ACT Crack Physics Answers

Made By: Shahd A.
Gaber
(Test 2-1)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Based on Experiment 1, shown in Figure 2, you can see that a 10.0 N weight shared
between two springs caused Spring A to stretch to 0.40 m, so a 10.0 N weight on Spring
A alone must cause it to stretch further. Choice (D) is the best answer.
Question: 2
Correct Answer: G
Explanation:
Based on Experiment 2, shown in Figure 4, you can see that as the weight moved
farther from Spring B, Spring B stretched less as the force on Spring B decreased.
Choice (G) is the correct answer.
Question: 3
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Because the students were attaching weights to two springs at once in Trials 1-3, it was
important to use identical springs so that the effects on each spring would be the same.
If they had used different springs, there would be no way of determining the relationship
between the length of the spring and the weight. Choice (A) best describes this reason.
Choice (B) does not make much sense, for the same reasons, so it should be
eliminated. Choice (D) must be eliminated because it discusses the weight of the board,
which is not used in Trials 1-3. Choice (C) discusses oscillation, which is only
mentioned in the passage to state that the students waited until oscillation ceased
before measuring. Once you are left with choices (A) and (C), choice (A) is clearly the
better answer.
Question: 4
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
Experiment 2, Trial 5 shows the 5.0 N weight at exactly the midpoint of the board, and
the springs stretched to 0.40 m. Experiment 1, Trial 1 has springs stretched to 0.40 m
and a weight of 10.0 N. So the board in Experiment 3 must weigh 10.0 N - 5.0 N = 5.0
N, choice (H).
Made By: Shahd A.Gaber
Question: 5
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Experiment 2, Trial 5 is the only trial in Experiment 2 in which the springs are stretched
the same amount, choice (B).
Question: 6
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
If potential energy is highest when the springs are stretched the most, then the correct
answer must be the trial wherein the spring was stretched the most, so you can
eliminate choices (F) and (G) right away. Now, you need to find the answer that gives
the correct reason for this phenomenon. Spring C was stretched the most because the
force of the weight was greater, choice (H).
(Test 5-2)
Question: 6
Correct Answer: G
Explanation:
When testing the effects of different variables, all variables must be held constant
except those being tested. To determine the effects of drag force or air resistance,
therefore, all variables except drag force and air resistance must be held constant.
Altering the apparatus to use a spring makes this into a completely different experiment,
so choices (F) and (H) are eliminated. To negate the effects of air resistance, using a
vacuum with no air pressure would be best, making choice (G) the best answer.
Question: 7
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
In experiments, more precision is nearly always better. A timer that reads to the nearest
second can give only whole number results. Therefore, it would read either "1" or "2" for
each trial. This would not greatly alter the results for the tin cube (Trials 1 and 5 would
be 2 sec, and Trials 2-4 would be 1 sec for an average of 1.4 sec). However, all of the
trials for the lead cube would round down to 1 sec for an average of 1 sec. This is
significantly different from the 1.46 sec obtained with the more precise timer, eliminating
choices (C) and (D). Choice (B) is eliminated because the period of both pendulums is
greater than 1 sec, meaning they would travel a shorter distance in 1 second than they
would in the time it takes them to complete a cycle.
Question: 8
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
Choices (F) and (G) are true statements, but they do not explain why forces other than
gravity must be acting on the pendulums. The passage states that for a simple gravity
pendulum, gravity is the only force acting on the mass causing an acceleration of 9.8
m/sec2. The times obtained in Experiments 1 and 2 resulted in acceleration calculations
less than this, indicating some other force was slowing the pendulum down (air
resistance and friction). This eliminates choice (J) and makes choice (H) the best
answer.
Question: 9
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Comparing the results of Experiments 1 and 2 presented in Tables 1 and 2, doubling
the length of the thread from 0.5 m to 1.0 m increases the observed period. Since the
average period observed for the tin cube in Experiment 2 (pendulum length of 1.0 m)
was 2.09 sec, doubling the length of the thread once again would be expected to result
in an increase in average period observed.
Question: 10
Correct Answer: G
Explanation:
The text below Table 2 states that the average period for the lead cube in Experiment 2
was 2.06 sec. An additional trial of the same experiment would be expected to give a
result closest to this value.
Question: 11
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
For both Experiments 1 and 2, comparisons between the lead and tin pendulums held
length and starting angle constant, eliminating choices (A), (B), and (C). The mass and
density of the lead and tin cubes were different. The main difference noted in the text of
the passage is that between the masses of the two objects, so choice (D) provides the
best-supported option.
(Test 14-2)
Question: 7
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
H The explanation of Student 1 implies that both balls reach terminal velocity.
Therefore, before the first ball lands, it is falling at a constant velocity, and its velocity a
split second before landing would be the same as it lands, which would be choice (H).
Choices (F) and (G) are based on formulas for velocity and displacement of projectiles
which assume drag is negligible (no air resistance), which contradicts Student 1’s
explanation. If the velocity were zero when it landed, the ball never would have collided
with the earth, choice (J).
Question: 8
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
D By placing the two balls in a vacuum, it eliminates the effect of drag. This suggests
that air resistance had an effect on the results, supporting Student 1. This eliminates
choice (B). The new experiment also uses balls with identical weights, suggesting that
weight can affect the results (even though this is really only true when air resistance is
present), supporting Student 2. This eliminates choice (A). This experiment also placed
both balls in the same location with the same force of gravity. This suggests that
gravitational force can play a role and supports the views of Student 3. Only choice (D)
indicates all students can potentially explain the new result.
Question: 9
Correct Answer: F
Explanation:
F Choice (F) is better than choices (G), (H), and (J) because it matches Student 1’s
description of the two balls by showing a slow increase in velocity that tapers off into a
constant velocity, with the second ball having a lower terminal velocity than the first.
Choice (G) shows velocities decreasing to zero. Choice (H) shows a very unusual trend,
and while the velocity of the second ball is lower than that of the first, it does not match
the description of Student 1. Choice (J) does not account for terminal velocity, and the
velocity of the second ball is higher than that of the first, suggesting it would land first.
Question: 10
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
B Student 1 states a different surface area accounts for the difference in fall times,
implying some effect and eliminating choices (C) and (D). Specifically, the student
argues that the second ball has a greater surface area, which results in a lower terminal
velocity, eliminating choice (A).
Question: 11
Correct Answer: J
Explanation:
J Student 3 states that the second ball falls on the Moon where there is no atmosphere
or air resistance. According to the introduction of the passage, drag force results from
air resistance. Therefore, there is no drag force on the Moon, and choices (F) and (H)
are eliminated. Weight is the force on an object that results from gravity and is constant,
eliminating choice (G). Terminal velocity occurs only when there is a drag force equal
and opposite to the weight of a free-falling object.
Question: 12
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
B Choices (A) and (C) are not supported by the claims of Student 1. Choice (D) is not
supported by the experimental data. Choice (B) is correct because all 3 students
assume that it is gravity that is increasing speed, but differences in the magnitude of
gravity, or differences in drag, are the cause of the difference in falling times.
Question: 13
Correct Answer: J
Explanation:
J Choice (F) would suggest that the ball does not move at all. All three students
acknowledge some form of acceleration. Choice (G) does not take into consideration
the concept of terminal velocity, and choice (H) suggests that the ball’s velocity would
reach a negative number, as it starts at zero. Choice (J) acknowledges terminal velocity,
and still explains that for all of the time that the ball has not reached terminal velocity, it
is increasing.
(Test 16-2)
Question: 8
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
A Based on the information in Table 2, you know that plain, unprepared cake mix Z has
a water content of 10.1%. The question asks what the water content is after water is
added, so the amount of water in the sample must have increased. Therefore, you know
that the answer must be greater than 10.1%, so choice (A) is the only possible correct
answer.
Question: 9
Correct Answer: G
Explanation:
G The first thing you should do is locate the study and the data that this question asks
about: Study 1 and the column in Table 1 refer to maximum immovable speed without
cornmeal. Once you have done this, go through each answer to select the best one.
Choice (F) cannot be right because none of the cake mixes has a maximum immovable
speed of 0 m/s. Choices (H) and (J) cannot be correct because none of the cake mixes
has a maximum immovable speed two or three times larger than any other. Choice (G),
therefore, must be correct: even though the maximum immovable speeds aren’t exactly
the same, they are approximately the same.
Question: 10
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
D This question asks you to compare the two columns of data for each cake mix in
Table 1. Mix X is exactly 3.5 times greater, Mix Y is just under 3 times as great, and Mix
Z is over 3 times greater. Among the answers, choice (D) is the best answer.
Question: 11
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
H Look at Study 1, the column for maximum immovable speed with cornmeal, and the
speeds for cake mixes Y and Z: 0.38 m/s and 0.36 m/s, respectively. If you mix equal
amounts of cake mixes Y and Z, then you would expect the maximum immovable speed
for the mixture to be somewhere between the maximum immovable speeds for the
individual mixes, so the answer is choice (H), between 0.36 m/s and 0.38 m/s.
Question: 12
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
B In short, this question asks whether increasing the amount of gelatin in a cake mix
means increasing the water content. Look at Table 2 and you can see that as gelatin
content increases, water content increases. Now look at your answer choices: You want
a choice that says yes because the hypothesis is supported by Study 3, and you want
the reason to be that as gelatin content increases, water content increases. The only
correct choice is choice (B). Be sure to pick the choice that is totally right: Choices (A)
and (D) are only half right!
Question: 13
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
H Each of the three components of cake mix Q falls between the comparable
components of cake mixes Y and Z. Therefore, the water content of cake mix Q should
likewise fall between that of cakes mixes Y and Z, specifically 6.1 to 10.1. Choice (H) is
correct.
(Test 17-1)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
B In Experiment 2, all of the metal resistors were gold and 100 m in length, eliminating
choices (A), (C), and (D). The description of the experiment and data in Table 2
indicates that cross-sectional area was varied across trials.
Question: 2
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
H The results of Experiment 3 shown in Table 3 indicate that as ρ increases, resistance
increases and current decreases. Since gold has the lowest ρ value, it should be the
best conductor and the third item in your list, eliminating choices (F), (G), and (J).
Question: 3
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
A According to the passage, electrons are negatively charged and return to the positive
battery terminal. This explains why each answer choice is negative. The passage
introduction states current is charge per unit time measured in coulombs/second, and
that the magnitude of this current was 1.0 × 10-3 coulombs every second for the first trial
of each experiment. Therefore, a charge of -1.0 × 10-3 coulombs returned to the positive
battery terminal each second the switch was closed.
Question: 4
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
H The results in Table 1 indicate that current increases with decreasing length of the
metal resistor, making choice (F) the least favorable by this factor. The results in Table
2 indicate that current increases with increasing cross-sectional area of the metal
resistor, making choice (H) the most favorable by this factor and eliminating choice (J).
The results in Table 3 indicate that gold has the highest conductance with all other
factors being equal, again making choice (H) the most favorable, and eliminating
choices (F) and (G).
Question: 5
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
D In Experiment 1, only the length of the metal resistor was varied, eliminating choices
(A) and (B). The results in Table 1 indicate that as the length of the metal resistor
decreased, current increased and resistance decreased, eliminating choice (C).
Question: 6
Correct Answer: J
Explanation:
J The passage states that when the circuit was closed, electrons flowed away from the
negative battery terminal, through the circuit, and back to the positive battery terminal.
This describes flow in one direction only, eliminating choices (F) and (G). In Figure 1,
the negative battery terminal is on the left and the positive battery terminal is on the
right. The only way that electrons could flow from negative to positive while passing
through the circuit is to go counter-clockwise, eliminating choice (H).
(Test 18-1)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: J
Explanation:
J Looking at Figure 2, you can see that the maximum velocity post-impact, the second
peaks on the graphs, decreases as elasticity decreases. The answer to this question
must therefore be the smallest elasticity, or 0.1 Pa., choice (J).
Question: 2
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
A Looking only at the graph in Figure 2 that shows balls with an elasticity of 0.2 Pa.,
you can see that as weight increases, maximum post-impact velocity increases. This
question asks about a ball with a weight of 0.5 kg. The smallest ball in this graph has a
weight of 1 kg and a maximum post-impact velocity between 0.50 and 0.75 m/s, so you
know your 0.5 kg ball must have a smaller maximum post-impact velocity. Choice (A) is
the only choice that satisfies that requirement.
Question: 3
Correct Answer: J
Explanation:
J To solve this problem, you should first locate the graph and the line on the graph that
matches the ball in the problem. Then, the easiest way to solve this is to draw a line
from 1.00 m/s on the y-axis all the way across the graph and count how many times it
hits the line that represents the 2.0 kg ball: 4 times, choice (J).
Question: 4
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
C You know from the passage and Figure 2 that drop is the very beginning when time
is 0 s and velocity is 0 m/s the first time, impact is when velocity is 0 m/s the second
time, and apex is when velocity is 0 m/s the third time. Looking at the graphs in Figure
2, you can see that velocity increases after drop then decreases to impact, then
increases after impact, and then finally decreases to the apex, so choice (C) is the only
correct answer. This question could be tricky if you forgot that apex refers to vertical
height, not maximum velocity. Be careful of partial answers like choices (A), (B), or (D);
if the answer says only, be sure that it’s really the only thing that happens.
Question: 5
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
H Look at Figure 2, and find the graph and the line on the 0.8 Pa graph, which matches
the 3.0 kg ball. The passage tells you that at impact, the ball has a high velocity, then
almost immediately slows to 0 m/s, then almost immediately increases to a high velocity
again, so you know to look at the maximum velocity prior to impact. This velocity is
about 2.25 m/s, which is less than the elastic limit, 2.75 m/s, of the ball in the question,
so the only correct answer is choice (H). Note: Be sure to read the entire answer in
questions like this. There are two answers that correctly say No, but only one that gives
the correct reason.
(Test 18-2)
Question: 6
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
A The data in Table 3 indicate that for every increase of 25°C, there is a corresponding
increase in θ of approximately 3.5 degrees. A temperature of 62.5°C falls halfway
between 50°C and 75°C, so the corresponding angle should fall halfway between 25.4
and 29.0 degrees. Only choice (A) has a value anywhere within this range.
Question: 7
Correct Answer: F
Explanation:
F According to Table 1, the object made of brick required the largest ramp angle θ
before any movement took place. Therefore, it is the most resistant to movement.
Raising the angle of the ramp accomplishes the same thing as applying increasing force
to the object to eventually overcome friction.
Question: 8
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
D In Experiments 1 and 4, the angle θ where the wooden object starts to move stays
the same, no matter how many objects are stacked on top of each other. Since any
change to this angle will signal a change to the coefficient of static friction, you can
confidently say that if the angle doesn't change, the coefficient of friction will not change.
Question: 9
Correct Answer: G
Explanation:
G The interaction of interest is between the various objects and the polymer coating of
the ramp. The polymer coating is what comes into contact with the objects, while the
underlying plastic board is not participating, eliminating choice (F). Objects of different
material are not brought into contact during the experiment, eliminating choice (H).
Objects are not stacked until Experiment 4, eliminating choice (J).
Question: 10
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
D The object with the largest angle θ is the object that is most resistant to movement.
According to Table 1, this is brick. Only choice (D) ranks brick as the most resistant to
movement, eliminating all other answer choices.
Question: 11
Correct Answer: G
Explanation:
G The data in Table 3 indicate that when temperature increases, the corresponding θ
increases. The passage states that the tangent of this angle represents the coefficient
of static friction between the object and the polymer surface. The experiment is not
exploring the interaction between wood and wood, eliminating choice (F). The mass of
the object is constant, eliminating choice (H). Only wooden objects are used in
Experiment 3, eliminating choice (J).
(Test 22-1)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
D In Table 1, when the current doubles, the velocity of the train also doubles. Therefore,
a current of 500 A must be associated with a train velocity of 2 × 200 m/s = 400 m/s.
Question: 2
Correct Answer: F
Explanation:
F Table 2 shows that the current consistently increases as the length of the magnetic
rods increases, so choice (F) is the best answer.
Question: 3
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
C When B = 9.84 × 10-4 T, I = 500 A, and when B = 1.05 × 10-3 T, I = 600 A.
Therefore, I = 570 A would be produced by a magnetic field with a values in between
these two B values. Choice (C) is the only option that fits.
Question: 4
Correct Answer: J
Explanation:
J The question suggests that an increasing electrical current results from an increasing
voltage. Of the options listed, Trial 14 has the greatest electrical current, so it must also
have the greatest voltage.
Question: 5
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
B Study 4 stands out because all of the values for electrical current are negative.
Therefore, choice (B) is the correct answer.
Question: 6
Correct Answer: G
Explanation:
G In Study 3, both current (I) and magnetic field (B) increase with a direct relationship.
Choice (G) shows this direct increasing linear relationship.
(Test 23-3)
Question: 11
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
C There is no mention of distance shot in Experiment 3, therefore answer choices (A)
and (B) can be eliminated. Choice (D) is irrelevant to the experiment's results. As
described, the results of Experiment 3 center around the visibility of bubbles in the cola,
so choice (C) is best.
Question: 12
Correct Answer: J
Explanation:
J For this question, look at the before shaking column of the two tables. Trials 3 and 5
both have distances of 6.42 meters.
Question: 13
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
D Experiment 2 asks you to determine how shaking the water gun affects how far the
water gun shoots the flat-tasting cola. Neither density nor bubbles are addressed. In
Table 2, compare the columns labeled before shaking and after shaking. In both trials
listed, shaking the water gun decreased the distance shot.
Question: 14
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
H If you're not sure whether to answer Yes or No, make sure you look at the reasons
presented in each answer choice. In Trial 5, before the water gun was shaken, it had
been 1 hour since the gun had last been shaken. Experiment 3 addresses how quickly
the bubbles generated by shaking the water gun disappear. It suggests that 10 minutes
after shaking, some bubbles are still present, but by 1 hour after shaking, the bubbles
have all disappeared. Therefore, choice (H) is correct.
Question: 15
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
D In this hypothetical trial, the cola is shaken, let sit for ten minutes, shot, shaken, and
shot again (Trial 4); then let sit for an hour, shot, shaken, and shot again (Trial 5); and
finally let sit for another hour and shot with the distance of the shot measured (the
hypothetical test in this question). By comparing Trial 5 before the gun has been shaken
with Trial 4 after the gun has been shaken, you know that letting the flat-cola-filled water
gun sit for an hour after shaking it eliminates the effects of any previous shaking. This is
to say that in the hour between Trial 4 after shaking and Trial 5 before shaking, the
distance shot goes from 5.49 meters to 6.42 meters-back to the same distance as never
having been shaken at all (cf., Trial 3 before shaking). Therefore, after an additional
shaking and hour sitting, you should expect the cola to travel 6.42 meters.
Question: 16
Correct Answer: G
Explanation:
G From Experiment 3, bubbles are visible 10 minutes after shaking and not visible 1
hour after shaking. Similarly, from Trial 4, you know that 10 minutes after the gun has
been shaken, the bubbles still reduce the distance of the shot. From Trial 5, you know
that the bubbles do not reduce the distance of the shot 1 hour after the gun has been
shaken. Therefore, the time necessary for the bubbles to stop having an effect on the
distance shot must be between 10 minutes and 1 hour-choice (G).
(Test 25)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) The amount of friction between the airplane's surface and the air molecules
determines the amount of drag, or backward force, on the plane. Like any other type of
friction, drag opposes the motion of the airplane.
Question: 2
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(D) Forces that oppose each other work on the same object but in opposite directions.
Drag and thrust both act parallel to the motion of the airplane but in opposite directions.
Lift and gravity also oppose each other.
Question: 3
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) Thrust and lift are both positive forces acting on the airplane, while drag and gravity
are both negative forces. To keep a paper airplane in the air, the magnitude of the
positive forces cannot be less than that of the negative forces.
Question: 4
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) According to the passage, students tested three airplanes in Experiment 1 and four
airplanes in Experiment 3. The type of paper used, number of students involved, and
number of trials performed were constants in all three experiments.
Question: 5
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) Based on the data in Table 1.3, no significant difference in horizontal distance can
be identified among the three airplanes tested. In each trial, flat wings were the control
group. Curving the wings upward appeared to cause a slight increase in distance in
Trial 1, but a decrease in Trials 2 and 3. Curving the wings downward appeared to
cause a slight decrease in distance in Trials 2 and 3, but no change in Trial 3.
Question: 6
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) Bending the wingtips downward would increase the effects of air resistance, or
friction, on the airplane. This would increase the force of drag, which results from
friction and opposes the airplane's motion.
Question: 7
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) Flat wingtips represents the control group in Experiment 2 because this was the
design that was unaltered from the original. Bending the wingtips up and down created
two experimental groups to be compared to the flat-winged control group.
Question: 8
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(D) Based on the data in Table 1.5, the paperclips placed midwing produced results
closest to the results of the control group (no paperclips). This means that placing
paperclips midwing had the least effect on the airplane's horizontal distance.
Question: 9
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) Flat wings (Experiment 1), flat wingtips (Experiment 2), and no paperclips
(Experiment 3) represent the unaltered airplanes. The horizontal distance traveled by
these three planes ranged from 9.5 m (Table 1.3) to 11.1 m (Table 1.4). The
approximate average horizontal distance of 10.5 m falls within the data range for the
unaltered airplanes. The calculated average horizontal distance is 10.62 m.
Question: 10
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) As shown in Table 1.4, curving the wingtips slightly upward increased the horizontal
distance by approximately 2 m when compared to flat wingtips. This is the greatest
positive effect of any variable in all three experiments.
Question: 11
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(C) The student graph displays data for three airplanes. The line representing each
airplane maintains a positive slope, indicating that the horizontal distance for all three
airplanes increased with each subsequent trial. This corresponds to the data displayed
in Table 1.3.
Question: 12
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(D) In Experiment 3, adding paperclips to each paper airplane increased the plane's
total weight. Adding weight to different locations along the airplanes altered their center
of gravity by causing the location of the average weight to shift toward the paperclips.
Question: 13
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(D) As shown in Table 1.4, bending the wingtips slightly downward decreased the
horizontal distance by approximately 7 m when compared to flat wingtips. This is the
greatest change in horizontal distance caused by any variable in all three experiments.
Question: 14
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) In Experiment 1, the increase in horizontal distance for all three airplanes with each
subsequent trial can most appropriately be attributed to the student throwing each
airplane with an increasingly greater initial force. The force exerted by the student
contributes to the amount of thrust on the airplane.
Question: 15
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) In Table 1.4, wingtips bent up produced the greatest horizontal distance. In Table
1.5, no paperclips produced the greatest horizontal distance. No identifiable trend is
present in the distance data in Table 1.3. Therefore, the combination of flat wings (Table
1.3), wingtips bent up (Table 1.4), and no paperclips (Table 1.5) can be expected to
produce the airplane with the greatest horizontal distance.
(Test 37)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(D) The passage provides the formula for gravitational potential energy as PE g = m × g
× h, in which m represents the object's mass, g represents acceleration due to gravity,
and h represents the object's height above the ground. Acceleration due to gravity does
not change on Earth. Therefore, g is a constant.
Question: 2
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) Based on the formula PEg = m × g × h, increasing the value of h will cause a similar
increase in the value of PE(g). This means the total gravitational potential energy of an
object will double when the object's height is doubled.
Question: 3
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) As stated in the passage, the amount of potential energy at the beginning (point A)
and end (point C) of the rollercoaster would be equal in a frictionless environment. This
is explained by the law of conservation of energy, which states that energy cannot be
lost or gained within a system. For the marble to have the same potential energy at
points A and C, the rollercoaster must have the same drop height and hill height.
Question: 4
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) As stated in the description of Experiment 1, altering the drop height changed the
marble's initial amount of gravitational potential energy because, according to the
formula provided in the passage, an object's gravitational potential energy is dependent
on the object's height.
Question: 5
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) The maximum drop height used in both experiments was 1.2 m. This drop height
was tested in Trial 4 of Experiment 1 and held constant for Experiment 2.
Question: 6
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) In Table 5.3, drop height and hill height exhibit a direct relationship. As drop height
increases, so does hill height. Figure 5.4 provides a visual representation of this direct
relationship between the two variables.
Question: 7
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) Table 5.4 indicates that when drop height was held constant, a longer horizontal
distance required a shorter hill height. This means that although each marble began at
the same height, marbles that traveled a longer track had more energy transformed to
heat and sound through frictional dissipation. This increase in frictional dissipation left
less kinetic energy available to propel the marble as far up the hill.
Question: 8
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(D) The smallest hill height recorded in Experiment 2 was 0.97 m. This height was
recorded during Trial 3 as the result of a drop height of 1.2 m and a horizontal distance
of 1.5 m.
Question: 9
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(D) In Experiment 1, drop height was the independent variable. Students varied the drop
height to determine the effects on hill height. In Experiment 2, drop height was held
constant to determine the effects of horizontal distance on hill height. Neither
experiment measured drop height as the dependent variable.
Question: 10
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) To study the relationship between marble mass and hill height, students should hold
drop height constant, with marble mass becoming the independent variable and hill
height remaining the dependent variable. To accommodate this change in the data
table, an additional column for marble mass should be added, just as the horizontal
distance column was added in Table 5.4.
Question: 11
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) As stated in the description of Experiment 1, Point A indicates the starting height (or
drop height) of the marble. Because of frictional dissipation, the marble has the greatest
gravitational potential energy at Point A. Once the marble begins moving along the
track, frictional dissipation begins transforming some of the marble's energy to heat and
sound, leaving less energy available for the marble itself.
Question: 12
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) Changes in a dependent variable are measured to determine the effects of the
independent variable. In both experiments, hill height was the dependent variable.
Changes in hill height provided information on the effects of the independent variables
on initial gravitational potential energy (Experiment 1) and frictional dissipation
(Experiment 2).
Question: 13
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) Mechanical energy is the energy related to an object's motion and position, and it
consists of the sum of an object's potential and kinetic energy. During the rollercoaster
experiments, mechanical energy was transformed between potential and kinetic forms.
Frictional dissipation also caused some mechanical energy to be transformed to thermal
energy (heat) and sound. No transformation to chemical energy occurred.
Question: 14
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) In Table 5.4, hill height decreased as horizontal distance increased. Therefore,
increasing the longest horizontal distance in Trial 3 (1.5 m) to 1.75 m would further
decrease the hill height.
(Test 42)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) Since the eye's lens is thicker in the middle, it is convex. Since distant objects are
being viewed, we can assume that the object is more than two focal lengths away and
forms an inverted, smaller image (row 1 in Table 7.1). This image is real because actual
light rays are converging to a point after (to the right of) the lens.
Question: 2
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(D) According to the passage, real images are formed to the right of the lens. According
to Table 7.1, all images formed to the right of the lens are inverted.
Question: 3
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) Since the object is located more than two focal lengths from the lens, the first row in
Table 7.1 is applicable. A real image forms to the right of the lens and is described as
inverted and smaller.
Question: 4
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) According to the passage, convex lenses take parallel rays and converge them to
the focal point, which is one focal length from the center of the lens.
Question: 5
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) Since the slide is placed between one and two focal lengths from the lens, the
image will be inverted and larger. Because it was placed in the projector upside down,
the image on the screen will be upright.
Question: 6
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) Because the image is on the same side as the object, it is a virtual image in one of
the two bottom rows of Table 7.1. Since the image is larger, it has to be the convex
lens.
Question: 7
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) The only lens in Table 7.1 that produces a same-size image requires the object to
be two focal lengths away from the lens (2 × 30 cm = 60 cm).
Question: 8
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) Since the image of the trees is still distant, the image location is on the same side as
the object (to the left of the lens). According to Table 7.1, the only option for smaller
images is a concave lens with an upright image.
Question: 9
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(D) Since the image is located between one and two focal lengths to the right of the
lens, the lens must be convex. Table 7.1 indicates that the object is more than two focal
lengths from the lens.
Question: 10
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) Since the lens is thicker in the middle, it is convex, and since the candle is within
one focal length of the lens, it will form a virtual, upright, larger, image.
(Test 44)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) To determine the effect of amplitude, tension must remain constant so it is a
controlled variable.
Question: 2
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(D) In Figure 7.3, the high-tension/high-amplitude wave traveled approximately 1.10 m
at the one-second mark. Therefore, it traveled 1.10 m/s.
Question: 3
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) The straight line indicates that it traveled an equal distance each tenth of a second
as time went on, thus remaining at a constant speed.
Question: 4
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) When comparing the two high-amplitude lines, the steeper slope for the high-tension
case shows that the wave traveled a greater distance each second than it did in the low-
tension case.
Question: 5
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) Since the slopes of the two low-tension cases were almost identical but the
amplitudes were different, one can conclude that amplitude has no significant effect on
wave speed.
Question: 6
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) One can infer that loud sounds are big waves of large amplitude, but amplitude has
no effect on wave speed.
Question: 7
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) The only time wave speed changed in Figure 7.3 was when the tension was
increased, which effectively altered the characteristics of the medium. Thus, one can
infer that the speed of light will be altered by the material through which it travels.
Question: 8
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(D) Since the waves maintained a steady speed as they traveled, one can infer that a
water wave will maintain constant speed.
Question: 9
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) The low-tension/low-amplitude wave went about 0.8 m in one second. Since its
speed was constant, it should move six times that distance in six seconds, thus moving
approximately 4.8 m.
Question: 10
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) Since wave speed is independent of the size of the wave (amplitude), it should take
the same amount of time for the small wave to travel the same distance as the large
wave.
(Test 46)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) Figure 8.1 best represents the relationship between the dependent and independent
variables. Figure 8.2 is a bar graph (which is best used for categorical data) and does
not have the correct data. Figure 8.3 has the dependent and independent variables on
the wrong axes and also does not represent the x-axis data in an appropriately scaled
manner. Figure 8.4 does not correlate the correct data, as a downward curve should
immediately be expected when looking at the results from the experiment.
Question: 2
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) This is the only question that could be addressed using only the data students have
already collected.
Question: 3
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) No relationship was shown between the cost of sunglasses and the amount of UVB
they blocked.
Question: 4
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) If each bottle of sunscreen held 10 oz, the costs would be $0.89, $0.49, $0.79,
$1.59, and $1.09. SPF 4 can be eliminated because it is more expensive than SPF 8
and clearly blocks less UVB. SPFs 30 and 50 can also be eliminated because although
they block more UVB than SPF 8, the higher cost (double and triple the cost per ounce)
could not possibly offset the only marginal increase in protection.
Question: 5
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(D) It would be important for students to control the amount and thickness of the
sunscreen to obtain consistent and reliable results. The other selections represent
variables that cannot be controlled, such as sunscreen ingredients, or are not pertinent
to this investigation.
Question: 6
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(D) This cannot be predicted because there is no clear relationship between the cost of
the glasses and the amount of UVB blocked.
Question: 7
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) If the trend from Table 8.2 continues, the amount of UVB reaching the sensor will
decrease slightly.
Question: 8
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) Students are testing the type of sunglasses. The experimental, or independent,
variable is the item that is changed between each trial.
Question: 9
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) As the SPF increases past 30, only slight increases in the amount of UVB blocked
occur.
Question: 10
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) This is the only question that can be answered using the existing equipment.
Students can use a consistent SPF and vary the thickness to determine whether this
affects what reaches the sensor.
(Test 47)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(D) This statement is false. The more water in the initial amounts, the lower the
evaporation rates, although this is probably a result of the different surface areas
exposed and not a function of the amount of water. The data for water alone does not
warrant any conclusion here.
Question: 2
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) 80.0 mL – 3.0 mL = 77.0 mL.
Question: 3
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) Since rubbing alcohol had the highest evaporation rate, Student 1's hypothesis is
supported. The average evaporation rates for Student 2's data are approximately the
same for the three liquids. Student 3's hypothesis is disproved because the data show
that the greater the surface area, the greater the evaporation rate.
Question: 4
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) The data in Table 8.3 indicates that the amount evaporated is directly proportional to
surface area. The average amount evaporated goes up approximately 9 mL for every 4
cm2 of surface area exposed. Since the surface area is increased by a factor of 5, the
amount evaporated will also (5 × 9 mL = 45mL). So the amount of liquid left is (80mL -
45mL = 35mL).
Question: 5
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) If you extrapolate the rubbing alcohol line for two additional weeks, it will reach zero
at approximately 9 weeks of exposure.
Question: 6
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) The line for water drops 21 mL in seven weeks. That's an average evaporation rate
of 3mL of water each week.
Question: 7
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) The slope of the line for rubbing alcohol in Figure 8.5 is constant over the seven
weeks. This indicates that the rate of evaporation is constant.
Question: 8
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) The data indicate that none of the vegetable oil evaporated. Therefore the graph
would be a steady, flat line at 80 mL.
Question: 9
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) The variation between the trials for rubbing alcohol is greater for the experiments
with bigger surface areas.
Question: 10
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(D) The initial amount of liquid was the same in each case for rubbing alcohol.
(Test 48)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(D) To answer this question, one can examine the last five rows of Table 8.4, where the
radius and release height are constant, but the mass is changing. Notice that the speed
remains constant.
Question: 2
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) When mass and radius are held fixed in the middle rows of Table 8.4, the kinetic
energy is one tenth of the release height.
Question: 3
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) The middle rows on Table 8.4 have a fixed mass and radius but differing release
heights. One can compare the effect of doubling the release height from 0.05 m to 0.10
m, or 0.10 m to 0.20 m, on gravitational energy to observe the doubling effect.
Question: 4
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(D) All the gravitational energy at the top of the swing transfers to kinetic energy at the
bottom because the values are identical in Table 8.4.
Question: 5
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) According to the data in Table 8.4, when the mass doubles from 0.020 kg to 0.040
kg, the kinetic energy also doubles.
Question: 6
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) The middle rows in Table 8.4 are for a fixed pendulum design, and the speed
increases by a factor of 1.4 J when the kinetic energy doubles.
Question: 7
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) The last five rows in Table 8.5 (where radius and release height are held constant)
demonstrate that centripetal acceleration does not depend on mass.
Question: 8
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) The first five rows of Table 8.5 (where mass and release height are held constant)
show that each time the radius doubles, the centripetal force values are cut in half.
Question: 9
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(D) By examining the middle rows in Table 8.4, where mass remains the same, when
the speed doubles from 0.99 m/s to 1.98 m/s, the kinetic energy quadruples from 0.005
J to 0.020J. Thus, kinetic energy is directly proportional to the square of the speed.
Question: 10
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) The last five rows of Table 8.5 apply to a pendulum with a 0.40-m arc and a release
height of 0.25 m. The centripetal force increases by 0.123 N for each 0.010 kg of mass.
Adding 0.123 N to the last row of Table 8.5 yields 0.613N + 0.123N = 0.736N.
(Test 51)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) In Table 9.3, the voltage divided by the resistance predicts the current.
Question: 2
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(D) The passage states that power is the product of current and voltage, so 150 V × 3.0
A = 450 W.
Question: 3
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) For the 120 V rows in Table 9.3, when the resistance triples from 120 ohm to 360
ohms, the power drops from 120 W to 40 W, thus decreasing to one-third of its initial
power.
Question: 4
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) For the 480-ohm rows in Table 9.3, when the voltage doubles from 120 V to 240 V,
the current doubles from 0.25 A to 0.50 A.
Question: 5
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(D) According to Table 9.3, the 480-ohm bulb at 120 V has an energy usage of 108 kJ
per hour. To find the energy needed, we use 108 × 4 = 432 kJ.
Question: 6
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) According to the data in Table 9.3, doubling the resistance from 120 ohm to 240
ohm decreases the power to one-half of 120 W. Tripling the resistance decreases the
power to one-third of 120 W. Thus, power is inversely proportional to resistance (for a
fixed voltage). When resistance is increased by a factor of 5 from 120 ohm to 600 ohm,
the power must reduce to one-fifth of 120 W, or 24 W.
Question: 7
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) In Table 9.3, a basic circuit with a single 240-ohm bulb has a power output of 60 W
when connected to a power supply of 120 V. According to Table 9.4, when identical
bulbs are connected in parallel at 120 V, they also output 60 W. According to the
passage, power is the amount of energy transferred each second.
Question: 8
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) According to Table 9.4, as the number of bulbs in a series circuit increases, the
individual bulbs output less power.
Question: 9
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) According to Table 9.3, increasing the resistance of a single bulb in the circuit
decreases the power output. Since the circuit's power output increases as bulbs are
added in parallel in Table 9.4, one can infer that the resistance of the entire circuit
decreases.
Question:10
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) This statement is false because even if Bulb 2 breaks, there is still a series pathway
for Bulbs 1 and 3 through the power supply.
(Test 53)
Question:1
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) In the capture theory, the moon was formed in another area of the solar system;
therefore, it would likely have different rock compositions.
Question:2
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) In the fission theory, the moon came directly from the earth and would therefore
have the same rock composition. In the coaccretion theory, the moon and the earth
formed side by side from the nebula and would therefore have very similar
compositions.
Question:3
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) The fact that Jupiter and Saturn both have captured moons makes it more likely that
the earth could have captured a moon.
Question:4
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) Fission = Daughter (the moon was "born" from the earth in this theory). Coaccretion
= Sister (the moon and the earth formed side by side from the same "parent" material).
Capture = Spouse (the moon was formed elsewhere and was "married" to the earth
when captured by the earth's gravitational field).
Question:5
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) This is a description of fission theory, the leading theory in the mid-1930s. This is
most evident by the mention of the sun's gravity and the phrase "a bulge broke away
with such momentum that it could not return to the body of Mother Earth."
Question:6
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(D) If the moon was formed 4.5 billion years ago, it could not have broken away from
the earth to form the Pacific Ocean basin.
Question:7
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) In the capture theory, the moon formed in another part of the solar system;
therefore, the earth's gravity would not have played a role in the formation of its crust.
Question:8
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(D) The giant impact theory is the only theory to account for why the moon rocks
partially, but not fully, match the rocks on the earth. In this theory, the collision with the
Mars-sized object would have caused a mixing of materials from both.
Question:9
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(D) Based on the information in the passage, it is evident that the giant impact theory is
the most current theory of moon formation based on scientific evidence.
Question:10
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) These two pieces of evidence best support the coaccretion theory, in which the
earth and moon formed side by side.
Question:11
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) All of the other pieces of evidence point toward a moon formed close to the earth,
but this theory does not account for the similarity in the crust/mantle rock from both the
moon and the earth.
(Test 54)
Question:1
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) The velocity in the first column of Table 10.1 always increases by 9.8 m/s each and
every second.
Question:2
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) According to Table 10.1, the distance fallen in the first second is 4.9 m. During the
second second, the distance fallen is 19.6 – 4.9 = 14.7 m. The intervals only increase
from there.
Question:3
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) During the fourth second, the air drag force increases from 0.061 N to 0.080 N, an
increase of 0.019 N.
Question:4
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(D) Since the velocity goes up about 10 m/s each second, we can add 10 to 118 m/s
(the speed 12 seconds into the fall) two more times to get 138 m/s at the 14-second
clock reading.
Question:5
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) The velocity shown for a ball falling with air increases at a lesser rate than the
velocity of one falling without air (freefall).
Question:6
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(D) The last column in Table 10.1 shows big changes each second initially, but by the
end of the drop, the air drag does not change.
Question:7
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(D) Figure 10.1 shows that the 30-g mass gains speed at a greater rate than the 10-g
mass (both falling with air).
Question:8
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) During the first two seconds in Figure 10.1, there is not much difference between
the with-air and without-air data. Beyond two seconds, when the velocities are greater
than 20 m/s, the data diverge significantly.
Question:9
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) Figure 10.2 shows how the 0.5-cm ball's velocity increases at a greater rate than
that of the 1.0-cm ball.
Question:10
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(D) Figure 10.2 shows the 0.05-cm ball's velocity plateauing at about 62 m/s at 12
seconds into the fall.
Question:11
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) In Figure 10.2, the line for both balls falling without air is identical.
Question:12
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) In Figure 10.1, the 10-g ball reaches terminal velocity 6 seconds into the drop,
whereas the 30-g ball reaches terminal velocity 12 seconds into the drop.
Question:13
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) The belly-first twin hits more air just like the larger radius ball. By examining Figure
10.2, one can see that the larger radius ball reaches terminal velocity sooner than the
smaller radius ball, and the belly-first twin will do the same.
Question:14
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) According to Figure 10.1, both the 10-g ball and the 30-g ball have the same
velocities when falling without air. Therefore, mass has no effect on freefall velocities
and the balls will reach the ground at the same time.
Question:15
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) According to Figure 10.1, the greater mass falls with greater velocity through the air
and will get to the ground sooner.
Question:16
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) Both figures and Table 10.1 show that dropped balls speed up steadily. There is no
evidence that the steady gain in velocity will ever change.
(Test 56)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(D) Hyperion's 21.3-day orbit is closest to the moon's 27.3-day orbit.
Question: 2
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) Andrastea and Miranda have the same orbital radius, and they orbit planets with
different mass. Thus, the effect of only one variable (central planet mass) may be
analyzed.
Question: 3
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(D) The data for Saturn shows that larger radii correlate with greater periods. The
moons of Jupiter and Uranus confirm that observation.
Question: 4
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) The data indicates that gravitational acceleration is directly proportional to the
inverse radius squared. In other words, gravitational acceleration is inversely
proportional to the square of the radius.
Question: 5
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(D) Larger radii correlate with smaller orbital speeds. Since 422 million meters is less
than 181 million meters for Amalthea, than the correct answer must be significantly less
than Amalthea's orbital speed of 26.5 km/s. Thus, 17km/s is the only answer that fits
that criterion.
Question: 6
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) Andrastea (orbiting Jupiter) has about 20 times the gravitational acceleration of
Miranda (orbiting Uranus), but they have the same orbital radius. Jupiter has about 20
times the mass of Uranus, so gravitational acceleration appears to be directly
proportional to planet mass. Using Figure 10.3, the greater slope for Jupiter compared
with that of Saturn confirms this observation, because Jupiter is about three times the
mass of Saturn.
Question: 7
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) The passage indicates that speed was calculated by taking orbital circumference
divided by period and that gravitational acceleration was calculated by the square of
speed divided by orbital radius.
Question: 8
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) We divide Phoebe's period by that of the moon (550 ÷ 27.3 = 20).
Question: 9
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) According to Table 10.4, Helene travels 10.0 km/s. That means in 15 seconds, it will
travel 150 km.
Question: 10
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(D) As noted earlier, since gravitational acceleration is directly proportional to planet
mass, a light planet like Mars would have moons whose gravitational acceleration was
much less than those of Jupiter or Saturn, so the line would be below that of the moons
of Saturn.
(Test 60)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) Particles tend to move in straight lines. As the particles stream from the bulb in
straight lines, they are blocked at angles by the card and form the large shadow on the
screen.
Question: 2
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(D) The first three answers all deal with the reflection, refraction, and absorption of light
waves and support Huygens's theory. Visualizing a photon as a bundle of energy is a
particle-like concept.
Question: 3
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) The vacuum of space has no air, so how can a wave travel without matter to
transfer the energy? Huygens's theory could not explain this, whereas Newton's
particles could travel through the nothingness of space.
Question: 4
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) The bright regions on the screen can be explained by constructive interference and
the dark areas by destructive interference. Interference is a wave phenomenon.
Question: 5
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(D) The fuzzy edge may be explained by the diffraction (spreading) of light around the
sharp edge of the penny. The bright area at the middle of the shadow is the result of
constructive interference of the light diffracting around the edge of the penny.
Question: 6
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) The semicircles are like water-wave ripples traveling through the air. This supports
Huygens's wave theory.
Question: 7
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) Since the quote states that light does not consist of any "transport of matter" (arrows
or particles), it is not consistent with Newton's particle theory of light. The emphasis of
the spreading of light does not contradict Huygens's wave theory.
Question: 8
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) The photon as a basic unit of light can be visualized as a particle, and this is
consistent with Newton's particle theory.
Question: 9
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(D) If light is a particle moving in a straight line, rotating the second filter should affect
the intensity of the light.
(Test 64)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) The data for both brands was nearly identical while they operated within the
effective range above 2.2 V.
Question: 2
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) Brand P sustained a voltage of 2.2 V or more for approximately 3.5 hours.
Question: 3
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) The data for the alkaline batteries are nearly identical, whereas the data for the
heavy-duty batteries are quite different.
Question: 4
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(D) The uncertainty in the data set for the remote-control car is so significant that no
valid conclusion may be made about battery performance. Most likely, the method of
testing the car was flawed.
Question: 5
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) The line on Figure 12.3 shows that Brand K's battery had a voltage of 3 V at about
0.25 hours and 2 V at about 2.25 hours. Therefore, 2.25 – 0.25 = 2.0 hours.
Question: 6
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) Brand D's average was (11.5 + 12.5 + 13.5) ÷ 3 = 12.5 hours. Brand E's average
was (13.5 + 12.25 + 13.25) ÷ 3 = 13.0 hours. So 13.0 – 12.5 = 0.5 hours.
Question: 7
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) Below the 2.2-V line, the slope for Brand E is steeper than that for Brand P.
Question: 8
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) If the batteries had been used previously, then any experiment to test longevity
would be invalid. Effects of temperature and manufacture date may have only a slight
effect on the data. The selection of time intervals is arbitrary, although they must be
small enough to discern performance.
Question: 9
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) Because the LED bulb lasts so long, one can conclude that it is a low-drain device.
Question: 10
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) According to Table 12.2, the LED times are about six times longer than the
incandescent bulb times.
Question: 11
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) In two of the three trials, the incandescent bulb flashlight had the shortest times, and
it had the shortest average time across all three tests. Therefore, it is most likely to be
called a high-drain device.
(Test 66-1)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
(H) In Table 1, the numbers in the Resistance column get bigger trial by trial, and the
numbers in the Current column get smaller trial by trial. Therefore, as the resistance
increased, the current decreased.
Question: 2
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) This is a simple "Go Up, Hit Line, Go Over" question. In Figure 1, a diameter of 0.5
mm would be a little less than halfway between .41 and .68 mm. Moving upward from
this point to the black line, we hit it somewhere around the line representing a
resistance of 1 ohm. (The answer can also be gotten by looking at Table 2 and doing
math, but getting it from Figure 2 is easier.)
Question: 3
Correct Answer: G
Explanation:
(G) In Experiment 2, the student uses three different wires of varying diameters.
Question: 4
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) Both Table 1 and Table 2 show current decreasing as resistance increases, and
vice versa. Remembering the answer to question 12 would be a big help here. (It is
often the case on the ACT Science that two questions in the same passage will be
virtually identical!)
Question: 5
Correct Answer: F
Explanation:
(F) V = IR from the opening paragraph and Experiment 2 establishes that the largest
diameter will allow the greatest current. Therefore, the largest voltage from the choices
and the largest diameter would be 5 volts and a .5-mm diameter.
Question: 6
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) We know from Tables 1 and 2 (as well as the answer to question 16) that current
increases as wire size increases. The correct answer would be the one with a line that
goes steadily upward from left to right, and only the line in choice B does (exactly where
the values fall does not matter, because only one of the choices has a line trending the
right way).
(Test 68-2)
Question: 7
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) All this question is asking you to do is look at Table 1 and find the biggest number in
the (horizontal) 260 nm row. The biggest number in that row by a wide margin is 83.5,
which falls in the (vertical) Octyl Salicylate column. The fact that the numbers
represent percent transmittance of UV rays is explained in the text, rather than in Table
1 itself, but this is the only thing Table 1 measures, and the question tells you that the
answer is in Table 1.
Question: 8
Correct Answer: J
Explanation:
(J) This is a simple "Go Up, Hit Line, Go Over" question. The black line in Figure 1 is
higher at the point on the x-axis (horizontal) representing a wavelength of 340 nm than it
is at the points representing any of the other choices. Since the line in Figure 1 only
increases (it goes up and up but never down), another reliable method of getting the
answer would be to just look at the choices and pick the highest number.
Question: 9
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) The question asks about someone whose skin burns but also tans slowly.
"Gradually" is a synonym for "slowly," and so the question is likely asking about Skin
Type III, which Table 2 says Burns moderately, tans gradually. Although the
person could possibly have Skin Type II, the question is clearly indicating Skin Type III
as the preferable answer.
Question: 10
Correct Answer: G
Explanation:
(G) All you have to do here is look at Table 2 and list all the skin types identified
as sensitive or very sensitive. Skin Types I and II are identified as very sensitive, and
Skin Type III is identified as sensitive. You probably also already know from real life that
sunscreen should be worn by pale people, and so the answer is going to be the people
on the paler half of the table. (Remember, although the ACT Science does not require
real-life knowledge, the questions are always accurate, and so any real-life knowledge
you happen to have can be useful!)
Question: 11
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) This is one of those questions that require looking in two places. Figure 1
establishes that sunlight with an irradiance of 0.01 W/m 2/nm would have a wavelength
of a little more than 300 nm (because the black line at the 0.01 point on the y-axis is a
little past the 300 point on the x-axis). Then you look in Table 1 and see that the percent
transmittance for oxybenzone at a wavelength of 300 nm would be 4.2, and so the
answer is a little more than 4.2, in other words 5%.
(Test 75-1)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
(H) Student 1 closes by specifying that the image would be upright, whereas Student 2
closes by specifying that the image would be inverted. Therefore, the students disagree
about the image's orientation.
Question: 2
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) The fact that both students open by specifying the distance between the object and
the mirror, and then base their theories on it, shows that both know that the exact
positioning of the light bulb is important.
Question: 3
Correct Answer: F
Explanation:
(F) The teacher's information specifies that an object must be between F and the mirror
to appear upright, and the description of the magic trick specifies that F lies 1.6 m from
the mirror. Therefore, an object 1.0 m away would produce an upright image.
Question: 4
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) Student 2's explanation is perfectly accurate. The teacher's information specifies
that an object at C will produce an exact but inverted image. Furthermore, we remember
from choice B on question 35 that Student 2 was right about everything! (It is often the
case on the ACT Science that remembering earlier questions in a passage can help you
answer later ones!)
Question: 5
Correct Answer: F
Explanation:
(F) This is not true because F is in front of C, and an object at F will produce no image
at all (although an object at any point between C and the mirror aside from F will indeed
produce a larger image).
Question: 6
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) The teacher's information states that an object at F will produce no reflection, and
the description of the magic trick states that F is 1.6 m away.
Question: 7
Correct Answer: J
Explanation:
(J) The teacher's information states that objects placed beyond C will produce
reflections smaller than the objects themselves. The description of the magic trick states
that C is 2.2 m away. Therefore, an object at 2.5 m away will produce a reflection
smaller than itself.
(Test 75-2)
Question: 8
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) Look in Figure 3, which represents Static COF and the bar representing "Rubber on
concrete" is the highest—that's all you have to do here! The only slightly tricky thing is
that in Figure 2 (the graph for Kinetic COF) the bars for "Rubber on concrete" and
"Rubber on asphalt" appear to be nearly equal, so someone who looks in the wrong
place first might waste a few seconds being confused. (When you see something that
appears to make no sense, always immediately double-check the labels to make sure
you're looking at the right graph!)
Question: 9
Correct Answer: G
Explanation:
(G) Look at the numbers on the vertical axis in Figure 2 and you'll see that the "Rubber
on concrete" bar is at about 0.7 and the "Plastic on plastic" bar is at about 0.3. That's
roughly (though not exactly) half as high. (But even without the numbers, you can easily
just eyeball it—look at how far off the other answer choices are!)
Question: 10
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(D) All this question wants you to do is look at Figure 3 (Static COF) and put the bars in
order from lowest to highest. The order in choice D is correct.
Question: 11
Correct Answer: F
Explanation:
(F) Even though the bars for "Rubber on concrete" and "Rubber on asphalt" in Figure 2
look roughly even, the "Rubber on concrete" bar is actually slightly higher, and so the
height order of the bars in both graphs is indeed the same. (And even if you couldn't
perceive that it is slightly higher, look how wrong the other choices are!)
Question: 12
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) All this question is asking is which bar is the lowest (in both graphs). The bars
represent friction, and less friction equals more speed. The "Plastic on plastic" bar is
lowest in both graphs.
(Test 81-1)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
(D) This is an "extrapolation" question in which you are required to guess about an
unknown value based on the way the available data are trending. In Figure 2, we can
see that the ratio of velocity is always a value higher than the number of gliders, and by
increasing amounts: with one glider it is a bit above 1, with two gliders it is about
halfway above 2, and then with three gliders it is more than halfway above 3 and almost
to 4. At that rate, with four gliders it would definitely be closer to 5 than to 4 but 4 is
clearly the best answer.
Question: 2
Correct Answer: G
Explanation:
(G) The students record the gliders' positions every 0.5 seconds, which works out to 2
times per second .
Question: 3
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) The total distance decreased as the weights of the gliders increased. When Glider 4
(triple weight) was used, the total distance was .53 + .15 = .68 m. When Glider 2 was
used (single weight), the total distance was .51 + .52 = 1.03 m.
Question: 4
Correct Answer: G
Explanation:
(G) The distance traveled was the Glider 4 position at t = 1.5 sec – the position at
time t = 0 sec .86 m – .80 m = .06 m.
Question: 5
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
(C) Comparisons of the positions of the gliders at t = 0 was identical in each case: .80 m
– .75 m = .05 m.
(Test 85-1)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) Look at Table 1. The second row displays the data for the bob with a mass of 100 g.
The last column displays the average period. Follow the second row over to the last
column to find the number 1.83.
Question: 2
Correct Answer: F
Explanation:
(F) Look at Table 2. The longer the length of the string, the longer the average period; 1
m was the longest length of string tested, and the average period was 1.84 s. We can
deduce that if the string was 1.4 m, then the average period would be greater than 1.84
s.
Question: 3
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) Look at Table 1. The first column shows the mass of the bob tested. As the column
for each trial shows, as well as the average period, the larger the mass of the bob, the
longer the period.
Question: 4
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
(H) Figure 2 displays the affect that changing the amplitude of the pendulum has on the
average period. Each column in the figure is roughly the same size, meaning that
regardless of the amplitude, the average period is about the same. We can deduce that
pendulums A and B would have about the same average period.
Question: 5
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
(B) Look at Table 2. The third column displays the results for Trial 2. Look at the second
row down that displays the results for the string with a length of 0.6 m. The table shows
1.44 s as the period recorded.
Question: 6
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
(H) Based on the information in the text preceding the explanation of the experiments,
and the descriptions of the experiments and results displayed, it can be determined that
the mass of the bob, the length of the string, and the swing amplitude were all varied.
(Test 89-1)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
B Look up the values on Figure 5. When the cannonball is launched at 150 ft/sec, the
cannonball lands at 650 feet. When the cannonball is launched at 135 ft/sec, the
cannonball lands at 500 feet. Choices (C) and (D) are both trap answers, wrong
because they are the values for the two different launch speeds. Choice (B) is correct
because the cannonball lands 150 feet farther. Note that the values given in the
question of 5 feet and 30° are the constants used; Figure 1 and the information in Study
1 clarify that these were the values used for all the speeds.
Question: 2
Correct Answer: J
Explanation:
J Read if and when you can't answer a question from the figures. The information in
Study 1 states that the change in q was photographed every 0.25 seconds, or 4 times
per second.
Question: 3
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
A Look up the values on Figure 4. When the cannonball is launched at 180 ft/sec, it
reached a maximum height of 120 feet and traveled 450 feet. Choices (B), (C), and (D)
are all wrong because the distances are too far away to travel over the 40-ft wall. Note
that the values given in the question of 5 feet and 30° are the constants used; Figure 1
and the information in Study 1 clarify that these were the values used for all the speeds.
Question: 4
Correct Answer: J
Explanation:
J Look up the trends on Figure 4. As speed increases, both the h and the r increase.
Question: 5
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
A Look up the values on Figure 5. When the cannonball is launched at 135 ft/sec, it
lands (a h of 0) in between 4 and 5 seconds. Note that the values given in the question
of 5 feet and 30° are the constants used; Figure 1 and the information in Study 1 clarify
that these were the values used for all the speeds.
Question: 6
Correct Answer: G
Explanation:
G The = distance the radar pulse travels is represented by d on Figure 3. A
roundtrip would equal 2d. Time = , (G). Choice (F) is wrong because it divides the
speed by twice the distance. Choices (H) and (J) are wrong because r represents the
distance of the ball, not the radar pulse.
(Test 90-2)
Question: 7
Correct Answer: J
Explanation:
J The ball is moving at Points X and Y, but it stops at Point Z, meaning that its velocity
at that point is 0, thus eliminating (F) and (G), which suggest that there is a slower
velocity at Point X than at Point Z. Then, there are two ways to differentiate between
Points X and Y. If you use the chart, you can see that Point X has a uniformly higher
kinetic energy than Point Y, meaning its velocity is uniformly higher. If you use the
figure, you can see that the velocity at Point X will be approximately the same as the
ball's initial velocity, where its velocity on Point Y will be a bit slower after the ball has
had to climb the ramp. In either case, the order of the velocities from slowest to fastest
will be Point Z, Point Y, and Point X, as listed in (J).
Question: 8
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
D According to the text above Table 1, ME refers to the sum of the PE and KE at any
given time. However, the question asks about ME at the point immediately before
climbing the ramp, or Point X. According to the chart, the KE at Point X in this trial is
29.1 J. The sum of this number and any other cannot be less than 29.1 J, thus making
(D) the only possible answer and suggesting that there is no PE at Point X.
Question: 9
Correct Answer: F
Explanation:
F According to Table 1, the potential energy at Point Y increases as q increases. Trials
1–3 vary only these two variables, so it can be inferred that if q is 50°, the potential
energy at Point Y will be greater than 12.6 J, (F).
Question: 10
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
B Use the text to translate this question. The coefficient of friction is listed in the table as
m, and the minimum distance of Point W from Point X required for the bowling ball to
barely reach Point Z is listed in the table as d. Using Trials 3–5, then, we can see that
as m increases, d decreases, making (B) the only possible answer.
Question: 11
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
H Mechanical energy is described as the sum of [the ball's] kinetic and potential
energies at any given point. Use the trials given in the chart. In Trial 1, the kinetic
energy at Point X was 28.1 J, while the kinetic energy at Point Y was 17.5 J, and the
potential energy at Point Y was 6.7 J. There is a change in the amount of energy from
Point X (28.1 J) to that of Point Y (24.2 J), suggesting that some mechanical energy
must have been lost. This same disparity can be seen in all five trials, as (H) suggests.
(Test 91-2)
Question: 6
Correct Answer: J
Explanation:
J According to Table 3, as the solenoid length of XY decreases, the weight increases.
The text above the graph indicates that these weights were found at a voltage of 8.00 V.
In Experiment 1, the weight at a voltage of 8.00 V is 5.0095 N, which is less than any
given in Table 3. Because this weight is less, the solenoid coil in Experiment 1 must
have had a greater length than any of those listed in Experiment 3, or greater than 9.50
cm, as (J) suggests.
Question: 7
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
B Experiment 2 inverts the orientation of the bar magnet in Experiment 1. This variation
caused a different trend. In Table 1, as voltage increased, weight increased. In Table 2,
as voltage increased, weight decreased. The direction of the force must therefore have
been different, as (B) suggests.
Question: 8
Correct Answer: J
Explanation:
J According to Table 3, as the solenoid length of XY decreases, the weight increases.
The voltage is not be altered, thus eliminating (F) and (G). Choice (J) accurately
describes the trends in the graph.
Question: 9
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
C Experiment 3's data is taken at 8.00 V. Compare the 8.00 V values in Experiments 1
and 2. In Experiment 1, the weight at 8.00 V is 5.0095 N, and in Experiment 2, the
weight at 8.00 V is 4.9905 N. This is a decrease of approximately 0.02 N. Therefore, if
the orientation of the magnet matches that of Experiment 2 rather than Experiment 1,
the weight should be approximately 0.02 N less than the 5.0105 N value given in the
chart. Choice (C) offers the closest value.
Question: 10
Correct Answer: J
Explanation:
J According to the text above Experiment 1, before the start of each trial, the scale read
4.7 N. Then, the scale was adjusted to read 5.0000 N. The scale was therefore adjusted
upward by approximately 0.3 N, as (J) suggests.
Question: 11
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
B According to Table 3, as the solenoid length of XY decreases, the weight increases.
Choices (A) and (D) can be eliminated because they show direct relationships rather
than inverse ones. Then, the weights in Table 3 are closer to 5.0200 N than they are to
0 N, so the data shown in (B) is more accurate.
(Test 95)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The best answer is A. If heat were to flow from the water in the capsule to the
surrounding oven, the heat flow would be negative because the water is losing energy.
The only trial among the choices in which this occurred is Trial I, answer choice A (Trial
1: -94 J/s).
Question: 2
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
The best answer is H. If the best insulators are those that are the poorest heat
conductors, material with the lowest heat flow are the best insulators. Of the four
answer choices, asbestos has the lowest heat flow, so it is the best insulator.
Question: 3
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The best answer is D. According to Table 1, heat flowed at a rate of 59 J/s when 1.0
inch of cellulose was used as an insulator. This is the greatest flow rate among the
combinations shown in the answer choices.
Question: 4
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
The best answer is H. The thermal conductivity for fiberglass at 1.0 in. and 1.5 in. is 38
J/s and 32 J/s, respectively. The thermal conductivity for cellulose at 1.0 in. and 1.5 in.
is 59 and 45 J/s, respectively. The results show that cellulose has a higher conductivity
than fiberglass and proves answer choice H is NOT true. Therefore, answer choice H is
the correct answer.
Question: 5
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The best answer is D. Trials 3 and 5 both had the same insulation material, initial
temperature, and oven temperature; however, they had different heat flows. The only
condition that was varied between the two trials was the thickness of the insulator. This
suggests that heat flow depends on the thickness of the insulating material, answer
choice D.
(Test 96)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: G
Explanation:
The best answer is G. According to Tables 1 and 2, as the mass of the object increases
(going down the column) for each brand, the average force required to move the object
also increases. In other words, there is a direct relationship.
Question: 2
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The best answer is C. Table 1 shows that for brand B cookware, when the mass of the
weighted object was 150 g and 250 g, the average force required to move the object
was 0.090 N and 0.147 N, respectively. Because 200 g is in between 150 g and 250 g,
you would expect the force needed to move an object that has a mass of 200 g to be
between 0.090 and 0.147 N. Answer choice C (0.12 N) is the only answer choice within
this range.
Question: 3
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
The best answer is H. The results from Table 1 show that brand C cookware has the
smallest coefficient of static friction. The results from Table 2 show that brand Y cooking
spray has the smallest coefficient of static friction. This information suggests that these
two brands, if combined, would result in the surface with the least coefficient of static
frictio
Question: 4
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
The best answer is B. Table 2 shows the results of Experiment 2. In the table, brands X
and Y were both tested with 50 g, 150 g, and 250 g objects. Brand Z, however, was only
tested with 150 g and 250 g objects.
Question: 5
Correct Answer: J
Explanation:
The best answer is J. The Experiment states: The students planned to calculate the
coefficient of static friction by determining the force required to disturb an object from
rest.
Question: 6
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The best answer is A. According to Table 1, brand B cookware had an average force of
0.090 N for the 150 g weight and 0.147 N for the 250 g weight. These results are the
closest to the results the students obtained when their instructor gave them the new
piece of nonstick cookware.
(Test 100)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The best answer is A. If Experiment 1 were repeated with a length of 4 m, the
movement time for the wood block would be expected to be greater than the time
measured for 2 m (1.64 s). The only answer choice with a time greater than this is
answer choice A.
Question: 2
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
The best answer is H. According to Table 2, the plastic object in Experiment 2 took an
average of 1.41s to move down the inclined plane. This time is closest to the average
time of 1.42 s in Table 3. The object rating of the object with an average time of 1.42 s
is 13. Because the plastic object's time is just below the time in Table 3, it would most
likely have an object rating of between 9 and 13, answer choice H.
Question: 3
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The best answer is A. The students rated objects on a scale from 5 (least friction) to 30
(most friction). In order for the chair to move more easily across a floor, the material
must have a low friction rating. Therefore, a material with an object rating of 5 (the least
amount of friction) would move most easily across a floor.
Question: 4
Correct Answer: J
Explanation:
The best answer is J. In Experiment 1, the volume of each of the blocks of material was
750 cm3. In Experiment 2, the mass of each of the blocks of material was 1500 g. The
difference between the two experiments is that, in Experiment 1 volume was held
constant, while in Experiment 2 mass was held constant. The correct answer is answer
choice J.
Question: 5
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
The best answer is B. If the loss in speed due to friction leads to longer travel time down
the inclined plane, to rank objects in order of increasing loss in speed due to friction you
must rank them in order of increasing time. Answer choice B is correct because glass
(1.31 s) < aluminum (1.35 s) < wood (1.69 s) < concrete (2.47 s).
Question: 6
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
The best answer is H. To answer this question compare the average times listed for
each block in Tables 1 and 2. When the volume is increased, the average time goes up
for some blocks and down for others.
(Test 104)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The best answer is C. The average speed on asphalt was 14.7 ft/s, which is higher than
the other surfaces.
Question: 2
Correct Answer: J
Explanation:
The best answer is J. According to Table 1, the average speed on asphalt was 14.7 ft/s,
which is less than the 14.8 ft/s speed measured in Trial 3.
Question: 3
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The best answer is A. To answer this question, solve each answer choice and see
which answer is correct.
A: 14.8 = 9.87 ft/s (speed in the rough)

B: 14.8 = 4.93 ft/s (speed on the fairway)
C: 12.7 = 8.47 ft/s (speed in the rough)
D: 9.4 = 6.27 ft/s (speed on asphalt)

Therefore, the average speed of the cart in the rough is approximately two-thirds of the
average speed of the cart on asphalt, answer choice A.
Question: 4
Correct Answer: F
Explanation:
The best answer is F. In a scientific experiment or study, the independent variable is the
factor that is changed by the experimenter. Each study was conducted using a different
surface, so the surface upon which the golf cart was driven was the independent
variable. The factor being studied or observed is the dependent variable. Whether it
changes depends on the manipulation of one or more independent variables.
Question: 5
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The best answer is C. The slowest travel of all of the studies and trials was recorded in
Table 3, Trial 2: 55.4 seconds.
(Test 111)
Question: 1
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. According to Figure 2, tap water has a viscosity of
approximately 1.0, while Motor Oil A has a viscosity of approximately 20.0. Additionally,
the results of Experiments 1 and 2 show that the general flow rate of Motor Oil A is
lower than that of tap water.
Question: 2
Correct Answer: G
Explanation:
The correct answer is G. The results of Experiment 1 show that, as the angle of the pipe
increases, the velocity of flow increases as well. Therefore, there is a direct relationship.
Question: 3
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. According to the passage, "Laminar flow is common only in
cases in which the flow channel is relatively small, the fluid is moving slowly, and
its viscosity (the degree to which a fluid resists flow under an applied force) is relatively
high." This information best supports answer choice B, because the pipe diameter is
small, the fluid is moving slowly, and Motor Oil B has the highest viscosity of the liquids
tested.
Question: 4
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. According to the passage, Motor Oil B has the highest
viscosity, followed by Motor Oil A, followed by tap water. The tables indicate that Motor
Oil B has the slowest flow rates, Motor Oil A has slightly faster flow rates, and tap water
has the fastest flow rates, overall. This information best supports answer choice C.
Question: 5
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. According to Table 1, the flow rate of a pipe at a 30° angle with
a diameter of 0.25 was 4.0 ft/s, while the flow rate of a pipe at a 30° angle with a
diameter of 0.50 was 9.0 ft/s. Therefore, a pipe with a diameter between 0.25 and 0.50
would likely have a flow rate between 4.0 ft/s and 9.0 ft/s. Only answer choice A fits
within these parameters.
Question: 6
Correct Answer: H
Explanation:
The correct answer is H. The three experiments varied only in the type of liquid being
used—tap water, Motor Oil A, or Motor Oil B. All of the other factors listed were identical
in each experiment.

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ACT Crack Physics Answers

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Made By: Shahd A.

times per second .

G The = distance the radar pulse travels is represented by d on Figure 3. A

A: 14.8 = 9.87 ft/s (speed in the rough)

B: 14.8 = 4.93 ft/s (speed on the fairway)

C: 12.7 = 8.47 ft/s (speed in the rough)

D: 9.4 = 6.27 ft/s (speed on asphalt)

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