents to run
fitness classes for children. ‘Ninety per cent of children don’t like team sports,’ says company
director, Gillian Gale.
G A Prevention survey found that children whose parents keep in shape are much more likely
to have healthy body weights themselves. “There’s nothing worse than telling a child what he
needs to do and not doing it yourself,” says Elizabeth Ward, R.D., a Boston nutritional
consultant and author of Healthy Foods, Healthy Kids. “Set a good example and get your
nutritional house in order first.” In the 1930s and ’40s, kids expended 800 calories a day just
walking, carrying water, and doing other chores,’ notes Fima Lifshitz, M.D., a pediatric
endocrinologist in Santa Barbara. “Now, kids in obese families are expending only 200 calories a
day in physical activity,” says Lifshitz, “incorporate more movement in your family’s life – park
farther away from the stores at the mall, take stairs instead of the elevator, and walk to nearby
friends’ houses instead of driving.”
Questions 14-17
The reading Passage has seven paragraphs, A–G.

Write the correct letter, A-G, in boxes 14-17 on your answer sheet.
14. health and living condition of children
15. health organization monitored physical activity
16. comparison of exercise time between UK and other countries
17. wrong approach for school activity
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Questions 18-21

18. According to American Heart Foundation, cholesterol levels of boys are higher than girls’.
19. British children generally do less exercise than some other European countries.
20. Skipping becomes more and more popular in schools of UK.
21. According to Healthy Kids, the first task is for parents to encourage their children to keep
the same healthy body weight.
Questions 22-26

22. According to paragraph A, what does Professor Neil Armstrong concern about
A Spending more time on TV affect academic level
B Parents have less time stay with their children
C Future health of British children
D Increasing speed of property’s development
23. What does Armstrong indicate in Paragraph B

A We need to take a 10 minute walk every day.
B We should do more activity to exercise heart.
C Girls’ situation is better than boys.
D Exercise can cure many disease.
24. What is aim of First Kids’ training

A Make profit by running several sessions.
B Only concentrate on one activity for each child.
C To guide parents how to organize activities for children.
D Spread the idea that team sport is better.
25. What did Lifshitz suggest in the end of this passage

A Create opportunities to exercise your body.
B Taking elevator saves your time.
C Kids should spend more than 200 calories each day.
D We should never drive but walk.
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26. What is main idea of this passage
A health of the children who are overweight is at risk in the future
B children in UK need proper exercises
C government mistaken approach for children
D parents play the most important role in children’s activity
READING PASSAGE 3
Roller Coaster
A 600 years ago, roller coaster pioneers never would have imagined the advancements that
have been made to create the roller coasters of today. The tallest and fastest roller coaster in
the world is the Kingda Ka, a coaster in New Jersey that launches its passengers from zero to
128 miles per hour in 3.5 seconds (most sports cars take over four seconds to get to just 60
miles per hour). It then heaves its riders skyward at a 90-degree angle (straight up) until it
reaches a height of 456 feet, over one and a half football fields, above the ground, before
dropping another 418 feet (Coaster Grotto “Kingda Ka”). With that said, roller coasters are
about more than just speed and height, they are about the creativity of the designers that build
them, each coaster having its own unique way of producing intense thrills at a lesser risk than
the average car ride. Roller coasters have evolved drastically over the years, from their
primitive beginnings as Russian ice slides, to the metal monsters of today. Their combination of
creativity and structural elements make them one of the purest forms of architecture.
B At first glance, a roller coaster is something like a passenger train. It consists of a series of
connected cars that move on tracks. But unlike a passenger train, a roller coaster has no engine
or power source of its own. For most of the ride, the train is moved by gravity and momentum.
To build up this momentum, you need to get the train to the top of the first hill or give it a
powerful launch. The traditional lifting mechanism is a long length of chain running up the hill
under the track. The chain is fastened in a loop, which is wound around a gear at the top of the
hill and another one at the bottom of the hill. The gear at the bottom of the hill is turned by a
simple motor. This turns the chain loop so that it continually moves up the hill like a long
conveyer belt. The coaster cars grip onto the chain with several chain dogs, sturdy hinged
hooks. When the train rolls to the bottom of the hill, the dogs catches onto the chain links.
Once the chain dog is hooked, the chain simply pulls the train to the top of the hill. At the
summit, the chain dog is released and the train starts its descent down the hill.
C Roller coasters have a long, fascinating history. The direct ancestors of roller coasters were
monumental ice slides – long, steep wooden-slides covered in ice, some as high as 70 feet –
that were popular in Russia in the 16th and 17th centuries. Riders shot down the slope in sleds
made out of wood or blocks of ice, crash-landing in a sand pile. Coaster historians diverge on
the exact evolution of these ice slides into actual rolling carts. The most widespread account is
that a few entrepreneurial Frenchmen imported the ice slide idea to France. The warmer
climate of France tended to melt the ice, so the French started building waxed slides instead,
eventually adding wheels to the sleds. In 1817, the Russes a Belleville (Russian Mountains of
Belleville) became the first roller coaster where the train was attached to the track (in this case,
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the train axle fit into a carved groove). The French continued to expand on this idea, coming up
with more complex track layouts, with multiple cars and all sorts of twists and turns.
D In comparison to the world’s first roller coaster, there is perhaps an even greater debate
over what was America’s first true coaster. Many will say that it is Pennsylvania’s own Maunch
Chunk-Summit Hill and Switch Back Railroad. The Maunch Chunk-
Summit Hill and Switch Back Railroad was originally America’s second railroad, and
considered my many to be the greatest coaster of all time. Located in the Lehigh valley, it was
originally used to transport coal from the top of Mount Pisgah to the bottom of Mount
Jefferson, until Josiah White, a mining entrepreneur, had the idea of turning it into a part-time
thrill ride. Because of its immediate popularity, it soon became strictly a passenger train. A
steam engine would haul passengers to the top of the mountain, before letting them coast back
down, with speeds rumored to reach 100 miles per hour! The reason that it was called a switch
back railroad, a switch back track was located at the top – where the steam engine would let
the riders coast back down. This type of track featured a dead end where the steam engine
would detach its cars, allowing riders to coast down backwards. The railway went through a
couple of minor track changes and name changes over the years, but managed to last from
1829 to 1937, over 100 years.
E The coaster craze in America was just starting to build. The creation of the Switch Back
Railway, by La Marcus Thompson, gave roller coasters national attention. Originally built at New
York’s Coney Island in 1884, Switch Back Railways began popping up all over the country. The
popularity of these rides may puzzle the modern-day thrill seeker, due to the mild ride they
gave in comparison to the modern-day roller coaster. Guests would pay a nickel to wait in line
up to five hours just to go down a pair of side-by-side tracks with gradual hills that vehicles
coasted down at a top speed around six miles per hour. Regardless, Switchback Railways were
very popular, and sparked many people, including Thompson, to design coasters that were
bigger and better.
F The 1910s and 1920s were probably the best decade that the roller coaster has ever seen.
The new wave of technology, such as the “unstop wheels”, an arrangement that kept a
coaster’s wheels to its tracks by resisted high gravitational forces, showed coasters a realm of
possibilities that has never been seen before. In 1919, North America alone had about 1,500
roller coasters, a number that was rising rampantly. Then, the Great Depression gave a crushing
blow to amusement parks all over America. As bad as it was, amusement parks had an
optimistic look on the future in the late 1930s. But, in 1942 roller coasters could already feel
the effects of World War Two, as they were forced into a shadow of neglect. Most, nearly all of
America’s roller coasters were shut down. To this very day, the number of roller coaster in
America is just a very tiny fraction of the amount of roller coasters in the 1920s.
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Questions 27 – 30
Answer the questions below.
A diagram that explains the mechanism and working principles of roller coaster.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER from the passage for each answer.
Traditional Lifting Mechanism
Questions 31 – 36
Complete the following summary of the paragraphs of Reading Passage, using NO MORE THAN
TWO WORDS from the Reading Passage for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 31 – 36 on your answer sheet.

The first roller coaster was perhaps originated from Russia which is wrapped up
by 31……………………, which was introduced into France, and it was modified to 32……………………,
because temperature there would 33……………………the ice. This time 34…………………… were
installed on the board. In America, the first roller coaster was said to appear in Pennsylvania, it
was actually a railroad which was designed to send 35…………………… between two mountains.
Josiah White turned it into a thrill ride, it was also called switch back track and
a 36 …………………… there allowed riders to slide downward back again.
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Questions 37 – 40
In boxes 37 – 40 on your answer sheet, write
YES if the statement agrees with the view of the writer

NO if the statement contradicts the view of the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
37. The most exiting roller coaster in the world is in New Jersey.
38. French added more innovation on Russian ice slide including both cars and tracks.
39. Switch Back Railways began to gain popularity since its first construction in New York.
40. The Great Depression affected amusement parks yet did not shake the significant role of
US roller coasters in the world.
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READING
TEST 3
READING PASSAGE 1
Mammoth Kill 2
A mammoth is any species of the extinct genus Mammuthus, proboscideans commonly

equipped with long, curved tusks and, in northern species, a covering of long hair. They lived
from the Pliocene epoch (from around 5 million years ago) into the Holocene at about 4,500
years ago, and were members of the family Elephantidae, which contains, along with
mammoths, the two genera of modern elephants and their ancestors.
A Like their modern relatives, mammoths were quite large. The largest known species reached
heights in the region of 4 m at the shoulder and weights of up to 8 tonnes, while exceptionally
large males may have exceeded 12 tonnes. However, most species of mammoth were only
about as large as a modern Asian elephant. Both sexes bore tusks. A first, small set appeared at
about the age of six months, and these were replaced at about 18 months by the permanent
set. Growth of the permanent set was at a rate of about 2.5 to 15.2 cm per year. Based on
studies of their close relatives, the modern elephants, mammoths probably had a gestation
period of 22 months, resulting in a single calf being born. Their social structure was probably
the same as that of African and Asian elephants, with females living in herds headed by a
matriarch, whilst bulls lived solitary lives or formed loose groups after sexual maturity.
B MEXICO CITY – Although it’s hard to imagine in this age of urban sprawl and automobiles,
North America once belonged to mammoths, camels, ground sloths as large as cows, bear-size
beavers and other formidable beasts. Some 11,000 years ago, however, these large-bodied
mammals and others – about 70 species in all – disappeared. Their demise coincided roughly
with the arrival of humans in the New World and dramatic climatic change – factors that have
inspired several theories about the die-off. Yet despite decades of scientific investigation, the
exact cause remains a mystery. Now new findings offer support to one of these controversial
hypotheses: that human hunting drove this megafaunal menagerie to extinction. The overkill
model emerged in the 1960s, when it was put forth by Paul S. Martin of the University of
Arizona. Since then, critics have charged that no evidence exists to support the idea that the
first Americans hunted to the extent necessary to cause these extinctions. But at the annual
meeting of the Society of Vertebrate Paleontology in Mexico City last October, paleoecologist
John Alroy of the University of California at Santa Barbara argued that, in fact, hunting-driven
extinction is not only plausible, it was unavoidable. He has determined, using a computer
simulation, that even a very modest amount of hunting would have wiped these animals out.
C Assuming an initial human population of 100 people that grew no more than 2 percent
annually, Alroy determined that if each band of, say, 50 people killed 15 to 20 large mammals a
year, humans could have eliminated the animal populations within 1,000 years. Large mammals
in particular would have been vulnerable to the pressure because they have longer gestation
periods than smaller mammals and their young require extended care.
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D Not everyone agrees with Alroy’s assessment. For one, the results depend in part on
population-size estimates for the extinct animals – figures that are not necessarily reliable. But
a more specific criticism comes from mammalogist Ross D. E. MacPhee of the American
Museum of Natural History in New York City, who points out that the relevant archaeological
record contains barely a dozen examples of stone points embedded in mammoth bones (and
none, it should be noted, are known from other megafaunal remains) – hardly what one might
expect if hunting drove these animals to extinction. Furthermore, some of these species had
huge ranges – the giant Jefferson’s ground sloth, for example, lived as far north as the Yukon
and as far south as Mexico – which would have made slaughtering them in numbers sufficient
to cause their extinction rather implausible, he says.
E MacPhee agrees that humans most likely brought about these extinctions (as well as others
around the world that coincided with human arrival), but not directly. Rather he suggests that
people may have introduced hyperlethal disease, perhaps through their dogs or hitchhiking
vermin, which then spread wildly among the immunologically naive species of the New World.
As in the overkill model, populations of large mammals would have a harder time recovering.
Repeated outbreaks of a hyperdisease could thus quickly drive them to the point of no return.
So far MacPhee does not have empirical evidence for the hyperdisease hypothesis, and it won’t
be easy to come by: hyperlethal disease would kill far too quickly to leave its signature on the
bones themselves. But he hopes that analyses of tissue and DNA from the last mammoths to
perish will eventually reveal murderous microbes.
F The third explanation for what brought on this North American extinction does not involve
human beings. Instead its proponents blame the loss on the weather. The Pleistocene epoch
witnessed considerable climatic instability, explains paleontologist Russell W. Graham of the
Denver Museum of Nature and Science. As a result, certain habitats disappeared, and species
that had once formed communities split apart. For some animals, this change brought
opportunity. For much of the megafauna, however, the increasingly homogeneous
environment left them with shrinking geographical ranges – a death sentence for large animals,
which need large ranges. Although these creatures managed to maintain viable populations
through most of the Pleistocene, the final major fluctuation – the so-called Younger Dryas event
– pushed them over the edge, Graham says. For his part, Alroy is convinced that human hunters
demolished the titans of the Ice Age. The overkill model explains everything the disease and
climate scenarios explain, he asserts, and makes accurate predictions about which species
would eventually go extinct. “Personally, I’m a vegetarian,” he remarks, “and I find all of this
kind of gross – but believable.”
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Questions 1-7
Complete the following summary of the paragraphs of Reading Passage 1, using NO MORE
THAN THREE WORDS from the Reading Passage for each answer.
The reason why had big size mammals become extinct 11,000 years ago is under
hot debate. First explanation is that 1…………………… of human made it happen. This so
called 2…………………… began from 1960s suggested by an expert, who however received
criticism of lack of further information. Another assumption promoted by MacPhee is that
deadly 3…………………… from human causes their demises. However his hypothesis required
more 4…………………… to testify its validity. Graham proposed a third hypothesis
that 5…………………… in Pleistocene epoch drove some species disappear,
reduced 6…………………… posed a dangerous signal to these giants, and 7…………………… finally
wiped them out.
Questions 8-13
Use the information in the passage to match the people (listed A-C) with opinions or deeds
below.
Write the appropriate letters A-C in boxes 8-13 on your answer sheet.
NB you may use any letter more than once.
A John Alroy
B Ross D.E. MacPhee
C Russell W. Graham
8. Human hunting well explained which species would finally disappear.

9. Further grounded proof needed to explain human’s indirect impact on mammals
10. Over hunting situation has caused die-out of large mammals.
11. Illness rather than hunting caused extensive extinction.
12. Doubt raised through the study of several fossil records.
13. Climate shift is the main reason of extinction.
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READING PASSAGE 2
Stress of Workplace
A How busy is too busy? For some it means having to miss the occasional long lunch; for
others it means missing lunch altogether. For a few, it is not being able to take a “sickie” once a
month. Then there is a group of people for whom working every evening and weekend is
normal, and frantic is the tempo of their lives. For most senior executives, workloads swing
between extremely busy and frenzied. The vice-president of the management consultancy AT
Kearney and its head of telecommunications for the Asia-Pacific region, Neil Plumridge, says his
work weeks vary from a “manageable” 45 hours to 80 hours, but average 60 hours.
B Three warning signs alert Plumridge about his workload: sleep, scheduling and family. He
knows he has too much on when he gets less than six hours of sleep for three consecutive
nights; when he is constantly having to reschedule appointments; “and the third one is on the
family side”, says Plumridge, the father of a three-year-old daughter, and expecting a second
child in October. “If I happen to miss a birthday or anniversary, I know things are out of
control.” Being “too busy” is highly subjective. But for any individual, the perception of being
too busy over a prolonged period can start showing up as stress: disturbed sleep, and declining
mental and physical health. National workers’ compensation figures show stress causes the
most lost time of any workplace injury. Employees suffering stress are off work an average of
16.6 weeks. The effects of stress are also expensive. Comcare, the Federal Government insurer,
reports that in 2003-04, claims for psychological injury accounted for 7% of claims but almost
27% of claim costs. Experts say the key to dealing with stress is not to focus on relief – a game
of golf or a massage – but to reassess workloads. Neil Plumridge says he makes it a priority to
work out what has to change; that might mean allocating extra resources to a job, allowing
more time or changing expectations. The decision may take several days. He also relies on the
advice of colleagues, saying his peers coach each other with business problems. “Just a fresh
pair of eyes over an issue can help,” he says.
C Executive stress is not confined to big organisations. Vanessa Stoykov has been running her
own advertising and public relations business for seven years, specialising in work for financial
and professional services firms. Evolution Media has grown so fast that it debuted on the BRW
Fast 100 list of fastest-growing small enterprises last year – just after Stoykov had her first child.
Stoykov thrives on the mental stimulation of running her own business. “Like everyone, I have
the occasional day when I think my head’s going to blow off,” she says. Because of the growth
phase the business is in, Stoykov has to concentrate on short-term stress relief – weekends in
the mountains, the occasional “mental health” day – rather than delegating more work. She
says: “We’re hiring more people, but you need to train them, teach them about the culture and
the clients, so it’s actually more work rather than less.”
D Identify the causes: Jan Elsnera, Melbourne psychologist who specialises in executive
coaching, says thriving on a demanding workload is typical of senior executives and other high-
potential business people. She says there is no one-size-fits-all approach to stress: some people
work best with high-adrenalin periods followed by quieter patches, while others thrive under
sustained pressure. “We could take urine and blood hormonal measures and pass a judgment
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of whether someone’s physiologically stressed or not,” she says. “But that’s not going to give us
an indicator of what their experience of stress is, and what the emotional and cognitive impacts
of stress are going to be.”
E Eisner’s practice is informed by a movement known as positive psychology, a school of

thought that argues “positive” experiences – feeling engaged, challenged, and that one is
making a contribution to something meaningful – do not balance out negative ones such as
stress; instead, they help people increase their resilience over time. Good stress, or positive
experiences of being challenged and rewarded, is thus cumulative in the same way as bad
stress. Eisner says many of the senior business people she coaches are relying more on
regulating bad stress through methods such as meditation and yoga. She points to research
showing that meditation can alter the biochemistry of the brain and actually help people
“retrain” the way their brains and bodies react to stress. “Meditation and yoga enable you to
shift the way that your brain reacts, so if you get proficient at it you’re in control.”
F The Australian vice-president of AT Kearney, Neil Plumridge, says: “Often stress is caused by
our setting unrealistic expectations of ourselves. I’ll promise a client I’ll do something
tomorrow, and then promise another client the same thing, when I really know it’s not going to
happen. I’ve put stress on myself when I could have said to the clients: ‘Why don’t I give that to
you in 48 hours?’ The client doesn’t care.” Over-committing is something people experience as
an individual problem. We explain it as the result of procrastination or Parkinson’s law: that
work expands to fill the time available. New research indicates that people may be hard-wired
to do it.
G A study in the February issue of the Journal of Experimental Psychology shows that people
always believe they will be less busy in the future than now. This is a misapprehension,
according to the authors of the report, Professor Gal Zauberman, of the University of North
Carolina, and Professor John Lynch, of Duke University. “On average, an individual will be just as
busy two weeks or a month from now as he or she is today. But that is not how it appears to be
in everyday life,” they wrote. “People often make commitments long in advance that they
would never make if the same commitments required immediate action. That is, they discount
future time investments relatively steeply.” Why do we perceive a greater “surplus” of time in
the future than in the present? The researchers suggest that people underestimate completion
times for tasks stretching into the future, and that they are bad at imagining future competition
for their time.
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Question 14-18
Use the information in the passage to match the people (listed A-D) with opinions or deeds
below.
Write the appropriate letters A-D in boxes 14-18 on your answer sheet.
A Jan Elsnera
B Vanessa Stoykov
C Gal Zauberman
D Neil Plumridge
14. Work stress usually happens in the high level of a business.

15. More people’s ideas involved would be beneficial for stress relief.
16. Temporary holiday sometimes doesn’t mean less work.
17. Stress leads to a wrong direction when trying to satisfy customers.
18. It is not correct that stress in the future will be eased more than now.
Question 19-21

19. Which of the following workplace stress is NOT mentioned according to Plumridge in the
following options
A Not enough time spend on family
B Unable to concentrate on work
C Inadequate time of sleep
D Alteration of appointment
20. Which of the following solution is NOT mentioned in helping reduce the work pressure
according toPlumridge
A Allocate more personnel
B Increase more time
C Lower expectation
D Do sports and massage
21. What is point of view of Jan Elsnera towards work stress

A Medical test can only reveal part of the data needed to cope with stress
B Index somebody samples will be abnormal in a stressful experience
C Emotional and cognitive affection is superior to physical one
D One well designed solution can release all stress
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Question 22 – 27
Complete the following summary of the paragraphs of Reading Passage, using NO MORE THAN
TWO WORDS from the Reading Passage for each answer.
Statistics from National worker’s compensation indicate stress plays the most important role
in 22…………………… which cause the time losses. Staffs take about 23…………………… for absence
from work caused by stress. Not just time is our main concern but great expenses generated
consequently. An official insurer wrote sometime that about 24…………………… of all claims were
mental issues whereas nearly 27% costs in all claims, Sports Such as 25…………………… as well
as 26…………………… could be a treatment to release stress; However, specialists recommended
another practical way out, analyse 27…………………… once again.
READING PASSAGE 3
Unexpected Benefits to Human Brain
James Paul Gee, professor of education at the University of Wisconsin-Madison, played his first
video game years ago when his six-year-old son Sam was playing Pajama Sam: No Need to Hide
When It’s Dark Outside. He wanted to play the game so he could support Sam’s problem
solving. Though Pajama Sam is not an “educational game”, it is replete with the types of
problems psychologists study when they study thinking and learning. When he saw how well
the game held Sam’s attention, he wondered what sort of beast a more mature video game
might be.
Video and computer games, like many other popular, entertaining and addicting kid’s activities,
are looked down upon by many parents as time-wasters, and worse, parents think that these
games rot the brain. Violent video games are readily blamed by the media and some experts as
the reason why some youth become violent or commit extreme anti-social behavior. Recent
content analyses of video games show that as many as 89% of games contain some violent
content, but there is no form of aggressive content for 70% of popular games. Many scientists
and psychologists, like James Paul Gee, find that video games actually have many benefits – the
main one being making kids smart. Video games may actually teach kids high-level thinking
skills that they will need in the future.
“Video games change your brain,” according to University of Wisconsin psychologist Shawn
Green. Video games change the brain’s physical structure the same way as do learning to read,
playing the piano, or navigating using a map. Much like exercise can build muscle, the powerful
combination of concentration and rewarding surges of neurotransmitters like dopamine, which
strengthens neural circuits, can build the player’s brain.
Video games give your child’s brain a real workout. In many video games, the skills required to
win involve abstract and high level thinking. These skills are not even taught at school. Some of
the mental skills trained by video games include: following instructions, problem solving, logic,
hand-eye coordination, fine motor and spatial skills. Research also suggests that people can
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learn iconic, spatial, and visual attention skills from video games. There have been even studies
with adults showing that experience with video games is related to better surgical skills. Jacob
Benjamin, doctor from Beth Israel Medical Center NY, found a direct link between skill at video
gaming and skill at keyhole or laparoscopic surgery. Also, a reason given by experts as to why
fighter pilots of today are more skillful is that this generation’s pilots are being weaned on video
games.
The players learn to manage resources that are limited, and decide the best use of resources,
the same way as in real life. In strategy games, for instance, while developing a city, an
unexpected surprise like an enemy might emerge. This forces the player to be flexible and
quickly change tactics. Sometimes the player does this almost every second of the game giving
the brain a real workout. According to researchers at the University of Rochester, led by
Daphne Bavelier, a cognitive scientist, games simulating stressful events such as those found in
battle or action games could be a training tool for real-world situations. The study suggests that
playing action video games primes the brain to make quick decisions. Video games can be used
to train soldiers and surgeons, according to the study. Steven Johnson, author of Everything Bad
is Good For You: How Today’s Popular Culture, says gamers must deal with immediate
problems while keeping their long-term goals on their horizon. Young gamers force themselves
to read to get instructions, follow storylines of games, and get information from the game texts.
James Paul Gee, professor of education at the University of Wisconsin-Madison, says that
playing a video game is similar to working through a science problem Like students in a
laboratory, gamers must come up with a hypothesis. For example, players in some games
constantly try out combinations of weapons and powers to use to defeat an enemy. If one does
not work, they change hypothesis and try the next one. Video games are goal-driven
experiences, says Gee, which are fundamental to learning. Also, using math skills is important
to win in many games that involve quantitative analysis like managing resources. In higher
levels of a game, players usually fail the first time around, but they keep on trying until they
succeed and move on to the next level.
Many games are played online and involve cooperation with other online players in order to
win. Video and computer games also help children gain self-confidence and many games are
based on history, city building, and governance and so on. Such games indirectly teach children
about aspects of life on earth.
In an upcoming study in the journal Current Biology, authors Daphne Bavelier, Alexandre
Pouget, and C. Shawn Green report that video games could provide a potent training regimen
for speeding up reactions in many types of real-life situations. The researchers tested dozens of
18- to 25-year-olds who were not ordinarily video game players. They split the subjects into two
groups. One group played 50 hours of the fast-paced action video games “Call of Duty 2” and
“Unreal Tournament,” and the other group played 50 hours of the slow-moving strategy game
“The Sims 2.” After this training period, all of the subjects were asked to make quick decisions
in several tasks designed by the researchers. The action game players were up to 25 percent
faster at coming to a conclusion and answered just as many questions correctly as their strategy
game playing peers.
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Questions 28-31

28. What is the main purpose of paragraph one

A Introduction of professor James Paul Gee.
B Introduction of the video game: Pajamas Sam.
C Introduction of types of video games.
D Introduction of the background of this passage.
29. What does the author want to express in the second paragraph
A Video games are widely considered harmful for children’s brain.
B Most violent video games are the direct reason of juvenile delinquency.
C Even there is a certain proportion of violence in most video games; scientists and
psychologists see its benefits of children’s intellectual abilities.
D Many parents regard video games as time-wasters, which rot children’s brain.
30. What is correctly mentioned in paragraph four

A Some schools use video games to teach students abstract and high level thinking.
B Video games improves the brain ability in various aspects.
C Some surgeons have better skills because they play more video games.
D Skillful fighter pilots in this generation love to play video games.
31. What is the expectation of the experiment the three researchers did
A Gamers have to make the best use of the limited resource.
B Gamers with better math skills will win in the end.
C Strategy game players have better ability to make quick decisions.
D Video games help increase the speed of players’ reaction effectively.
Questions 32-35
Do the following statement with the information given in Reading Passage?

TRUE if the statement is true

FALSE if the statement is false
NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage
32. Most video games are popular because of their violent content.
33. The action game players minimized the percentage of making mistakes in the experiment.
34. It would be a good idea for schools to apply video games in their classrooms.
35. Those People who are addicted to video games have lots of dopamine in their brains.
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Questions 36-40
Use the information in the passage to match the people (listed A-F) with opinions or deeds
below. Write the appropriate letters, A-F, in boxes 36-40 on your answer sheet.
A The writer’s opinion

B James Paul Gee
C Shawn Green
D Daphne Bavelier
E Steven Johnson
F Jacob Benjamin
36. Video games as other daily life skills alter the brain’s physical structure.
37. Brain is ready to make decisions without hesitation when players are immersed in playing
stressful games.
38. The purpose-motivated experience that video games offer plays an essential role in
studying.
39. Players are good at tackling prompt issues with future intensions.
40. It helps children broaden their horizon in many aspects and gain self-confidence.
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READING
TEST 4
READING PASSAGE 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1 -13, which are based on Reading Passage 1
below.
A Renewable energy captured from the wind, sun, Earth’s heat, tides, and from small dams is
drawing record levels of investment as poor villagers and entire nations alike seek clean,
abundant ways to fuel economic growth. Global investment in renewable energy set a new
record of $30 billion in 2004, according to a new report from the Renewable Energy Policy
Network for the 21st Century (REN21). Technologies such as wind, solar, biomass, geothermal,
and small hydro now provide 160 gigawatts of electricity generating capacity – about four per
cent of the world total – the report said. They are growing at rates of around 20-30 per cent per
year, however, compared to two or three per cent for oil and gas.
B “Renewable energy has become big business,” said Eric Martinot, lead author of the study,
“Renewables 2005: Global Status Report”. Martinot, a senior fellow at the Washington, DC-
based think tank Worldwatch Institute and a lecturer at Tsinghua University in Beijing, said
renewable energy has attracted some of the world’s largest companies, including General
Electric, Siemens, Sharp, and Royal Dutch Shell. The report estimated that nearly 40 million
households worldwide heat their water with solar collectors, most of them installed in the last
five years. Altogether, renewable energy industries provide 1.7 million jobs, most of them
skilled and well paid.
C Martinot and 100-plus researchers in more than 20 countries assessed several renewable
technologies: small hydro (meaning small dams), modem biomass (agricultural waste, for
example), wind, solar, geothermal, and biofuels such as ethanol and biodiesel. These
technologies now compete with conventional fuels in four distinct markets: power generation,
hot water and space heating, transportation fuels, and rural (off-grid) energy supplies.
D Renewable energy is gaining in popularity because it is considered to be in infinite supply –

unlike oil, coal, and gas – and because it involves little or no pollution compared to those fossil
fuels. Scientists blame the burning of fossil fuels for the release of carbon dioxide and other
greenhouse gases that stoke global climate changes, which in turn are intensifying droughts in
some parts of the world, floods and storms in others, and the spread of tropical diseases to
temperate zones.
E Additionally, renewable energy could empower millions of poor and vulnerable people who
lack access to reliable, affordable, and clean modem energy services, UN Secretary General Kofi
Annan said in a message to the Beijing International Renewable Energy Conference, which
opened Monday. Annan said that rising oil prices have hit oil-importing developing countries
especially hard and underscore the need for alternative energy supplies. According to the
REN21 report, government support for renewable energy is growing rapidly. At least 48
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countries now have some type of renewable energy promotion policy, including 14 developing
countries. Typically, they include targets to ensure that renewable sources generate 5-30 per
cent of energy use in a given country by around 2010-2012.
F The renewable sector’s prospects appeared to receive a further boost Monday, when China
announced it was raising its target for reliance on renewable energy even as it acknowledged
that coal would remain its primary source for electricity for decades to come. Renewable
energy should account for 15 per cent of national consumption by 2020. China had previously
aimed to get 10 per cent of its energy from renewable sources by 2020.
G Mandates for blending biofuels into vehicle fuels have been enacted in 20-plus states and
provinces worldwide as well as in three key countries – Brazil, China, and India – the report
said. Government leadership has ensured market success, according to REN21, which is
composed of representatives of governments and non-governmental organisations. Market
leaders in renewable energy in 2004 included Brawl in biofuels, China in solar hot water,
Germany in solar electricity, and Spain in wind power, the report said.
H The fastest growing energy technology in the world is grid-connected solar photovoltaic
(PV), existing capacity of which blossomed by sixty per cent per year from 2000-2004, to cover
more than 400,000 rooftops in Japan, Germany, and the United States, it found. Wind power
came second, with generating capacity growing by 28 per cent last year with almost seventeen
gigawatts installed as of 2004. Production of ethanol, biodiesel, and other biofuels exceeded 33
billion litres in 2004, when ethanol displaced about three per cent of the 1,200 billion litres of
gasoline produced globally.
I An estimated $500 million goes to developing countries each year as development

assistance for renewable energy projects, training, and market support, with the German
Development Finance Group (GDFG), the World Bank Group, and the Global Environment
Facility (GEF) providing the majority of these funds, and dozens of other donors and
programmes providing the rest, the report said. More than 4.5 million “green” power
consumers in Europe, the United States, Canada, Australia, and Japan purchased renewable
electricity in 2004, it added. Asia is seen as a vast market for renewable energy as it seeks to
meet growing demand for power to feed rapid economic expansion amid runaway oil prices.
Questions 1 – 4
The text has 9 paragraphs (A – I). Which paragraph contains each of the following pieces of
information?
_______1. Cases where the use of renewable fuels is in competition with non-renewable ones
_______2. The membership of REN21
_______3. The rates at which the use of renewable fuels is growing faster than the use of
nonrenewable ones in the world
_______4. The sources of funding for renewable fuels in developing countries
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Questions 5 – 8
Complete the following sentences using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text for each
gap.
5. Biomass technology can use _____________________.

6. Governments with renewable energy policies usually set ______________ for renewable
energy use.
7. The most important source of energy for China in 2020 is expected to be _______________.
8. Economic expansion and high oil prices mean that Asian countries are ________________ for
renewable sources of energy.
Questions 9 – 13
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1?
In boxes 9 -13 on your answer sheet, write
TRUE if the information in the text agrees with the statement

FALSE if the information in the text contradicts with the statement
9. Eric Martinot advises large companies on investing in renewable energy.

10. Eric Martinot has over 100 people working in his team.
11. Increases in oil prices hurt developing economies more than developed ones.
12. The use of solar power grew by 60% between the year 2000 and the year 2004.
13. “Green” power consumers only get part of their electricity from alternative energy sources.
READING PASSAGE 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14 – 26, which are based on Reading Passage
2 below.
A GUIDE TO WOMENOMICS
A In rich countries, girls now do better at school than boys, more women are getting university
degrees than men arc, and females arc filling most new jobs. Arguably, women are now the
most powerful engine of global growth. In 1950, only one third of American women of working
age had a paid job. Today two thirds do, and women make up almost half of America’s
workforce. Since 1950, men’s employment rate has slid by 12 percentage points, to 77%. In
fact, almost everywhere more women are employed and the percentage of men with jobs has
fallen – although in some countries, the feminisation of the workplace still has far to go: in Italy
and Japan, women’s share of jobs is still 40% or less.
B The increase in female employment in developed countries has been aided by a big shift in
the type of jobs on offer. Manufacturing work, traditionally a male preserve, has declined, while
jobs in services have expanded. This has reduced the demand for manual labour and put the
sexes on a more equal footing. In the developing world, too, more women now have paid jobs.
In the emerging East Asian economics, forever)’ 100 men in the labour force there are now 83
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women, higher even than the average in OECD countries. Women have been particularly
important to the success of Asia’s export industries, typically accounting for 60- 80% of jobs in
many export sectors, such as textiles and clothing.
C Of course, it is misleading to talk of women’s “entry” into the workforce. Besides formal
employment, women have always worked in the home, looking after children, cleaning or
cooking, but because this is unpaid, it is not counted in the official statistics. To some extent,
the increase in female paid employment has meant fewer hours of unpaid housework.
However, the value of housework has fallen by much less than the time spent on it, because of
the increased productivity afforded by dishwashers, washing machines and so forth. Paid
nannies and cleaners employed by working women now also do some work that used to belong
in the non-market economy.
D The increase in female employment has also accounted for a big chunk of global growth in
recent decades. GDP growth can come from three sources: employing more people; using more
capital per worker, or an increase in the productivity of labour and capital due to new
technology’. Since 1970, women have filled two new jobs for every’ one taken by a man. Back-
of-the-envelope calculations suggest that the employment of extra women has not only added
more to GDP than new jobs for men but has also chipped in more than either capital
investment or increased productivity. Carve up the world’s economic growth a different way
and another surprising conclusion emerges: over the past decade or so, the increased
employment of women in developed economies has contributed much more to global growth.
Women are becoming more important in the global marketplace not just as workers, but also
as consumers, entrepreneurs, managers and investors. Women have traditionally done most of
the household shopping, but now they have more money of their own to spend. Surveys
suggest that women make perhaps 80% of consumers’ buying decisions – from health care and
homes to furniture and food.
E Women’s share of the workforce has a limit. In America it has already stalled. However, there
will still be a lot of scope for women to become more productive as they make better use of
their qualifications. At school, girls consistently get better grades and in most developed
countries, well over half of all university degrees are now being awarded to women. In America
140 women enrol in higher education each year for every 100 men; in Sweden the number is as
high as 150. (There are, however, only 90 female Japanese students for every 100 males.) In
years to come, better educated women will take more of the top jobs. At present, for example,
in Britain more women than men train as doctors and lawyers, but relatively few arc leading
surgeons or partners in law firms. The main reason why women still get paid less on average
than men is not that they are paid less for the same occupations, such as nursing and teaching.
This pattern is likely to change.
F Making better use of women’s skills is not just a matter of fairness. Plenty of studies suggest
that it is good for business, too. Women account for only 7% of directors on the worlds
corporate boards – 15% in America, but less than 1% in Japan. Yet a study by Catalyst, a
consultancy, found that American companies with more women in senior management jobs
earned a higher return on equity than those with fewer women at the top. This might be
because mixed teams of men and women are better than single-sex groups at solving problems
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and spotting external threats. Studies have also suggested that women are often better than
men at building teams and communicating.
G In poor countries too, the underutilisation of women stunts economic growth. A study last
year by the World Economic Forum found a clear correlation between sex equality (measured
by economic participation, education, health and political empowerment) and GDP per head.
Correlation does not prove the direction of causation. However, other studies also suggest that
inequality between the sexes harms long-term growth. In particular, there is strong evidence
that educating girls boosts prosperity. It is probably the single best investment that can be
made in the developing world. Not only are better educated women more productive, but they
raise healthier, better educated children. There is huge potential to raise income per head in
developing countries, where fewer girls go to school than boys. More than two thirds of the
world’s illiterate adults arc women.
H It is sometimes argued that it is short-sighted to get more women into paid employment. The
more women go out to work, it is said, the fewer children there will be and the lower growth
will be in the long run. Yet the facts suggest otherwise. Data shows that countries with high
female labour participation rates, such as Sweden, tend to have the decline in fertility has been
greatest in several countries where female employment is low.
Questions 14 – 17
The text has 8 paragraphs (A – H). Which paragraph does each of the following headings best
fit?
14. New producers, new consumers

15. More work, fewer children?
16. A better educated workforce
17. Women in new, expanding industries
Questions 18 – 22
According to the text, FIVE of the following statements are true. Write the corresponding
letters in answer boxes 18 to 22 in any order.
A. A higher percentage of Italian women have jobs than Japanese women.

B. More women than men work in Asia’s textile industries.
C. The value of housework is not included in official statistics.
D. Research shows that men make more purchasing decisions than women.
E. Most surgeons in Britain are women.
F. Firms with more women in senior management offer higher investment returns.
G. Most illiterate people in the world are women.
H. Some people think that lower birth rates lead to lower economic growth.
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Questions 23 – 26
According to the information given in the text, choose the correct answer or answers from the
choices given.
23. Since 1950, the percentage of

A. American women with jobs has increased.
B. American men with jobs has decreased.
C. Japanese and Italian women with jobs has remained stable.
24. Economics can get bigger by

A. increasing the size of the workforce.
B. giving shares to workers.
C. using more advanced technology.
25. Mixed teams of male and female managers are thought to be better at
A. building teams.
B. solving problems.
C. communicating.
26. Research by the World Economic Forum shows that

A. sex equality leads to higher GDP.
B. there is a connection between sex equality and GDP.
C. higher education leads to higher GDP.
READING PASSAGE 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27 – 40, which are based on Reading Passage
3 below.
A LIBRARY AT YOUR FINGERTIPS
A few years ago, at the height of the dotcom boom, it was widely assumed that a publishing
revolution, in which the printed word would be supplanted by the computer screen, was just
around the corner. It wasn’t: for many, there is still little to match the joy of cracking the spine
of a good book and settling down for an hour or two of reading. A recent flurry of activity by big
technology companies – including Google, Amazon, Microsoft and Yahoo! – suggests that the
dream of bringing books online is still very much alive.
The digitising of thousands of volumes of print is not without controversy. On Thursday,

November 3, Google, the world’s most popular search engine, posted a first instalment of
books on Google Print, an initiative first mooted a year ago. This collaborative effort between
Google and several of the world’s leading research libraries aims to make many thousands of
books available to be searched and read online free of charge. Although the books included so
far are not covered by copyright, the plan has attracted the ire of publishers.
Five large book firms are suing Google for violating copyright on material that it has scanned
and, although out of print, is still protected by law. Google has said that it will only publish short
extracts from material under copyright unless given express permission to publish more, but
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publishers are unconvinced. Ironically, many publishers are collaborating with Google on a
separate venture, Google Print Publisher, which aims to give readers an online taste of books
that are commercially available. The searchable collection of extracts and book information is
intended to tempt readers to buy the complete books online or in print form.
Not to be outdone, Amazon, the world’s largest online retailer, has unveiled plans for its own
foray into the mass e-book market. The firm, which began ten years ago as an online book
retailer, now sells a vast array of goods. No doubt piqued that Google, a relative newcomer,
should impinge upon its central territory, Amazon revealed on Thursday that it would introduce
two new services. Amazon Pages will allow customers to search for key terms in selected books
and then buy and read online whatever part they wish, from individual pages to chapters or
complete works. Amazon Upgrade will give customers online access to books they have already
purchased as hard copies. Customers are likely to have to pay around five cents a page, with
the bulk going to the publisher.
Microsoft, too, has joined the online-book bandwagon. At the end of October, the software
giant said it would spend around $200 million to digitise texts, starting with 150,000 that are in
the public domain, to avoid legal problems. It will do so in collaboration with the Open Content
Alliance, a consortium of libraries and universities. (Yahoo! has pledged to make 18,000 books
available online in conjunction with the same organisation.) On Thursday, coincidentally the
same day as Google and Amazon announced their initiatives, Microsoft released details of a
deal with the British Library, the country’s main reference library, to digitise some 25 million
pages; these will be made available through MSN Book Search, which will be launched next
year.
These companies are hoping for a return to the levels of interest in e-books seen when Stephen
King, a best-selling horror writer, published “Riding the Bullet” exclusively on the Internet in
2000. Half a million copies were downloaded in the first 48 hours after publication. This proved
to be a high-water mark rather than a taste of things to come. While buyers were reluctant to
sit in front of a computer screen to read the latest novels, dedicated e-book reading gadgets
failed to catch on. Barnes and Noble, a leading American bookshop chain, began selling e-books
with fanfare in 2000 but quietly pulled the plug in 2003 as interest faded.
The market for e-books is growing again, though from a tiny base. According to the
International Digital Publishing Forum, which collates figures from many of the world’s top
publishers, in the third quarter of 2004, worldwide sales were 25% higher than the year before.
Unfortunately, this only amounted to a paltry $3.2 million split between 23 publishers in an
industry that made sales worth over $100 billion that year.
Both retailers and publishers reckon they will eventually be able to persuade consumers to do a
lot more of their reading on the web. Some even hope they can become to online books what
Apple’s iTunes is to online music. There are crucial differences between downloading fiction
and downloading funk. Online music was driven from the bottom up: illegal filesharing services
became wildly popular, and legal firms later took over when the pirates were forced (by a wave
of lawsuits) to retreat; the legal providers are confident that more and more consumers will pay
small sums for music rather than remain beyond the law. The iPod music player and its like
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have proved a fashionable and popular new way to listen to songs. The book world has no
equivalent.
So the commercial prospects for sellers of online books do not yet look very bright. They may
get a lift from some novel innovations. The ability to download mere parts of books could help,
for instance: sections of manuals, textbooks or cookery books may tempt some customers;
students may wish to download the relevant sections of course books; or readers may want a
taste of a book that they subsequently buy in hard copy. The ability to download reading
matter onto increasingly ubiquitous hand-held electronic devices and 3G phones may further
encourage uptake. In Japan, the value of e-books (mainly manga comic books) delivered to
mobile phones has jumped, though it will be worth only around ¥6 billion ($51 million) in 2005,
according to estimates.
Questions 27 – 30
For each question, only ONE of the choices is correct. Write the corresponding letter in the
appropriate box on your answer sheet.
27. A few years ago, it was widely thought that

A. people would read fewer ‘paper’ books.
B. companies like Amazon would go bankrupt.
C. the dotcom boom would soon end.
28. Publishers are unhappy with Google because

A. Google is only publishing extracts, not complete books.
B. they think Google is in breach of copyright.
C. Google is co-operating with leading research libraries.
29. Amazon will

A sell books that previously only Google sold online.
B buy the copyright for many books it sells online.
C allow people to buy only parts that they want to read from books.
30. It is clear that most readers, if given the choice, prefer

A. ‘paper’ books.
B. reading from computer screens.
C. using dedicated e-book readers.
Questions 31 – 35
Complete the following sentences using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text for each
gap.
31. If companies publish books online that are not covered by copyright, they avoid
…………………………………. .
32. The ………………………………… is very small but getting larger.
33. The ………………………… expect that they will be able to convince more people to read online.
34. The …………………………… has nothing similar to an iPod.
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35. In Japan, most of the publications sent to mobile phones are ……………………………….. .
Questions 36 – 40
Do the statements on the next page agree with the information given in Reading Passage 3? In
boxes 36 – 40 on your answer sheet, write
TRUE if the information in the text agrees with the statement

FALSE if the information in the text contradicts with the statement
36. Books that are out of print are not covered by copyright law.
37. Amazon began by selling books online.
38. Microsoft signed a deal with the British Library on the same day as Google and Amazon
made their announcements.
39. Barnes and Noble published Riding the Bullet online.
40. The ability to sample a book online before buying it might help sales.
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READING
TEST 5
READING PASSAGE 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-16, which are based on Reading Passage 1
below.
MOBILE PHONES AND DRIVING
A. Though once perceived a luxury cell phones have become a common possession over the last
ten years or so. Due to modern day technology and public demand cell phones have been made
affordable to most. However, one of the most controversial topics of today is whether or not
we should be using our cell phones whilst driving, Does it pose a danger to ourselves and other
drivers? Or doesn’t it make any difference to the likelihood of an accident.
B. Several countries around the world have already imposed a national Jaw with heavy
infringements. More recently the UK, Australia and Finland have joined the ranks of countries
opposing this very hazardous act, with Ireland imposing the harshest penalties on the continent
(a third offence can mean 3 months imprisonment). Also in Europe, the Netherlands is fining
offenders 2000 Euros and 2 weeks in jail.
C. This dangerous distraction contributes largely to motor vehicle accidents and the statistics
are Increasing daily as we continue to take our eyes off the road to call or even more
dangerously text. Research by road safety groups suggests speaking on a phone whilst driving
increases your chances of an accident, increasing to nine times more likely when texting. Time
and again, in study after study replicated across the world, the use of a cell phone by the driver
has been proven, beyond any sense of reasonable doubt, to dramatically increase the
probability of a motor vehicle crash.
D. In New Zealand, a proposal made by a previous Labour led Government suggests a $50 fine
and 27 demerit points for any person using a cell phone whilst driving, although the Ministry of
Transport is still preparing a report based on public consultation. Although this is only a pending
idea, the government knows this will be a difficult infringement to police but a start needs to be
made and people need to understand the consequences of what potentially could happen. It is
a common misconception that hands free kits are safe to use, but research conducted by
Waikato University has proven that these can be equally as dangerous as hand held phones.
E. On one hand, using a cell phone whilst driving has become an integral part of our lives and is
going to be a hard habit to kick. But it has been proven that our reaction time is never fast
enough when confronted with a road hazard, but if you are having a conversation at the same
time it will slow your reaction time by even more. Most people find It takes 2 and a half
seconds to react in a dangerous situation but if you are on the phone you can add another 2
seconds onto that. Your attention is divided; part of you concentrates on your conversation, the
other on driving. The demands of die conversation and the road are competing, therefore
making it a cognitive distraction as well as physical as you are removing one hand from the
steering wheel to hold the phone. On the other hand, an American radio host suggested that
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banning cell phones whist driving was taking it a step too far, “if we ban cell phones, what’s
next? No billboards, coffee drinking, or CD players?” The host agreed that texting whilst driving
was a danger but phoning was not.
F. Many people agreed with him in saying that texting was a definite hazard as the act of
looking down would lead your eyes off the road. However, doesn’t holding a conversation while
driving seems just as distracting as eating food or reaching for a CD? Accidents were happening
decades before the cell phone was introduced so should we be taking this matter so seriously?
G. Obviously opinions will differ on this matter, and it will always remain a debatable issue. A
long list of countries seems to be following the trend and imposing a law against cell phones on
the road, but there is still and even longer list yet to follow. Lack of data leaves uncertain results
but it seems research is ongoing and surveys and tests are being carried out on a regular basis
to reach some kind of conclusion as to just how dangerous and potentially fatal this habit may
be.
Questions 1 – 6
Reading Passage 1 has seven paragraphs A – G.
Choose the correct heading for paragraphs B – G from the list of headings below.
Write the correct number i-x in boxes 1-6.
List of Headings
i. Impact of mobile phones in hazards
ii. Texting statistics
iii. International reactions
iv. Further research required
v. Evidence from around the globe
vi. Challenges of enforcement
vii. Global agreement on penalties
viii. Contradictory data
ix. Risks of talking to passengers
x. Balancing the risks
1. Paragraph B
2. Paragraph C
3. Paragraph D
4. Paragraph E
5. Paragraph F
6. Paragraph G
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Questions 7 – 11
Look at the following list of statement (questions 7-11) based on ‘Mobile phones and driving’
Match the statement with the correct person or department A-E.
A. Ministry of Transport
B. Road safety groups
C. Waikato University
D. American radio host
E. The New Zealand government
7. is currently putting together feedback from the general public.

8. proposed specific penalties for mobile phone use while driving.
9. statistically proven the higher likelihood of an accident.
10. believes any use of a phone while driving has potential risks.
11. speaking on the phone is an overrated risk.
Questions 12 – 16
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the reading passage?
In boxes 12-16 an your answer sheet write

FALSE if the statement contradicts with the information
12. The law in Ireland regarding mobile phone use while driving is the world’s most serious.
13. According to research conducted by road safety groups, speaking on a phone makes an accident nine
times more likely.
14. Reaction times in an emergency are doubled if the driver is using a mobile.
15. Eating while driving is statistically as dangerous as using a mobile.
16. More research is required to form a clearer conclusion.
READING PASSAGE 2
below.
THE EIFFEL TOWER
High above the city of Paris the Eiffel Tower looks over the thousands of tourists that visit her
each day. One of the greatest sites in Paris, the Eiffel Tower was erected in 1889 for the great
Paris Exposition.
Alexandre Gustave Eiffel, who also designed the Statue of Liberty, put his design forward
amongst 700 other designs and Eiffel’s design was chosen collectively without any further
thought. The decision was made to build this radical creation and two years later it was
completed. Eiffel had originally decided to build the tower in Barcelona, for the Universal
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Exposition of 1888, but organizers and planners in Barcelona thought it was a bizarre and
expensive construction, which did not fit into the design of the city.
After the design and build of the Eiffel Tower was confirmed for Paris, a petition was signed by
over 300 names to fight against the building of this project. These names included Parisian
architects, engineers and famous citizens of Paris. Eiffel was heavily castigated for his design
and was accused of designing something for its appearance and artistic appeal with no regard
to engineering; opponents to the building claimed that the design did not have sufficient
stability to withstand the high winds its height would be exposed to. But Eiffel and his team of
ex bridge builders understood the importance of wind forces, and the shape of the tower was
largely decided by mathematical calculation involving wind resistance.
French painters, sculptures and writers did not see the beauty in the tower and referred to it as
useless and monstrous. However, the Eiffel tower was admired by many notable people
(Rousseau was particularly impressed) and construction began in 1887 and was soon completed
by the end of 1889. In 1909 it was almost demolished because of the expiration of its 20 year
lease but was saved due to its antennas used for telegraphy at the time, With such a difficult
beginning to the Tower. It is now internationally recognized and is a symbol of Paris completely
accepted and valued by its French Citizens.
It took 300 workers and 15,000 pieces of iron to complete this massive landmark which now
stands at 320 metres tall. With three different levels, the third and highest level offers
panoramic views of the City of Paris and sits 276 metres above the ground. Today all three
levels of the Eiffel Tower are observatory platforms. The first level offers a souvenir kiosk,
gallery and restaurant. The second level offers telescopes, shops and another restaurant with
even more spectacular views, the third offers a gallery featuring the history of the Eiffel Tower;
a wax reproduction of Gustave Eiffel and his original office restoration. Although stairs are still
available, lifts commonly take passengers to all three of these levels.
On a dear day you can see as far as 67 kilometres across Paris. More than 300,000,000 people
have visited the Tower since its completion in 1889 making it one of the most visited
monuments in Europe.
Every seven years, the Eiffel Tower is repainted with 50 to 60 tonnes of paint to protect its
framework from rust. So that the Eiffel Tower appears the same colour at each level when
viewing it from the ground up, the Tower is painted in three different shades of the same
colour. The bottom painted with the darkest brown and the lightest at the top of the tower. At
the time of its completion, the Eiffel Tower was the world’s tallest structure until New York’s
Chrysler building was completed in 1930.
Today more than 500 hundred people operate the day to day running of the Eiffel Tower. Each
and every day the Eiffel Towers 335 spotlights and 20,000 bulbs create a glistening affect and at
night the Eiffel Tower lights up the city of Paris and is a sight not to be missed by anyone. The
Tower lights up every evening from sunset to lam, coupled with the light house on the top that
sends out its light beams during the same hours. As recognisable as a night time picture of the
Tower is, rulings made in the early 1990s actually made copyrighted the illuminated image,
Unless it is taken as part of a wider panoramic view, the image is protected under French law.
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The argument is that the arrangements and display of the lighting constitutes an original visual
creation, much as a major work of art, and thus should be entitled to the same degree of
protection, The ruling was and remains highly controversial, with concerns that an innocent
tourist taking a photograph of the tower at night is potentially breaching copyright.
Questions 17 – 19

Write your answers in boxes 17- 19 on your answer sheet
17. The Eiffel Tower was

A. first built in Barcelona.
B. the only design considered.
C. selected by one man.
D. built in time for an exposition.
18. In Paris, some people

A. argued that it was too expensive.
B. wrote letters against the project.
C. thought it would not last in the environment.
D. believed there was not enough room for the design.
19. The Eiffel Tower

A. is 276 metres tall.
B. has a souvenir shop on the third floor.
C. has two restaurants.
D. is the oldest monument in Europe.
Questions 20 – 22
Complete the summary using NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from Reading Passage 2 for each
answer.
Write your answers in boxes 20 – 22 on your answer sheet
Despite some opposition, construction of the tower was concluded by 20……………………….. . It

was almost dismantled in the early 1900s as its 21…………………….. had expired, but was kept
because of an 22…………………………. used for telegraphic transfers.
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Questions 23 – 29
Answer the questions below using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER from
the passage for each answer.
Write your answer in boxes 23 – 29 on your answer sheet.
23. Which famous person championed the construction of the Eiffel Tower?
24. On what floor of the tower can gifts be bought?
25. What is the most common way of accessing the three floors?
26. Protection from what requires the tower to be painted so often?
27. The Tower is painted using three shades of brown so that it appears what?
28. What was taller than the Eiffel Tower in 1930?
29. When are the illuminations switched on?
READING PASSAGE 3
below.
HAZARD MANAGEMENT
In many industrial or manufacturing workplaces, managing hazards is essential for a successful

health and safety system. Hazard management is an ongoing process that goes through five
different stages, with each step becoming a stage on tire hazard management plan.
The first step is to identify potential hazards, remembering that hazards are classed as anything
that could potentially cause harm not only to people, but also to the organisation. To illustrate,
an industrial accident can cause an injury to employees, but can also result in lost production,
broken machinery and wasted resources for the company, In many cases, local and national
government legislation has strict regulations concerning hazard identification, and in many
industries, especially those perceived to be dangerous, severe penalties can be incurred by
companies overlooking such hazard identification.
Having identified the potential hazards, the next step is to assess the hazard; that is, to consider
to what extent they are significant. To a degree, this is a subjective aspect of risk management,
as what may be seen by one person to be a significant issue can be seen by another to be an
acceptable feature of a workplace. To allow for a degree of uniformity, in this stage, hazards are
rated using risk assessment tables. These tables work by assigning a point value to three areas.
The first is the exposure score, which assesses how often people are exposed to the hazard. If
this is a continuous risk which employees face all the time, the score will be high; if the
exposure is very rare, the points given will be substantially lower, The score is then multiplied
by the likelihood of this hazard causing an injury, ranging from ‘Definite’ (it happens all the
time) down to ‘Unlikely’ (it hasn’t happened yet). This is referred to as the chances rating. The
sum of the first two scores is again multiplied by the effects score, which considers how serious
any accident might be. This can be rated from 1 (requiring minor fist aid) right up to multiple
deaths (classed as disaster ). All 3 scores then give the final risk assessment result. Generally, a
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result in excess of 100 points requires caution, but a result of 200 hundred or more is classed as
high priority. Certain jobs are, for the most part, permanently gamer scores of over 200
(firefighting, for example) and in many cases additional payments, informally known as ‘danger
money’, are applied.
The third step on the hazard management plan is to control hazards that have been identified.
There are 3 stages to hazard control. The first aim is to eliminate the hazard – that is, to get rid
of it altogether. This can be achieved by removing debris or unnecessary obstacles from the
workplace. Often, however, this is not possible, so the next step is to isolate the hazard, to
store it out of the way. For example, a cleaning company cannot completely eliminate
hazardous chemicals, but they can keep these chemicals locked away until required. Isolating
hazards is an ongoing process which requires companies to have very dear and enforced
guidelines regarding safe storage of potentially hazardous products.
If the hazards cannot be isolated, then the aim must be to minimise the risk. This is achieved
through staff training in safe handling techniques and best practices, as well as the provision of
personal protection equipment (PPE). PPE commonly includes items such as gloves, overalls and
footwear with steel reinforced areas.
The fourth and fifth steps on a hazard management plan are connected – to record and review’
the hazard. The recording is done in the hazard register, and this register is continually
reviewed to ensure best practices are maintained. If a severe accident does occur in the
workplace, it is the hazard register that investigators often first turn to, to see if the issue had
previously been reported and if so what the company bad done about the hazard.
It is worth noting that since more rigorous application of hazard management systems,
workplace accidents have experienced a significant decline in many industries previously
identified as ‘high risk’.
Questions 30 – 31
Answer the questions below using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each
answer.
Write your glower in questions 30 and 31 on your answer sheet.
30. The 5 stages of the managing hazards are put together as what?
31. Damaged machinery and discarded resources are two examples of hazards to what?
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Questions 32 – 37
Complete the summary using NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from Reading Passage 3 for each
answer.
Write your answers in boxes 32 – 37 on your answer sheet
To mathematical calculate risk assessment, 32…………………….. stages need to be calculated. The

exposure score considers the amount of time employees spend working near the hazard. The
33……………………….. then measures the probability of an accident, ranging from not likely to
34………………………. .The results are then 35……………………… by each other, and then again by the
degree of seriousness of an accident. The highest ‘effect’ score is given when more than one
person is killed (this is rated as a 36…………………………..). When calculated, a result of 200 or
more is considered 37…………………………….. .
Questions 38 – 40
Complete the flowchart

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from Reading Passage 3 for each answer.
STAGES OF HAZARD CONTROL
1st step is to 38…………………………………. if possible
Locate the hazard ( e.g. 39………………………. it out of the

way)
⇓
40…………………………….. hazard by wearing protective

clothing and following safety training
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READING
TEST 6
READING PASSAGE 1
below.
FLIGHT OF THE HONEY
Honeybees are characterised by their ability to produce liquefied sugar (honey) and a
propensity to construct colonial nests using wax, two tasks that necessitate a significant level of
social integration among members. As a result, they maintain strict divisions of labour, based
on sex, with all males functioning as drones to fertilize and care for the eggs, and all females,
with the exception of the single fertile queen, responsible for fetching nectar for the colony’s
progeny. In addition, honeybees have devised a sophisticated system of communication to
relay important information from member to member.
Perhaps the most intriguing feature of honeybee communication is a series of flight moves only
performed by a female worker bee that has returned to the nest with nectar and needs to tell
the rest of her colony that she has discovered food supplies and where they can be found. This
so-called honeybee dance was first interpreted by German zoologist Karl von Frisch in the early
1970s. To facilitate observation, von Frisch and his students built several glass walled hives and
marked a collection of worker bees, or foragers, with paint. He then trained those foragers to
find nectar at designated sources at various distances from the hives, and when the bees
returned he carefully recorded their movements, the angle and direction of their flight, and any
additional visual cues offered to the colony. What von Frisch discovered was that each aspect of
the dance indicated certain details about the location of the nectar reserves and recruited
others to return to the site.
The first piece of information conveyed by dancing bees is the distance of the field to the hive,
and they do this in one of three ways. If it is less than 50 meters from the colony’s nest the bee
will fly around in narrow circles, and then suddenly fly in the opposite direction. She will repeat
this pattern, which von Frisch’s team called the round dance, until she has recruited several
other workers to return with her to the field. When the distance is greater than 50 meters, but
less than 150 meters, she will perform a sickle dance, a crescent shaped flight course. If the
field is farther than 150 meters, the forager will act out a waggle dance in which she will run
straight ahead briefly before returning to her original position in a semi-circular movement.
Then, she will run forward again and return from the opposite side. The length of the forward
run coincides with the distance of the food supplies; for example, a 2.5 second run indicates
that the nectar was found about 2500 meters way.
Recruits also need to know the direction in which they should fly to arrive at the appropriate
foraging location, and this information is communicated via the bee’s angular orientation to the
hive. It, however, is not a direct connection to the position of the food supplies from the hive,
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but its location relative to the sun. Therefore if the food is situated directly opposite from the
sun, the bee will fly a straight run vertically downward; if it is in the same direction as the sun, it
will fly directly upward from the colony nest. A position 60 degrees to the right of the sun will
prompt the bee to fly downwards at a 60 degrees angle toward the right of the nest. Moreover,
because the sun is in constant motion throughout the day, the bee’s orientation will shift
depending on the time at which the dance is performed. Sceptics of von Frisch’s findings,
however, claim that visual cues are not enough to provide all the clues necessary to convey the
location of a food resource. Several scientists, among them Adrian Wenner, believe that the
dance is only one component of honeybee communications; odour is the second key element.
Using robotic bees to perform the same dances, Wenner was unable to attract new recruits to
the foraging activities; however, when he added a bit of nectar to the robot, workers quickly
followed. He also discovered that the odors must be representative of the actual flowers
containing the food source; otherwise the bees will arrive at the site, but not know which ones
will be profitable.
Questions 1 – 3

1. Honeybees
A. have a rudimentary ability to convey information.
B. have clearly segregated roles.
C. are found in equal numbers of male and female
D. often relocate to areas with certain types of flower.
2. Research conducted in the 1970s

A. was undertaken using traditional hives.
B determined that forager bees had special markings.
C. closely studied the phenomenon of the honeybee body language.
D. concluded that there was no discernible pattern to the movement of the bees.
3. To identify that the source of nectar is close, forager bees

A. will repeatedly fly the same direction.
B. will begin to move only when other bees are watching.
C. will run straight forward.
D. will repeat a pattern of flying in one direction then abruptly reversing direction.
Questions 4 – 8
Complete the sentences below USING NO MORE THAN TWO AND/OR A NUMBER.
Write your answers in boxes 4- 8 on your answer sheet.
4. Von Frisch focussed on a number of …………………….. clues to deduce how bees

communicated.
5. The bee will move forward for one ………………………… for every 1000 metres away the food
source is.
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6. To locate the direction of the nectar, the forager will base its movements on the position of
………………………….. .
7. For food sources over 150 metres away, the forager will indicate distance with a
……………………….. dance.
8. It has been argued that ………………………… as well as movement may help to locate food
sources.
Questions 9 – 12
In boxes 9 -12 on your answer sheet write

9. Drone bees communicate using a complicated set of movements.

10. The honeybee dance is performed until a number of other bees join in the collection of the
nectar.
11. The honeybee dance is only performed when the sun is visible.
12. Wenner concluded that a matching smell will help bees find the rough area of the nectar
but not the specific source.
READING PASSAGE 2
below.
A. Recent research in Hong Kong indicates that staying in bed after a long week at school is just
what children need to avoid becoming obese, The research, which focused on children aged
five to fifteen, discovered that those who slept late on Saturdays and Sundays decreased the
probability of having weight problems as they grew up. Published in the journal Paediatrics, the
findings add to previous research that indicated a connection between regular sleep
deprivation and obesity.
B. The scientists involved believe the weekend lie-in is vital for school-age children to catch up
on the sleep they lose during a busy week at school. This catch up sleep helps the children to
regulate calorie consumption by cutting down on eating snacks during waking hours, Scientists
and others in the medical fields have long known that a lack of sleep and irregular sleep
patterns causes obesity as this combination affects the body’s natural metabolism and tends to
also encourage snacking to reduce the feeling of tiredness. However, this is thought to be the
first time researchers have found sleeping in at weekends to be a key factor in helping ‘reset’
children’s sleeping patterns.
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C. Since the 1980s, obesity rates among children in the UK and in the United States have been
on the rise and medical and childcare experts fear a diabetes and heart disease epidemic is
developing. Although estimates for obesity rates have recently been lowered, current
expectations are that close to one in three boys aged from two to eleven are likely to be
overweight or obese by the year 2020. The prediction for girls is slightly over one in four, a
much lower prediction than ten years ago when forecasts were that almost half would be
overweight.
D. The relationship between sleep deficiency and obesity has been drawing much attention in
the past several years with studies showing that sleeping just a few hours a night can seriously
disturb the body’s natural metabolism, leading to an increase in overall calorie intake and a
much greater danger of weight-related illnesses. Yun Kwok Wing of Hong Kong University and
other experts investigated the possibility that catching up on sleep at the weekends would help
youngsters to overcome such disruption of the bodies metabolism. They questioned the
parents of over 5,000 schoolchildren and accumulated data on diet, lifestyle, weight and
sleeping habits. During school time, the average amount of sleep was a little over nine hours on
average. However, a surprising number of kids slept well under eight hours a night.
E. What the researchers found most interesting was that those children who managed to catch
up on missed sleep on the weekend actually remained relatively slim while those who did not
had a higher probability of putting on weight (as measured by body mass index, or BMI). A
report the researches published revealed: “Overweight and obese children tended to wake up
earlier and had shorter sleep durations throughout weekdays, weekends and holidays than
their normal-weight peers. Our study suggests sleeping longer on weekends or holidays could
lower the risk of being overweight or obese.”
F. The study authors mentioned that reduced sleep duration has become a hallmark of modern
society, with people generally sleeping one to two hours less than a few decades ago and
children were no exception to this. However, the researchers were not quite sure why obese
and overweight children were less likely to sleep late on weekends, but indicated that they
tended to spend more time doing their homework and watching television than their normal-
weight peers. Still, the researchers urged caution in the interpretation of their findings,
acknowledging that “an irregular sleep-wake schedule and insufficient sleep among school-
aged children and adolescents has been documented with a variety of serious repercussions,
including increased daytime sleepiness, academic difficulties, and mood and behavioral
problems.”
G. The precise nature of the link between short sleep duration and obesity remains unclear,
said Mary A. Jackson, Professor of Psychiatry and Human Behavior at Brown University’s Alpert
Medical School in Providence, and Director of Chronobiology at Bradley Hospital in East
Providence. “Evidence has shown that there are changes in satiety and in levels of the hunger
hormones leptin and ghrelin,” Jackson said. “But there’s also evidence that kids who are not
getting enough sleep get less physical activity, perhaps simply because they’re too tired. It’s just
not cut-and-dried.” The findings could be of help in slowing down the ongoing increase in
childhood obesity, but for the time being, parents should be observant of their children’s wake-
sleep cycles, and take steps to ensure they are getting enough sleep, the researchers advised.
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Perhaps this is a reminder to us all that despite school, homework, extracurricular activities,
and family time, sleep still needs to be a priority in a child’s life.
Questions 13 – 15
Choose THREE letters A-G.

NB Your answers may be given in any order.
13-15. Which THREE of the following statements are true of the research in Hong Kong?
A. Researchers discovered that overweight children tend to sleep more.
B. The researchers believe the weekend lie-in is very important for busy children.
C. The findings show that overweight children tend to wake up earlier and sleep less.
D. Obesity in children may be triggered by a fluctuation in sleep patterns.
E. The researchers do not know the reasons why obese children are less likely to sleep
late on weekends.
F. The researchers interviewed the children’s teachers to gain information.
G. All children investigated slept more than eight hours a day.
Questions 16 – 21
Reading Passage 2 has seven paragraphs A-G.

Write the correct letter A-G in boxes 16-21.
16. Predictions on rates of obesity in children.

17. An outline of the most notable research finding.
18. Ideas on why overweight children don’t sleep in on weekends.
19. How sleeping in on weekends can help a child keep slim.
20. A study looking into sleep deprivation and the affect on body metabolism.
21. Advice for parents concerned about their children becoming overweight.
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Questions 22 – 25
Complete the summary with the list of words A-L below.
Write the correct letter A-L in boxes 22-25 on your answer sheet.
A. recent B. past C. lost E. put F. difficulty

G. inconclusive I. remains J. future K. immediate
The main findings of the research showed that children who were able to catch up on
22 …………………….. sleep stayed fairly slim whereas children who did not were much more likely
to 23 ……………………… weight. The researchers mentioned that in 24 …………………….. times a
reduction in sleep time has become common with most people sleeping an hour or two less
than in the past. However, the reasons why overweight children tended to sleep less on
weekends than their slimmer peers 25 …………………………………. a mystery.
READING PASSAGE 3
below.
TEAM BUILDING
Particularly in times of economic downturn, efficiency is of supreme importance across all

industry bases; whilst companies may be looking to cut their costs, many still invest in staff
motivation, training and development programmes, having developed an understanding of just
how crucial strong internal relationships can be for success.
Louise Edwards of HR Success says that one of the barriers she comes across time and time
again is that corporate heads often seem to understand that ‘team building’ is important but
are not quite sure what it is or how to achieve it. In the terms of a sports club, she says, the
team (i.e. what it is and how it is defined) is obvious and easy to identify. In contrast, she says,
within a company – particularly a multi-layered, larger organisation, definitions may become
more confused. Many define a business ‘team’ as the group of people who report to the same
boss – a department, for example. However, according to Edwards, it is more productive to
define a team as a group of people working towards a common goal. In training terms,
therefore, this group could be members of a department with the same roles and
responsibilities, such as a sales team with the common goal of selling or even the organisation
as a whole, whose ‘goal’ in this case is the continued success of the organisation, their many
different skills and roles all contributing to this in a number of ways.
Brenda Durham of Corporate Trouble-Shooters believes it inevitable that to some extent

conflict will exist in a successful workplace since the necessary diversity of skills and
personalities required for success will also unavoidably lead to misunderstandings and
disharmony from time to time. A cohesive unit that minimises friction, she believes, can
however be developed in any organisation committed to investment in its people. Whilst the
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taking on of external expertise for staff training and team building programmes can be costly, a
number of companies, particularly those with a robust human resources department, are
undertaking the training themselves. Liaison Wizards, established in 2001 and headed by Jeff
Blackshaw, offers free training and development advice to companies wishing to offer
motivation seminars designed in house, in the belief that contextualised training is always more
effective. The company’s own business model is based upon generating revenue from
advertising on their popular website – a great success, so far, having surpassed financial
projections for each year it has been in operation to date.
Blackshaw likens the key to successful corporate team building to the tactics employed in a less
formal sporting environment. He says that bonds, connections and empathy developed
between members of a rugby team, for example, can also be developed within a department in
the business world or even at company level. He says that good team work is fostered by
respect, encouragement, shared enthusiasm and a caring and supportive workplace. Trying to
exploit or dictate to personnel is sure to lead to failure, Blackshaw says.
Brian Osbourne, Human Resources Director of Opmax Inc, believes that programmes developed
in house are inherently more likely to be of greater success than external offerings for two main
reasons. Most importantly, he says, people are much easier to motivate if they themselves can
be involved in designing and deciding activities – this level of consultation at the planning stage
being much easier to achieve for an internal department than an external consultant. Of only
slightly less importance, says Osbourne, training activities must be perceived by participants as
providing outcomes geared towards developing the individuals’ potential, Once again,
programmes developed by people with an insight into the personalities and culture at hand can
be more easily tailored to suit the distinctive needs of that particular audience.
According to Osbourne, one of the biggest barriers to successful staff training is the perception
that activities are too game-focussed, with no real objectives; many professionals, believing
that such games are trite or patronising, are unable to appreciate the hidden benefits of
building understanding and camaraderie within the group. If presented correctly, within the
correct context and in conjunction with other, more staid approaches, Louise Edwards holds
that games can be an enormous asset in staff training. In simple terms, Edwards defines the
objectives of team building activities as a process, starting with the first stage – the clarification
of the collective goals. This leads to the identification of the inhibitors preventing achievement
of those goals and the introduction of enablers which will assist in goal achievement. This is
followed by stage four – the final stage, where outcomes are measured and from that point on
are monitored to ensure that goals are achieved and continue to be achieved. In stages 2 and 3
(identifying barriers and introducing positive alternatives) Edwards believes that the use of
humour goes a long way towards relationship building on a personal level through
development of empathy and removal of antipathy, ultimately fostering cooperation and
support on a more formal level.
Alan Kidman, HR Manager of Tellam Industries agrees that the use of humour and games within
a training context can go a long way towards helping an organisation achieve its goals. He has
recently designed a two month long in house team building programme for senior management
and will soon be delivering the first of a series of 8 workshops and activities. The goal of the
project, he says, was to strengthen communication and support within the extremely diverse
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departments of the organisation. Heads of six departments, collectively responsible for over
200 staff members, are to be involved in the series of seminars. The programme, Kidman says,
is experimental and if it proves to be a success is also intended for use in the organisation’s
branches overseas. Previously the organisation has taken a more formalised approach to staff
development training relying on methods such as psychometric testing discussions,
motivational conferences and formal appraisals. The new, and as yet untried, approach will
challenge participants in, by comparison, rather radical ways. One initiative, for example,
requiring the writing, organisation and delivery of a theatrical performance to which all staff
members will be invited to view.
Team building and motivational approaches include a wide variety of methodologies,

techniques, theories and tools. Experts generally agree that different options may succeed or
fail depending upon the culture of the organisation in which they are implemented. A fit with
the personalities involved in crucial to success. Not only is delivery of appropriate training
sessions themselves important but professional and measurable follow up is also a must.
Questions 26 – 30

26. Typical stresses of working with different people are removed with the correct training.
27. Liaison Wizards claims that training has increased their income every year since the
company started.
28. Many companies are unsuccessful because they are dogmatic and take advantage of staff.
29. In house training is more successful primarily because employees feel more involved in the
planning.
30. The value of games as a training tool can be misunderstood.
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Questions 31 – 35
Look at the following list of statements based on Reading Passage 3.

Match the statement with the correct person A-E. You can use each letter more than once.
A. Louise Edwards
B. Brenda Durham
C. Jeff Blackshaw
D. Brian Osborne
E. Alan Kidman
31. Many companies will experience friction between staff.

32. Training specifically tailored to a company is more efficient than generic training.
33. Modern methods of training, although still only being piloted, can bring people from
different perspectives together.
34. Successful team relationships are formed in a positive work environment.
35. A lack of clarity as to what the term ‘team building’ means.
Questions 36 – 40
Complete the summary USING NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from Reading Passage 3 for each
answer.
Team building can be considered to have 36……………………. clear stages. Initially, it is essential to
be clear as to the 37…………………… of the entire team or company. Those barriers which are
preventing the team from achieving these aims are identified as 38…………………….., and are
addressed by introducing enablers. Here the use of 39 ……………………………. can be used to help
build a cooperative relationship. Finally, success can be quantified and continually
40……………………….. .
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READING
TEST 7
READING PASSAGE 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13 which are based on Reading Passage 1.
AUSTRALIA’S PLATYPUS
Of all the creatures on the earth, the Australian platypus, Omithorbynchusparadoxus, is perhaps
one of the most mysterious and reclusive. Derived from the Latin platys meaning ‘flat and
broad’ and pous meaning ‘foot’, the platypus has long been an iconic symbol of Australia. Upon
being discovered in Australia in the 1700s, sketches of this unusual creature were made and
sent back to England whereupon they were considered by experts to be a hoax. Indeed, the
incredible collection of its body parts – broad, flat tail, rubbery snout, webbed feet and short
dense fur – make it one of the world’s most unusual animals.
Officially classified as a mammal, the egg-laying platypus is mostly active during the night, a
nocturnal animal. As if this combination of characteristics and behaviours were not unusual
enough, the platypus is the only Australian mammal known to be venomous. The male platypus
has a sharply pointed, moveable spur on its hind foot which delivers a poison capable of killing
smaller animals and causing severe pain to humans. The spur – about 2 centimetres in length –
is quite similar to the fang of a snake and, if provoked, is used as a means of defence. Those
who have been stung by a platypus’ spur report an immediate swelling around the wound
followed by increased swelling throughout the affected limb. Excruciating, almost paralysing
pain in the affected area accompanies the sting which, in some victims has been known to last
for a period of months. One report from a victim who was stung in the palm of the hand states
that “…the spur could not be pulled out of the hand until the platypus was killed.” During the
breeding season, the amount of venom in the male platypus increases. This has led some
zoologists to theorise that the poisonous spur is primarily for asserting dominance amongst
fellow-males. To be stung by a male platypus is a rare event with only a very small number of
people being on the receiving end of this most reclusive creature.
In the same area of the hind foot where the male has the poisonous spur, the female platypus
only develops two buds which drop off in their first year of life never to appear again. The
female platypus produces a clutch of one to three eggs in late winter or spring, incubating them
in an underground burrow. The eggs are 15-18 millimetres long and have a whitish, papery shell
like those of lizards and snakes. The mother is believed to keep the eggs warm by placing them
between her lower belly and curled-up tail for a period of about 10 or 11 days as she rests in an
underground nest made of leaves or other vegetation collected from the water. The baby
platypus drinks a rich milk which is secreted from two round patches of skin midway along the
mother’s bell)’. It is believed that a baby platypus feeds by slurping up milk with rhythmic
sweeps of its stubby bill. When the juveniles first enter the water at the age of about four
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months, they are nearly (80-90%) as long as an adult. Male platypus do not help to raise the
young.
In Australia, the platypus is officially classified as ‘Common but Vulnerable’. As a species, it is

not currently considered to be endangered. However, platypus populations are believed to
have declined or disappeared in many catchments 1, particularly in urban and agricultural
landscapes. In most cases, the specific underlying reasons for the reduction in numbers remain
unknown. Platypus surveys have only been carried out in a few catchments in eastern Australia.
It is therefore impossible to provide an accurate estimate of the total number of platypus
remaining in the wild. Based on recent studies, the average platypus population density along
relatively good quality streams in the foothills of Victoria’s Great Dividing Range is only around
one to two animals per kilometre of channel. Because platypus are predators near the top of
the food chain and require large amounts of food to survive (up to about 30% of a given
animal’s body weight each day), it is believed that their numbers are most often limited by the
availability of food, mainly in the form of bottom-dwelling aquatic invertebrates such as
shrimps, worms, yabbies, pea-shell mussels, and immature and adult aquatic insects. Small
frogs and fish eggs are also eaten occasionally, along with some terrestrial insects that fall into
the water from overhanging vegetation.
1..Catchments are an area of land drained by a creek or river system, or a place set aside for
collecting water which runs off the surface of the land.
Until the early twentieth century, platypus were widely killed for (heir fur. The species is now
protected by law throughout Australia. Platypus are wild animals with specialised living
requirements. It is illegal for members of the public to keep them in captivity. A platypus which
has been accidentally captured along a stream or found wandering in an unusual place should
never be taken home and treated as a pet, even for a brief time. The animal will not survive the
experience. Only a small number of Australian zoos and universities hold a permit to maintain
platypus in captivity for legitimate display or research purposes. Current Australian government
policy does not allow’ this species to be taken overseas for any reason.
Questions 1-5
Do the following statements reflect the claims of the writer?

In boxes 1- 5 on your answer sheet, write
YES if the statement agrees with the information in the passage

NO if the statement contradicts the information in the passage
NOT GIVEN if there is no information about the statement in the passage
1. The appearance of the platypus caused experts to doubt it was real.

2. The amount of venom in a male platypus changes during the year.
3. Most platypus live in Eastern Australia.
4. Snake venom and platypus venom are very similar.
5. Because their environment is specialised, platypus cannot be kept as pets.
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Questions 6 -9
Complete the summary.

Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.
Male and Female Platypus

Platypus are unique Australian animals. Although all platypus share many similarities, the male
and female are somewhat different from each other. For example, on the hind feet, the male
has a 6…………………… while the young female has 7……………………... . In the 8……………………….. the
mother keeps her eggs warm and, once born, supplies her 9………………………….. . On the other
hand, the male platypus does not help raise the young at all.
Questions 10 -13
Complete the sentences below with words taken from Reading Passage 1.
Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
10. Even though the platypus is not endangered, it is considered …………………………… .

11. Platypus numbers in ……………………………. areas have declined in many catchments.
12. Platypus numbers are low which is probably due to a lack of ……………………………… .
13. Platypus captivity for research and study purposes requires a ……………………………. .
READING PASSAGE 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26, which are based on Reading Passage 2.
Questions 14-18
Reading Passage 2 has 6 paragraphs, A-F.
Choose the correct heading for each paragraph from the list of headings below.
Write the correct number i-ix in boxes 14-18 on your answer sheet.
List of Headings
i. Research into short periods of sleep
ii. Famous people, short sleepers
iii. Measuring sleep movement
iv. Sleep experiments over the past century
v. Monitoring the effects of sleep deprivation
vi. Antarctic and Arctic sleep means quality sleep
vii. Challenging research in reduced normal sleeping hours
viii. Are we getting enough sleep?
ix. The impact of noise on sleep
x. Sleep experiments in an isolated area
Example: Paragraph A; Answer: viii
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14. Paragraph B
15. Paragraph C
16. Paragraph D
17. Paragraph E
18. Paragraph F
A. Almost every living creature sleeps. For humans, it is typically something we dislike doing
when we are younger and, as we age, something we increasingly look forward to at the end of
each day. On the one hand, it is something that we absolutely need to sustain our life and on
the other, we tend to feel guilty if we spend more time in bed than we should. Sleep researcher
Professor Stanley Limpton believes that 7 hours – the average amount of sleep most people get
per night – is not enough. Limpton points out that the average person is now getting 2 hours
less sleep than those who lived 100 years ago and contends that this lack of sleep is one of the
main reasons so many people are often clumsy, unhappy, irritable and agitated. Other scientists
share Limpton’s thinking. Many other researchers feel that we are not getting enough sleep and
the negative impacts are being regularly felt around the world in the workplace and in the
home.
B. The first experiments in recorded scientific history on the effects of people not getting
enough sleep took place in the late 1800s. According to records, three volunteers were
deprived of sleep for a total of 90 hours. Later on, in 1920 more experiments in sleep
deprivation were conducted by scientists where several people were deprived of sleep for a
period of 60 hours. The results of many sleep deprivation experiments have been recorded and
conducted by American ‘sleep scientist’ Nathaniel Kleitman. Often referred to as ‘the father of
modern sleep research’, Kleitman’s work has formed the foundation for many areas of current
sleep research. In one experiment, Kleitman examined thirty five volunteers who had been
awake for 60 hours and also conducted an experiment on himself, remaining awake for a total
of 100 hours. It was revealed that people who are sleep-deprived for periods of more than 60
hours try to fall asleep in any environment and show- signs of mental disturbances, visions and
hallucinations. As the length of sleep deprivation increases, so too does the mental decline in
an individual. Having studied a group of 3 sleep deprived people, sleep researcher Dr. Tim
Oswald, concluded that chronic sleep deprivation often leads to drastic consequences. Oswald’s
experiments reinstated the necessity of sleep for proper human functioning.
C. Studies of sleep patterns in some of the more remote areas of the world have also been a
subject of interest amongst sleep researchers. It is well-known that during the summer months
in both the Arctic and Antarctic Circles the phenomenon known as the midnight sun occurs.
Given fair weather conditions, the sun is visible for a continuous 24 hours. One summer, Dr.
Peter Suedfeld traveled to the Arctic and conducted a series of research projects. All
participants were required to get rid of all clocks, watches and any other timekeeping devices
and conduct work and sleep according to their own ‘body dock’. Those involved in the
experiment were required to note down when they- had a nap and when they actually went to
bed. The results were that most people slept around 10 hours per day and all participants
reported feeling completely invigorated and refreshed.
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D. The affect of sleep interruptions have also been a focal point of some sleep research. In
urban societies, traffic and aircraft noise are often referred to as ‘the bane of urban existence’.
Tom Grimstead took people who were classified as ‘good sleepers’ from quiet neighbourhoods
and introduced into their bedrooms and night the noise equivalents of a major urban road.
An actimeter – a device which measures the amount of movement in sleep – was used to gauge
the quality of the participant’s sleep. The participants emerged from the experiment in a
depressed-like state after four days. Grimstead reported that participants had depression and
mood scores similar to people with clinical depression…a reduction in certain performance
tasks was also noted’.
E. Another area of interest in the field of sleep study involves such famous people as Thomas
Edison and Winston Churchill who, reportedly, were known to be and have been classified
as short sleepers. A short sleeper is one who claims to be able to get by with only 4 or 5 hours
of sleep per night. Dr David Joske. secretary’ of the British Sleep Association believes that
‘genetically short sleepers may have some natural resistance to the effects of sleep deprivation
but it is not entirely certain why some people seem to require more and others less՝.
Determining what makes up the differences between short and long sleepers has been difficult
for researchers. Says Joske, ‘When we brought long and short sleepers into controlled
environments which were dark and soundproof we found that all participants slept between
nine and ten hours, which seemed to preclude the short sleeper category.’
F. A study in Norway was undertaken on a number of bus drivers. They were hooked up to
various computers which monitored their states of being awake. The study revealed that bus
drivers were asleep for as much as 25% of the time they were driving the bus. What the drivers
w ere having was a series of ‘micro-sleeps’ – short periods of time of 10 to 20 seconds where
they would be classified as being asleep. In the micro-sleep state, the individual may appear
awake, even with their eyes open but in fact they are actually sleeping.
Questions 19 – 23
Look at the following list of statements (Questions 19-23) and the list of people below.
Match each statement with the correct company.
Write the correct letter A-D in boxes 19-23 on your answer sheet.
19. People need to increase their average amount of sleep.

20. Extended periods of no sleep causes serious health problems.
21. Some need more sleep and others seem to get by with less sleep.
22. The quality of sleep can be measured by an individual’s sleep activity.
23. Most people need to sleep the same number of hours.
List of Researchers
A David Joske
B Stanley Limpton
C Tim Oswald
D Tom Grimstead
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Questions 24 and 25
Choose TWO letters A-F.

Write your answers in boxes 24 and 25 on your answer sheet.
The list below lists some health issues associated with lack of sleep.
24-24 Which TWO of these health issues are mentioned by the writer?
A. heart problems
B. nervous disorders
C. dizziness
D. depression
E. problems with mental state
F. increased blood pressure
Question 26
Choose the correct letter, A-E

Write the correct letter in box 26 on your answer sheet.
26. Which of the following is the most suitable title for Reading Passage 2?
A. The importance of sleep
B. Studies in sleep
C. How much sleep we need
D. The effect of sleep patterns
E. Modern perspectives on sleep
READING PASSAGE 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40, which are based on Reading Passage 3.
THE SEARCH FOR FRESH WATER
The assertion that water has always been the essence of life is nothing new. Water comes in
many forms: spring water, sea and river water, rainwater, and fog and dew water. Yet water is
becoming scarce and this scarcity is becoming a very real worry for governments all around the
world. The reality is that one of the main obstacles to the economic development of a particular
country is its lack of an adequate supply of fresh water. Current figures show that an inhabitant
of a wealthy, modern town consumes 100-400 litres of water daily. In some developing
countries the amount of water consumed does not exceed 20-30 litres per day. Rich or poor,
annual water consumption has continued to grow, increasing fourfold over the last 50 years.
The world’s fresh water supplies are drawn from a number of sources. The largest cache of the
estimated 35 million km3 fresh water reserve is located in glaciers and snow. The amount
contained in these ‘storehouses’ has been estimated to be around 24 million km3. Ground
water is also a big contributor to the world’s fresh water supplies amounting to an estimated
10.5 million km3. Considering that the total volume of water, salt and fresh, is estimated to be
around 400 million km3 it can be clearly seen that the amount of fresh water available in the
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world is only the proverbial ‘drop in the bucket՝. Artesian wells, rivers and lakes only account
for about 0.1 and 0.5 million km3 respectively, all of which include atmospheric precipitation
such as rain and snow.
Since water is such an important commodity, various attempts to acquire stores of it have been
tried with varying degrees of success. The question of what are the alternative water sources
available to us today is not an easy one to answer but is certainly worthy of our best efforts to
find one. One such area of interest has been desalination – the turning of salt water into
drinkable water. As there is much more salt water on the earth than dry land, the idea of using
desalinated seawater seems a logical one. However, some estimates put the annual quantity of
desalinated water at only around ten cubic kilometres – a tiny amount given the amount of sea
water available. In parts of Senegal, for example, the greenhouse effect has been one way to
desalinate seawater whereby the salt in the water is separated from the water through a
process of evaporation. As part of the process, water vapour forms on large panes of glass at
outside air temperature and is transported via gravity into drums. This method yields only a few
cubic meters per day of fresh water but is surprisingly energy efficient. In larger scale
production however, the energy efficiency plummets. The best systems bum at least a tonne of
fossil fuel to produce approximately one hundred cubic metres of fresh water. This amounts to
almost $ 1 per cubic metre – a considerable cost.
Although there are several different areas from which water can be sourced, paradoxically the
most extensive are the most difficult to tap. The atmosphere, for example, contains vast
amounts of fresh water composed of 2% condensed water in the form of clouds and 98% water
vapour. The vastness of this water source is comparable to the renewable liquid water
resources of all inhabited lands. The amounts are easy to calculate, but being able and knowing
how to economically obtain this water in liquid form is most challenging. One approach in
drawing water from the atmosphere is fog nets. Places such as the coastal desens of West
Africa and areas of Chile and Peru have favourable condensation conditions. In these areas,
ocean humidity condenses in the form of fog on the mid-range mountains (over 500m). This fog
composed of droplets of suspended water can be collected in nets. In the 1960s, a University in
Northern Chile conducted the first major experiments with fog nets. Drawing on the knowledge
gained from these experiments, further testing was done which culminated in one village using
fog nets to yield a healthy daily average of 11,000 litres of water. On a smaller scale, fog-
collecting nets have recently been used in the Canary Islands and Namibia.
Unfortunately, due to its need for a combination of several factors, fog is not readily available.
Dew however appears far more frequently and is less subject to the constraints of climate and
geography. In order for dew to form there needs to be some humidity in the air and a
reasonably clear sky. Many hot areas of countries that suffer from a lack of water such as the
Sahel region of Northern Africa for example, experience significant quantities of dew. When the
temperature is lowered over a short space of time by ten degrees or so, the water-harvesting
possibilities from the air yield an amazing ten grams of water from each cubic meter of air –
significant drops in air temperature make for greater yields. Unlike fog, dew formation can
occur even in a relatively dry atmosphere, such as a desert. All it takes is for the right mix of
temperatures between the earth and the air to combine and dew formation occurs.
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Questions 27 -29
Choose the correct letter, A, B. C or D
27. As a method of obtaining fresh water, fog

A. forms best when the air is dry.
B. is easier to collect than dew.
C. is being tried in a large-scale way in Senegal.
D. is not easy to collect.
28. Small-scale ‘greenhouse effect’ desalination

A. uses a considerable amount of energy.
B. is the most effective way to obtain larger water reserves.
C. uses very little energy.
D. burns quite a lot of fossil fuel.
29. One of the largest stores of fresh water in the world is

A. rivers and lakes.
B. atmospheric rain and snow.
C. ground water.
D. artesian wells.
Questions 30 – 34
Complete each sentence with the correct ending A-F from the box below.
Write the correct letter A-F in boxes 30-34 on your answer sheet.
30. Turning salt water into drinking water

31. Large-scale fresh water production through evaporation
32. Water available in the atmosphere
33. The use of dew as a water source
34. The amount of water collected from dew
A. is quite popular due to it not being too affected by temperature and location.
B. is being tried via an evaporation process.
C. is not energy efficient.
D. is best for poorer countries.
E. is made up of both clouds and water vapour.
F. is increased when temperatures fall rapidly.
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Questions 35 – 40

35. The amount of water consumed by wealthier countries is just as much as poorer countries.
36. Glaciers, rivers, artesian wells and ground water are all sources of fresh water.
37. Large bodies of water, such as the sea, have yielded the most fresh water.
38. The collection of water through the use of fog nets is becoming increasingly more popular
around the world.
39. If the sky is cloudy, dew will not form.
40. Dew and fog are major sources of water in smaller villages and isolated areas.
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READING
TEST 8
READING PASSAGE 1
TEA TIMES
A. The chances are that you have already drunk a cup or glass of tea today. Perhaps, you are
sipping one as you read this. Tea, now an everyday beverage in many parts of the world, has
over the centuries been an important part of the rituals of hospitality both in the home and in
trader society.
B. Tea originated in China, and in Eastern Asia tea making and drinking ceremonies have been
popular for centuries. Tea was first shipped to North Western Europe by English and Dutch
maritime traders in the sixteenth century. At about the same time, a land mule from the Ear
East, via Moscow, to Europe was opened up. Tea also figured in America’s bid for independence
from British rule – the Boston Tea Party.
C. As, over the last four hundred years, tea-leaves became available throughout much of Asia
and Europe, the ways in which tea was drunk changed. The Chinese considered the quality of
the leaves and the ways in which they w-ere cured all important. People in other cultures
added new ingredients besides tea-leaves and hot water. They drank tea with milk, sugar,
spices like cinnamon and cardamom, and herbs such as mint or sage. The variations are
endless. For example, in Western Sudan on the edge of the Sahara Desert, sesame oil is added
to milky tea on cold mornings. In England tea, unlike coffee, acquired a reputation as a
therapeutic drink that promoted health. Indeed, in European and Arab countries as well as in
Persia and Russia, tea was praised for its restorative and health giving properties. One Dutch
physician, Cornelius Blankaart, advised that to maintain health a minimum of eight to ten cups
a day should be drunk, and that up to 50 to 100 daily cups could be consumed with safely.
D. While European coffee houses were frequented by men discussing politics and closing
business deals, respectable middle-class women stayed at home and held lea parties. When the
price of tea fell in the nineteenth century poor people took up the drink with enthusiasm.
Different grades and blends of tea were sold to suit every pocket.
E. Throughout the world today, few religious groups object to tea drinking In Islamic cultures,
where drinking of alcohol is forbidden, tea and coffee consumption is an important part of
social life. However, Seventh-Day Adventists, recognising the beverage as a drug containing the
stimulant caffeine, frown upon the drinking of tea.
F. Nomadic Bedouin are well known for traditions of hospitality in the desert. According to
Middle Eastern tradition, guests are served both tea and coffee from pots kept ready on the
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fires of guest tents where men of the family and male visitors gather. Cups of ‘bitter’ cardamom
coffee and glasses of sugared tea should be constantly refilled by the host.
G. For over a thousand years, Arab traders have been bringing Islamic culture, including tea
drinking; to northern and western Africa, Techniques of tea preparation and the ceremony
involved have been adapted, in West African countries, such as Senegal and The Gambia, it is
fashionable for young men to gather in small groups to brew Chinese ‘gunpowder’ tea. The tea
is boiled with large amounts of sugar for a long time.
H. Tea drinking in India remains an important part of daily life. There, tea made entirely with
milk is popular, ‘Chai’ is made by boiling milk and adding tea, sugar and some spices. This form
of tea making has crossed the Indian Ocean and is also popular in East Africa, where tea is
considered best when it is either very milky or made with water only. Curiously, this ‘milk or
water’ formula has been carried over to the preparation of instant coffee, which is served in
cafes as either black, or sprinkled on a cup of hot milk.
I. In Britain, coffee drinking, particularly in the informal atmosphere of coffee shops, is currently
in vogue. Yet, the convention of afternoon tea lingers. At conferences, it remains common
practice to serve coffee in the morning and tea in the afternoon. Contemporary’ China, too,
remains true to its long tradition. Delegates at conferences and seminars are served lea in cups
with lids to keep the infusion hot. The cups are topped up throughout the proceedings. There
are as yet no signs of coffee at such occasions.
Questions 1 – 8
Reading Passage 1 has nine paragraphs A-I.

From the list of headings below choose the most suitable heading for each paragraph.
Write the appropriate numbers i – xiii in boxes 1-8 on your answer sheet.
List of Headings
i. Diverse drinking methods
ii. Limited objections to drinking tea
iii. Today’s continuing tradition – in Britain and China
iv. Tea – a beverage of hospitality
v. An important addition – tea with milk
vi. Tea and alcohol
vii. The everyday beverage in all parts of the world
viii. Tea on the move
ix. African tea
x. The fall in the cost of tea
xi. The value of tea
xii. Tea-drinking in Africa
xiii. Hospitality among the Bedouin
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Example Answer
Paragraph F xiii
1. Paragraph A
2. Paragraph B
3. Paragraph C
4. Paragraph D
5. Paragraph E
6. Paragraph G
7. Paragraph H
8. Paragraph I
Questions 9-13
9. For centuries, both at home and in society, tea has had an important role in…………… .
10. Falling tea prices in the nineteenth century meant that people could choose
the……………………….of the tea they could afford.
11. Because it…………………..Seventh-Day Adventists do not approve of the drinking of tea.
12. In the desert, one group that is well known for its traditions of hospitality is
the………………………..
13. In India,……………………, as well as tea, are added to boiling milk to make ‘chai’.
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READING PASSAGE 2
Caveat Scriptor!
Let the would-be writer beware! Anyone foolhardy enough to embark on a career as a writer –
whether it be an academic treatise, a novel, or even an article – should first read this!
People think that writing as a profession is glamorous; that it is just about sitting down and
churning out words on a page, or more likely these days on a computer screen. If only it were!
So what exactly does writing a book entail? Being a writer is about managing a galaxy of
contradictory feelings: elation, despair, hope, frustration, satisfaction and depression-and not
all separately! Of course, it also involves carrying out detailed research: first to establish
whether there is a market for the planned publication, and second what should be the content
of the book. Sometimes, however, instinct takes the place of market research and the contents
are dictated not by plans and exhaustive research, but by experience and knowledge.
Once the publication has been embarked upon, there is a long period of turmoil as the text
takes shape. A first draft is rarely the final text of the book. Nearly all books are the result of
countless hours of altering and re-ordering chunks of text and deleting the superfluous bits.
While some people might think that with new’ technology the checking and editing process is
sped up, the experienced writer would hardly agree. Unfortunately, advanced technology now
allows the writer the luxury of countless editing’s; a temptation many writers find hard to
resist. So a passage, endlessly re-worked may end up nothing remotely like the original, and
completely out of place when compared with the rest of the text.
After the trauma of self-editing and looking for howlers, it is time to show the text to other
people, friends perhaps, for appraisal. At this stage, it is not wise to send it off to a literary
agent or direct to publishers, as it may need further fine-tuning of which the author is unaware.
Once an agent has been approached and has rejected a draft publication, it is difficult to go and
ask for the re vamped text to be considered again. It also helps, at this stage, to offer a synopsis
of the book, if it is a novel, or an outline if it is a textbook. This acts as a guide for the author,
and a general reference for friends and later for agents.
Although it is tempting to send the draft to every possible agent at one time, it is probably
unwise. Some agents may reject the publication out of hand, but others may proffer some
invaluable advice, for example about content or the direction to be taken, information such as
this may be of use in finally being given a contract by an agent or publisher.
The lucky few taken on by publishers or agents, then have their books subjected to a number of
readers, whose job it is to vet a book: deciding whether it is worth publishing and whether the
text as it stands is acceptable or not. After a book has finally been accepted by a publisher, one
of the greatest difficulties for the warier lies in taking on board the publisher’s alterations to the
text. Whilst the overall story and thrust of the book may be acceptable, it will probably have to
conform to an in-house style, as regards language, spelling and punctuation. More seriously,
the integrity of the text may be challenged, and this may require radical re-drafting which is
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usually unpalatable to the author. A books creation period is complex and unnerving, but the
publisher’s reworkings and text amputations can also be a tortuous process.
For many writers, the most painful period comes when the text has been accepted, and the
writer is wailing for it to be put together for the printer. By this stage, it is not uncommon for
the writer to be thoroughly sick of the text.
Abandon writing? Nonsense. Once smitten, it is not easy to escape the compulsion to create
and write, despite the roller-coaster ride of contradictory emotions.
Questions 14-21
Complete the summary below using words from the box.

People often associate writing with 14…………………… But being a writer involves managing
conflicting emotions as well as 15……………………… and instinct. Advanced technology, contrary
to what might be thought, does not make the 16……………………….faster. When a writer has a
draft of the text ready, it is a good idea to have a 17……………………. for friends and agents to
look at. If an author is accepted by a publisher, the draft of the book is given
to 18……………………. for vetting. 19……………………… are then often made, which are not easy for
the writer to agree. However, 20…………………..compelling, even though there
are 21……………………. .
editing process beware first draft glamour a literary agent

alterations profession publisher challenges writing
dictating research publishing summary ups and downs
roller-coaster readers
Questions 22 and 23
Choose the correct letter A, B, C or D.

22. In the planning stages of a book,

A. instinct can replace market research.
B. market research can replace instinct.
C. market research is essential.
D. instinct frequently replaces market research.
23. The problem with the use of advanced technology in editing is that
A. it becomes different from the original.
B. it is unfortunate.
C. it is a luxury.
D. many writers cannot resist changing the text again and again.
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Questions 24-27
24. Once a text is finished, the writer needs to get the ……………….. of other people.
25. Some agents may reject the draft of a book, while others may offer ………………………..
26. Apart from the need for a draft to conform to an in-house style, a publisher’s changes to a
text may include …………………..
27. The publisher’s alterations to a book are difficult for a writer, as is the………………….as the
book grows.
READING PASSAGE 3
Pronunciation and Physiognomy
Imagine the scene: you are sitting on the tube and on gets someone you instinctively feel is
American. To make sure you ask them the time, and arc fight, but how did you know?
When we say someone ‘looks American’, we take into consideration dress, mannerism and
physical appearance. However, since the Americans do not constitute one single race, what
exactly is meant by ‘look’? In fact, one salient feature is a pronounced widening around the jaw
– a well-documented phenomenon.
Writer Arthur Koestler once remarked that friends of his, whom he had met thirty years after
they’ emigrated to the United States, had acquired an ‘American physiognomy’, i.e. a
broadened jaw, an appearance which is also prevalent in the indigenous population. An
anthropologist friend of his attributed this to the increased use of the jaw musculature in
American enunciation. This ‘change of countenance’ in immigrants had already been observed
by the historian M. Fishberg in 1910.
To paraphrase the philosopher Emerson, certain national, social and religious groups, such as
ageing actors, long-term convicts and celibate priests, to give just a few examples, develop a
distinguishing ‘look’, which is not easily defined, but readily recognised. Their way of life affects
their facial expression and physical features, giving the mistaken impression that these traits
are of hereditary or ‘racial’ origin. All the factors mentioned above contribute, as well as
heredity. But the question of appearance being affected by pronunciation – as in the case of
American immigrant including those from other English speaking countries over the course of
many years – is of great interest, and calls for further study into the science of voice
production. This can only benefit those working in the field of speech therapy, elocution and
the pronunciation of foreign languages, and help the student from a purely physiological point
of view. Naturally, the numerous psychological and socio-linguistic factors that inhibit most
adult learners of foreign languages from acquiring ‘good’ pronunciation constitute a completely
different and no less important issue that require separate investigation.
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The pronunciation of the various forms of English around the world today is affected by the
voice being ‘placed’ in different, parts of the mouth. We use our Speech organs in certain ways
to produce specific sounds, and these muscles have to practise to learn new phonemes. Non-
Americans should look in the mirror while repeating ‘1 really never heard of poor reward for
valour’ with full use of tile USA retroflex /r/ phoneme, and note what happens to their
jawbones after three or four repetitions. Imagine the effect of these movements on the jaw
muscles after twenty years! This phoneme is one of the most noticeable features of US English
and one that non-Americans always exaggerate when mimicking the accent. Likewise, standard
British RP is often parodied, and its whine of superiority mocked to the point of turning the end
of one’s nose up as much as possible. Not only does this enhance the ‘performance’, but also
begs the question of whether this look is the origin of the expression ‘stuck up’?
Once on a Birmingham bus, a friend pointed to a fellow passenger and said, ‘That man’s
Brummie accent is written all over his face.’ This was from someone who would not normally
make crass generalisations. The interesting thing would be to establish whether thin lips and a
tense, prominent chin are a result of the way Midlands English is spoken, or its cause, or a
mixture of both. Similarly, in the case of Liverpool one could ask whether the distinctive ‘Scouse
accent was a reason for, or the frequency of high cheekbones in the local population.
When one learns another accent, as in the theatre for example, voice coaches often resort to
images to help their students acquire the distinctive sound of the target pronunciation. With
‘Scouse’, the mental aid employed is pushing your cheekbones up in a smile as high as they will
go and you have got a very slack mouth full of cotton wool. The sound seems to spring off die
sides of your face-outwards and upwards. For a Belfast accent, one has to tighten the sides of
the jaws until there is maximum tension, and speak opening the lips as little as possible, This
gives rise to the well-known ‘Ulster jaw’ phenomenon. Learning Australian involves imagining
the ordeals of the first westerners transported to the other side of the world. When exposed to
the merciless glare and unremitting heat of the southern sun, we instinctively screw up our
eyes and grimace for protection.
Has this contributed to an Australian ‘look’, and affected the way ‘Aussies’ speak English, or vice
versa? It is a curious chicken and egg conundrum, but perhaps the answer is ultimately
irrelevant Of course other factors affect the way people look and sound, and it would certainly
be inaccurate to suggest that all those who speak one form of a language or dialect have a set
physiognomy because of their pronunciation patterns. But a large enough number do, and that
alone is worth investigating. What is important, however, is establishing pronunciation as one
of the factors that determine physiognomy, and gaining a deeper insight into the origins and
nature of the sounds of speech And of course, one wonders what ‘look’ one’s own group has!
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Questions 28-30
Look at the following people (Questions 28-30) and the list of statements below.
Match each person with the correct statement.
Write the correct letter A-G in boxes 28-30 on your answer sheet.
28. Koestler
29. Fish berg
30. Emerson
A. Americans use their jaw more to enunciate
B. immigrants acquire physiognomical features common among the indigenous

population
C. facial expression and physical features are hereditary
D. lifestyle affects physiognomy
E. Americans have a broadened jaw
F. His friends appearance had changed since they moved to the United States.
G. the change of countenance was unremarkable
Questions 31-36
Do the following statements reflect the claims of the writer in Reading Passage 3?
In boxes 31-36 on your answer sheet write
YES if the statement agrees with the information in the passage

NO if the statement contradicts the information in the passage
NOT GIVEN if there is no information about the statement in the passage
31. Further study into the science of voice production will cost considerable sums of money.
32. The psychological and socio-linguistic factors that make it difficult for adult learners of
foreign languages to gain ‘good’ pronunciation are not as important as other factors.
33. Speech organs are muscles.
34. New phonemes are difficult to learn.
35. People often make fun of standard British RP.
36. Facial features contribute to the incomprehensibility of Midlands English.
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Questions 37- 40
Complete each of the following statements (Questions 37-40) with the best ending A-I from the
box below.
Write the appropriate letters A-I in boxes 37-40 on your answer sheet
37. Voice coaches

38. The Scouse accent
39. Whether the way we look affects the way we speak or the other way round
40. It is important to prove that pronunciation
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READING
TEST 9
READING PASSAGE 1
REFLECTING ON THE MIRROR
In all likelihood the first mirrors would have simply been pools of water that reflected the image
of the one who looked into it. Nature’s mirror, while cheap and readily accessible, must have
also been quite frustrating with the slightest disturbance on the surface of the water making it
difficult to see clearly. It is not altogether clear when the first man-made mirrors were
produced but mirrors made of brass are mentioned in the Bible, and after that mirrors of
bronze were in common use among the ancient Egyptians, Romans and Greeks. In addition to
bronze, the Greeks and Romans experimented with polished silver to produce simple mirrors.
Crude forms of glass mirrors were first made in Venice in 1300. Small sheets of glass were cut
from disks made by a spinning process. When this glass was backed with a covering of tin or
lead, a ‘mirror’ resulted. During the early periods of their development, mirrors were rare and
expensive. France had glass factories but only in Venice, Italy was the secret of mirror foiling
know n. The chemical process of coating a glass surface with metallic silver was discovered by
German chemist Justus von Liebig in 1835, and this advance inaugurated the modern
techniques of mirror making.
By the end of the 17th century mirrors were made in Britain and the manufacture of mirrors
developed subsequently into an important industry in many other European countries. People
wore them in their hats, or set them like jewels in their rings. Society glittered and shone like
the firmament. A little later on, America was gripped by the mirror craze, only this time they
wore interested in larger mirrors. In house after house in residential districts and eastern cities
there could be found one long mirror after another placed between two front parlour windows.
In the manufacture of mirrors today, plate glass is cut to size, and all blemishes are removed by
polishing with rouge. The glass is scrubbed and flushed with a reducing solution before silver is
applied. The glass is then placed on a hollow, cast-iron tabletop, covered with felt, and kept
warm by steam. A solution of silver nitrate is poured on the glass and left undisturbed for about
1 hour. The silver nitrate is reduced to a metallic silver and a lustrous deposit of silver gradually
forms. The deposit is dried, coated with shellac, and painted. Most present-day mirrors
therefore, are made up of these layers. Glass is used on top because it is smooth, clear, and
protects the reflective surface. A mirror needs to be very smooth in order for the best reflection
to occur.
Mirrors may have plane or curved surfaces. A curved mirror is concave or convex depending on
whether the reflecting surface faces toward the centre of the curvature or away from it. Curved
mirrors in ordinary usage have surfaces of varying shapes. Perhaps the most common is
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spherical. Spherical mirrors produce images that are magnified or reduced – exemplified, by
mirrors for applying facial makeup and by rear-view mirrors for vehicles. Cylindrical mirrors are
another common type of shape. These focus a parallel beam ©flight to a linear focus. A
paraboloidal mirror is one which is often used to focus parallel rays to a sharp focus, as in a
telescope mirror, or to produce a parallel beam from a source at its focus, such as a searchlight.
A less common but useful shape is the ellipsoidal. Such a mirror will reflect light from one of its
two focal points to the other.
While the mirror is the focus of the production, the frame plays an important albeit slightly
lesser role as the anchor by which the mirror is affixed to its proper place. From the late 17th
century onward, mirrors and their frames played an increasingly important part in the
decoration of rooms. Complementing the shiny reflective mirror, the early frames were usually
of ivory, silver, ebony, or tortoiseshell or were veneered with walnut, olive, and laburnum.
Needlework and bead frames were also to be found. Craftsmen such as Grinling Gibbons often
produced elaborately carved mirror frames to match a complete decorative ensemble. The
tradition soon became established of incorporating a mirror into the space over the
mantelpiece; many of the early versions of these mirrors, usually known as overmantels, were
enclosed in glass frames. The architectural structure of which these mirrors formed a part
became progressively more elaborate. Focusing heavily on the effect created by mirrors,
18th century designers such as the English brothers Robert and James Adam created fireplace
units stretching from the hearth to the ceiling. Oil the whole, mirror frames reflected the
general taste of the time and were often changed to accommodate alterations in taste – frames
usually being cheaper and hence more easily replaced than the mirror itself.
By the end of the 18th century, painted decoration largely supplanted carving on mirrors, the
frames being decorated with floral patterns or classical ornaments. At the same time the
French started producing circular mirrors. Usually surrounded by a neoclassical gilt frame that
sometimes supported candlesticks, these mirrors enjoyed great popularity well into the
19thImproved skill in mirror making also made possible die introduction of the cheval glass, a
freestanding full-length mirror, supported on a frame with four feet. These were mainly used
for dressing purposes, though occasionally they had a decorative function. New, cheaper
techniques of mirror production in the 19th century led to a great proliferation in their use. Not
only were they regularly incorporated into pieces of furniture – such as wardrobes and
sideboards – they were also used in everything from high-powered telescopes to decorative
schemes in public places. Their popularity continues today. Through them, infants are able to
develop an awareness of their individuality through ‘mirror games’. This type of emotional
reflection stimulates babies to move various parts of their body and even promotes verbal
utterances.
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Questions 1-5
Do the following statements reflect the claims of the writer in Reading Passage 1?
In boxes 1-5 on your answer sheet write
TRUE if the statement agree with the information

1. The Creeks arid Egyptians used polished silver to make mirrors.

2. The first man-made mirrors were made of bronze.
3. Only the wealthy could afford the first mirrors.
4. The first mirrors in America were used for decoration.
5. Spherical mirrors are commonly used in cars.
Questions 6 – 9
Complete the labels on Diagram A below.

Write the correct letter A-J in boxes 6-9 on your answer sheet.
Diagram A: Magnified side-view of a mirror
A. rouge
B. cast iron
C. felt
D. steam
E. shellac
F. glass
G. metal
H. silver nitrate paint
I. reducing solution
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Questions 10-13
Choose the correct letter A, B, C, or D.

10. The type of mirror used for looking at the stars is

A. paraboloidal.
B.spherical.
C. cylindrical.
D. ellipsoidal.
11. 17th century craftsmen

A. blended mirror frames well with other household furniture.
B. hung mirrors above fireplaces.
C. used mirror frames as a focus for home decoration.
D. established floral patterns as a standard for mirror frames.

A. designed furniture which highlighted the unique properties of mirrors.
B. experimented largely with mirror frames made of ebony and ivory.
C. built spherically-shaped minors.
D. experimented with ceiling mirrors around fireplaces.

A. used mirrors less than any previous time in history.
B. introduced mirrors as learning tools.
C. used mirrors extensively in bedroom furniture.
D. etched designs into mirrors.
READING PASSAGE 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26 which are based on Reading Passage 2
EFFORT AND SCIENCE TO WIN
Winning nowadays is not only a question of disciplined training: The triumph of victory today
involves the collaboration of several medical specialists who combine their particular knowledge
in an effort to help each athlete to reach their potential.
A. In Mexico, the Medicine Direction and .Applied Sciences of the National Commission of
Deporte analyses all aspects of sports science from the role of the auditory system in sporting
achievement to die power of the mind and its role in the ability to win. Everything, it seems, is
open to scrutiny. Recently, the focus has been evaluating the visual acuity of cyclists and long
distance runners but they also focus on the more traditional areas of sports research, among
them psychology, nutrition, anthropology, biochemistry and odontology 1. From budding child
athletes as young as 9 to the more mature-aged sportsperson, the facility at Deporte has
attracted some of Mexico’s most famous sporting and Olympic hopefuls.
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B. “The study of elite athletes is now more scientific than ever” says doctor Francisco Javier
Squares, “after each competition, athletes are exposed to vigorous medical examinations and
follow-up training in order to help US arrive at a program that is tailor-made. “The modern
athlete has become big business, no longer is there a one-size-fits-all approach. For example, in
the past two people both 1.70 meters tall and weighing 70 kilograms would have been given
the same program of athletic conditioning – now this idea is obsolete. It may be that the first
individual has 35 kgs of muscle and 15 kgs of fat and the other person, although the same
height and weight may have 30 kgs of muscle and 20 kgs of fat. Through detailed scientific
evaluation here at our facility in Deporte,” says Squares, “… we are able to construct a very
specific training programme for each individual.”
C. Whereas many countries in die world focus on the elevation of the glorious champion, the
Mexican Olympic team takes a slightly different approach. Psychologically speaking an athlete
must bring to his endeavour a healthy dose of humility. As Squares said, “When an athlete wins
for Mexico, it is always as a result of a combined team effort with many people operating
behind the scenes to realise the sporting achievement. When an athlete stands on the dais, it is
because of great effort on the part of many.”
D. As is often the case in some poorer countries, sportsmen and women are stifled in their
development due to budgetary constraints. However this has not been a factor for
consideration with the team in Mexico. The Mexican government has allocated a substantial
sum of money for the provision of the latest equipment and laboratories for sports research. In
fact, the quality of Mexico’s facilities puts them on a par with countries like Italy and Germany
in terms of access to resources. One example of sophisticated equipment used at the Mexican
facility is the hyperbaric chamber. This apparatus is used to enhance oxygen recovery after a
vigorous physical workout. Says Squares, “When you breathe the air while inside a hyperbaric
chamber the natural state of the oxygen does not change. Green plants produced the oxygen;
modern technology just increases the air pressure. This does not change the molecular
composition of oxygen. Increased pressure just allows oxygen to get into tissues better. Due to
our purchase of the hyperbaric chamber, athletes are able to recover from an intense workout
in a much shorter space of time. We typically use the chamber for sessions of 45 to 60 minutes
daffy or three times per week.”
E. When pushed to the limit, the true indicator of fitness is not how hard the heart operates,
but how quickly it can recover after an extreme workout. Therefore, another focus area of
study for the team in Mexico has been the endurance of the heart. To measure this recovery
rate, an electroencephalograph (EEG) is used. The EEG enables doctors to monitor the
brainwave activity from sensors placed on the scalp. Athletes exert intense effort for a
sustained period after which they are given time to rest and recover. During these periods
between intense physical exertion and recovery, doctors are able to monitor any weaknesses in
the way the heart responds. The CCG has had a big impact upon our ability to measure the
muscular endurance of the heart.
F. In 1796, the life expectancy of a human being was between 25 and 36 years, in 1886 that
number basically doubled to between 45 and 50. In 1996, the life expectancy of an average
Mexican stood at around 75 years. People are living longer and this is due in large part to the
advances of modern science. It is not all sophisticated medical equipment that is playing a part;
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although lesser in impact, basic advances in engineering are also greatly assisting. Take for
example, a professional tennis player. In the past, most tennis players’ shoes were constructed
with fabric and a solid rubber sole. These shoes were of poor construction and resulted in hip
and foot injuries. Today the technology of shoe construction has radically changed. Now some
shoes are injected with silicone and made of more comfortable, ergonomic1 construction. This
has helped not only the elite but also the recreational sportsperson and thus, helps in the
preservation of the human body.
1
objects designed to be better adapted to the shape of the human body
Questions 14 -17
The passage has eight paragraphs labelled A-F

Write the correct letter A-F in boxes 14-17 on your answer sheet.
14. the natural process of oxygen production

15. standard after-competition procedure
16. the areas of study undertaken to improve athletic performance
17. the Mexican viewpoint on winning
Questions 18 -20
Choose the correct letter A, B, C, or D.

18. The hyperbaric chamber

A. helps athletes to breathe more easily.
B. increases the level of oxygen an athlete breathes.
C. decreases the pressure of the oxygen for Mexican athletes.
D. speeds up recovery time for athletes.
19. The electroencephalograph (EEC)

A. measures how fast brainwaves move during exercise.
B. helps doctors to determine heart problems.
C. measures how hard the heart works during exercise.
D. strengthens the heart muscle in athletes.
20. The life-span of individuals in Mexico has increased due to

A. medical improvements.
B. more committed doctors.
C. better made sporting equipment.
D. advances in ergonomics.
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Questions 21-26

21. There are limits to the level of sporting enquiry.

22. Specific athletic programs differ mostly between men and women
23. Mexico and Germany have similar sporting resources.
24. Lack of money is what stops athletic improvement in some poor countries.
25. Wealthy countries enjoy greater athletic success.
26. Mexican athletes have the support of their government.
READING PASSAGE 3
FUELING THE FUTURE
The world’s 750 million motor vehicles emit well over 900 million metric tonnes of carbon
dioxide each year. Traffic-related air pollution has been responsible for 6% of deaths per year
and is associated with certain forms of leukaemia, inflammatory lung diseases, increased
cardio-vascular disease, low birth-weight babies and male infertility. It stands to reason that
tackling traffic- related air pollution should be high on any government’s list of priorities. Thus,
in an attempt to minimise this situation many governments around the world have been
looking at ways to implement alternative fuel sources. The most widely accepted way of doing
this is to replace the crude oil that our vehicles currently run on with renewable,
‘environmentally friendly’ One serious contender put forward as a solution to the pollution
problem is ethanol.
Ethanol is a type of alcohol made by fermenting plant material. Water and organic matter from
the plants including com, sorghum, sugar cane and wood are mixed together and fermented to
make ethanol. After fermentation there are three layers remaining. The first is water and small
particles of grain and alcohol. It takes on a syrup consistency. The second layer is the remaining
grain, which is 17 per cent dry matter. The third layer is the actual ethanol – a colourless,
volatile, flammable liquid. It is the only layer sold and accounts for exactly one-third of the total
dry matter used for its production. There are three primary ways that it is used as a fuel for
transportation: as a blend of 10 per cent ethanol with 90% unleaded fuel (E10); as a component
of reformulated gasoline and; as a primary fuel with 85 parts of ethanol blended with 15 parts
of unleaded fuel (E-85). In the 1800s in the USA, it was first used as lamp fuel. Later on , due to
skyrocketing oil prices in the 1970s, E10 was produced as a type of ‘fuel-extender’ for vehicles
with E-85 being produced in the 1990s. Brazil has also used ethanol-blended fuels. Like
America, the high prices in the 1970s prompted a government mandate to produce vehicles
which could be fuelled by pure ethanol Today there are more than 4,2 million ethanol- powered
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vehicles in Brazil (40 per cent passenger carrying) which consume 4 billion gallons of ethanol
annually. Today, Brazil is the largest transportation ethanol fuel market in the world.
Given that Ethanol is made from a variety of plant substances when it is used in fuel production,
it increases the monetary value of feed grains grown by farmers. In fact, in the USA, the largest
ethanol consuming nation in the world, ethanol production adds £4.5 billion to the farm
economy every year. According to the United States Department of Agriculture, ethanol
production adds 30 cents to the value of a bushel of corn. Another of its benefits, according to
Brian Keating, deputy chief of Australia’s Commonwealth Scientific and Industrial Research
Organisation (CSIRO) is that a 10% ethanol blend (E10) would reduce greenhouse gas emissions
by 2 to 5% over the full lifecycle of ethanol production and consumption. Said Keating, “The
precise benefits depend on specific factors in the production cycle. An important component of
which is the energy source used by the ethanol factory. If it’s being powered by coal or oil,
there are obviously associated greenhouse gas emissions.” In America, The Clean Air Act of
1990 and the National Energy Policy Act of 1992 have both created new market opportunities
for cleaner, more efficient fuels with many state governments in America’s Mid-west
purchasing fleet vehicles capable of running on E-85 fuels.
Although it makes a good fuel, some drawbacks have been documented. The economics of
ethanol production are improving as the technology improves but ethanol has two problems: It
does not explode like gasoline, and it can absorb water, which can cause oxidation, rust and
corrosion. The claims of possible damage to vehicles from the use of ethanol blends above 10%
has therefore attracted considerable negative publicity. Compared to diesel – the standard fuel
in the heavy moving industry – ethanol is known to have a lower energy content so ethanol
trucks require larger fuel tanks to achieve the same range as a diesel-powered vehicle. In
Australia, a government review’ into the impacts of a 20% ethanol blend on vehicles found the
information to be insufficient or conflicting, but did identify a number of problems such as the
possible perishing and swelling of elastomeric and plastic materials in fuel systems.
Stakeholders in the motor vehicle industry have slated that warranties on motor vehicles and
pump dispensing equipment could be at risk with the use of blends above 10% ethanol.
Principle economist for the Australian Bureau of Agriculture Andrew Dickson points out that the
money sugarcane growers get for their cane is not determined by the domestic consumption or
domestic demand for ethanol, it is entirely determined by the world sugar market and the
world trade in molasses He believes that the only way the sugar industry’ can benefit from the
existence of an ethanol industry is if they invest in the ethanol industry. “The sugar producer
does not get any more money for their molasses so what incentive do they have to produce any
more?.” The cost of production also represents some challenges. In Australia, fuel ethanol costs
around 70 cents per litre compared with around 35 cents per litre for unleaded petrol. In
America, one report revealed that even with government assistance, ethanol is dose to 35 per
cent more than the price of diesel. Consequently, production of ethanol requires government
assistance to be competitive. A recent study by the Australian Bureau of Agricultural and
Resource Economies found that without assistance, large-scale production of ethanol would
not be commercially viable in Australia.
Regardless of whether the Australian sugar industry will benefit from a mandated 10% ethanol
mix, the expansion of ethanol production would certainly lead to increased economic activity in
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farming areas. It is inevitable that some expansion would be at the expense of existing industry.
If ethanol becomes more popular, there will soon be more plants producing it. This means
there will be a need for workers for the plants. The American National Ethanol Vehicle Coalition
(NBVC) projects that employment will be boosted by 200,000 jobs and the balance of trade will
be improved by over $2 The future of ethanol looks promising, for better or worse ethanol
looks to be a serious contender for tomorrow’s fuel.
Questions 27 -31
Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer in Reading Passage 2?
YES if the statement reflects the claims of the writer

NO if the statement contradicts the claims of the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
27. The need to control air pollution is why ethanol came into use.
28. Brazil uses more ethanol for transportation than America.
29. Select food crops become more expensive due to ethanol production
30. The Australian sugar industry will benefit from the production of ethanol.
31. Primary ethanol (E-85) has been extensively tested in Australia.
Questions 32 – 35
Look at the following list of descriptions (Questions 32-35) and the list of fuel types below.
Match each description to the fuel type.
Write the correct letter A-D in boxes 32-35 on your answer sheet.
32. costs about half the price of ethanol

33. reacts poorly with some metals
34. is the reason why trucks have been fitted with larger fuel tanks
35. commonly used in the trucking industry
A. regular gasoline
B. unleaded gasoline
C. ethanol
D. diesel
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Question 36 – 40
Classify the following statements according to which country they apply to. Write the
appropriate letters A-D in boxes 36-40 on your answer sheet.
A. Australia only
B. America only
C. both Australia and America
D. neither Australia nor America
36. makes ethanol out of sugar cane

37. uses more ethanol than any other country in the world
38. receives government assistance for ethanol production
39. proved ethanol production is costly
40. their government bought ethanol-friendly cars
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READING
TEST 10
READING PASSAGE 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on Reading Passage 1 below.
Computer Games for Preschoolers:

Nintendo’s Research and Design Process
A Designing computer games for young children is a daunting task for game producers, who, for
a long time, have concentrated on more “hard core” game fans. This article chronicles the
design process and research involved in creating Nintendo DS for preschool gamers.
B After speaking with our producers who have a keen interest in designing for the DS, we finally
agreed on three key goals for our project. First, to understand the range of physical and
cognitive abilities of preschoolers in the context of handheld system game play; second, to
understand how preschool gamers interact with the DS, specifically how they control the
different forms of play and game mechanics offered by the games presently on the market for
this platform; third, to understand the expectations of preschoolers, parents concerning the
handheld systems as well as the purchase and play contexts within which game play occurs. The
team of the research decided that in-home ethnographies with preschoolers and their families
would yield comprehensive database with which to give our producers more information and
insights, so we start by conducting 26 in-home ethnographies in three markets across the
United States: an East coast urban/suburban area, a West coast urban/suburban area, and a
Midwest suburban/rural area.
C The subjects in this study included 15 girls and 11 boys ranging from 3 years and 3 months old
to 5 years and 11 months old. Also, because previous research had shown the effects of older
siblings on game play (demonstrated, for example, by more advanced motor coordination when
using a computer mouse), households were employed to have a combination of preschoolers
with and without elder peers. In order to understand both “experienced” and “new” preschool
users of the platform, we divided the sample so that 13 families owned at least one Nintendo
DS and the others did not. For those households that did not own a DS, one was brought to the
interview for the kid to play. This allowed us to see both the instinctive and intuitive
movements of the new players (and of the more experienced players when playing new
games), as well as the learned movements of the more experienced players. Each of those
interviews took about 60 to 120 minutes and included the preschooler, at least one parent, and
often siblings and another caregiver.
D Three kinds of information were collected after each interview. From any older siblings and
the parents that were available, we gathered data about ： the buying decisions surrounding
game systems in the household, the family’s typical game play patterns， levels of parental
moderation with regard to computer gaming, and the most favorite games played by family
members .We could also understand the ideology of gaming in these homes because of these
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in-home interviews： what types of spaces were used for game play， how the systems were
installed, where the handheld play occurred in the house (as well as on-the-go play), and the
number and type of games and game systems owned. The most important is, we gathered the
game-playing information for every single kid.
E Before carrying out the interviews, the research team had closely discussed with the in-house
game producers to create a list of game mechanics and problems tied to preschoolers* motor
and cognitive capabilities that were critical for them to understand prior to writing the games.
These ranged from general dexterity issues related to game controllers to the effectiveness of
in-game instructions to specific mechanics in current games that the producers were interested
in implementing for future preschool titles. During the interviews, the moderator gave specific
guidance to the preschooler through a series of games, so that he or she could observe the
interaction and probe both the preschooler and his or her parents on feelings, attitudes, and
frustrations that arose in the different circumstances
F If the subject in the experiment had previous exposure to the DS system, he or she was first
asked to play his or her favorite game on that machine. This gave the researchers information
about current of gaming skill related to the complexity of the chosen one, allowing them to see
the child playing a game with mechanics he or she was already familiar with. Across the 26
preschoolers, the Nintendo DS selections scope were very broad，including New Super Mario
Bros, Sonic Rush. Nintendo, and Tony Hawk’s Proving Ground. The interviewer observed the
child play，noting preferences for game mechanics and motor interactions with the device as
well as the complexity level each game mechanic was for the tested subject The researchers
asked all of the preschoolers to play with a specific game in consultation with our producers,
The Little Mermaid: Ariel’s Undersea Adventure. The game was chosen for two major reasons.
First, it was one of the few games on the market with characters that appeal to this young age
group. Second, it incorporated a large variety of mechanics that highlighted the uniqueness of
the DS platform, including using the microphone for blowing or singing.
G The findings from this initial experiment were extensive. After reviewing the outcomes and
discussing the implications for the game design with our internal game production team, we
then outlined the designing needs and presented the findings to a firm specialising in game
design. We worked closely with those experts to set the game design for the two preschool-
targeted DS games under development on what we had gathered.
H As the two DS games went into the development process, a formative research course of
action was set up. Whenever we developed new game mechanics, we brought preschoolers
into our in-house utility lab to test the mechanics and to evaluate both their simplicity, and
whether they were engaging. We tested either alpha or beta versions of different elements of
the game, in addition to looking at overarching game structure. Once a full version of the DS
game was ready, we went back into the field test with a dozen preschoolers and their parents
to make sure that each of the game elements worked for the children, and that the overall
objective of the game was understandable and the process was enjoyable for players. We also
collected parents’ feedback on whether they thought the game is appropriate, engaging, and
worth the purchase.
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Questions 1-5
Choose ONE WORD ONLYfrom the passage for each answer. Write your answers in
boxes 1-5 on your answer sheet
Exploratory Research Project
Main Objectives:
Determine the relevant 1…………………………………. in the context
Observe how preschoolers manage playing
Investigate attitudes of 2……………………………………… towards games
Subjects:
26 children from different US 3……………………………………..
Age range: 3 years and 3 months to 5_years and 11 months
Some children have older 4…………………………….. in the house as playing peers.
Equal number of new and 5…………………………………………. players
Some households have Nintendo DS and some don’t
Length of Interview:
1-2 hours
Questions 6-9
Do following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1In boxes 6-9 on
your answer sheet, write
TRUE if the statement aggress with the information

6. One area of research is how far mothers and fathers controlled children’s playing after
school.
7. Some researchers are allowed an access to the subjects’ houses.
8. The researchers regarded The Little Mermaid: Ariel’s Undersea Adventure as likely appeal to
preschoolers.
9. The Little Mermaid: Ariel’s Undersea Adventure is entirely designed for preschool children.
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Questions 10-13
Complete the flow-chart below.

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer Write your answers in
boxes 10-13 on your answer sheet.
Using the Results of the Study

Presentation of design requirements to a specialist 10……………………….
Testing the mechanics of two new games in the Nintendo lab (assess 11……………………. and
interest)
A field test in 12…………………………. trailed by twelve children
Collection of 13……………………………….. from parents
READING PASSAGE 2
The History of Pencil
A The beginning of the story of pencils started with a lightning. Graphite, the main material for
producing pencil, was discovered in 1564 in Boirowdale in England when a lightning struck a
local tree during a thunder. Local people found out that the black substance spotted at the root
of the unlucky tree was different from burning ash of wood. It was soft, thus left marks
everywhere. Chemistry was barely out of its infancy at the time, so people mistook it for lead,
equally black but much heavier. It was soon put to use by locals in marking their sheep for signs
of ownership and calculation.
B Britain turns out to be the major country where mines of graphite can be detected and
developed. Even so, the first pencil was invented elsewhere. As graphite is soft, it requires
some form of encasement. In Italy, graphite sticks were initially wrapped in string or sheepskin
for stability, becoming perhaps the very first pencil in the world. Then around 1560, an Italian
couple made what are likely the first blueprints for the modem, wood-encased carpentry
pencil. Their version was a flat, oval, more compact type of pencil. Their concept involved the
hollowing out of a stick of juniper wood. Shortly thereafter in 1662，a superior technique was
discovered by German people: two wooden halves were carved, a graphite stick inserted, and
the halves then glued together – essentially the same method in use to this day. The news of
usefulness of these early pencils spread far and wide, attracting the attention of artists all over
the known world.
C Although graphite core in pencils is still referred to as lead, modem pencils do not contain
lead as the “lead “of the’ pencil is actually a mix of finely ground graphite and clay powders.
This mixture is important because the amount of clay content added to the graphite depends
on intended pencil hardness, and the amount of time spent on grinding the mixture determines
the quality of the lead. The more clay you put in, the higher hardness the core has. Many
pencils across the world, and almost all in Europe, are graded on the European system. This
system of naming used B for black and H for hard; a pencil’s grade was described by a sequence
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or successive Hs or Bs such as BB and BBB for successively softer leads, and HH and HHH for
successively harder ones. Then the standard writing pencil is graded HB.
D In England, pencils continued to be made from whole sawn graphite. But with the mass
production of pencils, they are getting drastically more popular in many countries with each
passing decade. As demands rise, appetite for graphite soars. According to the United States
Geological Survey (USGS), world production of natural graphite in 2012 was 1,100,000 tonnes,
of which the following major exporters are: China, India, Brazil, North Korea and Canada.
When the value of graphite was realised, the mines were taken over by the government and
guarded. One of its chief uses during the reign of Elizabeth I in the second half of the 16th
century was as moulds for the manufacture of camion balls. Graphite was transported from
Keswick to London in armed stagecoaches. In 1751 an Act of Parliament was passed making it
an offence to steal or receive “wad”. This crime was punishable by hard labour or
transportation.
E That the United States did not use pencils in the outer space till they spent $1000 to make a
pencil to use in zero gravity conditions is in fact a fiction. It is widely known that astronauts in
Russia used grease pencils, which don’t have breakage problems. But it is also a fact that their
counterparts in the United States used pencils in the outer space before real zero gravity pencil
was invented .They preferred mechanical pencils, which produced fine lines, much clearer than
the smudgy lines left by the grease pencils that Russians favoured. But the lead tips of these
mechanical pencils broke often. That bit of graphite floating around the space capsule could get
into someone’s eye, or even find its way into machinery or electronics short or other problems.
But despite the fact that the Americans did invent zero gravity pencil later, they stuck to
mechanical pencils for many years.
F Against the backcloth of a digitalized world, the prospect of pencils seems bleak. In reality, it
does not. The application of pencils has by now become so widespread that they can be seen
everywhere, such as classrooms, meeting rooms and art rooms, etc. A spectrum of users are
likely to continue to use it into the future: students to do math works, artists to draw on sketch
pads, waiters or waitresses to mark on order boards, make-up professionals to apply to faces,
and architects to produce blue prints. The possibilities seem limitless
Questions 14-19

Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage for each answer,
Write your answers in boxes 14-19 on your answer sheet
Graphite was found under a 14 ………………………… in Borrowdale

Ancient people used graphite to sign possession and number of 15 …………………………. .
The first pencil was graphite wrapped in 16 ……………………….. or animal skin.
In the eighteenth century, the 17………………………. value of graphite was realized.
During the reign of Elizabeth I，people was condemnable if they 18 …………………. or receive
the “wad”.
Russian astronauts preferred 19 ……………………………… pencils to write in the outer space.
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Questions 20-26
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Rending Passage 2? In
boxes20-26 on your answer sheet write

20. Italy is probably the first country of the whole world to make pencils.
21. Germany used various kinds of wood to make pencils.
22. Graphite makes a pencil harder and sharper.
23. Pencils are not produced any more since the reign of Elizabeth
24. Pencil was used during the first American space
expedition. ‘
25. American astronauts did not replace mechanical pencils immediately after the zero gravity
pencils were invented.
26. Pencils are unlikely to be used in the fixture.
READING PASSAGE 3
Knowledge in Medicine
A What counts as knowledge? What do we mean when we say that we know something? What
is the status of different kinds of knowledge? In order to explore these questions we are going
to focus on one particular area of knowledge——medicine.
B How do you know when you are ill? This may seem to be an absurd question. You know you
are ill because you feel ill; your body tells you that you are ill. You may know that you feel pain
| or discomfort but knowing you are ill is a bit more complex. At times, people experience the
symptoms of illness, but in fact they are simply tired or over-worked or they may just have a ‘
hangover. At other times, people may be suffering from a disease and fail to be aware of the
illness until it has reached a late stage in its development. So how do we know we are ill, and
what counts as knowledge?
C Think about this example. You feel unwell. You have a bad cough and always seem to be tired.
Perhaps it could be stress at work, or maybe you should give up smoking. You feel worse. You
visit the doctor who listens to your chest and heart, takes your temperature and blood
pressure, and then finally prescribes antibiotics for your cough.
D Things do not improve but you struggle on thinking you should pull yourself together,
perhaps things will ease off at work soon. A return visit to your doctor shocks you. This time the
doctor, drawing on years of training and experience, diagnoses pneumonia. This means that
you will need bed rest and a considerable time off work. The scenario is transformed. Although
you still have the same symptoms, you no longer think that these are caused by pressure at
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work. You now have proof that you are ill. This is the result of the combination of your own
subjective experience and the diagnosis of someone who has the status of a medical expert.
You have a medically authenticated diagnosis and it appears that you are seriously ill; you know
you are ill and have evidence upon which to base this knowledge.
E This scenario shows many different sources of knowledge. For example, you decide to consult
the doctor in the first place because you feel unwell—this is personal knowledge about your
own body. However, the doctor’s expert diagnosis is based on experience and training, with
sources of knowledge as diverse as other experts, laboratory reports, medical textbooks and
years of experience.
F One source of knowledge is the experience of our own bodies; the personal knowledge we
have of changes that might be significant, as well as the subjective experience of pain and
physical distress. These experiences are mediated by other forms of knowledge such as the
words we have available to describe our experience and the common sense of our families and
friends as well as that drawn from popular culture. Over the past decade, for example, Western
culture has seen a significant emphasis on stress-related illness in the media. Reference to
being Stressed out7 has become a common response in daily exchanges in the workplace and
has become part of popular common-sense knowledge. It is thus not surprising that we might
seek such an explanation of physical symptoms of discomfort.
G We might also rely on the observations of others who know us. Comments from friends and
family such as 7you do look ill7 or ‘that’s a bad cough7 might be another source of knowledge.
Complementary health practices, such as holistic medicine, produce their own sets of
knowledge upon which we might also draw in deciding the nature and degree of our ill health
and about possible treatments.
H Perhaps the most influential and authoritative source of knowledge is the medical knowledge
provided by the general practitioner. We expect the doctor to have access to expert knowledge.
This is socially sanctioned. It would not be acceptable to notify our employer that we simply felt
too unwell to turn up for work or that our faith healer, astrologer, therapist or even our priest
thought it was not a good idea. We need an expert medical diagnosis in order to obtain the
necessary certificate if we need to be off work for more than the statutory self-certification
period. The knowledge of the medical sciences is privileged in this respect in contemporary
Western culture. Medical practitioners are also seen as having the required expert knowledge
that permits them legally to prescribe drugs and treatment to which patients would not
otherwise have access. However there is a range of different knowledge upon which we draw
when making decisions about our own state of health.
I However, there is more than existing knowledge in this little story; new knowledge is
constructed within it. Given the doctor7s medical training and background, she may
hypothesize ‘is this now pneumonia? and then proceed to look for evidence about it. She will
use observations and instruments to assess the evidence and—critically interpret it in the light
of her training and experience. This results in new knowledge and new experience both for you
and for the doctor. This will then be added to the doctor’s medical knowledge and may help in
future diagnosis of pneumonia.
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Questions 27-32
Complete the table.

Choose no more than three words from the passage for each answer. Write your answers in
boxes 27-32 on your answer sheet
Source of
Examples
knowledge
Symptoms of a (27)……………………… and tiredness
Doctor’s measurement by taking (28)………………….. and
Personal
temperature
experience
Common judgment from (29)……………………… around you
Medical knowledge from the general (30)………………………

e.g. doctor’s medical(31)………………………………
Scientific
Examine the medical hypothesis with the previous drill
evidence
and(32) ……………………………..
Question 33-40
The reading Passage has nine paragraphs A-I

Write the correct letter A-I, in boxes 33-40 on your answer sheet.
33. the contrast between the nature of personal judgment and the nature of doctor’s diagnosis
34. a reference of culture about pressure
35. sick leave will not be permitted without the professional diagnosis
36. how doctors, opinions are regarded in the society
37. the illness of patients can become part of new knowledge
38. a description of knowledge drawn from non-specialized sources other than personal
knowledge
39. an example of collective judgment from personal experience and professional doctor
40. a reference that some people do not realize they are ill
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LISTENING ANSWER KEY
TEST 1 TEST 2
1. 14 1. A
2. 1.25 2. A
3. 60 3. C
4. bags 4. C
5. lock 5. B
6. 100 6. B
7. credit card 7. Wark
8. E 8. his hand luggage
9. A 9. wear tights
10. C 10. 500 metres
11. stamp collecting 11 – 13 A, C, F (any order)
12. social 11. A
13. China 12. C
14. charities 13. F
15. political 14. lifts that work
16. liberal democrats 15. hearing impairment
17. light opera 16. visual doorbells
18. B 17. clear markings
19. B 18. extra time
20. B 19. emergency
21. (background) reading 20. D
22. content 21. C
23. edit(notes) 22. B
24. next lecture 23. F
25. week 24. E
26. at the front 25. A
27. leave a space 26. D
28. it saves time 27. D
29. signpost words 28. B
30. B 29. B
31. 690 30. C
32. 1915 31. sixth/6th
33. first world war 32. Chinese Arrows
34. Europe 33. Europe
35. 70% 34. shell
36. shopping centre 35. 75/seventy-five mm/millimetres
37. C 36. 500/ five hundred mm/millimetres
38. A 37. lifting
39. B 38. B
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40. B 39. C
40. B

TEST 3 TEST 4
1. driving license 1. 50
2. benefit book 2. 26TH August
3. insurance certificate 3. £15
4. electricity bill 4. ice-cream, ice cream
5. 9.30 – 3.30 5. wine
6. ground floor 6. 10%
7. no/ nothing 7. cold meals
8. F 8. vegetarian
9. A 9. Thursday
10. C 10. 28 65 34 79
11. work samples 11. recommend
12. job description 12. legal aid
13. employees 13. form of identification
14. experience or skills 14. advice
15. ten minutes 15. (offensive) weapons
16. take your time 16. supply
17. ask for clarification 17. B
18. salary 18. C
19. confident 19. F
20. appearance 20. G
21. university 21. show up early
22. interesting 22. apologise
23. vocational 23. Particular, General, Particular
24. careers service 24. draw attention
25. A 25. know your audience
26. C 26. B
27. B 27. C
28. A 28. A
29. C 29. C
30. C 30. A
31. 90,000/ ninety thousand 31. iron
32. 4 km/ four kilometres 32. 1876
33. 40 km/ forty kilometres 33. 1858
34. C 34. 4
35. A 35. copper and tin
36. B 36. hilltop(s)
37. (the) earthquake / shock waves 37. luxury trade
38. (the) explosion 38. expansion and migration
39. sand 39. spread rapidly
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40. (the) (huge) waves 40. graves

TEST 5 TEST 6
1. Reception Assistant 1. Aaron
2. driving license 2. 18
3. heavy lifting 3. 316C
4. meals 4. improve English
5. certificate 5. 7586 3344
6. staff uniform 6. bathroom and balcony
7. personal information form 7. campus
8. questionnaire 8. rent
9. role-play activities 9. water
10. Video 10. 6th October
11. temporary visitor 11. City Centre
12. allergies 12. Pudding
13. current medication 13. fountains and maze
14. registration card 14. National Park
15. C 15. Blue John Cavern
16. B 16. Children
17. A 17. (wonderful) souvenirs
18. B 18. 4,000
19. B 19. plague village.
20. C 20. cafe and craft
21. honey; beeswax 21. B
22. avocado pear 22. A
23. 200 billion 23. A
24. A 24. B
25. D 25. A
26. F 26. C
27. D 27. Email
28. E 28. laser printer
29. B 29. proof-reading
30. B 30. references
31. Millennium River 31. The Times
32. Thames 32. Advertising Codes
33. 5 million 33. 1,500
34. 135 metres 34. quality press
35. British Airways 35. The Guardian
36. Tension Piles 36. Page 3
37. Rim 37. Manchester
38. A-Frame 38. Quality
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39. Passenger Capsules 39. commercial breaks
40. Boarding Platform 40. license

TEST 7 TEST 8
1. (the) Water Treatment Plant 1. D
2. 8 o’clock/ 8 am 2. B
3. 2.5 hours 3. C
4. visit (the) dam / see dam functioning 4. C
5. (a) youth hostel 5. 35c Campus Lane
6. breakfast (and) supper / evening meal ‘ . 6. garciainuk@email.uk
7. 600 7. 200-250/200 to 250
8-10. B; E; F (in any order) 8. D
11. Consumer’s Choice 9. A
12. Patty Ching 10. B
13. 10 roll of films/ 360 photos 11. C
14. vanished / disappeared 12. D
15. $2,000 /2,000 dollars 13. C
16. A 14. 9/nine
17. B 15. year older
18. D 16. travel agency
19. B 17. (the) accommodation/hotel
20. D 18. (i n/the/some) play areas
21. C97H85 19. gentle, warm, helpful
22. has / got an exemption /(has) practical 20. basketball (and) volleyball
experience 21. catch up with
23. June 20(th); June 25{th) (in either order) 22. guess
24. C 23. (quite) embarrassing
25. B 24. raise a hand
26. M 25. (just) interrupt (someone)
27. T ; A (in either order) 26. think quickly
28. J 27. eye contact
29. A 28. IN EITHER ORDER C, D
30. collect a sample / collect sample 29. C
programmes 30. IN EITHER ORDER C, D
31. A 31. teaching and learning
32. (the) first model 32. present evidence
33. Core Wars 33. conserving
34. entertainment 34. Memorisation
35. astime 35. interacting/interaction
36. 6 36. argumentation
37-40. be (very) careful; avoid trouble; 37. undergraduate
understand them / viruses; be (well) prepared 38. hesitate
(in any order). 39. logical arguments
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40. Lecturers) or (and) supervisors)
READING ANSWER KEY

TEST 1 TEST 2
1 NOT GIVEN 1 D
2 FALSE 2 C
3 NOT GIVEN 3 C
4 FALSE 4 B
5 TRUE 5 microwave dish
6 TRUE 6 accelerometers
7 NOT GIVEN 7 steel girders
8 spring 8 flange
9 sediment 9 C
10 razorback sucker 10 H
11 common carp 11 G
12 visibility 12 B
13 sand 13 E
14 ten thousand 14 A
15 South-East Asia 15 B
16 hard seeds/seeds 16 C
17 F 17 D
18 A 18 NOT GIVEN
19 D 19 TRUE
20 C 20 NOT GIVEN
21 E 21 FALSE
22 B 22 C
23 C 23 B
24 NOT GIVEN 24 C
25 FAISE 25 A
26 TRUE 26 B
27 vi 27 chain
28 v 28 loop
29 viii 29 gear
30 i 30 (simple) moter
31 iv 31 ice
32 vii 32 waxed slides
33 FAISE 33 melt
34 NOT GIVEN 34 wheels
35 TRUE 35 coal
36 male 36 steam engine
37 skypointing 37 NOT GIVEN
38 nest-building 38 YES
39 webbed feet 39 YES
40 blood vessels 40 NO
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READING ANSWER KEY
TEST 3 TEST 4
1 hunting 1. C
2 overkill model 2. G
3 disease/hyper disease 3. A
4 empirical evidence 4. I
5 climatic instability 5. agricultural waste
6 geographical ranges 6. targets
7 Younger Dryas event 7. coal
8 A 8. a vast market
9 B 9. Not Given
10 A 10. Not Given
11 B 11. True
12 B 12. False
13 C 13. Not Given
14 A 14. D
15 D 15. H
16 B 16. E
17 D 17. B
18 C 18 – 22. B C F G H (In Any Order)
19 B 23. A B
20 D 24. A C
21 A 25. B
22 workplace injury 26. B
23 16.6 weeks 27. A
24 7% 28. B
25 golf 29. C
26 massage 30. A
27 workloads 31. legal problems
28 D 32. market for e-books
29 C 33. retails and publishers
30 B 34. book world
31 D 35. manga comic books
32 NOT GIVEN 36. False
33 FALSE 37. True
34 NOT GIVEN 38. False
35 TRUE 39. Not Given
36 C 40. True
37 D
38 B
39 E
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40 A
READING ANSWER KEY

TEST 5 TEST 6
1. III 1. B
2. V 2. C
3. VI 3. D
4. I 4. 4. Visual
5. X 5. 5. 1 second
6. IV 6. The sun
7. A 7. 7. Waggle
8. E 8. 8. Odour
9. B 9. False
10. C 10. True
11. D 11. Not Given.
12. Not Given 12. False
13. False 13. B/C/E
14. False 14. B/C/E
15. Not Given 15. B/C/E
16. True . 16. C
17. D 17. E
18. C 18. F
19. C 19. B
20. 1889 20. D
21. Lease 21. G
22. Antennas 22. 22. C
23. Rousseau 23. D
24. 1st 24. A
25. Lift 25. I
26. Rust 26. False
27. The same colour 27. False
28. Chrysler Building 28. 28. Not Given
29. Sunset 29. True
30. Hazard management plan 30. True
31. The organisation 31. B
32. Three 32. 32. C
33. Chances rating 33. 33. E
34. Definite 34. C
35. Multiplied 35. A
36. Disaster 36. 4
37. High priority 37. Collective goals
38. Eliminate 38. Inhibitors
39. Store 39. Humour
40. Minimise 40. monitored
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READING ANSWER KEY
TEST 7 TEST 8
1. Y 1. IV
2. Y 2. VIII
3. NC 3. I
4. NG 4. X
5. Y 5. II
6. (movable) spur 6. XII
7. two buds 7. V
8. (underground) nest 8. III
9. (rich) milk 9. rituals of hospitality/hospitality
10. common but vulnerable 10. grades and blends
11. urban and agricultural 11. contains caffeine
12. food 12. nomadic Bedouins
13. permit 13. sugar and spices
14. v 14. glamour
15. x 15. research
16. ix 16. editing process
17. vii 17. summary
18. i 18. readers
19. B 19. alterations
20. C 20. writing
21. A 21. ups and downs
22. D 22. A
23. A 23. D
24. D 24. appraisal
25. E 25. invaluable advice
26. B 26. redrafting
27. D 27. creation period
28. C 28. F
29. C 29. B
30. B 30. D
31. C 31. not given
32. E 32. no
33. A 33. yes
34. F 34. not given
35. NG 35. yes
36. T 36. not given
37. F 37. D
38. NG 38. A
151 | P a g e
39. T 39. E
40. NG 40. G
READING ANSWER KEY

TEST 9 TEST 10
1. F 1. Abilities
2. F 2. Parents
3. T 3. Markets
4. NG 4. Siblings
5. T 5. Experienced
6. H 6. Not Given
7. E 7. True
8. I 8. True
9. F 9. False
10. A 10. Firm
11. A 11. Simplicity
12. A 12. Full Version
13. C 13. Feedback
14. D 14. Tree
15. B 15. Sheep
16. A 16. Strings
17. C 17. Government
18. D 18. Steal
19. B 19. Grease
20. A 20. True
21. F 21. Not Given
22. NG 22. False
23. T 23. True
24. T 24. Not Given
25. NG 25. True
26. T 26. False
27. N 27. Bad cough
28. Y 28. Blood Pressure
29. Y 29. Families and friends
30. N 30. Practitioner
31. NG 31. Diagnosis
32. B 32. Background
33. C 33. E
34. C 34. F
35. D 35. H
36. A 36. H
37. B 37. I
38. B 38. G
152 | P a g e
39. C 39. D
40. B 40. B
153 | P a g e

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Listening

Complete the notes below.

Notes – Clark’s Bicycle Hire

Type: ….touring…. bike

Rental: £50 a week, or 1 £ ………………………………… a day

Late return fee: 2 £ …………………… per extra hour

Accessories: £5 for 4 ………………………. : pannier or

Insurance: included, but must pay first 6

TYPE OF CLUB OR SOCIETY EXAMPLES

HOBBY/ INTEREST landscape photography

14………………………….. human rights

PERFORMING ARTS 17……………………….

LECTURES AND NOTE TAKING

Complete all 21…………………………………. before lecture

Think about likely 22…………………………. of lecture

Take notes during lecture

23………………………………… immediately after lecture

Revise before 24…………………… Revise every 25…………………….

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

37. the town of Woomera …………

38. the opal museum …………

39. the Dingo Fence …………

40. the sets of films …………

A in the town of Coober Pedy

What does Lisa say about each object?

Complete the table as follows. Write

A if she says it is ESSENTIAL

B if she says it is RECOMMENDED

C if she says it is NOT RECOMMENDED

Example Documents Answer A

1. At least £50 ………..

2. Warm clothing ………..

3. Personal computer ………..

4. Food from home ………..

5. Favourite tapes or CDs ………..

6. Photos from home ………..

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Lisa says he should carry some spare clothes in 8 ………………………….. .

Choose THREE letters A-F.

What does Sally say about universities?

A. Compared to the general population, few students are disabled.

B. Most universities don’t want students aged over 25.

C. Old universities can present particular difficulties for the disabled.

D. All university buildings have to provide facilities for the disabled.

E. There are very few university disability advisors.

F. Some disability advisors can do little to help disabled students.

Complete the table below.

Choose the correct letter A,B,C or D

20. What is the speaker’s main purpose?

A. to explain why comparatively few students are disabled

B. to advise disabled students what to look for in a university

C. to describe the facilities for the disabled in a particular university

D. to criticize the facilities for the disabled in most universities

NB You may use any letter more than once.

A tour of the university campus

B formal dinner party

C meeting with ‘senior’ students

D driving in this country

E visit to a night club

F tour of the city

Orientation Course for international students

What Liz liked about the course.

What Mark thinks could be improved.